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UNITWISE EVALUATION and, ADDITIONAL ONE MARK QUESTIONS, with ANSWER KEY, , 1

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1. METALLURGY, Choose the correct answer:, 1. Bauxite has the composition, a) Al2O3, , b) Al2O3.nH2O, , c) Fe2O3.2H2O, , d)None of these, , 2. Roasting of sulphide ore gives the gas (A).(A) is a colourless gas. Aqueous solution of (A), is acidic. The gas (A) is, a)CO2, , b)SO3, , c)SO2, , d)H2S, , 3. Which one of the following reaction represents calcinations?, a) 2Zn + O2 → 2ZnO, , b) 2ZnS + 3O2 → 2ZnO + 2SO2, , c) MgCO3 → MgO + CO2, , d) Both (a) and (c), , 4. The metal oxide which cannot be reduced to metal by carbon is, a) PbO, , b) Al2O3, , c) ZnO, , d) FeO, , 5. Which of the following statements, about the advantage of roasting of sulphide ore before, reduction is not true?, a) ΔGfo of sulphide is greater than those for CS2 and H2S ., b) ΔGro is negative for roasting of sulphide ore to oxide, c) Roasting of the sulphide to its oxide is thermodynamically feasible., d) Carbon and hydrogen are suitable reducing agents for metal sulphides, 6.Match items in column - I with the items of column – II and assign the correct code, Column – I, , Column – 2, , A, , B, , C, , D, , A Cyanide process, , (i) Ultrapure Ge, , a), , (i), , (ii), , (iii), , (iv), , B Froth flotation process, , (ii) Dressing of ZnS, , b), , (iii), , (iv), , (v), , (i), , C Electrolytic refining, , (iii) Extraction of Al, , c), , (iv), , (ii), , (iii), , (i), , D Zone refining, , (iv) Extraction of Au, , d), , (ii), , (iii), , (i), , (v), , (v) Purification of Ni, 7. Wolframite ore is separated from tinstone by the process of, a) Smelting, , b) Calcination, , c) Roasting, , d) Electromagnetic separation, , 8. Flux is a substance which is used to convert, a) Mineral into silicate, , b) Infusible impurities to soluble impurities, , c) Soluble impurities to infusible impurities, , d) All of these, 2

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9. Which one of the following ores is best concentrated by froth – floatation method?, a) Magnetite, , b) Hematite, , c) Galena, , d) Cassiterite, , 10. Zinc is obtained from ZnO by, a) Carbon reduction, , b) Reduction using silver, , c) Electrochemical process, , d) Acid leaching, , 11. Extraction of gold and silver involves leaching with cyanide ion. silver is later recovered By, a) Distillation, , b) Zone refining, , c) Displacement with zinc, , d) liquation, , 12.The following set of reactions are used in refining Zirconium, , a) Liquation, , b) van Arkel process, , c) Zone refining, , d) Mond’s process, , 13. Which of the following is used for concentrating ore in metallurgy?, a) Leaching, , b) Roasting, , c) Froth floatation, , d) Both (a) and (c), , 14. The incorrect statement among the following is, a) Nickel is refined by Mond’s process, , b) Titanium is refined by Van Arkel’s process, , c) Zinc blende is concentrated by froth floatation, d) In the metallurgy of gold, the metal is leached with dilute sodium chloride solution, 15. In the electrolytic refining of copper, which one of the following is used as anode?, a) Pure copper, , b) Impure copper, , c) Carbon rod, , d) Platinum electrode, , ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS :, 1.Which metal is used for extraction of Au and Ag and also for galvanization of iron object?, a)Mg, , b) Zn, , c)Cr, , d)Co, , 2.Which of the following is not a mineral of aluminium?, a)Bauxite, , b) Cryolite, , c) China clay, , d) Malachite, , 3.Name the process by which elements such as germanium ,silicon and galium are refined., a) Vapour phase method, , b) Electrolytic refining, , c) Zone refining, , d) Van–Arkel method., , 4.In the extraction of copper from its sulphide ore, the metal is finally obtained by the, reduction of cuprous oxide with, , a)Iron sulphide(FeS), , b) Carbon monoxide(CO), , c) Copper (I)sulphide (Cu2S) d) Sulphur dioxide (SO2), , 3

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5.Concentration of copper glance is done by, a) leaching, , b) magnetic separation, , c) froth flotation, , 6. Zone refining is based on a) fractional distillation, c) sublimation, , d) hydraulic washing, , b) simple distillation, d) fractional crystallization, , 7.The process of heating of copper pyrites to remove sulphur is called, a)froth flotation, , b)roasting, , c) calcination, , d) smelting, , 8.Malachite has ___________ composition., a) 2CuCO3.Cu(OH)2, , b) CuCO3Cu(OH)2, , 9.Zinc blende is ___________a)ZnS, , b) PbS, , c) Cu2O, , d) Cu2S, , c) Ag2S, , d) Cu2S, , 10.In acid leaching process, the insoluble sulphide is converted into soluble sulphate and, elemental ___________a)Carbon, , b) Lead, , c) Sulphur, , d) Zinc, , 11.In the metallurgy of iron, limestone is added to coke .which acts as a________, a) reducing agent, , b) oxidizing agent, , c) slag, , d) Flux, , 12.Froth flotation process is suitable for concentrating ___________ore., a) Oxide, , b) Carbonate, , c) Sulphide, , d)Halide, , 13.Metal oxide is converted into metal by, a) Calcination b) Roasting, , c) Smelting, , d) Bessemerisation, , 14. In froth floatation sodium ethyl Xanthate is used as a, a) Collector, , b) depressing agent, , c) frothing agent, , d) Flux, , 15. Which method is based on the solubility of the ore in a suitable solvent, a) Gravity separation b) Hydraulic wash, , c) Leaching, , d) Magnetic separation, , 16. Tin stone , Chromite and Pyrolusite are concentrated by ------------- process., a) Gravity separation b) Hydraulic wash, , c) Froth flotation d) Magnetic separation, , 17.The process of ore into metal oxide with absence of air is called, a) Oxidation, , b) Cementation, , c) Galvanization, , d) Calcination, , 18. Metals having low melting points such as tin, lead, mercury and bismuth are refined by, a) Distillation, , b) Liquation, , c) Electrolytic, , d) Zone refining, , 19. The complex formed when NaCN is added to galena in which ZnS is the impurity, a) 2Na[Zn(CN)4], , b) Na2[Zn(CN)4], , c) 2Zn[Na(CN)2], , d) Na4[Zn(CN)4], , 20. Depressing agents used to separate ZnS from PbS is, a) NaCN, , b) NaCl, , c) NaNO3, 4, , d) NaNO2

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21. Which type of leaching process convert insoluble sulphide ore into soluble sulphates?, a) cyanide leaching, , b) alkali leaching, , c) acid leaching, , d) hand picking, , 2. P BLOCK ELEMENTS – I, 1. An aqueous solution of borax is …………, (a) neutral, , (b) acidic, , (c) basic, , (d) amphoteric, , 2. Boric acid is an acid because its molecule …………, (a) contains replaceable H+ ion, , (b) gives up a proton, , (c) combines with proton to form water molecule, (d) accepts OH– from water, releasing proton., 3. Which of the following metals has the largest abundance in the earth’s crust?, (a) Aluminium, , (b) calcium, , (c) Magnesium, , (d) Sodium, , 4. The element that does not show catenation among the following p-block elements is …………, (a) Carbon, , (b) silicon, , (c) Lead, , 5. Carbon atoms in fullerene with formula C60 have …………, (b) sp hybridized, , (c) sp2 hybridised, , (d) germanium, (a) sp3 hybridised, , (d) partially sp2 and partially sp3 hybridised, , 6. Oxidation state of carbon in its hydrides …………, (a) +4, , (b) -4, , (c) +3, , (d) +2, , 7. The repeating unit in silicone is …………, , 8. Which of these is not a monomer for a high molecular mass silicone polymer?, (a) Me3SiCl, , (b) PhSiCl3, , (c) MeSiCl3, , (d) Me3SiCl3, , (c) Fullerene, , (d) dry ice, , 9. Which of the following is not sp2 hybridised?, (a) Graphite, , (b) graphene, , 10. The geometry at which carbon atom in diamond are bonded to each other is …………, (a) Tetrahedral, , (b) hexagonal, , (c) Octahedral, , 5, , (d) none of these

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11. Match items in column – I with the items of column – II ans assign the correct code, , 12. Duralumin is an alloy of …………, (a) Cu, Mn, , (b) Cu, Al, Mg, , (c) Al, Mn, , (d) Al, Cu, Mn, Mg, , 13. The compound that is used in nuclear reactors as protective shields and control rods is …………, (a) Metal borides, , (b) metal oxides, , (c) Metal carbonates (d) metal carbide, , 14. The stability of +1 oxidation state increases in the sequence …………, (a) Al < Ga < In < Tl, , (b) Tl < In < Ga < Al, , (c) In < Tl < Ga < Al, , (d) Ga< In < Al < Tl, , ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS :, 1., , More common oxidation state for halogens is …………, (a) +1, , 2., , 4., , (d) -2, , (b) ns2np5, , (c) ns1np6, , (d) ns2np6, , Noble gases are chemically inert. This is due to …………, (a) unstable electronic configuration, , (b) stable electronic configuration, , (c) only filled p-orbital, , (d) only filled 5-orbital, , Which one of the following is the strongest oxidising agent?, (a) Fluorine, , 5., , (c) -1, , Electronic configuration of noble gases is …………, (a) ns2, , 3., , (b) +2, , (b) Chlorine, , (c) Bromine, , (d) Iodine, , Some elements exist in more than one crystalline or molecular forms in the same physical state is, , called …………(a) isomerism, , (b) allotropism, , (c) isomorphism, , 6., , How many allotropes possible for boron?, , (a) 1, , 7., , Important ore of boron is (a) bauxite (b) borosilicate, 6, , (b) 4, , (d) isoelectronics, (c) 6, , (d) 7, , (c) borax (d) P-tetragonal boron

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8., , Boron reacts with fused sodium hydroxide to forms …………, (a) Borax, , 9., , (b) Boric acid, , (c) Sodium borate, , (d) Sodium tetraborate, , Which isotope is used as moderator in nuclear reactors?, (a) 10B5, , (b) nC6, , (c) 4He2, , (d) 40Ca2, , (c) H2B4O7, , (d) B2O3, , 10. Compounds used as an eye lotion …………, (a) H3BO3, , (b) HBO2, , 12. The structure of graphite is …………, , (a) planner, , (b) hexagonal, , (c) octahedral, , (d) bucky balls, , 3. P BLOCK ELEMENTS – II, 1. In which of the following, NH3 is not used?, (a) Nessler’s reagent (b) Reagent for the analysis of IV group basic radical, (c) Reagent for the analysis of III group basic radical, , (d) Tollen’s reagent, , 2. Which is true regarding nitrogen?, (a) least electronegative element, , (b) has low ionisation enthalpy than oxygen, , (c) d-orbitals available, , (d) ability to form pπ – pπ bonds with itself, , 3. An element belongs to group 15 and 3 rd period of the periodic table, its electronic configuration, would be (a) 1s22s22p4, , b) 1s22s22p3, , (c) 1s22s22p63s23p2, , (d) 1s22s22p63s23p3, , 4. The molarity of given orthophosphoric acid solution is 2M. its normality is …………, (a) 6N, , (b) 4N, , (c) 2N, , (d) none of these, , 5. Assertion – bond dissociation energy of fluorine is greater than chlorine gas, Reason – chlorine has more electronic repulsion than fluorine, (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion., (b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion., (c) Assertion is true but reason is false., (d) Both assertion and reason are false., 6. Which one of the following compounds is not formed?, (a) XeOF4, , (b) XeO3, , 7. Most easily liquefiable gas is, , (a) Ar, , (c) XeF2, (b) Ne, , 8. XeF6 on complete hydrolysis produces …………, 7, , (d) NeF2, (c) He, , (d) Kr

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(a) XeOF4, , (b) XeO2F4, , (c) XeO3, , (d) XeO2, , 9. When copper is heated with con. HNO3 it produces …………, (a) Cu(NO3)2 , NO and NO2, , (b) Cu(NO3)2 and N2O, , (c) Cu(NO3)2 and NO2, , (d) Cu(NO3)2 and NO, , ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS :, 1. Nitrogen gas in atmosphere is separated industrially from liquid air by …………, (a) simple distillation, , (b) Fractional distillation, , (c) Sublimation, , (d) Distillation under reduced pressure, , 2. Which one of the following is used in cryosurgery?, (a) Liq N2, , (b) Liq NH3, , (c) Liq Na, , (d) Liq H2, , 3. The dielectric constant of ammonia is (K) …………, (a) 10-30, , (b) 10-14, , (c) 1030, , 4. H – N – H bond angle in NH3 is …………(a) 109° 28’, 5. Shape of ammonia is ……(a) Planar, , (d) 1014, (b) 107° 28’, , (b) Square planar, , (c) 104°, , (d) 107°, , (c) Pyramidal (d) Square pyramidal, , 6. Benzene undergoes nitration reaction to form nitrobenzene in this reaction takes place due to the, formation of …………(a) Hydronium ion, , (b) Hydride ion, , (c) Nitronium ion, , (d) Nitrasonium ion, , 7. White (Yellow) phosphorous glows in the dark due to oxidation which is called …………, (a) phosphorescence, , (b) phosphorus, , (c) Fluorescence, , (d) Liminoscence, , 8. Yellow phosphorous reacts with alkali on boiling in an inert atmosphere liberates …………, (a) Phosphorous acid, , (b) Phosphoric acid, , 9. Shape of ozone ……(a) V-shape (b) Linear shape, , (c) Phosphine (d) Pyrophosphoric acid, (c) bent shape (d) spherical shape, , 10. Sulphur di oxide, how many times heavier than air?, (a) 2 times, , (b) 2.5 times, , (c) 2.2 times, , 11. Deacon’s process is used to manufacture …………(a) Cl2, 12. Catalyst used in Deacon’s process is …………(a) CuCl2, , (d) 2.3 times, (b) F2, , (b) Cu2Cl2, , 13. Passing chlorine gas through dry slaked lime to produce (a) CaOCl, 14. Shape of ClF3 is …………(a) Linear, , (b) T-shape, , (c) Pyrimidal, , 15. Shape of XeF6 is …………(a) Octahedron (b) Distorted octahedron, 16. Which one of the following can penetrate through dense fog?, (a) He, , (b) Ne, , (c) Kr, , (d) Rn, 8, , (C) Br, (c) CuBr, (b) CaOCl2, , (d) I2, (d) Cu2Br2, (c) CaO (d) CaCl2, , (d) Square planar, (c) Pyramidal (d) Tetrahedron

