Page 3 : Information contained in the work has been obtained by Prabhat Paperbacks, from sources believed to be reliable. However,, neither, Prabhat Paperbacks nor its authors guarantee the accuracy or completeness of any information published herein,, and neither Prabhat Paperbacks nor its authors shall be responsible for any errors, omissions, or damages arising out of use, of this information. This work is published with the understanding that Prabhat Paperbacks and its authors are supplying, information but are not attempting to render engineering or other professional services., All disputes are subject to Delhi jurisdiction only., , Publisher, , Prabhat Prakashan, , 4/19 Asaf Ali Road, New Delhi–110 002, Ph. 23289555 • 23289666 • 23289777 • Helpline/ 7827007777, e-mail:
[email protected] • Website: www.prabhatexam.com, © Reserved, Edition, 2019, , A Complete Study Guide for ntse, by Dr Rajesh Thakur, Dr S R Singh, Subhash Jain & Mamta Mehrotra, Published by Prabhat Prakashan, 4/19 Asaf Ali Road, New Delhi–110 002, , Visit https://telegram.me/ntse_tg for more books.
Page 4 : Preface, About NTSE (National Talent Search Examination): NTSE is a talent based evaluation system scientifically, designed for class X students. It measures an individual’s strengths and weaknesses on the basis of the concepts, learnt at school. More than three lacs mastermind students appear in this scholarship exam every year and one, thousand scholarships are awarded, out of which approx. 77% are for general category., The Central Government awards scholarships to NTSE scholars for pursuing studies in sciences and social, sciences up till doctoral level. In case of a professional course like engineering or medicine, the scholarship is, granted up to postgraduate level. The scholarship for PhD programs is as per the UGC standards., Some colleges in India have seats reserved exclusively for NTSE scholars. This prestigious exam is your, gateway to an excellent college in future. If you are aspiring to opt for advanced studies out of the country, then, you have an edge over others as an NTSE scholar. It also acts as a differentiator to choose whether to apply for, MS/MBA. Those applying for US scholarships get additional marks for being an NTSE qualifier. The universities, abroad are familiar with NTSE and give preference to candidates who have qualified the exam., In NTSE the most important parameter is MAT (Mental Aptitude Test) as it does not have a well-defined, syllabus. The questions level in SAT (Scholastics Science, Mathematics and Social science) are of higher level, based on class IX and X syllabus, as well required to be must solved them in a time-bound manner. Success in long, terms comes from a combination of the right preparation, hard training and natural skills. In order to try to reach, maximum; projection angle should be 45°. Examinations, tests, competitions, interviews are the challenges which, you must face right now and conquer with confidence and ease. If you have ‘will’, victory is yours. If you show, courage, you can make the conquest., “The main objective of the NTSE guide is to develop in the students the ability to understand any problem in, simple and logical manner and to apply to its solution a few well-understood basic principles.” In this guide each, chapter begins with an essential theory to know the approach of concepts and analytical view to learn and cover all, the concepts included in the NTSE syllabus and the illustrations have been reconstituted to more closely follow the, general problem solving strategy to reinforce good problem solving skills. At the end Mock Test is given to check, the understanding of that examination pattern and to find where to work more to improve performance., Elementary children are keen to learn, to explore, to try things out, to observe things, to talk about what they, object. They love to play with magnets, discovering that some things are attracted to magnets and some things are, not – even through water, plastic and sand, discovering the idea that some ends of straight magnets attracted each, other and some ends repel. They are enthralled by the metamorphosis of a caterpillar into beautiful butterfly. They, get excited watching things that swing and things that balance. They are desirous of the changes that occur during, the seasons, by the setting of the sun, by the countless stars in the night sky, by the many shapes of the moon, by the, different colours of rocks, by the magic of seeds sprouting., This effort is a synergistic creation of numerous minds. It is designed to help you stay out of the difficulties, that come when you think small and get too involved in memorising formulas or other specific details without, understanding the principles, fundamentals. It is hoped that students will find the book useful in their preparation, for NTSE; don’t take my word for it, better read and analyse yourself; I request you to give your valuable feedback, to rectify and to improve this book at on
[email protected], You could be a successful student! GOOD LUCK!, AUTHORS
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CONTENTS, Preface, , iii, , PART ONE: MENTAL ABILITY TEST (MAT), Section A: Verbal Test, 1. Inserting the Missing Numbers, , I.A.5, , 2. Number Series, , I.A.10, , 3. Odd Man Out, , I.A.19, , 4. Alphabetical Series, , I.A.28, , 5. Analogies, , I.A.34, , 6. Coding and Decoding, , I.A.45, , 7. Analytical Reasoning, , I.A.53, , 8. Counting of Geometrical Patterns, , I.A.59, , 9. Direction and Distance, , I.A.62, , 10. Clocks, , I.A.70, , 11. Calendar Problems, , I.A.77, , 12. Dice and Cube, , I.A.83, , 13. Blood Relationship, , I.A.89, , 14. Venn Diagram, , I.A.96, , 15. Placing and Ordering Puzzles, , I.A.104, , Section B: Non-verbal Test, , 20. Mirror and Water Images, , I.B.141, , 21. Figure Puzzles, , I.B.148, , 22. Figure Construction and Analysis, , I.B.159, , PART TWO: SCHOLASTIC ABILITY TEST (SAT), Section A: Mathematics, 1. Numbers and Operations, , II.A.5, , 2. LCM and HCF, , II.A.14, , 3. Square and Cube Roots, , II.A.20, , 4. Surds, Indices and Logarithm, , II.A.29, , 5. Average, , II.A.40, , 6. Ratio and Proportion, , II.A.43, , 7. Partnership, , II.A.47, , 8. Percentage, , II.A.52, , 9. Profit and Loss, , II.A.57, , 10. Interest: Si and Ci, , II.A.61, , 11. Problems on Ages, , II.A.67, , 12. Mensuration, , II.A.71, , 13. Plane and Coordinate Geometry, , II.A.86, , 14. Triangle, , II.A.96, , 16. Series Completion, , I.B.117, , 15. Quadrilateral, , II.A.107, , 17. Odd Man Out, , I.B.128, , 16. Circle, , II.A.112, , 18. Analogies, , I.B.131, , 17. Pair of Linear Equations, , II.A.122, , 19. Paper Folding and Cutting, , I.B.136, , 18. Polynomials, , II.A.129
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vi, , 19. Quadratic Equations, , II.A.137, , 5. , , 20. Progression, , II.A.145, , 6. Heredity and Evolution, , II.D.46, , 21. Probability, , II.A.157, , 7. Structure of a Cell, , II.D.58, , 22. Statistics, , II.A.162, , 8. Diversity in Living Organisms, , II.D.66, , 23. Trigonometry, , II.A.177, , 9., , II.D.77, , 24. Height and Distance, , II.A.187, , 10. Natural Resources and Management, , 1. Measurement, , II.B.3, , 2. Motion, , II.B.9, , 3. Force, , II.B.20, , 4. Work, Energy and Power, , II.B.28, , 5. Gravitation, , II.B.35, , 6. Sound Waves, , II.B.42, , 7. Fluid Mechanics, , II.B.50, , 8. Thermometry, , II.B.57, , 9. Optics: Reflection, , II.B.63, , 10. Optics: Refraction, , II.B.71, , 11. Electricity, , II.B.87, , 12. Chemical, Heating and, Magnetic Effects of Current, , II.B.99, , 13. Sources of Energy, , II.B.112, , 14. The Universe, , II.B.120, , Section C: Chemistry, 1., , Matter, , 2., , Acid, Base and Salts, , II.C.14, , 3., , Atomic Structure, , II.C.21, , 4., , Periodic Properties, , II.C.28, , 5., , Chemical Bonding, , II.C.37, , 6., , Chemical Reaction, , II.C.44, , 7., , Carbon and its Compounds, , II.C.50, , 8., , Metals and Non-metals, , II.C.57, , II.C.3, , Section D: Biology, Nutrition, , 2. , , Respiration and Transportation, , Health and Diseases, , II.D.36, , II.D.88, , Section E: History, , Section B: Physics, , 1. , , Reproduction and Growth, , II.D.3, , 1. The Making of Global World, , II.E.3, , 2. The French and Russian Revolutions, , II.E.9, , 3. Nazism and the Rise of Hitler, , II.E.14, , 4. Forest Society and Colonialism, , II.E.17, , 5. Modern World: Pastoralists, Peasants, and Farmers, , II.E.21, , 6. Sports and Clothing, , II.E.26, , 7. Nationalism in Europe, , II.E.31, , 8. The Nationalist Movement in Indo-China II.E.36, 9. Nationalism in India, , II.E.39, , 10. Global World and Industrialisation, , II.E.45, , 11. Work, Life and Leisure, , II.E.49, , 12. Print Culture and the Modern World, , II.E.53, , 13. Novels, Society and History, , II.E.57, , Section F: Geography, 1. India: Physical Features, , II.F.3, , 2. Drainage and Climate, , II.F.7, , 3. Natural Vegetation, Wild Life and Resources II.F.12, 4. , , Population, , II.F.16, , 5. Resources for Human Needs, , II.F.19, , 6. , , II.F.25, , Water Resources and Agriculture, , 7. Minerals and Energy Resource, , II.F.31, , 8. , , II.F.36, , Manufacturing Industries, , 9. Lifelines of the National Economy, , II.F.40, , Section G: Economics, 1. Production of Goods and Services, , II.G.3, , 2. , , II.G.5, , Human Resources, , II.D.11, , 3. Poverty – A Big Challenge, , 3. Excretion and Locomotion, , II.D.20, , 4. , , Food Security in India, , II.G.10, , 4. Control and Coordination, , II.D.27, , 5. , , Development, , II.G.13, , II.G.7
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vii, , 6., , Sectors of the Indian Economy, , II.G.16, , 6. Political Parties, , II.H.23, , 7., , Money and Credit, , II.G.20, , 7. Democratic Rights, , II.H.27, , 8., , Globalisation and the Indian Economy, , II.G.23, , 9. , , Consumer Rights, , II.G.26, , 8. Power Sharing, , II.H.31, , 9. Federalism, , II.H.35, , Section H: Political Science, , 10. Diversity in Society, , II.H.40, , 11. Gender, Religion and Caste, , II.H.43, , 1., , Democracy in the Contemporary World, , 2., 3., , What is Democracy? Why Democracy? II.H.7, Constitutional Design, Popular Struggles, and Movements, II.H.10, , 4., , Electoral Politics, , II.H.15, , 1., , MAT (Mental Ability Test) – I, , II.1, , 5., , Working of Institutions, , II.H.19, , 2., , SAT (Scholastic Aptitude Test) – II, , II.8, , II.H.3, , 12. Challenges and Outcomes of Democracy II.H.47, , Mock Test
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PART ONE, MENTAL ABILITY TEST (MAT), Section A—Verbal Test, Section B—Non-verbal Test,
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Section, , A, , vERBAL TEST, Chapter in this sECTION, 1. Inserting the Missing Numbers, , I.A.5, , 2. Numbers Series, , I.A.10, , 3. Odd Man Out, , I.A.19, , 4. Alphabetical Series, , I.A.28, , 5. Analogies, , I.A.34, , 6. Coding and Decoding, , I.A.45, , 7. Analytical Reasoning, , I.A.53, , 8. Counting of Geometrical Patterns, , I.A.59, , 9. Direction and Distance, , I.A.62, , 10. Clocks, , I.A.70, , 11. Calendar Problems, , I.A.77, , 12. Dice and Cube, , I.A.83, , 13. Blood Relationship, , I.A.89, , 14. Venn Diagram, , I.A.96, , 15. Placing and Ordering Puzzles, , I.A.104
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Inserting the Missing Numbers, , 1, , I.A.5, , Inserting the Missing Numbers, , By using your logical reasoning skills and mathematical, operations please try to figure out which number is missing in, the given problem. The numbers around will give you the clues, you need to solve the problem. You have to crack the pattern of, the given numbers and find the missing one that would replace, the question mark: It looks easy but in reality is not that much., Note, Zoologists tell us that mammals other than humans are only, able to count up to three or four, while our early ancestors were, able to count further. They believed that the necessity for, numbers became more apparent when humans started to build, their own houses, as opposed to living in caves and the like., Example 1. Fill in the blank squares of the magic square so, that the sum of the numbers in each column, row and both the, diagonals is 0., 33 –44 11, –22, , 0, , 22, , –11, , 44, , –33, , Example 3. Select the number which will replace the mark ‘?’, in pattern given below., 8, 6, , a. 64, , 7, 27, , 15, , 49, , 4, , 2, , ?, , 9, b. 100, , d. 144, , Solution: (d) Figure 1: [(8 4) (6 3)] 9, Figure 2: [(7 9) (5 4)]2 49, Figure 3: [(8 9) (2 3)]2 144, Thus, the required number is 144., Example 4. Fill in the boxes with the correct digits., 3, , , 2 7, , 4, 3 7, , 2, , , , I Row, II Row, III Row, IV Row, V Row, , 1, , , , VI Row, , Solution:, 3, , 3, 2 2 7, 1, , 2, 3, 2, 2, , 4, 7, 4, 2, , 6, 1, 6, , , 9 7 3 8 , 2 0 4 2 6 6, , Example 5. Find the missing number form the options which, will replace the question mark (?) in the given patterns., , 8, 31, , 17, , b. 35, , c. 81, , 3, , 9, c. 81, , ?, , 7, , 11, , 13, , 15, , 23, , 27, , 484 1156, a. 64, , 8, , 2, , 44, , Example 2. Find the missing number in the third circle., , 13, , 5, , 4, , 0, , 6, , 3, , 9 7 8 , 2 4 2 6 , , Solution: The sum of the numbers in each column, row and, both diagonals is 0., , –11, , 9, , 7, , ?, , d. 144, , Solution: (b) 6 12 7, 7 12 8, , a. 1300, , b. 1500, , c. 1400, , 13 2 15, 15 2 17, , Solution: (d) (7 15) 484; (11 23) 1156, , 27 2 2 31, 31 2 2 35, , , , 2, , (13 27) 2 1600, , 2, , d. 1600
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I.A.6, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , Which number replaces the blank and completes the, sequence?, 2, 7, 4, 6, 1, 7, 12, 5, , 14, 3, , 11, , 7., , d. 3, , 2, , 3, , 9, , 7, , 6, , 2, , 16, , 11, , 12, , 25, , 20, , ?, c. 23, , d. 32, , A set of figures carrying certain character is given., Assuming that the characters in each set follow a similar, pattern, find the missing character., 17, , 38, , 6, , 5., , a. 2, , 18, , 89, , 8, , 8., , 4, , 1, , 6, , 6, , 2, , 1, , 9, , 6, c. 2, , d. 1, , Which number goes in the empty circle?, 27, , 74, , 71, , 3, , 1, , 8, , ?, , 5, , 3, , 8, , 2, , 7, , 9, , 4, , 9, , 13, , 3, , 1, , 4, , 3, , 6, , 9, , 7, , 1, , ?, , 3, , 4, , 12, , 9., , 4, , 27, , 73, , 75, , 14, , 11, , 13, , 1, , 19, , 68, , 43, , 19, d. 2, , d. 9, , a. 10, b. 26, c. 23, d. 4, 10. Find the missing number form the options which will, replace the question mark (?) in the given patterns., , 16, c. 6, , 1, , a. 5, b. 3, c. 6, Which number completes the puzzle?, , 27, , b. 3, , d. 1, , 14, , b. 4, , 16, , a. 6, b. 11, c. 9, d. 8, Which number replaces the blank and completes the, sequence?, 7, 2, 9, , a. 9, , c. 3, , Which number is missing from this sequence?, , a. 5, , a. 13, b. 15, c. 17, d. 19, Following a logical pattern, complete this puzzle., , 1, , 73, , 3, , b. 7, , Which number goes in the empty box?, , 25, , 4., , 6, , c. 2, , b. 42, , 76, 8, , 21, , b. 6, , a. 21, 3., , 57, , ?, , 9, 2., , Which number replaces the blank and completes the, sequence?, , 4, , 2, a. 8, , 6., , a. 18, , 62, ?, , b. 21, , 51, , 84, 27, , c. 23, , d. 15
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Inserting the Missing Numbers, , I.A.7, , 11. Which number replaces the question mark in the bottom, square?, 9, 3, 9, 1, , a. 2, , 5, , 2, , 3, , 8, , 6, , 4, , 2, , 5, , 6, , 12, , 5, , ?, , b. 9, , c. 7, , 16. Which number is missing from the third circle?, 2, , 3, , 4, , 13, a. 5, , 3, , 5, , 7, , 1, , 26, , c. 9, , d. 1, , 17. Fill in the empty box., 3, , 4, , 24, , 24, , 5, , 3, , 4, , ?, , 12. Which number is missing?, 9, , 5, , 65, b. 31, , d. 5, , 3, , 7, , 2, , 24, 8, , b. 5, , c. 8, , d. 3, , 13. Which number is missing from the empty segment?, 2, , c. 15, , d. 21, , 5, , 13, , 4, , 3, , 19, , 6, , 10, , 2, , 6, , 20, , a. 21, , 9, , b. 22, , c. 7, , 8, , d. 16, , 19. Which number is missing?, , 6, 3, a. 10, , 4, , b. 11, , 18. Following a logical sequence, can you complete this, puzzle?, , 1, , 7, a. 6, , a. 2, , b. 36, , c. 15, , 3, , 6, , 7, , 3, , 4, , 4, , d. 24, , 14. Enter the correct number into the empty square., 4, , 5, 4, , 9, , a. 9, , 2, , b. 5, , 2, c. 8, , d. 1, , 20. Which number is missing from the third wheel?, , a. 11, , 8, , 5, , 1, , 3, , b. 15, , 1, , 3, 4, d. 17, , 15. Following a logical pattern, complete this puzzle., 1, , 5, , 7, , a. 8, , 4, , 8, , 7, 1, , c. 7, , 5, , 6, , 9, 3, , 2, b. 11, , 7, 2, , 6, , 3, , c. 9, , d. 14, , 3, , 7, , 2, , 8, , 4, , a. 5, , 5, , 4, , 6, , 3, , 8, , 2, , 13, , 12, , 5, , 2, , b. 15, , c. 6, , 6, , 14, , d. 13, , 11, , 21. Which number is missing in the last grid?, , 1, , 1, , 12, , a. 2, , 11, , 20, , 14, , 3, , 8, , 18, , 13, , b. 5, , c. 9, , d. 14
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I.A.8, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 22. Which number completes this sequence?, 2, , 5, , 10, , 4, , 7, , 3, , 14, , 6, , 20, , 26. Which number completes the middle star ?, a. 10, b. 8, c. 1, d. 16, , 6, , 8, , b. 17, , c. 15, , d. 12, , 23. Which number completes this sequence?, 12, , 11, , 10, , 99, a. 49, , b. 81, , c. 63, , 7, , 5, , 1, , d. 59, , 5, , d. 19, , 25. Using every number between 1 and 9 fill in the spaces on, this triangle so that the numbers on each side add up to 20., 1, , a. 6, 9, , b. 7, 5, , 2, 9, , 7, , 3, , 5, , b. 45, , 5, ?, , 4, c. 37, , 5, , 4, d. 35, , I, M, ?, 9, , 30. Find the missing term., 1, 16, , 6, 2, , 3, , 51, , 29. Find the missing term., a. 10, F, b. 13, D, c. 12, 4, d. 14, 6, , 3, , 5, , 4, , 3, , a. 47, , c. 11, , 1, 5, , 39, 6, , b. 10, , 9, , 11, , 3, , 24. Which number completes the chain?, , a. 13, , 5, , 27. Find the missing number form the options which will, replace the question mark (?) in the given patterns., a. 6, 3 6 7, b. 7, 5 8 5, c. 8, 4 7 ?, d. 9, 28. Find the missing number form the options which will, replace the question mark (?) in the given patterns., , 28, a. 22, , 2, , 4, , 4, , 3, , 9, , ?, 4, , 2, 19, , 17, 7, , 18, 5, , 20, , c. 7, 8, , d. 8, 7, , a. 15, , b. 21, , c. 14, , d. 18, , ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , b, , c, , b, , d, , a, , a, , b, , a, , c, , b, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , a, , d, , b, , a, , a, , d, , a, , c, , c, , a, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , b, , d, , b, , a, , d, , a, , a, , c, , b, , c, , SOLUTIONS, 1., 2., 3., , (b) In each square the bottom segment equals the sum of, the other segments., (c) In columns, add the first three numbers together to get the, figure in the bottom box., (b), , 4., 5., 6., , 7., 8., 9., , (d) Working in rows, add the left and centre numbers, together to give the result on the right., (a) In rows, add the left and centre figures to get the right, hand number., (a) Taking the top and bottom lines separately, add the, left and centre numbers, then subtract the right hand, number to give the figure in the middle., (b) Number is each row add up to 14., (a) In rows, double the left and centre digits and add, together to give the right hand figure., (c) Moving across each row, from top to bottom, the, numbers follow the sequence of prime numbers., , 10. (b) (27 68) 5 19; (51 84) 5 27
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Inserting the Missing Numbers, , I.A.9, , So, (43 62) 5 ?, , , ? 21., , 11. (a) In each square, the sum of the 3 outer numbers divided, by the central number always equals 6., 12. (d) Working in rows, the figure on the right equals half, the difference between the left and central numbers., 13. (b) Segments in the right hand half equal the squares of, the diagonally opposing segments on the left., 14. (a) Working in rows, halve the first number, double the middle, number and add them together to give the right hand number., 15. (a) Working in rows, the first three numbers add up to the, right hand number. In the next line, the three numbers to, the right add up to the left hand numbers, etc., 16. (d) In each circle, the bottom number equals the sum of, the squares of the top two numbers., 17. (a) In each triangle, add the lower two digits and multiply, by the top digit to give the value in the centre., 18. (c) In each line, the central number equals the left hand, number and double the right hand number., 19. (c) All vertical and diagonal lines through the centre add, up to 14., 20. (a) In each circle, the sum of the odd numbers plus one, equals the sum of the even numbers., 21. (b) In each grid numbers move clockwise in steps given, by the central number., , 22. (d) As you go down each pair of numbers, the left hand, value equals the sum of the numbers above and the right, hand value equals the difference of the pair of numbers, above., 23. (b) As you go down, subtract the sum of the separate, digits in each number form itself to give the next number., 24. (a) Moving clockwise, each segment equals the sum of, the previous two segments., 25. (d), 1, 8, , 3, 7, , 6, 5, , 2, , 4, , 9, , 26. (a) The values of the points of the central star equal the, sums of the values of the corresponding point of the left, and right hand stars., 27. (a) (3 5) 2 4, (6 8) 2 7, (7 5) 2 6, 28. (c) (3 3) (6 5) 39, (4 4) (5 7) 51,, So, (3 4) (5 5) 37, 29. (b), 30. (c) 1 20; 5 16; 18 3; 2 19 and 17 + 4 is same i.e.,, , , , equal to 21., So, ? 7 21 21 7 14.
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I.A.10, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 2, , Number Series, , In the number series, some numbers are arranged in a particular, sequence. One is required to observe the trend in which the, numbers. After finding the relation between the numbers in the, given series, we can easily find the missing number or odd number, from the given series. Following are some of the important rules or, order on which the number series are based on:, , Example 2., Solution: Increasing difference:, , Note, Number series is a arrangement of numbers in a certain order,, where some numbers are wrongly put into the series of, numbers and some number is missing in that series, we need to, observe and find the accurate number to the series of numbers., Paper setter is usually not asking AP, GP or HP questions. Just, try to find a pattern in the series and solve it. Sequence:, Growing quickly: 2, 9, 28, 65, 126, (n3 + 1). In quick-growing, sequences are cubes or fourth powers, or maybe factorials., Growing slowly: 2, 4, 6, 8, 10. If it is growing slowly just, addition or subtraction with particular number, or in between: 2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, 50, (n2 + 1). If it is, growing in between, compare it to the sequence of squares, , Decreasing difference:, , I. Difference Series: Under this category, the change in the, order for the differences between each consecutive number of, the series is found out. The difference series can be further, classified as:, Number series with a constant difference: In the number, series with a constant difference, there is always a constant, difference between two consecutive numbers., Examples 1., Solution:, 3, , 8, +5, , 13, +5, , 18, +5, , 23, +5, , 28, +5, , 33, +5, , 38, +5, , 43, +5, , Constant difference = + 5, , We can also have series of odd numbers or series of even, numbers in the number series with constant difference., Number series with an increasing or decreasing, difference: In the number series with an increasing or, decreasing difference, the difference between consecutive, terms are increasing or decreasing, as the case may be., , 1, , 4, +3, , 8, +4, , 13, +5, , 19, +6, , 26, , 34, , +7, , +8, , 37, , 42, , Increasing difference, , 7, , 16, +9, , 24, +8, , 31, +7, , +6, , +5, , Decreasing difference, , II. Squares/Cubes Series: In this type all the terms are related, to the squares of numbers or cubes of numbers. The number, itself obeys certain order so that the character of the series can, be found out., Squares Series:, Example 3. Squares of consecutive odd numbers,, Solution:, 1, 9, 25, 49, 81, 121, ↓, ↓, ↓, ↓, ↓, ↓, 12, , 32, , 52, , 72, , 92, , (11)2, , Squares of consecutive prime numbers – 1,, 3, ↓, , 8, ↓, , 24, ↓, , 48, ↓, , 120, ↓, , 22 – 1 32 – 1 52 – 1 72 – 1 (11)2 – 1, Cubes Series:, Example 4. Cubes of consecutive even numbers,, Solution:, 8, 64 216 512, ↓, ↓, ↓, ↓, 22, , 43, , 63, , 83, , Cubes of consecutive prime numbers + 3,, 11, ↓, , 30, ↓, , 128, ↓, , 22 + 3 33 + 3 53 + 3, , 346, ↓, 73 + 3
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Number Series, , I.A.11, , Squares:, , 1 1, , 2 4, , 3 9, , 4 16, , 5 25, , 6 36, , 7 49, , 8 64, , 9 81, , 102 100, , 112 121, , 122 144, , 132 169, , 142 196, , 152 225, , 162 256 172 289 182 324 192 361, , 202 400, , 2, , 2, , 2, , 2, , 2, , 21 441, 2, , 2, , 2, , 22 484, , 2, , 23 529, , 2, , 2, , 24 576, 2, , 2, , 25 625, , Example 7. 625, Solution:Series I:, , Series II:, , 5, , 125, , 625 125, , 25, 25, , 25, , 125, , 5., , 5, , +5, , +5, , +5, , 5, , 25, , 125, , 2, , Cubes:, , ×5, , ×5, , Note: It includes triangular pattern series., , 1 1, , 2 8, , 3 27, , 4 64, , 5 125, , 6 216, , 7 343, , 83 512, , 93 729, , 103 1000, , 113 1331, , 123 1728, , 133 2197, , 143 2744, , 153 3375, , 163 4096, , 173 4913, , 183 5832, , 193 6859, , 203 8000, , 3, , 3, , 3, , 3, , 3, , 3, , 3, , III. Product Series: In this type of series, each term is, multiplied by a fixed number or certain pattern to get the next, number., Example 5., Solution: (i), , 3, , 12, ×4, , 48, ×4, , 192, ×4, , 768, , ×4, , Fixed or constant number, , (ii), , 5, , 30, , 150 600, , ×6, , ×5, , ×4, , Decreasing factor, , (iii), , 7, , 28, ×6, , 140 840, ×5, , ×4, , IV. Division Series: In this type of series, each term is divided, by a fixed number or certain pattern to get the next number., Under this category, the change in the order for the ratios, between each consecutive number of these series is found out., , 128, +2, , 64, , 32, +2, , 16, +2, , Example 8. 5, 35, 245, 1715, ?, Solution:Here, a = 5, r = 7 and n = 5, T5 = 5 × 75 –1 = 5 × 2401 = 12005, VII. Two-tier Arithmetic series: Under this category, the, differences of successive numbers form an arithmetic series., Example 9. Find the sum of the first 10 terms of the following, series: 3, 8, 13, 18, 23, 28, 33, 38, 43,…, Solution: If you observe the above series, you notice that there, is a fixed difference of 5 between successive terms and so it is, an Arithmetic Series., Therefore, a =3, d = 5 and n = 10., [Tn = a + (n – 1) d], T10 = 3 + (10 – 1) 5 = 48, Basic Approach to Number Series, , Increasing factor, , Example 6., Solution:, , VI. Geometric series: A geometric series is a series with a, constant ratio between successive terms. Pattern Tn = arn-1 ( a =, first term, r = common ratio, n = number of term)., , 8, +2, , Fixed or constant number, , V. Combination or Mixed Series: In this type of series, more, than one series is combined together with certain pattern., , The best way/method of approaching the number series, questions:, Firstly, analyse the difference between terms., If the difference is constant, it is a constant difference., If the difference is increasing or decreasing by a constant, number, then it is a series with a constant increasing or, decreasing difference., If there is no constant increasing or decreasing difference,, then try product series approach., For the product series approach, first divide the second term, with the first term, third with the second and so on., If the numbers obtained are the same, then it is a product, series., If the difference is increasing or decreasing fastly, then try, the square series approach.
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I.A.12, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , If the increase is very much and it is not a square series,, then try the cube series approach., If the difference is alternately decreasing and increasing or, increasing for some time and alternately decreasing, then it, should most probably be a mixed series. So, check out the, series with alternate numbers., If still the series is not solved, try the general series., , Example 14. 5, Solution: (37), , 4, , 6, , +1, , +2, , Example 11. 4, Solution: (128), 4, , 9, , 8, , +3, , 8 16, 16, , ×2, , 13, +4, , +5, , 64, , ×2, , 5, , 11, , ×2+1, , ×2+1, , 23, , 47, , ×2+1, , ×2+1, , 5, , 11, , 23, , +6, , +3, , 50, , 22 + 1, , 32 + 1, , 42 + 1, , 52 + 1, , 62 + 1, , 72 + 1, , 6 12 20 30 42 ___, , 2, , 6, , 12, , 20, , 30, , 42, , 56, , 12 + 1, , 22 + 2, , 32 + 3, , 42 + 4, , 52 + 5, , 62 + 6, , 72 + 7, , 12 36 80 150 ___, , 2, , 12, , 36, , 80, , 150, , 252, , 13 + 12, , 23 + 22, , 33 + 32, , 43 + 42, , 53 + 52, , 63 + 62, , ×2+1, , ×2+1, , 3, , 10, , 15, , 26, , 35, , 50, , 12 + 1, , 22 – 1, , 32 + 1, , 42 – 1, , 52 + 1, , 62 – 1, , 72 + 1, , Example 18. 4 12 15 60, Solution: (1950), , 191, , 95, , +24, , 2, 191, , 95, , 47, , +12, , 37, , Example 17. 2 3 10 15 26 35 ___, Solution: (50), , This problem can also be solved by an alternate method., 2, , 26, , ×2, , Example 12. 2 5 11 23 47 95 ____, Solution: (191), 2, , 17, , Example 16. 2, Solution: (252), 128, , ×2, , 10, , +6, , 32 64 ____, 32, , ×2, , 24, , 18, , ___ 50, , 5, , Example 15. 2, Solution: (56), , Example 10. 34 6 9 13 18 ____, Solution: (24), 3, , 10 17 26, , +48, , 4, , 12, , 15, , 60, , 64 320 325 ___, 320, , 64, , 325, , 1950, , +96, , In this pattern, the difference between two consecutive terms is, doubling in each step. From the above, it is clear that the same, problem can be tackled by different methods. So, different, patterns can be identified for the same problem is certain cases., Example 13. 1 4 9 16 25 ____, Solution: (36) All the terms in the problem are prefect square, of natural numbers., , ×, 3, , +, 3, , ×, 4, , +, 2, , ×, 5, , +, 5, , ×, 6, , Example 19. 1, 1, 3, 9, 6, 36, 10, 100, ____, 225, Solution: The given series a mixture of two series., I. 1, 3, 6, 10, …, II. 1, 9, 36, 100, 125, , 1, , 4, , 9, , 16, , 25, , 36, , The logic of I is 2, 3, 4, 5, and the logic of II is the, , 12, , 22, , 32, , 42, , 52, , 62, , squares of the corresponding numbers of I. So, the missing, number is 10 + 5 i.e., 15., , Multiple Choice Questions, Directions: In each of the following questions, a number, series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct, alternative that will continue the same pattern and replace, the question mark in the given series:, , Type–I: Difference Series, 1., , 6, 12, 21, ?, 48, a. 38, c. 45, , b. 40, d. 33
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Number Series, , 2., 3., 4., 5., 6., 7., 8., 9., , I.A.13, , 10, 18, 28, , 40, 54, 70, ?, a. 85, b. 86, , c. 87, , d. 88, , 1, 6, 15, ?, 45, 66, 91, a. 25, b. 26, , c. 27, , d. 28, , 6, 11, 21, 36, 56, ?, a. 42, b. 81, , c. 51, , d. 91, , 0, 2, 8, 14, ? 34, a. 25, b. 23, , c. 20, , 0.5, 0.55, 0.65, 0.8, ?, a. 0.82, b. 0.95, , 21. 89250, 17850, 7140, 1408, 571.2, ?, a. 126.12, b. 114.24, c. 228.48, , d. 246.48, , 22. 3, 10, 32, 100, ?, a. 460, c. 345, , b. 308, d. None of these, , d. 24, , 23. 17, 19, 10, ?, 35, 90, a. 27.5, c. 21, , b. 16.5, d. None of these, , c. 0.9, , d. 1, , 24. 13, 25, 51, 101, 203, ?, a. 411, b. 405, , c. 406, , 28, 33, 31, 36, ?, 39, a. 32, b. 34, , c. 38, , d. 40, , 60.5 72 84.5 98 112.5 ?, a. 127, b. 125, , 25. 705, 728, 774, 843, 935, 1050, ?, a. 1180, b. 1187, c. 1185, d. None of these, , c. 126, , d. 128, , 289 303 324 352 387 429 ?, a. 473, b. 487, c. 558, , d. 478, , 10. 55 60 67 78 91 108 ?, a. 89, b. 127, , c. 125, , d. 121, , Type – II: Squares/Cubes Series, , 26. 15, 17, 21, 29, 45, 77, ?, a. 125, c. 173, , d. 407, , b. 141, d. None of these, , Type – IV: Combination of Series, 27. 10, 22, 8, 24, 6, ?, a. 18, b. 26, , c. 16, , d. 12, , c. 278, , d. 428, , 28. 20, 20, 19, 16, 17, 13, 14, 11 ?, ?, a. 13, 14, b. 10, 11, c. 13, 16, , d. 10, 10, , 12. 112, 111, 119, 92, 156, 31, ?, a. 387, b. 247, c. 375, , d. 287, , 29. 19, 2, 38, 3, 114, 4, ?, a. 352, b. 256, , c. 228, , d. 456, , 13. 1, 4, 27, 256, 3125, 46656, ?, a. 705894, b. 823543, c. 279936, , d. 16807, , 30. 23, 26, 24, 27, 25, 28, ?, a. 29, b. 26, , c. 27, , d. 24, , 11. 4, 8, 28, 80, 244, ?, a. 628, b. 728, , 14. 104, 153, 189, 214, ?, a. 235, c. 225, , b. 239, d. None of these, , 15. 2, 6, 33, 49, 174, 210, ?, a. 426, c. 274, , b. 259, d. None of these, , Type – III: Product/Division Series, 16. 6 13 28 59 ?, a. 111, b. 122, 17. 12 12 18 45 180 1170 ?, a. 12870, b. 12285, 18. 2916, 972, 354, 108, 36, 12, a. 2916, b. 972, , c. 113, , d. 114, , c. 10530, , d. 11700, , c. 354, , d. 36, , 19. 23, 25, 53, 163, 657, 3291, ?, a. 23045, b. 19753, c. 16461, , d. 13169, , 20. 1250, 500, 200, 80, 32, 12.8, ?, a. 5.16, b. 6.02, c. 6.4, , d. 5.12, , Type – V: Triangular Pattern Series, 31. 2, 12, 36, 80, 150, ?, a. 210, b. 258, , c. 194, , d. 252, , 32. 2, 9, 28, ? 126, 217, 344, a. 82, b. 65, , c. 50, , d. 70, , 33. 3, 20, 63, 144, 275, ?, a. 548, b. 554, , c. 354, , d. 468, , Type – VI: Miscellaneous, 34. 3, 4, 12, ?, 576, 27648, a. 96, c. 64, , b. 48, d. 52, , 35. 13 (168) 13, 14 (181) 13, 15 (?) 13, a. 195, b. 194, c. 190, 36. 5 6 ? 57 244, a. 15, c. 17, , d. 196, , b. 36, d. None of these
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I.A.14, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 37. 15 17 32 49 81 130 ?, a. 226, b. 194, , c. 179, , 52. 11, 23, 48, 99, __, 409., a. 200, b. 202, , d. 211, , 38. 1, 1000, 11011, 1000000, 1111101, ?, a. 1100101, b. 11011000, c. 10000000, d. None of these, 39. 7, 12, 19, 28, 39, ___, a. 49, b. 57, , c. 50, , 40. 1, 2, 6, 15, 31, ___., a. 47, c. 55, , b. 52, d. 56, , 41. 5, 11, 23, 47, 95, ___., a. 191, c. 169, 42. 13, 24, 46, 90, 178, …., a. 354, b. 266, 43. 11, 12, 20, 47, … ., a. 91, b. 101, 44. 7, 15, 31, 63, 127, … ., a. 254, b. 265, 45. 23, 48, 99, 203, 413, …, a. 927, b. 837, 46. 5, 7, 10, 15, 22, …, a. 31, b. 32, , d. 52, , b. 161, d. 190, , 50. 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, 21, …., a. 29, c. 32, , d. 381, , 54. 5, 11, 25, 55, 117, 243, …., a. 511, b. 499, , c. 498, , d. 497, , 55. 9, 19, 37, 75, 149, 299, …., a. 598, b. 597, , c. 599, , d. 697, , 56. 13, 17, 33, 97, 353, …., a. 1377, b. 653, , c. 712, , d. 1273, , 57. 3, 7, 13, 21, 31, …., a. 40, b. 41, , c. 42, , d. 43, , 58. 10, 12, 16, 24, 40, …., a. 60, b. 56, , c. 70, , d. 72, , 59. 2, 7, 28, 63, 126, …., a. 210, b. 213, , c. 215, , d. 219, , 60. 999, 730, 511, 344, 215, …., a. 123, b. 126, c. 125, , d. 130, , c. 164, , d. 168, , c. 111, , d. 121, , c. 253, , d. 255, , c. 937, , d. 437, , 61. 8, 24, 48, 80, 120, …., a. 158, b. 162, , d. 35, , 62. 23, 27, 43, 79, 143, …., a. 244, b. 243, , c. 242, , d. 241, , 63. 1, 2, 4, 8, 16, 32, 64, 96, a. 4, b. 32, , c. 64, , d. 96, , 64. 5, 10, 17, 24, 37, 50, 65., a. 10, b. 17, , c. 24, , d. 37, , 65. 2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, 50, 64, a. 17, b. 26, , c. 37, , d. 64, , 66. 13, 17, 19, 23, 27, 31, a. 13, b. 19, , c. 27, , d. 31, , 67. 17, 18, 22, 31, 46, 72, a. 17, b. 18, , c. 31, , d. 46, , 68. 7, 15, 69, 149, 307, a. 15, b. 33, , c. 69, , d. 307, , d. 235, , b. 8, d. 4, , 49. 1, 3, 3, 6, 7, 9, …, 12, 21., a. 10, c. 12, , 53. 17, 21, 37, 73, 137, 237, … ., a. 363, b. 369, c. 375, , d. 344, , c. 233, , 48. 98, 72, 14, …, a. 9, c. 6, , d. 205, , c. 364, , c. 38, , 47. 7, 15, 29, 59, 117, … ., a. 230, b. 231, , c. 201, , b. 11, d. 13, b. 30, d. 34, , 51. 840, 168, 42, 14, 7, …., a. 1, b. 7, c. 9, d. 3, Type – VI: Missing Term, Directions: Find the missing term in the following, questions., , 69. 126, 135, 144, 216, 154, 801, a. 115, b. 216, c. 154, , d. 801, , 70. 76, 89, 115, 167, 271, 489, a. 115, b. 167, , d. 489, , c. 271, , ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , b, , b, , b, , d, , d, , d, , d, , c, , c, , d, , d, , d, , d, , b, , d, , d, , b, , d, , d, , b, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , d, , b, , b, , b, , d, , b, , b, , d, , d, , b
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Number Series, , I.A.15, , 31., , 32., , 33., , 34., , 35., , 36., , 37., , 38., , 39., , 40., , d, , b, , d, , b, , b, , b, , d, , b, , d, , d, , 41., , 42., , 43., , 44., , 45., , 46., , 47., , 48., , 49., , 50., , a, , a, , c, , d, , b, , d, , d, , d, , d, , d, , 51., , 52., , 53., , 54., , 55., , 56., , 57., , 58., , 59., , 60., , b, , b, , d, , d, , b, , a, , d, , d, , c, , b, , 61., , 62., , 63., , 64., , 65., , 66., , 67., , 68., , 69., , 70., , d, , b, , d, , c, , d, , c, , d, , c, , c, , d, , SOLUTIONS, 1., i.e., , 6, , 21, +9, , 33, +12, , 48, +15, , 18, , 28, +10, , 40, +122, , 70, , 54, +16, , +145, , i.e., , 1, , 15, , +5, , +9, , 28, +13, , 66, , 45, +21, , +17, , 91, , 6, , 11, +5, , 21, +10, , 36, +15, , 81, , 56, +25, , +20, , Therefore, Missing term 56 + 25 81., 5., i.e., , (d) The given sequence follows the pattern:, +2, +6, +6, +10, +10, . . ., , 0, , 2, , 8, , +2, , 14, , +6, , +6, , 34, , 24, +10, , 6., , (d) The given sequence follows the pattern:, +0.05, +0.10, +0.15, +0.20., , i.e. 0.5, , 0.5, , +0.05, , 0.65, , +0.10, , 0.8, , +0.15, , 1, , +0.20, , Therefore, Missing term, 0.8 + 0.20 1, , +5, , –2, , 84.5, , +12.5, , 112.5 128, , 98, , +13.5, , +15.5, , +14.5, , +21, +7, , +28, +7, , +42, , +35, +7, , +49, +7, , +7, , Therefore, Missing number 429 + 49 478., 10. (b) The given sequence of number follows the pattern:, + 5; + 7; + 11; + 13; + 17; + 19., i.e. consecutive prime numbers, 55, , 60, +5, , 67, +7, , 78, +11, , 108 127, , 91, +17, , +13, , +19, , Therefore, Missing number 108 + 19 127., 11. (b) The given sequence of number follows the pattern:, 31 + 1, 32 – 1, 33 + 1, 34 – 1, 35 + 1, 36 – 1, 8, 28, 80 244 728, 1, ↓, ↓, ↓, ↓, ↓, ↓, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 3 +1 3 +1 3 +1 3 +1 3 +1 3 +1, Therefore, Missing term 36 – 1 728., 12. (b) The given sequence of number follows the pattern:, –13; + 23 ; – 33; + 43; – 53; + 63, 112 111, – 13, , +10, , Therefore, Missing term 14 + 10 24., , 72, , +14, , +25, , Therefore, Missing term 15 + 13 28., (b) The sequence follows the pattern:, +5, +10, +15, +20, . . ., , +5, , Therefore, Missing number 112.5 + 15.5 128., (d) The given sequence of number follows the pattern:, + 14; + 14 + 7, + 21; + 21 + 7 + 28; + 28 + 7, + 35; + 35 + 7 + 42; + 42 + 7 + 49, 289 303 324 352 387 429 478, , +185, , 3., , 6, , 60.5, , 88, , Therefore, Missing term 70 + 18 88., (d) The given sequence follows the pattern:, +5, +9, +13, +17, +21, +25, . . ., , –2, , Therefore, Missing term 36 – 2 34., (d) The given sequence of number follows the pattern:, + 11.5; + 11.5 + 1.0, + 12.5; + 12.5 + 1.0 + 13.5; + 13.5 + 1.0, + 14.5; + 14.5 + 1.0 + 15.5., , +11.5, , 9., , Therefore, Missing term = 21 + 12 = 33., (d) The given sequence follows the pattern:, +8, +10, +12, +14, . . ., , +8, , i.e., , 8., , i.e., , 12, , i.e. 10, , 4., , +5, , (d) The given sequence follows the pattern:, +6, +12, +15, . . ., , +6, , 2., , 7. (b) The given sequence follows the pattern:, i.e. 28 33, 31, 36, 34 39, , 119, , + 23, , – 33, , 92, , 156, + 43, , – 53, , 31, , 247, + 63, , Therefore, Missing number 31 + 63 247., 13. (b) The given sequence of number follows the pattern:, 1, ↓, , 4, ↓, , 27, ↓, , 256 3125, ↓, ↓, , 46656 823543, ↓, ↓, , 77, 22, 31, 33, 44, 55, 66, 7, Therefore, Missing term 7 823543., 14. (d) The given sequence of number follows the pattern:, + 72, + + 62, + 52, + 42
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I.A.16, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 104 153, + 72, , 189, , + 62, , 214, , + 52, , 22. (b) The given sequence of number follows the pattern:, , 230, , 3, , + 42, , Therefore, Missing number 214 + 42 230., 15. (d) The given sequence of number follows the pattern:, 2, 6, 33, 49 174 210 553, + 23, , + 33, , + 43, , + 62, , + 53, , + 73, , Therefore, Missing number 210 + 73 553., 16. (d) The given sequence of number follows the pattern:, 6, 13, 28, 59 122, ×2+1 ×2+2 ×2+3 ×2+4, , Therefore, Missing number, (59 × 2) + 4 122., 17. (d) The given sequence of number follows the pattern:, × 1; × 1.5; × 2.5; × 4; × 6.5; ×10.5., 12, , 12, ×1, , 18, × 1.5, , 180 1170 12285, , 45, , × 2.5, , × 6.5, , ×4, , × 10.5, , ×3+1, , 25, , 53, , 657 3291 19753, , 163, , ×1+2 ×2+3 ×3+4 ×4+5 ×5+5 ×6+7, , Therefore, Missing number 3291 × 6 + 7 19753., 20. (d) The given sequence of number follows the pattern:, 2, X, 5, 1250 500 200, 80, 32 12.8 5.12, 2, 5, , 2, , 2, , 5, , 2, , 5, , 2, , 5, , 5, , 2, 5, , 2, 5.12., 5, 21. (d) The given sequence of number follows the pattern:, + 5; + 2.5; + 5; + 2.5; + 5., , Therefore, Missing number 12.5 ×, , 89250 17850, +5, , 7140, , + 2.5, , 1428, +5, , ×3+2, , ×2, , 100, ×3+4, , ×2, , 308, , ×3+8, , ×2, , 17, , 9, , ×0.5+0.5, , 10, ×1+1, , 16.5, , ×1.5+1.5, , 90, , 35, , ×2+2, , ×2.5+2.5, , Therefore, Missing number 10 × 1.5 1.5, 24. (b) The given sequence of number follows the pattern:, 13, 25, 51, 101, 203, 405, ×2–1, , ×2+1, , ×2–1, , ×2+1, , ×2–1, , Therefore, Missing number = 203 × 2 –1 = 405., 25. (d) The given sequence of number follows the pattern:, + 23 × 1; + 23 × 2; + 23 × 3; + 23 × 4; + 23 × 5; + 23×6., 705, , 728, , 774, , ×23×2, , 843, , ×23×3, , 935, , ×23×4, , 1050 1188, , ×23×5, , ×23×6, , 4+6.5, , Therefore, Missing number 1170 × 10.5, 12285., 18. (c) Each number is one-third of the next. In place of 354,, it should have been 324., Hence 354 is odd man out., 19. (d) The given sequence of number follows the pattern:, × 1 + 2; × 2 + 3; × 3 + 4; × 4 + 5; × 5 + 5; × 6 + 7, 23, , 32, , Therefore, Missing number 100 × 3 + 8 308., 23. (b) The given sequence of number follows the pattern:, , ×23×1, 1+1.5 1.5+2.5 2.5+4, , 10, , 571.2 114.24, , + 2.5, , +5, , Therefore, Missing number 571.2 + 5 114.24., , Therefore, Missing number = 1050 + 23 × 6, = 1188., 26. (b) The given sequence of number follows the pattern:, + 2; + 4 (+2×2); + 8 (+2×4); + 16 (+2×8); + 32 (+2×16); + 64, (×2×32);, 15, , 17, +2, , 21, +4, , 29, +8, , 45, + 16, , 77, + 32, , 141, + 64, , Therefore, Missing number 77 + 64 141., 27. (b) The given sequence of number is a combination of, series that follows the pattern:, Series I: 10 8, 6, –2, , Series II: 22, , –2, , 24, , +2, , 26, +2, , Therefore, Missing number 24 + 2 26., 28. (d) The given sequence of number is combination of, series that follows the pattern:, Series I:, , 20, , 19, –1, , Series II: 20, , 17, –2, , 16, –4, , 14, –3, , 13, –3, , 10, –4, , 11, –2, , 10, –2, , Therefore, Missing number 10 and 10.
