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Question Booklet Sl. No., , 102/21, Question Booklet Alpha Code, , A, Total Number of Questions : 100, , Time : 75 Minutes, Maximum Marks : 100, , INSTruCTIoNS To CANdIdATeS, 1. The Question Paper will be given in the form of a Question Booklet. There will be four, versions of Question Booklets with Question Booklet Alpha Code viz. A, B, C & d., 2. The Question Booklet Alpha Code will be printed on the top left margin of the facing sheet, of the Question Booklet., 3. The Question Booklet Alpha Code allotted to you will be noted in your seating position in, the Examination Hall., 4. If you get a Question Booklet where the alpha code does not match to the allotted alpha, code in the seating position, please draw the attention of the Invigilator ImmEdIATEly., 5. The Question Booklet Serial Number is printed on the top right margin of the facing sheet. If your, Question Booklet is un-numbered, please get it replaced by new Question Booklet with same, alpha code., 6. The Question Booklet will be sealed at the middle of the right margin. Candidate should, not open the Question Booklet, until the indication is given to start answering., 7. Immediately after the commencement of the examination, the candidate should check that, the Question Booklet supplied to him/her contains all the 100 questions in serial order. The, Question Booklet does not have unprinted or torn or missing pages and if so he/she should, bring it to the notice of the Invigilator and get it replaced by a complete booklet with same alpha, code. This is most important., 8. A blank sheet of paper is attached to the Question Booklet. This may be used for rough, work., 9. Please read carefully all the instructions on the reverse of the Answer Sheet before, marking your answers., 10. Each question is provided with four choices (A), (B), (C) and (d) having one correct answer., Choose the correct answer and darken the bubble corresponding to the question number, using Blue or Black Ball Point Pen in the OmR Answer Sheet., 11. each correct answer carries 1 mark and for each wrong answer 1/3 mark will be, deducted. No negative mark for unattended questions., 12. No candidate will be allowed to leave the examination hall till the end of the session and, without handing over his/her Answer Sheet to the Invigilator. Candidates should ensure, that the Invigilator has verified all the entries in the Register Number Coding Sheet and, that the Invigilator has affixed his/her signature in the space provided., 13. Strict compliance of instructions is essential. Any malpractice or attempt to commit any, kind of malpractice in the Examination will result in the disqualification of the candidate., -1-, , A, , A

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102/21, , A, , -2-

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102/21, 1. An axial tensile force is acting on a body and normal strain in axial direction is, 1.2 mm/m. If Poisson’s ratio is 0.32, what will be the columetric strain ?, A) 3.32 × 10–4, , B) 4.32 × 10–4, , C) 5.32 × 10–4, , d) 6.32 × 10–4, , 2. The major and minor principal stresses at a point are 2.5 mPa and – 2.0 mPa, respectively. The maximum shear force at the point is, A) Zero, B) 0.25 mPa, C) 2.05 mPa, d) 2.25 mPa, 3. A cantilever beam of 5 m carries a uniformly distributed load of 10 kN/m throughout, the span. What is the maximum bending moment ?, A) 125 kNm, B) 150 kNm, C) 175 kNm, d) 200 kNm, 4. A simply supported beam of span l is subjected to a concentrated load of W at its, mid span and a uniformly distributed load of equality W. What is the total deflection, of the beam at midpoint ?, B) 5Wl3/384 EI, A) Wl3/384 EI, d) 48Wl3/384 EI, C) 13Wl3/384 EI, 5. Slenderness ratio is the ratio of effective length to, A) Actual length, B) Radius of gyration, C) Factor of safety, d) direct stress, 6. The fixed end moment of a uniform beam of span l and fixed at its ends subjected, to a uniformly distributed load of intensity w/unit length is, B) wl2/10, C) wl2/12, d) 5wl2/12, A) wl2/8, 7. What is the maximum positive shear force at the quarter span at section C from, left end when a uniformly distributed load longer than the span of intensity 20 kN/m, crosses the span of 12 m ?, A) 50 kN, B) 57.5 kN, C) 60 kN, d) 67.5 kN, 8. The horizontal thrust of a two hinged arch which carries a uniformly distributed load, of w/unit run over its entire span. The span is l and rise h., B) 8wl2/h, C) wl2/4h, d) 4wl2/h, A) wl2/8h, , A, , -3-