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17. Shape of AX7 inter halogen compound, a) Square pyramidal b) pentagonal bipyramidal, , c) T shaped, , 18. Structure of XeOF4 a) Square pyramidal b) pentagonal bipyramidal, (a) sp3d, , 19. Hybridisation in XeF4, , (b) sp3d2, , (c) sp3d3, , d) Linear, c) T shaped, , d) Linear, , (d) sp3, , 4. TRANSITION AND INNER TRANSITION ELEMENTS, 1. Sc ( Z=21) is a transition element but Zinc (z=30) is not because …………….., (a) both Sc3+ and Zn2+ ions are colourless and form white compounds., (b) in case of Sc, 3d orbital are partially filled but in Zn these are completely filled, (c) last electron as assumed to be added to 4s level in case of zinc, (d) both Sc and Zn do not exhibit variable oxidation states, 2. Which of the following d block element has half filled penultimate d sub shell as well as half filled valence, sub shell?, , (a) Cr, , (b) Pd, , (c) Pt, , (d) none of these, , 3. Among the transition metals of 3d series, the one that has highest negative (M2+/ M) standard electrode, potential is …………….., , (a) Ti, , (b) Cu, , (c) Mn, , (d) Zn, , 4. Which one of the following ions has the same number of unpaired electrons as present in V 3+?, (a) Ti3+, 5., , (b) Fe3+, , (c) Ni2+, , (d) Cr3+, , The magnetic moment of Mn2+ ion is (a) 5.92BM (b) 2.80BM, , (c) 8.95BM, , (d) 3.90BM, , 6. The catalytic behaviour of transition metals and their compounds is ascribed mainly due to, (a) their magnetic behavior, , (b) their unfilled d orbitals, , (c) their ability to adopt variable oxidation states, , (d) their chemical reactivity, , 7. Which one of the following statements related to lanthanons is incorrect?, (a) Europium shows +2 oxidation state., (b) The basicity decreases as the ionic radius decreases from Pr to Lu., (c) All the lanthanons are much more reactive than aluminium., (d) Ce4+ solutions are widely used as oxidising agents in volumetric analysis., 8. Which of the following lanthanoid ions is diamagnetic?, (a) Eu2+, , (b) Yb2+, , (c) Ce2+, , (d) Sm2+, , 9. Which of the following oxidation states is most common among the lanthanoids?, (a) 4, , (b) 2, , (c) 5, 9, , (d) 3

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10. The most common oxidation state of actinoids is, , (a) +2, , (b) +3, , (c) +4, , (d) +6, , 11. The actinoid elements which show the highest oxidation state of +7 are ……………, (a) Np, Pu, Am, , (b) U, Fm, Th, , (c) U, Th, Md, , (d) Es, No, Lr, , 12. Which one of the following is not correct?, (a) La(OH)2 is less basic than Lu(OH)3 (b) In lanthanoid series ionic radius of Ln3+ ions decreases, (c) La is actually an element of transition metal series rather than lanthanide series, (d) Atomic radii of Zr and Hf are same because of lanthanide contraction, ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS :, 1. Identify the transition metal present in Hemoglobin ………….., (a) Cobalt, , (b) Iron, , (c) Manganese, , (d) Copper, , 2. Which of the following transition metal is present in Vitamin B12?, (a) Cobalt, , (b) Platinum, , (c) Copper, , (d) Iron, , 3. The correct electronic configuration of Cr is ………….., (a) [Ar] 3d4 4s2, , (b) [Ar] 3d5, , (c) [Ar] 3d5 4s1, , (d) [Ar] 3d6, , 4. Which of the following is the correct electronic configuration of copper?, (a) [Ar] 3d5 4s1, , (b) [Ar] 3d10 4s1, , (c) [Ar] 3d9 4s2, , (d) [Ar] 3d8 4s2 4p1, , 5. Which one of the following is the general electronic configuration of transition elements?, (a) [Noble gas] ns2 np6, , (b) [Noble gas] ( n – 2 ) f1-14(n-l)d1-10 ns2, , (c) [Noble gas] ( n – 1 ) d1-10 (n-l)f1-14 ns2, , (d) [Noble gas] ( n – 1 ) d1-10 ns2, , 6. Which of the following d-block elements has the highest electrical conductivity at room temperature?, (a) Copper, , (b) Silver, , (c) Aluminium, , (d) Tungsten, , 7. Which one of the following is diamagnetic in nature?, (a) Ti3+, , (b) Cu2+, , (c) Zn2+, , (d) V3+, , 8. Which of the following pair has maximum number of unpaired electrons?, (a) Mn2+, Fe3+, , (b) CO3+, Fe2+, , (c) Cr3+, Mn4+, , (d) Ti2+, V3+, , 9. Which one of the following is Zeigler – Natta catalyst?, (a) CO2(CO)8, , (b) Rh/Ir complex, , (c) TiCl4 + Al(C2H5)3, , (d) Fe / Mo, , 10. Which one of the following is used as a catalyst in the polymerisation of propylene?, (a) V2O5, , (b) Pt, , (c) TiCl4 + Al(C2H5)3, , 10, , (d) Fe / Mo

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11. Which one of the following oxide is amphoteric in nature?, (a) CrO, , (b) Cr2O3, , (c) Mn2O7, , (d) MnO, , 12. Which one of the following is the main cause of lanthanoid contraction?, (a) Poor shielding effect of 5f sub-shell, , (b) More shielding effect of 4f sub-shell, , (c) Poor shielding effect of 4f sub-shell, , (d) More shielding effect of 5f sub-shell, , 13. Which of the following pair has more or less same atomic radius due to lanthanide contraction?, (a) Ti and V, , (b) Fm and Md(c) No and Lr, , (d) Zr and Hf, , 14. Which one of the following is more basic in nature?, (a) La(OH)3, , (b) Ce(OH)3, , (c) Gd(OH)3, , (d) Lu(OH)3, , 15. Assertion (A) – In transition metal series, the ionization enthalpy increases., Reason (R) – This is due to increase in nuclear charge corresponding to the filling of d electrons., (a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) explains (A)., (b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)., (c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong., (d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct., 16. Which one of the following elements show high negative electrode potential?, (a) Copper, , (b) Manganese, , (c) Cobalt, , (d) Zinc, , 17. Which one of the following transition element has maximum oxidation states?, (a) Manganese, , (b) Copper, , (c) Scandium, , (d) Titanium, , 5. COORDINATION CHEMISTRY, 1. The sum of primary valance and secondary valance of the metal M in the complex [M(en) 2(Ox)]Cl is, …………….. (a) 3, , (b) 6, , (c) -3, , (d) 9, , 2. An excess of silver nitrate is added to 100ml of a 0.01M solution of penta aquachlorido chromium (III), chloride. The number of moles of AgCl precipitated would be …………….., (a) 0.02, , (b) 0.002, , (c) 0.01, , (d) 0.2, , 3. A complex has a molecular formula MSO4Cl. 6H2O. The aqueous solution of it gives white precipitate, with Barium chloride solution and no precipitate is obtained when it is treated with silver nitrate solution., If the secondary valence of the metal is six, which one of the following correctly represents the complex?, 11

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(a) [M(H2O)4Cl] SO2. 2H2O, , (b) [M(H2O)6] SO4, , (C)[M(H2O)5Cl] SO4. H2O, , (d) [M(H2O)3Cl] SO4. 3H2O, , 4. Oxidation state of Iron and the charge on the ligand NO in [Fe(H2O)5NO] SO4 are …………….., (a) +2 and 0 respectively, , (b) +3 and 0 respectively, , (c) +3 and -1 respectively, , (d) +1 and +1 respectively, , 5. As per IUPAC guidelines, the name of the complex [CO(en)2(ONO)Cl]Cl is …………….., (a) chlorobisethylenediaminenitritocobalt (III) chloride, (b chloridobis (ethane-1, 2-diamine) nitro k – Ocobaltate (III) chloride, (c) chloridobis (ethane-1, 2-diammine) nitrito k – Ocobalt (II) chloride, (d) chloridobis (ethane-1, 2-diamine) nitro k – Ocobalt (III) chloride, 6. IUPAC name of the complex K3[Al(C2O4)3] is …………….., (a) potassiumtrioxalatoaluminium (III), , (b) potassiumtrioxalatoaluminate (II), , (c) potassiumtrisoxalatoaluminate (III), , (d) potassiumtrioxalatoaluminate (III), , 7. A magnetic moment of 1.73BM will be shown by one among the following …………….., (a) TiCl4, , (b) [COCl6]4-, , (c) [Cu(NH3)4]2+, , (d) [Ni(CN)4]2-, , 8. A complex in which the oxidation number of the metal is zero is …………….., (a) K4[Fe(CN)6], , (b) [Fe(CN)3(NH3)3], , (c) [Fe(CO)5], , (d) both (b) and (c), , 9. Formula of tris (ethane-1, 2-diamine) iron (II) phosphate …………….., (a) [Fe(CH3 – CH(NH2)2)3] (PO4)3, , (b) [Fe(H2N – CH2 – CH2 – NH2)3] (PO4), , (c) [Fe(H2N – CH2 – CH2 – NH2)3](PO4)2, , (d) [Fe(H2N – CH2 – CH2 – NH2)3](PO4)2, , 10. Which of the following is paramagnetic in nature?, (a) [Zn(NH3)4]2+, , (b) [CO(NH3)6]3+, , (c) [Ni(H2O)6]2+, , (d) [Ni(CN)4]2-, , ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS :, 1. What are primary and secondary valency of cobalt in COCl3.6NH3?, (a) 3, 3, , (b) 6, 3, , (c) 3, 6, , (d) 6, 6, , 2. Consider the following statements., (i) The outer sphere in coordination compound is called ionisation sphere., (ii) The primary valences are non directional while secondary valences are directional., (iii) The primary valances of a metal ion is negative and it is satisfied by positive ions., Which of the above statements is/are not correct? ., (a) (i) and (ii), , (b) (ii) and (iii), , (c) (iii) only, 12, , (d) (ii) only

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6. SOLID STATE, 1. Graphite and diamond are ……….., (b) ionic and covalent, , (a) Covalent and molecular crystals, , (c) both covalent crystals, , (d) both molecular crystals, , 2. An ionic compound Ax By crystallizes in fcc type crystal structure with B ions at the centre of each face, and A ion occupying centre of the cube, the correct formula of A B is ……….., (a) AB, , (b) AB3, , (c) A3B, , (d) A8B6, , 3. The rano of close packed atoms to tetrahedral hole in cubic packing is ……….., (a) 1:1, , (b) 1:2, , (c) 2:1, , (d) 1:4, , 4. Solid CO2 is an example of ……….., (a) Covalent solid, , (b) metallic solid, , (c) molecular solid, , (d) ionic solid, , 5. Assertion: monoclinic sulphur is an example of monoclinic crystal system., Reason: for a monoclinic system, a ≠ b ≠ c and α = γ = 90° , β ≠ 90°., (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion., (b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion., (c) Assertion is true but reason is false., (d) Both assertion and reason are false., 6. In calcium fluoride, having the flurite structure the coordination number of Ca 2+ ion and F Ion are ……….., (a) 4 and 2, , (b) 6 and 6, , (c) 8 and 4, , (d) 4 and 8, , 7. The number of unit cells in 8 g of an element X (atomic mass 40) which crystallizes in bcc pattern is (N A is, the Avogadro number), (a) 6.023 x 1023, , (b) 6.023 x 1022, , (c) 60.23 x 1023, , (d) (6.023×1023/ (8×40), , 8. In a solid atom M occupies ccp lattice and (1/3) of tetrahedral voids are occupied by atom N. Find the, formula of solid formed by M and N., (a) MN, , (b) M3N, , (C) MN3, , (d) M3N2, , 9. The ionic radii of A+ and B– are 0.98 x 10-10 m and 1.81 x 10-10 m , the coordination number of each ion in, AB is ……….., , (a) 8, , (b) 2, , (c) 6, , (d) 4, , 10. CsCl has bcc arrangement, its unit cell edge length is 400pm, its inter atomic distance is ……….., (a) 400pm, , (b) 800pm, , (c) √3 x 100pm, , (d) (√3/2) x 400 pm, , 11. A solid compound XY has NaCl structure, if the radius of the cation is 100pm , the radius of the anion, will be ……….., , (a) (100/0.414), , (b) (0.732/100) (c) 100 x 0.414, 14, , (d) (0.414/100)

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12. The vacant space in bcc lattice unit cell is ……….., (a) 48%, , (b) 23%, , (c) 32%, , (d) 26%, , 13. The radius of an atom is 300pm, if it crystallizes in a face centered cubic lattice, the length of the edge, of the unit cell is ……….., (a) 488.5pm, , (b) 848.5pm, , (c) 884.5pm, , (d) 484.5pm, , 14. The fraction of total volume occupied by the atoms in a simple cubic is ……….., (a) (π/ 4√2 ), , (b) (π/6), , (c) (π/4), , (d) (π/ √3/2), , 15. The yellow colour in NaCl crystal is due to ……….., (a) excitation of electrons in F centers, , (b) reflection of light from Cl– ion on the surface, , (c) refraction of light from Na+ ion, , (d) all of the above, , 16. If ’a’ stands for the edge length of the cubic system; sc ,bcc, and fcc. Then the ratio of radii of spheres, in these systems will be respectively., , 17. If a is the length of the side of the cube, the distance between the body centered atom and one corner, atom in the cube will be ……….., (a) (2/√3)a, , (b) (4/√3)a, , (c) (√3/4)a, , (d) (√3/2)a, , 18. Potassium has a bcc structure with nearest neighbor distance 4.52 A. its atomic weight is 39. Its density, will be ……….., (a) 915 kg m-3, , (b) 2142 kg m-3, , (c) 452 kg m-3, , (d) 390 kg m-3, , 19. Schottky defect in a crystal is observed when ……….., (a) unequal number of anions and anions are missing from the lattice, (b) equal number of cations and anions are missing from the lattice, (e) an ion leaves its normal site and occupies an interstitial site, (d) no ion is missing from its lattice., 20. The cation leaves its normal position in the crystal and moves to some interstitial position, the defect, in the crystal is known as ……….., (a) Schottky defect, , (b) F center, , (c) Frenkel defect, , 15, , (d)

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non-stoichiometric defect, 21. Assertion – due to Frenkel defect, density of the crystalline solid decreases., Reason – in Frenkel defect cation and anion leaves the crystal., (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion., (b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion., (c) Assertion is true but reason is false., (d) Both assertion and reason are false, 22. The crystal with a metal deficiency defect is ……….., (a) NaCI, , (b) FeO, , (c) ZnO, , (d) KCI, , 23. A two dimensional solid pattern formed by two different atoms X and Y is shown below. The black and, white squares represent atoms X and Y respectively. The simplest formula for the compound based on the, unit cell from the pattern is ……….., (a) XY8, , (b) X4Y9, , (c) XY2, , (d) XY4, , ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS :, 1. Which one of the following is an amorphous solid?, (a) Glass, , (b) SiO2, , (c) NaCl, , (d) Na, , 2. Which one of the following is an example for molecular crystals?, (a) Diamond, , (b) Silica, , (c) Glass, , (d) Naphthalene, , 3. Which one of the following is a covalent crystal?, (a) Glass, , (b) Diamond, , (c) Anthracene, , (d) Glucose, , 4. In an ionic crystal, both cations and anions are bound together by ……….., (a) Strong electrostatic attractive forces, (c) Vanderwaals forces of attraction, , (b) Weak electrostatic attractive forces, (d) Weak cohesive forces, , 5. In non polar molecular solids, molecules are held together by ……….., (a) London forces, , (b) weak vanderwaals forces, , (c) Strong electrostatic forces, , (d) strong cohesive forces, , 6. Solid NH3 solid CO2 are examples of ……….., (a) Covalent solid, , (b) polar molecular solids, , (c) molecular solids, , (d) ionic solids, , 7. Each atom in the comer of the cubic unit cell is shared by how many unit cells?, (a) 8, , (b) 6, , (c) 1, , (d) 12, 16