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Number Series, , I.A.17, , Series II: 17, , 29. (d) The given sequence of number follows the pattern:, Series I: 19, 38 114 456, ×2, , ×3, , Series II: 2, , +26, , ×4, , 3, , 43, , Series III: 26, , +38, , 38, , +12, +1, , Therefore, Missing number 114 × 4 456., 30. (b) The given sequence of number follows the pattern:, Series I: 1; series II; 1, 24, +1, , Series II: 26, , 25, +1, , 27, +1, , 26, , Series II: 10, , +24, , 4, , +44, , +20, , +6, , +70, , ?, , 70, , ?, , +26, , 26, +6, , ?, +6, , [Uniform pattern + 6], So, Missing term in series III 26 + 6 32., Missing term in Series II 70 32 102., Therefore, Missing term in Series I 150 + 102 252., 32. (b) The given sequence of number follows the pattern:, Series I: 2, 9, 28, ? 126 217 344, +19, , 19, +12, , Series III: 12, +6, , ?, , ?, ?, , ?, , ?, , +91, , ?, , 91, , ?, , ?, , ?, +6, , +127, , 127, +36, , 36, , ?, +6, , +6, , [ Uniform pattern must be +6 to form a series], 24, 30, So, Missing term in series III = 18, +6, , +6, , Missing term in Series II 37 and 61., i.e. 19 + 19 + 18 and 37 + 24, Therefore, Missing term in Series I 28 + 37 65., 33. (d) The given sequence of number follows the pattern:, Series I: 3, 20, 63, 144 275, ?, +17, , +43, , +12, , +12, , ×, , 12, , ×, , 44, , 20, , Series II: 7, , ?, , ×, , +1, , +14, , +7, , 50, , ?, , [ Uniform pattern + 12], Missing term in Series III 50 + 12 62., Missing term in Series II 131 + 62 193., Therefore, Missing term in Series I 275 + 193 468., 34. (b) The given sequence of number follows the pattern:, , 28, , 24, , Series III: 14, , +50, , ?, , So,, , +1, , Therefore, Missing number 25 × 1 26., 31. (d) The given sequence of number follows the pattern:, 12, 36, 80 150, Series I: 2, ?, +10, , 131, , 4, , +1, , Series I: 23, , 81, , +81, , +131, , ?, , 48, , 27648, , 576, , ×, , i.e. 3 × 4 12; 4 × 12 48 ;, , 12 × 48 576; 48 × 576 27648, Therefore, Missing number 48., 35. (b) The given sequence of number follows the pattern,, Number within the bracket Multiply of numbers on its, adjacent sides – 1, i.e. (13×13) – 1 168; (14×13) – 1 = 181, Therefore, Missing number = (15×13) – 1 = 194., 36. (b) The given sequence of number follows the pattern:, 5, 6, 36, 57 244, ×1 +12 ×2 +22 ×3 +32 ×4 +42, , Therefore, Missing number 6 × 2 + 22 36., 37. (d) The given sequence of number follows the pattern:, +, , 15, , +, , +, , 17, , 32, +, , 49, , 81, , 130, , 211, , +, , i.e. 15 + 27 32; 17 + 32 49; 49 + 81 130; 81 + 130 211, Therefore, Missing number 211., 38. (b) The given sequence of number is in Binary system, and follows the pattern, Cubes of natural numbers i.e. 13; 23; 33; 43; 53; and 63, Converting this binary system into decimal system,, We get 1 1 × 2° 1 = 13, 3, 2, 1, 1000, 1 × 2 + 0 + 2 + 0 × 2 + 0 × 2°, 3, 8+0+0+0=8=2 ., 4, 3, 2, 1, 11011, 1 × 2 + 1 × 2 + 0 × 2 + 1 × 2 + 1× 2°, 3, 16 + 8 + 2 + 1 = 3 ., 39. (d) Here the given series follows the rule:, 5, 7, 9, 11, 13, ..., , The term next to 39 is 39 13 i.e., 52., Hence the answer is (d)
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I.A.18, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 40. (d) Here the logic is, 2, , 2, , 2, , 2, , 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, .... i.e.,, , 2, , 1 , 2 , 3 , 4 , 5 ,..., So, the term next to 31 is 31 25 i.e., 56., 41. (a) The rule in this series is double the term and then add, one to the result i.e., 2 +1., OR Another logic is 6, 12, 24, 48, 96, ... So the next, term is 95 96 191. Hence, the answer is (a)., 42. (a) The rule is 11, 22, 44, 88, 176. The next, number is 178 176 354., 3, 3, 2, 2, 2, 43. (c) The rule is 1 , 2 , 3 , 4 , 5 , ..... The next number is, , 47 64 111., 44. (d) Rule is 1 or +8, +16, +32, +64 etc. The next, number is 127 2 1 255., Or 127 128 255, 45. (b) The rule is 2, + the numbers 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, etc. Thus, the next number is 2 413 + 11 837., 46. (d) The rule is: 2, 3, 5, 7, 11 etc. (prime numbers), 47. (d) The rule is: Double the number and operate 1, alternately., The next term is 2 117 1 235., 48. (d) 98 9 8 72, 72 7 2 14, 1 4 4, 49. (d) The given series is a combination of two series I. 1, 3,, 7, …, 21 and II. 3, 6, 9, 12. The pattern in the first series, is 2, 4, 6, 8. The missing number is –6., 50. (d) Sum of the previous two terms is the next term., the missing term is 13 21 34., , 51. (b) The sequence is: divide first term by 5, then by 4, 3, 2, and 1., So, the missing term is 7 1 7., 52. (b) Here the logic is 2 1, 2, 3, 4, 5,..., , So, the series is 11, 11 2 1, 23 2 2, 48 2 3, 9 9 2 4, i.e., 202. Hence, the answer is (b)., 2, 2, 2, 2, 2, 2, 53. (d) Add to each term 2 , 4 , 6 , 8 ,10 ,12 , etc. The next, , term is 237 144 381., 54. (d) Double each number and add 1, 3, 5, 7, 9, 11 etc. Next, number is 2 243 11 497., , 55. (b) Double the number and add one, subtract one, alternately., The next number is 299 2 1 597., 2, 3, 4, 5, 56. (a) Add to each number 4, 4 , 4 , 4 , 4 i.e., 4, 16, 64,, , 256, 1024, etc., Next number , 57. (d) Add the numbers 4, 6, 8, 10, 12 etc., Next number is 31 + 12 43., 58. (d) Add to each number 2, 4, 8, 16, 32 etc., Next number is 72., 59. (c) The rule is 13 1, 23 1, 33 1, 43 1, 53 1, 6 3 1 etc., , Hence the next number is 216 1 215., 60. (b) The rule is 103 1, 93 1, 83 1, 73 1, 63 1, 53 1., 61., , 62., 63., 64., , Next number is 126., (d) Difference of two successive numbers are 16, 24, 32,, 40, etc., Hence the next number is 120 48 168., (b) The differences are 4, 16, 36, 64, 100 etc. Hence the, next number is 143 100 243., (d) Each term is double the preceding term, so 96 is the, wrong term. It should be 128., (c) The sequence is +5, +7, +9 etc. 24 is wrong and it, should be 26., , 2, 2, 2, 65. (d) The numbers are 1 1, 2 1, 3 1 and so on., , 66. (c) This is a prime number series, 27 is not a prime, number., 67. (d) The difference of two successive terms is 1, 4, 9, 16,, 25, etc. But difference between 31 and 46 is 15 (not, sixteen). The right number should have 47., 68. (c) Double the number and then add 1, 3, 5 7, 9 etc. In, place of 69, it should be 33 2 5 71. Hence 69 is the, odd man out., 69. (c) Sum of the digits in each number is 9 except in 154., Hence 154 is the odd man out., 70. (d) The difference of two successive terms is 13, 26, 52,, 104, 208. In place of 489, it should have 497., Hence 489 is the odd man out., ,
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Odd Man Out, , I.A.19, , 3, , Odd Man Out, , Classification can be defined as ‘to assort the items of a given, group on the basis of common qualities they possess and then, spot the stranger out.’, Note, Classification means ‘to assort the items of a given group on, the basis of common quality they possess and then spot the, stranger out.’ In this test, generally, you are given a group of, four or five items, out of which four are similar to one another, in some manner and the fifth one is different. The candidate is, required to choose this item which does not fit into the given, group. In other words – to find the odd one out., , In this section, generally, you are given a group of five items,, out of which four are similar to one another in some manner, and the fifth one is different. Three types of odd man problems, are asked in the examinatios: number based, alphabet based, and word based. You are required to identify which picture is, unlike the others. In other words - to find the odd one out or, odd man out. Three type of Classification are:, Classification, Number, Classification, , Word, Classification, , Alphabet, Classification, , I. Number Classification or Odd Number Group, Classification:, Generally, classification test (or odd man out test) consists of 4,, 5 to 6 items/ terms/ word., Type-I Choosing the Odd Numeral: In this case, we need to, choose the odd number from the given alternatives., , 4. a. 81, b. 69, c. 21, d. 23, Sol. (d) Except 23, all others are divisible by 3., Type-II Choosing the Odd Numeral Group/ Pair: In this, type of questions, certain groups/ pairs of numbers are given,, out of which all except one are common or similar in some way, while one is different. The candidate is required to choose the, odd numeral group/ pair., Directions: Choose the odd numeral pair/ group in each of the, following questions., 5. a. 22 3, b. 28 4, c. 36 5, d. 43 6, (e) 50 7, Sol. (b) First number Second number Remainder 1, 22, 36, (1);, (1);, i.e.,, Remainder, Remainder, 3, 5, 43, Remainder (1), 6, 28, But, Remainder (0), 4, 6. a. 50 66, b. 32 38, c. 64 80, d. 63 77, Sol. (d) Second number first number + 16, i.e., 66 50 16; 48 32 16; 80 64 16, , But 77 63 14, 7. a.117 : 13, b. 162 : 18 c. 171 : 19, Sol. (d) First number 9 Second number, i.e., 117 9 13; 162 9 18 ; 171 9 19, , d. 304 : 16, , But 304 19 16, , 1. a. 18, b. 32, c. 12, d. 42, Sol. (b) Except 32, all others are multiple of 6., , 8. a. 21 : 24, b. 28 : 32, c. 54 : 62, d. 70 : 80, Sol. (c) Numbers in a pair are consecutive multiples of the, same number., i.e., 21 : 24 consecutive multiples of 3, 28 : 32 consecutive multiples of 4, 70 : 80 consecutive multiples of 10, But 54: 62 consecutive multiples of the same number., , 2. a. 7202, b. 6023, c. 5061, Sol. (c) Sum of the digits 7 2 0 2 11,, , 9. a. 80 9, b. 64 8, c. 36 6, Sol. (a) One number (other number)2, , Directions: Choose the number which is different from other, in the group/ odd number, , d. 4025, , 6 0 2 3 11, 4 0 2 5 11, , But, 5 0 6 1 12., Therefore, option (3) is the odd one., 3. a. 8351, b. 7253, c. 3467, d. 2648, Sol. (d) Except 2648, all other numbers are odd numbers., , d. 7 49, , i.e., 64 (8) 2 ; 36 (6) 2 ; 49 (7) 2, But (9) 2 81 80, 10. Identify the odd pair out the following five pairs of, numbers., Sol. (a) 6, 37, b. 7, 50, c. 8, 65, d. 10, 99
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I.A.20, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , We observe that in all the pairs except the fourth pair, the second, number is 1 more than the square of the first number. But in the, fourth pair, the second number is 1 less than the square of the first, number. Hence, (4) is the odd pair,, III. Classification of words: Odd man out, Generally, the following type of relationships are seen in such, type of questions., Category-based relationships, , Medium or activity based relationship, Word meaning relationship (Synonyms, Antonyms), Alphabet relationship (Vowel/ Consonant relationships,, Alphabet count), Functional relationship, Word-consistency relationship, Inter-relationship of words, Word-formation relationship, , Multiple Choice Questions, Type I., Directions (1 to 39): In each of the following questions, one, term is wrong. Find out the wrong term., 1., 2., 3., 4., 5., 6., , 1, 2, 4, 8, 16, 32, 64, 96, a. 4, b. 32, , c. 64, , d. 96, , 5, 10, 17, 24, 37, 50, 65., a. 10, b. 17, , c. 24, , d. 37, , 2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, 50, 64, a. 17, b. 26, , c. 37, , d. 64, , 13, 17, 19, 23, 27, 31, a. 13, b. 19, , c. 27, , d. 31, , 17, 18, 22, 31, 46, 72, a. 17, b. 18, , c. 31, , d. 46, , 7, 15, 69, 149, 307, a. 15, b. 33, , c. 69, , d. 307, , 126, 135, 144, 216, 154, 801, a. 115, b. 216, c. 154, , d. 801, , 76, 89, 115, 167, 271, 489, a. 115, b. 167, , c. 271, , d. 489, , 37, 77, 79, 83, 89, 97, a. 73, b. 77, , c. 79, , d. 83, , 10. 2916, 972, 354, 108, 36, 12, a. 2916, b. 972, , c. 354, , d. 36, , 7., 8., 9., , 16. 11, 24, 52, 110, 228, 456, a. 11, b. 24, , c. 52, , d. 456, , 17. 27, 63, 123, 153, 203, 273, a. 273, b. 203, , c. 123, , d. 153, , 18. 9, 15, 27, 51, 101, 195, a. 9, b. 15, , c. 27, , d. 101, , 19. 35, 63, 105, 121, 133, 210, a. 35, b. 63, , c. 105, , d. 121, , 20. 517, 661, 814, 922, 1066, 1256, a. 661, b. 814, c. 1256, , d. 922, , 21. a. 1331, , b. 512, , c. 343, , d. 4913, , 22. a. 2, , b. 65, , c. 215, , d. 126, , 23. a. 257, , b. 143, , c. 195, , d. 224, , 24. a. 120, , b. 168, , c. 290, , d. 380, , 25. a. 15, , b. 57, , c. 7, , d. 31, , 26. a. 525, , b. 339, , c. 969, , d. 484, , 27. a. 246, , b. 356, , c. 527, , d. 639, , 28. a. 4566, , b. 5686, , c. 2346, , d. 1236, , 29. a. 2259, , b. 3418, , c. 5106, , d. 7890, , 30. a. 6958, , b. 7948, , c. 6895, , d. 9783, , 31. a. 999, , b. 864, , c. 343, , d. 678, , 32. a. 749, , b. 981, , c. 525, , d. 343, , b. 3425, , c. 6048, , d. 3645, , 11. 24, 39, 416, 525, 636, 714, a. 39, b. 416, , c. 525, , d. 714, , 33. a. 5229, , 12. 17, 34, 51, 68, 95, 102, a. 17, b. 34, , c. 51, , d. 95, , 34. 16 22 26 38 62 74 100, a. 16, b. 26, c. 62, , d. 100, , 13. 11, 23, 50, 109, 234, 491, a. 50, b. 23, , c. 491, , d. 234, , 35. 6 13 24 51 98 201 408, a. 6, b. 13, c. 51, , d. 408, , 14. 25, 49, 121, 289, 529, 1225, a. 121, b. 289, , c. 529, , d. 1225, , 36. 2 3 4 6 12 12 48 24 250, a. 4, b. 6, c. 48, , d. 205, , d. 121, , 37. 1112 1314 1516 1718 1921 2122 2324, a. 1112, b. 1516, c. 1921, d. 2122, , 15. 4, 9, 25, 36, 121, 169, a. 4, b. 25, , c. 36
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Odd Man Out, , 38. a. 166, , I.A.21, , b. 239, , c. 326, , d. 433, , 39. a. 6, b. 10, c. 14, d. 18, Type II, Directions (40 to 50): Choosing The odd pair of words., 40. a. 14, 9, , b. 17, 8, , c. 21, 6, , 41. a. (52, 142), , b. (54, 126) c. (25, 168), , d. (58, 184), , 42. a. 2, 3, 6, , b. 6, 1, 6, , d. 6, 2, 5, , 43. a. 1 (5) 2, , b. 7 (113) 8 c. 2 (20) 4, , c. 3, 3, 9, , d. 42, 3, , d. 3 (17) 4, , 44. a. 3, 9, 6, 15, c. 4, 16, 12, 24, , b. 6, 18, 12, 30, d. 12, 36, 24, 60, , 45. a. 71, 7, 3, 17, c. 41, 5, 3, 47, , b. 67, 71, 3, 5, d. 37, 14, 19, 7, , 46. a. 0.50, 1 12 , 3.00, 0.25, , b. 12 , 0.75, 12 , 1.00, , c. 0.5, 0.75, 1.5, 1, , d. 1.00, 1 12 , 3.00, 2.00, , 47. a. 2, 90, , b. 89, 12, , c. 72, 56, , d. 30, 20, , 48. a. 334, 36, , b. 433, 36, , c. 822, 36, , d. 632, 36, , 49. a. 7, 743, , b. 6, 612, , c. 5, 521, , d. 4, 46, , 50. a. 1, 4, 3, 8, , b. 2, 4, 3, 9, , c. 3, 2, 3, 8, , d. 5, 3, 2, 9, , Type-III, Directions (51 to 57): In this case, we need to choose the, odd word from the given alternatives., 51. a. Ultraviolet rays, b. X-rays, c. Infrared rays d. Radio waves, 52. a. Leo, , b. Equator, , c. Libra, , 53. a. Medium, , b. Average, , c. Microfilm d. Microbe, , 54. a. Microscope, c. Microfilm, , d. Cancer, , b. Microphone, d. Microbe, , 55., a. Iron, c. Copper, 56. a. Ample, c. Plentiful, 57. a. IMF, , b. SAARC, , 58. a. Uncle : Nephew, c. Father : Son, , b. Mother : Daughter, d. Uncle : Aunt, , 59. a. Ant : Industrious, c. Giraffe : Tall, , b. Jet : Fast, d. Snail : Heavy, , 60. a. Dear :Vension, c. Cattle : Beef, , b. Lamb : Veal, d. Swine : Pork, , Type V., Directions (61 to 99): In each of the following questions,, four words have been given out of which three are alike in, some manner, which the fourth one is different. Choose out, the odd one., b. Crow, , c. Sparrow, , d. Bat, , 62. a. Yellow, , b. Pink, , c. Orange, , d. Green, , 63. a. Mile, , b. Metre, , c. Furlong, , d. Acre, , 64. a. Brass, , b. Iron, , c.Aluminium d. Zinc, , 65. a. Guava, , b. Orange, , c. Apple, , d. Lichi, , 66. a. Van, , b. Truck, , c. Cargo, , d. Trolley, , 67., a. Kerosene, , b. Water, , c. Petrol, , d. LPG, , 68. a. August, , b. December c. July, , d. May, , 69., a. Raddish, , b. Carrot, , c. Garlic, , d. Gourd, , b. Butter, , c. Mile, , d. Curd, , 61, , a. Owl, , 70., a. Cheese, 71., a. Sharpener, , b. Calculator c. Eraser, , d. Pencil, , b. Aluminium, d. Porcelain, , 72., a. Jump, , b. Walk, , c. Swim, , d.Listen, , b. Copious, d. Abundance, , 73., a. Volume, , b. Size, , c. Large, , d. Shape, , 74., a. Father, , b. Mother, , c. Aunt, , d.Cousin, , 75. a. Triangle, , b. Rectangle c. Circle, , d. Square, , 76. a. Chicken, , b. Snake, , c. Swan, , d. Crocodile, , 77. a. Car, , b. Scooter, , c. Helicopter d. Cycle, , c. UNICEF, , d. WHO, , Type-IV. Choosing The Odd Pair of Words:, Directions (58 to 60): In this type of question, certain pair, of words are given, out of which the words in all the pairs, except one, having a certain relationship which is common., The candidate is required to find out this relationship., Then choose the pair of word as the answer which in, differently related., , 78. a. Seminar, c. Semifinal, , b. Semicolon, d. Semicircle
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I.A.22, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 79. a. Mars, , b. Sun, , c. Saturn, , d. Mercury, , 80. a. Volt, , b. Power, , c. Volume, , d. Force, , 81. a. Ear, , b. Kidney, , c. Lungs, , d. Liver, , 82. a. Kite, , b. Eagle, , c. Hawk, , d. Vulture, , 83. a. Novel, , b. Periodical c. Thesis, , d. Dictionary, , 84. a. Nut, , b. Plate, , d. Bangle, , 85. a. Necklace, , b. Ornament c. Bangle, , d. Ring, , 86. a. Curd, , b. Butter, , d. Cheese, , 87. a. Pearl, , b. Diamond c. Ruby, , d. Garnet, , 88. a. Pistol, , b. Sword, , c. Gun, , d. Rifle, , 89. a. Carrot, , b. Potato, , c. Tomato, , d. Ginger, , 90. a. Calf, , b. Cub, , c. Piglet, , d. Hireling, , 91. a. Copper, , b. Tin, , c. Brass, , d. Platinum, , 92. a. Skull, , b. Pelvis, , c. Fibula, , d. Appendix, , 93. a. Tricycle, , b. Trident, , c.Trifle, , d. Tricolour, , VII. Classification of Alphabet Group: Odd Man Out, Original Alphabetical Order: From Left to Right., A B C D E F G H I J K L M, 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13, , 94. a. Poland, , b. Turkey, , c. Spain, , d. Sweden, , N, 14, , 95. a. Calendar, , b. Year, , c. Date, , d. Month, , Reverse Alphabetical Order: From Right to Left., , c.Tyre, c. Oil, , 96. a. Geometry, c. Trigonometry, 97. a. Chameleon, c. Alligator, , b. Algebra, d. Mathematics, b. Crocodile, d. Locust, , 98. a. Gangtok, c. Hyderabad, , b. Singhbhum, d. Madras, , 99. a. Cerebrum, c. Cornea, , b. Cerebellum, d. Medulla, , Type VI., Direction (100 to 110 ): In each of the following questions,, four pairs of words are given, out of which words in three, pairs bear a certain common relationship. Choose the pair, in which the words are differently related., 100. a. Hard : Soft, c. Sweet : Sour, , b. Long : High, d. Pointed : Blunt, , 101. a. Church : Monument, c. Pond : Lake, , b. Pistol : Gun, d. Horse : Neigh, , 102. a. Poem : Poet, c. Newspaper : Editor, , b. Film : Producer, d. Stamps : Philatelist, , 103. a. Hard : Stone, c. Smooth : Glass, , b. Gentle : Tender, d. Soft : Wool, , 104. a. Vulture : Prey, c. Cow : Fodder, , b. Crow : Carrion, d. Poultry : Farm, , 105. a. Gold : ornaments, c. Twigs : Nest, , b. Pitcher : Pottery, d. Wood : Furniture, , 106. a. Man : Garage, c. Horse : Stable, , b. Pig : Sty, d. Cow : Shed, , 107. a. Fallacy : Illusion, c. Dissipater : Squander, , b. Chaos : Peace, d. Presage : Predict, , 108. a. Shoe : Leather, c. Jewellery : Gold, , b. Iron : Axe, d. Table : Wood, , 109. a. Oil : Lamp, c. Oxygen : Life, , b. Water : Tap, d. Power : Machine, , 110. Coin : Mint, a. Hay : Stable, c. Grain : Field, , b. Wine : Brewery, d. Book : Publisher, , Z, 1, , O P, 15 16, Y, 2, , L K, 15 16, , X, 3, , Q, 17, W, 4, , J, 17, , R S, 18 19, V, 5, , U, 6, , I H, 18 19, , T, 20, T, 7, , G, 20, , U, 21, S, 8, , F, 21, , V, 22, , R, 9, , E, 22, , W, 23, , Q, 10, , X, 24, , P O, 11 12, , D, 23, , C, 24, , Y, 25, , Z, 26, , N, 13, , M, 14, , B, 25, , A, 26, , Direction (111 to 125): Choose the letter or group of letters, which is different from others., 111. a. A, , b. E, , c. I, , d. U, , 112. a. EFG, , b. ORS, , c. XYZ, , d. ABC, , 113. a. APBQ, , b. CRDT, , c. EUFV, , d. GWHX, , 114. a. IJK, PQR, , b. DEF, UVW, , c. XYZ, ABC, , d. SRQ, TUV, , 115. a. DWFU, , b. HSKP, , c. EVHS, , d. KQNN, , 116. a. EDGH, , b. GFHJ, , c. CBEF, , d. IHKL, , 117. a. EI : AO, , b. AU : EO, , c. AE : IU, , d. OU : B, , 118. Three of the following four pairs of alphabets and, numerals have same relationship between their elements, as in the case of the pair PROBLEM : 2948375 and hence, form a group. Which one does not belong to the group?, a. OMEP : 4572, b. EROL : 7943, c. BORE : 8497, d. MOEP : 5972, 119. a. BROTHER : DORVEHT b. ENGLISH : GGNNSIJ, c. ANOTHER : CONVEHT d. BETWEEN : DTEZEEP
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Odd Man Out, , I.A.23, , 120. a. DW, , b. HS, , c. MN, , d. KO, , 123. a. GET, , b. MET, , c. SET, , d. EAT, , 121. a. RAT, , b. OUT, , c. BED, , d. LOT, , 124. a. CDE, , b. IJK, , c. FGH, , d. PQR, , 122. a. USING, , b. VTOJE, , c. UPKEA, , d. OMIDE, , 125. a. DECB, , b. GDFE, , c. HKIJ, , d. JFHG, , ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , d, , c, , d, , c, , d, , c, , c, , d, , b, , c, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , d, , d, , c, , c, , c, , d, , b, , d, , d, , c, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , b, , c, , a, , d, , b, , b, , b, , b, , d, , d, , 31., , 32., , 33., , 34., , 35., , 36., , 37., , 38., , 39., , 40., , c, , d, , c, , d, , d, , d, , c, , b, , d, , a, , 41., , 42., , 43., , 44., , 45., , 46., , 47., , 48., , 49., , 50., , c, , d, , d, , c, , d, , a, , b, , c, , a, , d, , 51., , 52., , 53., , 54., , 55., , 56., , 57., , 58., , 59., , 60., , d, , b, , d, , d, , d, , d, , b, , d, , d, , b, , 61., , 62., , 63., , 64., , 65., , 66., , 67., , 68., , 69., , 70., , d, , b, , d, , a, , d, , c, , b, , d, , d, , c, , 71., , 72., , 73., , 74., , 75., , 76., , 77., , 78., , 79., , 80., , b, , d, , c, , d, , c, , a, , d, , a, , b, , a, , 81., , 82., , 83., , 84., , 85., , 86., , 87., , 88., , 89., , 90., , a, , b, , d, , b, , b, , c, , a, , b, , c, , d, , 91., , 92., , 93., , 94., , 95., , 96., , 97., , 98., , 99., , 100., , c, , d, , c, , b, , a, , d, , d, , b, , c, , b, , 101., , 102., , 103., , 104., , 105., , 106., , 107., , 108., , 109., , 110., , a, , d, , b, , d, , b, , a, , b, , b, , b, , b, , 111., , 112., , 113., , 114., , 115., , 116., , 117., , 118., , 119., , 120., , d, , b, , b, , d, , a, , b, , d, , d, , d, , d, , 121., , 122., , 123., , 124., , 125., , b, , c, , d, , d, , d, , 8., , 9., 10., 11., , 12., 13., 14., , 15., 16., , Hence, 154 is the odd man out., (d) The difference of two successive terms is 13, 26, 52,, 104, 208. In place of 489, it should have 497. Hence 489, is the odd man out., (b) All others are prime numbers except 77. Hence 77 is, the odd man out., (c) Each number is one-third of the next. In place of 354,, it should have been 324. Hence, 354 is odd man out., (d) Number on the left hand is squared., Hence the last number should be 749 in place of 714., Thus 714 is the odd man out., (d) All numbers are multiplies of 17, but 95 is not., (c) Double the number and add 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, etc. to the, result. Thus 2 234 25 493., (c) All the numbers are squares on 5, 7, 11, 17, 25, 35., Thus 625 is the right number in place of 529. Thus 529 is, the odd man out., (c) Squares on prime numbers. Hence, 36 is odd man out., (d) The rule is 11, 11 2 2 24, 24 2 4 52. The, , correct numbers should be 228 2 10 466 in place of, 456. Hence, 456 is the odd man out., 17. (b) All numbers are multiple of 3 except 203., 18. (d) The difference between two successive terms are 6,, 12, 24, 48, 96, etc., So its term should be 51 48 99 in place of 101., , SOLUTIONS, 1., 2., 3., 4., 5., , 6., , 7., , (d) Each term is double the preceding term, so 96 is the, wrong term. It should be 128., (c) The sequence is +5, +7, +9, etc. 24 is wrong and it, should be 26., (d) The numbers are 12 1, 2 2 1, 32 1 and so on., (c) This is a prime number series, 27 is not a prime number., (d) The difference of two successive terms is 1, 4, 9, 16,, 25, etc., But difference between 31 and 46 is 15 (not sixteen). The, right number should have 47., (c) Double the number and then add 1, 3, 5 7, 9, etc. In, place of 69, it should be 33 2 5 71. Hence 69 is the, odd man out., (c) Sum of the digits in each number is 9 except in 154., , 19. (d) All numbers are multiples of 7 except 121., 20. (c) Sum of the integers in each number is 13, hence 1256, is the odd man out., 21. (b) Except 512, all others are cubes of odd numbers., i.e., 1331 (11)3 ;343 7 3 ; 4913 (17) 3 ; 729 93, , But 512 8 3, , [8 is an even number], , 22. (c) Except 215, all other are in X3 1 pattern, i.e., 13 1 2; 43 1 65; 53 1 126; 23 1 9, , But 6 3 1 215., 23. (a) Except 257, all other are in X2 1 pattern, , i.e., 143 122 1;195 142 1;, 224 15 2 1; 168 132 1, , But 257 16 2 1., 24. (d) 380, all others are either in X2 1
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I.A.24, , or, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , X 1 pattern, i.e., 120 112 1; 168 132 1;, 2, , 290 17 2 1; 728 27 2 1, , But 380 19 2 19 or 20 2 20, 25. (b) Except 57, all others are in 2x 1 pattern i.e.,, 15 2 4 1; 7 23 1; 31 2 5 1, , But 57 26 7., 26. (b) In all other numbers, the first and last digits are same., 27. (b) Sum of the first two digits Third digit i.e.,, 246 2 4 6, , 33. (c) Sum of squares of the first two digits of the number , Next two digits of the number., i.e., 5229 52 2 2 29, 3425 32 4 2 25, 3645 32 6 2 45, 8064 82 0 2 64, , But 6048 6 2 0 2 36 48, 34. (d) In this question, product of digits of a term is added to, the same term to get the next term., 16 (1 6) 16 6 22, , 527 5 2 7, , 22 (2 2) 22 4 26, , 639 6 3 9, , 26 (2 6) 26 12 38, , But 356 3 5 8 6, , 38 (3 8) 38 24 62, , 28. (b) In all other numbers, First three digits Consecutive, Numerals of the number., 29. (d) Sum of the first three digits Values of 4th digit i.e.,, 2259 2 2 5 9, 3418 3 4 1 8, 5106 5 1 0 6, 1315 1 3 1 5, , But 7890 7 8 9 24 0, 30. (d) Sum of the digits of the number 28, i.e., 658 6 9 5 8 28, 7948 7 9 4 8 28, 6895 6 8 9 5 28, , But 9783 9 7 8 3 27, 31. (c) Middle digit of a number Average of the other two, digits on the extreme., 92, i.e., 999 9 , 9, 2, 84, 6, 864 6 , 2, 46, 5, 456 5 , 2, 33, But 343 4 , 3, 2, , 32. (d) Square of the first digit Next two digits of the, number, i.e., 749 7 2 49, 981 9 2 81, 525 52 25, 864 82 64, , But 343 32 9, , 62 (6 2) 62 12 74, 74 (7 4) 74 28 102 100, , 35. (d) In given question following pattern is followed:, 6 2 1 13, 13 2 2 24, 24 2 3 51, 51 2 4 98, 98 2 5 201, 201 2 6 396 408, 36. (d) In this question, two series are combined together. First,, consider the terms only at odd positions and find the pattern, 2 4 12 48 250, 2 2 4, 4 3 12, 12 4 48, 48 5 240 250, , Now, consider terms at even positions and find the pattern., 3 6 12 24, , 3 2 6, 6 2 12, 12 2 24, All the terms follow the same pattern. So, 250 is the, wrong term., 37. (c) Two consecutive two-digit numbers are written side, by side in all the terms except in 1921. Hence 1921 is the, wrong term., 38. (b) Product of digits is 36 in all the cases expect in 239., In 239, the product of digits is 54., 39. (d) When we divide each number by 2, we get a prime, quotient except in case of 18. When 18 is divided by 2,, we get the quotient 9, which is not a prime number. In, fact, 9 is a perfect square. Hence, 18 is the odd one.
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Odd Man Out, , I.A.25, , 40. (a) Product of the two numbers in a pair 126, i.e., 14 9 126; 21 6 126; 42 3 126, , But 17 8 136., 41. (c) Sum of the digits of both the numbers in a pair is the, same., i.e., First pair: 5 2 7;1 4 2 7, Second pair: 5 4 9;1 2 6 6, Fourth pair: 5 8 13;1 8 4 13, But third pair : 5 6 11;1 6 8 15, 42. (d) Third number product of the first two number, i.e., 6 2 3; 6 6 1; 9 3 3, , But 6 2 12 5, , 48. (c) Product of digits of the first number is equal to the, second number in each of the pairs except in pair (c). Pair, (c) does not follow this pattern, 49. (a) Consider the first number of each pair. Find the cube, of the number. Write the digits of this cube in the reverse, order., We get the second number in all the pairs except in pair (a)., 50. (d) Fourth number, Sum of the first three numbers., i.e., 8 1 4 3; 9 2 4 3; 8 3 2 3, 51., 52., , 43. (d) Number inside the bracket sum of the squares of the, numbers outside it, , 5 12 22 ;113 72 82 ;, 20 22 42 ; 61 52 62, , 55., , But 32 4 2 25 17, 44. (c) Numbers Ratio in a group 1 : 3 : 2 : 5, i.e., 3, 9, 6, 15, 1: 3 : 2 : 5, [Dividing by 3], 6, 18, 12, 30, 1: 3 : 2 : 5, [Dividing by 6], 12, 36, 24, 60, 1: 3: 2 : 5, [Dividing by 12], But 4, 16, 12, 24, 1: 4: 3: 6, [Dividing by 4], 45. (d) All numbers in a group Prime numbers only, But in (d), there is one composite number i.e., 14., 46. (d) Numbers Ratio in a group 2 : 3 : 6 : 4, i.e., 12 , 0.75, 1 12 , 1.00, 2 : 3 : 6 : 4, , 0.4, 0.75, 15, 1, 2 : 3 : 6 : 4, , 57., , 58., 59., 60., 61., 62., 63., , [Dividing by 0.25], [Dividing by 0.5], , But 0.50,1 , 3.00, 0.25, 1, 2, , 2 : 6 : 12 : 1, , 56., , [Dividing by 0.25], , 1.00,1 12 , 3.00, 2.00, 2 : 3 : 6 : 4, , 53., 54., , 64., 65., 66., , [Dividing by 0.25], , 47. (b) Observe the pair of numbers in (a), (c) and (d). Both, the numbers in these pairs are of the form n 2 n where n, is a natural number. In pair (b) only one number 12, follows this pattern (12 3 2 3) ., , But 89 does not follow this pattern., , 67., 68., 69., 70., , but 5 3 2 10 9 ., (d) Except Radio waves, all others are short wavelength, radiations. ‘Radio waves’ are large wavelength radiations., (b) Except Equator, all others are Zodiac signs. The, ‘Equator’ is an imaginary line on the earth’s Surface, equidistant from the North pole and South pole., (d) Except Terrible, all others are Synonyms., (d) Except Microbe, ‘micro’ is used as a prefix ‘Microbe’, is an organism that is microscopic (too small)., (d) Except Porcelain, all others are metallic ‘Porcelain’ is, non-metallic., (d) Except Abundance, all others are adjectives., ‘Abundance’ is a noun., (b) Except SAARC, all others are world organisations., The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation, (SAARC) is an economic and political organisation of, eight countries in Southern Asia., (d) Option (d) is the only pair having different gender., (d) In other pair of words, second is the characteristic, feature of the first., (b) In other pair of words, second is the flesh of the first., Lamb’s flesh is mutton., (d) Except Bat, all others are flying birds. ‘Bat’ is a flying, mammal., (b) Except Pink, all the other colours are seen in the, rainbow., (d) Except Acre, all others are distance measures. ‘Acre’, measures area., (a) Except Brass, all others are metals. ‘Brass’ is an alloy., (d) Except Lichi, all others have many seeds. ‘Lichi’ has, only one seed., (c) Except Cargo, all others are carriers of load. ‘Cargo’, means load., (b) Except Water, all others are petroleum products used, as fuel., (d) Except May, all others are either followed or preceded, by a month of 31 days., (d) Except Gourd, all others grow beneath the ground., (c) All others are the products made from milk.
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I.A.26, , 71. (b) Except Calculator, all other are stationery items. A, ‘Calculator’ is a device that is used for performing, mathematical calculations., 72. (d) Except Listen, all the others need some movement., 73. (c) Except large, all others are noun. ‘Large’ is an adjective., 74. (d) Except cousin, all others belong to the same, generation., 75. (c) Except circle, all other figures are made up of straight, lines., 76. (a) Except chicken, all others can live in water., 77. (d) Except Cycle, all other run on fuel., 78. (a) Except Seminar, ‘Semi’ means ‘half’. ‘Seminar’ is, generally a form of academic instruction., 79. (b) Except Sun, all others are planets but ‘Sun’ is a star., 80. (a) Except Volt, all others are physical quantities. ‘Volt’, is the unit of measuring Potential difference., 81. (a) Except Ear, all others are internal organs of a body., ‘Ear’ is an external organ., 82. (b) Except Eagle, all others are scavengers. ‘Eagle’ is a, predator., 83. (d) Except Dictionary, all others contain sentences and, paragraphs. ‘Dictionary’ is a book containing a selection of, the words of a language, usually arranged alphabetically., 84. (b) Except plate, all other items have holes., 85. (b) All others are different types of Ornaments., 86. (c) Here, all except Oil are products obtained from milk., 87. (a) Here, Pearl is the only gem formed inside a shell., 88. (b) Here, all except Sword are fire arms., 89. (c) Here, all except Tomato grow underground., 90. (d) Here, all except Hireling are young ones of animals., 91. (c) Here, all except Brass are metals, while brass is an, alloy., 92. (d) Here, all except Appendix are bones, while appendix, is an organ., 93. (c) In all except Trifle, ‘tri’ indicates ‘three’., 94. (b) Here, all except Turkey are European countries,, Turkey is Asian., 95. (a) All others are parts of a calendar., 96. (d) Here, all except Mathematics are branches of, Mathematics., 97. (d) Here, all except Locust are reptiles while locust is an, insect., 98. (b) Here, all except Singhbhum are capitals of states of India., 99. (c)Here, all except Cornea are parts of the brain, cornea is, a part of eye., 100. (b) The other pair of words are antonyms of each other., 101. (c) The other pair of words belong to the same class., , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 102. (d) In other pair of words, first is prepared by the second., ‘Philatelist’ is that who collects stamps., 103. (b) In other pair of words, first is the property of the, second., 104. (d) In other pair of words, first is the recipient of the, second., 105. (b) In other pair of words, first is the material used to, make the second., 106. (a) In other pair of words, second is the Dwelling place of, the first., 107. (b) The other pair of words are synonyms of each other., 108. (b) In other pair of words, first is a product made form the, second., 109. (b) In other pair of words, second requires the first to, function., 110. (b) ‘Coin’ is synonym of ‘Mint’. Similarly, ‘wine’ is, synonym of ‘Brewery’., 111. (d) Except U, all the other vowels are from the first half, of the alphabet series., 112. (b) Except ORS, in all other groups, there are three, consecutive letters., 113. (b) Except CRDT in all other groups, first and third, letters, second and fourth letters are consecutive, respectively in the alphabetical series., 114. (d) In each pair, there are two groups. Excepts SRQ, TUV, in all other pairs, second group is the corresponding, letters of the first group form the other end of the alphabet, series in the reverse order., 115. (a) The pattern is as follows:, –3, , Option (b):, , H, , S, , KP, +3, –3, , Option (c):, , E, , V, , H, , S, , +3, –3, , Option (d):, , K, , Q, , N, , N, , +3, –2, , But Option (a):, , D, , W, , F, , U, , +2, , Therefore, option (a) is the odd group of letters., 1, 3, 1, 116. (b) Option (a) E , D , G , H, 1, 3, 1, B , E , F, Option (c) C , 1, 3, 1, H , K , L, Option (d) I , 1, 2, 2, F , H , J, But Option (b) G , , Therefore, option (b) is the odd group of letters.
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Odd Man Out, , I.A.27, , 117. (d) Except OU and B in all other pair of groups, there are, vowels only., 118. (d), Letter PROBLEM, Code 2978375, So, Letter MOEP, Code 5472, Therefore, MOEP would be coded as 5472, 119. (d) In all other groups, no vowel has been repeated., ThePattern is as following:, B R, O T H, E R, +2, +2, Option (a): +2, D O, R V E, H D, , E, Option (b):, , Option (c):, , N, , G, , L, , I, , S, , +2, , +2, , H, +2, , B, Option (d):, , E, , T, , +2, , D, , W, , E, , E, , +3, , T, , E, , Z, , N, +2, , E, , E, , P, , ., 120. (d) Expect KO, in all other groups, the first letter have the, same position from the beginning as the second letter, from the end of the alphabet., 121. (b) This is the only group having two vowels., 122. (c) This is the only group having three vowels., , G, , G, , N, , N, , S, , I, , J, , 123. (d) Except EAT, all other groups end with ‘ET’., , A, , N, , O, , T H, , E, , R, , 124. (d) Except PQR, all the other groups are from the first, half of the alphabet series., , +2, , C, , +2, , O, , N, , V E, , +2, , H, , T, , 125. (d) Except JFHG, in all other groups, there are, consecutive letters but not in order., , Therefore, option (d) is the odd one, ,
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I.A.28, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 4, , Alphabetical Series, , In alphabet series, a series of alphabet is given and which, follow a pattern throughout in a series. Therefore, you have to, identify the pattern and complete the series, by choosing the, correct alternative given in the question., Note, The alphabets/ combinations are arranged in a particular, manner and each alphabet/ combination is related to the earlier, and the following alphabets in a particular way., EJOTY: For purpose of convenience, it is helpful to remember, this simple formula called EJOTY, with the help of which you, can easily find the position of any letter without much effort., But for practical purposes, you need to learn by heart the, positions of different letters in the alphabet., E J O T Y, 5 10 15 20 25, A-M - 1-13 (First Alphabetical Half), N-Z–14-26 (Second Alphabetical Half), Rules for the Alphabet Series:, Letters with their respective numbers, i.e. A 1, B 2, C , , 3…….Z 26 and vice versa i.e. Z 1, … A 26., When the counting is circular, after Z, the cycle will continue, from A. Carefully see some pattern in the following examples:, Sometimes letters are omitted in sequence. Example – ABC, …, EFG…., Here D and H in the sequence are omitted., Sometimes equal numbers of letters are omitted. For, example in ADG, two consecutive letters are omitted., One following the letter and the other preceding it may be, organised. For example – in BCA, C follows B and A, precedes B., Sometimes, there may be repetition of letters in a set order., For example in AAB, ABC……., one letter is repeated, twice. The next set could be CCD., In some cases the numbers are mixed with letters, the number, may refer to the position of the letters in the alphabet., Alphabet Pyramid, Brief review of concepts: The questions are based on the, Pyramid of Alphabet from a to z, as given below., , q, , j, r, , b, e f, k l, s t, , a, c, g, m, u, z, , d, h i, n o p, v w x y, , Many types of questions are possible based on the above, pattern. For instance, geometrical figures like formation of, parallel lines, perpendicular lines, triangles, squares, etc. by, taking Alphabet in order., Example 1. cgm : mno : : ? : tuv, a. bfl, b. dhn, c. rst, d. flt, Solution: (d) The alphabet on the left hand side form, perpendicular lines in the pyramid. Therefore, the alphabet on, the right hand side must be of the same pattern. The answer to, the above question should be fit to satisfy the same relation, Example 2. gmu : lmn : : iow : ?, a. hnv, b. mno, c. nop, d. gmu, Solution: (c) The alphabet on the left hand side form, perpendicular lines in the pyramid. Therefore, the alphabet on, the right hand side must be of the same pattern. The answer to, the above question should be not to satisfy the same relation., Example 3. xwv : vnh : : rst : ?, a. hmn, b. tlf, c. ekj, d. ikr, Solution: (b) The alphabet on the left hand side form, perpendicular lines in the pyramid. Therefore, the alphabet on, the right hand side must be of the same pattern. The answer to, the above question should be tlf to satisfy the same relation.
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I.A.30, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 26. ba – cb – b – bab –, a. acbb, b. bacc, c. bcaa, d. cabb, 27. – stt – tt – tts –, a. tsts, b. ttst, c. sstt, d. tsst, 28. bca – b – aabc – a – caa, a. acab, b. bcbb, c. cbab, d. ccab, 29. – acca – ccca – acccc – aaa, a. acca, b. caaa, c. ccaa, d. caac, 30. b – ac – cc – cb – ab – ac, a. cbaba, b. bbaac, c. abbbc, d. aabba, Type IV., Direction (31 to 35): Study the arrangement of letters in the, form of a pyramid and answer the questions that follow., , q, , j, r, , e, k, s, , A, , D, , B, , D, , M, , H, , K, , G, , a. C, , b. P, , M, c. E, , B, , K, , Q, b. X, , c. E, , B, , G, , F, , J, , L, , O, , L, , S, , y, , c. hmt, , d. inu, , d. Z, , a. C, , b. D, , c. U, , d. V, , 40. Which letter replaces the blank and completes the puzzle?, , 32. fit: klm : : iow : ?, a. hnv, b. mno, , c. nop, , d. gmu, , 33. efg : gmu : : eks : ?, a. hmn, b. stu, , c. ekj, , d. ikr, , 34. yxp : qrj : : ekl : ?, a. hmn, b. ion, c. ekj, d. ikr, 35. cfk : ktz : : ? : ovz, a. dip, b. cho, c. gmu, d. hnv, Type V: Puzzles, Directions (36 to 55): Choose the missing letter among the, given, alternatives, and, complete, the, given, puzzles/arrangements/figures., 36. Which letter replaces the blank and completes the puzzle?, , B, 7, , Q, 7, , O, 7, , F, , P, , J, , U, , X, , A, , B, , F, , E, , D, , G, , H, , I, , a. C, , b. D, , c. E, , c. E, , d. F, , 41. Can you work out which letter is missing?, , I, , U, , E, , K, , M, E, , O, R, , G, Q, , a. O, , C, , W, , I, , b. M, , c. E, , U, d. F, , 42. Which letter replaces the blank and completes the sequence?, , H, , N, , T, , O, , S, , W, , V, b. D, , d. Q, , F, , z, , a. C, , K, , 39. Which letter goes in the empty square?, , f g h i, l m n o p, t u v w x, , 31. elu : adi : : ? : abe, a. fmv, b. dgl, , J, , 38. Which letter follows next?, , a. C, , a, c d, , b, , 37. Which letter completes the third circle?, , d. F, , a. C, , Z, b. X, , c. E, , d. Y
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Alphabetical Series, , I.A.31, , 43. Which two letters are missing?, , A, , W, , C, , U, , G, , a. C & W, , Q, , b. D & Y, , I, , O, , K, , M, , c. W & E, , 49. Which letter replaces the blank and completes the, sequence?, , d. E & S, , 44. Which two letters will complete this puzzle?, , E, , Q, , P, , J, , E, , I, , J, , S, , U, , L, , J, , K, , R, , W, , N, , Y, , S, , a. C, , T, 7, , H, 7, , Q, 7, , D, , A, , K, , P, , G, , b. D, , c. E, , d. F, , 50. Which letter replaces the blank and completes the, wheel?, , C, U, , T, R, , a. C and W, , b. D and Y, , c. W and E, , 45. Which letter goes in the empty circle?, , a. C, , Q, , J, , D, , C, , K, , N, , T, , U, , b. D, , K, , d. F and R, a. C, , O, , b. D, , c. E, , d. F, , 51. Which letter replaces the blank and completes the, sequence?, , c. R, , d. S, , M, , F, , G, , P, , L, , D, , W, , R, , 46. Which letter goes in the empty segment?, , A, , G, , F, , J, , H, , B, , P, , a. C, , b. D, , a. C, , U, c. E, , d. S, , 47. Which letter replaces the question mark?, , 7I, , S, 7, , b. D, , c. E, , d. F, , 52. Which letter goes in the empty circle and completes this, puzzle?, , B, 7, , L, , Q, , M, , P, , G, , E, , C, , S, , J, , B, , ?, , C, , H, , F, , S, , K, , O, Y, a. C, , H, b. H, , R, c. E, , d. T, , 48. Which letter completes the puzzle?, , a. C, , M, , J, , E, , C, , N, , H, , P, , X, b. D, , a. C, , b. L, , d. Y, , 53. Complete the last star., , L, , I, F, , c. E, , c. E, , d. M, , a. C, , O, , K, , C, , G, b. K, , O, , G, , S, C, , E, c. E, , I, C, d. S
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I.A.32, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 54. Which letter completes the sequence?, , K, , Q, , F, , R, , Y, , G, , M, , B, , K, , O, , E, , a. C, , b. D, , 55. Fill in the missing letter to complete the chain., , c. E, , a. C, , d. J, , b. J, , c. E, , d. Z, , ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , d, , c, , d, , c, , d, , b, , a, , c, , a, , d, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , c, , a, , b, , a, , a, , c, , d, , d, , a, , d, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , b, , a, , b, , b, , a, , b, , d, , a, , b, , d, , 31., , 32., , 33., , 34., , 35., , 36., , 37., , 38., , 39., , 40., , d, , c, , b, , b, , b, , a, , b, , b, , c, , a, , 41., , 42., , 43., , 44., , 45., , 46., , 47., , 48., , 49., , 50., , b, , b, , d, , c, , c, , d, , b, , d, , d, , d, , 51., , 52., , 53., , 54., , 55., , c, , b, , b, , d, , b, , SOLUTIONS, (d) Clearly the given series consists of alternate letters in the, reverse order. So, the missing terms would be P and N,, 2. (c) First letter +2, +3, +4, +5 etc; Second letter; –2, –3,, –4, –5, etc, 3. (d) First letter +2, +3, +4, +5, …., Second letter; +3, +4,, +5, +6, …., 4. (c) First, 2nd, 3rd letters are moving +1, +2, +3 steps., 5. (d) The number of letters in each term is increasing by, one. First letter of each term is +1, +3, +5., 6. (b) IJPO, 7. (a) NHR, 8. (c) There are two alphabetical series here. The first series, is with the first letters only: STUVW. The second series, involves the remaining letters: CD, EF, GH, IJ, KL., 9. (a) The middle letters are static, so concentrate on the first, and third letters. The series involves an alphabetical order, with a reversal of the letters. The first letters are in, alphabetical order: F, G, H, I , J. The second and fourth, segments are reversals of the first and third segments. The, missing segment begins with a new letter., 10. (d) The second and fourth letters in the series, L and A,, are static. The first and third letters consist of an, alphabetical order beginning with the letter E., 1., , 11. (c) The first letters are in alphabetical order with a letter, skipped in between each segment: C, E, G, I, K. The, second and third letters are repeated; they are also in order, with a skipped letter: M, O, Q, S, U., 12. (a) This series consists of letters in a reverse alphabetical, order., 13. (b) This is an alternating series in alphabetical order. The, middle letters follow the order ABCDE. The first and, third letters are alphabetical beginning with J. The third, letter is repeated as a first letter in each subsequent threeletter segment., 14. (a) This series consists of a simple alphabetical order with, the first two letters of all segments: B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I,, J, K. The third letter of each segment is a repetition of the, first letter., 15. (a) In this series, the third letter is repeated as the first, letter of the next segment. The middle letter, A, remains, static. The third letters are in alphabetical order,, beginning with R., 16. (c) The sequence is: pab / pab / pab / pab, 17. (d) The sequence is: baab / baab / baab / baab, 18. (d) The sequence is: abba / abba / abba / abba, 19. (a) The sequence is: baab / baab / baab / baab, 20. (c) The sequence is: babb / babb / babb / babb, 21. (b) The series is: aabbcc / aabbcc / aabbcc. Thus the, pattern ‘aabbcc’ is repeated., 22. (a) The series is: abba / baab / abba/ baab. Thus the, pattern ‘abba, baab’ is repeated., 23. (b) The series is: ab / ab / ab / ab / ab / ab, 24. (b) The series is cab / bac / cab / bac / cab / bac. Thus the, patter ‘cab / bac’ is repeated., 25. (a) The series is: abcab / bcabc / cabca, 26. (b) The series is: babc / babc / babc, 27. (d) The series is: tst / tst / tst / tst, 28. (a) The series is: bcaa / bcaa / bcaa / bcaa
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Alphabetical Series, , 29, 30., 31., 32., 33., 34., 35., 36., , I.A.33, , (b) The series is: ca / ccaa / cccaaa / ccccaaaa, (d) The series is: baac / accb / cbba / baac, (d), (c), (b), (b), (b), (a) [C] In each row, the sum of the centre letter equals the, sum of the left and right hand letters., , 37. (b) [P] In each circle, letters move clockwise by, increasing steps., 38. (b) [X] Letters advance by 4, 5, 6 and 7., 39. (c) [U] In columns, the value of the bottom letter equals, the sum of the values of the other two., 40. (a) [C] Follow the sequence of alphabet., 41. (b) [M] Each centre letter is the midpoint between the, pairs of letters in the diagonal lines., 42. (b) [X] The letters in the central column come midway in, the alphabet between the left and right hand numbers., 43. (d) [E & S] Starting on the left and going down, the up, the right column. Letters advance in steps of two., 44. (c) [W & E] In each circle, add 5 to the value of the top, left letter to give the bottom left letter, and then add 2 to, the top right to give the bottom right., , 45. (c) [R] In columns, add the numerical value of the top and, middle letters to give the bottom letters., 46. (d) [S] The numerical value of the bottom letters equals, the sum of the numerical values of the top two letters., 47. (b) [H] Going clockwise around each square, the letters, increase in value in steps presented by the central square., 48. (d) [M] Working in columns, the bottom letter equals the, sum of the top and centre letters., 49. (d) [F] Working in columns, subtract the value of the, middle letter form the value of the top letter., 50. (d) [F] Moving clockwise, letters decrease in value form, U in steps of 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5., 51. (c) [E] In each row, subtract the numerical value of the, middle letter from the left hand letter to give the right, hand letter., 52. (b) [L] Letters at opposite ends of each line come in pairs, – one is the same distance form the start of the alphabet as, the other is form the end., 53. (b) [K] In each star, the letters run clockwise in, alphabetical order, in steps of 3 for the hand star, 4 for the, centre and 2 for the right hand star., 54. (d) [J] In rows, the value of the right hand letter equals, the difference between the values of the left and centre, letters., 55. (b) [J] Letters move clockwise in steps of 10., ,
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I.A.34, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 5, , Analogies, , ‘Analogy’ means “a similarity between the features of two, things, on the basis of which a comparison can be made.”, Analogical reasoning is any type of thinking that relies upon an, analogy. An analogical argument is an explicit representation, of a form of analogical reasoning that cites accepted, similarities between two systems to support the conclusion that, some further similarity exists., , It is a form of inductive reasoning because it strives to provide, understanding of what is likely to be true, rather than, deductively proving something as fact. Questions based on, analogy are further sub-divided into: number analogy, letter, analogy, letter-number and word analogy., Note, Analogy is to form a logical relationship, or "bridge" between, two words; often there is confusion in between analogies with, metaphors. Both are comparisons, often involving unrelated, objects, so what is the difference? An analogy is a parallel, comparison between two different things, whereas a metaphor, is more of a direct comparison between two things, often with, one word being used to symbolically represent another. "All, the world's a stage. And all the men and women merely, players." is an example of a famous metaphor. William, Shakespeare is directly comparing the world to a stage, with, the people playing " roles" as they go about their daily lives. A, comparable analogy would be "Players are to stage as figure, skaters are to ice rink.", I. WORD ANALOGY, 1. Classification Relationship, In this type of relationship, the classification of words can, be biological, physical, chemical or on any other basis., Example: Man: Mammal, Man belongs to the class of Mammal, (a) Ice, : Water, (Physical Classification), , (b) Snake, , : Reptile, , (Biological Classification), , (c) Buffalo, , : Mammal, , (Biological Classification), , (d) Lizard, , : Reptile, , (Biological Classification), , (e) Hammer, , : Tool, , (Physical Classification), , (f) Car, , : Vehicle, , (Physical Classification), , 2., , Physical Quantity and its Unit, In this type of relationship, the first term describes the, physical quantity and the second term describes the S.I. unit., Example: Power: Watt, Watt is the unit of Power., Potential, Volt, Force, Newton, Resistance, Ohm, Area, Hectare, Length, Metre, Time, Velocity, , 3., , Study and Topic, In this type of relationship, the first term is, the second term., Example: Zoology: Animals, Zoology is the study of animals, Pathology, Diseases, Cardiology, Mycology, Fungi, Anthropology, Botany, Plants, Ornithology, Astrology, Future, Seismology, , the study of, , Heart, Man, Birds, Earthquakes, , 4., , Cause and Effect Relationship (Event-Aftermath), In this type of relationship, the first word is the action and, the second word is the effect or vice-versa., Example: Goitre: Iodine, Goitre is caused by the deficiency of Iodine., Anaemia, Iron, Insult, Humiliate, Fast, Hunger, Race, Fatigue, Shoot, Kill, Dirt, Disease, , 5., , Country and Currency Relationship, In this type of relationship, the second term is the, currency of the first term., Example: USA: Dollar, Dollar is the currency of USA., UK, Pound, UAE, Dirham, Bangladesh, Taka, India, Rupee, China, Yuan, Japan, Yen, , 6., , Pair Relationship, In this type of relationship, the word pair consists of, words which have the pair relationship., Example:, Question, Answer, Profit, Loss, Chair, Table, Buy, Sell, Lock, Key, Pencil, Eraser, Shoes, Socks, Wheel, Axle
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Analogies, , 7., , 8., , I.A.35, , Group Relationship, In this type of relationship, the second term describes a, group of the first term., Example: Musicians: Band, A group of Musicians is called a Band., Man, Crowd, Flowers, Bouquet, Soldiers, Army, Ministers, Council, Robbers, Gang, Sheep, Flock, Games and Playing place Relationship, In this type of relationship, the first term describes the, games and the second term describes the place of playing., Example: Cricket: Pitch, Cricket is played on a Pitch, , Part and Whole Relationship, Example:, Arc: Circle, Chapter: Book, Needle: Clock, Room: House, 10. Worker and Tool Relationship, Example:, Farmer: Plough, Sculptor: Chisel, Chef: Knife, Soldier: Gun, Author: Pen, Blacksmith: Anvil, , 16. Games and Place of Playing Relationship, Example:, Skating: Rink, Race: Track, Cricket: Pitch, Badminton: Court Wrestling: Arena, Boxing: Ring, 17. Animal/Person and Dwelling Place Relationship, Example:, Horse: Stable, Eskimo: Igloo, Lunatic: Asylum, Owl: Barn, Spider: Web, Lion: Den, 18. Animal and Young One Relationship, Example:, Cow: Calf, Horse: Foal, Frog: Tadpole, Deer: Fawn, Butterfly: Caterpillar Goat: Kid, , 9., , Blade: Fan, Nib: Pen, , Surgeon: Scalped, Labourer: Spade, Warrior: Sword, , 11. Worker and Working Place Relationship, Example:, Actor: Stage, Artist: Theatre, Lawyer: Court, Teacher: School Mechanic: Garage Gambler: Casino, 12. Tool and Action Relationship, Example:, Spade: Dig, Needle: Sew, chisel: Carve, Fun: Shoot, , Tongs: Hold, Knife: Cut, , 13. Worker and Product Relationship, Example:, Mason: Wall, Farmer: Crop, Author: Book, Architect: Design Editor: Newspaper Cobbler: Shoes, , 19. Animal/Thing and Sound Relationship, Example:, Horse: Neigh, Elephant: Trumpet Duck: Quack, Frog: Croak, Mice: Squeak, Donkey: Bray, Leaves: Rustle, Thunder: Roar, Rain: Patter, 20. Animal and Movement Relationship, Example:, Horse: Gallop, Lion: Prowl, Mouse: Scamper, Duck: Waddle, Donkey: Trot, Rabbit: Leap, 21. Male and Female Relationship, Example:, Monk: Nun, Fox: Vixen, Dog: Bitch, Stage: Doe, Drake: Duck, Bachelor: Spinster, 22. Individual and Group Relationship, Example:, Fish: Shoal, Artist: Troupe, Flowers: Bouquet grapes: Bunch, Nomads: Hoarde Soldiers: Army, , Drone: Bee, Horse: Mare, Cock: Hen, , Singer: Chorus, Players: Team, , 14. Words and Synonym Relationship, Example:, Abduct: Kidnap Abundance: Plenty Fierce: Violent, Abode: Dwelling Mend: Repair, Dearth: Scarcity, , 23. Individual/Thing and Class Relationship, Example:, Whale: Mammal Pen: stationery, Table: Furniture, Cup: Crockery, Rat: Rodent, Butterfly: Insect, , 15. Word and Antonym Relationship, Example:, Attack: Defend, Gentle: Harsh, Gradual: Abrupt Fresh: Stale, , The questions based on analogy are mainly meant to test a, candidate’s ability to deduce the relationship between two, given words and establish a similar relationship between two, other words., , Lend: Borrow, Advance: Retreat
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I.A.36, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Examples:, Type-I: Analogous Pair Completion, Directions (1 to 5): In each of the following questions two, words are paired which have a certain relation. Select a, correct option to substitute question-mark so as to make a, similar relational pair with the word given after double, colon (: :)., 1. Safe : Secure : : Protect: ?, a. Conserve, b. Sure, c. Guard, d. Lock, Sol. (c) ‘Safe is synonym of ‘Secure’., Similarly, ‘Protect’ is synonym of ‘Guard’., 2. Genuine : Authentic : : Mirage: ?, a. Reflection b. Hideout c. Illusion, d. Image, Sol. (c) ‘Genuine’ is synonym of ‘Authentic’., Similarly, ‘Mirage’ is synonym of ‘Illusion’., 3. Imprison : Jail : : Exile :?, a. Depart, b. Punishment, c. Banish, d. Country, Sol. (c) ‘Imprison’ is synonym of ‘Jail’. Similarly, ‘Exile’ is, synonym of ‘Banish’., , Moving clockwise through 135º from ‘West’, we get ‘NorthEast’ direction. Similarly, moving clockwise through 135º from, ‘South’, we get ‘North-West’ direction., Type-III: Direct Analogy, Directions: In each of the following questions, the first, word have a definite relationship. Choose one word of the, given four alternatives which will fill in the blank space and, show the same relationship with the third word as between, the first two., , Hour : Second : : Tertiary: ?, a. Ordinary, b. Secondary, c. Intermediary, d. Primary, Sol. (d) Three units of time in ascending order:, 7., , ‘Second’, ‘minute’ and ‘hour’, 1, 2, 3, Similarly, Three stages in an event or a process in, ascending order:, , Fallacy : Illusion : : Mend :?, a. Mix, b. Calm, c. Correct, d. Repair, Sol. (d) ‘Fallacy’ is synonym of ‘Illusion’., Similarly, ‘Mend’ is synonym of ‘Repair’., 4., , Foresight : Anticipation : : Insomnia : ?, a. Treatment, b. Unrest, c. Disease, d. Sleeplessness, Sol. (d) ‘Foresight’ is synonym of ‘Anticipation’., Similarly, ‘Insomnia’ is synonym of ‘Sleeplessness’., 5., , Type-II: Analogous Pair Selection, Directions (6): The following questions consist of two words, each that have a certain relationship to each other, followed, by pairs of words. Select the lettered pair that has the same, relationship as the original pair of words., , West : North-East : : South : ?, a. South – East, b. East, c. North, d. North – West, Sol. (d) Use the direction diagram., 6., , N, NW, , NE, 135, , W, , E, , 135, SE, , SW, S, , ‘Primary’, ‘Secondary’ and ‘Tertiary’, 1, 2, 3, ‘Tertiary’ means third in order., Type-IV: Similar Word Selection, , Edge : Corner : Tip:, a. Cap, b. Hill, c. Snow, d. Brink, Sol. (d) All are synonyms, 9. Which of the following is the same as Emancipate, Free, Release?, a. Ignore, b. Pardon, c. Quit, d. Liberate, Sol. (d) All are synonyms, Type-V: Pair Group Selection, 10. Temperance: Moderation: Sobriety, a. Red : Yellow: Green, b. Water : Milk : Oil, c. Hard: Soft : Stiff, d. Atonement : Reparation: Compromise, Sol. (d) Temperance, Moderation and sobriety are synonyms., Similarly, Atonement, Reparation and Compromise are, synonyms., 8.