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102/21, 9. The point of contraflexure is the point where, A) Shear forces changes the sign, B) Shear force minimum, C) Bending moment changes the sign, d) Bending moment maximum, 10. In moment distribution method, the sum of distribution factors of all the members, meeting at any joint is always, A) Zero, B) less than 1, C) 1, d) Greater than 1, 11. What is the depth of a point below water surface in sea where the pressure intensity, is 1.006 mPa ? Take specific gravity of sea water = 1.026 and specific weight of, water as 9810 N/m3., A) Zero, B) 9.81 m, C) 49.05 m, d) 100 m, 12. A uniform wooden cylinder has a specific gravity of 0.8. Find the ratio of submerged, height to length of the cylinder so that it will just float upright in a state of neutral, equilibrium in water., A) 0.4, B) 0.53, C) 0.8, d) 1.0, 13. Which one of velocity component sets given below satisfies the continuity equation ?, A) u = 2x; v = – 2y, , B) u = x + y; v = x – y, , 2x2, , D) None of the above, , C) u =, , + y; v = 4x – y, , 14. A triangular V-notch channel is conveying a discharge of 0.7 m3/s. If the percentage, error in measuring the head is 1.2%, the percentage error in discharge is, A) 1.2%, , B) 1.4%, , C) 2.2%, , d) 3.0%, , 15. The number of buckets on the periphery of a Pelton wheel is, (Where d – mead diameter of the Pelton Wheel, d – least diameter of jet), A), , d, +5, d, , B), , d, +5, 2d, , C), , d, + 15, 2d, , d), , d, + 20, 2d, , 16. The maximum average depth due to one day storm over an area of 100 km2 is 15 cm., depth-area-duration curve indicates that for the same area, maximum average depth, for a 3 hours storm will be, A) 7.5 cm, B) less than 7.5 cm, C) 15 cm, d) more than 15 cm, , A, , -4-

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102/21, 17. If the depth is 7.24 cm on a field over a base period of 12 days, then the duty is, A) 100 hectare per cumec, B) 1242 hectare per cumec, C) 1432 hectare per cumec, d) 1724 hectare per cumec, 18. The intensity of irrigation is the, A) Percentage of gross command area to be irrigated annually, B) Percentage of culturable command area to be irrigated annually, C) Percentage of minimum land area to be irrigated annually, d) Percentage of total land area to be irrigated annually, 19. A channel designed by lacey’s theory has a velocity of 1.5 m/s. If the silt factor is, 1.0, then the hydraulic mean radius of the channel is, A) 3.75 m, B) 4.25 m, C) 4.50 m, d) 4.75 m, 20. Total capacity of a reservoir is 8000000 m3 and dead storage is 8000 m3. If average, volume of sediment deposition is 100 m3/year, the usefullness of the reservoir will, start reducing after, A) 20 years, B) 40 years, C) 80 years, d) 160 years, 21. The value of property or structure becomes less, by its becoming out of date in style,, in structural design etc., which is termed as, A) Capital cost, B) Salvage value, C) Obsolescence, d) loss of rent, 22. Book value is the amount shown in the account book after allowing necessary, A) Taxes, B) Scrap value, C) depreciation, d) loss of rent, 23. The Polar axis of earth is shorter than Equatorial axis by, A) 42.95 m, B) 95.42 m, C) 43.5 km, d) 142.95 km, 24. Error due to atmospheric refraction is known as _______ in levelling., A) Instrumental error, B) Natural error, C) Personal error, d) Error in sighting, , A, , -5-

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102/21, 25. _______ is a branch of angular surveying in which the horizontal and vertical distances, of points are obtained by optical means., A) Resection, B) Traversing, C) Tacheometry, d) Radiation, 26. In the case of Prismoidal formula, it is necessary to have _______ number of sectional, areas., A) Even numbers, B) Odd numbers, C) maximum 100, d) minimum 3, 27. The amount of money including whole annual interest at the prevailing rate of interest,, which is equal to the net income from the property is, A) Capitalised value, C) Annuity, , B) Reteable value, d) Book value, , 28. A person who takes the lease is known as, A) leaser, B) lessee, C) Owner, d) Short term owner, 29. minimum grade of Concrete for RCC as per IS 456 : 2000 is, A) m10, , B) m15, , C) m20, , d) m25, , 30. minimum Cement content required for m20 grade concrete in RCC is, A) 260 kg/m3, , B) 300 kg/m3, , C) 320 kg/m3, , d) 340 kg/m3, , 31. Which of the phases in the concrete microstructure exercise the greatest influence, on mechanical properties of the concrete ?, A) Coarse aggregate, B) Interfacial transition zone, C) Hydrated cement paste, d) Fine aggregate, 32. Needle shaped solids which appear during the hydration of cement in its microstructure, level is called, A) Ettringite, B) Belite, C) Calcium Silicate Hydrate, d) Calcium Hydroxide, 33. Slump value for concrete, accepted for ordinary RCC work is, A) 150 mm, B) 25 mm, C) 30 mm, , A, , -6-, , d) 100 mm