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8. The number of atoms belongs to fcc unit cell is ……….., (a) 2, , (b) 4, , (c) 6, , (d) 12, , 9. The atoms the face centre is being shared by ……….., (a) 4, , (b) 8, , (c) 2, , (d) 6, , 10. Which is the packing fraction in simple cubic unit cell?, (a) 52.31%, , (b) 100%, , (c) 68%, , (d) 75%, , 11. The packing fraction in bcc arrangement is ……….., (a) 52.3 1%, , (b) 68%, , (c) 100%, , (d) 80%, , 12. The coordination number of zinc sulphide is ……….., (a) 3, , (b) 4, , (c) 6, , (d) 8, , 13. Which one of the following is the coordination number of NaCl?, (a) 3, , (b) 4, , (c) 6, , (d) 8, , 14. Which one of the following is an example for Frenkel defect?, (a) NaCl, , (b) AgCI, , (c) AgBr, , (d) AgNO3, , 15. Which one of the following is the metal deficiency defect?, (a) FeO, , (b) ZnO, , (c) KCl, , (d) NaCl, , 16. Which one of the following shows non- stoichiometric defect?, (a) FeO, , (b) AgBr, , (c) ZnO, , (d) Both a and c, , 17. The coordination number of CSCI ¡s ……….., (a) 3, , (b) 4, , (c) 6, , (d) 8, , 18. Which one of the following formula is used to calculate the density of the unit cell ?, (a) ρ = nM/a3NA, , (b) ρ = a3NA/ nM, , (c) ρ = NAa3/ NM, , (d) ρ = a3NAn, , 19. Which one of the following is known as Bragg’s equation’?, (a) d = 2sinθnλ, , (b) d = nλ2sinθ, , (c) nλ = 2dsinθ, , 20. Naphthalene is an example of ……….. (a) ionic solid, , (d) d = 2sinθnλ, (b) covalent solid, , (c) non polar molecular solid (d) polar molecular solid, , 7. CHEMICAL KINETICS, 1. For a first order reaction A → B the rate constant is x min-1. If the initial concentration of A is 0.01 M, the, concentration of A after one hour is given by the expression., (a) 0.01 e-x, , (b) 1 x 10-2 (1 – e-60x), , (c) (1 x 10-2) e-60x, 17, , (d) none of these

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2. A zero order reaction X → Product, with an initial concentration 0.02M has a half life of 10 min. If one, starts with concentration 0.04M, then the half life is ……………., (a) 10 s, , (b) 5 min, , (c) 20 min, , (d) cannot be predicted using the given information, , 3. Among the following graphs showing variation of rate constant with temperature (T) for a reaction, the, one that exhibits Arrhenius behavior over the entire temperature range is ……………, , 4. For a first order react ion A → product with initial concentration x mol L -1, has a half life period of 2.5, hours. For the same reaction with initial concentration mol L-1 the half life is, (a) (2.5 x 2) hours, , (b) (2.5/2) hours, , (c) 2.5 hours, , (d) Without knowing the rate constant, t 1/2 cannot be determined from the given data, 5. For the reaction, 2NH3 → N2 + 3H2, if, then, , the relation between k1, k2 and k3 is, , (a) k1 = k2 = k3, , (b) k1 = 3 k2 = 2 k3, , (c) 1.5k1 = 3 k2 = k3, , (d) 2k1 = k2 = 3 k3, , 6. The decomposition of phosphine (PH3) on tungsten at low pressure is a first order reaction. It is, because the ……………., , (a) rate is proportional to the surface coverage, , (b) rate is inversely proportional to the surface coverage, (c) rate is independent of the surface coverage, (d) rate of decomposition is slow, 7. For a reaction Rate = k [acetone]3/2 then unit of rate constant and rate of reaction respectively is, (a) (mol L-1 s-1), (mol-1/2 L1/2 s-1), , (b) (mol-1/2 L1/2 s-1), (mol L-1 s-1), , (c) (mol1/2 L1/2 s-1), (mol L-1 s-1), , (d) (mol L s-1), (mol1/2 L1/2 s), , 8. Consider the following statements:, (i) increase in concentration of the reactant increases the rate of a zero order reaction., (ii) rate constant k is equal to collision frequency A if Ea = o, (iii) rate constant k is equal to collision frequency A if Ea = o, 18

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(iv) a plot of ln (k) vs T is a straight line., (v) a plot of In (k) vs (1T) is a straight line with a positive slope., Correct statements are, (a) (ii) only, , (b) (ii) and (iv), , (c) (ii) and (v), , (d) (i), (ii) and (v), , 9. In a reversible reaction, the enthalpy change and the activation energy in the forward direction are, respectively – x kJ mol-1 and y kJ mol-1. Therefore, the energy of activation in the backward direction is, (a) (v – x)kJ mol-1, , (b) (x + y) J mol-1, , (c) (x – y) kJ mol-1, , (d) (x + y) x 103 J mol-1, , 10. What is the activation energy for a reaction if its rate doubles when the temperature is raised from, 200K to 400K? (R 8.314 JK-1 mol-1), (a) 234.65 kJ mol-1 K-1, , (b) 434.65 kJ mol-1 K-1, , (c) 434.65 J mol-1 K-1, , (d) 334.65 J mol-1 K-1, , 11., , This reaction follows first order kinetics. The rate constant at particular temperature is 2.303 x 10 2 hours., The initial concentration of cyclopropane is 0.25 M. What will be the concentration of cyclopropane after 1806, minutes? (Log 2 = 0.30 10), (a) 0.125 M, (b) 0.215 M, (c) 0.25 x 2.303 M, (d) 0.05 M, 12. For a first order reaction, the rate constant is 6.909 min-1.The time taken for 75% conversion in, minutes is ………… (a) (3/2) log 2, , (b) (2/3) log 2, , (c) (3/2) log (3/4) (d) (2/3) log (4/3), , 13. In a first order reaction x → y; if k is the rate constant and the initial concentration of the reactant x is, 0.1 M, then, the half life is …….., (a) (log2/k), , (b) (0.693/(0.1)k), , (c) (In2/k), , (d) none of these, , 14. Predict the rate law of the following reaction based on the data given below:, 2A + B → C + 3D, (a) rate = k [A]2 [B], (b) rate = k [A][B]2, (c) rate = k [A][B], (d) rate = k [A]1/2 [B]3/2, 15. Assertion: rate of reaction doubles when the, concentration of the reactant is doubles if it is a first order reaction., Reason: rate constant also doubles, 19

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(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion., (b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion., (c) Assertion is true but reason is false., (d) Both assertion and reason are false., 16. The rate constant of a reaction is 5.8 x 10-2 s-1. The order of the reaction is …………., (a) First order, , (b) zero order, , (c) Second order, , (a) Third order, , 17. For the reaction N2O5(g) → 2NO2(g) +1/2 O2(g) the value of rate of disappearance of N2O5 is given as, 6.5 x 10-2 mol L-1s-1 The rate of formation of NO2 and O2 is given respectively as, (a) (3.25 x 10-2 mol L-1s-1) and (1.3 x 10-2 mol L-1s-1), (b) (1.3 x 10-2 mol L-1s-1) and (3.25 x 102 mol L-1s-1), (c) (1.3 x 10-1 mol L-1s-1) and (3.25 x 10-2 mol L-1s-1) (d) None of these, 18. During the decomposition of H2O2 to give dioxygen, 48g O2 is formed per minute at certain point of, time. The rate of formation of water at this point is ……………., (a) 0.75 mol min-1, , (b) 1.5 mol min-1, , (c) 2.25 mol min-1, , (d) 3.0 mol min-1, , 19. If the initial concentration of the reactant is doubled, the time for half reaction is also doubled. Then, the order of the reaction is …………, (a) Zero, , (b) one, , (c) Fraction, , (d) none, , 20. In a homogeneous reaction A ? B + C + D, the initial pressure was P 0 and after time t it was P., Expression for rate constant in terms of P0, P and t will be ………., , 21. If 75% of a first order reaction was completed in 60 minutes, 50% of the same reaction under the same, conditions would be completed in ………, (a) 20 minutes, , (b) 30 minutes, , (c) 35 minutes, , (d) 75 minutes, , 22. The half life period of a radioactive element is 140 days. After 560 days, 1 g of element will be reduced, to (a) 1/2 g, , (b) 1/4 g, , (c) 1/8 g, 20, , (d) 1/16 g

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23. The correct difference between first and second order reactions is that …………, (a) A first order reaction can be catalysed a second order reaction cannot be catalysed., (b) The half life of a first order reaction does not depend on [A 0] the half life of a second order reaction, does depend on [A0]., (c) The rate of a first order reaction does not depend on reactant concentrations; the rate of a second, order reaction does depend on reactant concentrations., (d) The rate of a first order reaction does depend on reactant concentrations; the rate of a second, order reaction does not depend on reactant concentrations,, 24. After 2 hours, a radioactive substance becomes (1/16)th of original amount. Then the half life (in mm), is (a) 60 minutes (b) 120 minutes, , (c) 30 minutes (d) 15 minutes, , ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS :, 1. Which one of the following is the unit of rate of reaction?, (a) s-1, , (b) mol s-1, , (c) mol L-1 s-1, , (d) mol L s, , 2. Which of the following is the order of decomposition of hydrogen peroxide catalysed by I –, (a) First order, , (b) Second order, , (c) Zero order (a) Third order, , 3. Which one of the following is the unit of rate constant for a first order reaction?, (a) mol-1 L s-1, , (b) mol L-1 s-1, , (c) s-1, , (d) mol L S, , 4. What is the order of isomerisation of cyclopropane to propene?, (a) 1.5, , (b) 3/2, , (c) 5/2, , (d) 1, , 5. Which one of the following is called pseudo first order reaction?, (a) Decomposition of acetaldehyde, , (b) Acid hydrolysis of an ester, , (c) Isomerisation of cyclopropane to propene (d) Decomposition of hydrogen peroxide, 6. The half life period of first order reaction is 10 seconds. What is the time required for 99.9% completion, of that reaction? (a) 20 seconds, , (b) 1000 seconds, , (c) 100 seconds, , (d) 999 seconds, , 7. What is the order of radioactive decay?, (a) first order, , (b) zero order, , (c) second order, , (d) third order, , 8. t1/2 of the reaction increases with increase in initial concentration of the reaction means the order of the, reaction will be (a) first order, , (b) zero order, , (c) second order, , 9. Identify the reaction order if the unit of rate constant is s-1 ………., (a) zero order reaction, , (b) second order reaction, 21, , (d) third order

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(c) first order reaction, , (d) third order reaction, , 10. What is unit of zero order reaction?, (a) s-1, , (b) mol-1 L-1 s-1, , (c) mol L-1 s-1, , (d) mol L s-1, , 11. Polymerisation reactions follows ………………. order kinetics., (a) fractional, , (b) first, , (c) zero, , (d) Pseudo first, , 12. Assertion (A): Order of the reaction can be zero or fractional, Reason (R): We cannot determine order from balanced chemical equation, (a) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A., (b) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A, (c) A is correct but R is wrong, , (d) A is wrong but R is correct, , 8. IONIC EQUILIBRIUM, Choose the correct answer:, 1. Concentration of the Ag+ ions in a saturated solution of Ag2C2O4 is 2.24 ×10-4mol L-1, solubility product of Ag2C2O4 is, , a) 2.42 ×10-8mol3L-3, , b) 2.66 ×10-12 mol3L-3, , c) 4.5 ×10-11 mol3L-3, , d) 5.619 × 10–12 mol3L-3, , 2. Following solutions were prepared by mixing different volumes of NaOH of HCl different, concentrations., , i. 60 mL M/10 HCl + 40mL M/10 NaOH, , ii. 55 mL M/10 HCl + 45 mL M/10 NaOH, , iii. 75 mL M/5 HCl + 25mL M/5 NaOH, , iv. 100 mL M/10 HCl + 100 mL M/10 NaOH, , pH of which one of them will be equal to 1?, , a) iv, , b) i, , c) ii, , d) iii, , 3. The solubility of BaSO4 in water is 2.42 ×10-3gL-1 at 298K. The value of its solubility product, Ksp will be (NEET -2018). (Given molar mass of BaSO4 =233g mol -1), a) 1.08 ×10-14mol2L-2, , b)1.08 ×10-12mol2L-2, , c) 1.08 ×10-10mol2L-2, , d) 1.08 ×10-8mol2L-2, , 4. pH of a saturated solution of Ca(OH)2 is 9. The Solubility product of Ca(OH)2, a) 0.5 ×10-15, , b) 0.25 ×10-10, , c) 0.125 ×10-15, , 5. Conjugate base for bronsted acids H2 O and HF are, a) OH- and H2 FH+ , respectively, , b) H3O+ and F- , respectively, , c) OH- and F- , respectively, , d) H3O+ and H2F+ , respectively, , 6. Which will make basic buffer?, a) 50 mL of 0.1M NaOH+25mL of 0.1M CH3COOH, 22, , d) 0.5 ×10-10

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b) 100 mL of 0.1M CH3 COOH+100 mL of 0.1M NH4OH, c) 100 mL of 0.1M HCl+200 mL of 0.1M NH4OH, d) 100 mL of 0.1M HCl+100 mL of 0.1M NaOH, 7. Which of the following fluro – compounds is most likely to behave as a Lewis base?, a) BF3, , b) PF3, , C) CF4, , d) SiF4, , 8. Which of these is not likely to act as lewis base?, , a) BF3, , b) PF3, , C) CO, , d) F–, , 9. The aqueous solutions of sodium formate, anilinium chloride and potassium cyanide are, Respectively, , a) acidic, acidic, basic, , b) basic, acidic, basic, , c) basic, neutral, basic, , d) none of these, , 10. The percentage of pyridine (C5H5N) that forms pyridinium ion (C5H5NH) in a 0.10M, aqueous pyridine solution Kb for C5H5N = 1.7 ×10 -9 is, a) 0.006%, , b) 0.013%, , c) 0.77%, , d) 1.6%, , 11. Equal volumes of three acid solutions of pH 1,2 and 3 are mixed in a vessel. What will be, the H+ ion concentration in the mixture?, , a) 3.7 ×10-2, , b) 10-6, , c) 0.111, , d) none of these, , 12. The solubility of AgCl (s) with solubility product 1.6 ×10-10 in 0.1M NaCl solution would be, a) 1.26 × 10-5M, , b) 1.6 ×10-9M, , c) 1.6 ×10-11M, , d) Zero, , 13. If the solubility product of lead iodide is 3.2 ×10-8 , its solubility will be, a) 2×10-3M, , b) 4 ×10-4M, , c) 1.6 ×10-5M, , d) 1.8 ×10-5M, , 14. MY and NY3 , are insoluble salts and have the same Ksp values of 6.2 ×10-13 at room, temperature. Which statement would be true with regard to MY and NY 3 ?, a) The salts MY and NY3 are more soluble in 0.5M KY than in pure water, b) The addition of the salt of KY to the suspension of MY and NY 3 will have no effect, , on their solubility’s, , c) The molar solubilities of MY and NY3 in water are identical, d) The molar solubility of MY in water is less than that of NY 3, 15. What is the pH of the resulting solution when equal volumes of 0.1M NaOH and 0.01M, HCl are mixed?, , a) 2.0, , b) 3, , c) 7.0, , d) 12.65, , 16. The dissociation constant of a weak acid is 1×10-3 . In order to prepare a buffer solution, with a pH = 4, the [Acid] / [Salt] ratio should be a) 4:3, , b) 3:4, , c) 10:1, , d) 1:10, , 17. The pH of 10-5M KOH solution will be, a) 9, , b) 5, , c) 19, , 23, , d) none of these