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Analogies, , I.A.37, , Multiple Choice Questions, Type I: Word Analogy, Direction (1-25): In each of the following questions, a pair, of interrelated word is given. From amongst the, alternatives that follow, choose the one in which the words, express the same relationship as that in the given pair., 1. Chapter: Novel, a. Piano: Orchestra, b. Poetry: Prose, c. Scene: Drama, d. Diamond: Jewellery, 2. Goggles: Eyes, a. Splint: Leg, b. Braid: Hair, c. Gloves: Hands, d. Tie: Neck, 3. Wind: Gale, a. Loves: Passion, b. Disgust: Infatuation, c. Storm: Sea, d. Disaster: Calamity, 4. Chatter: Talk, a. Chant: Sing, b. Limp: Walk, c. Sleep: Drowse, d. Scurry: Move, 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , Error: Infallible, a. Cure: Irreversible, c. Emotion: Invulnerable, , b. Flaw: Impeccable, d. Defect: Intolerable, , Squander: Money, a. Trespass: Land, c. Achieve: Victory, , b. Dally: Time, d. Foresee: Predict, , Modesty: Arrogance, a. Shout: Speak, c. Soldier: Army, , b. Obese: Fat, d. Debility: Strength, , Coffee: Beverages, a. Bread: Butter, c. Burger: Snacks, , b. Milk: Tea, d. Grapes: Wine, , Restaurant: Menu, a. Library: Catalogue, b. Book: Encyclopaedia, c. Magazine: Newspaper, d. Newspaper: Advertisement, , 10. Darkness: Lamp, a. Fatigue: Exercise, c. Medicine: Illness, , b. Thirst: Water, d. Study: Classroom, , 11. Encyclopaedia: Information, a. Road: Car, b. Question: Answers, c. Internet: Computer, d. Comedian: Entertainment, 12. King: Crown, a. Sculptor: Chisel, c. Soldier: Gun, , b. Teacher: Chalk, d. Priest: Mitre, , 13. Relax: Work, a. Play: Cheat, c. Smile: Laugh, , b. Lunch: Dinner, d. Fresh: Stale, , 14. Platform: Train, a. Aeroplane: Aerodrome, c. Quay: Ship, , b. Hotel: Tourist, d. Footpath: Traveller, , 15. Waiter: Tip, a. Student: Marks, c. Employee: Wages, , b. Worker: Bonus, d. Clerk: Bribe, , 16. Preamble: Constitution, a. Word: Dictionary, c. Preface: Book, , b. Summary: Poetry, d. Article: Magazine, , 17. Yolk: Egg, a. Duck: Fowl, c. Rind: Melon, , b. Stalk: Corn, d. Nucleus: Cell, , 18. Arc: Circle, a. Segment: Line, c. Number: Count, , b. Pie: Slice, d. Fraction: Percentage, , 19. Fox: Cunning, a. Cat: Playful, c. vixen: Cute, , b. Horse: Runner, d. Ant: Industrious, , 20. Sedan: Automobile, a. Marble: Statue, c. Rung: Ladder, , b. Rocker: Chair, d. Hangar: Aeroplane, , 21. Coin: Mint, a. Grain: Field, c. Wine: Brewery, , b. Hay: Stable, d. Book: Publisher, , 22. Formula: Constituent, a. Equation: Term, c. School: Teacher, , b. Carburettor: Mixture, d. Road: Car, , 23. River: Ocean, a. Child: School, c. Lane: Road, , b. Book: Library, d. Cloth: Body, , 24. Jupiter: Planet, a. Sparrow: Bird, c. Badkal: Lake, , b. Yamuna: River, d. Everest: Peak, , 25. Gun: Trigger, a. Bicycle: Wheel, c. Lamp: Switch, , b. Chair: Arm, d. Engine: Fuel
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , I.A.38, , Direction (26-30): Deduce the relationship between two, given words and establish a similar relationship between, two other words., , 39. ‘Meat’ is to ‘Vegetarian’ as ‘Liquor’ is to ____________., a. Insane, b. Introvert c. Teetotaller d. Simple, 40. ‘Reading’ is to, ____________., a. Experience, c. Employment, , ‘Knowledge’, , as, , ‘Work’, , is, , to, , 26. Good : Bad : : Virtue:?, a. Depair, b. Sin, , c. Blame, , d. Vice, , 27. Push : Pull : : Throw:?, a. Game, b. Pick, , c. Jump, , d. Collect, , 28. Mountain : Valley : : Genius :?, a. Brain, b. Intelligence c. Think, , 41. ‘Tennis’ is to ‘Court’ as ‘Boxing’ is to ____________., a. Pool, b. Ring, c. Arena, d. Course, , d. Idiot, , 29. Import : Export : : Expenditure:?, a. Debt, b. Tax, c. Deficit, , 42. ‘Court’ is to ‘Lawyer’ as ‘Hospital’ is to ____________., a. Patient, b. Medicine c. Nurse, d. Doctor, , d. Revenue, , 30. Cruel : Kind : : Lethargy :?, a. Sharp, b. Alertness c. Interest, , 43. ‘Cattle’ is to ‘Fodder’ as ‘Fish’ is to ____________., a. Eggs, b. Plankton c. Insects, d. Plants, , d. Shrewd, , 44. ‘Major’ is related to ‘Lieutenant’ in the same way as, ‘Squadron Leader’ is related to ____________., a. Group Captain, b. Flying Attendant, c. Flying Officer, d. Pilot Officer, , Direction (31-50): Complete each of the following analogies, by choosing the suitable option., 31. ‘Horse’ is to ‘Jockey’ and ‘Car’ is to ____________., a. Mechanic b. Chauffeur c. Steering d. Fuel, 32. ‘Race’ is to ‘Fatigue’ as ‘Fast’ is to ____________., a. Food, b. Appetite c. Hunger, d. Weakness, , b. Engagement, d. Experiment, , 45. ‘Necklace’ is related to ‘Jewellery’ in the same way as, ‘Shirt’ is related to ____________., a. Thread, b. Cloth, c. Cotton, d. Apparel, , 33. ‘Soldier’ is to ‘Regiment’ at ‘Horse’ is to ____________., a. Herd, b. Cavalry c. Navy, d. Fleet, , 46. ‘Happiness’ is related to ‘Sorrow’ in the same way as, ‘Comfort’ is related to ____________., a. Hardship, b. Rest, c. Poverty, d. Difficulty, , 34. ‘Accommodation’ is to ‘Rent’ at ‘Journey’ is to, ____________., a. Tour, b. Vehicle, c. Conveyance, d. Fare, , 47. ‘Writer’ is related to ‘Reader’ in the same way as, ‘Producer’ is related to ____________., a. Seller, b. Consumer c. Creater, d. Contractor, , 35. ‘Breeze’ is to ‘Cyclone’ as ‘Drizzle’ is to ____________., a. Earthquake b. Storm, c. Flood, d. Downpour, , 48. ‘Mathematics’ is related to ‘numbers’ in the same way as, ‘History’ is related to ____________., a. People, b. Events, c. Dates, d. Wars, , 36. ‘Hear’ is to ‘Deaf’ as ‘Speak’ is to ____________., a. Quiet, b. Silent, c. Numb, d. Dumb, , 49. ‘Mirror’ is related to ‘Reflexion’ in the same way as, ‘Water’ is related to ____________., a. Conduction b. Dispersion c. Immersion d. Refraction, , 37. ‘Snake’ is to ‘Fang’ as ‘Bee’ is to ____________., a. Honey, b. Hive, c. Sting, d. Wax, 38. ‘Medicine’ is to ‘Sickness’ as ‘Book’ is to ________., a. Knowledge b. Education c. Ignorance d. Reading, , 50. ‘Income’ is related to ‘Expenditure’ in the same way as, ‘Profit’ is related to ____________., a. Balance, b. Loss, c. Sale, d. Receipts, , II. ALPHABET ANALOGY, Original Alphabetical Order: From Left to Right., A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O, , 1, , 2 3 4 5 6 7, , P Q R S T U V W X Y Z, 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26, , Reverse Alphabetical Order: From Right to Left., Z Y X W V U T S R Q P O N M L, , 1, , 2, , 3, , 4, , 5, , K J I H G F E D C B A, 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26
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Analogies, , I.A.39, , Similarly,, , Examples:, Type I: Analogous Pair Completion, 1. QPRS : TUWV : : JIKL : ?, a. MNOP, b. MNPO, c. NMOP, Sol. (b) The pattern is as follows:, , Q, , P, , R, , S, , I, , K, , L, , 3 2 1, 4 5 6, Reverse, A R E → U Q S, , T, , U, , W, , V, , M, , N, , P, , O, , MP is the related to OR and DG is related to FI in the, same way as RU is related to ____________., a. UW, b. TX, c. TV, d. TW, Sol. (d) The pattern is as follows:, O R, M P, 4., , +3, +5, +5, +3, , +2, +2, , Similarly,, , D, , DIC : 493 : : FAH : ?, a. 442, b. 431, c. 681, Sol. (d) The pattern is as follows:, , G, , F, , 9, I, , 3, C, , Position, , → 4, , 9, , d. 618, , Similarly,, , 6, F, , 1, A, , 8, H, , Position, 6, →, , 1, , 8, , Type II: Direct Analogy, 3. ‘CIRCLE’ is related to ‘RICELC’ in the same way as, ‘SQUARE’ is related to ____________., a. QSUERA b. QUSERA c. UQSAER d. UQSERA, Sol. (d) The pattern is as follows:, , 1 2, C I, , 3, R, , Therefore,, , R, 9 ⇒ Respective, Positions, , 3 2, 4 5 6, Reverse, C L E → R I, , 1, C, , I, , +2, +2, , 2., , 4, D, , 6 5 4, E R A, , d. NMPO, , +3, +5, +5, +3, , Similarly,, , J, , 1 2 3, S Q U, , U, , T, , W, , +2, +2, , Which of the following indicates similar relationship as, ‘LOWER’ has with ‘WORLE’ ?, a. GLAZE : AGELZ, b. AMONG : OMNAG, c. WORDS : ROSWD, d. ENTRY : RNYET, Solution: (c) The pattern is as follows:, 5., , 1, L, , 2 3 4 5, O W E R, , 3 2, W O, , :, , 5, T, , 1 4, L E, , Similarly,, 1 2, W O, , 6 5 4, E L C, , 3, R, , 4 5, D S, , :, , 3, R, , 2, O, , 5, S, , 1 4, W D, , Multiple Choice Questions, TYPE II:ALPHABET ANALOGY, Type I: Analogous Pair Completion, , 4., , Direction (1 to 15): In each of the following question consists, of a pair a letter groups that have a certain relationship to, each other, followed by four other pairs of letter-group given, as alternatives. Select the pair in which the letter-groups are, similarly related as in the given pair., 1., , 2., , 3., , A : Z : :B : ?, a. C, , b. X, , c. Y, , d. Z, , BE : AD : : PS : ?, a. LO, b. RO, , c. OT, , d. OR, , BC : FG : : ? : ?, a. PQ : ST, b. HI : LM, , c. AD : PQ, , d. JK : LM, , 5., , 6., , ACE : BDF : : FHJ : ?, a. GIK, b. GHK, , c. DFH, , d. FHL, , CAT : DDY : : BIG : ?, a. CLL, b. CLM, , c. CML, , d. CEP, , FILM : ADGH : : MILK : ?, a. ADGF, b. HDGE, c. HDGF, , d. HEGF, , 7., , AFHO : GBDI : : CHFM : ?, a. GBIM, b. GBLD, c. GPLD, d. IDBH, , 8., , BUCKET : ACTVBDJLDFSU : : BONUS : ?, a. ACMNMOTVRT, b. SUNOB, c. ACNPMOTVRT, d. ACMNMOTURT
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , I.A.40, , 9., , CEH : IKN : : ? : ?, a. ACD : FHJ, c. EFH : KMN, , 10. AG : IO : : EK : ?, a. LR, b. MS, 11. DS : IN : : BK : ?, a. IH, b. JE, 12. ABCD : NPRT : : FGHI : ?, a. KLMN, b. OQRT, , b. CDF : IJK, d. OQT : UWZ, c. PV, , d. SY, , c. PM, , d. GF, , c. RTUW, , d. SUWY, , 13. UDBS : USBD : : PEAX : ?, a. PXEA, b. PXAE, c. PEXA, , d. PAEX, , 14. b D q r S : u M e t W : : m E b l Q : ?, a. R i b l E, b. q b D i W c. i D h B q, , d. n H r e Z, , 15. BUCKET : ACTVBJDFSU : : BONUS :?, a. ACMNMOTVRT, b. SUNOB, c. ACNPMOTVRT, d. ACMNMOTURT, , Type II: Direct analogy, 16. ‘MQ’ is related to ‘PU’ and FI is related to ‘IM’ in the, same way as ‘SV’ is related to ____________., a. UY, b. TX, c. VY, d. VZ, 17. ‘BEGK’ is related to ‘ADFJ’ in the same way as ‘PSVY’, is related to ____________., a. LOQT, b. ROUX, c. OTUZ, d. ORUX, 18. ‘DRIVEN’ is related to ‘EIDRVN’ in the same way as, ‘BEGUM’ is related to ____________., a. BGMEU, b. BGMUE c. EUBGM d. UEBGM, 19. Which of the following pairs is the same as AZ, EV, GT, and DW?, a. UD, b. WZ, c. HS, d. BW, 20. ‘BEGK’ is related to ‘ADFJ’ in the same way as ‘PSVY’, is related to ____________., a. LOQT, b. ROUX, c. OTUZ, d. ORUX, , III. NUMBER ANALOGY: Identify the odd pair out the following four pairs of numbers., 4. 28 : 44 = 35 : _______, Examples:, 35 : 24 = 63 : _______, a. 38, b. 50, 2, Sol. (c) 7 − 1 = 48, , a. 53, 28, , 1., , 2., , 8 : 28 = 15 : _______, a. 36, b. 64, :, =, 8, 28, , 32 − 1, , 33 + 1, , c. 48, , c. 49, 15, , d. 80, , :, , d. 65, _____, , 42 − 1, , 43 − 1, , Sol. (d) 42 + 1 = 64 + 1 = 65, 3., , 36 : 45 = 57 : _______, a. 64, b. 62, :, 36, 45, =, , +9, (3 + 6) (SOD of 36), Sol. (d) 57 + (5 + 7) = 69, , b. 50, 44, , :, , +16, (2 × 8), (Product of digits of 28), (3 + 6) (SOD of 36), Sol. (b) 35 + (3 × 5) = 50, 5., , 57, , d. 69, :, , d. 48, _____, , :, , + 15, (3 × 5), (POD), , 18 : 48 = 180 : _______, a. 294, , c. 71, , c. 54, 35, , =, , 18, , b. 230, , :, , 48, , =, , c. 392, 180, , :, , d. 292, _____, , _____, , 33 − 32, , (5 + 7) = 12, , 43 − 42, , 63 − 62, , 73 − 72, , Sol. (a) 73 – 72 = 2940, , Multiple Choice Questions, III. NUMBER ANALOGY:, Directions (1 to 15): Finding The Wrong Term in the Given, Series., 1., 2., , 7, 28, 63, 124, 215, 342, 511, a. 7, b. 28, c. 124, 3, 8, 15, 24, 34, 48, 63, a. 15, b. 24, , c. 34, , d. 215, d. 48, , 3., 4., 5., 6., , 8, 14, 26, 48, 98, 194, 386, a. 194, b. 98, c. 14, 380, 138, 92, 48, 20, 8, 2, a. 188, b. 48, c. 92, 6, 12, 48, 100, 384, 768, 3072, a. 768, b. 384, c. 100, 3, 7, 15, 39, 63, 127, 255, 511, a. 39, b. 15, c. 7, , d. 48, d. 20, d. 48, d. 63
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Analogies, , 7., 8., 9., , I.A.41, , 445, 221, 109, 46, 25, 11, 4, a. 221, b. 109, , c. 46, , d. 25, , 10, 14, 28, 32, 64, 68, 132, a. 32, b. 68, , c. 64, , d. 132, , 56, 72, 90, 110, 132, 150, a. 72, b. 90, , c. 110, , d. 150, , 13. 105, 85, 60, 30, 0, – 45, – 90, a. 0, b. 85, c. 60, d. – 45, , d. 91, , 14. 112, 114, 120, 124, 132, 142, 154, a. 114, b. 120, c. 124, , d. 132, , d. 64, , 15. 3, 4, 10, 32, 136, 685, 4116, a. 136, b. 10, , d. 32, , 10. 1, 2, 6, 15, 31, 56, 91, a. 31, b. 15, 11. 2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, 50, 64, a. 50, b. 17, , c. 56, c. 26, , 12. 46080, 3840, 384, 48, 24, 2, 1, a. 1, b. 2, c. 24, d. 48, , c. 4116, , ANSWERS, 9., , I. Word Analogy, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , c, , c, , a, , b, , b, , b, , d, , c, , a, , b, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , d, , d, , d, , c, , b, , c, , d, , a, , d, , b, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , c, , a, , c, , d, , c, , d, , b, , d, , d, , b, , 31., , 32., , 33., , 34., , 35., , 36., , 37., , 38., , 39., , 40., , b, , c, , b, , d, , d, , d, , c, , c, , c, , a, , 41., , 42., , 43., , 44., , 45., , 46., , 47., , 48., , 49., , 50., , b, , c, , b, , c, , d, , a, , b, , b, , d, , b, , 10., , II. Alphabet Analogy, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , c, , d, , c, , a, , a, , c, , d, , c, , d, , b, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , d, , d, , b, , d, , c, , d, , d, , d, , c, , c, , III. Number Analogy, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , b, , c, , d, , b, , c, , a, , c, , a, , d, , d, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , d, , c, , a, , b, , d, , SOLUTIONS, I. Word Analogy:, 1. (c) First is a unit of the second., 2. (c) First protects the second., 3. (a) Second is a more intense form of the first., 4. (b) ‘Chatter’ means to talk rapidly. Similarly, ‘Scurry’, means to move rapidly., 5. (b) Second is the name given to a state of lack of the first., 6. (b) First denotes the act of wasting the second, 7. (d) The words in each pair are antonyms., 8. (c) Second is a more intense form of the first., , 10., 11., 12., 13., 14., 15., 16., 17., 18., 19., 20., 21., 22., 23., 24., 25., 26., 27., 28., 29., 30., 31., 32., , (a) Menu gives a list of the items available in a restaurant., Similarly, catalogue lists the books available in a library., (b) Second eliminates the first., (d) First provides the second., (d) First is dignified by the second., (d) The words in each pair are antonyms., (c) First is the place designed for the stoppage of the second., (b) Second is the additional money given to the first for, good service., (c) First is a formula introduction to the second., (d) First forms the central portion of the second., (a) First is a fragment of the second., (d) Fox is considered to be cunning. Similarly, ant is, known to be an industrious (hard-working) creature., (b) First is a type of the second., (c) Second is the place where the first is manufactured., (a) Second is a part of the first, (c) First meets and ends into the second, (d) Jupiter is the biggest plant. Similarly, Everest is the, highest peak., (c) One needs to move/press the second to make the first, work., (d) ‘Good’ is antonym of ‘Bad’., Similarly, ‘Virtue’ is antonym of ‘Vice’., (b) ‘Push’ is antonym of ‘Pull’., Similarly, ‘Throw’ is antonym of ‘Pick’., (d) ‘Mountain’ is antonym of ‘Valley’., Similarly, ‘Genius’ is antonym of ‘Idiot’., (d) ‘Import’ is antonym of ‘Export’., Similarly, ‘Expenditure’ is antonym of ‘Revenue’., (b) ‘Cruel’ is antonym of ‘kind’., Similarly, ‘Lethargy’ is antonym of ‘Alertness’., (b) First is driven by the second., (c) First causes the second.
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I.A.42, , 33., 34., 35., 36., 37., 38., 39., 40., 41., 42., , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , (b) Second is an organised group of the first., (d) Second is the money paid for the first., (d) Second is a more intense form of the first., (d) One who cannot hear is deaf and one who cannot, speak is dumb., (c) Second is the biting part of the first., (c) First helps to get rid of the second., (c) One who abstains from meat is called a vegetarian and, one who abstains from liquor is called a teetotaler., (a) Second is acquired from the first., (b) Second is the place where the game/sport denoted by, the first is held., (c) A lawyer pleads in court. Similarly, a nurse works in, hospital., None: ‘Court’ is to ‘Judge’ as ‘Hospital’ is to ‘Doctor’., , 43. (b) First feeds on the second., 44. (c) ‘Major’ and ‘Squadron Leader’ are equivalent ranks in, ‘Army’ and ‘Air Force’ respectively., Similarly, Lieutenant’ and ‘Flying Officer’ are equivalent, ranks in ‘Army’ and ‘Air Force’ respectively., 45. (d) Second denotes the group to which the first belong., 46. (a) The words in each pair are antonyms of each other., 47. (b) A writer writes for the reader. Similarly, a producer, produces articles for the consumers., 48. (b) Mathematics is the theory of Numbers and History is, the theory of past events., 49. (d) Light rays falling on the mirror undergo reflexion and, those falling on water undergo refraction., 50. (b) ‘Expenditure’ is the antonym of ‘Income’. Similarly,, the antonym of ‘Profit’ is loss., , II. Alphabet Analogy:, (c) Clearly second letter from the end is Y. So the answer, is (c)., 2. (d) Clearly each letter of the first group in a pair is moved, one step backward., 3. (b) The logic is: First group’s each letter is moving four, steps forward. So the answer is (b), 4. (a) The logic is +1, +2., 5. (a) The logic is + 1, +3, +5 steps., 6. (c) The logic is: –5 steps., 7. (d) The logic is +6, –4, –4, +5., 8. (c) Each letter of the first group is replaced by two, letter—one that comes after and one that comes before it,, in the second group., 9. (d) The logic is +6 steps forward., 10. (b) The logic is +8., 11. (d) The pattern is as follows:, 1., , D, , S, , K, , C, , F, , G, , H, , I, , 3, B, , 2, D, , 3, A, , 2, E, , Similarly,, 1 2, P E, , 3, A, , 4, X, , 1 4, P X, , :, , Reverse, , 14. (d) The pattern is as follows:, , 1, b, , 2, D, , 3, q, , 4 5, r S, , 3, q, , 4 5, 1 Q, , Capital letter, , :, , N, , P, , R, , T, , S, , U W Y, , + 13, + 14, + 15, + 16, , Similarly,, , 1 4, U S, , :, , Reverse, , 1 2, m E, , 0G F, , :, , D, , 4, S, , 3 2 5, u M e, , :, , 1 4, t W, , Capital letter, , Similarly,, , 12. (d) The pattern is as follows:, , B, , 3, B, , Capital letter, , +5, –5, , A, , 1 2, U D, , N, , +5, –5, , Similarly,, B, , I, , :, , 13. (b) The pattern is as follows:, , :, + 13, + 14, + 15, + 16, , :, , 3, n, , 2, H, , 5, r, , 1 4, e Z, , Capital letter, , 15. (c) The pattern is as follows:, , 2 21 3 11 5 20 1 3 20 22 2 4 10 12 46 19 21, B U C K E T A C T V B D J L DF S U, , 1 2 3 20 21 22 1 3 4 10 11 12, 4 5 6 19 20 21
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Analogies, , I.A.43, Reverse, , i.e., A B C : T U V : B C D : J K L : D E F : S T U, Similarly,, 2 21 3 11 5 20 1 3 20 22 24 10 12 46 19 21, B U C K E T A C T V BD J L DF S U, , 1, B, , 2, E, , 3, G, , 4, U, , 5, M, , 4, U, , 1, B, , 2, E, , 3, G, , 5, M, , Odd Positions, Same Positions, , 16. (d) The pattern is as follows:, P U, M Q, :, , 19. (c) The pattern is as follows:, , 3, 4, , Similarly,, F, I, , I, , :, , M, , A, , Z, , E, , V, , Ist form, beginning, , Ist form, end, , 5th form, beginning, , 5th form, end, , G, , T, , D, , W, , 7th form, beginning, , 7th form, end, , 4th form, beginning, , 4th form, end, , 3, 4, , Therefore,, S V, :, , V, , Z, , 3, 4, , Similarly,, , 17. (d) The pattern is as follows:, 1 2 3 4, 3 1, S E A L : A S, , 4, L, , 2, E, , H, , S, , 8th form, beginning, , 8th form, end, , 20. (c) The pattern is as follows:, , Similarly,, 1 2 3, P O U, , B, 4, R, , :, , 3, U, , 1, P, , 4, R, , E, , G, , K, , 2, O, , :, , A, , D, , F, , J, , U, , X, , –1, –1, –1, –1, , 18. (d) The pattern is as follows:, Similarly,, , Similarly,, P S, , Reverse Odd Positions, , V, , Odd Positions, , 1 2 3 4 5 6, D R I V E N, Even, , Y, , :, , O, , R, , –1, , 5, E, , 3, I, , 1, D, , 2 4 6, R V N, , –1, –1, –1, , Positions, Same Positions, , III. Number Analogy, 1. (b) Clearly, the correct sequence is, 23 – 1, 33 – 1, 43 – 1, 53 – 1, 63 – 1, 73 – 1, 83 – 1., 28 is wrong., So, the answer is (b)., 2. (c) The difference between consecutive terms of the given, series are respectively 5, 7, 9, 11 and 13., Clearly, 34 is a wrong number., So, the answer is (c)., 3. (d) Each term, except 48 in the series is less than twice, the preceding term by 2., The correct term is 50., , 4., 5., , , 6., , 7., , (b) Each term, except 48 in the series is four more the two, times the next term. The correct term is 44., (c) Each term at even place in the series, except 100 is, obtained by multiplying the preceding term by 2., 100 is wrong, the correct term being 96., (a) Each number in the series is multiplied by 2 and the, result increased by 1 to obtain the next number., 39 is wrong, the correct term being 31., (a) 3 is subtracted from each number and the result is, divided by 2 to obtain the next number of the series., , Thus, 221 , , (445 3), (221 3), and so on., ; 109 , 2, 2
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I.A.44, , , 8., , So,, i.e., 9., So,, 10., , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 46 is wrong, the correct term being 53., (a) Alternately, the numbers are increased by four and, doubled to get the next number., Thus, 10 + 4 = 14 ; 14 × 2, = 28 ; 28 + 4, = 32 ; 32 × 2 = 64 and so on., 132 is wrong., It must be (68 × 2), 136., (d) The number are 7 × 8, 8 × 9, 9 × 10, 10 × 11, 11 × 12,, 12 × 13., 150 is wrong., (d) The sequence is + 12, + 22, + 32, + 42, + 52, + 62., , 11. (d) The numbers are 1 + 1, 22 + 1, 32 + 1 and so on., 64 is wrong. The correct term is (82 + 1) i.e., 65., 12. (c) The terms are successively divided by 12, 10, 8, 6, ...,, etc. So, 24 is wrong., 13. (a) The sequence is – 20, – 25, – 30, – 35, – 40, – 45. So,, 0 is wrong., 14. (b) The sequence is + 2, + 4, + 6, + 8, + 10, + 12., So, 120 is wrong., 15. (d) The sequence is as follows:, 2nd term = (Ist term + 1) × 1, 3rd term = (2nd term + 1) × 2, 4th term = (3rd term + 1) × 3 and so on., So, 32 is wrong, the correct term being 33., , , , 2
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Coding and Decoding, , 6, , I.A.45, , Coding and Decoding, , The process of converting information into a coded format and, then converting it back again from a coded format to the, original information. The interpretation of signs by their users, can be seen from a semiotic perspective as having three levels:, Syntactic: Recognition of the sign (in relation to other signs);, Semantic: Comprehension of the intended meaning of the sign;, Pragmatic: Interpretation of the sign in terms of relevance,, agreement, etc., , Any system of communication in which arbitrary groups of, symbols represent units of plain text of varying length., Codes may be used for brevity or for security., A cryptosystem in which the cryptographic equivalents, (usually called "code groups"), typically consisting of, letters or digits (or both) in otherwise meaningless, combinations, are substituted for plain text elements which, are primarily words, phrases, or sentences., , Coding and decoding questions are of five types: Number, coding, Alphabet coding, Symbol coding, Substitution and, message coding., , Example 1. If in a code language, ‘COULD’ is written as, ‘BNTKC’ and ‘MARGIN’ is written as ‘LZQFHM’, how will, ‘MOULDING’ be written in that code?, a. CHEMFINTK, b. LNKTCHME, c. LNTKCHMF, d. NITKHCMF, Solution: (c) Take each alphabet previous one., So, ‘MOULDING’ will be written as ‘LNTKCHMF’., , Letter Coding: The letters of the alphabet may be used in the, coding scheme. The letters to be coded are allotted other letters, to stand for them. Questions on letter coding can be of different, types. Examples of the important ones are given below., Analogical Letter Coding: These codes are based on the, analogy given in the question itself as shown below., Coding is a method of expressing something in a secret way., Decoding is a process ot understand a code language., Types of Coding:, Letter Coding: Letters are used in forward or backward or, both the directions for making some code language., Direct Letter Coding: Letters of a word are directly, replaced by other letters., Number/Symbol Coding: Numerals or symbols are, assigned to words., Substitution Coding: Some particular words are assigned, to certain names., Note, The process of getting back the plain message from the coded, message is decoding or deciphering. Different techniques are, adapted in the process of coding. Our work is to identify the, pattern adapted fro coding the given word. In problems on, ‘letter and number coding’; one word and its code are given., We are asked to find the code of another word. Encoding is the, process of putting a sequence of characters (letters, numbers,, punctuation, and certain symbols) into a specialised digital, format for efficient transmission or transfer. Decoding is the, opposite process – the conversion of a digital signal into a, sequence of characters., , Example 2. In a code, CONTRIBUTE is written as, ETUBIRTNOC. If POPULARISE is written in that code, then, which letter will be the 6th place when counted form the left end?, a. P, b. L, c. R, d. I, Solution: (b) In code language, the letters of the word are, written in the reverse order., So, POPULARISE will be written as E S I R A L U P O P., , Clearly, 6th letter is ‘L’., Example 3. In a certain code, PRAISE is written as # @ $ 27%, and RESPIRE is written as @ % 7 # 2 @ %. How is REPAIR, written in that code?, a. # 2 @ % $ @, b. % @ 7 # $ 2 @, c. @ % # $ 2 @, d. @ % $ 2 # @, Solution: (c) Form the given words and their codes, we, conclude that, Letter, Code, P, #, R, @, A, $, I, 2, S, 7, E, %, So, REPAIR will be written as ‘@ % # $ 2 @’.
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I.A.46, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Example 4. If HOTEL 55, then BORE ?., a. 40, b. 35, c. 55, d. 60, Solution: (b) Code (Sum of place values of letters) – 5, BORE = (B + O + R + E) – 5 = (2 + 15 + 18 + 5 ) –5 = 35., , Example 5. In a certain code, 13479 is written as AQFJL and, 5268 is written as DMPN. How is 396824 written in that code?, a. QLPNKJ, b. QLPNMF, c. QLPMNF, d. QLPNDF, Solution: (b) From the given information, we have:, Digit, 1, 3, 4, 7, 9, 5, 2, 6, 8, , Code, A, Q, F, J, L, D, M, P, N, , Therefore, 396824 will be coded as QLPNMF., Example 6. If ‘lead’ is called ‘stick’, stick’ is called ‘nib’,, ‘nib’ is called ‘needle’, ‘needle’ is called ‘rope’ and ‘rope’ is, called ‘thread’, what will be fitted in a fountain pen to write, with it?, a. stick, b. lead, c. needle, d. nib, Solution: (c) A nib is fitted in a fountain pen. But nib is called, needle. So, the needle will be fitted in the pen., Example 7. In a certain code language, ‘si’ po re’ means ‘book, is thick’, ‘ti ma re’ means ‘bag is heavy’, ‘ka si’ means, ‘interesting book’ and ‘de ti’ means ‘that bag’. Which of the, following means ‘that is interesting’ in that code language?, a. ka de re, b. ti po ka, c. de si re, d. ke re ma, Solution: (a) Common to ‘book is thick’ and ‘bag is heavy’ is, ‘is’. And common to their codes is ‘re’. Therefore, ‘re’ is the, code for ‘is’. Similarly, we may obtain the following:, Word, Code, book, si, Interesting, ka, thick, po, that, de, bag, ti, heavy, ma, is, re, , Hence, ‘ka de re’ mean ‘that is interesting.’, , Example 8. (Form-1) If ‘SPTFA’ stands for ‘BLADE’, how, will you code ‘BALE’?, Solution: (‘STPA’) ‘BLADE’ has been coded as ‘SPTFA’., You will see that all the letters in the word ‘BLADE’, which, have to be coded, are also there in the word ‘BLADE’. Hence, all the needs to be done is to choose the relevant code letters, from the code word ‘SPTFA’. Thus, B becomes S, A becomes, T, L becomes P, and E becomes A. Therefore ‘BALE’ will be, coded as ‘STPA’., Example 9. (Form-2) ‘XEROX COPY OF BILL WAS SENT’, is coded as ‘ZGTQZ EQRAQH DKNN YCU UGPV’. Based, on this coding scheme, tick the code from the answer choices, for each word given in the bold letters in the beginning of each, question:, 1. WATER, a. GVCTT, b. YCVGT c. EQARR d. EAVER, 2., , BLIST, a. DNKOV, , b. DNKUQ c. DNKVU, , d. DKNUB, , CLOSE, a. ENQUG, b. ENQVG c. EQNUG d. ENOUG, Solution:, 1. ‘WATER’ Look for ‘W’ in key. You find it in the word, ‘WAS’. The corresponding code letter is ‘Y’. This, eliminates all answers except (b)., 3., , 2., , ‘BLIST’ A quick look at the answers will show that the, first three letters, ‘DNK’ of all the choices are the same., Therefore it will be no used checking the code for ‘BLI’., Check the code for the fourth letter, ‘S’. You will find, that it is ‘U’. This eliminates answers (a) and (c). Check, the code for ‘T’. This is ‘B’. Therefore the answer is (d)., , 3., , ‘CLOSE’ A quick look at the answer choice and you see, that it is no use checking the code for the first letter ‘C’., Check the code for the second letter ‘L’. This is ‘N’. This, eliminates answer (c). Check the code for the third letter, ‘O’. This is ‘Q’. This eliminates answer (d). Check the, code for the fourth letter ‘S’. This is ‘U’. So the correct, answer is (a). In above questions shown you, that a quick, observation of the answer choices tell you which letter, should be checked first. If the letter and their sequence, in, more than one answer choice, are the same, do not waste, time checking their code. First check the letters which are, different. Finding ways like this can save your valuable, time.
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Coding and Decoding, , I.A.47, , Example 11. (Form-3) Study the following code and its key., Using this code, decode the codes written in bold letters in the, beginning of each question:, Code, Key, 1., 2., 3., , L, b, , X, a, , P, e, , Z, s, , J, p, , Y, r, , Q, h, , M, I, , N, g, , JYPZZ, a. grass, , b. press, , c. brass, , d. gress, , QPMNQB, a. cought, , b. matery, , c. fights, , d. height, , ZJQPYP, a. sphere, , b. thrown, , c. sought, , d. special, , B, t, , Coding with a Specific Pattern: Here, letters are allotted an, artificial value but in a specific pattern. You have to first, determine the pattern involved and then solve the question., Example 12. If ‘MAILED’ is coded as ‘NBJMFE’, how will, you code the word ‘ACTED’?, Solution: ‘BDUFE’. Here each letter stands for the next letter, in the sequence. A becomes B, B becomes C, D becomes E,, and so on. Therefore ‘ACTED’ becomes ‘BDUFE’. Some, commonly used patterns are given in this section., Forward Sequence Pattern, Example 13. (Form-3) If ‘QUIZ’ is coded as ‘RVJA, how will, you code ‘CLASS’?, Solution: (‘DMBTT’) Q becomes R, U becomes V, I becomes, J, Z becomes A. Here, each letter is coded by the next in, alphabetic sequence, with the last letter of the alphabet ‘Z’, becoming the first, ‘A’. Therefore ‘CLASS’ will be coded, ‘DMBTT’. You can use the numbered alphabet to help you to, recognize the patter. Write this down and keep it before you, while solving such questions., Backward Sequence Pattern, Example 14. (Form-4) If ‘DATE’ is coded as ‘WZGV, how, will you code ‘COME’?, Solution: (‘XLNV’) Here, the coding is done in backward, alphabetic order, i.e. A is coded as Z, B as X, C as W, and so, on. The numbered alphabet will help you to identify the pattern, in such questions., Skipped Sequence Pattern, Example 15. (Form-5) If ‘ACT’ is coded as ‘DFW, how will, you code ‘BAD’?, Solution: (‘EDG’) Use the numbered alphabet and you will, see that two letters are omitted in the alphabetic sequence. ‘A’, (skip 2) ‘D’; ‘C’ (skip 2) ‘F’; ‘T’ (skip 2) ‘W’; and so on., , Schemes of such coding can be of several types, with different, numbers of letters skipped. Remember that in such schemes,, circular continuity of letters is maintained. This means that ‘Z’, is followed by ‘A’ without disturbing the continuity., Coding/Decoding by Comparison and Contrast, Example 16. 1. Decode the underlined letters in column I from, the same now of choice provided under column II. Each small, letter in column II stands for some capital letter in column I., However, the small letters in column II are not arranged in the, same order as their corresponding letters in column I. The code, is the same for all the items in column I., Column - I, , Column – II, , 1. GMSAY, , Uagms, , 2. BSMYA, , Sgmvu, , 3. CMAYB, , Wgusv, , 4. NGMSY, , Saghm, , 5. SYNAJ, , mhuds, , Solution 1: (G a; B v; C w; N h; J d), 1. Look at items 1 and 2 of column I ‘GMSAY’ and ‘BSMYA’., The letter MSAY occur in both items. This means that four, letters of the codes of items 1 and 2 must be the same., 2. Look at the codes of items 1 and 2 in column II., The letters u, g, m and s occur in both. Thus the code for, ‘G’ is ‘a’ and the code for ‘B’ is ‘v’., 3. Look at item 3 ‘CMAYB’. The letters M, A, Y, and B, occurred in earlier items., Thus the code for ‘C’ must be a letter which did not, appear in the earlier codes. Thus the code for ‘C’ is ‘w’., 4. Look at item 4 NGMSY., The letter G, M, S and Y occurred in earlier items. Thus the, code for ‘N’ must be a letter which did not appear in the, earlier codes. A search for such a letter leads you to ‘h’., 5. Look at items 5 SYNAJ., The letters S, Y, N and A occurred in earlier items. Thus, the code for ‘J’ must be a letter which did not appear in, earlier codes. Thus the code for ‘J’ is ‘d’., Solution 2: Another quick way of solving these problems is as, follows:, 1. Question 1 requires you to find the code ‘G’. Look for G, in other items. You find it in 4. Therefore, there must be, at least one common letter from the code letters of items 1, and 4. Write down the code letters of items 1:, uagms, 2. Comparing these with the code letters of item 4, strike out, any letter that is not common: a g m s
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I.A.48, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , ‘G’ does not occur in items 2, 3 and 5. Therefore the code, letter for ‘G’ must not occur in the codes for items 2, 3, and 5. Strike out any letter that does occur in these items:, agms, Thus the code for ‘G’ is ‘a’, Coding by Rule Application, Example 17. The word given in capital letters has been coded, in five different ways marked (a-e). It is followed by five, questions, each containing a word in capital letters and its, corresponding code. You have to determined which coding, scheme has been followed in each question:, NAGPUR, a. O B H Q V S, b. P C I R W T, c. R U P G A N, d. Q D J S X U, e. R E K T Y V, 3., , Questions:, Word, 1. BACKING, 2. TOUR, 3. SUPER, 4. SOUPS, 5. TERMS, , Code, GNIKCAB, UPVST, VXSHU, WSYTW, VGTOU, , Solution: 1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (e) 5. (b), 1. The order of letters has been reversed. BACKING is, written as GNIKCAB. Hence the answer is (c), 2., , The letters of the word are represented by the next letter, in the alphabet. T U; O P; U V; R S; and S T., This system is followed in (a)., , 3., , Letters of the code are obtained by skipping two letters in, alphabetic order, i.e., S (TU) V. The same pattern is, followed in (d)., , 4., , Letters of the code are obtained by skipping three letters, in alphabetic order, i.e., S (TUV) W. The same scheme, is followed in (e)., , 5., , Letters of the code are obtained by skipping one letter in, alphabetic order, i.e., T (U) V. The same pattern is, followed in (b)., , Coding by Reversing Letters, Example 18. If ‘TSEREVE’ and ‘NOITACUDE’ stand for, ‘EVEREST’ and ‘EDUCATION’ respectively, how will you, code ‘RED FORT’?, Solution: (TROF DER) You must quickly recognize that the, code is the reverse of the given word. The answer is obviously, TROF DER which is reverse form of ‘RED FORT’., , Example 19. ‘RETSAMROAD’ and ‘MROWBOOK’, represent two well known word groups in partially coded form., Decipher the correct form of these word groups., Solution: (ROAD MASTER and BOOK WORM), The initial word is given second position and the second word, is coded by reversing the letters., Example 20. Decipher the following coded word groups., a. RETSINIM PRIME, b. RETSINIM CHIEF, c. YTILIBA MENTAL, d. DLROW CUP, Solution: (a) PRIME MINISTER (b) CHIEF MINISTER, (c) MENTAL ABILITY (d) WORLD CUP, These codes can be easily decoded with the help of the second, word. This second word gives you a lead or hint. They just, require quickness and imagination. The initial words have been, coded by reversing them., Example 21. In a certain language H O C K E Y is coded as N, G J B X D, then how is T E N N I S coded?, Solution:, H, O C, K E, Y, , N, B X, G J, D, Interchange the position of the second and first letters, fourth, and third letters, and sixth and fifth letters. Then replace the, letters by their previous letters., Similarly, E N, N I, S, T, D, , S, , M, , M, , R, , H, , Example 22. In an a certain code S O U M Y A is coded as P, N B Z V T, then how do we code the word P R A V I N ?, Solution: (S W O J B Q) Replace each letter by its, consecutive letters. Now, number the letters form 1 to 6 serially, starting form extreme left. The sequence of letters 2 4 6 5 3 1, represents the code of the given word. Apply the same pattern, to the word P R A V I N., S O U M Y A, , , , T P V N Z, B, 1 2, 3, 4 5, 6, 2 4, 6 5, 3, 1, P N B Z, V T, P R A V I, N, , , , Q S B W J, O, 1 2, 3, 4 5, 6, 2 4, 6 5, 3, 1, S W O J, B, Q, Hence, the code of the word P R A V I N is S W O J B Q.
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Coding and Decoding, , I.A.49, , Example 23. In a code language R A J I V is coded as W J K, B S, then how do we code the word S I N D H U?, Solution: (V I E O J T) Here, the given word is written in the, reverse order and then, each letter is replaced by the letter next, to in the English alphabet. Write S I N D H U in the reverse, order U H D N IS., Replace each letter by next letter to get – V I E O J T., Example 24. If P A N T H E R is coded as 6 9 0 1 2 5 7 and D, A M P is coded as 3 9 4 6, then how is M A T T E R coded?, Solution: (4 9 1 1 5 7) In this example, each letter of the words, is replaced by a single-digit number. First, write each letter, along with its code number., P 6, A 9, N 0, T 1, H 2, E 5, R 7, D 3, M 4,, Now replace each letter of word M A T T E R by the respective, code numbers., M 4, A 9, T 1, T 1, E 5, R 7,, Example 25. In a certain code, H O T E L is coded as 12, then, how is U R V A S I coded?, Solution: (15) Write the position number of each letter of the, H O T E L and add them together., HOTEL 8 + 15 + 20 + 5 + 12 = 60, On dividing the above number by 5 (number of letters in the word),, we get 12 which represents the code of the word H O T E L. Apply, the same technique to the word U R V A S L., U R V A S I 21 + 18 + 22 + 1 + 19 + 9 = 20., The word U R V A S I contains 6 letters. On dividing 90 by 6,, we get 15, which is the required answer., , Example 26. In a certain code, F R U I T is coded as 5 8 2 8 1,, then how is G R A P E S coded?, Solution: (6 8 0 6 4 0), F R U I T Given word., 6 18 21 9 20 Position number of letters., 6 9, 3, 9 2 Digital sum of each number., 5 8, 2, 8 1, Subtract 1, from each numbers., This number represents the code of the word FRUIT., G R A P E S Given word., 7 18 1 16 5 19 Position number of letters., 7 9 1 7 5 1, Digital sum of each number., 6 8 0 6 4 0 Subtract 1, from each numbers., Example 27. In a certain code language, (1) PIC TOP BOO, means DOGS ARE BEAUTIFUL, (2) TOP SIG ZAP mean, DOGS AND CATS, and (3) KIP PIC RUM means MONKEYS, ARE MAD, what is the code of BEAUTIFUL?, Solution: (BOO) We notice that the sentences DOGS ARE, BEAUTIFUL and DOGS AND CATS have the common word, DOGS. Their codes have the common code TOP. Hence, TOP, is the code of DOGS. Now compare the sentences DOGS ARE, BEAUTIFUL and MONKEYS ARE MAD. The word ARE is, common these two sentences. PIC is common in their codes., Hence PIC is the code of or ARE. In the sentence DOGS ARE, BEAUTIFUL, we have found the codes of DOG are ARE as, TOP and PIC, respectively. So, the code of the word, BEAUTIFUL should be BOO., , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , BOUQUET – GARLAND, YMRORCQ–?, a. D X O I X K A, b. E Y P J Y L B, c. D Y O J X L A, d. E X P J X L B, , 5., , N B SK E T H M F – L O P W L E C F D, MARKETING–?, a. K A R A B I N E R, b. K I L O M E T R E, c. K N O W L E D G E, d. K N O W I N G L Y, , 2., , 6 C 7 G 10 A – 8 H 1 D 7 G, INK–?, a. P E N, b. P A N, c. M A N, , 6., , MZVCVQ–CKQLGB, LATEST–?, a. B L O U S E, b. B L AZ E R, c. B O N D L E, d. B LO N D E, , 7., , EQUIPMENT–EXTEMPORE, FQTJPLFNS–?, a. F X T F N O P S E, b. F X S F M O P R D, c. F X T F M O P R F, d. F X S F M O P R F, , 8., , MUNICIPALITY–JUDICIAL, I N M U AP C I Y T L I – ?, a. I D U J L A C I, b. I D J U L A I C, c. U J D I A L C I, d. I D J U L A C I, , d. C A N, , 3., , MISSISSIPPI –ARLINGTON, MPPISSISSII–?, a. A O T N R L I N G, b. A G T O R L I N N, c. A N G T O R L I N, d. A O T G N I L R N, , 4., , CROCODILE–CORDCOLD, 386364257–?, a. 3 6 8 4 3 6 5 4, b. 3 9 8 7 3 6 5 4, c. 3 9 7 8 3 6 5 4, d. 3 9 7 8 9 5 6 4
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I.A.50, , 9., , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , TEACHING–GRADIENT, CHEATING–?, a. R A D I G E N T, b. D I R A G E N T, c. R G D I E N T, d. RA G I E N T, , 10. C R I M E – P L O T, GMOFM–?, a. G U O Q, b. T U I P, , c. M U L T, , d. T G U M, , 11. K I T C H E N – C H I C K E N, 5263417–?, a. 4 3 2 1 7 5 3, b. 3 4 2 3 5 1 7, c. 2 4 3 5 3 1 7, d. 3 4 2 5 3 1 7, 12. L I B R A R Y – B O O K S, MRCIBIZ–?, a. C L P R T b. C L P L T c. C L P J T, , d. C L P P, , 13. C U R T A I N – H I L L O C K, CAITURN–?, a. H O C L I L K, b. H C O L LI K, c. H K L L I O K, d. H O L L I C K, 14. M E C H A N I C S – P O S T E R S, HCEMASCIN–?, a. S O P T S E R, b. S O S R P E T, c. S R E T S O P, d. S O P R S E T, 15. R O S E – P I N K, TSYM–?, a. R N T S, b. R M S T, , c. R N S T, , d. R M T S, , 21. W I N D O W – H O U S E, ZHQBRT–?, a. K N X Q F, c. K N X R E, , b. K N X R H, d. K N X Q H, , 22. B A G – P O C K E T, A2A1A7 – ?, a. B8C5A3C2A5E4, c. B8C5A3A11A6E4, , b. B8C5A3A11A5E4, d. A8B5A3A11B5E4, , 23. A P P L E – G R A P E, 21517116 – ?, a. 7162156, c. 8172156, , b. 8170156, d. 7152155, , Directions (24 to 30): The following questions are based on, the alphabets written along the figure given below. In each, question, the relationship between the two terms written, left of : : is retained in the two terms written to the right of, it. Out of these four terms, one is missing. Choose this term, out of the given alternatives., 24. GHF : CDB : : EFD : ?, a. ABJ, b. CBD, , c. IJH, , d. AJB, , 25. AKJ : GNH : : EMD : ?, a. CLB, b. CLD, , c. AKB, , d. EMF, , 26. HNP : PDA : : DLP : ?, a. PJG, b. CDP, , c. CLP, , d. PME, , 16. I M P E A C H – C O N T A U R, CHIMAPE–?, a. U R C O A N T, b. T O U R C O N, c. U C A R O N T, d. U R A C N O T, , 27. AFHO : GBDM : : CHFM : ?, a. GBLD, b. GBJO, c. GPLD, , d. GBDM, , 28. AKJO : LOHN : : ? : CLBK, a. LDME, b. EMGH, c. GNFM, , d. EMDL, , 17. T O G E T H E R – P A R O L E, GRANDEUR–?, a. R C P Q J K b. R C T Q N G, c. N C P Q J G d. N C Q P J G, , 29. BPM : GNJ : : ? : AKD, a. FPO, b. FPM, , c. HPB, , d. LPH, , 30. AOE : ? : : GMA : NKM, a. KLM, b. KLF, , c. OBM, , d. KMN, , 18. C O N S U L T – A D V I C E, OCSNLUT–?, a. D A I V C E b. D A V I E C, c. D A V I C E d. D A I V E C, 19. T A I L O R – C L O T H E S, ZGORUX–?, a. I R U Z N K Y, b. I Q V Z M L Y, c. I R U Y N L X, d. I R U Z M K Y, 20. G U E S T – H O U S E – S T O U T, 13268–59365–?, a. 6 8 9 3 8, b. 6 9 8 3 8 c. 6 8 3 9 8, , d. 6 8 9 8 3, , Directions: (31 to 32): In a certain code language if I EAT, RICE is coded as CHIK TAT WIC, YOU EAT ICE is, coded as PIC WIC NIC, THEY DRINK COFFEE is coded, as HOP BOP TOP, and I LIKE YOU is coded as GUP NIC, CHIK., 31. What is the code for I ?, a. TAT, b. WIC, , c. CHIK, , d. GUP, , 32. What is the code of COFFEE ?, a. BOP, b. TOP, c. HOP, d. cannot be determined
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Coding and Decoding, , I.A.51, , Directions (33 to 36): In a certain code language, PAM BAM, RAM means ROSE IS RED, RAM TAM SAM means, GRASS IS GREEN, BAM YAM GAM mean RED THICK, BLOOD, GAM RAM YAM means BLOOD IS THICK., 33. What is the code for GREEN BLOOD?, a. TAM GAM, b. SAM GAM, c. SAM YAM, d. NONE, 34. What is the cod of RED?, a. PAM, c. BAM, , b. RAM, d. YAM, , 35. In certain code, P O E T R Y is coded as R E P O T Y,, then what is the code of the word A U T H O R?, a. A H U A T R, b. O T A U H R, c. R H U A T O, d. U A H T R O, 36. If S T U D I O is coded as O I D U T S, then how do we, code the word C A M E R A ?, a. A R A C A M, b. M A C A R E, c. E M C A A R, d. A R E M A C, Directions (37 to 49): In each of the following questions,, there is some relationship between the two terms to the left, of : : and the same relationship holds between : or to its left, is missing. This term is given as one of the alternatives, among the four given below each question. Find out this, term., 37. EGIK : FILO : : FHJL : ?, a. JGMP, b. JGPM, , c. GJPM, , d. GJMP, , 38. QDXM : SFYN : : UIOZ : ?, a. PAQM, b. LPWA, c. QNLA, , d. QKPA, , 39. BDAC : FHEG : : NPMO : ?, a. RQTS, b. QTRS, c. TRQS, , d. RTQS, , 40. NOPQ : PMRO : : ABCD : ?, a. CZEB, b. CDEF, c. YZAB, , d. CSAB, , 41. FGHI : KLMN : : BCDE : ?, a. CDEF, b. DEFG, c. GHIJ, , d. EFGH, , 42. PRLN : XZTA : : JLFH : ?, a. PTUY, b. QUVZ, , c. NRPT, , d. NRSW, , 43. AEFJ : KOPT : : GKLP : ?, a. PTUY, b. QUVZ, , c. OSTX, , d. NTRP, , 44. MKQO : LNPR : : ? : XVTZ, a. SVWY, b. VTWY, c. WYTS, , d. RVWA, , 45. TALK : YFHG : : MIND : ?, a. RNJZ, b. QOKA, c. QMIZ, d. RNJA, 46. CDE : ZXY : : EDC : ?, a. XYZ, b. YXZ, , c. XZY, , d. ZXY, , 47. KWMT : MXOU : : PASQ : ?, a. RCRT, b. QRTC, c. QTRC, , d. RTCR, , 48. KORT : PJWO : : FINR : ?, a. JCRN, b. GJOS, , c. KCSM, , d. KDSM, , 49. BDF : HIL : : MOQ : ?, a. JGMP, b. JGPM, , c. GJPM, , d. GJMP, , 50. In a certain code, the word C O L L E G E is coded as C, L E E G L O, then how is the word S T U D E N T S, coded?, a. S N D T S U E T, b. S U E T T D N S, c. S S D T U S E T, d. S U E T S N D T, Practice Test 1 – Letter coding, 51. If ‘H J S M’ means ‘GIRL’, what does ‘R N E S’ mean?, a. BOYS, b. COWS, c. TOYS, d. SOFT, 52. In a certain code ‘DELHI’ is written ‘C D K G H’,, ‘MADRAS’ as ‘L Z C Q Z R’, how will ‘PATNA’ be coded?, a. O Z T M Z, b. O Z S M Z, c. Q B U M B, d. O Z T Z M, 53. If ‘FIRE’ is coded for a secret message to be teleprinted as, ‘E H Q D’. How should the answer ‘DONE’ be relayed?, a. D M O E, b. C N M D, c. D L N C, d. D N P E, 54. ‘N P W F’ is a secret code for ‘MOVE’. You have to, relax the reply ‘DIFFICULT’ using the code based on the, scheme used to code MOVE., a. E J G G J D V M U, b. F K H H K E W N Y, c. E J G G J E V M U, d. E J C C J D V M U, 55. If ‘WHILE’ is coded as X I J M F, how will you code, ‘HOTEL’?, a. J Q V G N, b. I P U F M, c. K R V H O, d. L S W I P
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I.A.52, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , ANSWERS, 45. (a) The first and second letters of the first group are, moved five steps forward to obtain the corresponding, 11., 12., 13., 14., 15., 16., 17., 18., 19., 20., letters of the second group. The third and fourth letters are, b, d, a, a, d, a, c, d, a, a, moved four steps backward. A similar relationship will, 21., 22., 23., 24., 25., 26., 27., 28., 29., 30., exist between the third and the fourth groups., d, b, c, a, c, a, b, d, a, d, 46. (b) EDC is the reverse of CDE. Similarly, the reverse of, 31., 32., 33., 34., 35., 36., 37., 38., 39., 40., ZXY is YXZ., c, d, d, c, b, d, d, d, d, a, 47. (d) The first and third letters of the first group are each, 41., 42., 43., 44., 45., 46., 47., 48., 49., 50., moved tqo steps forward and the second and fourth letters, c, a, b, d, a, b, d, d, d, d, are each moved one step forward to obtain the corresponding, 51., 52., 53., 54., 55., letters of the second group. A similar relationship will exist, d, b, b, a, b, between the third and the fourth groups., SOLUTIONS, 48. (d) The first and the third letters of the first group are, moved five steps forward and the second and the fourth, 37. (d) The first, second, third and fourth letters of the first group, letters are moved five steps backward to obtain the, are moved one, two, three and four steps forward respectively, corresponding letters of the second group. The third and, to obtain the corresponding letters of the second. A similar, the fourth groups will also be related in the same way., relationship will exist between third and fourth groups., 38. (d) The first and second letter of the first group are each 49. (d) BDF forms a sequence of alternate letters, while in, HIL, the first two letters are consecutive and there is a gap, moved two steps forward to obtain the first and second, of two letters between second and third letters. Similarly,, letters of the second group respectively. The third and, MOQ forms a sequence of alternate letters. The group, fourth letters of the first group respectively., having properties similar to HIL, is TUX, 39. (d) Each letter of the first group is moved four steps, forward to obtain the corresponding letter of the second 50. (d) We notice that the letters of the word C O L L E G E, are jumbled in its code. Number each letter of the word C, group. Similar will be the relationship between the third, O L L E G E from 1to 7. Now, observe the order in which, and the fourth groups., the letters are jumbled. We find that the code contains the, 40. (a) The first and third letters of the first group are each, moved two steps forward to obtain the first and third, letters of the word in the order 1 3 5 7 6 4 2. Since the word, letters of the second group. The second and the fourth, STUDENTS contains eight letters, number them form 1 to, letters are moved two steps backward., 8 and rearrange the letters in the order 1 3 5 7 8 6 4 2 to, 41. (c) Both the first and second groups consist of letters in, get its code. Hence, answer is S U E T S N D T., alphabetical order. The first letter of the first group is 51. (d) A letter of the alphabet stands for the next in the, moved five steps forward to obtain the first letter of the, sequence, i.e. A = B, B = C, C = D, and so on. In other, second group. The third and the fourth groups will also be, words, code letters are obtained by taking the following, related in the same way., letter in the sequence. In GIRL, G stands for H, I for J, R, 42. (a) Each letter of the first group is moved eight steps, for S and T for U. Therefore, R = S, N = O, E = F and F, forward to obtain the corresponding letters of the second, and S = T giving ‘RNES’ = SOFT., group. A similar relationship will exist between the third 52. (b) Use the numbered alphabet to see the pattern. The first, and the fourth groups., letter is coded as the letter previous to it. i.e., D = CF = E,, 43. (b) Each letter of the first group is moved ten steps, B = A, and keeping the circular coding continuity of, forward to obtain the corresponding letters of the second, alphabet, i.e., after Z, A will follow., group. A relationship will exist between the third and the 53. (b) Preceding letter is taken for coding the following, fourth groups., letter in the sequence, i.e., B = A, C = B, etc., 44. (d) The first and third letters of the second group are one 54. (a) A is coded as B, C as D, and so on., step behind and the second and fourth letters are three 55. (b) Every letter here stands for its preceding letter, i.e., B, steps ahead of the corresponding letters of the first group., for A, C for B, D for C, etc., , 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , c, , a, , d, , a, , c, , d, , b, , d, , b, , d
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I.A.53, , Analytical Reasoning, , 7, , Analytical Reasoning, , The analytical reasoning is used to solve many types of, problems in any discipline. It helps to understand, explain or, make sense out of the problem at hand. The process entails, identifying the important information, taking a rational, logical, or systematic approach to problem-solving, and utilising, various skills in order to come up with either the correct, response, or a reasonable solution if there is more than one, correct response., Analytical reasoning refers to the ability to look at information,, be it qualitative or quantitative in nature, and discern patterns, within the information. What exact pattern the individual is, trying to discern depends on the item in which he is interested., Questions are designed to assess the ability to consider a group, of facts and rules, and, given those facts and rules, determine, what could or must be true., The specific scenarios associated with these questions are, usually unrelated to law, since they are intended to be, accessible to a wide range of test takers. However, the skills, tested parallel those involved in determining what could or, must be the case given a set of regulations, the terms of a, contract, or the facts of a legal case in relation to the law., In Analytical Reasoning questions, you are asked to reason, deductively from a set of statements and rules or principles that, describe relationships among persons, things, or events., When students are learning mathematics, they learn the nature, of numbers and the rules that dictate their behaviour. They, learn the resulting values of positive and negative numbers that, work together in a variety of operations, as well as ways of, rearranging numbers to solve for an unknown quantity in the, equation. Analytical reasoning can be applied to qualitative, information, such as an argumentative essay. Such an essay is, similar to an equation., By learning to recognise these patterns in both numbers and, written arguments, an individual gains insights into the, information that someone who simply takes the information at, face value will miss., , Note, The analytical reasoning process can be used to solve many, types of problems in almost any discipline. It involves trying to, understand, explain or make sense out of the problem at hand., The process entails identifying the important information,, taking a rational, logical or systematic approach to problemsolving, and utilising various skills in order to come up with, either the correct response, or a reasonable solution if there is, more than one correct response., Example 1. A, B, C, D, and E are five friends, who stay in sea, view apartments in Mumbai. They are Doctor, Advocate, Banker,, Engineer and Auditor, but not in the same order., a. ‘A’ plays Cricket but is not an Engineer., b. ‘D’ who is an Auditor does not play Hockey., c. The Advocate and the Doctor are not interested in, Basketball., d. ‘B’ is an expert Golf player but is not an Advocate., e. ‘E’ finds time on Sunday morning to play Tennis and he, is a Banker., f., ’C’ who does not like Golf is neither a Doctor nor an, Advocate., g. The Engineer is always the centre forward in Hockey., 1., 2., 3., 4., , Who is a basketball player?, a. A, b. C, c. D, , d. B, , Who is a doctor?, a. B, b. D, , d. E, , c. A, , What is the profession of A?, a. Doctor, b. Advocate c. Banker, , d. Auditor, , Who plays hockey?, a. B, b. A, , d. C, , c. E, , What is the profession of C?, a. Banker, b. Auditor, c. Engineer d. Advocate, Solution (Q. No 1-5): Analyse the given data and represent it, in a tabular form. Use the symbol ‘’ to indicate affirmative, information and the symbol ‘’ to indicate negative, information. As per statement (a), ‘A’ plays Cricket but is not, an Engineer. This statement implies that no person other than, ‘A’ plays Cricket and ‘A’ does not play any game other than, Cricket. Further, ‘A’ is not an Engineer. On plotting this, information in the table, it appears as follows:, 5.