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102/21, 34. Which of these cracks are due to externally applied loads and not intrinsic to concrete ?, A) Plastic Cracks, B) Early Age Thermal Cracks, C) drying Shrinkage Cracks, d) None of the above, 35. Among tests used for finding tensile strength of concrete, which of the following test, will give largest numerical value ?, A) direct tension test, B) Split tensile test, C) Flexure test, d) All of the above show the same result, 36. maximum carbon content for medium carbon steel, A) 0.7%, B) 0.8%, C) 0.9%, d) 1%, 37. The vertical component of a panelled door on which the lock and aldrop is placed is, called, A) lock Rail, B) lock Style, C) lock Panel, d) mid Rail, 38. As per IS 399:1963 “Classification of Commercial Timbers and Their Zonal, distribution”, weight per cubic metre of various timber is standardised at ____, moisture content., A) 6%, B) 8%, C) 10%, d) 12%, 39. In Ordinary Portland Cement, compounds in decreasing order of percentage, composition, A) C3S>C2S>C3A>C4AF, , B) C2S>C3S>C3A>C4AF, , C) C2S>C3S>C4AF>C3A, , d) C3S>C2S>C4AF>C3A, , 40. Innermost Central Portion of a tree is, A) Pith, C) Sapwood, , A, , B) Heartwood, d) Cambium layer, -7-

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102/21, 41. during the setting and early hardening period (first 24 hrs.) of Portland cement, the, Heat liberation Rate, A) Increases linearly from zero to peak, B) Peaks at the start, then decreases before increasing again to second peak and, then decreasing again, C) Starts near zero at the start and gradually increases to peak and then, decreases, d) Peaks at the start, then keeps decreasing, 42. Which of the following is not a mineral admixture ?, A) Fly ash, B) Silica fume, C) Rice husk ash, d) Superplasticizer, 43. In ferrocement construction, what is the reinforcement ?, A) 8 mm rod, B) 6 mm rod, C) 4 mm rod, d) Wire-mesh, 44. Out of Court dispute resolution in construction project, does not include, A) Arbitration, B) Conciliation, C) mediation, d) litigation, 45. TmT in TmT steel bar stands for, A) Thermo mechanically Treated, B) Twisted mild Tempered, C) Temperature maintained Twisted, d) Torsion maintained and Treated, 46. The following is not the direct cost of accident, A) medical care expense, B) Insurance premium, C) Workman’s compensation cost, d) Cost of slowdown in operation, 47. The compound responsible for early setting time of cement is, A) Tricalcium aluminate, B) dicalcium silicate, C) Tricalcium silicate, d) Tetracalcium aluminoferrite, 48. In construction material management and procurement, what is the planned wastage, for cement ?, A) 2%, B) 5%, C) 10%, d) 3%, , A, , -8-

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102/21, 49. Which of the following is not related to Quality Assurance in Construction ?, A) Concrete mix design, B) Sampling testing of steel, C) Testing of cement, d) Sampling of concrete during placing, 50. Total indirect cost of a project includes, A) Overheads + Outage Loss + Labour Charge, B) Overheads + Outage Loss, C) Outage Loss + Managerial Cost, D) Stationary Cost + Office Cost, 51. As per IS 456, ‘pedestal’ is a vertical compression member whose effective length is, A) less than two times its least lateral dimension, B) less than three times its least lateral dimension, C) less than four times its least lateral dimension, d) less than twelve times its least lateral dimension, 52. Shear strength of a reinforced concrete beam depends on, A) Steel reinforcement, B) Area of cross section, C) Grade of concrete, d) All the above, 53. As per IS 456, the maximum cross-sectional area of longitudinal bars in an RCC, column with gross area Ag is, A) 6% of Ag, , B) 5% of Ag, , C) 3% of Ag, , d) 1% of Ag, , 54. For footings, concrete sections of thickness greater than 1 m, the nominal reinforcement, per metre length in each direction on each face shall be, B) 380 mm2, C) 400 mm2, d) 420 mm2, A) 360 mm2, 55. For limit state method of design, the permissible bearing stress on full area of concrete, shall be, A) 0.25 fck, , B) 0.30 fck, , C) 0.35 fck, , d) 0.45 fck, , 56. The ratio of design strength of a tied reinforced RCC column to a spiral reinforced, RCC column is, A) 0.95, , A, , B) 1.0, , C) 1.10, -9-, , d) 1.15