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18. H2 PO 4-- the conjugate base of, a) PO43−, , b) P2O5, , d) HPO42-, , c) H3 PO4, , 19. Which of the following can act as lowery – Bronsted acid well as base?, a) HCl, , b) SO42−, , c) HPO42−, , d) Br-, , 20. The pH of an aqueous solution is Zero. The solution is, a) slightly acidic, , b) strongly acidic, , c) neutral, , d) basic, , 21. The hydrogen ion concentration of a buffer solution consisting of a weak acid and its salts, is given by a) [H ] + =Ka [acid] / [salt], , b) [H+] = Ka [salt] c) [H+]=Ka [acid], , d) [H= ]=Ka [salt] / [acid], , ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS:, 1. Which of the following is present in an antacid tablet?, (a) NaOH, , (b) Mg(OH)2, , (c) Al(OH)3, , (d) either (b) or (c), , 2. Which of the following can act as an acid as well as base by Lowry – Bronsted theory?, (a) H2O, , (b) NH3, , (c) NH4OH, , (d) Ca(OH)2, , 3. In the reaction HCI + H2O ⇌ H3O+ + Cl– which one of the acid-base pair?, (a) HCl + H3O+, , (b) HCI + CI–, , (d) H2O + Cl–, , (c) H3O + Cl, , 4. In [Cr(H2O)6]3+ which one of the following acts as Lewis acid?, (a) Cr, , (b) Cr3+, , (d) Cr3-, , (c) (HO)6, , 5. The value of ionic product of water at 25°C is ……………….., (a) 1 x 10-7, , (b) 1 x 107, , (c) 1 x 10-14, , (d) 1 x 1014, , (c) 1, , (d) 11, , 6. The pH of 0.001 M HCI solution is ………, (a) 3, , (b) 2, , 7. Which of the following is not a buffer solution?, (a) CH3COOH + CH3COONa, , (b) NH4OH + NH4Cl, , (c) H2CO3 + NaHCO3, , (d) NaOH + NaCI, , 8. The conjugate base of H2O and H2SO4 are ………….., (a) OH– and HSO4, , (b) H4O and SO42, , -, , (c) OH- and SO42-, , (d) H3O+ and HSO4-, , 9. The dissociation constant of a weak acid is 1.0 x 10-10. The equilibrium constant for the reaction with, strong base is (a) 1.0 x 10-5, , (b) 1.0 x 10-9, , (c) 1.0 x 109, , (d) 1.0 x 1014, , 10. The pH of a solution at 25°C containing 0.10 M sodium acetate and 0.03 M acetic acid is ………….., (pKa for CH3COOH = 4.57), , (a) 4.09, , (b) 5.09, , (c) 6.10, , 11. A weak acid is 0.1% ionised in 0.1 M solution. Its pH is ………….., (a) 2, , (b) 3, , (c) 4, 24, , (d) 1, , (d) 7.09

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12. The pH of pure water or neutral solution at 50°C is …………… (pKw = 13.2613 at 50°C), (a) 7.0, , (b) 7.13, , (c) 6.0, , (d) 6.63, , 13. What is the pH of 1 M CH3COOH solution?. Ka of acetic acid is 1.8 x 10-5. K = 10-14 mol2 litre2., (a) 9.4, , (b) 4.8, , (c) 3.6, , 14. The pH of 0.001 M NaOH will be ………….(a) 3, , (d) 2.4, (b) 2, , (c) 11, , (d) 12, , 15. When solid potassium cyanide is added in water then ……………, (a) pH will increase, , (b) pH will decrease, , (c) pH will remain the same, , (d) electrical conductivity will not change, , 16. pH of a solution is 5. Its hydroxyl ion concentration is ………….., (a) 5, , (c) 10-5, , (b) 10, , (d) 10-9, , 17. Which one of the following is a buffer?, (a) CH3COOH + CH3COONa, , (b) CH3COOH + CH3COONH4, , (c) NaOH + NaCI, , (d) CH3COOH + NH4CI, , 18. By adding a strong acid to the buffer solution, the pH of the buffer solution …………….., (a) remains constant, , (b) increases, , (c) decreases, , (d) becomes zero, , 19. The unit of ionic product of water K is ……………, (a) mol-1 L-1, , (b) mol-2 L-2, , (c) mol-2 L-1, , (d) mol2 L-2, , 20. What is the correct representation of the solubility product constant of Ag2CrO4?, (a) [Ag+]2 [CrO4-2], , (b) [Ag+] [CrO4-2], , (c) [2Ag+] [CrO4-2], , (d) [2Ag+]2 [CrO4-2], , (c) NH4OH + NH4CI, , (d) AgCN + KCN, , 21. Which pair will be a buffer solution?, (a) BaCI2 + Ba(NO3)2, , (b) NaCI + HCI, , 9. ELECTROCHEMISTRY, 1. The number of electrons that have a total charge of 9650 coulombs is, a) 6.22 ×1023, , b) 6.022 ×1024, , c) 6.022 ×1022, , d) 6.022 ×10−34, , 2. The molar conductivity of a 0.5 mol dm-3 solution of AgNO3 with electrolytic conductivity, of 5.76 ×10−3 S cm−1at 298 K is, , a) 2.88 S cm2mol-1, , b) 11.52 S cm2mol-1, , c) 0.086 S cm2mol-1, , d) 28.8 S cm2 mol -1, , 3., , 25

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Calculate Λ° HOAC using appropriate molar conductances of the electrolytes listed above at, infinite dilution in water at 25° C ., , a) 517.2, , b) 552.7, , c) 390.7, , d) 217.5, , 4. Faradays constant is defined as, a) charge carried by 1 electron, , b) charge carried by one mole of electrons, , c) charge required to deposit one mole of substance, , d) charge carried by 6.22 ×1010 electrons., , 5. How many faradays of electricity are required for the following reaction to occur, MnO4- → Mn2+, , a) 5F, , b) 3F, , c) 1F, , d) 7F, , 6. A current strength of 3.86 A was passed through molten Calcium oxide for 41minutes and, 40 seconds. The mass of Calcium in grams deposited at the cathode is (atomic mass of Ca, is 40g / mol and 1F = 96500C)., , a) 4, , b) 2, , c) 8, , d) 6, , 7. During electrolysis of molten sodium chloride, the time required to produce 0.1mol of, chlorine gas using a current of 3A is, a) 55 minutes, , b) 107.2 minutes, , c) 220 minutes, , d) 330 minutes, , 8. The number of electrons delivered at the cathode during electrolysis by a current of 1A in, 60 seconds is (charge of electron = 1.6 ×10−19C ), a) 6.22 ×1023, , b) 6.022 ×1020, , c) 3.75 ×1020, , d) 7.48 ×1023, , 9. Which of the following electrolytic solution has the least specific conductance, a) 2N, , b) 0.002N, , c) 0.02N, , d) 0.2N, , 10. Zinc can be coated on iron to produce galvanized iron but the reverse is not possible. It is, Because, , a) Zinc is lighter than iron, , b) Zinc has lower melting point than iron, , c) Zinc has lower negative electrode potential than iron, d) Zinc has higher negative electrode potential than iron, 11. Assertion : pure iron when heated in dry air is converted with a layer of rust., Reason : Rust has the compositionFe3O4, a) if both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion., b) if both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion., c) assertion is true but reason is false, , d) both assertion and reason are false., , 12. The equivalent conductance of M/36 solution of a weak monobasic acid is 6mho cm2 equivalent -1 and, at infinite dilution is 400 mho cm2 equivalent -1. The dissociation constant of this acid is, a) 1.25 ×10−6, , b) 6.25× 10 -6, , c) 1.25 ×10−4, 26, , d) 6.25× 10 -5

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13. A conductivity cell has been calibrated with a 0.01M, 1:1 electrolytic solution (specific, conductance ( k =1. 25 × 10-3 S cm−1) in the cell and the measured resistance was 800 ohm at, 25°C . The cell constant is,, , a) 10−1 c m−1, , b) 101 c m−1, , c) 1 c m−1, , d) 5.7 10 -12, , 14. Conductivity of a saturated solution of a sparingly soluble salt AB (1:1 electrolyte) at 298K is, 1.85 ×10−5 S m−1 . Solubility product of the salt AB at 298K (Λ° m ) –AB = 14 ×10−3 S m2 mol−1 ., a) 5.7 × 10 -12, , b) 1.32 ×10 -12, , c) 7.5 ×10 -12, , d) 1.74 10 -12, , 15. Consider the change in oxidation state of Bromine corresponding to different emf values, as shown in the diagram below: Then the species undergoing disproportional is, , a) Br2, , b) BrO4−, , c) BrO3-, , d) HBrO, , 16. A certain current liberated 0.504gm of hydrogen in 2 hours. How many grams of copper, can be liberated by the same current flowing for the same time in a copper sulphate solution, a) 31.75, , b) 15.8, , c) 7.5, , d) 63.5, , 17. A gas X at 1 atm is bubble through a solution containing a mixture of 1MY- and 1MZ- at, 25°C . If the reduction potential of Z > Y > X, then a) Y will oxidize X and not Z b) Y will oxidize Z and not X, c) Y will oxidize both X and Z, , d) Y will reduce both X and Z, , ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS:, 1. Electro chemical reactions are generally, , 2. The unit of resistivity is, , (a) Ω m-1, , (a) Reduction reactions, , (b) oxidation reactions, , (c) Redox reactions, , (d) condensation reactions, , (b) Ω m, , (c) m-1Ohm2, , (d) Ω-1m-1, , 3. The unit of specific resistance is equal to, (a) Ohm metre, , (b) Ohm-1 metre, , (c) Ohm-1 metre-1, , (d) Ohm, , 4. Which is the SI unit of conductance?, (a) Siemen-1 (or) S-1, , (c) Sm-1, , (b) Siemen (or) S, , 5. Which one is the unit of specific conductance?, (a) Ohm m, , (b) Ohm-1 m, , (c) Ohm m-1, , (d) Ohm-1 m-1., , (c) Ohm-1m-1, , (d) Ohm m, , 6. The unit of equivalent conductance is …………, (a) Sm2g equivalent, , (b) Sm-1, , 7. Which one of the following is used to measure conductivity of ionic solutions?, (a) metre scale, , (b) wheat stone bridge, , (c) Dynamo, 27, , (d) Ammeter, , (d) S-1m-1

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8. Which of the following is used to calculate the conductivity of strong electrolytes?, (a) Kohlraush’s law, , (b) Henderson equation, , (c) Debye-Huckel and Onsagar equation, , (d) Ostwald’s dilution law, , 9. Which one of the following can act as an inert electrode?, (a) Graphite, , (b) Copper, , (c) Platinum, , (d) either a (or) e, , 10. The value of EMF of standard hydrogen electrode at 25°C is …………, (a) maximum, , (b) zero, , (c) negative, , (d) positive, , (c) platinum, , (d) iron, , 11. The electrode used in SHE is made of …………., (a) graphite, , (b) copper, , 12. The maximum work that can be obtained from a galvanic cell is ……….., (a) + nFE, , (b) – nFE, , (c) 2F, , (d) 96500 F, , 13. For all spontaneous cell reactions, the value of ?G should be …………., (a) constant, , (b) zero, , (c) negative, , (d) positive, , 14. The value of one Faraday is equal to ………….., (a) 96400 C, , (b) 96500 C, , (c) 1 .602 x 10-19C, , (d) 1 .602 x 1019C, , 15. Which equation relates the cell potential and the concentration of the species involved in an electro, chemical reaction?, , (a) Henderson equation, (c) Debye Huckel Onsagar equation, , (b) Arrhenius equation, (d) Nemst equation, , 16. Which one of the following is Nernst equation., , 17. Which one of the following represents Faraday’s first law?, (a) m = Zit, , (b) m = Z/It, , (c) m = It/Z, , (d) Z = mIt, , 18. When 1 coulomb of electric current is passed the amount of substance deposited or liberated is known, as (a) equivalent mass, , (b) electro chemical equivalent (c) molar mass (d) 1 Faraday, 28

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19. The formula of rust is (a) Fe2O3, , (b) Fe2O3.xH2O, , (c) FeO, , (d) FeO.xH2O, , 20. The electro plating of Zinc over a metal is called ………….., (a) Electrolysis, , (b) Redox reaction, , (c) Galvanisation, , (d) Passivation, , 21. Which amount of chlorine gas liberated at anode, if 1 ampere current is passed for 30 minutes from NaCI, solution?, , (a) 0.66 moles, , (b) 0.33 moles, , (c) 0.66 g, , (d) 0.33 g, , 10. SURFACE CHEMISTRY, 1. For freudlich isotherm a graph of log x/m is plotted against log P. The slope of the line and, its y – axis intercept respectively corresponds to, a) 1/n, k, , b) log 1/n, k, , c) 1/n, log k, , d) log 1/n, log k, , 2. Which of the following is incorrect for physisorption?, a) reversible, , b) increases with increase in temperature, , c) low heat of adsorption, , d) increases with increase in surface area, , 3. Which one of the following characteristics are associated with adsorption? (NEET), a) ΔG and ΔH are negative but ΔS is positive, , b) ΔGand ΔS are negative but ΔH is positive, , c) ΔG is negative but ΔH and ΔS are positive, , d) ΔG, ΔH and ΔS all are negative., , 4. Fog is colloidal solution of, , a) solid in gas, , b) gas in gas, , c) liquid in gas d) gas in liquid, , 5. Assertion : Coagulation power of Al3+ is more than Na+ ., Reason : greater the valency of the flocculating ion added, greater is its power to cause precipitation, a) if both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion., b) if both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion., c) assertion is true but reason is false, 6. Statement :, , d) both assertion and reason are false., , To stop bleeding from an injury, ferric chloride can be applied. Which comment about, , the statement is justified?, , a) It is not true, ferric chloride is a poison., , b) It is true, Fe3+ ions coagulate blood which is a negatively charged sol, c) It is not true; ferric chloride is ionic and gets into the blood stream., d) It is true, coagulation takes place because of formation of negatively charged sol with Cl -., , 7. Hair cream is, , a) gel, , b) emulsion, , 8. Which one of the following is correctly matched?, a) Emulsion, , –, , Smoke, 29, , c) solid sol, , d) sol.