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I.A.54, Name, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, Doctor, , Adv., , A, , Banker, , Engineer, , Auditor, , , , Cricket, , Hockey, , B. Ball, , Golf, , Tennis, , , , , , , , , , , , B, , , , C, , , , D, , , , E, , , , Consider statement (b). ‘D’ who is an Auditor does not play Hockey. This implies that no person other than ‘D’ is an Auditor and, ‘D’ is not engaged in any profession other than Auditor. Further ‘D’ does not play Hockey. On plotting this information, the table, appears as follows:, Name, , Doctor, , Adv., , Banker, , Engineer, , Auditor, , Cricket, , Hockey, , B. Ball, , Golf, , Tennis, , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , B, , , , , , C, , , , , , , , , , , , , , A, , D, , , , , , , , , , E, , , , Statement (d) states that ‘B’is an expert Golf player but is not an Advocate. Plot this information also in the table., The table takes the following form., Name, , Doctor, , Adv., , Banker, , A, B, , Engineer, , Auditor, , Cricket, , Hockey, , B. Ball, , Golf, , Tennis, , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , C, D, , , , , , , , , , E, , , , , , , , In terms of statement (5), ‘E’is a Banker and plays Tennis., On representing this information, the table appears as follows:, Name, , Doctor, , Adv., , A, B, , , , C, , Banker, , Engineer, , Auditor, , Cricket, , Hockey, , B. Ball, , Golf, , Tennis, , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , D, , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , E, , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , From the above table we observe that ‘D’ does not play Cricket, Hockey, Golf, or Tennis., This implies that he plays Basket ball. Plot this information in the table., Name, , Doctor, , Adv., , A, B, , , , C, , Banker, , Engineer, , Auditor, , Cricket, , Hockey, , B. Ball, , Golf, , Tennis, , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , D, , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , E, , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , ,
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I.A.55, , Analytical Reasoning, , Now, we observe that ‘C’ can play only Hockey. Further, in terms of statement (f), ‘C’ is neither a Doctor nor an Advocate. On, plotting these information, the table takes the following form., Name, , Doctor, , Adv., , Banker, , Engineer, , Auditor, , Cricket, , Hockey, , B.Ball, , Golf, , Tennis, , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , A, B, , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , C, , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , D, , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , E, , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , From the table, we can make out that ‘C’ is an Engineer. When ‘C’ is an Engineer, ‘B’ cannot be again an Engineer. So, ‘B’, should be a doctor. This implies that ‘A’ is an Advocate. On representing these information, the table takes the final form as, follows:, Name, , Doctor, , Adv, , Banker, , Engr, , Auditor, , Cricket, , Hockey, , B.Ball, , Golf, , Tennis, , A, , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , B, , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , C, , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , D, , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , E, , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , With the help of the above table, we can answer the questions., Answer: 1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (c), Example 2. Four men Venkat, Jayanth, Murali, and Trilok, are sales executive, accountant, lawyer, and doctor by, profession but not in the same order, and they are, accompanied by their children to P. C. Sarkar’s magic show., Each person is with only one child. Trilok and Jayanth came, with their sons and none of them is a sales executive or a, doctor. Neetu, a sweet cute girl, is not the doctor’s daughter., Gagan is not Jayanth’s son. Sumanth’s father is not an, accountant. Teena is not Murali’s daughter., 1., , Who is the child of sales executive?, a. Neetu, b. Gagan, c. Sumanth, d. Teena, , 2., , Who is Gagan’s father and what is he?, a. Trilok – sales executive, b. Venkat – sales executive, , Solution (Q. No. 1-4) Enter the given information in the table, c. Murali - accountant, d. Trilok – accountant, 3., , If Sumanth and Gagan are cousins, which two men are, brothers?, a. Venkat and Murali, b. Venkat and Trilok, c. Jayanth and Trilok, d. Jayanth and Murali, , 4., , Who is Teena’s father nd what is his profession?, a. Venkat – sales executive, b. Trilok – accountant, c. Jayanth - lawyer, d. Venkat – doctor, , ., , Name, , Gagan, (Boy), , Sumanth, (Boy), , Neetu, (Girl), , Teenu, (Girl), , Sales, Executive, , Accountant, , Lawyer, , Doctor, , Venkat, , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , Jayanth, , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , Murali, , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , Trilok, , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , Answer: 1. (a), , 2. (d), , 3. (c), , 4. (d)
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I.A.56, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Multiple Choice Questions, Directions (1 to 3): A, B, C, D and E are five cultural, programmes to performed, one on each day from Monday to, Saturday on the following conditions. Monday is not a, holiday and A is not performed on Tuesday. If A is, performed on a day, the previous day must be a holiday., Between A and C, three must be two programmes. E is, followed D., 1., , 2., , 3., , Which day is a holiday?, a. Monday, c. Thursday, , 7., , If M has to be the fifth in the order of presenters, then, what is the order of L?, a. First, b. Second, c. Third, d. Fourth, , 8., , If P’s presentation must immediately follow N’s, presentation, M could be scheduled for which of the, following places in the order of presenters?, a. First, b. Second, c. Third, d. Fourth, , 9., , If P and O are fifth and sixth respectively in the order,, which of the following must be true?, a. K is first, b. K is third, c. K is fourth, d. M is fourth, , b. Wednesday, d. Tuesday, , On which day A is performed?, a. Monday, b. Wednesday, c. Thursday, d. Tuesday, What is the correct order of the programmes?, a. E, D, A, B, C, b. E, A, D, B, C, c. A, E, D, B, C, d. B, A, E, D, C, , Directions (4 to 6): A college principal wishes to select four, members of a faculty-student committee as representatives, to celebrate the institute’s Silver Jubilee Celebrations. The, faculties are Anup, Bhavya, Cheatan, and Divya and the, four students are Rohit, Sandeep, Tanuja, and Usha. The, principal can select the members as representatives based, on the following conditions., , The team of four members must have exactly two faculty, members and two students., , Either Anup or Bhavya must be one of the, representatives, but both Anup and Bhavya cannot be, representatives., , If Rohit is a representative, Chetan must also be selected., , If Tanuja is selected, Bhavya cannot be a representative., , If Rohit is selected, who among the following cannot be, selected?, a. Chetan, b. Usha, c. Sandeep, d. Divya, 5. If Bhavya, Divya, and Sandeep are representatives, who, will be the other member in the team?, a. Usha, b. Rohit, c. Chetan, d. Divya, 6. If neither Sandeep nor Usha is represented, which of the, following faculty must be in the team?, a. Bhavya and Chetan, b. Anup and Chetan, c. Anup and Divya, d. Anup and Bhavya, Directions (7 to 9): K, L, M, N, O, and P are six doctors., Each of them is required to present a paper on AIDS in a, symposium. Three papers will be presented in the morning, 4., , session before the lunch break and the other three will be, presented in the afternoon session, subject to the following, conditions:, L’s presentation must immediately precede M’s, presentation. Their presentations cannot be separated by the, lunch break., N must be either the first or the last in the order of presenters., , Directions (10 to 13): In a parking lot in Mount road there, are six parking slots in a row numbered 1 to 6, consecutively. Exactly five cars of five different colours, blue, green, maroon, red, and white are to be parked in the, slots according to the following conditions:, , The red car must be parked in slot 3., , The blue car must be parked in the slot next to slot in, which the white car is parked., , The green car cannot be parked in a slot next to the slot in, which the maroon car is parked., 10. If the white car is parked in slot 2, which of the following, must be true?, a. The blue car is parked in a slot next to the maroon car, b. The maroon car is parked next to red, c. The green car is parked next to blue, d. None of the car is parked in slot number 5, 11. In which of the following slots, the maroon car cannot be, parked?, a. 1, b. 2, c. 4, d. 5, 12. If the green car is parked in slot 2, which of the following, slots remains vacant?, a. 1, b. 3, c. 4, d. 5, 13. Which of the following must be true of any acceptable, parking arrangement?
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I.A.57, , Analytical Reasoning, , a. There is an empty slot next to the green car., b. There is an empty slot next to the white car., c. Either the blue car or the white car is parked in a slot, next to 3., d. One of the cars is parked in slot number 6., Directions (14 to 17): Three brothers Ranjit, Sailesh, and, Tushar are married to three sisters Archana, Bhargavi, and, Chandrika, but not in the same order., , Chandrika has long hair., , The dancer (one of the sisters) lives in Goa., , The one married to Tushar is very fair., , The sister with long hair does not like to write letters., , (5) Archana calls her dancer sister every Sunday., , The sister in Puney is married to Tushar., , Tushar’s phone bills are high., , Tushar’s phone bills are high., , Chandrika receives a letter from Goa once in a week., , The sister who does not like to write letters lives in Mysore., 14. Which sister lives in Pune?, a. Archana, c. Chandrika, , b. Bhargavi, d. Data insufficient, , 15. Who lives in Goa?, a. Ranjit, c. Archana, , b. Sailesh, d. Chandrika, , 16. Who is Chandrika’s husband?, a. Ranjit, b. Sailesh, c. Tushar, d. Data incomplete, 17. Who is the dancer?, a. Archana, c. Chandrika, , b. Bhargavi, d. Cannot be determined, , Directions (18 to 21): Five women Madhurima, Kanchana,, Chandana, Sahana, and Roopa are married to doctor,, naval officer, advocate, sales executive, and an architect., The women are auditor, lecturer, and doctor by profession, while the other two are housewives., , Madhurima nd Kanchana are not housewives and they are, not married to either a doctor or an advocate., , Roopa is not a doctor., , Sahana and Roopa are neither a lecturer nor an auditor, and their husbands are neither an architect nor in navy., , Chandana is not a lecturer and the lecturer’s husband is, naval officer., , One husband and wife have the same profession., , , , The sales executive is not Madhurima’s or chandana’s, husband. His wife is an auditor., , 18. Who is the wife of an architect?, a. Auditor, b. Housewife, c. Doctor, d. Lecturer, 19. Which of the following pair is the correct combination of, husband-wife?, a. Sales executive – Madhurima, b. Architect – Dhandana, c. Advocate – Sahana, d. Naval officer - Kanchana, 20. Who is the wife of Naval officer?, a. Roopa, b. Chandana, c. Madhurima, d. Kanchana, 21. Who, among the following, is engaged in doctor’s, profession with her husband?, a. Sahana, b. Madhurima, c. Chandana, d. Roopa, Directions (22 to 24): Six daughters of Kapoor’s family, Anitha (A), Babitha (B), Haritha (H), Kavitha (K), Mamatha, (M), Sunitha (S) were all born on the same date and month but, each was born in a different years during a consecutive period, of six years., , H is younger than A., , Both K and M are younger than B., , K is two years younger than S., , A was born either in 1992 or 1993., , (5) The oldest member of group was born in 1990., 22. If A was born in 1992, then which of the following must, also be true?, a. B was born in 1990, b. M was born in 1993, c. S was born in 1991, d. H was born in 1993, 23. If A is younger than K, which of the following statements, need not be true?, a. K was born in 1992, b. M was born in 1994, c. B was born in 1991, d. A was born in 1993, 24. If S was born in 1992, which of the following must be, true?, a. M was born in 1990, b. K was born in 1995, c. K was born in 1994, d. B was born in 1991, Directions (25 to 28): A Lions club’s board of directors, composed of four women Kirthi, Latha, Maya, Neetu and, three men Ram, Shyam, and Tom hold frequent meetings., A meeting can be held at Latha’s, Neetu’s, or Shyam’s, house.
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I.A.58, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , , , , Neetu cannot attend any meeting at Latha’s house., Maya cannot attend any meeting on Tuesday or on, Friday., , Kirthi cannot attend any meeting at Neetu’s house., , Ram can attend only those meetings that Tom attends., , Shyam can attend only those meetings that both Kirthi, and Maya attend., 25. If all the members of the board have to attend a particular, meeting, on which day and in whose house should it be, held?, a. Monday at Latha’s house, b. Tuesday at Shyam’s house, c. Wednesday at Neetu’s house, d. Thursday at Shyam’s house, , Directions (29 to 30): Ten models of FTII-Pune are, standing in a straight line numbered 1 to 10 for a fashion, parade. Each one of them is wearing a sari of different, colour. One is in white, two are in different shades of blue,, three are in different shades of pink, and the remaining, four are wearing different shades of green., , The model in pink sari is not standing next to the model, in white sari., , The model in green sari is not standing next to the model, in blue sari, , The two models wearing blue saris are adjacent to each, other., , Two models in pink sari are one in the beginning and one, at the end., , 26. If Shyam attends a meeting on Thursday, which is not, held at his house, which of the following must be true?, a. The group can include at most two women, b. The meeting is at Latha’s house, c. Ram is not at the meeting, d. Tom is not at the meeting, , 29. If a model in pink sari is in position 2 and the models in, green are in positions 3 and 4, then in which position is, the model in white sari standing?, a. Fifth, b. Sixth, c. Seventh, d. Eighth, , 27. If Maya and Kirthi attend a meeting but Tom is unable to, attend, which of the following could be true?, a. The meeting is held on Tuesday, b. The meeting is held on Friday, c. The meeting is held at Neetu’s house, d. the meeting is held at Shyam’s house, 28. If Tom is unable to attend a meeting on Tuesday at, Neetu’s house, what is the largest possible number of, board members who can attend?, a. 1, b. 2, c. 3, d. 4, , 30. If a model in pink is in the third position and a model in, blue is in the fourth position, then what is the position of, the model in white sari?, a. Second, b. Fifth, c. Sixth, d. Seventh, ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , d, , b, , d, , d, , a, , b, , d, , d, , c, , 10., d, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , d, , a, , d, , a, , b, , a, , b, , b, , b, , c, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , a, , a, , b, , c, , d, , b, , d, , c, , c, , c, ,
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I.A.59, , Counting fo Geometrical Patterns, , 8, , Counting of Geometrical Patterns, , If rectangle is divided into n parts horizontally and m parts, vertically, the total number of rectangles (including the, squares)., Formed , , Example 2. How many rectangles (excluding squares) are, there in the following figure?, , mn m 1 n 1, , E, , 4, , H, , Intersection of diagonals in a square, rectangle,, quadrilateral, parallelogram, rhombus, and trapezium gives, eight triangles., Note, Sacred geometry involves sacred universal patterns used in the, design of everything in our reality, most often seen in sacred, architecture and sacred art. The basic belief is that geometry and, mathematical ratios, harmonics and proportion are also found in, music, light, cosmology., , This value system is seen as widespread even in prehistory, a, cultural universal of the human condition. In order to count the, figures accurately, we should follow a systematic method., , B, , A, , L, O, , F, , C, , I, , G, J, , M, , N, , P, , Q, , D, , K, , R, , a. 25, b. 28, c. 29, d. 30, Solution: (c) There are totally 29 rectangles in the above, figure. The rectangles are:, ABFE, BCGF, ACGE, EFIH, FGJI, EGJH, HIML, IJNM, HJNL, ACNL, LMPO, MNQP, LNQO, ACJH, EGNL, HJQO, BDKI, IKRP, ADKH EGQO, HIKRO, ABML, EFPO, ABPO, BCNM, FGQP, BCQP, CDRQ, ADRO, Example 3. How many squares are there in the following figure?, , Example 1. How many triangles are there in the following, figure?, , a. 15, b. 19, c. 17, d. 20, Solution: (b) First label the figure as shown below and then, cont the triangles. There are totally 19 triangles., , C, , B, , A, , D, , a. 13, b. 17, c. 23, d. 27, Solution: (c) Each side of the bigger square is divided into, three equal parts. Apply the formula: If a square is divided into, n parts on each side, then the total number of squares formed, , mn m 1 n 1, 4, Here the value of n 3, , , E, , , , F, H, , G, I, , J, , K, , Total number of squares , , 3 3 1 2 3 1, 6, , 3 4 (7) 12 7, , 4, 6, 6, (Or, to be simple, add 12 2 2 32 1 4 9 14. ), Squares at the four corners 4 2 8, , , AEH, , AEB, , EBF, , ABH, , BHI, , FGI, , GJC, , GIJ, , BIC, , AJC, , CIJ, , CJD, , JDK, , AJH, , AJD, , EHJ, , FIJ, , AFB, , AGC, , Square formed at the center = 1, Total number of squares 14 8 1 23
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I.A.60, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Example 4. Find the number of triangles in the figure,, , C, , B, , A, , M, , E, , A, , G, F, , D, , Example 5. Find the total number of triangles in the following, figure., , B, , C, , J, , H, , I, , L, , K, , D, , N, , P, O, b. 21, , Q, c. 25, , a. 23, Solution:(c), IJK JKL, JIL, CIJ, EJL FGH, BCG AFC, CEI EIL, CFI, CFL, MJQ MER HIN, BEN, Total number of triangles = 25, , R, , H, , d. 29, a. 25, , CDJ, AEM, CIL, , DEJ CEJ, FMI CEL, MNO MIP, , F, , E, , G, J, , I, b. 18, , c. 21, , d. 20, , Solution: (b) There are 18 triangles, as given below., ADE, ABE, BEF, BFC, CGF, DEI, EFI, FGI, IGJ, ADI, CIG, CIJ, ACI, DGI, EIF, , DHI, AHI, DFI, , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , Find the number of triangles in figure?, , a. 19, 2., , d. 12, , 6., , a. 22, b. 24, c. 21, Find the number of triangles in figure?, , b. 15, , c. 14, , d. 16, , 7., , Find the number of triangles in the given right figure?, , a. 28, 4., , c. 18, , How many triangles are in the right figure?, , d. 26, , Find the number of square in given figure ?, , a. 10, 3., , b. 24, , 5., , b. 30, , c. 36, , d. 32, , a. 24, b. 22, c. 20, d. 18, Find the number of straight line segments in given right, figure., , a. 13, 8., , b. 10, , c. 12, , d. 14, , Find the number of triangles in given figure., , How many squares are there figure ?, , a. 2, , b. 3, , c. 4, , d. 5, , a. 16, , b. 18, , c. 20, , d. 22
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I.A.61, , Counting of Geometrical Patterns, , 9., , 15. Find the number of semi circles in given figure?, , How many circles are there in given figure?, , a. 12, , b. 10, , c. 8, , 10. Find the number of squares in figure?, , a. 35, c. 43, , a. 24, c. 20, , d. 6, , b. 18, d. 22, , 16. Find the number of rectangles in figure?, , b. 42, d. 45, , 11. Find the number of triangles in the given figure?, , a. 15, b. 18, c. 13, d. 30, 17. Find the number of triangles in given figure?, , a. 16, a. 14, b. 16, c. 18, d. 17, 12. Find the number of straight line segments in the given, figure., , b. 18, , d. 22, , 18. Find the number of triangles in given figure?, , a. 24, a. 9, b. 10, c. 8, d. 11, 13. Find the number of squares in figure ?, , c. 20, , b. 20, , c. 16, , d. 28, , 19. Find the n number of squares in the given right figure., , a. 9, , b. 10, , c. 8, , d. 11, , 20. Find the number of triangles in given figure, a. 11, c. 24, , b. 21, d. 26, , 14. Find the number of squares in given figure ?, a. 15, , b. 16, , c. 12, , d. 14, , ANSWERS, , a. 24, , b. 20, , c. 27, , d. 28, , 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , a, , c, , d, , d, , c, , b, , a, , d, , c, , 10., c, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , b, , a, , c, , c, , a, , d, , b, , d, , c, , d
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I.A.62, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 9, , Direction and Distance, , In this type of questions a successive follow-up of directions, and/or distance is formulated and on the basis of given, information you are required to ascertain the final direction, with respect to the starting point or the shortest distance, between the starting point and the final point., Sometimes both the final direction and the distance covered are, asked., The diagram given below shows the four main directions and, the four cardinals directions on a plane of paper:, North, N–W, , N–E, , 45, , West, , East, , 45, , S–W, , S–E, , Example 1. Amit started walking positioning his back towards, the sun. After some time, he turned left, then turned right and, towards the left again. In which direction is he going now?, a. North, b. East, c. West, d. South, Solution: (d), Example 2. Ram starts from his house and goes 15 km, northwards, then travels 4 km to the left, then travels 5 km, towards the left, then again travels 10 km towards the left, then, travels 18 km towards the right, now far and in what direction, is he from his house?, a. 10 km, South-East, b. 10 km, North-East, c. 9 km, South-West, d. 9 km, North-West, Solution: (a) Ram’s house is at A. His movement is:, A→B→C→D→E→F, The final position of Ram is at F., Clearly, F is now in South-East from his house at A. Further, in, APF , APF 90, C, , South, Note, In studying the motion and distance travelled by body from, origin to the destination need direction with respect to position, to analysis of the track., Let a scouting party has become trapped in a forest away from, their field camp; based on their explorations, the scouts know, that they are 2 km from the field camp in a direction 300 west, of north., , They also know that the field camp s located 4 km from the, base camp in a direction 450 North of East. They wish to radio, their position to base camp so that food and supplies can be, dropped by air as close to their position as possible. How can, they pinpoint their location relative to the base camp?, N, , Scouting, part, 30, 2 km, Field camp, 4 km, , 45, Base camp, , E, , 4, , B, , 5, , 5, , D, , 4, , 6, , E, , 10, , 10, 6, A, , P, 8, F, , So, by Pythagoras theorem, we have AF 2 AP 2 PF 2, AF 36 64 100 = 10 km, , Thus, Ram is 10 km away from his house and in South-East, direction., , Example 3. Sanjay walks 7 km towards North and turns, towards left and covers 3 km. Again he turns towards left and, walks 11 km. How far is he from the starting point?, a. 16 km, b. 21 km, c. 12 km, d. 5 km
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Direction and Distance, , I.A.63, , Solution: (d) Sanjay started form A and walks 7 km North up to, B, turns towards left (West) and goes 3 km to C and walks, towards left (South) and 11 km, 3, B, D, and reaches point E., Now DA CA 3 km, , DC AB 7 km, 7, , DE 11 DC 4 km, , 11, , DA 3 km, DE 4 km, , D, , EA DE 2 DA2, , 4, , 16 9 5, , 3, 5, , E, , 30, , 20, , 35, 15, B, 15, 15, , Example 5. In the figure given below, A, B, C and D are four, persons stationed at the four corners of a square piece of plot., From the position shown in the figure, C and A move, diagonally to opposite corners and then walk one side each in, the clockwise direction (cwd) and anticlockwise direction, (acwd), respectively along the sides. B and D move two sides,, each clockwise and anticlockwise, respectively., C, , A, , N, , C, , A, , C, , D, A*, , D, , B, , B, , D, , B, , D, , What is the new position A ?, , W, , A, , B, , D, , (i), (ii), (iii), Now, you can deduce that A is in the southern corner., Example 6. A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven places on a map., The following places are connected by two-way roads: A and, B, A and F, C and F, C and F, C and D, F and G, D and E, B, and C, E and G. No other roads prevail., 1. Which is the shortest route (route with least number of, intermediate places) from A to G?, a. A – C – G, b. A – E – G, c. A – F – G, d. A – B – G, 2. If F to G and D to C are only one-way routes, then which, of the following places loses contact with A?, a. G, b. E, c. D, d. No place loses contact with A, 3. How many distinct routes exist form D to F (without, touching any place more than once)?, a. 2, b. 4, c. 1, d. 3, 4. Which of the following does the rout covering the maxim, um number of places and going from A to C does not pass, through?, a. E, b. D, c. B, d. F, 5. If the number of places to which a place is connected directly, is considered to measure of importance, then which of the, following places is of the highest importance?, a. D, b. B, c. C, d. A, Solution (1-5): Based on the conditions given in the problem,, then rout map of the places is as follows:, B, , C, , D, , E, E, , A, , B, , C, , A, , Example 4. Sushma walks 20 metres towards North. Then she, turns right and walks 30 metres. Now, she turns right and, walks 35 metres. Now turning left, she walks 15 metres. Again, she turns left and moves 15 meters. Finally, she turns left and, walks 15 metres. In which direction and how far is she from, her original position?, a. 15 metres East, b. 30 metres East, c. 15 metres West, d. 45 metres West, Solution: (b) Sushma starts from A and after all the, movements as per the directions given in the problem, she, finally reaches the destination B. Now she is at distance of 30, metres in the eastern direction from her starting point., , A, , a. Northern corner, b. Western corner, c. Southern corner, d. Eastern corner, Solution: (c) The movements of A and C and their final, position is shown in Figure (i). The movements of B and D and, their final positions are shown in Figure (ii) Now, the final, positions of A, B, C and D are shown in Figure (iii)., , S, , F, , G
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I.A.64, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Solution 1: (c) As we see A – F–G is the shortest way (with, only one intermediate point) from A to G., , Solution 4: (c) First, let us try to find out a route form A to C with, the maximum number of intermediate points. By observation, we, find that it is A – F– G – E – D – C. It does not touch B., , Solution 2: (d) If F to G and D to C are only one-way routes, from, the above figure, we see that form all places one can still reach A., Hence, none of the places loses contact with A., , Solution 5: (c) For each of the places given in the alternative B, A,, C and D, let us observe how many places are directly connected., B is directly connected to two places., A is directly connected to two places., C is directly connected to three places., D is directly connected to two places., , Solution 3: (d) To travel form D to F, the routes available are:, D – C – F; D – E – G – F and D – C – B – A – F. So, three, routes exist., Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , A man is facing towards east and turns through 45°, clockwise, again 180° clockwise and then turns through, 270° anticlockwise. In which direction is he facing now?, a. West, b. North-east, c. South, d. South-east, , 2., , Gajra’s position on her farm is shown by the dot on this, diagram., , 5., , A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a round table, for group discussion at equal distances. Their positions, are clockwise. If G sits in the north, then what will be the, position of D?, a. East, b. South-east, c. South, d. South-west, , 6., , Eight people A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are seated as, shown in the diagram. All are facing in the outward, direction, with their backs towards the centre. If all of, them move anticlockwise to three places then, , N, hayshed, , pump, stable, 36, W, , 36, , N, 54, , A, , E, , H, , 54, dam, , B, , G, , C, , S, F, , When Gajra walks in the direction N 54° W, she will be, heading towards the, a. dam, b. pump, c. stable, d. hayshed, 3., , 4., , A child is looking for his father. He went 90 metres in the, west before turning to his left. He went 20 metres before, turning to his left again to look for his father at his uncle’s, place 30 metres from this point. His father was not there., From there, he went 100 metres to his north before, meeting his father in a street. How far from the starting, point did the son meet his father?, a. 80 metres, b. 100 metres, c. 140 metres, d. 260 metres, P is to the east of Q, R is to the south of Q and T is to the, west of R. P is in which direction with respect to T?, a. North-east, b. North-west, c. South-east, d. South-west, , D, E, , a. A is facing South, c. E is facing East, , b. B is facing West, d. H is facing North-west, , 7., , Hitesh was standing one morning in a field after sunrise., His father was coming from the opposite direction. His, father’s shadow was falling exactly behind him. Which, direction was Hitesh facing?, a. East, b. West, c. North-East d. North-West, , 8., , I stand with my right hand extended sideways towards, south. Towards which direction will my back be?, a. North, b. West, c. East, d. South, , 9., , A man is performing yoga with his head down and legs, up. His face is towards the west. In which direction will, his left hand be?, a. North, b. South, c. East, d. West
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Direction and Distance, , 10. At 1.45 pm, the hour hand will be in the direction of, a. North-west b. South-east, c. West, d. North-east, 11. Two squads A and B of soldiers, moving towards East, and West respectively, received the following commandsLeft Turn, Left Turn, Left Turn, Right Turn, Left Turn., Which directions would the squads A and B face at the, end respectively?, a. East, West, b. South, North, c. North, South, d. West, East, 12. Mohit starts from A and walks 2 km East upto B and, turns southwards and walks 1 km upto C. At C he turns, to East and walks 2 km upto D. He turns northwards, and walks 4 km to E. How far is he from his starting, point?, a. 3 km, b. 4 km, c. 5 km, d. 6 km, 13. A man is standing facing South. He turns 135° in the, anticlockwise direction and after that 180° in the, clockwise direction. Which direction is facing now?, a. South-West, b. North-West, c. North-East, d. South-East, 14. A clock strikes 4:30 and its hour hand points to North,, then in which direction will minute hand point at 11:15?, a. South-West, b. North-West, c. East, d. West, 15. M is to the South-West of N, O is to the East of M and, South-East of N and P is to the North of O on the line, with MN, In which direction of direction of N is P, located?, a. South, b. South-West, c. North-East, d. North, 16. Kangana travelled from point A to point B which is 5 feet., He then travelled 6 feet to his right and then turned to left, and went 4 feet. Finally she again went 6 feet to his left., How far is he form the point B now?, a. 10 feet, b. 6 feet, c. 5 feet, d. 4 feet, 17. A man starts from his house and walked straight for 10, metres towards North and turned left and walked 25, metres. He then turned right and walked 5 metres and, again turned right and walked 25 metres. Which direction, is he facing now?, a. North, b. East, c. South, d. West, , I.A.65, , 18. Daily in the morning the shadow of Gol Gumbaz falls on, Bara Kaman and in the evening the shadow of Bara, Kaman falls on Gol Gumbaz exactly. So in which, direction is Gol Gumbaz to Bara Kaman?, a. Eastern side, b. Western side, c. Northern side, d. Southern side, 19. A and B standing at a distance of 20 km from each other, on a straight East-West rod. A and B start walking, simultaneously eastwards and westwards respectively and, both cover a distance of 5 km. Then A turns to his left and, walks 10 km. B turns to his right and walks 10 km at the, same speed. Then both turn to their left and cover, distance of 5 km at the same speed. What will be the, distance between them?, a. 10 km, b. 30 km, c. 20 km, d. 25 km, 20. From my house I walked 5 km towards North, I turned, right and walked 3 km. again I went 1 km to the South., How far am I form my house?, a. 7 km, b. 6 km, c. 4 km, d. 5 km, 21. If a man on a moped starts form a point and rides 4 km, South, then turns left and rides 2 km to turn again to the right, to rise 4 km more, towards which direction is he moving?, a. North, b. West, c. East, d. South, 22. One evening, Raja started to walk toward the Sun. after, walking a while, he turned to his right and again to his, right. After walking a while, he again turned right. In,, which direction is he facing?, a. South, b. East, c. West, d. North, 23. A man started walking West. He turned right, then right, again and finally turned left. Towards which direction, was he walking now?, a. North, b. South, c. West, d. East, 24. Vijit walks 10 metres westward, then turns left and walks, 10 metres. He then again turns left and walks 10 metres., He takes a 45 degree turn rightwards and walks straight., In which direction is he walling now?, a. South, b. West, c. South-East, d. South-West, 25. Sanmitra walked 8 m towards the North. He turned to his, right and walked 16 m, then turned to his left and walked, 5 m and again he turned to his left and walked 16 m. now, how far is he from his starting point?, a. 32 m, b. 23 m, c. 13 m, d. 16 m, 26. Ankit travelled westwards 5 kms, turned left and travelled, 3 km, turned right and travelled 9 km. he then travelled, North 3 km. How far he is from the starting point?, a. 5 kms, b. 3 kms, c. 6 kms, d. 14 kms
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I.A.66, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 27. K is a place which is located 2 km away in the NorthWest direction from the capital P, R is another place that, is located 2 km away in the South–West direction from K., M is another place and that is located 2 km away in the, North–West direction from R. T is yet another place that, is located 2 km away in the South–West direction from, M. In which direction is T located in relation to P?, a. South–West b. North–West, c. West, d. North, , 29. A man starts walking from a point and walks 12 kms, towards North. He, turns 90º left and walks a distance and, stopped. If the distance between initial point and final, positions is 13 kms, how much distance he travelled after, turning from the North?, a. 1 km, b. 5 kms, c. 7 kms, d. 2 kms, , 28. Deepak facing North and moves 20 km, then he turned to, his right and moves 20 km and then he moves 10 km in, North – East, then he turned to his right and moves 20 km, and then he turned to his right and moves 20, and again he, turned, to, his, left, and, moves, 20, km., , 30. Prateek travelled from a point A to B, a distance of 12 km., He turned right and travelled 8 km and reached point C., From that point took right turn and travelled 6 km, and, reached point D. How far is he away from the starting point?, a. 10 km, b. 12 km, c. 13 km, d. 14 km, , Now in which direction Deepak is facing?, a. South–East, b. North–East, c. South–West d. North–West, , ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , b, , c, , b, , a, , d, , b, , b, , b, , a, , d, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , b, , c, , a, , b, , c, , d, , b, , b, , a, , d, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , d, , a, , a, , d, , c, , d, , c, , a, , b, , d, , 3., , (b) Clearly, the child’s movements are as shown in the, figure (OA, AB, BC, CD)., D, , 80m, , SOLUTIONS, 1., , A, 20m, B, , (b) The man initially faces direction OA (east). He then, turns 45° clockwise to face direction OB (SE)., He then turns 180° clockwise to face direction OC (NW)., , O, , A, (E), , 180°, 270°, , He finally turns 270° anticlockwise to face direction OD (NE)., (c) N 54° W means at an angle of 54° from north,, westwards. Clearly, Gajra will be heading towards the, stable as shown., pump, stable, W, , O, , OD (OE ) 2 ( DE ) 2, B, (SE), , 2., , 60m, , OA = 90 m, AE = BC = 30 m,, OE = OA – AE = (90 – 30) m = 60 m., CD = 100 m, CE = AB = 20 m., DE = CD – CE = (100 – 20) m = 80 m., Distance of D from starting point O, , D, (NE), , C, (NW), , 30m E, 20m, C, 30m, , N, , , , (60) 2 (80) 2 m, , , , 3600 6400, , m 10000 m = 100 m., 4., , (a) Clearly, P is to the north-east of T., , hayshed, , Q, , 54°, 36°, , 36°, , 54°, , E, , dam, S, , T, , R, , P
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Direction and Distance, , 5., , I.A.67, , (d), , 11. (b), G, , F, , N, NW, , H, , E, , D, , NE, , W, , A, , S, , Clearly, D sits in the south-west., (b) Clearly, the new positions are as shown below:, D, E, , B, , NW, , F, , G, , A, , 3 km, B, , NE, , W, , A, , 2 km, , SW, , SE, S, , Clearly, A faces south-west, B faces west, E faces northeast and H faces south., (b) Father’s shadow was behind him. This means that he was, facing the sun. At sunrise, the sun is in the east. So, Hitesh’s, father is facing east and Hitesh is facing west., (b) If the right hand points towards south, the left hand, points towards north, the face is towards east and the back, is towards west., N, , F, , 1 km, , E, , H, , 8., , Now, A and B facing South and North respectively., 12. (c), , N, , C, , 7., , South A, , SE, , C, , 6., , 1 km, , 2 km, , C, , D, , We are required the length of AE., We know, AE 2 AF 2 EF 2 4 2 32 25, AE = 5 km, , 13. (a), N, , W, , E, 135, 180, South-, , S, , 14. (b), South, , W, , West, 11 12, , E, , 10, , 1, , 9, , (a) Clearly, since the man is upside down and his face is, towards west, his right hand will be towards south and left, hand towards north., N, , 2, 3, , 8, , S, , 9., , North, , E, , SW, , B, , B, , 7, , East, , 4, 6, , 5, , North, , At 11:15, minute hand will be at 3 which is between, North and West., 15. (c), P, , W, , E, N, S, , 10. (d) Clearly, as shown here, the hour hand points towards, north-east., N, NW, , NE, , 11 12, , 1, , 10, , W, , E, , 9, , SE, S, , 5 ft, , N, , B, , 2, , 6 ft, , 6 ft, , W, , E, , 4, 7, , SW, , Clearly, P is located to the North-East of N., 16. (d), A, , 3, , 8, , O, , M, , 6, , 5, , 6 ft, , S
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I.A.68, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 17. (b), , N, N, , 5m, , E, , W, E, , W, , 25 m, 10 m, , S, S, , 18. (b) Morning shadow is to the West. in evening shadow is, in the East., , He is walking towards North, 24. (d), N, , 10 km, , N, 10 km, W, , E, , W, , 10 km, , E, , 10 km, S, S, , 25. (c), , Therefore Gol Gumbaz is to the eastern side of Bara Kaman., 19. (a), 5 km, , 5 km, 5 km, 10 km, , W, , 10 km, , B, , 5 km, , B, , A, , S, , Required distance, AE AB BE 8 5 13 m, , N, , 26. (d), , C, , 5, , 1 km, , 5 km, , W, , N, , E, , D, , E, , C, , 16 km, , 8 km, , 20. (d), 3 km, , 5 km, , B, , E, , A, , D, , 10 km, , N, , 5 km, , 16 km, , E, , 3, , W, , E, , S, 9, , A, , Required, , distance,, , ( AE ) 2 ( DE ) 2 , , AD, , (4) 2 (3) 2 25 5 km, , S, , Ankit is (5 + 9 ) kms away from his starting point., 27. (c), N, , 21. (d), , M, N, , T, , 4 km, , R, , 2 km, P, , W, , E, , E, , W, , 2 km, , K, , S, 4 km, , T is in west of P, 28. (a), , S, , 22. (a), , 10 km, 20 km, , N, W, , E, , S, , He is facing towards South., 23. (a), , 20 km, Deepak, , N, , 20 km, D, 20 km, , W, , E, , 20 km, S, , Deepak is facing towards South – East.
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Direction and Distance, , I.A.69, , 30. (b), , 29. (b), B, , C, , N, , N, 2 km, , 12 km W, , 2 km, , E, , W, , E, , 2 km, S, , BC (13) (12), 2, , , , 2, , S, , He is the North – East direction from his starting, point., , 16 144, , 25 5km, ,
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I.A.70, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 10, , Clocks, , In clock short hand is called the hour needle and longer hand is, called minute needle, some clocks having one more hand for, seconds. All hands can rotate up to 360° angle: hour hand in 12, hours, minute hand in 60 minutes and seconds hand in 60, seconds subtend the 360° angle., The minute hand completes one revolution in one hour and, in one day, the minute hand makes 24 revolutions., The hour hand completes one revolution in 12 hours and in, one day, the hour hand makes two revolutions., The angle between the minute hand and the hour hand, changes at the rate of 5.5° per minute., The angle between the minute hand and the hour hand at t, o’clock is (t 30) when t is less than or equal to 6, and it is, , [360 (t 30)] when t is greater than 6., The minute hand and the hour hand overlap 22 times in a day, (or 11 times in a period of 12 hr). The time gap between two, , consecutive overlapping is 1 hr 5, , 5, 12, min (or, hr)., 11, 11, , Between t and (t + 1) o’clock, the two hands of a clock, , overlap at t , , 12 , 12, hr or at 5 t min past t., 11, 11 , , The angle between the minute hand and the hour hand is, 180° on 11 occasions in a period of 12 hr. The angle between, two hands is 90° on 22 occasions in a period of 12 hr., Note, A clock is said to be running fast when the time shown by that, clock is more than the time shown by the correct clock. Similarly,, the clock is said to be running slow, when the time shown by that, clock is less than the time shown by the correct clock., , If a clock indicates the time 8:20 when the correct time is 8:10,, we say that the clock is running 10 min fast. Likewise, if a, clock indicates 8:00, when the correct time is 8:10, we say that, the clock is running 10 min show., If a clock is running 5 min fast for each hour, we say that the, clock is gaining time at the rate of 5 min per hour. Likewise, if, a clock is running 2 min slow for each hour, we say that the, clock is losing time at the rate of 2 min per hour., , Examples 1. At what time between 7 and 8 o’clock will the, hands of a clock be in the same straight line, but not together?, Solution:, 11 12 1, , 11 12 1, 2, , 10, 9, 8, , 2, , 10, 9, 8, , 3, 4, 7 6 5, , 3, 4, 7 6 5, , Fig (a), Fig (b), Fig (a) shows the positions of the hands of the clock at 7, O’clock, and Fig (b) shows the position of hands of the clock, when both the hands are in the opposite direction in a straight, line (i.e., the angle between the two hand is 180°) ., The angle between the two hands at 7 o’clock is 150°. The two, hands will be in a straight line, when the angle between them is, 180º, that is when the angle increases by another 30°., The angle changes at the rate of 5.5° per minute., So, the time taken to change the angle by 30° is, , 1, 5, 30 5 min., 5.5, 11, , Therefore, the hands are in the same straight line (but not, together), at 5, , 5, min past 7, 11, , Examples 2. At what time, between 4 and 5 o’clock, will the, two hands of the clock overlap?, Solution: At 4 o’clock, the hour hand will be at 4 and the, minute hand will be at 12., So, the angle between the two hands at 4 o’clock is 120°., The hands overlap when the angle between them reduces, to zero., The angle change by 5.5° in 1 min., 1, 9, 20 21 min., 5.5, 11, 9, Therefore, the hands overlap at 21 min past 4., 11, , The angle changes by 120° in, , Formula: Between t and (t + 1) o’clock, the two hands will, , overlap, , at, , 12 , 5 t min, 11 , , past, , t., , In, , this, , case,, , 9, 12 , 5 4 21 min past., 11, 11, , Note, Remember the direct formula and apply to get the answer much, faster.
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Clocks, , I.A.71, , Examples 3. At what time, between 4 and 5 o’clock, are the, hand 2 min space apart?, Solution: The hands are two minutes space apart is the other, way of saying that the angle between the hand is 12° (one, minutes space apart is equal to 6°). At 4 o’clock the angel, between the hands is 120°. When this angle changes by 180°, (120° – 12°) and 132° (120° + 12°), the angle between the, hands will be 12°., The angle between the hands changes by 5.5° in 1 min., 1, 7, 108 19 min., 5.5, 11, 1, The angle changes by 132º in, 132 24 min., 5.5, 7, Thus, the hands are 2 min space apart, once at 19 min past, 11, , The angle changes by 108° in, , 4 and again at 24 min past 4 (i.e., at 4 hr, 19 min, 38 s and at, 4 hr, 24 min)., Formula: Between t and (t + 1) o’clock, the two hands will be, , a minutes apart at (5t a ) , , 12, 12, 12, 7, or 22 19 or, 18 , 11, 11, 11, 11, , 24 min., Therefore, they will be 2-min space apart at 19 , , 7, min past 4, 11, , and 24 min past 4., Examples 4. A minute hand of a clock overtakes the hour, hand at intervals of 63 min of correct time. How much time, does the clock lose or gain per day?, Solution: In any clock, the minute and hour hands overlap, , once in every 65 , , 5, min, as per that clock. In the given clock, 11, , the minute and hour hands are overlapping once in 63 min of, correct time., Thus the clock is gaining 65 , , 5, 5 27, min in, 63 2 , 11, 11 11, , 63 min., , , Time gained in 24 hr , , 27 60 24, 8, min., 56, 11 63, 77, , Formula: Gain or loss in 24 hr (1 day), , 24, 720, , , given interval in minutes 60 , given interval in minutes, 11, , , , , 65, , 5, given interval, 11, 60 24, given minutes, , If the sign is positive (+), the clock is gaining time, and if the, sign is negative (–), the clock is losing time., , 24, 720, , 63 60 , min, Here, , 63, 11, , , , 27, 24, 8, min 56 min, 60 , 11, 63, 77, , Since the sing is +ve, there is again of 56, , 8, min per day., 77, , Examples 5. At what time between 5 and 6 o’clock will the, minute and the hour hand be perpendicular to each other?, Solution: When the angle between the two hands is 90°, the, hands are perpendicular to each other., The angle between the minute hand and the hour hand at 5, o’clock is 150°., The angle becomes 90°, when it changes by 60° and 240°, that, is (150° – 90°) and, (150° + 90)., The angel changes by 5.5° in 1 min, 1, 10, min., 60 10, 5.5, 11, 1, 7, The angle changes by 240° in, 240 43 min., 5.5, 11, , The angle change by 60° in, , Therefore, the two hands are perpendicular at 5 hr 10, and angle at 5 hr 43, , 10, min,, 11, , 7, min., 11, , Examples 6. Helen’s watch needs repairing. She sets it, correctly at 4:12 pm but three hours later it shows 8:00 pm., After a further two hours she notices that it shows 10:32 pm., She goes to bed early and gets up when her watch shows 6:46, am. What time is it really?, 11 12 1, 2, , 10, 9, 8, , 3, 4, 7 6 5, , Solution: [3:42 am]: The watch gains 16 minutes per hour., Examples 7. Deepa notices the reflection of a wall clock in a, mirror. The time shown by this clock when see in the mirror is, 9 hours 30 minutes. What is the actual time shown on the, clock:, a. 5 hours 30 minutes, b. 2 hours 30 minutes, c. 4 hours 20 minutes, d. 3 hours 20 minutes
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I.A.72, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Solution: (b) According to the question. The time shown by, the clock when see in the mirror 9 hours 30 minutes., 11 12 1, 10, , 11 12 1, 2, , 9, , 10, 3, , 8, 7 6, , 3, 8, , 5, , Fig. (a) Time in mirror, , 65, , 4, 7 6, , a clock coincide every 65, , 5, minutes. But in case of incorrect, 11, , clocks, if the hands of a clock coincide is greater than, , 2, , 9, , 4, , Solution: (d) As we know that in a correct clock, the hands of, , 5, , 5, minutes, then the clock lose time., 11, , 5, , 5 , So, Loss in 69 minutes 69 65 69 65 , 11 , 11 , , , , Fig. (b) Actual time, , 5 39, , 4 minutes, 11, , 11, , Therefore, the actual times shown on the clock, (12 – 9 hours 30 minutes), 2 hours 30 minutes, , So, Loss in day, i.e., 24 hours, , Examples 8. Which watch fits on the end of this sequence?, , 24 60 , , , 39 1, , 11 69, , 1870, 251, 73, 253, 253, , Therefore, the clock loses in a day i.e., in 24 hours., 9:15, , 6:54, , 8:54, , 4:56, , Use the Formula: If x 65, , 5, , then total times lost in T hours, 11, , 5, , (T 60) x 65 / x minutes., 11 , , a., , b., , c., , d., , e., , Where x is the time in which the hands of the incorrect clock, coincide., Examples 10. The reflex angle between the hands of a clock, at 10.25 is:, a. 192, , 2:33, , 7:52, , 12:20, , 6:27, , 8:09, , 1, 2, , b. 195°, , c. 180°, , d. 197, , 1, 2, , Solution: (d) Angle traced by hour hand in 12 hrs 360°, , So, Angle traced by hour hand in, Solution: (d) On each watch the digits add up to 15. (like, 9 1 5 15, 6 5 4 15 etc.), Examples 9. How much does the clock gain or lose per day if, its hands coincide every 69 minutes?, 80, minutes, 341, 244, b. Gains in 92, 30 minutes, 253, 80, c. Loses in 80, minutes, 253, 251, d. Loses 73, minutes, 253, , a. Gains in 80, , 125, hrs., 12, , 1, 360 125 , , , 312, 2, 12 12 , Angle traced by minute hand in 60 minutes 360°, So, Angle traced by minute hand in 25 minutes, , 360, , , 25 150, 12, , Therefore, reflex angle, , 1, , , 360 312 150 , 2, , , 360 162, , 1, 1, 197, 2, 2
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Clocks, , I.A.73, , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , At what angle the hands of a clock are inclined at 15, minutes past 5?, 1, 2, , a. 72, , b. 67, , 1, 2, , c. 58, , 1, 2, , d. 64°, , 2., , How many times are the hands of a clock at right angles, in a day?, a. 22, b. 44, c. 11, d. 24, , 3., , How many times do the hands of a clock point towards, each other in a day?, a. 11, b. 48, c. 24, d. 22, , 4., , At what angle the hands of a clock are inclined at 30, minutes past 6?, a. 45°, b. 15°, c. 30°, d. 20°, , 5., , At what time between 5 and 6 are the hands of a clock, coincident?, a. 22 minutes past 5, b. 30 minutes past 5, 8, minutes past 5, 11, , c. 22, 6., , 7., , At what time between 5.30 and 6 will the hands of a clock, be at right angles?, 5, minutes past 5, 11, , c. 40 minutes past 5, , b. 43, , 7, minutes past 5, 11, , d. 45 minutes past 5, , At what time between 9 and 10 o’clock will the hands of, a watch be together?, a. 35 minutes past 9, c. 53, , 9., , 3, minutes past 5, 11, , What is the angle between the two hands of a clock, when, the clock shows 5 hours 30 minutes?, a. 45°, b. 30°, c. 60°, d. 15°, , a. 43, , 8., , d. 27, , 2, minutes past 9, 11, , 1, minutes past 9, 11, 1, d. 45 minutes past 9, 11, , b. 49, , If the actual times shown on the clock is 6 hours 45, minutes, then what time does it shown on the mirror?, a. 5 hours 25 minutes, b. 9 hours 15 minutes, c. 9 hours 25 minutes, d. 5 hours 15 minutes, , 10. How many degrees does an hour hand covers in 20 minutes?, a. 5°, b. 10°, c. 15°, d. 20°, 11. How many degrees does the minute hand covers, in the, same time in which the second hand covers 180°?, a. 18°, b. 6°, c. 10°, d. 3°, 12. The angle between the two hands of a clock is 30°, when, the hour hand is between 5 and 6. What time does the, watch show?, , 20, minutes, 11, 30, c. 5 hours 30, minutes, 11, , a. 5 hours 20, , b. 5 hours 27, , 3, minutes, 11, , d. Both (a) and (c), , 13. A clock is set right at 8 a.m. the clock uniformly loses 24, minutes in a day. What will be the right time when the, clock indicates 4 pm on the next day?, a. 4.50 pm, b. 4.30 pm, c. 4.50 am, d. 4.32 am, 14. A watch, which gains uniformly, is 2 min. show at noon, on Monday, and is 4 min. 48 seconds fast at 2 p.m. on the, following Monday. What was it correct?, a. 2 p.m. on Tuesday, b. 2p.m. on Wednesday, c. 3 p.m. on Thursday, d. 1 p.m. on Friday, 15. How much does the clock gain or lose per day if its hands, coincide every 63 minutes?, 8, minutes, 77, 56, c. Loses 56, minutes, 77, , a. Loses 56, , 8, minutes, 77, 75, d. Gains 75, minutes, 341, , b. Gains 56, , 16. A clock, which loses uniformly is 15 minutes fast at 9 am, on 3rd of the December and is 25 minutes less than the, correct time at 3 pm on 6th of the same month. At what, time it was correct?, a. 2.15 am on 3rd, b. 2.15 pm on 4th, c. 2.15 pm on 3rd, d. 2.15 am on 4th, 17. Two clocks are set correctly at 10 am on Sunday. One, clock loses 3 minutes in an hour while the other gain 2, minutes in an hour. By how many minutes do the two, clocks differ at 4 pm on the same day?, a. 25 minutes, b. 20 minutes, c. 35 minutes, d. 30 minutes, 18. How many times do the hands ofa clock point towards, each other in a day?, a. 24, b. 20, c. 21, d. 22, 19. A watch, which gains uniformly, is 3 minutes slow at 12, noon on Sunday and is 5 minutes 36 seconds fast at 4 pm, on the next Sunday. At what time it was correct?, a. 12 am on same day, b. 12 pm on Monday, c. 12 am on Tuesday, d. 12 am on Wednesday, 20. An accurate clock shows 8 O’ clock in the morning., Through how many degrees will the hour hand rotate, when the clock shows 2 O’clock in the afternoon?, a. 150°, b. 168°, c. 144°, d. 180°
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I.A.74, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , b, , b, , d, , b, , d, , d, , b, , b, , d, , b, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , d, , d, , b, , b, , b, , b, , d, , d, , d, , d, , 6., , , , 3rd and 5th position is 60 + the hour hand moves in 15, 2., , So, , , hands of a clock are at right angle 22 times., [ Two positions of the hands of a clock i.e., at 3 o’clock, and 9 o’clock are same.], Therefore, the hands of a clock are at right angles with each, , 7., , other in a day i.e., in 24 hours (2 ) times 44 times., 3., , (d) As we know that the hands of a clock points towards, , each other in every 12 hours 11 times., [ The hands of a clock point towards each other once at 6, o’clock between 5 and 7], Therefore, the hands of a clock point towards each other, in a day i.e., in 24 hours 11 2 times 22 times., 4, , (b) From the formula, , , , 5., , 11 12 1, , 7 6 5, , 11, m 30h, 2, , 10, 9, 8, , Therefore, the hands of a clock are inclined at 30 minutes, past 6 at 15°., (d) At 5 O’clock, the minute hand is 25 minute spaces, apart. To be coincident, it must gain 25 minute spaces., Now, 55 minutes are gained in 60 minutes., , 60, , 3, 25 minutes will be gained in 25 min or 27 min,, 11, 55, , 3, min past 5., 11, , 7, min past 5., 11, , (b) From the formula, , 2, 3, 4, , So, the hands are coincident at 27, , 7, min., 11, , 11, , 2 m 30h , According to the question, Here, 0, h 9 [ the hands of a clock coincide at 0°], , 11, 30 180 165 15, 2, 10, 9, 8, , 60, , 40 min space are gained in 40 min, 55, , , , , , According to the question, Here, h 6, m 30., So, 30 6 , , Therefore, the angle between the two hands of a clock at 5, hours 30 minutes = 15°, (b) At 5 O’clock, the hands are 25 min. spaces apart. To, be at right angles and that too between 5.30 and 6, the, min. hand has to gain (25 + 15) or 40 min, spaces. Now, 55 min spaces are gained in 60 min., , So, the hands are at right angles at 43, 8., , 5, , 2, 3, 4, , 11, 30 30 5 1115 150 165 150 15, 2, , or 43, , 11 , , 30h 2 m , , 11, 30h m, 2, , 11 12 1, , 11, , 2 m 30h , 7 6, where angle,, m minutes and, h hours, According to the question, Here, m 30 minutes, h 5 hours, , (b) At 15 minutes past 5, the minute hand is at 3 and, hours hand slightly advanced from 5. Angle between their, , minutes from 5 towards 6., (b) As we know that the hands of a clock are at right, angle twice in every hour. So, in a period of 12 hours, the, , 11, m 30h, 2, 10, 9, 8, , SOLUTIONS, 1., , (d) From the formula, , So, 0 , , 11 12 1, , 7 6 5, , 2, 3, 4, , 11, m 30h, 2, , 11, m 30h, 2, 60 h 60 9 540, 1, Or, m , , , 49 minutes past 9, 11, 11, 11, 11, Therefore, the two hands of the clock between 9 and 10, o’cock are together at, 1, 49 minutes past 9., 11, , Or
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Clocks, , 9., , I.A.75, , (d) According to the question, the actual time shown on, the clock 6 hours 45 minutes., 10, 9, 8, , 11 12 1, , 7 6 5, , 2, 3, 4, , 10, 9, 8, , 11 12 1, , 7 6 5, , 2, 3, 4, , 1, 1, in each minute i.e., 1 minute , ., 2, 2, , Therefore, the hour hand moves in 20 minutes, 1, 20 10 ., 2, , 11. (d) As we know that the second hand covers 360° in 1, minute i.e., 60 seconds., So, the, second, hand, covers, 180°, in, , , 60, 180 30 seconds., 360 , , Also, we know that the minute hand covers 6° in 1 minute, i.e., in 60 seconds., Therefore, the minute hand covers in 30 seconds, , , m 20, , 6, 3, 2, , the clock shows 5 hours 30, 20, , According to the question,, Here 30, h 5., So, or, or, or,, , 11, 11 12 1, m 30 5, 10, 2, 2, 9, 3, 30 2 30 5 2, m, 8, 4, 11, 7 6 5, 60 300 360, m, , 11, 11, 30, minutes past 5 o’clock., m 30, 11, , 30 , , Also, 30h , , 11, m, 2, , 11, m, 2, 30 5 2 30 2, m, 11, 300 60 240, m, , 11, 11, , 11 , , when 30h 2 m , , So, 30 30 5 , or, or,, , 10, 9, 8, , 11 12 1, , 7 6 5, , 2, 3, 4, , 20, minutes., 11, , 36, 3, i.e., 23, 60, 5, , or,, , 23, , or,, , 3, , 23 of this clock 24 hours of the correct clock., 5, , , , or, , 118, of the clock 24 hours of the correct clock., 5, , 32 5 24 , So, 32 hours of this clock , hours of the correct, 118, , clock., 32 hours 30 minutes approximately., Therefore, the right time is 32 hours 30 minutes (approx.), 10, 9, 8, , 11, , , when 2 m 30h , , 11, m 30h, 2, , 30, minutes and 5 hours, 11, , 13. (b) According to the question, Total time from 8 am of a, particular day to 4 pm on the next day 32 hours., The clock loses 24 minutes in 24 hours, , So, 23 hours 36 minutes of this clock 24 hours of the, correct clock., , 12. (d) From the formula,, , , 20, minutes past 5 o’clock., 11, , Therefore, the angle between the two hands is 30°, when, , Therefore, the time shown on the mirror by this clock , (15 – 6 hours 45 minutes) 5 hours 15 minutes., 10. (b) As we know that the hour hand moves through, , , or,, , 11 12 1, , 7 6 5, , 2, 3, 4, , After 8 am 4 hours 30 minutes 4.30 pm, 14. (b) Time from Monday noon to 2 p.m. on following, Monday = 7 days 2 hour, = 170 hours., , 4, , 34, The watch gain 2 4 or, min. in 170 hours., 5, 5, , , 170 5 , 2 hrs., It will gain 2 min in , 34, , = 50 hrs = 2 days 2hrs, So, the watch is correct 2 days 2 hours after Monday noon,, i.e., at 2 pm on Wednesday., 15. (b) As we know that in correct clock, the hands of a clock, , , coincide every 65, , 5, minutes but in case of incorrect, 11, , clocks, if the hands of a clock coincide is less than, 65, , 5, minutes, then the clock gains time., 11, , So, Gain in 63 minutes
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I.A.76, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 5, 5, 5, , , 65 63 65 63 2 , 11, 11, , 11 , 5, 5, , 65 11 can be written as 65 11 , So, Gain in a day i.e., 24 hours, , , 27, minutes, 11, , 24 60 , , 27 1, 4320, 8, minutes., , , 56, 11 63, 77, 77, , Therefore, the clock gains in a day i.e., 24 hours 56, , 8, 77, , 16. (b) According to the question, total time from 9 am on 3rd, of the December to 3 pm on 6th of the December 3 days, 6 hours 78 hours., , 10, 9, 8, , 11 12 1, , 2, 3, 4, , 35, , 7 6 5, , Also, the clock loses in 78 hours (15 + 25) 40, minutes., So, the clock loses 15 minutes in , , So, the difference in minutes between these two clocks in one, hour 2 – (–3) (2 + 3) minutes 5 minutes. [ Loss in, minutes negative sign], Total time from 10 am to 4 pm on Sunday 6 hours., Therefore, the difference in minutes between these two, clocks from 10 am to 4 pm on Sunday (5 ) minutes , 30 minutes., 18. (d) The hands of a clock point towards each other 11, times in every 12 hours (because between 5 and 7, at 6 O’, clock only they point towards each other)., 19. (d) According to the question, Total time from Sunday, noon (12 pm) to 4 pm the next Sunday 7 days 4 hours , 172 hours. Also, the watch gains in 172 hours, 3 minutes + 5 minutes 36 seconds, , 15, 78 29 hours 15 minutes., 40, , Therefore, the clock is correct after 29 hours 15 minutes, form 9 am on 3rd December 2.15 pm on 4th December., 17. (d) According to the question,, , One clock loses 3 minutes per hour, Other clock gains 2 minutes per hour, , 36 , 3, 43, 3 5 minutes minutes., 60 , 5, 5, , 3 , So, the watch gains 3 minutes in , 172 hours, 43/ 5 , 3 5 172 , , hours. 60 hours 2 days 12 hours., 43, , , Therefore, the watch is correct after 2 days 12 hours from, Sunday 12 noon 12 am on Wednesday., [ 2 days 12 hours + 12 hours, 2 days 24 hours 3 days], 20. (d) Time difference between 8 am and 2 pm 6 hrs., Required rotation by the hour hand in 6 hours, 360, , , 6 180, 12, , ,
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Calendar Problems, , I.A.77, , 11, , Calendar Problems, , The following points are to be remembered while solving, calendar problems., , , , , , , , , , An ordinary year (normal year) has 365 days; or 52, weeks plus one extra day. The number of odd days in any, normal year is 1., A leap year has 366 days; or 52 weeks plus two extra day, The number of odd days in a leap year is 2., In one normal century, there are 24 leap years and 76, normal years. So, the total number of odd days in a century, is 5 days., In four centuries, the total number of leap years is 97,, because the fourth century year is a leap year. So, the total, number of odd days in four centuries is zero i.e., (97 2 +, 303 1 = 497, which is equal to exactly 71 weeks)., Commencing from the first day of the Gregorian calendar, (i.e., from 1 January 0001), the total number of odd days in, one century is 5, in two centuries it is 3, in three centuries it, is 1, and in four centuries it is zero. This cycle repeats for, every four centuries., , Some basic information to be remembered:, If 1 March 1983 was a Tuesday, then, , 1 March 1982 was a Monday, 1 March 1981 was a Sunday, 1 March 1980 was a Saturday, 1 March 1979 was a Thursday, 1 March 1978 was a Wednesday, 1 March 1984 was a Thursday, 1 March 1985 was a Friday, If 1 February 1983 was a Tuesday, then, , 1 February 1982 was a Monday, 1 February 1981 was a Sunday, 1 February 1980 was a Saturday, 1 February 1979 was a Thursday, 1 February 1978 was a Wednesday, 1 February 1984 was a Thursday, 1 February 1985 was a Friday, , Months, January, February, , No. of days, 31, 28/29, , March, April, May, June, July, August, September, October, November, December, , 31, 30, 31, 30, 31, 31, 30, 31, 30, 31, , Odd days, 3, 0/1 (ordinary/leap, year), 3, 2, 3, 2, 3, 3, 2, 3, 2, 3, , Note, The present calendar which we follow is the Gregorian, calendar having 52 weeks + one or two more days in a year, according to normal (365 days with Feb of 28 days) or leap, year (366 days with Feb of 29 days) and 7 days of a week, from Sunday to Saturday. To check the leap year divide the, year by 4 if it’s divisible by 4 then it’s the leap year otherwise, it will be a normal year. For example 2000, 2004, 2020, etc. are, divisible by 4 or the multiple of 4 said to be leap year., In spite of all these ingenious corrections; there is still a small error, in civil 4000 years contain 1.2 days than 4000 tropical years., Example 1. If 5 January 1991 was a Saturday, what day of the, week was 3 March 1992?, Solution: Since 1991 is an ordinary year, it has only 1 odd day., Thus, 5 January 1992 was 1 day after Saturday, that is Sunday., Now, in January 1992, 26 days are remaining (31 – 5 26, days)., That is, 5 odd days (26 7 = 3 weeks and 5 odd days)., In February 1992, there are 29 days, that is 1 odd days (26 7, 4 weeks and 1 odd day)., In March 1992, there are 3 odd day (we are calculating odd day, only up to 3 March 1992)., Therefore, the total numbers of odd days after 5 January 1992, till 3 March 1992 is 5 + 1 + 3 = 9 days (1 week and 2 odd, days), which is equivalent to 2 odd days. Therefore, 3 march, 1992 was 2 days after Sunday, this is Tuesday.