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102/21, 57. For a column with diameter 180 mm and reinforcing bars 12 mm, minimum possible, clear cover is, A) 20 mm, B) 25 mm, C) 30 mm, d) 40 mm, 58. As per IS 456 the structure shall have a factor of safety against sliding not less, than, A) 1.2, B) 1.3, C) 1.4, d) 1.5, 59. For braced columns, the effective length is between, A) l and 2l, B) 0.5l and 2l, C) 0.5l and l, d) 0.5l and 1.5l, 60. An RCC water tank to be designed for a volume of 25 m3, not located in coastal area., As per Indian standards, the minimum possible grade of concrete is, A) m20, B) m25, C) m30, d) m35, 61. As per IS 3370, parts of RCC structure retaining the liquid or enclosing the space, above the liquid shall be considered as subject to at least, A) mild exposure condition, B) moderate exposure condition, C) Severe exposure condition, d) Very severe exposure condition, 62. The minimum reinforcement required for RCC tank walls, using mild steel is, A) 0.64%, , B) 0.35%, , C) 0.15%, , d) 0.12%, , 63. The minimum eccentricity to be considered in the design of a long RCC column is, A) 25 mm, B) 20 mm, C) 10 mm, d) 5 mm, 64. For pre-tensioned prestressed concrete, the grade of concrete shall be not less, than, A) m45, B) m40, C) m35, d) m30, 65. Which of the following is not a cause for immediate loss in the case of prestressed, concrete ?, , A, , A) Elastic shortening, , B) Friction, , C) Anchorage slip, , d) Relaxation, -10-

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102/21, 66. A post-tensioned prestressed concrete beam consists of a single tendon of area, 100 mm2. If the stress in concrete at the level of steel is 6 N/mm2 and modular ratio, is 6, the loss in prestress due to elastic shortening is, B) 36 N/mm2, A) 6 N/mm2, d) 0 N/mm2, C) 1 N/mm2, 67. The level of prestressing in a beam is such that no tensile stress is allowed in concrete, under service loads. As per IS : 1343 classification, the beam is, A) Type 1, B) Type 2, C) Type 3, d) Type 4, 68. In a bolted connection, the centre-to-centre distance between individual fasteners in, a line, in the direction of load is called, A) Gauge distance, B) Edge distance, C) Pitch, d) limiting distance, 69. As per IS 800, the partial safety factor for materials γm is in the range, A) 1.1 to 1.5, B) 1.0 to 1.25, C) 1.25 to 2.0, d) 1.0 to 1.5, 70. When the length of a connection increases, the shear lag effect, A) Increases, B) Reduces, C) Has no change, d) None of the above, 71. Geometric increase method of population forecasting is based on the assumption that, A) Growth rate is progressively increasing, B) Growth rate is constant, C) Percentage growth rate is increasing, d) Percentage growth rate is constant, 72. Hardy-Cross Method consists of assuming a distribution of flow in the network in, such a way that, A) The principle of continuity is satisfied at each joint, B) The principle of continuity is satisfied at each junction, C) There can be discontinuity in pressure, d) There can be discontinuity in velocity, , A, , -11-

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102/21, 73. In Slow Sand Filters the effective size of filter sand ranges between, A) 4 to 4.75 mm, B) 2 to 4 mm, C) 0.2 to 0.4 mm, d) 0.05 to 0.1 mm, 74. The equalization tanks are provided, A) To balance the head loss, B) For removing bigger suspended matter in sewage, C) To balance fluctuating flows or concentrations, d) None of the above, 75. Which of the following is not a method for disinfection ?, A) Boiling, B) Ozone treatment, C) Chlorination, d) Flocculation, 76. Population equivalent is a measure of, A) Population growth, B) Purity of water, C) Strength of sewage, d) None of the above, 77. Aquatic life in a stream begin to be reduced as dissolved oxygen drops below, A) 0.4 mg/l, B) 4 mg/l, C) 10 mg/l, d) 12 mg/l, 78. Capacity of a primary settling tank to treat a sewage of 12 million litres per day, by, assuming a detention period of 2 hours is, B) 100 m3, A) 200 m3, C) 2000 m3, d) 1000 m3, 79. In an Imhoff tank, the incoming sewage is, A) Allowed to mix with settled sludge, B) Not allowed to mix with settled sludge, C) Allowed to mix with activated sludge, d) Not allowed to mix with activated sludge, , A, , -12-