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b) Gel, , –, , butter, , c) foam, , –, , Mist, , d) whipped cream, , –, , sol, , 9. The most effective electrolyte for the coagulation of As2 S3 Sol is, a) NaCl, , b) Ba (NO3) 2, , 10. Which one of the is not a surfactant?, , c) K3 [Fe(CN)6], a) CH3 (CH2)15 N+ (CH3)2 CH2Br, , c) CH3 ( CH2 ) 16 CH2 OSO2 - Na+, , b) CH3 (CH2) 15 NH2, , d) Al2 (SO4)3, , d) OHC (CH2) 14 CH2 COO- Na+, , 11. The phenomenon observed when a beam of light is passed through a colloidal solution is, a) Cataphoresis, , b) Electrophoresis, , c) Coagulation, , d) Tyndall effect, , 12. In an electrical field, the particles of a colloidal system move towards cathode. The, coagulation of the same sol is studied using K2 SO4 (i), Na3 PO4 (ii),K4 [Fe(CN6) ] (iii), and NaCl (iv) Their coagulating power should be, a) II > I>IV > III, , b) III > II > I > IV, , c) I > II > III > IV, , d) none of these, , 13. Collodion is a 4% solution of which one of the following compounds in alcohol – ether, mixture? a) Nitroglycerine, , b) Cellulose acetate, , c) Glycoldinitrate, , d) Nitrocellulose, , 14. Which one of the following is an example for homogeneous catalysis?, a) manufacture of ammonia by Haber’s process, c) hydrogenation of oil, , b) manufacture of sulphuric acid by contact process, , d) Hydrolysis of sucrose in presence of all HCl, , 15. Match the following, A) V2O5, , -, , i) High density polyethylene, , B) Ziegler – Natta, , -, , ii) PAN, , C) Peroxide, , -, , iii) NH3, , D) Finely divided Fe, , -, , iv) H2 SO4, , A, , B, , C, , D, , a), , (iv), , (i), , (ii), , (iii), , b), , (i), , (ii), , (iv), , (iii), , c), , (ii), , (iii), , (iv), , (i), , d), , (iii), , (iv), , (ii), , (i), , 16. The coagulation values in millimoles per litre of the electrolytes used for the coagulation of, As2S3 are given below, , (I) (NaCl)=52 (II) ((BaCl2 )=0.69, 30, , (III) (MgSO4 )=0.22

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The correct order of their coagulating power is, a) III > II > I, , b) I > II > III, , c) I > III > II, , d) II > III>I, , 17. Adsorption of a gas on solid metal surface is spontaneous and exothermic, then, a) ΔH increases, , b) ΔS increases, , c) ΔG increases, , d) ΔS decreases, , 18. If x is the amount of adsorb ate and m is the amount of adsorbent, which of the following, relations is not related to adsorption process?, a) x/m=f(P) at constant T, , b) x/m=f(T) at constant P, , c) P = f(T) at constant m/x, , d) x/m= PT, , 19. On which of the following properties does the coagulating power of an ion depend ?, (NEET – 2018), , a) Both magnitude and sign of the charge on the ion., , c) the magnitude of the charge on the ion alone, , b) Size of the ion alone, , d) the sign of charge on the ion alone., , 20. Match the following, A) Pure nitrogen, , -, , i) Chlorine, , B) Haber process, , -, , ii) Sulphuric acid, , C) Contact process, , -, , iii) Ammonia, , D) Deacons Process, , -, , iv) sodium azide (or) Barium azide, , Which of the following is the correct option?, A, , B, , C, , D, , a), , (i), , (ii), , (iii), , (iv), , b), , (ii), , (iv), , (i), , (iii), , c), , (iii), , (iv), , (ii), , (i), , d), , (iv), , (iii), , (ii), , (i), , ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS :, 1. When gas molecules are held to the surface by the formation of chemical bond the heat energy released, is nearly equal to, (a) 40 kJ/mole, , (b) 800 kJ/mole, , (c) 400 kJ/mole, , 2. Consider the following statements:, (i) In chemisorption, heat of adsorption is high, (ii) Monolayer of the adsorbate is formed during chemisorption, (iii) Physisorption increases with increase in temperature., 31, , (d) 4 kJ/mole

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Which of the above statement is / are not correct’?, (a) (i) & (ii), , (b) (iii) only, , (c) (ii) only, , (d) (i) only, , 3. Which of the following gases is not a permanent gas?, (a) NH3, , (b) H2, , (c) N2, , (d) O2, , 4. The catalyst and promoter used in Haber’s process are respectively ……….., (a) Mo, Fe, , (b) Fe, Mo, , (c) Pt, H2S, , (d) Pt, V2O5, , 5. Which method is used for identification, detection and estimation of many substances even if they are in, micro quantities?, (a) Lassaigne’s test, , (b) Canus method, , (c) Kjeldhals method (d) Chromatography, , 6. Which one of the following is an example for heterogeneous catalysis?, (a) Decomposition of acetaldehyde by I2 catalyst, (b) Decomposition of H2O2 in the presence of Pt catalyst, (c) Acid hydrolysis of ester, (d) Hydrolysis of cane sugar with mineral acid, 7. The catalyst poison in contact process of manufacture of SO3 is …………, (a) As2O3, , (b) H2S, , (c) CO, , (d) As2S3, , 8. In Haber’s process of manufacture of ammonia, the Fe catalyst is poisoned by the pressure of, (a) Mo, , (b) Co, , (c) H2S, , (d) As2O3, , 9. In the reaction 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O acts as a catalytic poison for Pt catalyst., (a) CO, , (b) Mo, , (c) As2O3, , (d) H2S, , 10. The negative catalyst in the decomposition of H2O2 is ………….., (a) Ethanol, , (b) Acetic acid, , (c) Ethanoic acid, , (d) Methanol, , 11. The energy required for the reactants to reach the activated complex is called …………, (a) threshold energy, , (b) activation energy (c) internal energy, , (d) Gibbs free energy, , 12. Which one of the following is used as a catalyst in the conversion of Lindane to cyclohexane?, (a) Fe°/Pd°, , (b) Ni, , (c) Zn + HCl, , (d) LiAIH4, , (c) Fog, , (d) Inks, , 13. An example of liquid aerosol is ……….., (a) Soda water, , (b) Milk, , 14. Which method is used to prepare metal sols?, (a) ultrasonic dispersion, , (b) mechanical dispersion, , 32, , (c) Bredigs arc method (d) peptisation

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15. Which method is used to prepare mercury colloid?, (a) peptisation (b) mechanical dispersion (c) ultrasonic dispersion (d) Bredig’s arc method, 16. The conversion of a precipitate into colloid is called ………….., (a) coagulation, , (b) hydrolysis, , (c) condensation, , (d) peptisation, , 17. The process of conversion of colloidal solution into precipitate is known as ………….., (a) peptisation, , (b) dispersion, , (c) coagulation, , (d) decomposition, , 18. Which of the following is the size of the colloidal particle?, (a) 100 μm diameter – 1000 μm diameter, , (b) 1 mμ to 1 μm diameter, , (c) 1 mμ to 100 μm diameter, , (d) 1 μm to 1 μm diameter, , 19. The shape of tungstic acid W3O5 sol is …………., (a) spherical, , (b) disc, , (c) plate like, , (d) rod like, , 20. Which one of the following colloid has spherical shape?, (a) AS2S3, , (b) Fe(OH)3, , (c) W3O5, , (d) dust, , 21. Tyndall effect is possible in colloid due to ……………, (a) absorption of light, , (b) adsorption of light, , (c) scattering of light (d) reflection of light, , 22. The migration of sol particles under the influence of electric field is called ……………, (a) electro osmosis, , (b) electro dialysis, , (c) electrophoresis, , (d) dialysis, , 23. The movement of dispersion medium under the influence of electric potential is called …………., (a) Electrophoresis, , (b) Cataphoresis, , (c) Electro osmosis, , (d) Electro dialysis, , 24. Gold number gives ……………….., (a) the amount of gold present in the colloid, (b) the amount of gold required to break the colloid, (c) the amount of gold required to protect the colloid, (d) the measure of protective power of a lyophillic colloid, , 11. HYDROXY COMPOUNDS AND ETHERS, 1. An alcohol (x) gives blue colour in victormayer’s test and 3.7g of X when treated with, metallic sodium liberates 560 mL of hydrogen at 273 K and 1 atm pressure what will be the, possible structure of X?, , a) CH3 CH (OH) CH2CH3, , b) CH3 – CH (OH) – CH3, , c) CH3 – C (OH) – (CH3) 2, , d) CH3- CH2 –CH (OH) – CH2 – CH3, , 33

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c) CH2 = C(CH3 )CH2 – CH2 - CH3, , d) CH2 = C (CH3 ) – CH2 – CH2 - CH3, , 10. The correct IUPAC name of the compound,, a) 4 – chloro – 2,3 – dimethyl pentan – 1-ol, b) 2,3 – dimethyl – 4- chloropentan -1-ol, c) 2,3,4 – trimethyl – 4- chlorobutan -1-ol, d) 4 – chloro – 2,3,4 – trimethyl pentan – 1-ol, 11. Assertion : Phenol is more acidic than ethanol Reason: Phenoxide ion is resonance stabilized, a) if both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion., b) if both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion., c) assertion is true but reason is false, , d) both assertion and reason are false., , 12. In the reaction The ‘Z’ is, , a) ethane, , b) ethoxyethane, , c) ethylbisulphite, , d) ethanol, , 13. The reaction Can be classified as, , a) dehydration, , b) Williams on alcoholsynthesis, , c) Williamson ether synthesis, , d) dehydrogenation of alcohol, , 14. Isoprophylbenzene on air oxidation in the presence of dilute acid gives, a) C6H5 COOH, , b) C6 H5 COCH3, , c) C6 H5 COC6 H5, , d) C6 H5 - OH, , 15. Assertion : Phenol is more reactive than benzene towards electrophilic substitution reaction, Reason : In the case of phenol, the intermediate arenium ion is more stabilized by, resonance., a) if both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion., b) if both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion., c) assertion is true but reason is false, , d) both assertion and reason are false., , 16. HO CH2 CH2 – OH on heating with periodic acid gives, a) methanoic acid, , b) Glyoxal, , c) methanol, , d) CO2, , 17. Which of the following compound can be used as artireeze in automobile rediators?, a) methanol, , b) ethanol, , c) Neopentyl alcohol d) ethan -1, 2-diol, , 35

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18. The reactions is an example of, a) Wurtz reaction, , b) cyclic reaction, , c) Williamson reaction, , d) Kolbe reactions, , 19. One mole of an organic compound (A) with, the formula C3 H8 O reacts completely with, two moles of HI to form X and Y. When Y is boiled with aqueous alkali it forms Z. Z answers the iodoform, test. The compound (A) is a) propan – 2-ol b) propan -1-ol c) ethoxy ethane, , d) methoxy ethane, , 20. Among the following ethers which one will produce methyl alcohol on treatment with hot, HI?, 21., , Williamson synthesis of preparing dimethyl ether is a / an /, a) SN1 reactions, , b) SN2 reaction, , c) electrophilic addition, , d) electrophilic substitution, , 22. On reacting with neutral ferric chloride, phenol gives, a) red colour, , b) violet colour, , c) dark green colour d) no colouration., , ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS:, 1. Which one of the following is named as sorbital?, , 2. Which one of the following is a primary alcohol?, , 36

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3. Which of the following is a dihydric alcohol?, (a) Ethenol, , (b) Ethanol ], , (c) Ethane – 1, 2 – diol, , (d) Propan – 2 – ol, , 4. Which one of the following is an example of secondary (2°) alcohol?, (a) Propan – 2 – ol, , (b) Phenyl methanol, , (c) Ethenol, , (d) 2 – methyl – propan – 2 – ol, , 5. Which acts as an additive to petrol?, (a) Glycerol, , (b) Ethanol, , (c) Phenol, , (d) Methanol, , 6. The IUPAC name of, , (a) 1 – methyl – 2 – propanol, , (b) 2 – methyl – p ropan – 2 – ol, , (c) Tertibutyl alcohol, , (d) 2 – propanol, , 7. The TUPAC name of CH2 = CH – CH2OH is …………, (a) Allyl alcohol, , (b) Propenc – 2 – ol, , (c) Prop – 2 – en – 1 – oI, , (d) Isopropyl alcohol, , 8. Which one of the following is named as Baeyer’s reagent?, (a) acidified K2Cr2O7, , (b) acidified KMnO4, , (c) Cold dilute alkaline KMnO4, , (d) LiAlH4, , 9. Which one of the following is called Lucas reagent?, (a) Conc. HCl + Anhydrous ZnCl2, , (b) Conc. HCl + Anhydrous A1CI3, , (c) LiAIH4 + H2O, , (d) Cold dilute alkaline KMnO4, , 10. Which colour is given by secondary alcohol in Victor Meyer’s test?, (a) Red, , (b) Green, , (c) Blue, , (d) Yellow, , 11. Which mechanism is followed in the conversion of ethanol to bromoethane by HBr?, (a) SN1 mechanism, , (b) SN2 mechanism, , (c) E1 mechanism, , (d) E2 mechanism, , 12. Which one of the following is the correct order of relative reactivities of alcohols in the dehydration, reaction? (a) 1° < 2° < 3°, , (b) 2° < 1° < 3°, , (c) 3° < 2° < 1°, , (d) 3° < 1° < 2°, , 13. Which reaction is used to convert alcohol to ketone / aldehyde in the presence of DMSO?, (a) Lucas test, , (b) Swern oxidation, , (c) Biological oxidation, , (d) Kolbe’s reaction, , 14. What is the name of the reaction between ethanol and ethanoic acid?, (a) Esterification (b) Saponification, , (c) Ethenfication, , (d) Hydroxylation, , 15. What is the product formed when ethylene glycol is heated at 773 K?, (a) Ethanal, , (b) Ethene, , (c) Ethane, , (d) Oxirane, , 16. Which one of the following is formed when ethane – 1, 2 – diol is treated with Conc. H2 SO4?, (a) 1, 4 – dioxane, , (b) Ethanal, , (c) Ethanoic acid, 37, , (d) Ethene