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I.A.78, , Another method: We can also solve the above problem by, another method., The total number of days between 5 January 1991 and 3 March, 1992 can be calculated as follows:, In 1992, – 360 (365 – 5 = 360), In 1992 January, – 31, In 1992 February, – 29 (Leap year), In March, –3, 423 days, 423 days means 60 weeks and 3 days, So, the number of odd days form 5 January 1991 to 3 March, 1992 is 3., Therefore, 3 March 1992 is 3 days after Saturday, that is, Tuesday., Answer: Tuesday, Example 2. What day of the week did 30 June 1974 fall ?, Solution: We shall first calculate the number of odd days till, 31 December 1973., Number of odd days in the first 1600 years = 0, Number of odd days in the next 300 years = 1, The number have 18 leap years and 55 ordinary years ., The number of odd days in 73 years, , = (2 18) + (1 55) = 36 + 55 = 91 = 13 weeks and 0, odd days., So, The total number of odd days till 31 December 1973 = 0, + 1 + 0 = 1 odd day., Now, we shall calculate the number of odd days in 1974 till 30, June., January, –, 31 days, –, 3 odd days, February –, 28 days, –, 0 odd days, March, –, 31 days, –, 3 odd days, April, –, 30 days, –, 2 odd days, May, –, 31 days, –, 3 odd days, June, –, 30 days, –, 2 odd days, The total number of odd days in 1974 till June 30 = 3 + 0 + 3 +, 2 + 3 + 2 = 13 = 1 week + 6 odd days., So, the total numbers of odd days from the day of, commencement of the calendar till 30 June 1974 is 1 + 6 = 7., Seven odd days means 1 week + 0 odd day., Therefore, 30 June 1974 was a Sunday., Answer: Sunday, Example 3. On what dates of July 1776 did Sundays fall?, Solution: First, we shall find out what day was 1 July 1776., 1600 years have 0 odd days., 100 years have 5 odd days., , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 75 years comprises, 18 leap years and 57 ordinary years., So, the number of odd days in 75 years, = 18 2 + 57 = 93 = 13 weeks and 2 odd days., Thus, 1775 years have (0 + 5 + 2) = 7 odd days., So, 0 odd days., In 1776, till 1 July, the number of odd days in calculated as, follows :, Month, Number, of days, , January, , February, , March, , April, , May, , June, , July, , 31, , 29, , 31, , 30, , 31, , 30, , 1, , 183 days = 26 weeks + 1 = 1 odd day, So, 1 July 1776 was Monday, and hence the first Sunday in, July 1776 was on 7 July., The other Sundays in July 1776 were on 14, 21, and 28 July., Examples 4. Which year will have the same calendar as that of, 2009 ?, (a) 2012, (b) 2016, (c) 2020, (d) 2015, Solution: (d) The year 2009 is an ordinary year., The number of odd days from 2009 onwards:, Year, Number of, odd days, , 2009, , 2010, , 2011, , 2012, , 2013, , 2014, , 1, , 1, , 1, , 2, , 1, , 1, , So, total number of odd days 7 and, , 7, 0 days. [ 7/7 1, 7, , week and 0 odd days.], Also, year 2015 is an ordinary year., Therefore, same calendar as that of 2009 2015., Note: The sum of odd days between the years should be zero., Examples 5. What day of the week will 1st January, 2020 be,, given that 1st January, 2009 is a Sunday?, (a) Thursday, (b) Saturday, (c) Monday, (d) Friday, Solution: (b) According to the question, 1st January, 2009 is a, Sunday., Year, Number of, odd days, Year, Number of, odd days, , 2009, , 2010, , 2011, , 2012, , 2013, , 2014, , 1, , 1, , 1, , 2, , 1, , 1, , 2015, , 2016, , 2017, , 2018, , 2019, , 1, , 2, , 1, , 1, , 1, , So, Total number of odd days 13, 13, and, 6 odd days., 7, [Remainder 6], So, 6 days after Sunday Required day Sunday + 6 days, Saturday.
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Calendar Problems, , I.A.79, , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , How many days will there be from 26th January, 2004 to, 15th May, 2004 (both days include)?, a. 110, b. 111, c. 112, d. 113, , 2., , If day after tomorrow is Saturday, what day was three, days before yesterday?, a. Sunday, b. Monday c. Thursday d. Saturday, , 3., , If the second day of a month is a Friday, which of the, following would be the last day of the next month which, has 31 days?, a. Sunday, b. Monday, c. Tuesday, d. Data inadequate, , 4., , In a month of 31 days, the third Wednesday falls on the, 15th. What will be the last day of the month?, a. Fourth Sunday, b. Fifth Wednesday, c. Fifth Thursday, d. Fifth Friday, , 5., , Saturday was a holiday for Republic day. 14th of the next, month is again a holiday for Shvratri. What day was it on, the 14th ?, a. Monday, b. Tuesday c. Thursday d. Friday, , 6., , If the first day of the year (other than the leap year) was, Friday, then which was the last day of that year?, a. Monday, b. Friday, c. Saturday d. Sunday, , 7., , If 1st October is Sunday, then 1st November will be:, a. Monday, b. Tuesday, c. Wednesday, d. Thursday, , 8., , If February 1, 2008 is Wednesday, we what day is March, 3, 2008?, a. Sunday, b. Saturday c. Friday, d. Monday, , 9., , If it was Saturday on 17th December, 2009. What will be, the day on 22 nd December, 2012?, a. Sunday, b. Tuesday c. Friday, d. Monday, , 10. On which dates of April, 2012 will a Sunday come?, a. 5, 12, 19, 26, b. 1, 8, 15, 22, 29, c. 3, 10, 17, 24, d. 7, 14, 21, 28, 11. If 15th August, 2009 is on Saturday, then on which day of, the week would the independence day be celebrated in the, year 2109?, a. Sunday, b. Monday c. Saturday d. Thursday, 12. Deepa met Sonam on 28th August, 2008 which was a, Thursday and promised to meet her again in the month of, December in the next year but only on s Saturday On, which of the following days could Deep meet Sonam?, , a. 6th, 31th, 20th, 27th, c. 1st, 8th, 15th, 22nd, 29th, , b. 4th, 11th, 18th, 25th, d. 5th, 12th, 19th, 26th, , 13. Laxmi Puja would be observed the day after tomorrow., Next week on the same day, the festival of Deepawali, would be celebrated. If today is Sunday, then what would, be the day four days after Deepawali?, a. Saturday, b. Sunday, c. Wednesday, d. Tuesday, 14. An application was received by inward clerk in the, afternoon of a week day. Next day he forwarded it to the, table of the senior clerk, who was on leave that day. The, senior clerk next day evening put up the application to the, desk officer. Desk officer studied the application and, disposed off the matter on the same day, i.e., Friday., Which day was the application received by the inward, clerk?, a. Saturday, b. Sunday, c. Wednesday, d. Tuesday, 15. Which year will have the same calendar as that of 2012 ?, a. 2020, b. 2040, c. 2025, d. 2031, 16. If December 2, 2008 was Tuesday, the day on the 217th, day after December 2, 2007 would be:, a. Wednesday b. Monday c. Thursday d. Tuesday, 17. Imagine that in a calendar year, there were 998 days and 12, days in a week, then no. of odd days in that year will be:, a. 5, b. 6, c. 3, d. 2, 18. If 18th February, 2005 falls on Friday then what will be, the day on 18th February, 2007?, a. Sunday, b. Wednesday, c. Tuesday, d. Monday, 19. If 20th February, 1996, which is your date of birth, is a, Tuesday. On what day of the week will your birthday fall, in the year 1998?, a. Thursday, b. Tuesday, c. Saturday, d. Friday, 20. If Thursday was the day after the day before yesterday, five days ago, what is the least number of days ago when, Sunday was three days before the day after tomorrow?, a. Two, b. Three, c. Four, d. Five, 21. Which two months in a year have the same calendar?, a. April, December, b. September, December, c. Day, August, d. August, December
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I.A.80, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 22. On which day of the week does 28th August, 2009 fall?, a. Sunday, b. Monday c. Tuesday d. Friday, 23. Deepa went to the movies nine days ago. She goes to the, movies only on Thursday. What day of the week is today?, a. Tuesday, b. Sunday, c. Thursday d. Saturday, , 24. Which of the following is not a leap year?, a. 700, b. 800, c. 1200, d. 2018, 25. January 1, 2008 is Tuesday. What day of the week lies on, Jan 1, 2009?, a. Monday, b.Wednesday c. Thursday d. Sunday, , ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , b, , a, , d, , d, , c, , b, , c, , b, , d, , b, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , d, , d, , b, , c, , b, , d, , d, , a, , d, , a, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , b, , d, , d, , a, , c, , 7., , SOLUTIONS, 1., , (b) Total number of days from 26th January, 2004 to 15th, May, 2004 (both days included), , 6, 29, 31, 30, 15 , , , , , , days 111 days, Jan Feb Mar Apr May , [ 2004 is a leap year. So, number of days in February 29], 2. (a) According to the question,, Day after tomorrow Saturday, So, today Saturday – 2 days Thursday, Also, yesterday Thursday –1 day, Wednesday., Therefore, three days before yesterday, Wednesday –3 days Sunday., 3. (d) The number of days in the current month is not, mentioned., Therefore, the answer cannot be determined., 4. (d) According to the question,, 15th of the month 3rd Wednesday., So, 15 + 7 22nd of the month 4th Wednesday., 22 + 7 29th of the month 5th Wednesday., Therefore, last day of the month i.e., 31st, 29th of the month + 2 days, 5th Wednesday + 2 days 5th Friday., 5. (c) According to the question, 26th January Saturday., So, 2nd February Saturday [Republic day th January], 9th February Saturday, 16th February Saturday, Therefore, 14th February 16th February –2 days, Saturday – days Thursday., 6. (b) According to the question,, First day of the year (other than leap year), Friday, , So,, So,, 8., So,, , 9., , So,, , So,, 10., , As we know that, in an ordinary year first day of the year, last day of the year., Therefore, lat day of the year First day of the year, Friday., (c) According to the question, 1st October Sunday, Then, 8th October Sunday. [Every 7th day will be the, same day countwise], 15th October Sunday., 22nd October Sunday., 31st October Sunday + 2 day Tuesday, 1st November Tuesday + 1 day Wednesday., (b) According to the question, 1st February,, 2008 Wednesday,, 8th February, 2008 Wednesday,, 15th February, 2008 Wednesday,, 22nd February, 2008 Wednesday,, 29th February, 2008 Wednesday, [2008 is a leap year, So, February 29 days], Therefore, 3rd March, 2008 Wednesday + Wednesday, + 3 days Saturday., (d) According to the question, 17th December,, 2009 Saturday, 17th December, 2012 Saturday + 4 days Wednesday., [2010 and 2011 are ordinary years. So number of odd, days 1 + 1 ], [ 2012 is a leap year, So number of odd days ], [ 2009 – 2010 1 odd day, 2010 –2011 1 odd day,, 2011 –2012 odd day], 22nd December, 2012 17th December,, 2012 + 5 days Wednesday + 5 days Monday., (b) 1st April 2012 2000 years + 11 years + 1st January,, 2012 to 1st April, 2012., Number of odd days in 2000 years 0, [ Multiple of 400 years 0 odd days], Number of odd days in 11 years 2 leap years + 9, ordinary years., (2 2) odd days (9 1) odd days, 13 odd days , , 13, odd days,, 7
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Calendar Problems, , I.A.81, , Also,, Months, No. of odd days, , January, 3, , February, 1, , March, 3, , April, 1, , [2012 is a leap year. So, February 1 odd day], So, Number of odd days from 1st January, 2012 to 1st April,, 7, 2012 8 1 odd day., 7, So, total number of odd days (0 + 6 + 1) odd days 7 odd, 7, days 0 odd days., 7, So, 1st April, 2012 Sunday., So, 8th April, 2012 Sunday., 15th April, 2012 Sunday., 22nd April, 2012 Sunday and 29th April,, 2012 Sunday., 11. (d) According to the question, 15th August,, 2009 Saturday, 15th August, 2109 – 15th, August 2009 100 years., So, number of odd days 5, [ We know that 100 years 5 odd days], So, 15th August, 2019 15th August, 2009 + 5 days, Saturday + 5 days Thursday, 12. (d) According to the question, 28th August,, 2008 Thursday., So, 28th August, 2009 Thursday + 1 Friday, No. of odd days from August to November:, Months, No. of odd days, , So,, So,, So, , So,, 13., So,, So,, , Aug, 3, , Sep, 2, , Oct, 3, , Nov, 2, , Total number of odd days, 10, 3 23 2 , 3 odd days., 7, 3rd day after Friday Friday +3 days Monday,, Saturday Monday + 5 days 5th December., [she could meet only on a Saturday], 5th December Saturday, (5 + 7) i.e., 12th December Saturday, (12 + 7) i.e., 19th December Saturday, (19 + 7) i.e., 26th December Saturday, [Every 7th day will be the same day countwise], Deepa can meet Sonam on 5th, 12th, 19th and 26th., (b) According to the question, Today Sunday, day after tomorrow Today + 2 days Sunday + 2 days, Tuesday Laxmi Puja, Next week Tuesday Weepawali, [Every 7th day will be the same day countwise], , Therefore, the day four days after Deepawali, Tuesday + 5 days Sunday., 14. (c) According to the question, Desk officer received the, application Friday., So, the application forwarded to the table of the senior clerk, Thursday., It is clear from the flowchart given below:, Desk officer Friday, Same day, Senior clerk Friday, Senior clerk’s leave Thursday, Next day, Inward clerk Wednesday, So, the application received by the inward clerk, Wednesday., 15. (b) 2012 is a leap year., So, 2012 28 2040., [As we know that a leap year repeats itself after (7 4), i.e., 28 years.], So, year 2040 will have the same calendar a that of 2012., 217, 16. (d) Number of odd day in 217 , Remainder 0 0, 7, Therefore, required day Tuesday, 17. (d) According to the question,, Number of days in a calendar year 998., Number of days in a week of that calendar year 12, Therefore, number of odd days in that year, 998, , 83 weeks + 2 odd days 2 odd days., 12, 18. (a) According to the question, 18th February, 20015 Friday., So, 18th February, 2006 Friday + 1 day Saturday., So, 18th February 2007 Saturday + 1 day Sunday., [ 2005, 2006 and 2007 are ordinary years], 19. (d) According to the question 20th February,, 1996 Tuesday., Number of odd days between 20th February, 1996 and 20th, February, 1998 3 days, [1996 – 1997 2 odd days and 1997 – 1998 1 odd day], As we know that leap year to ordinary year 2 odd days., Ordinary year to ordinary year 1 odd day. [ 1996 is a, leap year], Therefore, birthday fall on 20th February, 1998 Tuesday, + 3 days Friday., 20. (a) Day after the day before yesterday, (yesterday –1 day) + 1 day Yesterday., Then, five days ago, yesterday Thursday. (Given), So, five days ago Thursday + 1 day Friday, So, today Friday + 5 days Wednesday and tomorrow
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I.A.82, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 22. (d) 28th August, 20092000 years + 8 years + 1st January,, 2009 to 28th August, 2009, Number of odd days in 2000 years 0. [Multiple of, 400 years 0 odd days.], Number of odd days in 8 years 2 leap years and 6, ordinary yers., (2 2) odd days and (6 1) odd days, 10 odd days, 10, , 3 odd days., 7, Also,, , today + 1 day, Wednesday + 1 day Thursday., Day after tomorrow today + 2 day Wednesday, + 2 days Friday., So, three days before the day after tomorrow, (today + 2 days) –3 days today –1 day Yesterday., So, it is on Monday that we say ‘Yesterday was Sunday., Therefore, last number of days ago Wednesday, – Monday Two, 21. (b) For April, December:, Months, No. of days, Months, No. of days, , April, 30, Aug, 31, , May, 31, Sept, 30, , Total number of odd days 244 , , June, 30, Oct, 31, , July, 31, Nov, 30, , Months, No. of days, Months, No. of days, , 244, 6 odd days., 7, , Sept, 30, , Total number of days 91 , , Oct, 31, , Nov, 30, , 91, 0 odd days., 7, , For May, August:, Months, No. of days, , May, 31, , June, 30, , July, 31, , Total number of days, 92, 92 , 1 odd days., 7, For August, December:, Months, No. of days, , Aug, 31, , Sept, 30, , Oct, 31, , Feb, , March, , 3, , 0, , 3, , April, , 2, , May, , June, , July, , Aug, , 3, , 2, , 3, , 0, , So, number of odd days form 1st January, 2009 to 28th, August, 2009 3 0 3 2 3 2 3 0 16 odd days, 16, , 2 odd days., 7, So, total number of odd days (0 3 2) odd days 5 odd, , For September, December:, Months, No. of days, , Jan, , Nov, 30, , Total number of days, 122, 122 , 3 odd days., 7, Since, there are 0 odd days between September and, December., Therefore, September and December have the same, calendar in a year., , days., So, 5th day Friday, Therefore 28th August, 2009 Friday., 23. (d) According to the question, 3rd December, 2009 , Sunday, So, 10th December, 2009 Sunday,, 17th December, 2009 Sunday,, 24th December, 2009 Sunday,, 31st December, 2009 Sunday,, So, 3rd January, 2010 Sunday + 3 days Wednesday., 24. (a) The century divisible by 400 is a leap year., The year 700 is not a leap year., 25. (c) The year 2008 is a leap year. So it has 2 odd days., 1st day of the year 2008 is Tuesday. (Given), So, 1st day of the year 2009 is 2 days beyond Tuesday., Hence, it will be Thursday., ,
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Dice and Cube A.83, , 12, , Dice and Cube, , Dice: The dice has six sides for six numbers. If we try all possible ways to spread them out, we get 30 dice. Every dice has its, reflection. We can find the possibilities if we reverse the numbers beside the 1. We can mark every dice by a number with six, digits: Start with 1, go upwards, go around 1 counter clockwise and add the number that appears opposite the number 1 on the, dice. The red dice has 123546 for instance. The dice on the left are ordered by these numbers., , 2, 2, 2, 2, 2, 2, 2, 2, 2, 3 1 5 3 1 6 3 1 4 3 1 6 3 1 4 3 1 5 4 1 5 4 1 6 4 1 3 4, 4, 4, 5, 5, 6, 6, 3, 3, 5, 1 6, 2 5, 3 6, 4 4, 5 5, 6 4, 7 6, 8 5, 9 6 10, , 2, 1 6, 5, 3, , 2, 4 1 3 4, 6, 11 5 12, , 2, 1 5 5, 6, 3 13, , 2, 1 4 5, 3, 6 14, , 2, 1 6 5, 3, 4 15, , 2, 1 3 5, 4, 6 16, , 2, 1 6 5, 4, 3 17, , 2, 1 3 5, 6, 4 18, , 2, 1 4 6, 6, 3 19, , 2, 1 4 6, 3, 5 20, , 2, 1 5, 3, 4, , 2, 6 1 3 6, 4, 21 5 22, , 2, 1 5 6, 4, 3 23, , 2, 1 3 6, 5, 4 24, , 2, 1 4 4, 5, 3 25, , 3, 1 5 4, 5, 2 26, , 3, 1 5 5, 6, 2 27, , 3, 1 6 5, 4, 2 28, , 3, 1 4 6, 6, 2 29, , 3, 1 5 6, 4, 2 30, , 3, 1 4, 5, 2, , There are certain rules with the help of these rules question on, dice can easily determine., , Rule No. 1: Two opposite faces cannot be adjacent to, one another., , Rule No. 2: If two different positions of a dice are shown, and one of the two common faces is in the same position, then of the remaining faces will be opposite to each other., , Rule No. 3: If in two different positions of dice, the position, of a common face be the same, then each of the opposite faces, of the remaining faces will be in the same position., , Rule No. 4: If in two different positions of a dice, the, position of the common face be not the same, then opposite, face of the common face will be that which is not shown on, any face in these two positions. Besides, the opposite faces, of the remaining faces will not be the same., A "Mathematics trick" with two dice: Take 2 dice. Dice are made up, so that opposite faces add up to 7. Make sure that 6 is opposite 1, the, 5 is opposite 2, and the 4 is opposite 3. Roll the dice and then, , multiply the top two numbers., , multiply the bottom two numbers., , multiply the top of one die by the bottom of the other., , and now multiply the other top and bottom., , Now add up all of your (four) answers, and it always adds, up to 49., Question on dice have been classified under three different, categories. In the following paragraphs different types of, , questions have been discussed with the help of examples under, different categories., Note, The dice have 21 points (1+2+3+4+5+6 = 21). The numbers 1, to 6 appear on the six sides of a cube., You throw the dice by hand or by a leather dice cup. You turn, the cup upside down and you let the dice roll to a standstill., , It is by chance which number appears on top. This is the, attraction of throwing the dice. The dice are used in many, board games. They often determine the playing. They give the, game unexpected turns and add excitement to the games., , Category I:, Example 1. A dice has been thrown four times and produces, following results., 6, 3, (i), , 5, 1, , 2, (ii), , 3, 4, , 5, (iii), , 2, 1, , 3, (iv), , Which number will appear opposite to the number 3?, a. 4, b. 5, c. 6, d. 1, , 6
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I.A.84, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Solution: (a) From the figures (i), (ii) and (iv) we find that, numbers 6, 1, 5 and 2 appear on the adjacent surfaces to the, number 3. Therefore, number 4 will be opposite to number 3., Hence option (a) is the answer., Category II:, Example 2. The figures given below show the two different, positions of a dice. Which number will appear to number 2., 4, , 5, 2, , 3, , 6, , 4, , (i), , (ii), , a. 3, b. 4, c. 5, d. 6, Solution: (c) The above question, where only two positions of a, dice are given, can easily be solved with the following method., 2, 6, , 4, , 3, , 5, , IV, , I, , 1, , Step I: The dice, when unfolded, will appear as shown in the, figure given on the right side., Step II: Write the common number to both the dice in the, middle block. Since common number is 4, hence number 4 will, appear in the central block., Step III: Consider the figure (i) and write the first number in, the anti-clockwise direction of number 4, (common number) in, block I and second number in block II. Therefore, numbers 3, and 2 being the first and second number to 4 in anticlockwise, directions respectively, will appear in block I and II, respectively., Step IV: Consider fig (ii) and write first and second number in, the anticlockwise direction to number 4, (common number) in, block (iii) and (iv) Hence number 6 and 5 will appear in the, blocks III and IV respectively., Step V: Write remaining number in the remaining block., Therefore, number 1 will come in the remaining block., Now, from the unfolded figures we find that number opposite, to 6 is 3, number opposite to 2 is 5 and number opposite to 4 is, 1. Therefore, option (c) is our answer., Category III, Example 3. From the following figures of dice. Find which, number will come in place of?, 4, 2, (i), , 5, 3, , 1, (ii), , 1, 2, , 4, 5, , 6, , ?, , 2, , 4, 3, , 5, , 2, , 1, , 1, , 6, , 6, , 3, , Now the number in place of '?' can be obtained by making a, slight change in the figure as given here. Now comparing, fig (iii) as above, we get that number in place of ? is 3, Category IV:, Example 4. Which of the following dices is identical to the, unfolded figure as shows here?, 3, 6, , II, III, , numbers appearing on the different surfaces of the dice in the, figure)., , 1, 4, , 3, , 2, 5, , 6, , 3, 4, , 2, , 4, , (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), a. (i), b. (ii), c. (iii), d. (iv), Solution: (a) From the unfolded figure of dice, we find that, number opposite to 2 is 4, for 5 it is 3 and for 1 it is 6. From, this result we can definitely say that figure (ii), (iii) and (iv), cannot be the answer figure as number lying on the opposite, pair of surface are present on the adjacent surfaces., Hence fig (i) is our answer., 2, 5, , 1, 4, , 3, , 6, , Example 5. A die is thrown four times and its four different, positions are given below. Find the number on the face, opposite the face showing 2., , (i), a. 3, , (ii), b. 4, , (iii), c. 5, , (iv), d. 6, , Solution: (b) Here, the number 2 appears in three dice, namely, (i), (ii) and (iv). In these dice, we ovserve that the numbers 2,, 4, 1 and 6 appear adjacent to 3. So, none of these numbers can, be present opposite 2. The only number left is 5., Hence, 5 is present on the face opposite (b)., Example 6. Shown below are, four different positions of the same, dice. Find the number on the face opposite the face showing 6., , (iii), , a. 4, b. 5, c. 2, d. 3, Solution: (d) If the above dice is unfolded, it will look like as the, fig given below. (Student should follow the methods as explained, in the previous example to find the appropriate place of the, , (i), a. 1, , (ii), b. 2, , (iii), c. 4, , (iv), d. 5
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Dice and Cube, , Solution: (c) In this case, the number 6 appears in only two, dice from which we observe that the numbers 1, 3 and 5 appear, adjacent to 6, so that 2 or 4 can appear opposite 6. So, we beign, finding a number which appears at least in three of the given, dice. 3 is such a number, which appears in (i), (ii) and (iii). We, observe in these dice that, the numbers 1, 4, 5 and 6 appear, adjacent to 3. So, they cannot appear opposite 3. The only, number that can appear opposite 3 is 2., So, 2 cannot appear opposite 6., Hence, 4 appears opposite 6, so that (c) is the answer., We are now in a position to solve the following exercise., Example 7. What the sum of the does on the hidden faces of, these dice?, Solution: (41) Opposite sides of a dice add up to 7, giving 21, dots per dice. Multiply this by three and take away the dots you, can see., Cube: The questions from this topic are of the, type wherein, a cube with side measuring unit, 'x' is painted on all faces and is cut into smaller, cubes with sides measuring unit 'y'. You are, then required to find the number of cubes, having 'n' faces painted. The first thing that you, need to figure out is the number of smaller, cubes. For this, you look at one particular edge, of the big cube and figure out how many, smaller cubes can fit into this. It will be x/y. So,, the number of smaller cubes will be (x/y)3., , I.A.85, , 1., , How many smaller cubes have only one of their faces, painted black?, a. 1, b. 2, c. 3, d. 4, , 2., , How many smaller cubes have only one of their faces, painted green?, a. 1, b. 2, c. 3, d. 4, , 3., , How many smaller cubes have only two of their faces, painted black?, a. 2, b. 4, c. 6, d. 8, , 4., , How many smaller cubes have at least three of their faces, painted?, a. 8, b. 6, c. 3, d. 2, , How many smaller cubes have none of their faces painted, at all?, a. 1, b. 2, c. 3, d. 4, Solution: 1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (a), This problem can be analysed by considering the three, horizontal layers separately. In the top layer, the central cube, has only one of its faces painted green; the four cubes at the, corner have three of their faces painted one face green and the, other two faces black. The remaining four cubes have two of, their faces painted – one green and one black., 5., , Green painted, Top layer, , Sides painted black, Bottom unpainted, , Since all the smaller cubes will have at least one face facing, inside, i.e. not on the surface of the original cube, hence, none of, the smaller cubes will have all faces painted. Further, since the, maximum number of faces of the larger cube that intersect at a, point are 3(at the corners), hence, the smaller cubes can have a, maximum of 3 faces painted. So, number of smaller cubes with 3, faces painted = No of corners of larger cube = 8 (always),, provided none of the faces of the larger cube is left unpainted., , In the middle layer, the central cube has none of the faces, painted. Four cubes at the corners have two of their faces, painted black. The remaining four cubes have only one of their, faces painted black., Top, Unpainted, Middle layer, , Sides painted black, Bottom unpainted, , Example 8. A wooden cube is painted black on four adjoining, faces and green on two opposite faces, that is, top and bottom., It is then cut into 27 smaller, identical cubes., , In the bottom layer, the central cube has one of its faces painted, green, and four cubes at the corners have three of their faces, painted – two black and one green. The remaining four cubes, have two of their faces painted – one black and one green., Top, Bottom layer, , Sides painted black, Bottom painted green
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I.A.86, , Example 9. A solid cube is painted on only three adjacent, faces and then cut into 64 smaller cubes of equal size., 1. How many smaller cubes have three of their faces, coloured?, a. 0, b. 1, c. 2, d. 4, 2., , How many smaller cubes have only two of their faces, coloured?, a. 6, b. 8, c. 9, d. 16, , How many smaller cubes have only one of their faces, coloured?, a. 36, b. 27, c. 16, d. 9, Solution: 1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (b), The cube is painted on three adjacent faces and cut into 64, smaller, identical cubes. In this case, only one corner cube is, painted on three of its faces., Each pair, out of three coloured adjacent faces, has only one, common edge. Thus, there are three edges, along which two, coloured faces meet. There are three smaller cubes along each, such edge which are painted only on two of their faces. Hence,, there are totally 3 3 = 9 smaller cbes which are coloured on, two of their faces., There are nine smaller cubes on each coloured face which are, coloured only on one of their faces. Thus, there are totally, 9 3 = 27 smaller cubes which are coloured only on one of, their faces., 3., , Example 10. Each of the faces of a cube is painted with, different colours. The face painted red is opposite to the one, painted green. The face painted blue is between the red and, green coloured faces. The face painted yellow is adjacent to the, one painted pink., , The face painted white is adjacent to the yellow coloured one,, and the green face is facing down., 1. What is the colour of the face at the top?, a. Blue, b. White, c. Red, d. Yellow, 2., , What is the colour of the face which is opposite to the one, coloured pink?, a. White, b. Green, c. Blue, d. Yellow, , 3., , What is the colour of the face which is opposite to the one, coloured blue?, a. Red, b. Yellow, c. White, d. Pink, Which are the four colours on the faces adjacent to yellow, coloured face?, a. Red, white, blue, pink, b. Green, white, blue, pink, c. White, pink, red, green, d. Blue, pink, red, green, , 4., , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Solution: 1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (b), Face, ABEH – green, CDGF – red, CBEF – blue, ABCD – white or pink, AHGD – yellow, EFGH – pink or white, , 4. (d), G, , F, , D, , C, H, , A, , E, B, , Example. 11 A cube of 3 cm edge is painted red on all its, faces. It is then cut at equal distances, at right angles, four, times vertically (top to bottom) and twice horizontally, (along the sides), as show in figure, where the lines, represent the cuts made. Study the diagram and answer the, following questions:, a5, a1, , a6, , b4, b8, , c2, , b9, , a2, , b3, , b7, c3, b1, , c1, , b2, , a3, , b5, , a4, , a7, b6, , 1., , How many smaller cubes have three of their faces painted, red?, a. 64, b. 4, c. 12, d. 8, , 2., , How many cubes have two of their faces painted?, a. 4, b. 8, c. 12, d. 6, , 3., , How many cubes have only one of their sides painted, red?, a. 9, b. 6, c. 1, d. 4, , How many cubes have none of their sides painted?, a. 1, b. 4, c. 0, d. 4, Solution: 1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (a), Here n 3., Therefore, number of cubes with three sides painted red , number of corners – cubes = 8, Number of cubes with two faces painted, (n – 2) 12 = (3 – 2) 12 = 12., Number of cubes with one face painted, (n – 2)2 6 = (3 – 2)2 6 = 6., Number of cubes with no face painted, (n – 2) 3 = (3 – 2)3 = 1., 4.
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Dice and Cube, , I.A.87, , Multiple Choice Questions, Directions (1 to 5): A cube of 10 dimensions is coloured, yellow, brown, and orange on the three sets of opposite faces., The cube is then cut into smaller cubes of 2 dimensions., 1. How many smaller cubes are painted yellow and brown, on two adjacent faces?, a. 12, b. 24, c. 20, d. 8, 2. How many smaller cubes are painted only on one of their, faces?, a. 18, b. 54, c. 36, d. 42, 3. How many smaller cubes are painted yellow on one face, and brown on the opposite face?, a. 0, b. 4, c. 8, d. None of these, 4. How many smaller cubes are painted brown at least on, one of their faces?, a. 18, b. 20, c. 30, d. 50, 5., , How many smaller cubes are painted only on two of their, faces, one with brown and the other with orange?, a. 12, b. 16, c. 18, d. 30, , Directions (6 to 9): A solid cube is painted red on two adjacent, faces, green on the faces opposite to the faces painted red, and, black on the remaining faces. The cube is then cut into two, parts through the centre without touching the black face. One, part is cut into 32 smaller identical cubes and the other part is, cut into four smaller cubes of equal size. Answer the following, questions by considering the smaller cubes of both the sizes., , How many smaller cubes have black colour face(s)?, a. 10, b. 12, c. 20, d. 32, 7. How many smaller cubes have only red colour face(s)?, a. 6, b. 12, c. 8, d. 5, 8. How many smaller cubes have none of their faces painted?, a. 2, b. 8, c. 6, d. 4, 9. How many smaller cubes have only two of their faces, painted?, a. 8, b. 12, c. 24, d. 16, Directions (10 to 14): A cube of dimensions 10 is painted, red, blue, and green, respectively, on the three sets of, opposite faces. The cube is then cut into 104 smaller cubes,, some with 4 dimensions and some with 2 dimensions. Two, of the cubes of dimensions 4 have only one of their faces, painted red. The remaining cubes of dimensions 4 have, only one of their faces painted green. The following, questions are based on the smaller cubes of dimensions 4, and 2., 6., , 10. How many smaller cubes have three of their faces painted, red, blue, and green?, a. 4, b. 6, c. 10, d. 8, 11. How many smaller cubes of 4 dimensions have two of, their faces coloured red and blue?, a. 1, b. 0, c. 4, d. 3, 12. How many smaller cubes have at least two of their faces, coloured?, a. 24, b. 36, c. 44, d. 32, 13. How many smaller cubes have at least one of their faces, painted blue?, a. 36, b. 48, c. 42, d. 50, 14. How many smaller cubes have none of their faces, coloured?, a. 27, b. 15, c. 18, d. 12, Directions (15 to 18): A solid cube of size 4 is cut into, smaller cubes of ½, 1, and 2 dimensions. The following, questions are based on the smaller cubes., 15. If 1 and 2 cubes are one each in number, what will be, the total number of ½ cubes?, a. 510, b. 440, c. 424, d. 460, 16. If the numbers of 1 and 2 cubes are multiples of 7, what, will be the total number of smaller cubes (of all sizes, together)?, a. 21, b. 8, c. 20, d. 22, 17. If we get maximum possible number of 2 cubes, then, how many ½ cubes will be obtained (along with the, maximum number of 2 cubes)?, a. 0, b. 2, c. 4, d. 8, 18. If the numbers of 1 and 2 cubes are multiplies of 5, how, many ½ cubes can be obtained?, a. 36, b. 80, c. 112, d. 120, Directions (19 to 22): The six faces of a cube are painted in, such a manner that no two adjacent faces have the same, colour. The three colours used are red, white, and black. The, cube is then cut into 36 smaller cubes in such a manner that 32, cubes are of one size and the rest are of bigger size, and each, of the bigger cubes has no red-coloured face. Answer the, following questions by considering the smaller cubes of both, the sizes.
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , I.A.88, , 19. How many smaller cubes have two or more of their faces, painted?, a. 32, b. 36, c. 28, d. 16, , 26., , 5, , 6, , 2, 1, , 6, , 3, , 4, 1, , (iii), , (ii), , 1, , 6, , (iv), , Which number is on the opposite surface of number 3?, a. 4, b. 6, c. 5, d. 1, 27., , 2, 4, , 5, 5, , 1, 2, , 1, , (i), , 22. How many smaller cubes have only two of their faces, painted?, a. 36, b. 28, c. 32, d. 16, 23. Observe the dots on the dice (one to six dots) in the, following figures. How many dots are contained on the, face opposite to the face containing four dots?, , 3, , (i), , 20. How many smaller cues have a red-coloured face?, a. 20, b. 32, c. 16, d. 0, 21. How many smaller cubes have three of their faces, painted?, a. 16, b. 32, c. 20, d. 8, , 3, , 5, , 6, 6, , (iii), , (ii), , 5, , 4, , (iv), , Which number is opposite to number 1?, a. 4, b. 6, c. 2, 28., , 3, 5, , 2, 4, , 5, 1, , 6, , (i), , 2, , 6, 4, , (iii), , (ii), , d. 3, , 5, , 3, , (iv), , Which number is opposite to number 5?, a. 6, b. 5, c. 1, 29., a. 2, , b. 3, , c. 5, , d. 6, , 6, 2, , 4, 4, , 2, , (i), , 24. Two positions of a dice are shown below. How many, points will be on the top when 2 points are at the bottom?, , 1, 3, , 3, , 30., b. 5, , c. 4, , 1, , 5, , (iv), , Which number is opposite to number 2?, a. 4, b. 6, c. 5, , a. 6, , 6, 2, , (iii), , (ii), , d. 3, , d. 1, , d. 3, 2, , 1, , 25. How many points will be on the face opposite to the face, which contains 2 points?, , 6, 3, , 5, 1, , 4, , (i), , 3, , 1, 2, , (iii), , (ii), , 4, , 2, , (iv), , Which number is opposite to number 5?, a. 4, b. 6, c. 1, , d. 3, , ANSWERS, a. 1, b. 5, c. 4, d. 6, Directions (26 to 30): In each of the following questions, four positions of the same dice have been shown. You have, to see these figures and select the number opposite to the, number as asked in each question., , 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , c, , b, , 5, , d, , a, , c, , d, , d, , b, , 10., d, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , b, , b, , d, , b, , b, , d, , a, , c, , c, , b, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , d, , d, , a, , d, , d, , a, , a, , c, , c, , d
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Blood Relationship, , I.A.89, , 13, , Blood Relationship, , In the examinations questions based on Blood Relationship are, related to our daily life. There is a long chain of relationships, exists in the families of all of us. The examiner asks the, questions on simple relationships but using indirect links of, these relationships. In order to solve these problems, analyse, the given statements carefully and systematically., , Note, , While attempting questions on Blood Relationship, first read, all the pieces of information as quickly as possible and then, point out the two persons between whom relationship is to be, established. Finally, try to corelate the given relationships., While concluding relationship between two persons be careful, about the sexes of the persons involved. Majority of the, students tend to define or derive relationship without caring for, sex of the persons., , For examples:, My father's only child means I (Myself)., Anita's husband's father-in-law's only daughter means Anita, (Herself)., , Blood Relations, great great great, grandparent, great great, grand uncle, , great great, grandparent, great grand, parent, grand, parent, parent, , SELF, , 1st cousin, 2 removed, , great, uncle, , brother, sister, , 2nd cousin, , 1st cousin, , nephew niece, , 2nd cousin, 2 removed, 2nd cousin, 1 removed, , 1st cousin, 1 removed, , uncle, , son, daughter, grandson, grant-daughter, , 1st cousin, 3 removed, , great great, uncle, , For solving problems involving blood relationships, sometimes, it would be convenient if a family tree is drawn. Students are, required to analyse the given statements and find out the, relationship., Mother’s or father’s son, : Brother, Mother’s or father’s daughter : Sister, Mother’s or father’s brother, : Uncle (paternal uncle if, he is father’s brother and maternal uncle if he is mother’s, brother), Mother’s or father’s sister, : Aunt, , 3rd cousin, , 2nd cousin, 1 removed, , 1st cousin, 1 removed, , grant nephew, grant niece, , 3rd cousin, 1 removed, , 1st cousin, 2 removed, , , , , , , , , , , , , , 4th cousin, , 3rd cousin, 1 removed, 2nd cousin, 2 removed, , Mother’s or father’s father, Mother’s or father’s mother, Grandmother’s brother, Grandmother’s sister, Grandfather’s brother, Grandfather’s sister, Son’s wife, Daughter’s husband, Husband’s or wife’s sister, Husband’s or wife’s brother, Brother’s of sister’s son, , 3rd cousin, 2 removed, , :, :, :, :, :, :, :, :, :, :, :, , Grandfather, Grandmother, Granduncle, Grandaunt, Granduncle, Grandaunt, Daughter-in-law, Son-in-law, Sister-in-law, Brother-in-law, Nephew
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I.A.90, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Brother’s or sister’s daughter :, Paternal grandfather’s only son :, Paternal grandmother’s only :, son, Grandfather’s son, :, Grandmother’s son, :, Paternal grandfather’s only, :, Paternal grandmother’s only, , :, , Uncle’s or aunt’s son or, daughter, Sister’s husband, Brother’s wife, Children of same parents, , :, :, :, , Husband or wife, , :, , :, , Niece, Father, Father, Father/uncle, Father/uncle, Mother, Daughter-in-law, Mother, Daughter-in-law, Cousin, Brother-in-law, Sister-in-law, Siblings (could be all, brothers, all sisters or, some brother and some, sisters), Spouse, , The following points are to be remembered while drawing a, family tree., , , The order of hierarchy is to be strictly maintained. To, make this point clear, consider a family of a person A,, consisting of his grandparents, parents, uncles, aunts,, sisters, brothers, wife, children, and grandchildren., , Grandfather and grandmother will come in the first stage, of the family tree., , Mother, father, uncles and aunts will come in the second, stage., , Sisters, brothers, and wife will come in the third stage, along with A., , Sons and daughters will come in the fourth stage., , Grandsons and daughters will come in the last stage., Some symbols are used to indicate relationships between, the two persons, as explained below:, , Vertical or diagonal lines are used to represent parentchild relationships., , Double horizontal lines with an arrow on both sides (), are used to represent husband-wife relationship., , Dotted horizontal line (……) is used to represent brothersister relationship., , Plus sign () is used to indicate a male and minus sign (–), is used to indicate a female., , Whenever the information is not clear or concealed, the, sign ‘?’is used., , To understand the concept of a family tree clearly, observe the, following family tree., Z……X, (–) (+), A, (?, , E, (–), , , , C , (+), , Z, (–), , D, (–), , ?, (+, , ?, (+), , The above family tree gives the following information:, , X and Y is a couple, where X is the husband and Y is the, wife., , X has a sister Z., , The couple X and Y have three children, namely A, C and, another son whose name is not given. C is a son and the sex, of A is not known., , C is married to D and they have a daughter E and a son, whose name is not known., , A and the other son of X are unmarried., In some questions, the relationship between two persons is, given in a roundabout manner by relating them through other, people. Students are required to analyse the series of, relationships given in the problems carefully in order to, determine the relationship between the two given persons., The information given in the problems can be broadly, classified into three categories:, (a) Actual information, (b) Useful secondary information, (c) Negative information, Example 1. Pointing to a man in a photograph, a woman said,, ‘His brother’s father is the only son of my grandfather’. How is, the woman related to the man in the photograph?, a. Aunt, b. Daughter, c. Grandmother, d. Sister, Solution: (d) Presume the name of the woman showing the, photograph as X and the name of the man in the photograph as Y., Y’s brother’s father means Y’s father and he is the only son of, X’s grandfather. This clearly indicates that Y’s father and X’s, father is one and the same. So, X is Y’s sister., Example 2. Six members of Kapoor’s family A, B, C, D, E, and, F are traveling in a sumo., (a) B is the son of C, but C is not the mother of B., (b) A and C are a married couple., (c) E is the brother of C.
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Blood Relationship, , I.A.91, , (d) D is the daughter of A., (e) F is the brother of B., 1. How many children do A have?, a. One, b. Three, c. Four, 2., , 3., 4., 5., , According to statement (c), E is the brother of C, and according, to statement (5), F is the brother of B. The final family tree, now appears as shown below., A C …… E, (–), (+) …. (+), , d. Two, , How is E related to B?, a. Brother, c. Father, , b. Uncle, d. Cannot be determined, , Who is the mother of B?, a. A, b. E, , c. D, , d. F, , Which of the following is a pair of females?, a. B, D, b. A, E, c. A, D, d. D, F, How many males are there in Kapoor’s family?, a. 3, b. 5, c. 2, d. 4, , Who is the wife of E?, a. A, b. F, c. B, d. Cannot be determined, Solution (1-6): In this example, we are required to establish, the relationship within the whole family and not just between, two individuals. If we construct a family tree, it enables us to, answer all the questions quickly and accurately. All the, statements in the example are actual information. Statement (a), and statement (d) provide information regarding the parentchild relationship. We can start analysing with either of these, two statements. We shall start with statement (d). D is the, daughter of A. On representing this relation, the family tree, starts as given below., 6., , D, (–), , With the help of the above family tree, we can answer all the, questions., Answer: 1. (b), , 2. (b), , How many male members are there in the family?, a. Three, b. Two, c. Four, d. Can’t be determined, , 3., , Which of the following is one of the two pairs of couples, in the family?, a. P, R, b. P, S, c. P, Q, d. Can’t be determined, , 4., , What is the profession of T?, a. Businessman, b. Philosopher, c. Dentist, d. Contractor, , What is the relation between P and T?, a. Uncle, b. Grandfather, c. Brother, d. Father, Solution: In the above example, let us consider statement (e), which states that Q is the mother of U and T., Q, (–?), , A C, (–), (+), , B, (+), , 6. (d), , 2., , 5., , Now, statement (a) states that B is the son of C, but C is not the, mother of B. From this it is clear that C is the father of B. This, means C is a male, and hence, A must be a female., , 5. (d), , What is the profession of P?, a. Dentist, b. Businessman, c. Manager, d. Advocate, , Next go to statement (b). A and C are a married couple., , D, (–), , 4. (c), , 1., , D, (–), , D, (–), , 3. (a), , Example 3. P, Q, R, S, T, and U are six members of a family,, and each of them is in a different profession, namely,, philosopher, manager, advocate, businessman, dentist, and, contractor., (a) In this group, there are two married couples., (b) The dentist is the grandfather of U who is a philosopher., (c) The manager S is married to P., (d) R, the businessman, is married to the advocate., (e) Q is the mother of U and T., , Z, (?), , A C, (?), (?), , F ……. B, (+), (+), , U, (??), , T, (??)