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102/21, 80. In an upflow anaerobic sludge blanket reactor, the ratio of reactor volume (V) to flow, rate (Q) is called, A) Hydraulic Retention Time, B) Solid Retention Time, C) Sludge Retention Time, d) Blanket Retention Time, 81. Determine the coefficient of permeability of soil (mm/s) in a constant head permeability, test, in which the distance between piezometer tappings is 120 mm, area of the test, sample is 100 mm2 and the difference of water levels in the piezometers is 60 mm., 600 ml of water is collected in 300 seconds during the test., A) 0.01, B) 0.04, C) 0.06, d) 0.09, 82. Find the effective stress at the bottom of a sand deposit of thickness 8 m. Water, table is at the middle of the sand deposit. Take γ = 18 kN/m3, γsat = 20 kN/m3,, γw = 10 kN/m3., A) 152, B) 132, C) 112, d) 102, 83. A clay layer 6 m thick is subjected to a pressure of 60 kN/m2. If the layer has a double, drainage and undergoes 50% consolidation in one year, determine the coefficient of, consolidation in m2/year. Take Tv = 0.196., A) 1.764, B) 1.250, C) 0.112, d) 0.156, 84. Taylor’s stability charts are based on the total stresses using, A) Bishop’s method, B) Friction circle method, C) j = 0 analysis, D) None of the above, 85. Curve joining points of equal stress intensity, A) Isotones, B) Isochrones, C) Isohyets, d) Isobars, 86. What is the intensity of vertical stress in kN/m2 below a point load of 500 kN at a, depth of 5 m ?, A) 8.54, B) 10.43, C) 9.55, d) 6.22, 87. determine the total lateral earth pressure at rest in kN on a retaining wall of height, 5 m. Take γsoil = 17 kN/m3 and k0 = 0.5. Assume water table is below 5 m., A) 106.25, B) 110.54, C) 102.32, d) 115.12, , A, , -13-

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102/21, 88. Which of the following are wrong among the assumptions of Terzaghi’s bearing, capacity theory ?, i. Base footing is smooth., ii. Footing is laid at a shallow depth., iii. Footing is short, i.e. : L/B ratio is finite., A) (i) only, , B) (ii) and (iii), , C) (i) and (iii), , d) (i) and (ii), , 89. Which of the following assumption is wrong for the design of a strap footing ?, A) Strap is perfectly rigid, B) Interior footing is eccentrically loaded, C) Strap is weightless, d) Soil pressure is uniform beneath each individual footing, 90. Vibroflotation technique is best suited for compacting, A) Clays, B) Silts, C) loose sandy soil, d) Organic soils, 91. What is the lag distance required in meters to stop a vehicle moving at a design, speed of 60 kmph, if the reaction time of the driver is 2.5 seconds ?, A) 50.5, B) 45.8, C) 35.5, d) 41.7, 92. If a road has a width of 7 m on a horizontal curve of radius 200 m, what is the, mechanical widening required in meters on the curve ? Assume longest wheel base, as 6 m., A) 0.12, B) 0.18, C) 0.35, d) 0.43, 93. What is the test temperature of ductility test of bitumen ?, A) 27° C, B) 25° C, C) 5° C, , d) 40° C, , 94. If the mean of the maximum daily temperature is 47.54° C and mean of the average, daily temperature is 25.25° C for the hottest month of the year, what is the Airport, Reference Temperature ?, A) 40.25° C, B) 39.50° C, C) 27.15° C, d) 32.68° C, , A, , -14-

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102/21, 95. What is the equilibrium cant in cm required for a 5° curve meter Gauge track, if the, maximum speed permitted is V kmph ?, B) V2/436.88, A) V2/450.12, d) V2/420.12, C) V2/425.11, 96. CBR method of flexible pavement design is based on, A) Strength parameter of subgrade soil, B) Design traffic, C) Both A) and B), d) None of the above, 97. What is the basic capacity in veh./hr of a traffic lane with a design speed of 60 kmph, and stopping sight distance of 54 m, if the average length of vehicles is assumed as, 6m?, A) 500, B) 1500, C) 2000, d) 1000, 98. Which are the airplane rules adopted for height zoning ?, A) 45° and 63.5°, B) 43° and 62.5°, C) 42° and 61.5°, d) 40° and 60.5°, 99. Who gave the concept of “Garden City” with three magnets namely town magnet,, country magnet and a third magnet with attractive features of both town and country ?, A) Sir Ebenezer Howard, B) Sir Patrick Geddess, C) Clarence Stein, d) le Corbusier, 100. Taxiway markings are painted with _____________ colour., A) White, B) Red, C) Green, d) yellow, , A, , -15-

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102/21, Space for rough Work, , A, , -16-