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17. Which one of the following is formed when ethylene glycol is treated with periodic acid?, (a) Methanal, , (b) Methanol, , (c) Ethanol, , (d) Ethanal, , 18. Identify the product formed when glycerol is treated with nitric acid and conc. H2SO4?, (a) Nitroglycerine, , (b) Glyceryl triacetate (c) Prop – 2 – enal, , (d) Glyceric acid, , 19. Oxidation of glycerol with dil.HNO3 gives ………, (a) Meso oxalic acid, , (b) Glyceric acid and tartronic acid, , (c) Glycerose, , (d) Glyceraldehyde and dihydroxy acetone, , 20. Which one of the following is the correct decreasing order of acidity in alcohol?, (a) 1° alcohol > 2° alcohol > 3° alcohol, , (b) 3° alcohol > 2° alcohol> 1° alcohol, , (c) 2° alcohol> 1° alcohol > 3° alcohol, , (d) 3° alcohol > 1° alcohol > 2° alcohol, , 21. The other name of 1 , 2, 3 – trihydroxy benzene is called ………., (a) Pholoroglucinol, , (b) Quinol, , (c) Pyrogallol, , (d) Hydroxy quinol, , 22. The IUPAC name of Catechol is known as ……….., (a) 1 , 3 – dihydroxy benzene, , (b) 1, 2 – dihydroxy benzene, , (c) 1, 4 – dihydroxy benzene, , (d) 1, 3, 5 – trihydroxy benzene, , 23. The reaction of chlorobenzene with NaOH is known as ……….., (a) Kolbe’s reaction, , (b) Riemcr – Ticmann reaction, , (c) Dow’s process, , (d) Cumene synthesis, , 24. What will be the product formed when phenol is treated with zinc dust?, (a) Cumene, , (b) Toluene, , (c) Ethyl benzene, , (d) Benzene, , 25. The acetylation and benzoylation of phenol are called ………., (a) Dow’s process, , (b) Schotten – Baumann reaction, , (c) Reimer – Tiemann reaction, , (d) Williamson ether synthesis, , 26. Which one of the following is formed when phenol reacts with a mixture of Conc. HNO 3 and Conc.H2SO4?, (a) Ortho nitro phenol, , (b) Para nitro phenol, , (c) 1, 2 – dinitro phenol, , (d) 2, 4 , 6 – trinitro phenol, , 27. The conversion reaction of phenol of salicylic acid is known as, (a) Schottan – Baumann reaction, , (b) Riemer – Ticmann reaction, , (c) Kolbe’s Schmitt reaction, , (d) Williamson’s synthesis, , 28. What is the name of the reaction of phenol with chloroform and aqueous alkali?, (a) Kolbe’s reaction, , (b) Cumene synthesis, , (c) Rlemer – Tiemann reaction, , (d) Schottan – Baumann reaction, 38

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29. Which one of the following is formed when phenol is treated with chloroform and sodium hydroxide., (a) Chiorobenzene, , (b) Salicylaldehyde, , (c) Salicylic acid, , (d) Aniline, , 30. Which one of the following is formed when Phenol reacts with benzene diazonium chloride?, (a) P – hyclroxy diazo phenol, , (b) P – hydroxy azo benzene, , (c) O – hydroxy benzene, , (d) O – hydroxy azo benzene, , 31. Bakelite is formed when phenol reacts with ……….., (a) Methanol, , (b) Methanal, , (c) Ethanal, , (d) Ethanol, , 32. Which one of the following is an example for mixed ether?, (a) Methoxy methane, , (b) Phenoxy benzene (c) Methoxy benzene (d) Ethoxy ethane, , 33. Identify the product formed when ethanol is treated with Conc.H2SO4 at 413 K?, (a) Ethene, , (b) Ethane, , (c) 2 – butanol, , 34. The mechanism involved in Williamson’s synthesis is, , (d) Diethyl ether, , a) E1 (b) E2 (c) SN2 d) SN1, , 35. Anisole undergoes bromination with Br2 in acetic acid in the absence of catalyst, the major product, formed is, , (a) O – bromoan isole, , (b) P – bromo anisole, , (c) Benzyl bromide, , (d) Bromo benzene, , 36. Which one of the following is used as a surgical anesthetic agent in surgery?, (a) Ethanol, , (b) Ethoxy ethane, , (c) Methoxy ethane, , (d) Methoxy propane, , 37. Oxygen atom in ether is …………, (a) very active, , (b) replacable, , (c) comparatively inert, , (d) less active, , 12. CARBONYL COMPOUNDS, 1. The correct structure of the product ‘A’ formed in the reaction (NEET), , 2. The formation of cyanohydrin from acetone is an example of, a) nucleophilic substitution, , b) electrophilic substitution, , c) electrophilic addition, , d) Nucleophilic addition, , 3. Reaction of acetone with one of the following reagents involves nucleophilic addition, 39

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followed by elimination of water. The reagent is, a) Grignard reagent, , b) Sn / HCl, , c) hydrazine in presence of slightly acidic solution, , d) hydrocyanic acid, , 4. In the following reaction,, Product ‘X’ will not give, a) Tollen’s test, , b) Victor meyer test, , c) Iodoform test, , a) Formaldelyde, , b)diacetoneammonia c) hexamethylenetetraamine, , d) Fehling solution test, , 5., , d) oxime, , 6. Predict the product Z in the following series of reactions, , 7. Assertion: 2,2 – dimethyl propanoic acid does not give HVZ reaction., Reason: 2 – 2, dimethyl propanoic acid does not have – - hydrogen atom, a) if both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion., b) if both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion., c) assertion is true but reason is false, , d) both assertion and reason are false., , 8. Which of the following represents the correct order of acidity in the given compounds, , 9., a) anilinium chloride, , b) O – nitro aniline, , c) benzene diazonium chloride, , d) m – nitro benzoic acid, , 𝑃𝑏/𝐵𝑟2, , 10 . Ethanoic acid →, , 2 – bromoethanoic acid. This reaction is called, 40

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16., , 17. Assertion : p – N, N – dimethyl aminobenzaldehyde undergoes benzoin condensation, Reason : The aldehydic (-CHO) group is meta directing, a) if both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion., b) if both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion., c) assertion is true but reason is false, , d) both assertion and reason are false., , 18. Which one of the following reaction is an example of disproporationation reaction, a) Aldol condensation, , b) cannizaro reaction c) Benzoin condensation d) none of these, , 19. Which one of the following undergoes reaction with 50% sodium hydroxide solution to, give the corresponding alcohol and acid, , a) Phenylmethanal, , b) ethanal, , c) ethanol, , d) methanol, , 20. The reagent used to distinguish between acetaldehyde and benzaldehyde is, a) Tollens reagent b) Fehling’s solution, , c) 2,4 – dinitrophenyl hydrazine d) semicarbazide, , 21. Phenyl methanal is reacted with concentrated NaOH to give two products X and Y. X, reacts with metallic sodium to liberate hydrogen X and Y are, a) sodiumbenzoate and phenol, , b) Sodium benzoate and phenyl methanol, , c) phenyl methanol and sodium benzoate, , d) none of these, , 22. In which of the following reactions new carbon – carbon bond is not formed?, a) Aldol condensation b) Friedel craft reaction, , 42, , c) Kolbe’s reaction d) Wolf kishner reduction

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23. An alkene “A” on reaction with O3 and Zn – H2 O gives propanone and ethanol in equimolar, ratio. Addition of HCl to alkene “A” gives “B” as the major product. The structure of product, “B” is, , 24. Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points than aldehydes, ketones and even alcohols of, comparable molecular mass. It is due to their (NEET), a) more extensive association of carboxylic acid via van der Waals force of attraction, b) formation of carboxylate ion c) formation of intramolecular H-bonding, d) formation of intermolecular H – bonding, ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS:, 1. The IUPAC name of Acrolein is (a) Prop – 2 – enal, (c) Ethenal, , (b) Propanal, (d) 1 – butanal, , 2. The conversion of acetyl chloride to acetaldehyde by the action of Pd/BaSO4 is called ……………….., (a) Perkin’s reaction (b) Stephens reaction (c) Clemmenoon reduction (d) Rosenmund reduction, 3. In Rosenmunds reduction, the action of BaSO4 is ……………., (a) Promoter, , (b) Catalyst poison, , (c) Positive catalyst, , (d) Negative catalyst, , 4. The conversion reaction of Benzene to Benzaldehyde is known as …………….., (a) Rosenmund reduction, , (b) Stephen reduction, , (c) Gattermann koch reaction, , (d) Friedel – crafts reaction, , 5. The product formed when Benzoyl chloride reacts with benzene is …………., (a) Benzyl benzoate, , (b) Benzophenone, , (c) Benzyl chloride, , (d) Benzyl alcohol, , 6. Which one of the following is used as catalyst in Friedel Crafts reaction?, (a) Anhydrous ZnCl2, , (b) Anhydrous CuCl2 (c) Anhydrous AlCl3, , (d) Androus CaCl2, , 7. Which one of the following is formed when methanal reacts with ammonia?, (a) Tetramethylene hexamine, , (b) Hexamethylene tetramine, , (c) Formaldehyde ammonia, , (d) Aldimine, 43

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8. Which one of the following is used as, an urinary antiseptic?, (a) Urotropine, , (b) Urea formaldehyde, , (c) Formalin, , 9. Which one of the reactions gives an explosive RDX?, Nitration of glycol, , (c) Nitration of urotropine, , (d) Aldimm, , (a) Nitration of phenol, , (b), , (d) Nitration of glycerol, , 10. The product formed when Acetone is subjected to Clemmenson reduction is …………….., (a) Acetic acid, , (b) Propanoic acid, , (c) Propane, , (d) Propanal, , 11. The reaction of benzaldehyde with 50% NaOH is called ………….., (a) Benzoin condensation, , (b) Claisen – schmidt reaction, , (c) Perkin’s reaction, , (d) Cannizaro reaction, , 12. The reaction of phenyl methanal and ethanal in the presence of dilute NaOH is known as ……, (a) Cannizaro reaction, , (b) Aldol condensation, , (c) Claisen – schmidt condensation, , (d) Perkin’s reaction, , 13. Which one of the following is formed when benzaldehyde reacts with alcoholic KOH?, (a) Benzyl alcohol, , (b) Potassium henzoate, , (c) Benzoin, , (d) Benzoic acid, , 14. What is the name of the reaction between Benzaldehyde and acetic anhydride?, (a) Perkin’s reaction, , (b) Knovenagal reaction, , (c) Cannizaro reaction, , (d) Kolbe’s reaction, , 15. Which one of the following is the formula of Schiff’ s base’?, (a) C6H5 – NH NH2, , (b) C6H5 CH = N – C6H5, , (b) Perkin’s reaction, , (d) Aldol condensation, , 16. Which one of the following is used as a catalyst in Knoevenagal reaction?, (a) Pyrimidine, , (b) Pyridine, , (c) PCC, , (d) CdCl2, , 17. Which one of the following is used to test ketones?, (a) lodoform test, , (b) Tollen’s reagent test (c) Fehling’s solution test (d) Benedict’s solution test, , 18. Which one of the following is used as a hypnotic?, (a) Acetaldehyde, , (b) Formalin, , (c) Paraldehyde, , (d) Formaldehyde, , 19. Which one of the following is used as nail polish remover?, (a) CH3CHO, , (b) HCHO, , (c) CH3COCH3, , (d) C6H5COCH3, , 20. The reaction of acetic acid with Cl2 and red phosphorous is named as ………………, (a) Kolbe’s reaction, , (b) Reimer – Tiemann reaction, , (c) HeII – volhard – zelinsky reaction, , (d) Knoevenagal reaction, , 44, , (c)

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13. ORGANIC NITROGEN COMPOUNDS, 1. Which of the following reagent can be used to convert nitrobenzene to aniline, a) Sn / HCl, , b) ZnHg / NaOH, , c) LiAlH4, , d) All of these, , 2. The method by which aniline cannot be prepared is, a) degradation of benzamide with Br2 / NaOH, , b) potassium salt of phthalimide treated, , with chlorobenzene followed by hydrolysis with aqueous NaOH solution., c) Hydrolysis of phenylcyanide with acidic solution, , d) reduction of nitrobenzene by Sn / HCl, , 3. Which one of the following will not undergo Hofmann bromamide reaction, a) CH3CONHCH3, , b) CH3 CH2 CON2, , c) CH3 CONH2, , d) C6 H5 CONH2, , 4. Assertion : Acetamide on reaction with KOH and bromine gives acetic acid, Reason : Bromine catalyses hydrolysis of acetamide., a) if both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion., b) if both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion., c) assertion is true but reason is false, , d) both assertion and reason are false., , 5., , a) bromomethane, , b)α - bromo sodium acetate, , c) methanamine, , d) acetamide, , 6. Which one of the following nitro compounds does not react with nitrous acid, , NaOH, , 7. Aniline + benzoylchloride →, , C6 H5 - NH - COC6 H5 this reaction is known as, , a) Friedel – crafts reaction, , b) HVZ reaction, , c) Schotten – Baumann reaction, , d) none of these, , 8. The product formed by the reaction an aldehyde with a prmary amine (NEET), a) carboxylic acid, , b) aromatic acid, , c) schiff ’s base, , 9. Which of the following reaction is not, correct., , 10. When aniline reacts with acetic, 46, , d) ketone

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anhydride the product formed is, a) o – aminoacetophenone, , b) m-aminoacetophenone, , c) p – aminoacetophenone, , d) acetanilide, , 11. The order of basic strength for methyl substituted amines in aqueous solution is, , 12., , 13., , 14. Nitrobenzene on reaction with Con.HNO3 / H2SO4at 80-100°C forms which one of the following, products?, , a) 1,4 – dinitrobenzene, , b) 2,4,6 – tirnitrobenzene, , c) 1,2 – dinitrobenzene, , d) 1,3 – dinitrobenzene, , 15. C5H13 N reacts with HNO2 to give an optically active compound – The compound is, a) pentan – 1- amine, , b) pentan – 2- amine, , c) N,N – dimethylpropan -2-amine, , d) N – methylbutan – 2-amine, , 16. Secondary nitro alkanes react with nitrous acid to form, a) red solution, , b) blue solution, , c) green solution, , d) yellow solution, , 17. Which of the following amines does not undergo acetylation?, a) t – butylamine, , b) ethylamine, , 18. Which one of the following is most basic?, , c) diethylamine, , d) triethylamine, , a) 2,4 – dichloroaniline, , b) 2,4 – dimethyl aniline, , c) 2,4 – dinitroaniline, , d) 2,4 – dibromoaniline, , 47

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19. When is reduced with Sn / HCl the pair of compounds formed are, , a) Ethanol, hydrozylamine hydrochloride, , b) Ethanol, ammonium hydroxide, , c) Ethanol, .NH2OH, , d) C3 H5 NH2 , H2 O, , 20. IUPAC name for the amine, a) 3 – Bimethylamino – 3 – methyl pentane, b) 3 (N,N – Triethyl) – 3- amino pentane, c) 3 – N,N – trimethyl pentanamine, d) 3 – (N,N – Dimethyl amino) – 3- methyl pentane, 21., , 22. Ammonium salt of benzoic acid is heated strongly with P 2O5and the product so formed is, reduced and then treated with NaNO2 / HCl at low temperature. The final compound, formed is, , a) Benzene diazonium chloride, , b) Benzyl alcohol, , c) Phenol, , d) Nitrosobenzene, , 23. Identify X in the sequence give below., , 24. Among the following, the reaction that, proceeds through an electrophilic, substitution, is :, , 48