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I.A.92, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Next, let us look for the statement which gives clue on relationship, involving Q, U, or T. In statement (b), it is given that the dentist is, the grandfather of U who is a philosopher. Since Q is the mother, of U, she must be the daughter-in-law of the dentist., ?, (+, Dentist), , Since all the actual information has been used, let us read, statement (a) which states that there are two married couples in, the family. It implies that the dentist’s wife is alive. She must be, the manager S and the dentist must be P because the other couple, is businessman and advocate. Now, only R is remaining who, must be the husband of Q, and hence Q must be an advocate., The final family tree appears as under., P, , S, (+ Dentist), (– Manager), , ?Q, (–?), U, (Philosopher), , R, (+ Business), , T, (?’?), , The other two remaining statements are (c) and (d)., (The manager S is, S (? Manager) P (??), married to P), R (Businessman) ? (– Advocate) (R, the businessman, is, married to the advocate), Now, try to co-relate all the above three diagrams., , U, (? Philosopher), , , , Q, (– Advocate), , T, (? Contractor), , Observe that the sex of T and U can’t be determined. But the, profession of T must be contractor based on the USI.., Answer: 1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (b), , Multiple Choice Questions, Grandparents, 1. Geeta, who is Surendra’s daughter, says to Seema, “Your, mother Sarita is the younger sister of my father, who is, the third child of Deepak.” How is Deepak related to, Seema?, a. Maternal uncle, b. Grandfather, c. Data Inadequate, d. None of these, 2., , Q’s mother is sister of P and daughter of M. S is daughter, of P and sister of T. How is M related to T?, a. Grandmother, b. Father, c. Grandfather, d. Grandfather or Grandmother, , 3., , Pointing towards Seema, Bunty Said, “I am the only son, of the mother’s son.” How is Seema related to Bunty?, a. Niece, b. Aunt, c. Cousin, d. Mother, , 4., , A boy goes to see a moves and finds a man who is his, relative. The man is the husband of the sister of his, mother. How is the man related to the boy?, a. Nephew, b. Uncle, c. Brother, d. None of these, , 5., , Pointing towards a person, a man said to woman, “His, mother is the only daughter of your father.” How is the, woman related to the person?, a. Daughter, b. Sister, c. Mother, d. Wife, , 6., , Pointing towards a female in the picture, Suman said,, “She is the mother of Riya, whose father is my son.” How, is Suman realted to the female in the picture?, a. Aunt, b. Mother, c. Data Inadequate, d. None of these, , 7., , Sarita is mother-in-law of Deepa who is sister-in law of, Rajendra. Surendra is father of Ravindra, the only brother, of Rajendra. How is Sarita related to Rajendra?, a. Wife, b. Mother, c. Aunt, d. Mother-in-law, , 8., , A, B and C are sister. D is the brother of E and E is the, daughter of B. How is A related to D?, a. Sister, b. Cousin, c. Nice, d. Aunt, , 9., , A and B are sister’s. R and S are brother. ‘A’s daughter is, R’ sister. What is B’s relation to S?, a. Grandmother, b. Ant, c. Sister, d. Mother, , 10. A and B are sister. A is the mother of D. B has a daughter, C who is married of F. G is the husband of A. How is B, related to F ?, a. Sister-in-law, b. Mother-in-law, c. Mother, d. None of these
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Blood Relationship, , 11. My mother’s fathers’ only daughter’s only son is related, to me as, a. myself, b. brother, c. cannot be determined, d. Either myself or brother, 12. How is Rajendra’s mother’s husband’s mother’s, granddaughter related to Rajendra?, a. Aunt, b. Sister, c. Daughter, d. Cannot be determined, 13. Pointing to a boy, Nada said, ‘He is the son of my, grandfather’s only child. How is Nada related to that boy?, a. Cousin, b. Sister, c. Aunt, d. None of these, 14. Showing a lady in the park, Vikash said, ‘She is the, daughter of my grandfather’. How is Vikash related to, that lady?, a. Father, b. Uncle, c. Cousin, d. Brother, 15. Pointing to Roshan, Deepa says, “He is the son of my, grandfather’s only son.” How is roshan related to Deepa?, a. Cousin, b. Brother, c. Uncle, d. None of these, 16. Sushma told Seema, “The girl I met yesterday at the beach, was the youngest daughter of the brother-in-law of my, friend’s mother.” How is the girl related to Sushma’s friend?, a. Friend, b. Niece, c. Daughter d. Cousin, 17. A may said to a lady, “Your mother’s husband’s sister is, my aunt.” How is the lady related to the man?, a. Granddaughter, b. Aunt, c. Daughter, d. Sister, 18. Looking at a portrait of a man, Harendra said, “His, mother is the wife of my father’s son. Brothers and sister, I have none. “At whose portrait was Harendra looking?”, a. His nephew, b. His cousin, c. His uncle, d. His son, , I.A.93, , 22. If Twinkle says Riya’s father Ravindra is the only son of, my father-in-law Mahendra, then how is Priyanka, who is, the sister of Riya related to Mahendra?, a. Daughter, b. Daughter-in-law, c. Wife, d. None of these, 23. A is the uncle of B, who is the daughter of C and C is the, daughter-in-law of P. How is a related to P?, a. Brother, b. Son, c. Data inadequate, d. None of these, 24. A is father of X; B is mother of Y. the sister of X and Z is, Y which of following statements is definitely not true., a. B is the mother of Z, b. X is the sister of Z, c. Y is the son of A, d. b has one daughter, 25. D’s father’s mother’s son’s wife is related to D as:, a. Grandmother, b. Mother, c. Aunt, d. Cannot be determined, 26. A family has a man, his wife, their four sons and their, wives. The family of every son also has 3 sons and one, daughter. Find out the total number of male members in, the whole family., a. 4, b. 8, c. 12, d. 17, 27. Ravindra goes to visit his sister who has a daughter Taun., Tanu was playing carom with Bunty. How is Ravindra, related to Bunty?, a. Cousin, b. Brother, c. Uncle, d. Data inadequate, 28. Pointing to Priyanka, father of Bunty says, “She is the, daughter of the daughter of the wife of the only son of the, grandfather of my sister.” How is Sonam related to, Priyanka if Sonam is the sister of Bunty’s father?, a. Aunt, b. Cannot be determined, c. Niece, d. None of these, , 20. D’s Brother’s sister’s father’s brother is S and S’ daughter, is B. How is D related to B?, a. Niece, b. Uncle, c. Nephew d. Cousin, , 29. Two persons were quarrelling over their relationship with, a man in a photograph. One was saying that the man was, his grandfather, and another was also saying the same., But they were not brothers. What was the relationship, between them?, a. Cousins, b. Data inadequate, c. Brother and sister, d. None of these, , 21. How is Sushma’s daughter-in-law’s son’s son related to, Sushma’s husband?, a. Great grand son-in-law, b. Grandson, c. Cannot be determined, d. None of these, , 30. P’s father’s father is the husband of Q’s mother’s mother., How is P related to Q?, a. Cousin, b. Sister, c. Brother, d. Cannot be determined, , 19.Pointing towards a girl, a professor said, “She is the only, daughter of the only son of the wife of the father-in-law, of my wife.” How is the girl related with the professor?, a. Daughter-in-law, b. Daughter, c. Niece, d. None of these
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I.A.94, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , b, , d, , b, , b, , c, , d, , b, , d, , b, , b, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , d, , d, , b, , d, , b, , d, , d, , d, , b, , d, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , d, , d, , b, , c, , d, , d, , d, , b, , b, , d, , 8., , 9., , So,, , SOLUTIONS, , 2., , So,, So,, 3., So,, 4., , So,, 5., , So,, 6., , So,, , 7., , (b) Geeta Surendra’s daughter., Deepak father of Surendra., Deepak brother of Sarita., Sarita, mother of Seema., Therefore, ‘Deepak’ is the grandfather of ‘Seema’., (d) S Daughter of P., S Sister of T., T Daughter of P., Sister of P Daughter of M., P Son or daughter of M., T Grand daughter of M., (b) Seema’s mother’s son Seema’s brother, son of Seema’s brother Bunty, Therefore, ‘Seema’ is the aunt of ‘Bunty’, (b) Sister of one’s mother, one’s maternal aunt., the man is the husband of the boy’s maternal aunt., Therefore, the ‘man’ is the uncle of the ‘boy’., (c) Only daughter of woman’s father, she herself., person woman’s son, Therefore, the ‘woman’ is the mother of the person., (d) Riya Daughter of Suman’s son., Female in the picture Riya’s mother., Female in the picture Suman’s son’s wife., Therefore ‘Suman’ is the mother-in-law of the ‘female in, the picture’, (b) Sarita Mother-in-law of Deepa., Deepa Sister-in-law of Rajendra., Surendra Father of Ravindra., Ravindra only brother of Rajendra., The blood relationship tree/chart can be constructed as, given below:, Sarita, mother, , 1., , son, , Rajendra, , married, to, , Ravindra, , married, to, , 10., , So,, , 11., , 12., , So,, , 13., , So,, 14., , 15., , So,, 16., , So,, 17., , So,, , Surendra, , son, brother, , So,, , Deepa, , Therefore, ‘Sarita’ is the Mother of ‘Rajendra’., (d) E daughter of B., D brother of E., A sister of B., Therefore ‘A’ is the aunt of ‘D’., (b) Daughter of A Sister of R., R and S A’s sons or sons of A., [ A and B are sister and R and S are brothers], B sister of A., Therefore, ‘B’ is the aunt of ‘S’., (b) A D’s mother., F C’s husband., ‘C’ is wife of ‘F’, B C’s mother., Therefore, ‘B’ is the mother-in-law of ‘F’., [Note: Wife’s mother Mother-in-law.], (d) My mother’s father’s only daughter my mother., Therefore, my mother’s only son either-myself or my, brother., (d) Rajendra’s mother’s husband, Rajendra’s father., Rajendra’s father’s mother, Rajendra’s grandmother, Rajendra’s grandmother’s granddaughter, Rajendra’s sister or cousion., Therefore, the relationship cannot be determined., (b) Nada’s grandfather’s only child Nada’s father or, mother., this person’s son Nada’s brother, Therefore, ‘’Nada’ is the sister of the ‘boy’., (d) Only son of Vikash’s grandfather Rather of Vikash., Daughter of Vikash’s father sister of Vikash., Therefore, ‘Vikash’ is the brother of that ‘lady’., (b) My grandfather’s only son my father., Roshan son of Deepa’s father., Therefore, ‘Roshan’ is the brother of deepa., (d) Daughter of brother-in-law Niece, Mother’s Niece Cousin, Therefore, the ‘girl’ is the cousin of ‘Sushma’s friend’., (d) Lady’s mother’s husband, Lady’s father, Lady’s father’s sister Lady’s aunt, [ Lady’s aunt man’s aunt], Therefore, the ‘lady’ is sister of the ‘man’.
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Blood Relationship, , I.A.95, , 18. (d) Harendra’s father’s only son He himself, [ Harendra has no brother or sister], So, wife of Harendra’s father’s only son, Harendra’s wife, , So, Harendra’s wife man’s mother., Therefore, the ‘man’ is the son of Harendra., 19. (b) Wife of the father-in-law of person’s wife, person’s mother., So, only son of person’s mother person himself., Therefore, the ‘girl’ is the only daughter of the, ‘professor’., 20. (d) D’s brother’s sister D’s sister., D’s sister’s father D’s father., D’s father’s brother S., So, ‘S’ is the uncle of ‘D’, S’s daughter B, So, D’s uncle’s daughter D’s cousin., The blood relationship tree/chart can be constructed as, given., Brother, Father, , Father, , Father, D, , 24. (c) A father of X. Y sister of X., So, Y is the daughter of ‘A’, Therefore, option (c) is definitely not true., 25. (d) D’s father’s mother D’s grandmother., So, D’s grandmother’s son D’s father or uncle., Therefore, wife of D’s father D’s mother, Or, wife of D’s uncle D’s aunt, 26. (d) Male members in the family:, (i) Man himself (1),, (ii) Four sons (4), (iii) Twelve grandson i.e., (3 ), Therefore, total number of male members in the whole, family (1 + 4 + 12) 17, 27. (d) Ravindra’s sister’s daughter Tanu., So, Ravindra Tanu’s maternal uncle., But the relationship between Ravindra and Bunty is not, given., Therefore, the given data is inadequate., 28. (b) The blood relationship tree/chart can be constructed as, given below:, Bunty’s father i.e.,, grandfather, , S, daughter, D’s sister B, , Brother, D’s brother, , cousin, , Therefore, ‘D’ is the cousin of B’., 21. (d) Therefore, her grandson’s on, greater grandson., Sushma’s daughter-in-law’s son, Her grandson, 22. (d) Only son of Twinkle’s father-in-law, Twinkle’s husband, So, Ravindra Riya’s and Priyanka’s father., [ Priyanka and Riya are sisters], So, Mathendra Priyanka’s grandfather., Therefore, ‘Pryanka’s grandfather., Therefore, ‘Priyanka’ is grand daughter of ‘Mahendra’., 23. (b) B daughter of C., C daughter-in-law of P, , Maternal grand, mother of Priyanka, , Father of Bunty’s father, i.e., Bunt’s grandfather, , Mother of, Pi k, Priyank, , Bunty’s father, Bunty, , Sonam sister of Bunty’s father., If Sonam only sister of Bunty’s father., Then, Sonam mother of Priyanka., Therefore, we cannot determine exact relation., 29. (b) It is not clear that how many sons and daughters of the, man (in the photograph)., Therefore, the given data is inadequate., 30. (d) P’s father’s father P’s grandfather., P’s grandfather husband of Q’s mother’s mother i.e.,, grandmother., So, P and Q Siblings or Cousins, The blood relationship tree/chart can be constructed as, given below:, , So, P grandfather of B., , Grandmother, , A uncle of B, So, A brother of B’s father., Therefore, ‘A’ is the son of ‘P’, , , husband, , Grandfather, , Mother, , Father, , Q, , Q
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I.A.96, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 14, Venn diagrams are used to solve syllogisms and are, considered the standard way. A syllogism is a kind of logical, argument in which one proposition (the conclusion) is inferred, from two or more others (the premises)., Example:, , Premise 1: All women are mothers., , Premise 2: All mothers are caring., Conclusion: All women are caring., Shortcut rules (if Venn Diagrams are confusing you) between, Statement 1 and Statement 2 in that order, , All + All All, , All + No No, , All + Some No Conclusion, , Some + All Some, , Some + Some No Conclusion, , Some + No Some, Not, , No + No No Conclusion, , No + All Some not reversed, , No + Some Some not reversed, Note, Using Venn diagrams to explore direct, indirect, and transitive, reasoning; today’s mostly used method for solving syllogisms, based on Venn diagrams. With some practice we can be drawn, fairly quickly making them a valuable tool in solving syllogisms, in timed aptitude tests., To solve problems based on Venn diagrams we should learn first, set theory and the definitions of Universal set (all elements), sub, sets (all elements of this set contains the main set), set, intersection (common elements) and union set (set forms by, more than two sets elements)., Here are a few different types of Venn diagrams with their, implication made clear., Suppose you are given a group of three items. Then,, 1., , If the items evidently belong to three different groups, then, the Venn diagram representing it would be as shown, alongside., Example: Doctors, Engineers, Lawyers, These three items bear no relationship to each other. So,, they are represented as above, by 3 disjoint figures as P, representing Doctors, Q representing Engineers and R, representing Lawyers., , Venn Diagram, P, , Q, , R, , Figure 1, 2., , If one item belongs to the class of the second and the, second belongs to the class of third, then the, representation is in the form of three concentric circles, as, shown below., R, Q, P, , Figure 2, , 3., , Example: Seconds, Minutes, Hours, Clearly, seconds are a part of minutes and minutes are a, part of hours. The Venn diagram would be as shown in, the adjoining figure with circle P representing Seconds, Q, representing Minutes and R representing Hours., Ff two separate items belong to the class of the third, they are, represented by two disjoint circles inside a bigger circle., P, , Q, R, , Figure 3, , 4., , Example: Table, Chair, Furniture, Clearly, table and chair are separate items but both are, items of furniture., So, they would be represented as in the adjoining figure, with circle P representing table, circle Q representing, chair and circle R representing furniture., If two items belong to the class of the third such that, some items of each of these two groups are common in, relationship, then they are represented by two intersecting, circles enclosed within a bigger circle., , P, , Q, R, , Figure: 4
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Venn Diagram, , 5., , I.A.97, , Example: Males, Fathers, Brothers, Clearly, some fathers may be brothers. So, fathers and, brothers would be represented by two intersecting circles., Also, both fathers and brothers are males. So, the, diagrammatic representation would be as shown in figure, 4, with circle P representing Fathers, circle Q, representing Brothers and circle R representing Males., If two terms items are partly related to the third, and are, themselves independent of each other they are represented, by three intersecting circles in a line., P, , 8., , R, P, , R, , Q, , Figure 5, , 6., , Q, , Figure 8, , Example: Dogs, Pets, Cats, Clearly; some dogs and some cats are pets. But, all the, pets are not dogs or cats, Also, dogs and cats are not, related to each other. So, the given items would be, represented as shown in figure 5 with circle P, representing Dogs, circle Q representing Pets and circle R, representing Cats., If the three items are partly related to each other, they are, represented as shown in the adjoining figure., P, , Example: Engineers, Human Beings, Rats, Clearly, all engineers are human beings. This would be, represented by two concentric circles. But the class of rats, is entirely different from these two. Thus, these items, would be represented as shown in figure 7 with circle P, representing Engineers, circle Q representing Human, Beings and circle R representing Rats., If one items belongs to the class of second and the third, item is partly related to these two, they are represented as, shown alongside., , Q, , 9., , Example: Females, Mothers, Doctors, Clearly, all mothers are females. This would be, represented by two concentric circles. But, some females, and some mothers can be doctors. So, the circle, representing doctors would intersect the two concentric, circles. Thus, the diagram becomes as shown in figure 8, with circle P representing Mothers, circle R representing, Females and circle Q representing Doctors., If one items belongs to the class of second and the third, item is partly related to the second, they are represented, as shown alongside., , R, , Figure 6, , 7., , Example: Clerks, Government Employees, Educated, Persons, Clearly, some clerks may be government employees and, some may be educated. Similarly, some government, employees may be clerks and some may be educated., Also, some educated persons may be clerks and some, may be government employees., So, the given items may be represented as shown in figure, 6 with three different circles denoting the three classes., If one item belongs to the class of second while third item, is entirely different from the two, then they may be, represented by the adjoining diagram., , P, , Q, R, , Figure 7, , Figure 9, Example: Grass-eating Animals, Cows, Flesh-eating, Animals, Clearly, cows are grass-eating animals. So, they would, be represented by two concentric circles. But some grasseating animals are flesh-eating also. Thus, the Venn, diagram is as shown above with circle P representing, Cows, circle Q representing Grass-eating Animals and, circle R representing Flesh eating Animals., Example:, , All Canadians are right handed., , All right handed are opticians., , Conclusion: Some opticians are Canadian., To check the validity of this statement first the different terms, are appointed., Subject: Canadian, Predicate: Optician, Middle term: Right handed
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I.A.98, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , We will start with the first out of the two given statements, from above. The first thing to do is draw two circles and, write the terms Canadian and Right handed in them. The, circle with the word Canadian without the overlap, represents only Canadian people, while the part within the, overlap with the right handed circle represents all Right, handed Canadian people. Everything outside these two, circles represents everything not connected to these two, terms. With this one can think of plants, animals, cars but, even you and me., , Canadian, , This case is characterised as a valid reasoning, since the, conclusion can be drawn directly using the Venn diagram. It is, however also possible that additional information is needed in, order to check the validity of the conclusion. In that case the, reasoning is invalid., Examples:, Directions (1 to 4): In the following diagram, the square, represents girls, the circle tall persons, the triangle is for, tennis players and the rectangle stands for the swimmers., , Right, handed, , D, F, L, , 1st Statement: All Canadians are right handed. Thus this, means that all Canadian people outside the overlap of the two, circles are not involved in this statement, since they are not, connected to the term right handed., 2nd Statement: Subsequently the 2nd statement is reviewed., According to this statement all right handed are opticians. This, statement can be solved by drawing two circles; except the, overlap in the right handed circle, just as was done with the, first statement., Linking Statements: Linking the two statements and the, circles together results in the Venn Diagram. Here both the, first as well as the second statement are displayed. The, overlap between Right handed and Optician is clearly, shown, even as the absence of one between Canadian and, Opticians. Further it can be noticed that there is a small area, where all three term are overlapping, a part which is still, present., , Opticians, , Canadian, , B, , E, , G, , A, , C, I, , H, K, , J, , On the basis of the above diagram, answer the questions, given below., , Which letter represents tall girls who are swimmers but, don’t play tennis?, a. C, b. D, c. G, d. H, Sol: (c) Tall girls, who are swimmers are represented by the, region common to the square, circle and the rectangle, i.e. G and H. But, according to the given conditions,, the girls shouldn’t be tennis players. So, the required, region should not be a part of the triangle i.e. H should, be excluded. Thus, the region representing the persons, satisfying the given conditions is G. Hence, the answer, is (c)., 2. Which letter represents girls who are swimmers, play, tennis but are not tall?, a. B, b. E, c. F, d. None, Sol: (d) Girls who are swimmers and play tennis are, 1., , represented by the region common to the square, triangle, , Right, handed, , and rectangle i.e., H. But, it is given that the girls, shouldn’t be tall. So, the required region should not be a, , Now that the Venn diagram is completed, the validity of the, conclusion can be checked. The conclusion states: some, Opticians are Canadian. The Venn diagram clearly shows the, correctness of this conclusion. Although the overlap area, between both circle, there is still a small area in the middle, where all three terms are present. It is this area that results in, the correctness of the conclusion., , part of the circle. Since H is a part of the circle, so the, answer is (d)., Which letter represents tall girls who do not play tennis, and are not swimmers?, a. C, b. D, c. E, d. G, Sol: (b) Tall girls are represented by the region common to the, square and the circle i.e. D, C, G and H. But according to, 3.
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Venn Diagram, , 4., , I.A.99, , the given conditions, the girls are neither tennis players, nor swimmers. So, the required region should be neither a, part of the rectangle nor the triangle. G lies inside the, rectangle, C inside the triangle and H is common to both., So, the answer is (b)., Which letter represent tall persons who are gents and, swimmers but do not play tennis?, a. I, b. J, c. K, d. L, , Sol: (c) The tall persons are represented by regions inside the, circle i.e. C, D. G, H, I, J and K. Since the persons are not, girls and do not play tennis, so the region should not be a, part of either the square or the triangle. Thus, C, D, G, H, should be excluded. Also, according to the given, conditions, the persons should be swimmers. So, the, required region should be a part of the rectangle and such, a region is K. Hence, the answer is (c)., , Multiple Choice Questions, Direction (1 to 13): In each one of the following questions, contains three items using the relationship between these, items, match each question with the most suitable diagram., Your answer is the letter denoting that diagram., , (a), , (b), , (d), 1., 2., 3., 4., 5., 6., 7., 8., 9., , Deer, Rabbit, Mammal, a. a, b. b, c. c, , e. e, , 12. Thieves, Lawyers, Criminals, a. a, b. b, c. c, , d. d, , e. e, , 13. Sea, Island, Mountain, a. a, b. b, , d. d, , e. e, , c. c, , (e), d. d, , e. e, , (a), e. e, , Whales, Fishes, Crocodiles, a. a, b. b, c. c, , e. e, , d. d, , (b), , (d), d. e, , e. e, , Mountains, Forests, Earth, a. a, b. b, c. c, , d. d, , e. e, , Tiger, Fox, Carnivores, a. a, b. b, c. c, , d. d, , e. e, , Grams, Beans, Legumes, a. a, b. b, c. c, , d. d, , Direction (14 to 19): In each one of the following questions, choose the Venn diagram which best illustrates the, relationship among three given circles., , (c), , Human beings, Teachers, Graduates, a. a, b. b, c. c, d. d, , Plums, Tomatoes, Fruits, a. a, b. b, c. c, , 11. Engineer, Doctor, People, a. a, b. b, c. c, , d. d, , e. e, , (c), , (e), , 14. Diseases, Leprosy, Scurvy, a. a, b. b, c. c, , d. d, , e. e, , 15. Hockey, Cricket, Games, a. a, b. b, c. c, , d. d, , e. e, , 16. Yak, Zebra, Bear, a. a, b. b, , c. c, , d. d, , e. e, , c. c, , d. d, , e. e, , Flowers, Clothes, White, a. a, b. b, c. c, , d. d, , e. e, , 17. Sun, Moon, Stars, a. a, b. b, , Uncles, Parents, Friends, a. a, b. b, c. c, , d. d, , e. e, , 18. Animals, Men, Plants, a. a, b. b, , c. c, , d. d, , e. e, , e. e, , 19. Mercury, Mars, Planets, a. a, b. b, c. c, , d. d, , e. e, , 10. Rohtak, Haryana, Punjab, a. a, b. b, c. c, , d. d
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I.A.100, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Direction (20 to 29): Of the four alternatives in each of the, following questions, three alternatives are such that the, three words in each are related among themselves in one of, the five ways represented by (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) below, while none of these relationships is applicable to the, remaining alternative. That is your answer., , (a), , (b), , 29. a. Mineral, Iron, Copper, b. Dean, Painter, Singer, c. Seed, Leaf, Root, d. Piston, Engine, Wheel, Directions (30 to 34): In the following figure, rectangle,, square, circle and the triangle represent the regions of, wheat, gram, maize and rice cultivation respectively. On, the basis of the above figure, answer the following, questions., , (c), 4, , 5, , (d), 20. a. Army, General, Colonel, c. Painter, Scholar, Table, , 1, , 3, 8, 7, 6, , (e), b. Boy, Student, Player, d. Man, Typist, Peon, , 2, 9, 10, 11, , 21. a. Hen, Dog, Cat, b. Body, Ear, Mouth, c. Bed, Ward, Nurse, d. Tiger, Animal, Carnivorous, , 30. Which area is cultivated by all the four commodities?, a. 7, b. 8, c. 9, d. 2, , 22. a. Atmosphere, Air, Oxygen b. Boy, Girl, Student, c. Man, Worker, Garden, d. Animal, Dog, Cat, , 32. Which area is cultivated by rice only?, a. 5, b. 1, c. 2, , d. 011, , 23. a. Animal, Mammal, Cow, b. Colour, Cloth, Merchant, c. Colour, Red, Blue, d. Male, Horse, Mare, , 33. Which area is cultivated by maize only?, a. 10, b. 2, c. 3, , d. 4, , 24. a. Bed, Hand, Finger, b. Mammal, Nurse, Woman, c. Cereal, Wheat, Rice, d. Males, Cousins, Nephews, 25. a. Bed, Ward, Hospital, c. Copper, Zinc, Iron, , b. Boy, Girl, Player, d. Book, Girl, Player, , 26. a. Star, Moon, Mars, b. Professor, Scholar, Politician, c. Nurse, Doctor, Woman, d. Swimmer, Carpenter, Singer, 27. a. Periodical, Weekly, Book, b. Swimmer, Carpenter, Singer, c. Doctors, Human beings, Married people, d. Army, Doctor, Engineer, 28. a. Director, Engineer, Musician, b. Apple, Orange, Mango, c. Fruit, Mango, Grass, d. Oxygen, Air, Water, , 31. Which area is cultivated by wheat and maize only?, a. 8, b. 6, c. 5, d. 4, , 34. Which area is cultivated by rice and maize and nothing else?, a. 9, b. 8, c. 2, d. 7, Directions (35 to 40): In the following figure, the circle, stands for employed, the square stands for hard-working,, the triangle stands for rural and the rectangle stands for, intelligent. Study the figure carefully and answer the, questions that follow., 5, , 4, 12, , 7, , 3, 1, 11, , 2, 9, , 6, 8, 10, , 35. Non-rural, employed, hard-working and intelligent people, are indicated by region., a. 8, b. 9, c. 10, d. 11, e. 12, 36. Non-rural, employed people who are neither intelligent, nor hard-working are represented by region., a. 12, b. 11, c. 10, d. 7, e. 05
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Venn Diagram, , I.A.101, , 37. Intelligent, employed and hard-working non-rural people, are indicated by region., a. 11, b. 6, c. 9, d. 4, e. 3, 38. Hard-working non-rural people who are neither employed, nor intelligent are shown by region., a. 8, b. 7, c. 6, d. 10, e. 12, , 39. Employed, hard-working and intelligent rural people are, indicated by region., a. 1, b. 2, c. 3, d. 4, e. 5, 40. Rural hard-working people who are neither employed nor, intelligent are indicated by region., a. 6, b. 5, c. 4, d. 3, e. 2, , ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , b, , c, , a, , e, , c, , b, , b, , d, , a, , e, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , b, , e, , e, , a, , a, , b, , c, , c, , a, , c, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , a, , c, , b, , d, , c, , c, , c, , b, , c, , a, , 31., , 32., , 33., , 34., , 35., , 36., , 37., , 38., , 39., , 40., , d, , b, , c, , c, , b, , d, , c, , e, , a, , d, , (c) Mountains and Forests are parts of earth. But, some, mountains are forested and some forests are mountainous., Earth, , Mountains, , 6., , SOLUTIONS, 1., , 5., , (b) Deer and Rabbit are unrelated items. But, both are, mammals., , Forests, , (b) Tiger and Fox are unrelated and entirely different. But, both are carnivores or flesh eating animals., Carnivores, , Mammals, , Tiger, Deer, , 2., , Rabbit, , 7., , (c) All teachers and graduates are human beings. But,, some teachers can be graduates and some graduates can, be teachers., , Fox, , (b) Grams and Beans are entirely different from each, other. But both are legumes., Legumes, , Human beings, Grams, , Teachers, , 3., , Graduates, , 8., , (a) Whales, Fishes and Crocodiles are all separate items,, entirely different from each other. So they would be, represented by three disjoint circles., , Beans, , (d) Some flowers are white. Some clothes are white. But,, all white things are not flowers or clothes., Clothes, , Flowers, White, , Fishes, , 9., Crocodiles, , 4., , (a) Uncles, Parents and Friends are entirely different iron, each other., , (e) All plums are fruits. But, tomatoes are entirely different., Fruits, Tomatoes, , Plums, , Uncles, , Parents, , Friends
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I.A.102, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 10. (e) Rohtak is a part of Haryana, Punjab is a separate state., , 17. (c) Sun is a star. Moon is entirely different from the two., , Haryana, , Star, Punjab, , Moon, , Rohtak, , 11. (b) Both Engineer and Doctor are people. But both of, them are different from each other., , Sun, , 18. (c) Sun is a star. Moon is entirely different from the two., Animals, , People, , Plants, , Engineer, , Doctor, , 12. (e) All thieves are criminals. But lawyers are entirely, different., , Men, , 19. (a) Mercury and Mars are entirely different from each other., Planets, , Criminals, Lawyers, Mercury, Thieves, , 13. (e) Island is a part of sea. But, Mountain is entirely different., Sea, , Mars, , 20. (c) This group of items can be represented as shown in, Figure. Since there is no such diagram in the question, so, (c) is the answer., , Mountain, , Island, , Scholar, , Painter, , 14. (a) Both Leprosy and Scurvy are diseases. But, both are, entirely different from each other., Diseases, , Table, , Leprosy, , Scurvy, , 21. (a) This group of items can be represented as shown in, Figure. Since there is no such diagram in the question, so, (a) is the answer., , 15. (a) Both Hockey and Cricket are games. But both are, entirely different from each other., Games, Dog, , Hen, , Hockey, , Cat, , Cricket, , 16. (b) Yak, Zebra and Bear are all Hockey different from, each other., , 22. (c) This group of items can be represented as shown in, Figure. Since there is no such diagram in the question, so, (c) is the answer., Worker, , Zebra, , Yak, , Bear, , Man, , Garden
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Venn Diagram, , I.A.103, , 23. (b) This group of items can be represented as shown in, Figure. Since there is no such diagram in the question, so, (b) is the answer., , Cloth, , Colour, , Merchant, , Apple, , Orange, , Mango, , 29. (c) This group of items can be represented as shown in, Figure. Since there is no such diagram in the question, so, (c) is the answer., , 24. (d) This group of items can be represented as shown in, Figure. Since there is no such diagram in the question, so, (d) is the answer., , Leaf, , Seed, , Cousins, , Root, Males, , Nephews, , 25. (c) This group of items can be represented as shown in, Figure. Since there is no such diagram in the question, so, (c) is the answer., , Zinc, , Copper, , Iron, , 26. (c) This group of items can be represented as shown in, Figure. Since there is no such diagram in the question, so, (c) is the answer., , Moon, , Star, , Mars, , 27. (c) This group of items can be represented as shown in, Figure. Since there is no such diagram in the question, so, (c) is the answer., Human beings, , Doctors, , Married, , co ples, , 30. (a) The required region is the one common to the, rectangle, square, circle and the triangle i.e. 7., 31. (d) The required region is the one which is common to, only the rectangle and the circle and is not a part of either, the triangle i.e. 4., 32. (b) The required region is the one which lies inside the, triangle and outside the rectangle, square and circle i.e., 1., 33. (c) The required region is the one which lies inside the, circle but outside the rectangle, square and triangle i.e. 8, 34. (c) The required region is the one which is common to, only the triangle and the circle i.e. 2., 35. (b) The required set of people is represented by the region, which lies outside the triangle and is common to the, circle, square and rectangle i.e. 9., 36. (d) The required set of people is represented by the region, which lies outside the triangle, inside the circle but, outside the rectangle and the square i.e. 7., 37. (c) The required set of people is represented by the region, which is common to the rectangle, circle and square but, lies outside the triangle i.e. 9., 38. (e) The required set of people is denoted by the region, which lies inside the square but outside the triangle, circle, and rectangle i.e. 12., 39. (a) The required set of people is denoted by the, region common to the circle, square, rectangle and, triangle i.e. 1., 40. (d) The required set of people is represented by the region, which is common to the triangle and the square but lies, outside the circle and rectangle i.e. 3., , 28. (b) This group of items can be represented as shown in, Figure. Since there is no such diagram in the question, so, (b) is the answer.,
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I.A.104, , 15, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Placing and Ordering Puzzles, , To solve the problems on seating arrangements, we should first, focus on the actual information, keeping aside the useful, secondary information (USI). The following steps should be, followed in order to solve the problems on seating, arrangements., Draw a diagram of empty places. If the people are sitting in a, row, draw a horizontal line. Otherwise draw the diagram as per, the specifications given in the problem., , Using the entire definite information, fill up as many, empty places as possible., , Then examine the comparative information, negative, information, and USI, if any. After considering all the, possibilities and without violating any of the conditions,, complete the seating diagram. Once the seating diagram is, completed, it is very easy to answer the questions asked in, the problem., Type 1: Mukesh is 12th from both ends of a row. How many, candidates are there in the row?, Solution: Since Mukesh is 12 from both sides of the row. It, means 11 persons are to his left and 11 are to his right. He is, 12th from both ends. So, total candidates are 11 + 1 + 11 =, 23 candidates., Type 2: Sita is 12th from left and 15th from right end of a row., How many persons are there in the row?, Solution: Shortcut trick to the solution of the problem is, simple., Just add the two given numbers and subtract 1 from them. You, will find the number of person in the row. Total persons in the, row 12 + 15 – 1= 26 persons., Type 3: Suman and Suresh are standing in a queue. Suman is, 9th from left and Suresh is 6th from right. When both, interchange their positions, Suman becomes 15th from left. Find, out new position of Suresh from right end., Solution: Ranking test shortcut trick to solve this problem is, given below., Suman’s position changes from 9th to 15th from left end. So, there is an increase of 6 ranks. Since Suman and Suresh both, interchanged their positions, so there must be the same increase, in rank of Suresh position from right. So, Suresh position 6 +, 6 12th from right. So determine the increase or decrease in, position of common end and add the increase or subtract the, decrease., , Type 4: Sonal and Mahi are standing in a row of boys. Sonal is, 14th from left and Mahi is 7th from right. If both interchange, their positions, Mahi becomes 15th from the right. Find out the, total number of boys in that row., Solution: The ranking test problem can easily be solved by the, shortcut trick given below., Find out the common person who’s position is given two times., In this question, Mahi’s position changes from 7th to 15th from, right. Since he is at 15th position after interchanging, so it, means 14 boys are to his right. Now Mahi is at Sonal’s, position which is 14th from left means 13 boys are to his left., Add all these left and right means 14 + 13 + 1 (Mahi’s own, position) 28 boys in row., Note, Why the seating plan is the single most important piece of, behavioural modification equipment you have in your toolbox, in classroom., , You are not necessarily the cleverest person in your classroom., You may not even be in the top ten. Yes, you are the one with, a degree. You are the big shot, for now. But, let’s face it, you, have no idea what the children in front of you may one day, become. Something altogether more impressive than a piffling,, cardigan clad, Cornish-pasty-shoe-wearing school teacher,, perhaps?, Any survey of students that asks them the important question,, “How do you learn best?” finds the same answer at the top of, the list. “Groups,” their replies will scream, with one, impassioned voice. “We learn best in groups. WHY WON’T, ANYONE LISTEN TO US?”, Having your desks set out in groups is the right way to, organise your classroom. Period. No discussion. No, arguing., Linear Arrangement, Example 1. Five friends, A, B, C, D, and E are sitting on a, bench in a park., a: A is sitting next to B., b: C is sitting next to D., c: D is not sitting with E., d: A is to the right of B and E.
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Placing and Ordering Puzzles, , I.A.105, , e: E is at the left end of the bench., f: C is at the second position from the right., g: A and C are sitting together., 1., , 2., 3., , 4., , Where is A sitting?, a. Between B and D, c. Between C and E, , b. Between D and C, d. Between B and C, , Who are sitting on either side of C?, a. A and E, b. A and D c. B and D, What is the position of B?, a. Extreme left, c. Second from left, , If Vinutha and Kinnera mutullay exchange their places, without any change in the arrangement of other positions,, who will be sitting to the immediate left of Ramya?, a. Kinnera, b. Preethi, c. Urmila, d. Vinutha, e. None of these, , 3., , If only Simran is sitting between Preethi and Vinutha,, who is sitting exactly at the centre?, a. Preethi, b. Urmial, c. Vinutha, d. Ramya, e. None of these, , 4., , If Ramya exchanges her place with Mandakinini and, Vinutha exchanges her place with Urmila, then how, many girls will be there between Urmila and Ramya?, a. Two, b. Three, c. Four, d. Five, e. Cannot be determined., , 5., , In addition to the above statements, which of the, following statements cannot specify the seating position, of every girl?, a. Ramya and Simran have two girls sitting between, them., b. Vinutha and Urmila have two girls between them., c. Mandakini and Preethi have two girls between them., d. There are two girls sitting between Preethi and, Kinnera., e. Every statement given above specifies the seating, arrangement of every girl., , d. D and E, , b. Centre, d. Second from right, , Who is sitting at the centre?, a. B, b. D, c. C, , 2., , d. A, , What is the position of D?, a. Extreme right, b. Second from left, c. Third from left, d. Extreme left, Answer: 1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (a), Solution (1 to 5): In the given statements, observe that, statements (f) and (g) constitute definite information., Statements (b), (c), (e), and (f) constitute comparative, information, whereas statement (d) gives negative information., Starting with the definite information given in statements (f), and (g), we can draw the following seating diagram., E _ _ C _, 5., , Now, let us go to comparative information that tells us, about E and C. Consider statements (g) and (b), which state, that A and C are sitting together and also A and B are next, to each other. It implies that A is sitting between B and C., Further, statement (5) states that A is to the right of B and, E., This leads to the following position :, E B A C _, Now, consider statement (c). C is sitting next to D. On plotting, this information we get the complete seating diagram as under., E B A C D, Example 2. Seven girls, Ramya, Simran, Vinutha, Mandakini,, Urmila, Preethi, and Kinnera, are sitting in a row. Simran is, sitting to the immediate left of Vinutha and third to the right of, Ramya, whereas Mandakini, who is sitting at the extreme left,, is sitting next to Kinnera., 1., , Who is sitting to the immediate left of Ramya?, a. Mandakini, b. Urmila, c. Kinnera, d. Preethi, e. Cannot be determined, , Analysis, , Based on the data given above, let us draw the seating diagram., Let us represent these seven girls by the first letter of their, name as R-Ramya, S-Simran, V-Vinutha, M-Mandakini, UUrmila, P-Preethi, K-Kinnera. M-Mandakini, who is sitting at, the extreme left, if sitting next to Kinnera., M K __ __ __ __ __, L→, →R, Simran is sitting to the immediate left of Vinutha and third to, the right of Ramya. This can be denoted as under., R __ __, S V, Combining the above two diagrams, we can deduce the, Vinutha is sitting at the extreme right end of the row. Thus, the, seating arrangement will be:, M K R __ __ S V, The two vacant positions between Ramya and Simran are to be, occupied by Preethi and Urmila.
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I.A.106, , 1., 2., , 3., , Solution (c): From the final seating diagram we notice, that Kinnera is sitiing to the immediate left of Ramya., Solution: (d) If Vinutha and Kinnera mutually exchange, their positions, then Vinuth will be sitting to the, immediate left of Ramya., Solution: (b) If Simran sits between Preethi and Vinutha,, then the seating diagram takes the following form., M, , 4., , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , K, , R, , U, , P, , S, , V, , It is clear that Urmila is sitting at the centre of the row., Solution: (d) The seating arrangement is:, M, , K, , R, , P/U, , U /P, , S, , V, , If Ramya exchanges her place with Mandakini and, Urmila with Vinutha, then the seating arrangement will be, as follows:, R, , K, , M, , P/V, , V /P, , S, , U, , Observe from the above seating diagram that there are, five girls sitting between Ramya and Urmila., 5. Solution: (a) Based on statement (1), the seating, arrangement will be, M, , K, , R, , P/U, , U /P, , S, , If six persons are sitting around a circular or rectangular table,, there positions can be marked as under., , If eight persons are sitting around a square table – four persons, at the middle of the sides and four persons at the corners – the, positions can be shown as:, Note, Whenever the phrase ‘A is sitting one seat away from B’ is, used, students should understand that there is one person, between A and B. It is as good as saying that A is sitting in, the second seat from B. Similarly, if A is sitting two seats, away from B, it implies that there are two persons between, A and B. This is the same as saying that A is sitting in the, third seat from B., , V, , The position of all the seven girls cannot be determined, since position of Preethi and Urmila ar not certain. Based, on statement (2), the seating arrangement is as follows:, M, , K, , R, , U, , P, , S, , V, , Based on statement (3), the seating arrangement is as, follows:, M, , K, , R, , P, , U, , S, , V, , Based on statement (4), the seating arrangement is as, follows:, M, , K, , R, , U, , P, , S, , V, , Form the above arrangements, we can infer that only, statement (1) does not specify the seating position of, every girl., Circular Arrangement, The seating positions of people around a table depends on the, shape of tables: could be a square, a rectangle, a circle, a, hexagon, etc. These types of problems will have statements, such as persons sitting opposite to each other, a particular, person sitting to the right or left of another person, etc. If four, persons are sitting around a square, rectangular, or circular, table, the positions can be marked as follows:, , Example 3. P, Q, R, S and T, sit around a circular table and, play ‘Rummy’. P is sitting one seat away to the left of R, and Q, is sitting one seat away to the right of R., 1. If S sits between Q and R, who sits to the immediate right, of P?, a. T, b. S, c. Q, d. R, 2., , Which of the following cannot be the correct seating, arrangement of these persons either in clockwise or, anticlockwise direction?, a. P Q R S T, b. P S R T Q, c. P Q S R T, d. P T R S Q, , 3., , If S is not sitting next to Q, who is sitting between Q and S?, a. R, b. P, c. T, d. Cannot be determined, , 4., , If another person U joins the game, but does not sit next, to R, whereas the others sit in their earlier positions, then, which of the following statements is correct?, a. U sits to the immediate right of S, b. U sits to the immediate left of P, c. U sits to the immediate left of T, d. Either (a) or (b)
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Placing and Ordering Puzzles, , I.A.107, S or T, , Solution (1 to 5): Based on the conditions given in the, statements, P sits one seat away to the left of R and Q sits one, seat away to the right of R. We can draw their positions as, shown in the adjacent figure., , R, T or S, , P, , 3., , S or T, Q, , Q, , R, , Solution (b): If S is not sitting next to Q, then the, arrangement will be as shown in the adjacent diagram., T, , T or S, , P, , Now, the questions can be answered as under:, 1. Solution (a): If S sits between Q and R, then the, arrangement will be as shown in the adjacent figure. So, T, is sitting to the immediate right of P., , R, , P, , S, , Now, P is between Q and S., 4., , S, Q, , Q, , R, , Solution (b): On the basis of the positions of P, Q, R, S, and, T in the diagram, U can be positioned between P and Q. If U, sits in any other positions, original conditions get violated., S or T, , P, , T, , Solution (a): Try each of the given options and find out, which option fails to indicate a correct seating, arrangements?, Multiple Choice Questions, 2., , 1., , In a March past, seven persons are standing in a row. Q is, standing left to R but right to P.O is standing right to N, and left to P. Similarly, S is standing right to R and left to, T. Find out who is standing in the middle?, a. P, b. Q, c. R, d. O, , 2., , In a shop, there were 4 dolls of different heights A, B, C, and D. D in neither as tall as A nor as short as C. B is, shorter then D but taller than C. If Mani wants to, purchase the tallest doll, which one should she purchase?, a. Only A, b. Only B, c. Either A or D, d. Either B or D, , 3., , Six students A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a field. A and, B are from Delhi while the rest are from Bangalore. D and, F are tall while others are short A, C, D are girls while, others are boys. Which is the tall girl from Bangalore?, a. C, b. D, c. E, d. F, Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a circle. B is, between F and C; A is between E and D; F is to the left of, D. Who is between A and F?, a. B, b. C, c. D, d. A, P, Q, R S and T are sitting around a circular table. R is to, the right of P and is second to the left of S. T is not, between P and S. Who is second to the left of R?, a. Q, b. S, c. T, d. Data inadequate, , 4., , 5., , Q, , R, , U, , T or S, P, , 6., , A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a round table. A is, between E and F, E is opposite to D, and C is not in either, of the neighbouring seats of E. Who is opposite to B?, a. C, b. D, c. F, d. A, , Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are standing in a circle. B, is between D and C. A is between E and C. F is to the, right of D. Who is between A and F?, a. B, b. C, c. D, d. E, 8. What is T’ is position with respect to W when T, W, R, J,, and M are sitting around a circle facing the centre?, I. R is second to the left of M and second to the right of W., II. J is not an immediate neighbour of M., 9. M, D, T and W are sitting around a circle facing at the, centre. Who is to the immediate left of D?, I. M is between T and W and D is the immediate left of T., II. D is second to the left of M., 10. A, B, C, D and E are sitting around a circular table facing, the centre. Who is to the immediate left of C?, I. Only A is between E and B., II. D is to the immediate left of B., 11. P, Q, R and S are sitting around a circle facing at the centre., Who is to the immediate right of Q?, I. R is between P and S., II. S is to the immediate right of R., 12. P, Q, R, S and T are sitting around a circle facing towards, its centre. Who is second to the right of P?, 7.
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I.A.108, , I. R is to the immediate left of T and second to the right, of S., II. Q is to the immediate right of S and third to the left of P., 13. Who is sitting to the immediate right of Tanisha among, five friends sitting around a circle facing the centre?, I. Ayesha is sitting exactly between Kanak and Sneha, and Raj is sitting to the immediate right of Sneha., II. Tanisha is sitting exactly between Kanak and Raj and, Ayesha is sitting to the immediate right of Kanak., 14. Whoa among A, B, C and D is sitting next to A if all the, four are sitting in a straight line facing North?, I. A does not sit next to D, who does not sit next on the, extreme right., II. None sit to the left of A and on the right of B, while, only one person sits between Ca and B., 15. Who is to the immediate right of P among five persons P,, Q, R, S and T facing North?, I. R is third to the left of Q and P is second to the right, of R., II. Q is to be immediate left of T who is second to the, right of P., 16. In a row of five children A, B, C, D and E who is standing, in the middle?, I. D is to the immediate right of E and B is to the, immediate left of E., II. B is at the extreme left of the row., 17. In a row of five building P, Q, R, S and T, which building, is in the middle?, I. Building S and Q are at the two extreme ends of the, row., II. Building T is to the right of building R., 18. Five friends P, Q, R, S and T are standing in a row facing, East. Who is standing at the extreme right end?, I. Only P is between S and T. R is to the immediate right, of T., II. R is between T and Q., 19. Six students P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting in the field. P and, Q are from Noida while the rest are from Gurgaon. S and U, are tall while others are others are short. P, R and S are girls, while others are boys. Which is the tall girl form Gurgaon?, a. R, b. S, c. T, d. U, 20. In an IPL cricket series, Mumbai Indians defeated Delhi, Daredevils twice, Deccan Chargers defeated Mumbai, Indians twice, Delhi Daredevils defeated Deccan Chargers, twice, Mumbai Indians defeated Kolkata Knight Riders, twice, and Deccan Chargers defeated Kolkata Knight, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Riders twice. Which team has lost most number of times?, a. Mumbai Indians, b. Delhi Daredevils, c. Kolkata Knight Riders, d. Deccan Chargers, 21. On a shelf in a public library are placed six volumes sideby-side labeled L, M, N, P, Q and R. M, N, Q, R have red, covers while others have blue covers. L, M, P are new, volumes while the rest are old volumes. L, M, N are, dictionaries while the rest are encyclopaedias. Which two, volumes are old encyclopaedias and have red covers?, a. M, N, b. N, P, c. N, Q, d. Q, R, 22. Three persons A, B and C wore shirts of red, yellow and, green colours (not necessarily in the order) and pants of, black, white and green colours (not necessarily in that, order). No person wore pant and shirt of the same colour., A did not wear shirt of red colour., B did not wear shirt of yellow colour., C did not wear shirt of green colour., A did not wear pant of black colour ., B wore pant of green colour ., What were the colours of pant and shirt wore by C,, respectively?, a. Whit and red, b. White and yellow, c. Black and yellow, d. Green and red, 23. In a bakery shop, the items were arranged in a shelf, consisting of six rows. Biscuits are arranged above the, tins of chocolates but below the rows of packets of chips,, cakes are at the bottom and the bottles of peppermints are, below the chocolates. The topmost row had the display of, jam bottles. Where exactly are the bottles of peppermints?, Mention the place from the top., a. 2nd, b. 3rd, c. 4th, d. 5th, 24. Six ladies – P, Q, R, S, T and U – sat around a round table, for a kitty party at the Kwality Hotel. Q is between S and, R. P is between T and R. U is to the right of S. Who is, between P and U?, a. Q, b. R, c. S, d. T, 25. Six executives of the XYZ company – P, Q, R, S, T and U, – sat around a round table in the conference room for a, meeting. P is between T and U, T is opposite to S, and R, is not in either of the neighboring seats of T. Who is, opposite to Q?, a. R, b. S, c. U, d. None of these, 26. In a pile of 10 books, there are 3 of science, 3 of english, 2, of economics and 2 of history., Taking from above, there is a history book between a, science and economics book, a science book between an
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Placing and Ordering Puzzles, , I.A.109, , economics and a history book, an english book between a, history and an economics book, an economics book, between two english books, and two english books between, an economics and a science book. Book of which subject is, at the sixth position form the top?, a. History, b. English, c. Economics d. Science, 27. Five children were administered psychological tests to, know their intellectual levels. In the report, the, psychologists pointed out that the child A is less, intelligent than the child B, the child C is less intelligent, than the child D, the child B is less intelligent than the, child C and the child A is more intelligent than the child, E. Which child is the most intelligent?, a. A, , b. B, , c. D, , 28. P, Q, R, S and T are five typists in an office. Q types faster, than R but not as fast as V. T types faster than R. S types, faster than V. Who amongst the five types the fastest?, a. S, b. T, c. V, d. Insufficient information, 29. Five girls took part in a race. Reena finished before, Mohini but behind Gauri. Ananya finished before Sanchi, but behind Mohini. Who won the race?, a. Reena, b. Gauri, c. Mohini, d. Ananya, 30. Six students participated in a 400-metre race., , Ram finished after Amar and 2 other students., Amar finished after Sameer., Firoz finished before Sameer., Vinod finished before Hari., Who came fifth?, , d. E, , a. Ram, , b. Amar, , c. Firoz, , d. Vinod, , ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , b, , a, , b, , c, , a, , c, , d, , e, , a, , e, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , e, , b, , c, , b, , c, , e, , d, , e, , b, , c, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , d, , c, , d, , d, , c, , b, , c, , d, , b, , d, , Putting the value of A in (ii), we get C , , 5., , A = C., Since A + B > C + D and A = C, we get B > D., Thus from (iii) we get B > A and so B > C, (a) R is to the right of P and is second to the left of S., , SOLUTIONS, , T, , (b) Q is left to R and to the right of P P, Q, R., Q is to the right of N and left of P N, O, P., S is to the right of R and left of T R, S, T., Thus the order is N, O, P, Q, R, T and so Q is the middle., 2. (a) D is not as tall as A D < A, D is not as short as C D > C., B is shorter than D but taller than C, C < B < D., Thus we have C < B < D < A., So, A is the tallest., 3. (b) Clearly D is tall girl, and from Bangalore., 4. (c) Clearly D is between A and F. All persons are facing, each other, Questions 7 to 19., , S, , 1., , F, D, A, , B, , R, , Since T is not between P and S, so Q is second to the left of R., 6. (c) E is opposite to D. A is between E and F. Since C is, not the neighbor of E,, So, the only neighbouring blank position of E is occupied, by B., C, , E, , D, , D, , B, , F, E, , 7., , C, , P, , Q, , OR, , . . . (i), . . . (ii), . . . (iii), , C, , F, B, , A, , A, , E, , Clearly there are two possible arrangements. In each, arrangement, F is opposite B., (d) F is to the right of D. B is between D and C. A is, between E and C. Thus the arrangement is shown in the, adjoining figure. Clearly E is between A and F., A, , We have A + B > C + D, A+C>B+D, 1, And A (B + D), 2, , 1, (B+D) i.e.,, 2, , C, , E, F, , B, D
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I.A.110, , 8., , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , (e) Form statement I:, R second to the left of M, R second to the right of W., From statement II:, J not an immediate neighbour of M., Combining I and II, we get, , Q, , R, M, , ?, , R, , T, , So, E immediate left of C. Therefore, the data in both, statements I and II together are necessary to answer the, given question., 11. (e) From statement I: Between P and S R., W, , OR, , M, , T, , So, T second to the left of W., Therefore, the data in both the statements I and II together, are necessary to answer the given question., 9., , P, , T, , R, , R, , W, , S, , P, , J, , ?, , Q, , S, , P, , S, , S, , P, , R, , R, , But there is not information regarding Q., So, statement I alone is not sufficient., , (a) From statement I:, M Between T and W., D Immediate left of T., So, the circular sitting arrangement is as follows:, , S, , D, , R, , T, , From statement II: S Immediate right of R., But there is no information regarding Q., So statement alone is not sufficient., From I and II, we get, , W, , M, , From statement II:, D second to the left of M., Therefore, data in statement I alone are sufficient to, answer the given question., 10. (e) From statement I: Between E and B only A., OR, B, , E, A, , E, , B, A, , But there is no information regarding C. So, statement I, alone is not sufficient., From statement II:, D Immediate left of B., , R, , So, P Immediate right of Q., Therefore, the data in both statements I and II together are, necessary to answer the given question., 12. (b) From statement I:, R Immediate left of T., R Second to the right of S., Q, , P, Q, , OR, P, , R, T, , But there is no information regarding C. So, statement II, alone is not sufficient., From (I) and (II), we get, , S, , S, , D, , B, , S, , P, , R, T, , So, second to the right of P Either Q or T. So,, statement I alone is not sufficient, From statement II:, Q immediate right of S.
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Placing and Ordering Puzzles, , I.A.111, , Left end, Right end, So, immediate right P Q., So, statement I alone is sufficient., From statement II:, Q Immediate left of T., T Second to the right of P., So, the arrangement in the row is as follows:, , Q third to the left of P., Q, , Q, , S, P, , P, , OR, T, , T, , R, , S, , R, , So, second to the right of P Q., Therefore, statement II alone is sufficient., 13. (c) From statement I:, Between Kanak and Sneha Ayesha., Raj immediate right of Sneha., Tanisha, , P, , Sneha, , Ayesha, , So, immediate right of Tanisha Kanak., So, statement I alone is sufficient., From statement II:, Tanisha, , 16. (e) From statement I:, D Immediate right of E., B Immediate left of E., So, the arrangement in the row is as follows:, B, , Kanak, Sneha, , Between Kanak and Raj Tanisha., Ayesha Immediate right of Kanak., So, immediate right of Tanisha Kanak., So, statement II alone is sufficient., Therefore, the data either in statement I alone or in, statement II alone are sufficient to answer the given, question., 14. (b) From statement I:, From the given information sitting arrangement is not, possible., So, statement I is not sufficient., From statement II:, The sitting arrangement is follows:, A C D B, So, ‘C’ is sitting next to ‘A’., So, statement II is sufficient., Therefore, data in statement II alone are sufficient to, answer the given question., 15. (c) From statement I:, R third to the left of Q., P second to the right of R., So, the arrangement in the row is as follows:, E, , ?, , P, , Q, , facing north, , E, , D, , But there is no information regarding A and C., So, statements I alone is not sufficient., From statement II:, B Extreme left of the row., But there is no information regarding A, B, C, D and E., So, statement II alone is not sufficient., Form I and II, we get, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, B, E, D, A, C, , Raj, , Ayesha, , facing North., , T, , So, Immediate right of P Q., So, statement II alone is sufficient., Therefore, the data either in statement I alone or in statement, II alone are sufficient to answer the given question., , Raj, , Kanak, , Q, , Extreme, or left end, , Or,, , Middle, , 1, , 2, , B, , E, , Extreme, or left end, , Extreme right, or right end, , 3, , 4, , D, , C, , Middle, , 5, A, Extreme Right, , So, D third child., So, Middle child third child D., Therefore, the data in both statement, I and II together are necessary to answer the given question., 17. (d) From statement I:, S and Q Extreme ends of the row., So, the arrangement in the row is as follows:, S, ? ? ? Q, Extreme, left, , Or,, , Q, Extreme, left, , Extreme, Rightt, , ? ? ?, , S, Extreme, Rightt, , But there is no information regarding P, R and T., So, statements I alone is not sufficient., From statement II:, T to the right of R.
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I.A.112, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , So, the arrangement in the row is as follows : R T., But there is no information regarding P, Q and S., So, statement II alone is not sufficient., Form I and II, we get, 1 2 3 4 5, 1 2 3 4 5, or,, S R T P Q, S P R T Q, Or, , 1 2, Q R, , 3 4 5, T P S, , Or ., , 1 2 3, Q P R, , 4 5, T S, , So, either T or R is in the middle., Therefore, the data in both statement, I and II together are not sufficient to answer the given, question., 18. (e) Form statement I :, Between S and T only P., R to the immediate right of T., S, P facing east, T, R, Fig: Row arrangement, But there is no information regarding Q., So, statement I alone is not sufficient., From statement II:, Between T and Q R., T facing east, R, Q, Fig.: Row arrangement, But there is no information regarding P and S., So, statement II alone is not sufficient., From I and II, we get, Extreme left end, S, P facing east, T, R, Extreme right end Q , Fig.: Final Row arrangement, So, At the extreme right end Q., , Gurgaon, , Tall, , , , S, , , , T, , , , U, , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , Clearly, S is the tall girl from Gurgaon., 20. (c) Delhi Daredevils was defeated twice by Mumbai Indians., Mumbai Indians was defeated twice by Deccan Chargers., Deccan Chargers was defeated twice by Delhi Daredevils., Kolkata Knight Riders was defeated twice by Mumbai, Indians and twice by Deccan Chargers, i.e., 4 times in all., 21. (d), Red, Cover, , L, M, , , , N, , , , Blue, Cover, , New, Volume, , , , , , , , , , , , , , P, , Old, Volume, , , , , Dictionary, , Encyclo, -paedia, , , , , Q, , , , , , , , R, , , , , , , , Clearly, Q and R are old volumes which have red covers, and are encyclopaedias., 22. (c) B wore pant of green colour. A didn’t wear pant of, black or green colour. So, A wore pant of white colour., Thus, C wore pant of black colour. B wore pant of, green colour and so didn’t wear shirt of green colour., Also, B didn’t wear shirt of yellow colour. So, B wore, shirt of red colour. Thus, C didn’t wear shirt of red or, green colour., Hence, C wore shirt of yellow colour., 23. (d) Jam bottles are at the top. Biscuits are below chips,, chocolates are below biscuits, peppermints are below, chocolates and cakes are at the bottom., So, the sequence from top to bottom is:, jam bottles, chips, biscuits, chocolates, peppermint, cakes., 24. (d) U is to the right of S. Q is between S and, R. P is between T and R., P, T, , R, , Therefore, the data in both statements I and II together are, necessary to answer the given question., 19. (b), Noida, , R, , Short, , Girl, , , , P, , , , , , Q, , , , , , Boy, , , , U, , Q, S, , Thus, we have the arrangement as shown in the adjoining, figure., Clearly, T is between P and U.
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Placing and Ordering Puzzles, , I.A.113, , 25. (c) T is opposite S. P is between T and U. Since R is not, the neighbour of T, so the only neighbouring blank, position of T is occupied by Q., Thus, we have two possible arrangements:, S, U, , R, , R, , U, , 28., , OR, P, , Q, T, , 27., , S, , Q, , P, T, , 29., , In each of the arrangements, U is opposite to Q., 26. (b) Let us denote history–H, science–S, english–E and, economics–Eco., Starting from above, history is between science and, economics, i.e., S, H, Eco., Science is between economics and history, i.e., S. H, Eco,, S, H., English is between history and economics, i.e., S, H, Eco,, S, H, E, Eco., Economics is between two english books, i.e., S, H, Eco,, S, H, E, Eco, E., , 30., , , , Two English books are between economics and science,, i.e, S, H, Eco, S, H, E, Eco, E, E, S., Clearly, English book is at sixth position from the top., (c) We have: B > A, D > C, C > B, A > E., Combining all the above, we have: D > C > B > A > E., Clearly, child D is the most intelligent., (d) From the given information, we have; V>Q>R, S > V., Combining the above, we have; S > V > Q > R, T > R., So, either S or T is the fastest., (b) Reena finished before Mohini but behind Gauri., So, the order is—Gauri, Reena, Mohini., Ananya finished before Sanchi but behind Mohini., So, the order is—Mohini, Ananya, Sanchi., Thus, the order of race is—Gauri, Reena, Mohini,, Ananya, Sanchi., Clear1y, Gauri won the race., (d) Ram finished after 3 students. So, Ram is fourth., Sameer finished after Firoz and Amar finished after Sameer, So, Firoz is first, Sameer second and Amar third. Han, finished after Vinod. So, Vinod is fifth and Han is sixth.
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Section, , B, , NON-vERBAL TEST, Chapter in this sECTION, 16. Series Completion, , I.B.117, , 17. Odd Man Out, , I.B.128, , 18. Analogies, , I.B.131, , 19. Paper Folding and Cutting, , I.B.136, , 20. Mirror and Water Images, , I.B.141, , 21. Figure Puzzles, , I.B.148, , 22. Figure Construction and Analysis, , I.B.159
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I.B.117, , Series Completion, , 16, , Series Completion, , In non-verbal reasoning tests generally show a series of figures, arranged in a pattern or sequence and you are required to identify, the missing figure or the next in the sequence. Concepts come in a, variety of forms. Nonverbal concepts are most often thought about, through visualization, rather than through language. The concepts, of proportion and perimeter, for example, can be understood and, applied through mental imagery. This chart describes some, important skills related to understanding nonverbal concepts., Necessary Sub, Skills, Student is able, to develop, his/her, understanding, of nonverbal, concepts, and, those concepts, that depend on, spatial ability,, such as, geometric, forms., Student has an, adequate degree, of nonverbal, conceptual, understanding,, for example, is, able to visualise, and apply, nonverbal, concepts and, work through, problems that, involve, nonverbal, concepts., , Common, Obstacles, Student has, difficulty in, developing, his/her, understanding of, nonverbal, concepts, and/or, those concepts, that depend on, spatial ability,, such as, geometric forms., Student does, not grasp, concepts at an, adequate level,, for example,, cannot visualise, or apply, nonverbal, concepts,, cannot work, through, problems that, involve, nonverbal, concepts, etc., , Helpful Tips, Spatial ordering involves information, arranged simultaneously in space. A, student's ability to process spatial, information impacts his/her ability to, understand nonverbal concepts, such, as place value and perimeter, and to, use spatially based tools, such as, maps and diagrams, to enhance, learning., , Many concepts depend upon a, student's ability to understand, without a reliance on language. In, particular, a student's ability to, visualise what such concepts are, describing solidifies his/her, understanding of that concept. This, ability is known as mental, representation. The rotation of the, planets and the geographic, locations of countries are two such, instances of nonverbal concepts, that may be best understood, through mental representation. In, addition, the growth of conceptual, understanding depends upon a, student's higher order thinking, ability to know when he/she does, and does not understand, that is,, meta-cognitive awareness., , In the non-verbal test, two sets of figures pose the problem., The sets are called problem figures and answer figures. Each, problem figures changes in design from the preceding one. The, problem figure answer figure set contains four figures marked, A, B, C, D. You are required to choose the correct answer, figure, which would best continue the series., , Note, Nonverbal tasks involve skills such as:, The ability to recognise visual sequences and remember, them;, Understanding the meaning of visual information and, recognising relationships between visual concepts;, Performing visual analogies; and, Recognition of causal relationships in pictured situations., Nonverbal intelligence is important because it enables students, to analyse and solve complex problems without relying upon or, being limited by language abilities. Many mathematical, concepts, physics problems, computer science tasks, and, science problems require strong reasoning skills., There are numerous elements in each non verbal reasoning, question such as the outline shape, the fill, the direction of the, shape. The shape may rotate, be inverted, have different layers,, increase or decrease in size. Some also require basic counting, skills., Directions (1 to 5): Study the problem figures carefully and, try to establish the relationship between them from the, answer figures. Pick out the figure which most, appropriately completes the series., Example 1. Problem Figures, , Answer figures, , a., , b., , c., , d., , Solution: (d) The figure is rotated at 90º (In four directions), and the fifth figure in the series shall be same as the first figure., Example 2. Problem Figures
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , I.B.118, , Answer Figures, , a., c., b., d., Solution: (a) The bigger balls diameter is moving at 90º and, smaller balls diameter is moving at 45º, simultaneously the, face of the bigger figure is changing position., , Solution: (c) The same figures rotates up-side-down in, alternative figures., Directions: (6 to 8) In these questions the times in the, diagrams either increase or decrease in number., Example 6. Problem figures, , Example 3. Problem figures, Answer figures, , Answer figures, a., , a., b., c., d., Solution: (b)The four boxes are changing position in the, following way: At first, middle boxes change position, (diagonally) and extreme boxes remain stationary, then, extreme boxes change position and middle boxes remain, stationary and so on., Example 4. Problem Figures, , b., , c., , d., , Solution: (d) Here a decreasing trend is following. In the first, figure there are 8 lines cutting through the sides of the sphere., Second figure has 7 lines. The third figure has 6 lines. To, continue the series, fourth figure should have 5 lines., Example 7. Problem Figures, , Answer Figures, , Answer Figures, , a., , b., , c., , d., , Solution: (c) The small circles are decreasing consecutively, and the black dots are increasing., Example 8. Problem Figures, , a., b., c., d., Solution: (d) Note the direction of arrow which changes, alternately. The dots are also changing alternately. Hence, we, are looking for a figure in which the arrow points down and the, dots and positioned as problem figure second., , Answer Figures, , Example 5. Problem figures, , a., , Answer Figures, , a., , b., , c., , d., , b., , c., , d., , Solution: (d) Signs of plus are adding up one by one. Problem, figure one has one plus sign, problem figure second has two, signs, problem figure third has three signs, the next figure, should have four signs to keep the same pattern ., Directions: (9 to 10) Multi-relational Series: These are, mixed series in which various elements in diagrams, increases or decrease in number, change/position in a set, pattern.
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I.B.119, , Series Completion, , Example 9. Problem Figures, , Solution: (c) Note movement of dot which is clockwise and, the arrow moves in and out in opposite direction alternately,, the circle and square interchange., Directions (11): The qualitative characteristics of various, elements in the diagrams change to complete the series. The, various elements in the diagrams move in a specific, manner. They may rotate in clockwise or anticlockwise, direction., , Answer Figures, , a., , b., , c., , d., , Solution: (c) The bottom figure changes its position with the, figure in the centre of the big circle, and rest of the figure, remains unchanged., , Example 11. Problem Figures, , Example 10. Problem Figures, Answer Figures, , Answer Figures, , b., , a., , c., , d., , a., c., d., b., Solution: (d) The sign of plus is rotating clockwise. The pin, changes direction alternately., , Multiple Choice Questions, Direction (1 to 11): Each of the following questions consists, of five problem figure. These problem figures form a series., Find out the one figure from the answer figure that will, continue the series., , 3., , Problem Figures, , Answer Figures, , 1., , Problem Figures, , a., , Answer Figures, , a., 2., , b., , 4., , c., , d., , b., , c., , d., , c., , d., , Problem Figures, , Answer Figures, , Problem Figures, , a., , 5., , Answer Figures, , a., , b., , c., , d., , b., , Problem Figures
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , I.B.120, , Answer Figures, , 6., , 11. Problem Figures, , b., a., Problem Figures, , c., , d., , Answer Figures, , T, , S, , =, , N, , a., Answer Figures, , 7., , a., b., Problem Figures, , Y, c., , d., , Answer Figures, , a., b., Problem Figures, , c., , a., , d., , P, , c., , a., , d., , d., , b., , c., , d., , c., , d., , 14. Problem Figures, E, , S, , •, , Answer Figures, , Answer Figures, , S, , E, , a., b., 10. Problem Figures, , c., , d., , b., , a., b., 15. Problem Figures, , Answer Figures, , Answer Figures, , a., , c., , Answer Figures, , a., b., Problem Figures, T, , b., , 13. Problem Figures, , Answer Figures, , 9., , d., , 12. Problem Figures, , Answer Figures, , 8., , c., , Direction (12 to 15): Each of the following questions, consists of four problem figure. These problem figures, form a series. Find out the one figure from the answer, figures that will continue the series., , T, Y, , b., , c., , d., , a., , b., , c., , d.
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I.B.121, , Series Completion, , Direction (16 to 20): In each of the following questions,, there is a set of four figures called problem figures followed, by a set of four other figures called answer figures., Problem figures contains a question mark. Select a suitable, figure from the answer figures which will substitute this, question mark so that a series is formed., , Answer Figures, , a., , b., , C., , d., , Direction (21 to 26): In each of the following questions, there, are two sets of four figures, one set contents problem figures,, another set contents answer figures. There is a sequence, according to which the problem figures are arranged, select, one figure from the set of answer figures which can be, placed in sequence after the set of problem figures., , 16. Problem Figures, , ?, Answer Figures, , 21. Problem Figures, , a., , b., , c., , d., , 17. Problem Figures, Answer Figures, , ?, Answer Figures, , a., , b., , c., , d., , c., , d., , c., , d., , c., , d., , 22. Problem Figures, , a., , b., , c., , d., , 18. Problem Figures, Answer Figures, , ?, Answer Figures, , a., b., 23. Problem Figures, a., , b., , c., , d., , 19. Problem Figures, , Answer Figures, , ?, Answer Figures, , a., , b., , 24. Problem Figures, , a., , b., , c., , d., Answer Figures, , 20. Problem Figures, , ?, a., , b.
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , I.B.122, , 25. Problem Figures, , 30. Problem Figures, , ?, Answer Figures, , Answer Figures, , a., b., 26. Problem Figures, , c., , a., , d., , c., , b., , d., , 31. Problem Figures, , ?, Answer Figures, Answer Figures, , a., a., c., b., d., Direction (27 to 31): In the following questions, some, figures are given in a sequence. Find out the figure from the, alternatives, which will come in place of the questions, marks to continue the sequence., 27. Problem Figures, , ?, , c., , b., , d., , Direction (32 to 36): In the following questions there are, two sets of the figures. One set is of problem figures and, another set is of answer-figures. Problem figures are, arranged in a sequence. One figure from the answer., Figure is to be selected such that it can be placed after the, series of problem figure., 32. Problem Figures, , Answer Figures, , Answer Figures, a., , b., , c., , d., , 28. Problem Figures, , ?, , b., , c., , d., , c., , d., , 33. Problem Figures, , Answer Figures, , a., , a., , b., , c., , Answer Figures, , d., , 29. Problem Figures, , ?, Answer Figures, , a., , b., , a., , b., , 34. Problem Figures, , c., , d.
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I.B.123, , Series Completion, , Answer Figures, , 39. Problem Figure, , ?, a., , b., , c., , d., , Answer Figures, , 35. Problem Figures, , Answer Figures, , a., , b., , c., , d., , 40. Problem Figures, a., , b., , c., , d., , ?, , 36. Problem Figures, Answer Figures, , Answer Figures, , a., , b., , c., , d., , 41. Which of the six smaller boxes finishes this sequence?, a., , b., , c., , Problem Figures, , d., , Direction (37 to 38): Study the pattern of figures given in, each question to find out the relationship among them. One, figure is missing. Choose the missing figure from the, alternatives., 37. Problem Figures, , ?, Answer Figures, , Answer Figures, a., , b., , c., , d., , a., , b., , c., , d., , e., , f., , 38. Problem Figures, , ?, Answer Figures, , a., , b., , c., , d., , Direction (39 to 40): In the following questions, series of, figures are given. Find the correct alternative to continue, the series., , 42. Which of the bottom grids continues the sequence shown, on the top line?, Problem Figures
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , I.B.124, , # S, , !, , X, X, , !, , #, #, , S, , Answer Figures, , X, a., , b., , d., , e., , S !, , c., , Answer Figures, , #, , !, , S, X, , a., , S, , !, , #, , X, , #, b., , S, X, , S, , X !, c., , !, , #, d., , 43. Which of the bottom boxes goes in the middle of this, sequence?, Problem Figures, @, , @, , 45. Which of the bottom boxes completes this sequence?, Problem Figures, ?, #, , #, , #, , @, , ?, , ?, , @, , ?, , ?, #, , #, , #, , @, , ?, @, , ?, #, , @, , #, , ?, , @, , Answer Figures, Answer Figures, , a., , b., , c., , @, , a., , @, , b., , c., ?, , #, , ?, , #, , @, , #, , ?, , d., , e., , @, , f., @, , d., , e., , ?, , f., ?, , ?, #, , #, , #, , @, , 44. Which of the bottom grids would continue the sequence?, Problem Figures, , 46. Which of the bottom grids would continue the top, sequence?, X #, , X, , #, , #, X, , #, , X, , #, , X, #, , a., , X, , X, #, , #, , b., , c., , d.
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I.B.125, , Series Completion, , 47. Which of the bottom boxes finishes this puzzle?, Problem Figures, , Answer Figures, , a, , 50., Answer Figures, a., b., , 48., , d., , d, , c, , e, , Which of the bottom squares fits logically with the, pattern?, Problem Figures, , Which of the numbered grids fits into the big one?, R, , O, , Y, , G, , B, , I, , V, , X, , O, , I, , E, , E, , A, , D, , G, , B, , E, , F, , A, , I, , L, , O, , C, , G, , D, , A, , N, , A, , O, , F, , T, , B, , S, , O, , D, , G, , T, , I, , W, , F, , B, , I, , C, , L, , L, , C, , I, , B, , F, , E, , I, , T, , G, , D, , O, , S, , B, , T, , F, , O, , A, , N, , A, , D, , G, , C, , O, , L, , I, , A, , F, , E, , B, , G, , D, , A, , E, , E, , I, , O, , X, , V, , I, , B, , G, , Y O, , R, , b, , c, , Q Q, , X Y, , C Y L Y, , S, , Y L Y C, , C B L, , S, , Q Q, , d, , e, , O X, , T C, , T V V, J, , L A A, , J, , C Y L Y, , T T V, , Y L Y C, , X O, , Answer Figures, , a., , 51., , b, , d, .., , c., , e., , Which of the bottom boxes completes the sequence?, Problem Figures, , #, , a, T B, , B T, , 49., , c., , b, , #, , B, , S, , L, , E, , E, , L, , S, , B, , X Y, , T C, , Which of the bottom boxes completes this sequence?, Problem Figures, , #, , #, , #, , #, #, , #
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , I.B.126, , Answer Figures, , a., , b., , c., , # #, , # #, , d., , #, , #, #, , #, , 52. Which letter replaces the blank and completes the, sequence?, Problem Figures, , C, , Y, , M, , L, , J, , C, , G, , J, , Q, , Z, , Y, , J, , F, , S, , R, , Q, , N, , C, , S, , P, , M, , F, , O, , T, , W, , Z, , H, , A, , J, , R, , L, , S, , T, , M, , Q, , B, , J, , A, , J, , R, , W, , 1, , 9, , 0, , C, , Q, , Z, , J, , Q, , L, , G, , N, , H, , Q, , T, , I, , U, , R, , J, , C, , A, , B, , D, , Y, , I, , V, , K, , T, , Q, , S, , J, , J, , N, , C, , U, , K, , E, , P, , Z, , P, , R, , A, , K, , H, , R, , T, , P, , L, , Answer Figures, , a, L, S, , b, S, , E, , K G L, , L G H E, , Answer Figures, , E, , E K G J, , D N G J, , S, , B K N D, , G H E, , J, , J, , S, , Q R, , d, L, , 53. Which of the bottom boxes finishes the sequence?, S, , J, , Q, , G H E, J, , Q R, , E, , e, , L K G, , Problem Figures, , c, R Q, , J, , J, , C D, , R C H Z, , E, , B, , X, , 55. Complete the last row of the puzzle., B, , J, , F, , F, , L, , Z, , T, , R, , F, , K, , D, , G, , K, , A, , S, , S, , D, , I, , C, , H, , J, , B, , R, , T, , C, , J, , Q, , I, , H, , C, , Q, , U, , B, , K, , P, , Z, , G, , D, , P, , V, , Z, , L, , N, , A, , B, , E, , N, , W, , Y, , M, , M, , B, , Z, , Q, , M, , X, , X, , N, , L, , C, , Y, , R, , L, , Y, , W, , O, , K, , D, , X, , S, , K, , J, , V, , P, , J, , E, , W, , T, , J, , K, , S, , Q, , H, , F, , V, , U, , H, , L, , R, , E, , G, , G, , T, , V, , G, , M, , Q, , F, , X, , H, , S, , W, , F, , N, , P, , G, , W, , B, , R, , X, , D, , O, , N, , H, , V, , C, , Z, , Answer Figures, , a., , d., , b., , e., , c., , f., , 54. Which of the smaller grids fits into the middle of the, larger one?, Problem Figures, , a. Y-C-P-M-I-T-D-Y-A, , b. Y-C-P-A-I-T-D-Y-B, , c. Y-C-Z-M-I-T-T-Y-A, , d. Y-Y-P-M-I-T-D-C-A
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I.B.127, , Series Completion, , ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , d, , d, , d, , d, , d, , d, , a, , d, , d, , d, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , d, , d, , b, , d, , c, , d, , c, , b, , b, , a, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , a, , c, , c, , b, , d, , c, , d, , a, , d, , d, , 31., , 32., , 33., , 34., , 35., , 36., , 37., , 38., , 39., , 40., , b, , b, , d, , a, , d, , d, , c, , b, , c, , b, , 41., , 42., , 43., , 44., , 45., , 46., , 47., , 48., , 49., , 50., , b, , d, , a, , e, , d, , f, , d, , d, , b, , e, , 51., , 52., , 53., , 54., , 55., , b, , c, , a, , d, , a, , SOLUTIONS, 41. (f) Working in rows, add together the left and central, diagrams to make the diagrams on the right. If a black, square appears in both of these columns it becomes white, in the third box., 42. (d) Working from left to right, symbols with curved lines, move 2 places clockwise, whilst straight sided symbols, move to the segment opposite., 43. (d) Reading from the left, line by line the @ moves in a, figure of 8 around the corners, the * moves anticlockwise, in steps of 2 around the 2 central columns, and the ∆, moves to and fro along the third row., 44. (b) Working form left to right the square moves 2, segments anticlockwise, the circle 3 segments, anticlockwise, the star by 4 segments anticlockwise and, the triangle 1 segment clockwise., 45. (e) Working in rows form left to right, the * moves back, and forth along a diagonal line, the ? moves ¼ turn, clockwise, the O moves clockwise by 1 space, then 2,, then 3, etc. and the # moves left and right along the, second row., , 46. (b) Working from left to right, the X move clockwise 1, segment, then 2, then 3 etc. the ∆ moves clockwise 4, segments, then 3, then 2 etc. The, and, move to, opposite segments and back again. A # and * fill the first, two consecutive empty segments in a clockwise direction,, and then fill any segments left empty., 47. (d) Moving left to right along each row, the circle moves, 3 places clockwise around the edge of the square, the, triangle moves back and forth along the top left, bottom, right diagonal and the star moves form the top to the, bottom in a zigzag pattern., 48. (a) The grid displays rotational symmetry of 180° around, a central point., 49. (e) Working in columns, top to bottom, one spot is, removed in sequence at each step., 50. (d) Working in columns, one cross is removed at each, step, first form one side of the pattern., 51. (b) Working in rows, invert the left and right hand boxes, vertically and add the elements together to give the, middle box., 52. (c), 53. (a) If viewed form the left edge the boxes show numbers, 1-6., 54. (d) The grid is symmetrical around the bottom axis, running form top left to bottom right., 55. (a) There are two chainsof letters in use. The first goes, diagonally upwards from left to right starting in the top, left corner and appears on alternate lines. This chain, contains every letter of the alphabet except vowels. The, second chain starts bottom right and goes diagonally, donwards from right to left and contains every letter of, the alphabet.
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A.128 Mental Ability, , 17, , Odd Man Out, , In this type of question you are given a set of five pictures. Four, of these pictures are related in some way while the fifth is, different. You are required to identify which picture is unlike the, others. In other words – to find the odd one out or odd man out., Remember that the figures and diagrams consist of lines,, shapes and shading/patterns. The shapes can shift in various, ways. (rotate, reflect and transpose). The shapes can change in, many ways. (increase/decrease, add and copy). They can, consist of a movement, size or number sequence., , well as the answer figures. Three out of these four figures are, related to each other by way of having some common, characteristics and so form a group. Out of these four, you have, to identify one figure which does not belong to group., Note, Classification means ‘to assort the items of a given group on, the basis of common quality they possess and then spot the, stranger out.’ In this test, generally, you are given a group of, five items, out of which four are similar to one another in some, manner and the fifth one is different. The candidate is required, to choose this item which does not fit into the given group., In other words – to find the odd one out., Example 1., , (a), , (b), , (c), , a., , (d), , (e), , Look first at two of the pictures, say 'a' and 'b' and see if you, can see a relationship between the shapes. In this case you, should see that the relationship is that the same shape is, repeated, but reduced in size with the largest at the back and, the smallest at the front., If you cannot see a relationship, you may have chosen the, picture that is the odd one out - choose two of the others and, check again. When you have found the relationship or 'rule',, check each image in turn to see if the 'rule' applies, until you, find the picture that is different., , b., , c., , d., , Solution: (c) Both the arrow heads are in the same direction in, figure (c). In all the other figures; they are in the opposite, direction. Hence (c) is the answer., Example 2., , a., , b., , c., , d., , Solution: (d) Between the shaded portion and the arrow, there, are two triangles in figure (a), (b), (c) and (d)., Example 3., , In this case we have found the rule by looking at 'a' and 'b'. Now, look at 'c' does the rule apply? - Yes. Now look at 'd' does the rule, apply? - No. The shapes reduce in size but the largest is in the, middle - so 'd' looks like the odd one out. Check 'e' just to make, sure - does the rule apply? - Yes. OK. The odd one out is 'd'., In these type of questions, four figures numbered (1), (2), (3), and (4) are given. These are treated both problem figures as, , a., , b., , c., , d., , Solution: (c) Figures (a) and (d) form a group. The bars are, interchanged here. Similarly, figures (b) and (d); Hence (c) is, the odd one out.
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Odd Man Out, , I.B.129, , Multiple Choice Questions, Direction (1 to 35): Out of the four figures (a), (b), (c) and, (d), given in each problem, three are similar in a certain, way. However one figure is not like the other three. Choose, the figure which is different from the rest., , 10., , 1., , 11., , a., , b., , c., , S, , S, , S, , a., , b., , c., , d., , a., , b., , c., , d., , a., , b., , c., , d., , a., , b., , c., , d., , d., , 2., , S, , 12., , a., , b., , d., , c., , 3., 13., , a., , b., , c., , d., , 4., 14., a., , b., , c., , b., , c., , x, , d., , xx, , 5., , a., , xx, a., , b., , c., , d., , a., , b., , c., , d., , a., , b., , c., , d., , 15., , d., , 6., 16., a., , b., , c., , d., , 7., , a., 8., , S, =, , b., , =, S, , a., , c., , b., , =, S, c., , 17., , d., , a., , =, , S, , b., , c., , d., , 18., , d., , 9., , a., , b., , c., , d., , a., , b., , c., , d., , 19., , a., , b., , c., , d.
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I.B.130, , 20., , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , I, , O, , K, , E, , a., , b., , c., , d., , 29., , 21., , a., , b., , c., , d., , a., , b., , c., , d., , a., , b., , c., , d., , 30., a., , b., , c., , d., 31., , 22., , a., , b., , 23., , c., , d., 32., , O, O, a., , b., , c., , a., , b., , c., , d., , d., 33., , 24., , a., 25., , b., , c., , +, , +, , a., , –, , +, b., , a., , b., , c., , d., , a., , b., , c., , d., , b., , c., , d., , d., , , +, , ×, , c., , ×, , 34., , d., 35., , 26., a., , b., , c., , d., , 27., , a., , b., , c., , d., , 28., , a., , b., , c., , d., , a., ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , b, , d, , b, , d, , d, , b, , d, , b, , d, , c, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , a, , d, , d, , c, , a, , b, , d, , c, , c, , c, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , d, , c, , b, , b, , b, , c, , d, , d, , c, , A, , 31., , 32., , 33., , 34., , 35., , b, , d, , d, , d, , c, , , , 10.
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Analogies, , I.B.131, , 18, In this type of non-verbal test the problem figures are presented, in two units. The first unit contains two figures, one in each, square. The second unit contains one figures in the first square, and a question mark (?) in the second. You have to find out, from among the figures A, B, C and D as to which one should, replace the questions mark after finding the relationship, between the two figures in the first unit of the problem figures., Some examples are discussed below., , Analogies, Example 1. Problem Figures, , ?, Answer figures, , b., , a., Note, Non-verbal reasoning learning strategies, Here some handy advices are given to keep in mind when, practicing non-verbal reasoning tests. The tips shown here are, made to make it easier to solve non-verbal reasoning test, problems., Learn strategies to increase understanding and retention of, concepts., Self-talk, try to guide yourself through the problem, verbally., Rely on your memory to learn problem-solving through, repetition and rote recall., Learn problem-solving techniques in the contexts in which, they are most likely to be applied., Learn and emphasise reading comprehension skills as early, as possible so the student may rely on reading and, rereading to ensure comprehension of concepts., Use repetition and review of concepts to ensure overlearning, then check that your memory for the material, includes comprehension., Structure and adjust the difficulty level of the practice test, to your own level where possible., Directions (1 to 3): In the following questions there are two, sets of figures. One set is problem figures and the second set, is a answer figures. There is some relationship between the, first and the second figure of the problem figures set., If there is similar relationship between the third and fourth, figures of the same set, select the correct figure from the set, of answer figures for question mark (?)., , c., , d., , Solution: (a) Problem figure first is rotated 180º ACW or CW, to obtain problem figure second. Then the shaded and the, unshaded eaves are interchanged. Hence, (a) should replace the, question mark., Example 2. Problem Figures, , ?, Answer figures, , a., , b., , c., , d., , Solution: (c) Problem figure second contains the lower half of, problem figure first. Hence answer figure (c) replaces the, question mark., Examples 3. Problem figures, , ?, Answer figures, , a., b., c., D., Solution: (d) The lower LHS figure of portion of in problem, figure first becomes the upper portion in problem figure, second, shifted to the other side. Similarly RHS figure of the, upper portion in problem figure first becomes the lower portion, problem figure second shifted to the other side with one, vertical line there in. The other two halves are deleted.
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I.B.132, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Directions (4 to 5): In each of the following problems, Select, the pair that has a relationship similar to that in the original, pair., , figure second. The vertically inverted and enlarged form of the, element in figure first forms the outer element in figure second., Examples 5., , Examples 4., , a., , b., , c., , d., , Solution: (b) From figure first to figure second: An element, identical to the element in figure first forms the inner element in, , a., , b., , c., , d., , Solution: (a)The first figure of (X) rotate 180º., , Multiple Choice Questions, Direction (1 to 11): In the following questions there are two, sets of figures. One set is problem figures and the second set, is a answer figures. There is some relationship between the, first and the second figure of the problem figures set. If there, is similar relationship between the third and fourth figures of, the same set, select the correct figure from the set of answer, figures for question mark (?)., 1. Problem Figures, , Answer figures, , a., , 4., , b., , c., , d., , Problem Figures, , ?, Answer figures, , T, , C, , ?, , Answer figures, , 2., , C T, , T C, , a., , b., , a., , C T, c., , T C, , 5., , b., , c., , d., , Problem Figures, , ?, , d., , Answer figures, , Problem Figures, , ?, a., , Answer figures, , 6., , b., , c., , d., , Problem Figures, , ?, a., , 3., , b., , c., , d., , Answer figures, , Problem Figures, , ?, , a., , b., , c., , d.
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Analogies, , 7., , I.B.133, , Problem Figures, , ?, , 12., , Answer figures, , a., , 8., , b., , c., , a., , b., , c., , d., , a., , b., , c., , d., , a., , b., , c., , d., , d., , 13., , Problem Figures, , ?, Answer figures, , a., , 9., , b., , c., , d., , 14., , Problem Figures, , ?, Answer figures, , a., , b., , c., , d., , 10. Problem Figures, , ?, Answer figures, , Direction (15 to 20): In following questions there are two, sets of figures. One set is problem figure and the second set, is a answer figures. There is some relationship between the, first and the second figures of the problem figures set. If, there is similar relationship between the third and fourth, figures of the same set, select the correct figure from the set, of answer figures for question mark (?)., 15. Problem Figures, , a., , b., , c., , ?, , d., , Answer figures, , 11. Problem Figures, , ?, Answer figures, , a., , b., , c., , d., , 16. Problem Figures, , ?, b., c., d., a., Direction (12 to 14): In each of the following problems, a, related pair of figures is followed by five numbered pairs of, figures. Select the pair that has a relationship similar to, that in the original pair., , Answer figures, , a., , b., , c., , d.
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I.B.134, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 17. Problem Figures, , ?, , 22., , ?, Answer figures, , a., a., , b., , c., , b., , c., , d., , 23., , d., , 18. Problem Figures, , ?, , ?, Answer figures, a., a., , b., , c., , d., , b., , c., , d., , 24., , ?, , 19. Problem Figures, , ?, Answer figures, , a., , b., , a., , c., , b., , c., , 25., , d., , d., , ?, , 20. Problem Figures, , ?, a., , Answer figures, , a., , b., , c., , d., , Direction (21 to 25): In the following questions, there is a, relationship between the two figures on the left of the sign, (: :). The same relationship exists between the figures to the, right of sign (: :), of which one is missing. Find the missing, one from the alternatives., , b., , c., , d., , Direction (26 to 30): In the following questions there are, two sets of figures. One set is problem figure and the second, set is a answer figures. There is some relationship between, the first and the second figures of the problem figures set. If, there is similar relationship between the third and fourth, figures of the same set, select the correct figure from the set, of answer figures for question mark (?)., 26. Problem Figures, , ?, , 21., , ?, , a., , b., , c., , d., , Answer figures, , a., , b., , c., , d.
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Analogies, , I.B.135, , 27. Problem Figures, , ?, , 32., , ?, Answer figures, , a., a., , b., , c., , d., , b., , c., , d., , ?, , 33., , 28. Problem Figures, , ?, Answer figures, , a., , a., , b., , c., , b., , c., , d., , Direction (34 to 35): A pair of figures which are related in, some way is given below. Find out the alternative whose, figures are related in the same way as., , d., , 29. Problem Figures, , ?, , 34., , Answer figures, , a., , b., , c., , d., , a., , b., , c., , d., , a., , b., , c., , d., , 30. Problem Figures, , ?, 35., , Answer figures, , a., , b., , c., , d., , Direction (31 to 33): There is some relationship between the, two figures/pair of letters/numbers on the left of the sign, (::). The same relationship exists between the two terms on, the right of which one is missing. Find the missing one from, the given alternatives., , ?, , 31., , a., , b., , c., , d., , ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , c, , b, , d, , d, , d, , b, , b, , c, , c, , 10., a, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , a, , a, , c, , d, , b, , c, , d, , b, , b, , b, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , a, , d, , a, , a, , b, , c, , d, , c, , b, , a, , 31., , 32., , 33., , 34., , 35., , d, , b, , a, , a, , c, ,
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I.B.136, , 19, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Paper Folding and Cutting, , The fold-and-cut theorem states that any shape with straight, sides can be cut from a single (idealised) sheet of paper by, folding it flat and making a single straight complete cut Such, shapes include polygons, which may be concave, shapes with, holes, and collections of such shapes. The corresponding, problem that the theorem solves is known as the fold-and-cut, problem, the analysis of pattern that is formed when a folded, piece of paper has been cut in a definite design., , Learn more about symmetry and explore paper cutting in, these related crafts:, , Paper Flowers - Fold paper squares in fourths, then cut, out flowers., , Kirigami is similar to origami in that it is a form of paper art., The major difference is that in origami, you fold paper whereas, in kirigami, you fold and cut paper. Most people will remember, kirigami as a way to make paper snowflakes. Unfolding the, paper snowflake is a delightful surprise because it's almost, impossible to make the exact pattern twice. Paper snowflakes, have six sections because the paper is folded in half and then, thirds. Fold the paper differently to change the symmetry. You, can have:, , Example 1. In the following questions problems, a square, transparent sheet with a pattern is given. Figure out from, amongst four alternatives as to how the pattern would appear, when the transparent sheet is folded at the dotted line., , 4-fold symmetry (fold in half and then half again),, , 6-fold symmetry (fold in half, then into thirds),, , 8-fold symmetry (fold in half, then into quarters),, , 12-fold symmetry (fold in half, then into thirds, and then, fold in half again). At this level, thin paper is a must., Keep in mind that real snowflakes have a 6-fold symmetry and, sometimes a 12-fold symmetry. If you fold the paper into four, or eight sections, it shouldn't be called a snowflake anymore., The problems on paper folding involve the process of selecting, a figure which would most nearly match the pattern that would, be formed when a transparent sheet carrying designs on either, side of a dotted line is folded along this line. The figure has to, be selected from a set of four alternatives (answer or response, figures)., Note, Create a chain of paper dolls by cutting multi-folded paper, strips. Learn this basic paper cutting technique with paper, dolls, then let your imagination run wild! Cut paper chains with, themes for every season and every special event. They make, wonderful decorations for parties, classrooms and your home., This craft features bilateral symmetry—two halves that are, mirror images of each other., , , , Symmetry in Snowflakes - Fold and cut squares of paper, to make snowflakes, , I. Paper folding, , a., , b., , c., , d., , Solution: (b) Clearly, the lower half of the square sheet has, been folded over the upper half. Hence, the bent line in the, lower half will be inverted overt the other half so that a ‘V’, shaped figure is formed, , The problems on paper cutting contain a set of three figures, showing the manner in which a piece of paper has been folded., In each of the first two figures, a dotted line together with an, arrow on it has been given indicating the line along which the, paper is to be folded and the direction of the fold respectively., In the third figure, there are marks showing the position and, nature of the cut made in the folded sheet. The candidate has to, select one of the figures from the set of four answer figures A,, B, C and D, that would most nearly match the pattern when the, paper is unfolded. It will be interested to see that the designs of, the cut will appear on each fold made in the paper., Example 2. Consider the following three figures, marked X, Y,, Z showing one fold in X, another in Y and cut in Z. From, amongst the answer figure A, B, C and D, select the one,, showing the unfolded position of Z.
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Paper Folding and Cutting, , X, , Y, , I.B.137, , Z, , X, , Y, , Z, , b., c., d., a., Solution: (c) In figure X, the upper triangular half of the paper, has been folded over the lower half. In figure Y, the paper is, refolded to a quarter triangle. In figure Z, a square has been, punched in the folded paper. Clearly, the square will appear in, each of the triangular quarters of the paper. Thus, when the, paper isis unfolded, four squares will appear symmetrically, over it and it will resemble figure (c)., , a., b., c., d., Solution: (c) In figure X, the upper triangular half of the paper, has been folded over the lower half. In figure Y, the paper is, refolded to a quarter triangle. In figure Z, a square has been, punched in the folded paper. Clearly, the square will appear in, each of the triangular quarters of the paper. Thus, when the, paper is unfolded, four squares will appear symmetrically over, it and it will resemble figure (C)., , II. Paper Cutting, , Example 4. A set of some figures is given group these figures, into classes on the basis of their column properties and then, choose the correct option., , The problems on paper cutting contain a set of three figures, showing the manner in which a piece of paper has been folded., In each of the first two figures, a dotted line together with an, arrow on it has been given indicating the line along which the, paper is to be folded and the direction of the fold respectively., In the third figure, there are marks showing the position and, nature of the cut made in the folded sheet. The candidate has to, select one of the figures from the set of four answer figures A,, B, C and D, that would most nearly match the pattern when the, paper is unfolded. It will be interested to see that the designs of, the cut will appear on each fold made in the paper., Example 3. Consider the following three figures, marked X, Y,, Z showing one fold in X, another in Y and cut in Z. From, amongst the answer figure A, B, C and D, select the one,, showing the unfolded position of Z., , III. Grouping Identical Figure, , 1, , 2, , 3, , 4, , 5, , 6, , 7, , 8, , 9, , b. 1, 7, 9; 2, 3, 6; 4, 5, 8, a. 1, 2, 9; 3, 4, 6; 5, 7, 8, b. 1, 7, 8; 2, 9, 3; 6, 4, 5, d. 1, 6, 8; 2, 4, 7; 3, 5, 9, Solution: (b) 1, 7, 9; each in a pair of two similar figures one is, inside the other but not touching each other. 2, 3, 6; each in a, pair of two similar figures one is inside the other and both, touching each other. 4, 5, 8; each figure in divided into equal, parts by straight lines passing through the centre., , Multiple Choice Questions, Directions (1 to 6) A square transparent sheet with a, pattern is given in figure X. Find out from amongst the, alternatives as to how the pattern would appear when the, transparent sheet is folded at the dotted line., , 2., , X, , 1., a., , X, 3., a., , b., , c., , d., , X, , b., , c., , d.
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I.B.138, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 8., a., , b., , c., , d., , X, , Y, , Z, , a., , b., , c., , X, , Y, , Z, , a., , b., , c., , X, , Y, , Z, , a., , b., , c., , X, , Y, , Z, , a., , b., , c., , X, , Y, , Z, , 4., , X, , a., , b., , c., , d., , d., , 9., , 5., , X, , a., , b., , c., , d., , d., , 10., , 6., , X, , a., , b., , c., , d., , 11., , Directions (7 to 20) A sheet has been folded in the manner, as shown in X, Y and Z respectively and punched. You, have to choose from the alternatives how it will look when, unfolded., , 7., , d., , d., , 12., , X, , Y, , Z, , a., , b., , c., , d., , a., , b., , c., , d.
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Paper Folding and Cutting, , I.B.139, , 19. Choose a figure which would most closely resemble the, unfolded form of Figure (Z)., , 13., , X, , Y, , Z, , a., , b., , Y, , X, , P, , Z, , d., , c., , a., , b., , c., , d., , 14., , X, , Y, , a., , b., , c., , X, , Y, , Z, , 20. Choose a figure which would most closely resemble the, unfolded form of Figure (Z)., , Z, , d., , X, , Y, , Z, , 15., , a., , b., , c., , a., , d., , 16., , b., , c., , d., , Direction (21 to 25) In each of the following questions, a set, of some figures is given. Group these figures into three, classes on the basis of identical properties using each figure, only once., 21., , X, , Y, , Z, , a., , b., , c., , Y, , 2, , 3, , 4, , 5, , 6, , 7, , 8, , 9, , d., , 17., , X, , 1, , a. 1, 5, 9; 2, 6, 8; 3, 4, 7, c. 1, 2, 3; 4, 5, 6; 7, 8, 9, , Z, , b. 2, 6, 8; 1, 3, 4; 5, 7, 9, d. 1, 4, 5; 2, 7, 9; 3, 6, 9, , 22., a., , b., , c., , d., , 1, , 2, , 3, , 4, , 5, , 6, , 7, , 8, , 9, , 18., , X, , a., , Y, , b., , Z, , c., , d., , a. 7, 8, 9; 2, 3, 4; 1, 5, 6, c. 1, 6, 8; 3, 4, 7; 2, 5, 9, , b. 1, 2, 3; 4, 5, 7; 6; 8, 9, d. 1, 6, 9; 3, 4, 7; 2; 5, 8
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I.B.140, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 25., , 23., 1, , 2, , 3, , 4, , 5, , 6, , 7, , 8, , 9, , a. 1, 2, 3; 4, 5, 6; 7, 8, 9, c. 1, 5, 9; 3, 6, 2; 4, 7, 8, , 2, , 2, , 3, , 4, , 5, , 6, , 7, , 8, , 9, , a. 3, 4, 9; 5, 7, 8; 1, 2, 6, c. 4, 6, 8; 3, 5, 7; 1, 2, 9, , b. 1, 3, 5; 2, 4, 6; 7, 8, 9, d. 1, 9, 7; 2, 8, 5; 3, 4, 6, , b. 1, 5, 6; 2, 4, 8; 3, 7, 9, d. 1, 2, 7; 3, 5, 9; 4, 6, 8, , 26. In set of figures is given in group into classes on the basis, of their column properties, then choose the correct option., , 24., , 1, , 1, , 3, 1, , 2, , 3, , 4, , 5, , 6, , 4, , 5, , 6, , 7, , 8, , 9, , 7, , 8, , 9, , a. 1, 5, 7; 2, 4, 6; 3, 9, 8, c. 1, 4, 7; 2, 5, 8; 3, 6, 9, , a. 1, 2, 9; 3, 4, 6; 5, 7, 8, b. 1, 7, 8; 2, 9, 3; 6, 4, 5, , b. 1, 5, 7; 2, 4, 8; 3, 6, 9, d. 1, 7, 9; 3, 5, 8; 2, 4, 6, , b. 1, 7, 9; 2, 3, 6; 4, 5, 8, d. 1, 6, 8; 2, 4, 7; 3, 5, 9, , ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , a, , a, , b, , b, , d, , d, , a, , a, , a, , b, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , b, , d, , d, , d, , a, , c, , d, , d, , c, , b, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , a, , d, , a, , b, , d, , b, , SOLUTIONS, 21. (a) Figures 1, 5, 9 are all squares. Figures 2, 6, and 8 are, all circles. Figures 3, 4 and 7 are all triangles., 22. (d) 1, 6, 9 are all triangles; 2, 5, 8 are all pentagons and 3,, 4, 7 are all quadrilaterals., 23. (a) 1, 2, 3 each is a pair of lines. 4, 5, 6 each is a group of, 3 lines, 7, 8, 9 each is a group of 4 lines., , 24. (b) 1, 5, 7 have two similar figures, one inside the other, and the inside figure is divided into equal parts. 2, 4, 8, have one figure placed inside a different figure with inner, figure shaded. 3, 6, 9 have two similar figures, one inside, the other and the area between the two figures is shaded., 25. (d) 1, 2, 7 are simple geometrical figures. 3, 5, 9 have one, figure placed inside a different figure. 4, 6, 8 have two, different figures attached to each other., 26. (b) 1, 7, 9; each in a pair of two similar figures one is, inside the other but not touching each other. 2, 3, 6; each, in a pair of two similar figures one is inside the other and, both touching each other. 4, 5, 8; each figure in divided, into equal parts by straight lines passing through the, centre.
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Mirror and Water Images, , 20, , I.B.141, , Mirror and Water Images, , Mirror images, Mirror Image is also called as Vertical Plane. Have you ever, observed your mirror image?, , I., , 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, , Your right becomes left and left becomes right. Right?, Ok, now there is a technical definition for Mirror Images in, Reasoning: Please keep this definition in your mind. In the, mirror image, the RIGHT part of the object appears at the, LEFT side and vice-versa. But the UPPER and LOWER, parts remain constant. Here questions are based on criteria, that few figures are given and you have to find out of which, one is exact image of the given figure by the mirror placed, aside., This image formation is based on the principle of ‘LATERAL, INVERSION’ which implies that size of the image is equal to, the size of the object but both sides are changed. The left, portion of the object is seen on the right portion and right, portion of the object is seen on the left portion. For example, ., mirror image of ABC =, Note, Using reflections in photography can lead to some amazing, effects and beautiful images. Using water, windows, mirrors or, any sort of reflective surface can change an image into a work, of art. The wonderful thing about using reflections when taking, photos is that they can completely alter the image from, something fairly straightforward to something richer or abstract, or otherwise more artistic., , Sometimes reflections can be annoying and certainly not, artistic. But creativity and good-quality photos depend on the, photographer being able to see things differently, rather than, seeing only one part of a larger whole., Also, using reflected light can vastly improve the quality of, lighting available. Diffused light is generally better for taking, photos, and using reflected light, either as the main source of, light or for highlighting, is an excellent way to capture diffused, light., Note: There are ‘11’ letters in English Alphabet which have, identical mirror images as A, H, I, M, O, T, U, V, W, X, Y, , Mirror images of Numbers., , 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, II., , Mirror Images of capital letters and small letters., A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J, K, L, M, , N, O, P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X, Y, Z, , a, b, c, d, e, f, g, h, i, j, k, l, m, , n, o, p, q, r, s, t, u, v, w, x, y, z, , Reflection of an object into the mirror is called mirror-image. It, is obtained by inverting an object laterally i.e. towards the, sides. Example of lateral inversions of few figures and words, are given below:, Objects having Different Mirror Images:, Objects, Mirror Images
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I.B.142, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Numbers, 32596, , Mirror Images, , 8932, 868, 786, 10190, 5693, 8964, 7362, 8593, 7839, Water images: Water Images in non-verbal reasoning is same, as Mirror Images method. Basically Water Image, shortcuts and tricks are like flapping figure., , Water image is just a reflection where top and bottom part of, the images changed where left and right side of image remain, same. In Mirror image left side and right side changed viceversa where top and bottom remain same. It is the inverted, image obtained by turning the object upside down., Note: There are ‘7’ letters in English Alphabet which have, identical water-images as C, D, E, H, I, O, X, Water Images of Capital Letters, Mirror images of certain words and numbers:, Words, Mirror Images, PREDICTION, , A B C D E F G H I J K L M, Letters, Water-Image, Letters, N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z, Water-Image, , HOSPITAL, DARPAN, STRIGENT, OPULENT, SARCASM, , Water Images of Small Letters, , a b c d e f g h i j k l m, Letters, Water-Image, Letters, n o p q r s t u v w x y z, Water-Image, , LIBERAL, OFFENCE, , Water Images of Number, , ADVANCE, , 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9, Number, Water-Image, , IMAGES
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Mirror and Water Images, , I.B.143, , Multiple Choice Questions, Directions (1 to 19): In each of the following questions,, choose the correct mirror image from alternatives A, B, C, and D of the word/figure., 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , JUDGEMENT, a. TNEMEGDUJ, c., , 9., , b. TJUDGEMEN, d. DJUGEMNET, , VERBAL, a. LABREV, c. REVBAL, , b. LRVEBA, d., , VINAYAKA, a. INVAYAKA, c., , b. AKAYA IV, d. A AYANIV, , CONSOLIDATE, a. ETADILOSNOC, c. TAECONSOLID, , b., d. OCNSOLIDATE, , TARAIN1014A, a., c. A410ARTAIN1, , b. A4101NIARAT, d., , a., , b., , c., , d., , a., , b., , c., , d., , a., , b., , c., , d., , a., , b., , c., , d., , a., , b., , c., , d., , O, , O, , c., , d., , 10., , 11., , 6., 12., , a., , b., , c., , d., , 13., , 7., , a., , b., , c., , d., , 14., , 8., , O O, , O, a., , b., , c., , d., , a., , O, , O, , b., , O O, , O
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I.B.144, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 15. D R A P E R Y E I S 5 73 9, a., b., 9, c., d., , 25., , a., , b., , c., , d., , b., , c., , d., , 26., , 16. 1 9 6 5 I N D O P A K, a., c., D, , b., d., , 17. D L 9 C G 4 7 2 8, a., C, c., , b., d., , D, , (X), , a., 27. (X) =, , 18., a., , b., d., , c., a., , b., , c., , d., , 19., 28., , (X), , a., , b., , c., , d., a., , Directions (20 to 34): In each of the following questions, choose, the correct water-images from alternatives A, B, C and D of, the word/figure (X)., 20. wrote, a., , b., , c., , d., , b., , c., , d., , b., , c., , d., , 29., b., , 21. RAJ589DB, a., c., , c., , d., , (X), , b., d., a., , 22. 50JA32DEO6, a., c., , b., d., , 30., , 23. monday, a. yadnom, , b., , c., , d., , 24. 96FSH52, a., , b., , c., , d., , (X), , a.
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Mirror and Water Images, , I.B.145, , 31., , 37., , 356274, , a., (X), , 38., b., , c., , d., , 39., , c., , d., , b., , (3), , d. CHIC, , b., , c., , d., , CHICK, , a. CHIC, a., , b. 3295, , REFUND, , a. DN, 32., , Direction (40 to 44) In the following questions you have to, visualise the image of the item (Letter/word/number/figure), in the mirror. The mirror is below the item. Choose the, mirror image from the alternatives., , (X), , a., , b., , c., , d., , a., 41., , 33., , 3609, , 40., , 42., , b., , c., , d., , d., , b., , c., , d., , b., , c., , d., , SIERT, , a., a., , c., , NTSE, , a., , (X), , b., , 43., , 34., , (X), a., , a., b., c., d., Directions (35 to 39) In the following questions, you have to, visualise the image of the item (Letter/word /, number/figure) in the water. The water source is below the, item. Choose the water image from the alternatives., , 36., , b., , c., , d., , JTVDF, , a., , b., , c., , d., , 44., , 3, 6, , d., , Direction (45 to 52): In the following questions you have to, visualise the image of the item (figure, word, letter,, number) in water. The water source is below the item., Choose the water image from the alternatives., , (X), , a., , c., , 12, 9, , a., , 35., , b., , b., , c., , d., , 45. TL98dw, a., , b., , c., , d., , 46. Player, a., , b., , c., , d.
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I.B.146, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 51. R A J 5 8 9 D 8, 47., , a., , b., , c., , d., , 9D8, , 52. a b 4 5 C D 6 7, a., , b., , c., , d., , a., , b., , c., , d., , Direction (53 to 55): In each of the following questions,, , 48., , identify the water image of the given figure., 53., a., , b., , c., , d., , 49., , a., , b., , c., , d., , a., , b., , c., , d., , a., , b., , c., , d., , 54., , a., , b., , c., , d., , 50., , 55., , a., , b., , c., , d., , ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , c, , d, , c, , b, , a, , c, , c, , d, , a, , b, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , d, , c, , b, , d, , b, , d, , c, , c, , d, , a, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , a, , b, , d, , c, , c, , a, , a, , d, , d, , c, , 31., , 32., , 33., , 34., , 35., , 36., , 37., , 38., , 39., , 40., , d, , b, , b, , b, , b, , d, , d, , a, , c, , a, , 41., , 42., , 43., , 44., , 45., , 46., , 47., , 48., , 49., , 50., , a, , c, , b, , c, , a, , d, , b, , b, , a, , b, , 51., , 52., , 53., , 54., , 55., , a, , a, , a, , c, , a, , SOLUTIONS, 15. (b), 1965INDOPAK, Object, , Image, Mirror, , 16. (d), 1965INDOPAK, Object, , Image, Mirror
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Mirror and Water Images, , 17. (c), , I.B.147, , ab45CD67, , Object, Image, , DL9CG4728, Object, , 18. (c), , Image, Mirror, Object, , Object, , 53. (a), , Image, Mirror, , 19. (d), , Image, , Object, , 54. (c), Image, , Image, , Object, Mirror, , 51. (a), , RAJ589D8, , Object, , Object, Image, , 55. (a), Image, , 52. (a), ,
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I.B.148, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 21, Figure puzzles are an important activity for children because, the underlying visual perceptual skills needed are the same, skills that are used when reading and writing as they get older., Visual perception is not the ability to see well but how what we, see is processed and organised in the brain. At school, children, use visual perception for reading, copying from the blackboard,, organising maths, handwriting and most other aspects of, school. Visual perception is closely related to language and, cognitive development., Completing a figure puzzle uses skills such as the following:, , Planning and Problem Solving – Planning a strategy to, complete the puzzle; trying an alternate way if the first, attempt is not successful; puzzles help to work through, techniques such as trial and error in a fun way; helps to, develop task persistence and increased visual attention., , Visual Discrimination – Identifying the edge, corner and, centre pieces and scanning for information on the pieces to, complete the puzzle., , Figure Ground – Finding the required pieces amongst a, lot of other pieces on the table top., , Position in Space – Orienting and rotating pieces in space, to ‘fit’ together., , Spatial Relations – Orienting the pieces in relations to, each other., , Visual Closure – Extrapolating information; finding pieces to, complete the ‘whole’ picture., , Form Constancy – Recognising objects despite a change, in a feature, for example, the picture size from the box lid, to the actual size., Dot Situation, The problems on dot situation involve the search of similar, conditions in the alternative figures as indicated in the problem, figure. The problem figure contains dots placed in the spaces, enclosed between the combinations of square, triangle,, rectangle and circle. Selecting one of these dots we observe the, region in which this dot in enclosed i.e. to which of the four, figures (circle, square, rectangle and triangle) is this region, common. Then we look for such a region in the four, alternatives. Once we have found it. We repeat the procedure, for other dots, if any. The alternative figure which contains all, such regions is the answer., , Figure Puzzles, Note, From early childhood right through to adulthood we love to, play with puzzles. We like the way they challenge our thinking, and exercise our minds., , Puzzles are also an important educational learning tool for, toddlers and young children as they provide many skills and, mental learning benefits and opportunities. Puzzles come in a, whole range of themes and topics such as alphabet letters,, shapes, vegetables, numbers, pets, transport and colours. It, increases their visual spacial awareness and develops a deeper, understanding of these themes and topics. Overcoming the, challenges involved in solving a puzzle really gives them a, sense of achievement and pride within themselves. It provides, a boost to their self-confidence and self-esteem as this prepares, them for other challenges in life., Direction (1 to 2): In each of the following questions there is a, diagram marked (X), with one or more dost placed in it. The, diagram is followed by four other figures, marked (a), (b), (c), and (d) only one of which is such as to make possible the, placement of the alternative in each case., , Example 1., , a., , b., , c., , d., , Solution: (c) In figure (X), the dot lies in the region common, to the circle and the triangle only. Such a region is present in, figure (c) only., , Example 2., , a., , b., , c., , d.
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Figure Puzzles, , I.B.149, , Solution: (a) In figure (X), one of the dots is placed in the, region common to the circle and the triangle and the other dot, is placed in the region common to the triangle and the square., From amongst the figures (a), (b), (c) and (d), only figure (a), has both the regions, one common to circle and triangle and the, other common to triangle and square., , Figure Completion, In such problems a figure following a particular sequence or, pattern is given. In which a part usually one-fourth is left blank., This problem figure is followed by four alternative figures. One is, required to choose the one which best fit into the blank space of, problem figure so as to complete the original pattern., , Embedded Figure: A figure is said to be embedded in a figure, Y, if figure Y contains figure (X) as its part. thus problem on, embedded figures contain a figure followed by four complex, figures in such a way that figure is embedded in one of these., The figure containing the figure is your answer., , Directions (5 to 6): Select a figure from the four, alternatives, which when placed in the blank space of figure, would complete the pattern., , Direction (3 to 4): In each of the following questions, choose, the alternative figure in which the question figure is, embedded., , Example 5., , ?, , Example 3., d., a., b., c., Solution: (d) Clearly, figure (d) will complete the pattern when, placed in the blank space of figure as shown below., , a., b., c., d., Solution: (b) On close observation, we find that figure is, embedded in figure (b) as shown below:, , Example 6., , ?, , b., , a., , c., , d., , Solution: (c) Clearly, figure (c) will complete the pattern when, placed in the blank space of figure as shown below., Example 4., Figure Formation, Direction (7 to 8): In the following question, find out which, of the figure (a), (b), (c) and (d) can be formed from the, pieces given in figure., Example 7., a., , b., , c., , d., , Solution: (b) On close observation, we find that figure is, embedded in figure (b) as shown below., , a., , b., , c., , d.