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25. The major product of the following reaction, , Additional Questions :, 1. Which one of the following is act as neurotransmitter?, (a) Pyridoxine, , (b) Histamine, , (c) Dopamine, , (d) Cyano cobalamine, , 2. Which one of the following is an example of primary nitro alkane?, (a) 2 – nitropropane, , (b) Ethyl nitrite, , (c) Nitro ethane, , (d) 2 – methyl – 2 – nitropropane, , 3. Nitro methane and methyl nitrite are the examples of ……………, (a) Position isomerism (b) chain isomerism, , (c) metamerism, , (d) Tautomerism, , (c) Nitro benzene, , (d) Nitro ethane, , 4. Which of the following is called oil of mirbane?, (a) Nitro methane, , (b) Nitro propane, , 5. On direct nitration of nitro benzene gives ………………, (a) 0 – dinitro benzene, , (b) m – dinitro benzene, , (c) p – dinitro benzene, , (d) 2, 4, 6 – trinitrobenzene, , 6. Which one of the following is formed when nitro methane reacts with chlorine and NaOH?, (a) CH3CI, , (b) CH3COCl, , (c) CCI3NO2, , (d) CHCI2NO2, , 7. What is the IUPAC name of, (a) Tertiary butyl amine, , (b) Trimethyl amine, , (c) N, N – dimethyl methanamine, , (d) N – methyl ethanamine, , 8. The IUPAC name of, (a) Methyl iso propyl amine, , (b) N – methyl propan – 1 – amine, , (c) N, N – dimethyl methanamine, , (d) propan – 1 – amine, , 49

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9. In which reaction acetamide is changed to methylamine by the action of Br2/KOH?, (a) Gapriel phthalimide synthesis, , (b) Hoffmann degration reaction, , (c) Mendius reaction, , (d) Mustard oil reaction, , 10. Which one of the reaction is used in the synthesis of aliphatic primary amines?, (a) Hoffmann ammonolysis, , (b) Rosenmund’s reduction, , (c) Carbylamine reaction, , (d) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis, , 11. The conversion of ethanol into all types of amines by the action of ammonia along with Alumina is, (a) HVZ reaction, , (b) Sabatier – mailhe method, , (c) Carbylamine reaction, , (d) Mendius reaction, , 12. The relative basicity of amine follows the order as …………., (a) Alkyl amines > Aralkyl amines > Ammonia > N – aralkylamine > Arylamine, (b) Aralkyl amines > Ammonia > Arylamine > Alkyl amine > N – aralkylamine, (c) Arylamine Alkyl amine N – aralkylanilne, (d) N – aralkylamine < Arylamine < Ammonia < Alkyl amine < Aralkyl amine, 13. Identify the name of the reaction in which aniline reacts with Benzoyl chloride to form N – Phenyl, benzamide?, , (a) Hoffmann degradation reaction (b) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis, (c) Schotten – Baumann reaction, , (d) Mustard oil reaction, , 14. The reaction of aniline with nitrous acid at low temperature is known as …………, (a) Carbylamme reaction, (c) Diazotisation, , (b) mustard oil reaction, (d) Sand meyer’s reaction, , 15. Which one of the following reaction is used to identify primary amines?, (a) Schotten – Baumann reaction, , (b) Carbylamine reaction, , (c) Sand meyer’s reaction, , (d) Gattermann reaction, , 16. The reaction between methylamine and CS2 is known as ……………, (a) mustard oil reaction, , (b) Carbylamine reaction, , (c) Sand meyer’s reaction, , (d) Gabriel phthalirnide synthesis, , 17. Chloropicrin is used as (a) antiseptic, , (b) analgesic, , (c) insecticide, , (d) fertilizer, , 18. Which one of the following is the strongest base in aqueous solution?, (a) Trimethyl amine, , (c) Dimethyl amine, , (d) methyl amine, , (b) Aniline, , 19. Liebermann’s nitroso reaction is used for testing …………., (a) 1° amine, , (b) 2° amine, , (c) 3° amine, 50, , (d) all the above

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20. Carbylamine test is used in the detection of …………, (a) aliphatic 2° amine, , (b) Aromatic 1° amine, , (c) Aliphatic l amine, , (d) both aliphatic and aromatic 1° amine, , 14. BIOMOLECULES, 1. Which one of the following rotates the plane polarized light towards left?, a) D(+) Glucose (b) L(+) Glucose, , (c)D(-) Fructose, , d) D(+) Galactose, , 2. The correct corresponding order of names of four aldoses with configuration given below, Respectively is, (NEET Phase – I)1551, a) L-Erythrose, L-Threose, L-Erythrose, D-Threose, b)D-Threose,D-Erythrose, L-Threose, L-Erythrose,, c)L-Erythrose, L-Threose, D-Erythrose, D-Threose, d) D-Erythrose, D-Threose, L-Erythrose, L-Threose, 3. Which one given below is a non-reducing sugar? (NEET Phase – I), a) Glucose, , b) Sucrose, , 4. Glucose, , c) maltose, , Product, , a) Heptanoic acid, 5. Assertion:, , Product, , b) 2-Iodohexane, , c) Heptane, , d) Lactose., A, the compound A is, d) Heptanol, , A solution of sucrose in water is dextrorotatory. But on hydrolysis in the, , presence of little hydrochloric acid, it becomes levorotatory. (AIIMS), Reason:, , Sucrose hydrolysis gives unequal amounts of glucose and fructose. As a result of this, , change in sign of rotation is observed., a)If both accretion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion, b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion, c) If assertion is true but reason is false., , d) if both assertion and reason are false., , 6. The central dogma of molecular genetics states that the genetic information flows from, (NEET Phase – II), a) Amino acids, b) DNA, , Protein, Carbohydrates, , DNA, Proteins, , c) DNA, , RNA, , Proteins, , d) DNA, , RNA, , Carbohydrates, , 7. In a protein, various amino acids liked together by (NEET Phase – I), 51

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a) Peptide bond, , b) Dative bond, , c) α - Glycosidic bond, , d) β - Glycosidic bond, , 8. Among the following the achiral amino acid is (AIIMS), a) 2-ethylalanine, , b) 2-methylglycine, , c) 2-hydroxymethylserine, , d) Tryptophan, , 9. The correct statement regarding RNA and DNA respectively is (NEET Phase – I), a) the sugar component in RNA is an arabinos and the sugar component in DNA is ribose, b) the sugar component in RNA is 2’-deoxyribose and the sugar component in DNA is arabinose, c) the sugar component in RNA is an arabinose and the sugar component in DNA is 2’-deoxyribose, d) the sugar component in RNA is ribose and the sugar component in DNA is 2’-deoxyribose, 10. In aqueous solution of amino acids mostly exists in, a) NH2-CH(R)-COOH, , b) NH2-CH(R)-COO, , c)H3N+-CH(R)-COOH d) H3N+-CH(R)-COO11. The number of sp2 and sp3 hybridised carbon in fructose are respectively, a) 1 and 4, , b) 4 and 2, , c) 5 and 1, , d) 1 and 5, , 12. The pyrimidine bases present in DNA are a) Cytosine and Adenine, c) Cytosine and Thiamine, , b) Cytosine and Guanine, d) Cytosine and Uracil, , 13. Among the following L-serine is, , 14. Complete hydrolysis of cellulose gives, a) L-Glucose, , b) D-Fructose, , c) D-Ribose, , d) D-Glucose, , 15. Glucose is an aldose. Which one of the following reactions is not expected with glucose?, a) It does not form oxime, , b) It does not react with Grignard reagent, , c) It does not form osazones, , d) It does not reduce tollens reagent, , 16. If one strand of the DNA has the sequence ‘ATGCTTGA’, then the sequence of, complementary strand would be, a) TACGAACT, , b) TCCGAACT, , c) TACGTACT, , d) TACGRAGT, , c) Enantiomers, , d) Conformational isomers, , 17. α-D (+) Glucose and β-D (+) glucose are, a) Epimers, , b) Anomers, , 18. Which of the following are epimers, a) D(+)-Glucose and D(+)-Galactose, , (b) D(+)-Glucose and D(+)-Mannose, 52

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c) Neither (a) nor (b), , (d) Both (a) and (b), , 19. Which of the following amino acids are achiral?, a) Alanine, , b) Leucine, , c) Proline, , d) Glycine, , ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS :, 1. How many isomers are possible for glucose that have 4 asymmetric carbon atoms?, (a) 8 isomers, , (b) 16 isomers, , (c) 2 isomers, , (d) 4 isomers, , 2. Which one of the following will reduce Tollen’s reagent and Fehling’s solution?, (a) Glucose, , (b) Fructose, , (c) Sucrose, , (d) Maltose, , 3. The specific rotation of pure α and β (D) glucose are respectively., (a) 18.7°, 112°, , (b) 112°, 18.7°, , (c) 90°, 90°, , (d) 120°, 20°, , 4. Sugar differing in configuration at an asymmetric centre is known as ………………., (a) epimers, , (b) isomers, , (c) anomers, , (d) monomers, , 5. Which is the product formed when fructose undergoes partial reduction with sodium amalgam and, water?, , (a) Sorbital + mannitol, , (b) D – mannose + D – galactose, , (c) Gluconic acid + saccharic acid, , (d) Aldehyde + ketone, , 6. How many asymmetric carbon atoms are present in fructose?, (a) 4, , (b) 3, , (c) 2, , (d) 6, , 7. Two monosaccharides are linked by to form a disaccharide., , 8. The enzyme that catalyses the hydrolysis of sucrose to glucose and fructose is ……………., (a) zymase, , (b) invertase, , (c) diastase, , (d) maltase, , 9. Which one of the following is an example of non – reducing sugar?, (a) Glucose, , (b) Dextrose, , (c) Lactose, , (d) Sucrose, , 10. Which one of the following gives blue colour with amylose and purple colour with amylopectin?, (a) Tollen’s reagent, , (b) Fehling’s solution (c) Iodine solution, , (d) Bromic water, , 11. Which of the amino acid is optically inactive?, (a) Alanine, , (b) Valine, , (c) Glycine, 53, , (d) Proline

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12. The nucleic acid base having two possible binding sites is ……………., (a) thymine, , (b) cytosine, , 13. A nucleotide consists of, , (c) guanine, , (a) base and sugar, (c) sugar and phosphate, , (d) adenine, (b) base and phosphate, , (d) base, sugar and phosphate, , 14. Which one is fouñd in ATP ribonucleotide?, (a) Guanine, , (b) Uracil, , (c) Adenine, , (d) Inulin, , 15. In nucleic acid, the correct sequence is …………….., (a) base – phosphate sugar, , (b) phosphate – base – sugar, , (c) sugar – base – phosphate, , (d) base – sugar – phosphate, , 16. In DNA, the complementary bases are, (a) Uracil and adenine; cytosine and guanine (b) Adenine and thymine; guanine and cytosine, (c) Adenine and guanine; thymine and cytosine (d) adenine and guanine; thymine and uracil, 17. RNA is different from DNA because RNA contains ……………, (a) Ribose sugar and tymine, , (b) Ribose sugar and uracil, , (c) Doxyribose sugar and thymine, , (d) Deoxy ribose sugar and uracil, , 18. The number of essential amino acid in man is (a) 8, , (b) 10 (c) 20 (d) 18, , 19. In fructose, the possible optical isomers are (a) 12 (b) 16 (c) 8, , ----ALL THE BEST----, , 54, , (d) 4

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ANSWER KEY, , 1. METALLURGY, 1., 2., 3., 4., 5., , 6., 7., 8., 9., 10., 11., 12., 13., 14., , 15., 1., 2., 3., 4., 5., 6., 7., 8., 9., 10., 11., 12., 13., 14., 15., 16., 17., , b) Al2O3.nH2O, c)SO2, c) MgCO3 → MgO + CO2, b) Al2O3, d) Carbon and hydrogen are, suitable reducing agents for, metal sulphides, c) A – (iv) , B – (ii) , C – (iii) , D –, (i), d) Electromagnetic separation, b) Infusible impurities to, soluble impurities, c) Galena, a) Carbon reduction, c) Displacement with zinc, b) van Arkel process, d) Both (a) and (c), d) In the metallurgy of gold,, the metal is leached with dilute, sodium chloride solution, b) Impure copper, ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS, b) Zn, d) Malachite, c) Zone refining, c)Copper (I)sulphide (Cu2S), c) froth flotation, d) fractional crystallization, b)roasting, b) CuCO3Cu(OH)2, a)ZnS, c) Sulphur, d) Flux, c) Sulphide, c) Smelting, a) Collector, c) Leaching, d) Magnetic separation, d) Calcination, , 18., 19., 20., 21., , b) Liquation, b) Na2[Zn(CN)4], a) NaCN, c) acid leaching, 2. P BLOCK ELEMENTS – I, , 1. (c) basic., 2. (d) accepts OH– from water,, releasing proton, 3. (a) Aluminium, 4. (c) Lead, 5. (c) sp2 hybridised, 6. (a) +4, 7., , 8., 9., 10., 11., 12., 13., 14., , 1., 2., 3., 4., 5., 6., 7., 8., 9., 10., 11., , (a) Me3SiCl, (a) dry ice, (a) Tetrahedral, (a) A – 2, B – 1, C – 4, D – 3, (d) Al, Cu, Mn, Mg, (a) Metal borides, (a) Al < Ga < In < Tl, ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS, (c) -1, (d) ns2np6, (b) stable electronic, configuration, (b) stable electronic, configuration, (a) Fluorine, (b) allotropism, (c) 6, (c) borax, (c) Sodium borate, (a) 10B5, (a) H3BO3, 55, , 12. (b) hexagonal, 3. p-Block Elements – II, 1. (a) Nessler’s reagent, 2. (d) ability to form pπ – pπ, bonds with itself, 3. (d) 1s22s22p63s23p3, 4. (a) 6N, 5. (d) Both assertion and reason, are false. The converse is true., 6. (d) NeF2, 7. (c) He, 8. (c) XeO3, 9. (c) CU(NO3)2 and NO2, , 1., 2., 3., 4., 5., 6., 7., 8., 9., 10., 11., 12., 13., 14., 15., 16., 17., 18., 19., , ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS, (b) Fractional distillation, (a) Liq N2, (a) 10-30, (d) 107°, (c) Pyramidal, (c) Nitronium ion, (a) phosphorescence, (c) Phosphine, (c) bent shape, (c) 2.2 times, (a) Cl2, (b) Cu2Cl2, (b) CaOCl2, (b) T-shape, (b) Distorted octahedron, (c) Kr, b) pentagonal bipyramidal, a) Square pyramidal, (d) sp3

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4. Transition and Inner, Transition Elements, 1. (c) in case of Sc, 3d orbital are, partially filled but in Zn these, are completely filled, 2. (a) Cr, 3. (a) Ti, 4. (c) Ni2+, 5. (a) 5.92BM, 6. (c) their ability to adopt, variable oxidation states, 7. (c) All the lanthanons are much, more reactive than aluminium, 8. (6) Yb2+, 9. (d) 3, 10. (b) +3, 11. (a) Np, Pu, Am, 12. (a) La(OH)2 is less basic than, Lu(OH)3, , 1., 2., 3., 4., 5., 6., 7., 8., 9., 10., 11., 12., 13., 14., 15., 16., 17., , ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS, (b) Iron, (a) Cobalt, (c) [Ar] 3d5 4s1, (b) [Ar] 3d10 4s1, (d) [Noble gas] ( n – 1 ) d110 ns2, (b) Silver, (c) Zn2+, (a) Mn2+, Fe3+, (c) TiCl4 + Al(C2H5)3, (c)TiCl4 + Al(C2H5)3, (b) Cr2O3, (c) Poor shielding effect of 4f, sub-shell, (d) Zr and Hf, (a) La(OH)3, (a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) explains (A)., (d) Zinc, (a) Manganese, , 5. Coordination Chemistry, 1., 2., 3., 4., 5., , 6., , 7., 8., 9., 10., 1., 2., 3., 4., 5., 6., 7., 8., 9., , 10., 11., 12., 13., 14., 15., , (d) 9, (b) 0.002, (c) [M(H2O)5Cl]SO4. H2O, (d) +1 and +1 respectively, (d) chloridobis (ethane-1, 2diamine) nitro k – Ocobalt (III), chloride, (d), potassiumtrioxalatoaluminate, (III), (c) [Cu(NH3)4]2+, (c) [Fe(CO)5], (d) [Fe(H2N – CH2 – CH2 –, NH2)3](PO4)2, (c) [Ni(H2O)6]2+, ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS, (c) 3, 6, (c) (iii) only, (a) Ni2+, (a) II, (b) 4, (d) [Co (NH3)6]Cl3, (b) K[PtCl3(C2H4)], (b) Potassium hexa cyanido, Ferrate (II), (a), Tetramminedichloridocobalt, (III) chloride, (a) [Fe F6]4(b) dsp2, (d) a and b, (b) Octahedral, (d) Potassiumtrichloro, (ethene) platinate(II), (c) dsp2, , 6. Solid State, 1. (c) both covalent crystals, 2. (b) AB3, 3. (b) 1:2, 56, , 4. (c) molecular solid, 5. (a) Both assertion and reason, are true and reason is the, correct explanation of ssertion, 6. (c) 8 and 4, 7. (b) 6.023 x 1022, 8. (d) M3N2, 9. (c) 6, 10. (d) (3√2) x 400 pm, 11. (a) (1000.414), 12. (c) 32%, 13. (b) 848.5pm, 14. (b) (π6), 15. (a) excitation of electrons in F, centers, 16., , 17. (d) (3√2)a, 18. (a) 915 kg m-3, 19. (b) equal number of anions and, anions are missing from the, lattice, 20. (c) Frenkel defect, 21. (d) Both assertion and reason, are false, 22. (b) FeO, 23. (a) XY8, , 1., 2., 3., 4., 5., 6., 7., 8., 9., 10., 11., 12., 13., , ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS, (a) Glass, (d) Naphthalene, (b) Diamond, (a) Strong electrostatic, attractive forces, (a) London forces, (b) polar molecular solids, (a) 8, (a) 2, (c) 2, (a) 52.3 1%, (b) 68%, (a) 12, (b) 4

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14., 15., 16., 17., 18., 19., 20., , (c) 6, (c) AgBr, (a) FeO, (d) 8, (a) ρ = nm / a3NA, (c) nλ = 2dsinθ, (c) non polar molecular solid, , 8., 9., 10., 11., 12., 13., 14., 15., , 7. Chemical Kinetics, 1. (c) (1 x 10-2) e-60x, 2. (c) 20 min, 3., , 4. (d) Without knowing the rate, constant, t1/2 cannot be, determined from the given, data, 5. (c) 1.5k1 = 3 k2 = k3, 6. (c) rate is independent of the, surface coverage, 7. (b) (mol1/2 L1/2 s-1), (mol L1 s-1), , 8. IONIC EQUILIBRIUM, 1. (d) 5.619 x 10-12 mol3 L-3, 2. (d) (iii) 75 mL M5 HCI + 25, mL M5 NaOH, 3. (c) 1.08 x 10-10 mol2 L2, 4. (a) 0.5 x 10-15, 5. (c) OH– and F–,, respectively, 6. (c) 100 mL of 0.1M HCI +, 200 mL of 0.1M NH4OH, 7. (, b, ), PF3, 8. (a) BF3, , 16., 17., 18., 19., 20., 21., 22., 23., , 24., , (a) (ii) only, (d) (x + y) x 103 J mol-1, (c)434.65 J mol-1 K-1, (b) 0.2 15 M, (b) (32) log 2, (c) (In2k), (b) rate = k [A][B]2, (c) Assertion is true but reason, is false, (a) First order, (c) (1.3 x 10-1 mol L-1s-1) and, (3.25 x 10-2 mol L-1s-1), (d) 3.0 mol min-1, (a) Zero, a), (b) 30 minutes, d)116g, (b) The half life of a first order, reaction does not depend on, [A0]; the half life of a second, order reaction does depend on, [A0], (c) 30 minutes, , 9., 10., 11., 12., 13., 14., , 15., 16., 17., 18., 19., 20., , (b) basic, acidic, basic, (b) 0.013%, (a) 3.7 x 10-2, (b) 1.6 x 10-9 M, (a) 2 x 10-3M, (d) The molar solubility of, MY in water is less than, that of NY3, (d) 12.65, (d) 1:10, (a) 9, (c) H3PO4, (c) HPO42(b) strongly acidic, , 1., 2., 3., 4., 5., 6., 7., 8., 9., 10., 11., 12., , ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS, (c) mol L-1 s-1, (a) First order, (c) s-1, (d) 1, (b) Acid hydrolysis of an ester, (c) 100 seconds, (a) first order, (b) zero order, (c) first order reaction, (c) mol L-1 s-1, (a) fractional, (b) Both A and R are correct, but R is not correct explanation, of A, , 2. (a) H2O, 3. (b) HCI + CI–, 4. (b) Cr3+, 5. (c) 1 x 10-14, 6. (a) 3, 7. (d) NaOH + NaCI, 8. (a) OH– and HSO4, 9. (c) 1.0 x 109, 10. (b) 5.09, 11. (c) 4, 12. (d) 6.63, 13. (a) 9.4, , 21., ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS, 1. (d) either (b) or (c), 57, , 14. (c) 11, 15. (a) pH will increase

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16. (d) 10-9, 17. (a) CH3COOH + CH3COONa, 18. (a) remains constant, 19. (d) mol2 L-2, 20. (a) [Ag+]2 [CrO4-2], , 10., 11., 12., 13., 14., 15., , (b) zero, (c) Platinum, (b) – Nfe, (c) negative, (b) 96500 C, (a) Nernst equation, , 21. (c) NH4OH + NH4CI, 9. ELECTROCHEMISTRY, 1. (c) 6.022 x 1022, 2. (b) 11.52 S cm2 mol-1, 3. (c) 390.7, 4. (b) charge carried by one, mole of electrons, 5. (a) 5F, 6. (b) 2, 7. (b) 107.2 minutes, 8. (c) 3.75 x 1020, 9. (b) 0.002N, 10. (d) Zinc has higher, negative electrode, potential than iron, 11. (d) both assertion and, reason are false., 12. (b) 6.25 x 10 -6, 13. (c) 1 cm-1, 14. (d) 1.74 x 10-12, 15. (d) HBrO, 16. (b) 15.8, 17. (a) Y will oxidize X and not Z, , 1., 2., 3., 4., 5., 6., 7., 8., 9., , ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS, (c) Redox reactions, (b) Ω m, (a) Ohm metre, (b) Siemen (S), (d) Ohm-1m-1, (a) Sm2g equivalent-1, (b) wheat stone bridge, (c) Debye-Huckel and, Onsagar equation, (d) either a (or) c, , 16., 17. (a) m = Zit, 18. (b) electro chemical, equivalent, 19. (b) Fe2O3.xH2O, 20. (c) Galvanisation, 21. (c) 0.66 g, 10. SURFACE CHEMISTRY, 1. (c) 1/n, log k, 2. (b) increases with increase, in temperature, 3. (d) ∆G, ∆H and ∆S all are, negative., 4. (c) liquid in gas, 5. (a) if both assertion and, reason are true and reason, is the correct explanation, of assertion, 6. (b) It is true, Fe3+ ions, coagulate blood which is a, negatively charged sol, 7. (b) emulsion, 8. (b) Gel – butter, 9. (d) AI3+, 10. (b) CH3 – (CH2)15 – NH2, 11. (d) Tyndall effect-scattering, of light, 12. (b) III > II > I > IV, 13. (a) Nitrocellulose, 14. (a) Hydrolysis of sucrose in, presence of all HCl, 15. (a) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii), 16. (a) III > II > I, 17. (a) ∆S decreases – ∆S is –ve, 18. (d) x/m = mPT, 58, , 19. (a) Both magnitude and, sign of the charge on the, ion., 20. (d) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i), , 1., 2., 3., 4., 5., 6., , 7., 8., 9., 10., 11., 12., 13., 14., 15., 16., 17., 18., 19., 20., 21., 22., 23., 24., , ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS, (c) 400 kJ/mole, (b) (iii) only, (a) NH3, (b) Fe, Mo, (d) Chromatography, (b) Decomposition of, H2O2 in the presence of Pt, catalyst, (a) As2O3, (c) H2S, (a) Co, (a) Ethanol, (b) activation energy, (a) Fe°/Pd°, (c) Fog, (c) Bredigs arc method, (c) ultrasonic dispersion, (d) peptisation, (c) coagulation, (b) 1 mμ to 1 μm diameter, (d) rod like, (a) AS2S3, (c) scattering of light, (c) electrophoresis, (c) Electro osmosis, (d) the measure of, protective power of a, lyophillic colloid, , 11. HYDROXY, COMPOUNDS AND ETHERS, 1. (a) CH3 CH (OH) CH2CH3, 2. (c) methyl propanoate, 3. A

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4. (c) 2 – chloroethan – 1 – ol, and NaHCO3, 5. c) 4 – nitrophenol, 6. b, 7. (a) Phenol, 8. (c) trichloro methane, (Riemer Tiemann reaction), 9. (b) (CH3)2 C = C (CH3)2, 10. (a) 4 – chloro – 2, 3 –, dimethyl pentan – 1 – ol, 11. (a) if both assertion and, reason are true and reason, is the correct explanation, of assertion., 12. (d) ethanol, 13. (c) Williamson ether, synthesis, 14. (a) C6H5 – OH (phenol), 15. (a) if both assertion and, reason are true and reason, is the correct explanation, of assertion., 16. (c) methanol, 17. (d) ethan -1, 2-diol, 18. (c) Kolbe reactions, 19. (d) methoxy ehane, 20. A, 21. (b) SN2 reaction, 22. (b) violet colour, ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS, 1., , 2., 3., 4., 5., 6., , (c) Ethane – 1, 2 – diol, (a) Propan – 2 – ol, (b) Ethanol, (b) 2 – methyl – p ropan – 2, – ol, 7. (c) Prop – 2 – en – 1 – Oi, 8. (c) Cold dilute alkaline, KMnO4, , 9. (a) Conc. HCl + Anhydrous, ZnCl2, 10. (c) Blue, 11. (c) E1 mechanism, 12. (a) 1° < 2° < 3°, 13. (b) Swern oxidation, 14. (a) Esterification, 15. (d) Oxirane, 16. (a) 1, 4 – dioxane, 17. (a) Methanal, 18. (a) Nitroglycerine, 19. (b) Glyceric acid and, tartronic acid, 20. (a) 1° alcohol > 2° alcohol >, 3° alcohol, 21. (c) Pyrogallol, 22. (b) 1, 2 – dihydroxy, benzene, 23. (c) Dow’s process, 24. (d) Benzene, 25. (b) Schotten – Baumann, reaction, 26. (d) 2, 4 , 6 – trinitro phenol, 27. (c) Kolbe’s Schmitt reaction, 28. (c) Rlemer – Tiemann, reaction, 29. (b) Salicylaldehyde, 30. (b) P – hydroxy azo, benzene, 31. (b) Methanal, 32. (c) Methoxy benzene, 33. (d) Diethyl ether, 34. (c) SN2, 35. (b) P – bromoan isole, 36. (b) Ethoxy ethane, 37. (c) comparatively inert, , 12. CARBONYL COMPOUNDS, 1. A, 2. (d) Nucleophilic addition, 3. (c) hydrazine in presence of, slightly acidic solution, 59, , 4. (b) Victor meyer test, 5. (c), hexamethylenetetraamlne, 6. A, 7. (a) if both assertion and, reason are true and reason, is the correct explanation, of assertion., 8. (a) FCH2COOH > CH3COOH, > BrCH2COOH >, CICH2COOH, 9. (c) benzene diazonium, chloride, 10. (c) Hell – Volhard – Zelinsky, reaction, 11. (a) acetylchloride, 12. (a) formic acid, 13. B, 14. (a) but – 3 – enoicacid, 15. D, 16. A, 17. (b) if both assertion and, reason are true but reason, is not the correct, explanation of assertion., 18. (b) cannizaro reaction, 19. (a) Phenylmethanal, 20. (b) Fehling’s solution, 21. (c) phenyl methanol and, sodium benzoate, 22. (d) Wolf kishner reduction, 23. C, 24. (d) formation of, intermolecular H – bonding, ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS, (a) Prop – 2 – enal, (d) Rosenmund reduction, (b) Catalyst poison, (c) Gattermann koch, reaction, 5. (b) Benzophenone, 6. (c) Anhydrous AlCl3, 1., 2., 3., 4.

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1., 2., 3., 4., 5., 6., 7., 8., , ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS, (a) 4, (a) Glucose, (b) 112°, 18.7°, (a) epimers, (a) Sorbital + mannitol, (b) 3, (a) glycosidic linkage, (b) invertase, , 9., 10., 11., 12., 13., , (d) Sucrose, (c) Iodine solution, (c) Glycine, (c) guanine, (d) base, sugar and, phosphate, 14. (c) Adenine, 15. (d) base – sugar –, phosphate, , 16. (b) Adenine and thymine;, guanine and cytosine, 17. (b) Ribose sugar and uracil, 18. (b) 10, 19. (c) 8, , Note:, ✓ I hope this material will be useful for practice the evaluation and additional MCQ with, the help of teachers., ✓ It will be better to give importance to the evaluation part questions then can study, additional questions., ✓ Above average students should study text book well for creative questions, ✓ If any mistakes or your suggestions, please send your valuable thoughts to that email, to help the students, DEDICATED TO : ALL THE TEACHERS AND STUDENTS, , G. SURESH M.Sc, M.A, B.Ed,, P.G. ASSISTANT IN CHEMISTRY, &, CAREER COUNSELOR, THE CRESCENT MATRIC HR.SEC.SCHOOL, UTHAMAPALAYAM, THENI [DT], , E mail: [email protected], Click here for more Materials :,  நல்லவை நாடி(Nallavai Nadi), , “THANK GOD AND THANK YOU ALL”, “ALL THE BEST”, , 61