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , I.B.150, , Solution: (a) On close observation, we find that only figure (a), is combined figure., , a., , b., , c., , d., , Solution: (b) On close observation, we find that only figure, (b) is combined figure., Example 8., , Multiple Choice Questions, Direction (1 to 5): In the following question a dot is placed, in the figure marked as (X), this figure is followed by four, alternatives marked as (1), (2), (3) and (4). One out of these, four options contains the common region to circle, square,, triangle and rectangle similar to that of marked by dot in, figure. Select that option., , a., , 5., , b., , c., , d., , Choose a figure from amongst the four options that has, the same conditions of placement of dots as in figure., , 1., , Fig. (X), , a., , b., , c., , d., , a., , 2., , b., , c., , d., , Direction (6 to 21): From amongst the figures marked (1),, (2) (3) and (4), select a figure which satisfies the same, conditions of placement of the dots as in fig (X)., 6., b., , a., , c., , Fig. (X), , d., , 3., a., , b., , c., , d., , b., , c., , d., , 7., a., , b., , c., , d., , Fig. (X), , 4., a.
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Figure Puzzles, , I.B.151, , 8., , 13., Fig. (X), , a., , Fig. (X), , b., , c., , a., , d., , 9., , b., , c., , d., , 14., Fig. (X), , a., , Fig. (X), , b., , c., , a., , d., , b., , c., , d., , b., , c., , d., , 15., , 10., , Fig. (X), , Fig. (X), , a., , b., , c., , a., , d., , 16., 11., Fig. (X), , Fig. (X), , a., , b., , c., , a., , d., , b., , c., , d., , b., , c., , d., , 17, , 12., , Fig. (X), , Fig. (X), , a., , b., , c., , d., , a.
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , I.B.152, , 18., , ?, , 23., Fig. (X), , (X), , a., , b., , c., , d., , a., , b., , c., , d., , b., , c., , d., , b., , c., , d., , b., , c., , d., , b., , c., , d., , ?, , 19., 24., Fig. (X), , (X), , a., , b., , c., , a., , d., , 20., , ?, Fig. (X), , 25., (X), , a., , b., , c., , d., a., , 21., Fig. (X), , 26., , a., , b., , c., , ?, , d., , (X), , Direction (22 to 28): Select a figure from the alternatives, which when placed in the blank space of (X) would, complete the pattern?, , a., , ?, 27., , 22., , ?, (X), , (X), , a., , b., , c., , d., , a.
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Figure Puzzles, , I.B.153, , 28., , a., , b., , c., , d., , (X), , 33., , b., , a., , c., , d., , ?, , Direction (29 to 33): In the following questions a pattern is, given with a part missing which is indicated by a question, mark. Find out from the alternative figures the part which, would go in place of the question mark to complete the, pattern., , 29., , a., , b., , c., , d., , Direction (34 to 39): In each of the following questions,, select a figure form the options which will complete the, pattern in figure., , ?, 34., , ?, a., , b., , c., , d., , a., , b., , c., , d., , b., , c., , d., , b., , c., , d., , 30., ?, , ?, a., , 31., , b., , c., , d., , 35., , ?, , a., , a., , b., , c., , d., , 36., , ?, , 32., a.
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I.B.154, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , ?, 37., , a., , b., , c., , d., , c., , d., , b., , c., , d., , b., , c., , d., , b., , c., , d., , 42., a., , b., , c., , d., , ?, , 38., , ?, b., , a., , a., , b., , c., , d., , ?, , 43., , ?, 39., , a., a., , b., , c., , d., , Direction (40 to 47): In each of the following questions,, select a figure from the options which completes the figure, matrix., , ?, , 44., , 40., , ?, a., , a., , b., , c., , d., , 45., ?, , 41., , ?, , a.
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Figure Puzzles, , I.B.155, , 50., 46., ?, , a., , b., , c., , d., , a., , b., , c., , d., , a., , b., , c., , d., , 51., , 47., ?, , a., , b., , c., , d., , Directions (48 to 49): In the following question, find out, which of the figure (1), (2), (3) and (4) can be formed from, the pieces given in figure (X)., , Direction (52 to 53): In the following questions two figures, are given as problem figures. Which of the following, alternative figures would be formed if the first figure is, superimposed on the second figure?, 52., , 48., , a., , b., , c., , a., , b., , c., , d., , 53., , a., , b., , c., , d., , d., , Direction (54 to 61): In each of the following questions,, choose the alternative figure in which question figure is, embedded., , 49., , 54., a., , b., , c., , d., , Directions (50 to 51): Which of the following figures (given as, alternatives) would be formed by joining the four pieces/blocks, of figures given below?, a., , b., , c., , d.
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I.B.156, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 55., a., , b., , a., , b., , a., , b., , c., , d., , 60., , a., , b., , c., , d., , 56., d., , c., , 61., , a., , b., , d., , c., , 57., c., , d., , Direction (62 to 63): Select a figure form the options in which, the given figure is exactly embedded as one of its part., 62., a., , b., , c., , d., , 58., , a., , b., , c., , d., , b., , c., , d., , 63., a., , b., , c., , d., , 59., a., , ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , c, , c, , c, , d, , a, , b, , c, , d, , b, , d, , d, , d, , a, , a, , d, , b, , a, , b, , c, , a, , 41., , 42., , 43., , 44., , 45., , 46., , 47., , 48., , 49., , 50., , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , b, , d, , c, , a, , c, , d, , b, , c, , b, , a, , d, , b, , c, , d, , a, , b, , c, , a, , d, , a, , 51., , 52., , 53., , 54., , 55., , 56., , 57., , 58., , 59., , 60., , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , d, , b, , a, , d, , a, , d, , a, , b, , c, , c, , c, , b, , d, , d, , a, , c, , a, , a, , d, , d, , 61., , 62., , 63., , 31., , 32., , 33., , 34., , 35., , 36., , 37., , 38., , 39., , 40., , b, , b, , c
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Figure Puzzles, , I.B.157, , SOLUTIONS, 5., , (d) There are three dots in the given figure., 1. One dot lies in the region of rectangle only., 2. One dot lies in the region common to circle and, rectangle only, 3. One dot lies in the region common to all the three, shapes circle, rectangle and square., The figure that has all the situation of placement of the, three dots is shown below:, , 15. (a), , 16. (b), , 17. (c), 6., , (b), 18. (a), , 7., , (a), 19. (d), , 8., , (b), 20. (a), , 9., , (c), , 21. (c), 10. (a), , 11. (d), 34. (d), , 12. (b), 35. (a), 13. (c), , 14. (d), , 36. (b)
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I.B.158, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 41. (b) Both arrows and dots moves CW in rows., 42. (d) Similar pattern is followed row-wise. The missing, figure has half figure coloured., 43. (c) Number of squares in each row is 2, 3 and 4., 44. (a) Figure is rotated 90° CW in each row., 45. (c) Each figure is rotated 90° CW in each row., 46. (d) each figure rotates 90° clockwise in each stage and the, shapes are of three types: solid, dashed and dotted., 47. (b) Each column has alternately, , and figures in, its inner position., , 37. (c), , 38. (d), , 62. (b), 39. (b), , 40. (d) The figures in second column is obtained by vertically, inverting each shape., , 63. (c), ,
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I.B.159, , Figure Construction and Analysis, , 22, , Figure Construction and Analysis, , A construction is a geometric drawing for which only a, compass and a straightedge may be used. Using specific, observations and examples to arrive at a conjecture is called, inductive reasoning. Deductive reasoning uses logic, and, statements that are already accepted to be true, to reach, conclusions. The methods of mathematical proof are based on, deductive reasoning. A ‘point’, a ‘line’ and a ‘plane’ are the, basic concepts to be used in geometry and to construction, different figures., , Example 1. Select a figure from the given four options which, fits exactly into figure X to form a complete square., , Fig. (X), , a., , b., , c., , d., , Note, , Solution: (b) We observe after rotating the figure (b) through, , Fauvism, Cubism, Symbolism, and other movements played an, important role in the development of his own revolutionary, approach to painting., , 180°, it exactly fits into figure X to form a complete square as, shown below:, , Decrying literal representation, Kandinsky emphasized instead, the importance of form, colour, rhythm, and the artist's inner, need in expressing reality. Relying on his own unique, terminology, he develops the idea of point as the "protoelement" of painting, the role of point in nature, music, and, other art, and the combination of point and line that results in a, unique visual language., He then turns to an absorbing discussion of line—the influence, of force on line, lyric and dramatic qualities, and the translation, of various phenomena into forms of linear expression., With profound artistic insight, Kandinsky points out the, organic relationship of the elements of painting, touching on, the role of texture, the element of time, and the relationship of, all these elements to the basic material plane called upon to, receive the content of a work of art., I. Construction of Squares and Triangles, There are three ways of asking question from this chapter:, To choose the only segment of a square., To choose three figures that are all the segments of a, square., To choose three figures that are all the segments of an, equilateral triangle., , Example 2. Select that combination of the parts, PQRS and T,, which can form a complete square when they are mutually, fitted into each other., , (P), , (Q), , (a) PRT, , (R), , (b) QRS, , (S), , (c) PST, , (T), , (d) QRT, , Solution: (d), Q, R, , T, , II. Figure Formation and Analysis, This chapter deals with various types of two-dimensional and, three dimensional figures, their formation and their analysis., Choose a figure whose components are given., Identify the components of a given figure., Formation of a three-dimensional figure from its net., Identifying an identical figure., Choosing a pattern with given components.
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I.B.160, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Example 3. Find out which of the figures (a), (b), (c) and (d), can be formed from the pieces given in Fig. (X), , Fig. (X), , a., , Solution: (c) Let us join the two smaller pieces as shown, below, , Now, join it with the third piece as shown below:, , b., , c., , d., , Multiple Choice Questions, Direction (1 to 4): In each of the following questions, a, figure X is given. Choose a figure from four options such, that this figure and the figure X can form a complete, square after fitting each other., , Direction (1 to 9): In each of the following questions a set of, five figures 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 is provided. Out of them-three, figures when fitted into each other forms a complete square., Choose an option representing such three figures., 5., , 1., (1), , Fig. (X), , (2), , a. 1 2 4, , (3), , b. 3 4 5, , (4), , c. 1 2 5, , (5), , d. 1 3 5, , 6., a., , b., , c., , d., (1), , (2), , a. 1 2 4, , (3), , b. 1 2 5, , (4), , c. 2 3 4, , (5), , d. 2 4 5, , 2., 7., Fig. (X), (1), , (2), , a. 1 3 5, a., , b., , c., , d., , (3), , b. 1 2 3, , (4), , c. 1 4 5, , (5), , d. 2 3 4, , 8., , 3., , (1), , (2), , a. 1 4 5, , Fig. (X), , (3), , b. 1 3 5, , (4), , c. 2 3 5, , (5), , d. 3 4 5, , 9., , a., , b., , c., , d., , (1), , a. 1 4 5, , 4., Fig. (X), , a., , b., , c., , d., , (2), , (3), , b. 2 3 4, , (4), , c. 2 4 5, , (5), , d. 1 3 5, , Direction (10 to 11): In each of the following questions,, choose the combination of the three parts from (a) (b) (c), and (d), which can fit into each other to form an equilateral, triangle.
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Figure Construction and Analysis, , I.B.161, , 10., (1), , a. a c b, , (2), , b. a d b, , (3), , (4), , c. c d a, , a., , b., , c., , d., , b., , c., , d., , d. b d c, 16., , 11., , Fig. (X), , (a), , a. a b c, , (b), , b. a b d, , (c), , (d), , c. c d a, , d. b d c, a., , Direction (12 to 14): In each of the following questions, all, the components of a geometrical figure are shown in figure, X. Identify this geometrical figure from amongst the four, options., , 12., , Direction (Question 17): In each of the following questions,, a 3-dimensional object is given in figure X. Choose one of, the four option figures (nets) which will form the given, figure (X) when it is folded along the dotted line., , 17., Fig. (X), , Fig. (X), , a., , b., , c., , d., , a., , b., , c., , d., , Direction (18 to 19): In each of the following questions, a, figure X is given. Find out which one of the option figures is, identical as the figure X., , 13., Fig. (X), , 18., a., , b., , c., , d., , Fig. (X), , 14., a., , Fig. (X), , b., , c., , d., , 19., a., , b., , c., , d., , Fig. (X), , Direction (15 to 16): In each of the following questions,, identify the exact components of the given figure (x)., a., , 15., Fig. (X), , b., , c., , d., , Direction (Question 20): In each of the following questions,, select an options figure which has the same components as, that of the given figure X.
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I.B.162, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 20., a., , Fig. (X), , b., , ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , b, , d, , d, , a, , d, , b, , a, , d, , d, , d, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , a, , d, , c, , c, , c, , c, , a, , b, , b, , a, , SOLUTIONS, , 8., , (d), , 4, , 3, , 5, , 9., , (d), , 1, 5, 3, , 1., , (b), 10. (d), , 2., , (d), 12. (d), 13. (c), , 4., , (a), , 14. (c), 15. (c), , 5., , 1, , (d), , 3, 5, , 6., , (b), , (a), , 16. (c), 17. (a), , 5, , 1, , 18. (b), , 2, , 7., , b, c, , a, , b, c, , (d), 11. (a), , 3., , d, , 19. (b), , 1, 5, , 3, , 20. (a), , , , c., , d.
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PART two, SCHOLASTIC ABILITY TEST (SAT), Section A—Mathematics, Section B—physics, Section C—Chemistry, Section D—Biology, Section E—History, Section F—Geography, Section G—Economics, Section h—Political Science,
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Section, , A, , Mathematics, Chapter in this sECTION, 1. Number and Operation, , II.A.5, , 13. Plane and Coordinate Geometry, , II.A.86, II.A.96, , 2. LCM and HCF, , II.A.14, , 14. Triangle, , 3. Square and Cube Roots, , II.A.20, , 15. Quadrilateral, , II.A.107, , 4. Surds, Indices and Logarithm, , II.A.29, , 16. Circle, , II.A.112, , 5. Average, , II.A.40, , 17. Pair of Linear Equations, , II.A.122, , 6. Ratio and Proportion, , II.A.43, , 18. Polynomials, , II.A.129, , 7. Partnership, , II.A.47, , 19. Quadratic Equations, , II.A.137, , 8. Percentage, , II.A.52, , 20. Progression, , II.A.145, , 9. Profit and Loss, , II.A.57, , 21. Probability, , II.A.157, , 10. Interest: SI and CI, , II.A.61, , 22. Statistics, , II.A.162, , 11. Problems on Age, , II.A.67, , 23. Trigonometry, , II.A.177, , 12. Mensuration, , II.A.71, , 24. Height and Distance, , II.A.187
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Numbers and Operations, , II.A.5, , 1, , Numbers and Operations, , Number theory is a vast and fascinating field of mathematics,, sometimes called "higher arithmetic," consisting of the study of, the properties of whole numbers. Primes and prime, factorization are especially important in number theory, as are, a number of functions such as the divisor function, Riemann, zeta function, etc., , Integers extend infinitely in both negative and positive, directions. Integers do not include fractions or decimals. The, integer zero (0) is neither positive nor negative., , The great difficulty in proving relatively simple results in, number theory prompted no less an authority than Gauss to, remark that "it is just this which gives the higher arithmetic that, magical charm which has made it the favourite science of the, greatest mathematicians, not to mention its inexhaustible, wealth, wherein it so greatly surpasses other parts of, mathematics." Gauss, often known as the "prince of, mathematics," called mathematics the "queen of the sciences", and considered number theory the "queen of mathematics"., Real numbers: Number which can represent actual physical, quantities in a meaningful way are known as real numbers., These can be represented on the number line. Number line in, geometrical straight line with arbitrarily defined zero (origin)., , Even numbers: Integers those are divisible by 2; The integer, zero (0) is an even number., …, –4, –2, 0, 2, 4, …, Consecutive integers: Integers that follow in sequence, where, the difference between two successive integers is 1, are, consecutive integers. An expression representing consecutive, integers:, n, n 1, n 2, n 3,, where n is any integer; examples of, , Classification of Numbers, Real, Real Algebraic, Rational, 1, Integer, 2, –1, Natural, 0, , 1, , 2, , –2, , 3, , –3, , N, , , e, , 2, , 2, 3, , 1 5, 2, , 2.25, , Transcen, -, , Irrational, , I or Z, , some consecutive integers : e.g.: (i) –1, 0, 1, 2, 3 and (ii) 1001,, 1002, 1003, 1004, Addition of integers, even + even = even, odd + odd = even, odd + even = odd, Adding zero (0) to any number doesn’t change the value:, 9+0=9, –1 + 0 = –1, , 2, , 3, , , , Odd numbers: Integers those are not divisible by 2, …, –5, –3, –1, 1, 3, 5, …, , Q, AR, R, , Natural number: Set of all non-negative and non-fractional, number from 1 to + ,N = {1,2,3,4,....}., Whole number: Set of numbers from 0 to + ,, W = {0,1,2,3,4,.....}., Integers: Set of all-non fractional numbers from – to + ,I, or Z = (...., –3, –2, –1,0,1,2,3,....}., Integers consist of the whole numbers and their negatives, (including zero)., .…, –3, –2, –1, 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, …, , Multiplication of integers, even × even = even, odd × odd = odd, odd × even = even, Multiplying any number by one (1) doesn’t change the value:, 8 1 8, 10 1 10, Number lines: A number line is used to graphically represent the, relationships betweennumbers: integers, fractions, or decimals., –6 –5 –4 –3 –2 –1, , 0, , 1, , 2, , 3, , 4, , 5, , Numbers on a number line always increase as you move to the, right. Negative numbers are always shown with a negative, sign (–). For positive numbers, the plus sign (+) is usually not, shown. The lengths and the ratios of the lengths of line, segments represented on the number line.
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II.A.6, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Example 1. Here is an example of a number line question:, A, , B, , C, , D, , E, , F, , G, , –2, , –1, , 0, , 1, , 2, , 3, , 4, , On the number line above, the ratio of AC to AG is equal to the, ratio of CD to which of the following?, a. AD, b. BD, c. CG, d. DF, Solution: In this question, the number line is used to determine, lengths: AC = 2,, AG = 6, CD = 1. Once you have these lengths, the question, becomes a ratio and proportion problem., The ratio of AC to AG is 2 to 6., AC is to AG as CD is to what?, 2 1, or x 3, 6 x, Now you have to go back to the number line to find which of the, given segments has length 3. Because AD = 3, the answer is (A)., , Fractions and rational Numbers: You should know how to, do basic operations with fractions:, Adding, subtracting, multiplying, and dividing fractions., Reducing to lowest terms., Finding the least common denominator., , 1, Expressing a value as a mixed number 2 and as an, 3, 7, improper fraction ., 3, Working with complex fractions – ones that have fractions, in their numerators or denominators., Fractions:, Common fraction: Fractions whose denominator is not 10., Decimal fraction: Fractions whose denominator is 10 or any, power of 10., 3, Proper fraction: Numerator < Denominator i.e. ., 5, 5, Improper fraction: Numerator > Denominator i.e. ., 3, Mixed fraction: Consists of integral as well as fractional part, 2, i.e. 3 ., 7, Compound fraction: Fraction whose numerator and, denominator themselves are, 2/3, Fractions. i.e., ., 5/ 7, Note: Improper fraction can be written in the form of mixed, fractions., , You should know that a rational number is a number that can, be represented by a fraction whose numerator and denominator, are both integers (and the denominator must be nonzero). A, fraction is a part of a whole or generally, any number of equal, 6, 7, parts. e.g.: . is a fraction and 3 is a rational number., 2, 3, Decimal fractions equivalents: You may have to work with, decimal fraction equivalents. That is, you may have to be able, to recognise common fractions as decimals and vice-versa., 1 1 1 2 3, Fraction, 4 3 2 3 4, 0.5, 0.75, Decimal 0.25 0.3 *, 0.6 *, Reciprocals: The reciprocal of a number is 1 divided by that, 1, 1, number; the reciprocal of 5 is . Note that 5 1. The, 5, 5, product of a number and its reciprocal is always 1., 2, 2, 3, e.g.: The reciprocal of is 1 divided by , which is equal to ., 3, 3, 2, the reciprocal of any nonzero fraction by switching its, numerator and denominator., Note: The number zero (0) has no reciprocal. The number 1 is, its own reciprocal. Also, the number –1 is its own reciprocal., Rational numbers: These are real numbers which can be, expressed in the form of p/q, where p and q are integers and q 0., Example: 2/3, 37/15, –17/19., All natural numbers, whole numbers and integers are rational., Rational numbers include all Integers (without any decimal, part to it), terminating fractions (fractions in which the, decimal parts terminating e.g. 0.75, –0.02 etc.) and also, non-terminating but recurring decimals e.g. 0.666...., –, 2.333....., etc., Properties of Rational Number, If a,b,c are three rational numbers., Commutative property of addition. a b b a, Associative property of addition a b c a b c , Additive inverse a a 0, 0 is identity element, –a is called additive inverse of a., Commutative property of multiplications a.b. = b.a., , Associative property of multiplication a.b .c a. b.c , Multiplicative inverse a 1 1, a, , 1 is called multiplicative identity and, multiplicative inverse of a or reciprocal of a., , Distributive property a. b c a.b a.c, , 1, a, , is called
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Numbers and Operations, , II.A.7, , Example 2. Find three rational no’s between a and b a b ., Solution: a b, , aa ba, 2a a b, , or, , a, , ab, 2, , a b 2b, , or, , ab, b., 2, , ab, b, 2, ab, lies between a and b., 2, , a, , ab, ., 2, a b 2a a b, a, 3a b, 2 , 2, For next rational number, , 2, 2, 4, 3a b a b, or a , , b, 4, 2, ab, b, a b 2b a 3b, Next, 2, , , 2, 2 2, 4, 3a b a b a 3b, a, , , b , and continues like this., 4, 2, 4, , Hence 1st rational number between a and b is, , Irrational Numbers: All real number which are not rational, are irrational numbers. These are non-recurring as well as nonterminating type of decimal numbers., , 2, 3 4,2 3, 2 3, 4 7 3 etc., , Properties of Irrational Number, Negative of an irrational number is an irrational number, e.g. a, , b, are irrational., 3, , , , i 3 i 2 i 1 i i, , , , i 4 i 2 i 2 1 1 1, , , , 2 3 6 Instead, , Imaginary numbers., , a , b Reg. 2 3i, 2 4i, 3i,11 4i, are complex, , numbers., Prime Numbers: A prime number is a positive integer greater, than 1 that has exactly two whole number factors – itself and, the number 1. The number 1 itself is not prime. Prime numbers, include: 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19... (Note that 2 is the only, even prime number)., Prime factors are the factors of a number that are prime, numbers. That is, the prime factors of a number cannot be, further divided into factors., e.g.: the prime factors of the number 24 are 2 and 3., 24 2 2 2 3, Co-prime numbers: If the H.C.F. of the given numbers (not, necessarily prime) is 1 then they are known as co-prime, numbers. e.g. 4, 9, are co-prime as H.C.F. of (4, 9) = 1. Any, two consecutive numbers will always be co-prime., Composite numbers: All natural number, which are not prime, are composite numbers. If C is the set of composite number, then C = {4,6,8,9,10,12,.....}., Note: 1 is neither prime nor composite number., , are called imaginary numbers. e.g. 3i, 4i, i ... Where i 1., , Note, 2 2, it is not a irrational number., , 2 3 , , , , Imaginary Numbers: All the numbers whose square is negative, , Sum and difference of a rational and an irrational number is, always an irrational number., Sum and difference of two irrational numbers is either, rational or irrational number., Product of a non-zero rational number with an irrational, number is either rational or irrationals, Product of an irrational with a irrational is not always, irrational., , , , i 2 1, , where, , a b b b., , e.g., , , , Numbers of the type a ib are called complex numbers, , Again, a b, , i.e., , 2 i 2, where i ( = iota) 1, , 2, 3 are called, , Complex Numbers: The combined form of real and imaginary, numbers is known as complex numbers. It is denoted by, Z A iB where A is real part and B is imaginary part of Z and, A, B R. The set of complex number is the super set of all the, sets of numbers., Identification prime number, Find approximate square root of given number., Divide the given number by prime numbers less than, approximate square root of number. If given number is not, divisible by any of this prime number then the number is, prime otherwise not.
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II.A.8, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Example 3. 571, is it a prime?, Solution: Approximate square root of 571 = 24., Prime number < 24 are 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, & 23. But 571, is not divisible by any of these prime numbers so 571 is a, prime number., , 3/7, , (iii), , 13, 7, –1, , Example 4. Is 1 prime or composite number?, Solution: 1 is neither prime nor composite number., Example 5. Find 4 rational numbers between 2 and 3., Solution: (a) Write 2 and 3 multipling in Nr and Dr with, (4+1)., 2 (4 1) 10, 3 (4 1) 15, (b) i.e. 2, , & 3, , (4 1), 5, (4 1), 5, 11 12 13 14, (c) So, the four required numbers are, , , , ., 5 5 5 5, 1 1, Example 6. Find 3 rational numbers between & ., 3 2, 1 1 23, , 5, Solution: 1st Method 3 2 6 , 2, 2, 12, 1 5 1, or, , ,, 3 12 2, 1 5, 45, , 3 12 12 9, 2, 2, 24, 5 1, 5, 6, 1 9 5 1 12 2 12 12 11, or, , , , , , , 3 24 12 2, 2, 2, 24, 1 9 5 11 1, or, , , , ,, 3 24 12 24 2, , Verify:, , 8, 9 10 11 12 8 1 1 , , , , . as & , 24 24 24 24 24 24 3 2 , , 2nd Method: Find n rational numbers between a and b a b ., ba, Find d , n 1, , 1st rational number will be a d., 2nd rational number will be a 2d., 3rd rational number will be a 3d and so on...., nth rational number is a nd., Representation of Rational Number on Number Line, (i) 3/7 Divide a unit into 7 equal parts., 4, (ii) , 9, , 0, , 1, , –1, , 0, , 1, , –1, , 0, , 1, , 2, , –4/9, , 2, , 13/7, , 2, , Decimal Number (Terminating), (iv) 2.5, (v) 1.65 (process of magnification), 2.5, , –1, , 0, , –1, , 0, , 2, , 1, , 3, , 2, , 1, , 3, , 1.6 1.7, 0.0, , 0.5, , 1.45, , 1.50, , 1, , 1.55, , 1.60, , 2, , 1.5, , 1.65, , 1.70, , 1.75, , 1.80, , 2.5, , 1.85, , 1.90, , To convert a decimal into a vulgar fraction, follow these steps:, Remove the number left to the decimal point, if any., Write the repeated figures only once in the numerator, without the decimal point., Write as many nines in the denominator as the number of, repeating figures., Add the number removed in step 1(if any) with the fraction, obtained in the above steps., Example 7. (i) 0.3 , , 3 1, , 9 3, , (ii) 0.7 , , 7, 9, , To convert a mixed recurring decimal into a vulgar, fraction, follow these steps., Remove the number left to the decimal point, if any., Numerator is the difference between the number formed by, all the digits (taking repeated digits only once) and that, formed by the digits which are not repeated., Denominator is the number formed by taking as many nines, as the number of repeating figures followed by as many, zeros as the number of non-repeating digits., Add the number removed in step 1 (if any) with the fraction, obtained in the above steps.
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Numbers and Operations, , II.A.9, , 1.501001000100001..., 1.601001000100001... etc. are in, , Example 8., (i), , 5429 54 5375 215, 0.5429 , 9900, 9900 396, , (ii), , 0.16 , , between, , 16 1 15 1, 90, , 90, , 6, , Rational Number in Decimal Representation, Terminating Decimal in this a finite number of digit occurs, after decimal., 1, i.e. 0.5,0.6875, 0.15 etc., 2, Non-terminating and Repeating (Recurring Decimal); In this a, set of digits or a digit is repeated continuously., 5, 0.454545 0.45., 11, Irrational Number in Decimal Form, , Examples 9., , 2 1.414213 i.e. it is not-recurring as well as nonterminating., , Solution:, , 23 6, , Examples 11. Find two irrational number between 2 and 2.5., Solution: 1st Method: 2 2.5 5, Since there is no rational number whose square is 5., 5 is irrational.., , So,, Also,, , Example 14. Prove that, , 2nd Method: 2.101001000100001.... is between 2 and 2.5 and, it is non-recurring as well as non-terminating., Also, 2.201001000100001......... and so on., Example 12. Find two irrational number between, Solution: 1st Method:, , 2 3 , , Irrational number between 2 and, , 2 and 3., , 646, 4, , 6, , , , 2, , , , 2, , , , a 2 2b2, , 2, , a, , b, , a2, b2, , a 2 is multiple of 2, ais a multiple of 2, a 2c for some integer c., , , a1 4c1, , , , 2b 2 4c1b 2, , 3 1.732050808, , As,, , 3 2 and, , 2 has 4 in the 1st place of decimal while, , 3 has 7 is the 1st place of decimal., , . . . (i), , b 2 2c 2 is a multiple of 2, b is a multiple of 2, . . . (ii), From (i) and (ii), a and b have at least 2 as a common factor., But this contradicts the fact that a and b are co-prime. This, , , 2 is an irrational number., , Example 15. Two irrational numbers are 3, 3, , then, Solution: Sum 3 ( 3) 0 which is rational.Difference, 3 ( 3) 2 3, which is irrational., , Irrational Number on a Number Line:, 3, on a number line., Example 16. Plot, 4, Solution:, D, , C, , E, , 2 1.414213562, , and, , 2 is an irrational number., , 2, , 2 4 6 4 2 8 6, 2nd Method: As, , between, , Solution Let assume on the contrary that 2 is a rational, number., Then, there exists positive integer a and b such, a, that 2 where, a and b are co primes i.e. their HCF is 1., b, , means that, , 2 5 is a irrational number., , 3., , Example 13., Find two irrational number, 0.3030030003..... and 0.3010010001 ...., Solution: 0.302020020002.... 0.302030030003... etc., , 3 1.732 50807 i.e. it is non-recurring as well as nonterminating., , Examples 10. Insert an irrational number between 2 and 3., , 2 and, , 4, F, , B, , 3, , 5, , 2, 6, , –1, , 1, 0, , 1, , 1, A, G, , 2, , H, , 3, , J K, , 2, , 5, , 6, , 3
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II.A.10, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Plot, , Simplification: It is a rule of inference in logic. To simplify, some operations before the others in an expression we use, brackets which indicate the order of simplification. There are, four types of brackets., (i) “—” is called a bar or vinculum, (ii) “( )” is called a round or curved brackets or parentheses., (iii) “{ }” is called a curly brackets or braces., (iv) “[ ]” is called box brackets or square brackets., , 2, 3, , So, OC 2 and OD 3, , 2, , B, , E, , 1, , 1, , 1 3, A, , 0, , Plot, , 1, , C, , D, , 5, 6, 7, 8, , 2, , B, E, , OC 5, 5, , OD 6, , F, , 7, , 6 1, H, , 2, , OH 7..., , 0, , A, , 1, , 2, , C, , D, , 3, , Fundamental Theorem of Arithmetic: Every composite, number can be expressed as a product of primes, and this, factorisation is unique, except for the order in which the prime, factors occur., Example 17. Determine the prime factors of 45470971., Solution:, , Some Rules, There are some rules to simplify an expression containing, brackets., Rule 1: When an expression contains only addition and, Subtraction: work from left to right within the brackets., Rule 2: When an expression contains only multiplication, and division: work from left to right within the brackets., Rule 3: When an expression contains any three or all four, operations: use the BODMAS rules., Vinculum (or Bar), When an expression contains vinculum before applying the, “BODMAS” rule, we simplify the expression under the, vinculum., , 45470971, BODMAS Rule, We know that addition, subtraction, multiplication and division, are four basic operation of mathematics. To simplify an, expression which contains all these operations, we use a rule,, called simplification rule., , 6495853, 7, , 927979, 7, , 71383, 5491, , 13, , 323, , 13, , 19, , 17, 17, , 45470971 72 132 172 19., Example 18. What can you say about the prime factorisations, of the denominators of the following rationales:, (i) 43.123456789, , (ii) 43.12345678, , Solution: (i) Since, 43.123456789 has terminating decimal, so, prime factorisations of the denominator is of the form, 2 5 , where m, n are non-negative integers., m, , n, , (ii) Since, 43.12345678 has non-terminating repeating, decimal expansion. So, its denominator has factors other, than 2 or 5., , According to this rule the four operations must be performed in, the following order but after removing the brackets., BO for, Brackets of, {[()]}, , D for, Division, M For, Multiplication, , A For, Addition, +, S, For, Subtraction, –, Modulus of a Real Number, Modulus or absolute value for any real number x is denoted, by x (a vertical bar on each side of the quantity) and is, , x, if x 0, defined as: x , x, if x 0., As can be seen from the above definition, the absolute value, of x is always either positive or zero, but never negative.
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Numbers and Operations, , II.A.11, , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , 2., , Which of the following statement is false?, a. Every fraction is a rational number, b. Every rational number is fraction, c. Every integer is a rational number, d. All the above, Express 0.358 as rational number:, a., , 3., , 10. If P: All integers are rational number and, Q: Every rational number is an integer, then which of the, following is correct?, a. P is False and Q is True b. P is True and Q is False, c. Both P and Q are True, d. Both P and Q are False, , 358, 1000, , b., , 358, 999, , c., , 355, 990, , d. All, , Which step in the following problem is wrong?, a b 1 a b, , Step 1: a 2 ab, Step 2: a 2 b 2 ab b 2, Step 3: a b a b b a b , b a b, ab, a b b 11 1 2 1, , Step 4: a b , , a. Step 4, 4., , The value of, a., , 5., , 6., , b. Step 3, , 3, x, 2, , 40, 31, , b., , 4, 9, , c., , 1, 8, , b. 5, , c. can’t be determined, , d. none, , d., , 31, 40, , , , , , , , The number 6 2 6 2 is:, b. Irrational c. Can’t say d. None, , Which of the following number has the terminal decimal, representation?, , The number, a. rational, , 9., , 27, is:, 5, , a. 0, , 1, a., 7, , 8., , d. Step 1, , 5 5 5 5... is:, , The value of, , a. Rational, 7., , c. Step 2, , 1, b., 3, , , , x y, , 3, c., 5, , , , 17, d., 3, , , , x y where x, y 0 is, , b. irrational c. both, , d. none, , The domain of the function f x x 4 x 5 x x2, a. R 4, , b. R 4, 5 c. (5, ), , d.R, , 11. For any two rational numbers x and y, which of the, following properties are correct?, (i) x y (ii) x y, (iii) x y, a. Only (i) and (ii) are correct, b. Only (ii) and (iii) are correct, c. Only (ii) is correct, d. All (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct, 12. If A:The quotient of two integers is always a rational, number and, 1, R: is not rational, 0, Then which of the following statements is true?, a. A is True and R is the correct explanation of A, b. A is False and R is the correct explanation of A, c. A is True and R is False, d. A is False and R is True, 13. If A: Every whole number is a natural number and, R: 0 is not a natural number, Then which of the following statements is true?, a. A is True and R is the correct explanation of A, b. A is False and R is the correct explanation of A, c. A is True and R is False, d. A is False and R is True, 14. 4 + 44 + 444 + 4444 + 44444 = ?, a. 49308, b. 49380, c. 40398, 2, 5, 6, 15., of, of, of 2170 =?, 3, 4, 7, a. 1050, b. 1550, c. 1005, 2x, 16. If, 1, then find the value of x., 1, 1, x, 1, 1 x, 2, 1 5, 1, a., b. c., d., 3, 3 6, 4, 1 1 1 1, 1, 17. 1 , is equal to:, 2 4 7 14 28, a. 2, b. 2.5, c. 3, , d. 49083, , d. 1555, , d. 3.5
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II.A.12, , 18., , 19., , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 5 6, 8 3 3 1, 7, ? 1 3 2, 6 7, 9 5 4 3, 9, 7, 6, a., b. c. 1, 8, 7, , 23. The sum of the first 35 terms of the series, 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1, , 2 3 4 2 3 4 2 3 4, 1, 1, 1, c., a. , b. , 2, 4, 4, , d. 0, , 1 4, 5, 3 of, 4 5, 6, 1 1 3, 1, 4 21 , 3 5 10, 5, , a., , , , 7, 12, 1, d. 21, 2, , 25., , b. 2, , 1, c. 15, 2, , a b c, a bc, is:, , then the value of, 3 4 7, c, 1, b. 2, c. 2, d. 7, a., 7, , 3 19, a. b., 8, 8, , 22., , Simplify:, , 63 36 63 36 , a.1, , 1, 1, , 28., , 1, 2, 2, , 8, c., 3, , d. 3, , c. 3, , d. 4, , c. 2, , d. 4, , ?, , 0.1 0.75 , 1 , 0.125 , ?, 2.5 0.05 , 4.8 , b. 3, , 29. Which of the following is not a rational number?, , 1, 1 1 , 1 , The value of 1 , 1 1 1 , is equal to:, 2 3 4 120 , , a. 30, c. 60.5, , c. 1, 2, , 632 36 2, b. 2, , a. 1, 8, d., 19, , 3, , b. 2.5, 2, , 27., , d. 3, , 0.87 0.13, 2, 2, 0.87 0.13 0.87 0.13, , a. 2, , 1, 2, , 0.75 0.75 0.25 0.75 2 0.25 0.25, a. 2, b. 2.5, c. 1, 3, , 26., , 20. If, , 2, , , , 1 1, , 24. Simplify: 10 8 7 6 4 6 4 ?, 2 2, , a. 3, b. 2, c. 1, d. 4, , 1, 6, , 21. The value of, , d. 0, , b. 40.5, d. 121, , a. 2, , c. 9, , b. 4, , d. 16, , 30. Set of natural number is a subset of, a. Set of even numbers, b. Set of odd numbers, c. Set of composite numbers d. Set of real numbers, , ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , b, , c, , a, , c, , b, , a, , c, , a, , c, , b, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , d, , d, , a, , b, , b, , a, , a, , b, , c, , c, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , d, , c, , b, , a, , 5, , c, , b, , a, , a, , d, , 4., , (c) 0.358 , , 3., , 358 3 355, , 990, 990, , 5, , 4, , 1, , 1, 3, , 1, , 5, 1, , 1, 3, , 1, 2, 4, , , , 1, 8 1, 4, , 5, 4, 9, 1, 1, 1, 1, 4, 27 4, 31, 3, 9, 9, 5 1, 5, 5, 155 160 155, , , , 4, 4, 4, 31 9, 40, 40, 40 8, 40, 31, 31, , 4, , SOLUTIONS, 1. (a) Every rational number is not a fraction. Therefore, in, rational numbers, we use integers and in fractions, we use, only natural numbers., 2., , (c) 4 , , 5, , 1, , 4, , 5, , 5., , (b) Let x 5 5 5, , (a) a b 1 a b 0, , , , x 5x, , Division by zero is not defined. So, we cannot divide by, , , , a b ., , x x 5 0 x 0 (or) x 5, , , , x can only be 5., , x 5x 0, 2
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Numbers and Operations, , 6., , , , , , II.A.13, , , , (a) 6 2 6 2 36 2 34, , 3, 7. (c) 0.6 where as other number have non-terminating, 5, decimals., 8. (a), 9. (c), 10. (b) Since every integer is having the denominator 1 can be, p, expressed in form, p is True. Since a rational number with, q, 3, ), q is False., 5, (d) By the properties of rational numbers, all (i), (ii), (iii), are correct., 1, (d) Since is not rational, the quotient of two integers is, 0, not rational., (a) Zero (0) is a whole number but not a natural number., (b) 12345 4 49380, 2 5 6, (b) 2170 1550, 3 4 7, 2x, 2x, (a) We have: , 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1 x x, 1/ 1 x , , 1, 1 x, 2, 2x, 1 , 1 2 x 2 3x 2 , 3, 1 1 x , , denominator other than 1 is not as integer (e.g., , 11., 12., 13., 14., 15., 16., , 28 14 7 4 2 1 56, , 2, 28, 28, 5 6, 8 8 3 10 25, 18. (b), x , 6 7, 9 5 4 3, 9, 35, 5 5 25, x , , 36, 9 2 9, 35, 5, 5 36 6, x x , , 36, 9, 6 35 7, , 2, , 31, 31 31, 12, , , 6 , 15.5, 65 43 12 2, , 3, 2, a b c, 20. (c) k say Then, a 3k , b 4k , c 7k, 3 4 7, a b c 3k 4k 7 k 14k, , , 2, c, 7k, 7k, , 1, 3, 2, 8, , , , 2, , 2, 2, 3, , 1, 2, , 1, , , , 1, , 2, , 1, , 2, , , , 1, , ,, , 1, , 2, , 1, , 8 / 3, , 1, 8, , 19, /, 8, 19, , , , 3 4 5, 121 121, , , 60.5, 2 3 4, 120, 2, 23. (b) Clearly, sum of first 6 terms is zero. So, sum of first, 30 terms = 0, , 22. (c), , 1, 1 1 1 1 1, Required sum , 4, 2 3 4 2 3, , 1 1, 1 1, , , 24. (a) x 10 8 7 2 10 8 5, 2 2, 2 2 , , 1, 1, 10 13 3, 2, 2, 25. (c) Let 0.75 a and 0.25 b, 2, 2, We have a 2ab b a b 0.75 0.25 1, 2, , 26. (c) Let 0.87 a and 0.13 b, Formula, , , , , 2, , , , a b a 2 ab b 2, a 3 b3, , ab, a 2 b 2 ab, a 2 b 2 ab, , , , , , 0.87 0.13 1, , 17. (a), , 13 4 5, 13 2, of, , 4, 5, 6, 4 3, , 19. (c), 215, 13 1 3 106 13, 5 , , , 3, 10, 3 5 10 5 , , 1, , 21. (d), , 63 36 63 36 , 2, , 27. (b), , 63, , 2, , 362, , 2, , , , ?, , Putting 63 a and 36 b in the given expression, we get, , a b a b, 2, , , , x, , a2 b2, , 2, , x, , since a b a b, 2, , 2, , 2 a 2 b2 , a 2 b2, , 2 a 2 b2 , , , , x2, , 28. (a), , 0.1 0.75 , 1 , 0.125 , ?, 2.5 0.05 , 4.8 , , Putting xfor (?), x, , 0.85 1 10 , 1 16 , , x , 2.55 8 48 , 3 48 , , x 1, , 29. (a) 2 is not a rational number. It can’t be expresses in, the fractional form., 30. (d),
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.A.14, , 2, When to use LCM and when to use HCF?, HCF, , Do we want to split things into smaller sections?, Are we trying to figure out how many people we can invite?, Are we trying to arrange something in rows or groups?, LCM, , Do we have an event that will be repeating over and over?, Will we have to purchase or get multiple items in order to have, enough?, Are we trying to figure out when something will happen again, at the same time?, Ex.: Shannon is making identical balloon arrangements for a, party. She has 32 maroon balloons, 24 white balloons, and 16, orange balloons. She wants each arrangement to have the same, number of each color. What is the greatest number of, arrangements that she can make if every balloon is used?, Factors: The factors of a number are positive integers that can, evenly be divided into the numbers and there is no remainder., For instance, consider the number 12. The numbers 12, 8, 6, 4,, 3, 2 and 1 are all factors of the number 12. Each of these, numbers can be divided evenly into 12 with no remainder., , Common factors are factors that two (or more) numbers have, in common. For instance, 3 is a common factor of 12 and 18., The largest common factor of two (or more numbers) is called, their greatest/Highest common factor (GCF or HCF). For, example, 6 is the GCF of 12 and 18., Multiples: The multiples of any given number are those, numbers that can be divided by that given number without a, remainder. You can find the multiples of a number by, multiplying it by 1, 2, 3, 4 and so on. For instance, 8, 16, 24, 32, and 40 are some of the multiples of 8., Note: The multiples of 8 are also multiples of 2 and 4 (factors, of 8). Remember, the multiples of any number will always be, multiples of all the factors of that number., Common Multiples: Suppose you have two (or more), numbers. Any number that is a multiple of all the given, numbers is called a common multiple. For instance, 48 and 96, are both common multiples of 8 and 12. The smallest multiple, of two (or more) numbers is called their least common multiple, (LCM). For example, 24 is the LCM of 8 and 12., , LCM and HCF, Example 1. Which of the following could be the remainders, when four consecu-tive positive integers are each divided by 3?, a. 1, 2, 3, 1, b. 1,2, 3, 4 c. 0, 1, 2, 3 d. 0, 1, 2, 0, Way to solve: Remember, the question asks only for the, remainders. When you divide any positive integer by 3, the, remainder must be less than or equal to 2., All the choices except (d) include remainders greater than, 2, so (d) is the only possible correct choice. If the first and, fourth of the consecutive integers are multiples of 3, the, remainders will be 0, 1, 2, and 0., LCM (Least common multiple): The smallest positive, number that is a multiple of two or more numbers., , 4=2x2, , 2, , 6=2x3, , 2, , 3, , Multiply all numbers inside circles:, 2 2 3 = 12 that’s our LCM!, LCM of 15, 20, 50, , 2, , LCM = 2 5 3 2 5, , 5, , 15, 20, 50, 15, 10, 25, 3, 2, 5, , The LCM of two whole numbers is the smallest whole number, which is a multiple of both., Example 2: Find LCM of 5 and 7., Solution:1st ten multiples of 5 : 5, 10, 15, 20, 25 30, 35, 40,, 45, 50,…, 1st ten multiples of 7 : 7, 14, 21, 28, 35, 42, 49, 56, 63, 70,…, Now, Least common multiple of 5 and 7 is: 35, Example 3. In a morning walk three persons step off together,, their steps measure 80 cm, 85 cm and 90 cm respectively., What is the minimum distance each should walk so that they, can cover the distance in complete steps ?
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LCM and HCF, , II.A.15, , Solution: Required minimum distance each should walk so,, that they can cover the distance in complete step is the L.C.M., of 80 cm, 85 cm and 90 cm., , 80 24 5, 85 5 17, 90 2 32 5, LCM 24 32 51 171, LCM 16 9 5 17, LCM 12240 cm,, , 2, , 2, , 1755 3 3 3 5 13, HCF 3 5 13 195, , 3, , 5, 2, , 15,, 20,, 3,, 4,, 3, 2, 5, , HCF (Highest Common Factor): The highest number that, divides exactly into two or more numbers. When we find all, the factors of two or more numbers, and some factors are the, same ("common"), then the largest of those common factors is, the Greatest Common Factor., Example 4. Find HCF of 20 and 30., Factors of 20 : 1, 2, 4, 5, 10, 20, Factors of 30 : 1, 3, 5, 6, 10, 15, 30, The HCF of two whole numbers is the largest whole number, which is a factor of both., The highest common factor of 20 and 30 = 10, 24, , , , 2 2 23, , 36, 2 2 3 3, 2 23, H .C.F . , L.C.M . 2 2 2 3 3, 24, 2 2 23, 36, 2 2 3 3, H .C.F . , 2 23, Common prime factors, L.C.M . 2 2 2 3 3, Multiply all numbers, , 1560 2 2 2 3 5 13, , 6=2x3, , HCF: Number that is common to both circles, = 2 2 2 3 = 12 that’s our LCM!, HCF of 15, 20, 50, HCF =5, , Method I: Method of Prime Factors, Rule: Break the given numbers into prime factors and then find, the product of all the prime factors common to all the numbers., The product will be the required HCF., Example 5. Find the HCF of 42 and 70., Solution: 42 2 3 7, , 70 2 5 7, HCF 2 7 14, Example 6. Find the HCF of 1365, 1560 and 1755., Solution: 1365 3 5 7 13, , 122 m 40 cm., 4=2x2, , Methods to find the HCF of two or more numbers, , Note, In finding the HCF, we need not break all the numbers into, their prime factors. We may find the prime factors of one of the, numbers. Then the product of those prime factors which divide, each of the remaining numbers exactly will be the required, HCF. In Ex. (5), the prime factors of 42 ar 2 3 7. Of these, three factors, only 2 and 7 divide 70 exactly. Hence, the, required HCF 2 7 14., , In Ex. (6) the prime factors of 1365 are 3 5 7 13. Of these four, factors, only 3,5 and 13 divide the other two numbers 1560 and, 1755 exactly. Hence, the required HCF 3 5 13 195., We must remember that the quotient obtained by dividing, the numbers by their HCF are prime to each other. In Ex., (5) 42 14 3, , 70 14 5. We see that 3 is prime to 5, i.e., 3 can’t, , divide 5 exactly. In Ex. (6), 1365 195 7,1560 195 8, and 1755 195 9, we see that 7, 8 and 9 are prime to, one another, i.e. none divides the other., Method II: Method of Division, Rule: Divide the greater number by the smaller number, divide, the divisor by the remainder, divide the remainder by the next, remainder, and so on until no remainder is. Left. The last, divisor is the required HCF., Example 7., 42 70 1, 42, 28 42 1, 28, 14 28 2, 28, 0, , , , HCF = 14
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.A.16, , Note, The above rule for finding the HCF of numbers is based on the, following two principles:, Any number which divides a certain number also divides, any multiple of that number; for example, 6 divides 18, therefore, 6 divides any multiple of 18., Any number which divides each of the two numbers also, divides their sum, their difference and the sum and, difference of any multiples of that numbers., Thus 5, being a common factor of 25 and 15, is also a factor, of (25 + 15), and (25- 15). Again, 5 is also a factor of, , 25 a 15 b and of 25 a 15b , where a and b are integers., In accordance with these principles,, HCF of 42 and 70, , Again,, 195 1755 9, 1755, 0, , the required HCF = 195, Method III: The work of finding the HCF may sometimes be, simplified by the following devices:, Any obvious factor which is common to both numbers may be, removed before the rule is applied. Care should however be, taken to multiply this factor into the HCF of the quotients., If one of the numbers has a prime factor not contained in, the other, it may be rejected., At any stage of the work, any factor of the divisor not, contained in the dividend may be rejected. This is because, any factor which divides only one of the two cannot be a, portion of the required HCF., , = HCF of 28 and 42 [ 28 = 70 – 42], = HCF of 14 and 28 [14 = 42 – 28], = HCF of 14 and 14 [14 = 28 –14], HCF of 42 and 70 = 14, , HCF of 13281 and 15844, = HCF of 2563 and 13281 [2563 = 15844 – 13281], = HCF of 466 and 2563 [466 = 13281 – 5, = HCF of 233 and 466 [233 = 2563 – 5, , 2563], , 466], , = HCF of 233 and 233 [233 = 466 – 233], HCF of 13281 and 15844 = 233, , Note, The above discussed method is very much interesting. It gives, results very quickly. But one should have a good understanding, of this method., To find the HCF of more than two numbers: Find the HCF, of any two of the numbers and then find the HCF of this HCF, and the third number and so on. The last HCF will be the, required HCF., Example 8. Find the HCF of 1365, 1560 and 1755., Solution:, , 13651560 1, 1365, 1951365 7, 1365, 0, Therefore, 195 is the HCF of 1365 and 1560., , Example 9. Find the HCF of 42237 and 75582., Solution: 42237 9 4693, 75582 2 9 4199, We may reject 2 which is not a common factor (by rule i). But, 9 is a common factor. We, therefore, set it aside (by rule ii), find the HCF of 4199 and 4693., 4199 4693 1, 4199, 494, , 494 is divisible by 2 but 4199 is not. We, therefore, divide 494, by 2 and proceed with 247 and 4199 (by rule iii)., , 247 4199 17, 247, 1729, 1729, 0, The HCF of 4199 and 4693 is 247. Hence, the HCF of the, original numbers is, 247 9 2223., Note: If the HCF of two numbers be unity, the numbers must, be prime to each other., HCF of smaller numbers: If the numbers are not very large,, we can follow the following steps to get the HCF very quickly., Example 10. Find the HCF of 8, 20, 28 and 44., Solution: Step I: As we know that HCF is the highest common, factor of all the numbers, it cannot be larger than the smallest, number. So, take the smallest number, i.e. 8., Step II: Divide the other numbers by 8. As it does not divide, 20, we reject 8 as our HCF.
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II.A.17, , LCM and HCF, , Step III: Take the second highest factor of 8, ie 8 ÷ 2 = 4., Check the divisibility of the other numbers by 4. As it divides, all the other numbers, our HCF is 4., , Solution: Clearly, the required number is the H.C.F. of the, number 626 − 1 = 625, 3127 − 23125 and 15628 − 3 = 15625., , 15628 − 3 = 15625., Using Euclid’s division lemma to find the H.C.F. of 625 and 3125., , Euclid’s Division Algorithm: If ‘a’ and ‘b’ are positive, integers such that a = bq + r, then every common divisor of ‘a’, and ‘b’ is a common divisor of ‘b’ and ‘r’ and vice-versa., , 3125 = 625 × 5 + 0, Clearly, H.C.F. of 625 and 3125 is 625., Now, H.C.F. of 625 and 15625, , 15625 = 625 × 25 + 0, Example 11.Use Euclid’s division algorithm to find the H.C.F., of 196 and 38318., Solution: Applying Euclid’s division lemma to 196 and 38318., , 38318 = 195 ×196 + 98, 196 = 98 × 2 + 0, The remainder at the second stage is zero. So, the H.C.F. of, 38318 and 196 is 98., Example 12. If the H.C.F. of 657 and 963 is expressible in the, form 657 x + 963 × ( − 15 ) , find x., Solution: Applying Euclid’s division lemma on 657 and 963., , 963 = 657 ×1 + 306, 657 = 306 × 2 + 45, 306 = 45 × 6 + 36, 45 = 36 ×1 + 9, 36 = 9 × 4 + 0, , Example 14. 144 cartons of coke cans and 90 cartons of Pepsi, cans are to be stacked is a canteen. If each stack is of same, height and is to contains cartons of the same drink, what would, be the greatest number of cartons each stack would have ?, Solution: In order to arrange the cartons of the same drink is, the same stack, we have to find the greatest number that, divides 144 and 90 exactly. Using Euclid’s algorithm, to find, the H.C.F. of 144 and 90., , 144 = 90 ×1 + 54, 90 = 54 ×1 + 36, 54 = 36 ×1 + 18, 36 = 18 × 2 + 0, So, the H.C.F. of 144 and 90 is 18., Number of cartons in each stack = 18., , So, the H.C.F. of 657 and 963 is 9., Given: 657 x + 963 × ( −15 ) = H.C.F. of 657 and 963., 657 x + 963 × ( − 15 ) = 9, , 657 x = 9 + 963 ×15, 657 x = 14454, x=, , So, the H.C.F. of 625 and 15625 is 625., Hence, H.C.F. of 625, 3125 and 15625 is 625., Hence, the required number is 625., , 14454, = 22., 657, , Example 13. What is the largest number that divides 626, 3127, and 15628 and leaves remainders of 1, 2 and 3 respectively., , To Find LCM and HCF of Fractions:, LCM of numerator, LCM of fractions =, HCF of denominator, HCF of numerator, HCF of fractions =, LCM of denominator, HCF (a,b,c), a b c , Find HCF = , , , =>, d, e, f, LCM, (d,e,f), , , HCF (a,b,c), a b c , Find HCF = , , , =>, LCM (d,e,f), d e f , , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , 2., , 3., , L.C.M. of 87 and 145 is:, a. 870, b. 1305, , c. 435, , d. 1740, , The H.C.F. of, , a., , L.C.M. of 27, 4, 32 and 3 is:, a.432, b. 12, c. 48, d. none of these, , 561, when reduced to lowest terms is:, 748, 13, 3, 11, a., b., c., 14, 4, 14, , 4., , 5., , The L.C.M. of, , 5, 54, 10, c., 3, , a., d., , 23, 24, , 1, 2, , 1 3 5 7 9, , , , , is :, 2 4 6 8 10, 1, 9, b., c., 10, 120, 1 5 5 10, , , , is:, 3 6 9 27, 5, 27, 5, d., 3, , b., , d., , 1, 120
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.A.18, , 14. The least number which when divided by 15, 27, 35 and, 42 leaves in each case a remainder 7, is:, a. 1883, b. 1897, c. 1987, d. 2007, , 2 5 9 9 7, Of the fractions , , , , the least is:, 3 7 13 14 4, 9, 2, 7, 5, a., b., c., d., 14, 3, 4, 7, , 6., , Of the fractions, , 7., , a., , 14, 17, , 15. The smallest number which when diminished by 3 is, divisible by 21, 28, 36and 45, is:, a. 420, b. 1257, c. 1260, d. 1263, , 11 14 17 23 29, , , , , the largest is:, 14 17 20 26 32, 23, 17, 29, b., c., d., 26, 20, 32, , The product of two numbers is 2025 and their H.C.F. is, 15. Their L.C.M. is:, a. 30375, b. 2040, c. 135, d. 2010, , 8., , The L.C.M. of two numbers is 2310 and their H.C.F is 30., If one number is 210, the others is :, , 9., , a. 16170, , b. 2100, , c. 1470, , d. 330, , 10. The sum of two numbers is 216 and their H.C.F. is 27., The numbers are:, a. (54, 162), b. (108, 108), c. (27, 189), d. none of these, 11. The largest number which exactly divides 522, 1276 and, 1624 is:, a. 29, b. 58, c. 4, d. none of these, 12. The greatest number which can divide 432, 534 and 398, leaving the samereminder 7 in each case, is:, a. 17, b. 208, c. 34, d. none of these, 13. The least square number which is divisible by 6, 8 and 15 is:, a. 2500, b. 3600, c. 4900, d. 4500, , 16. The greatest number by which if 373 and 813 are divided, the remainders will be 8 and 10 respectively, is:, a. 63, b. 69, c. 71, d. 73, 17. The smallest number which when divided by 20, 25, 35, and 40 leaves the remainders 14,19, 24 and 34, respectively, is:, a. 1394, b. 1404, c. 1664, d. 1406, 18. The least multiple of 7 which leaves a remainder 4 when, divided by 6, 9, 15 and 18, is:, a. 74, c. 184, , b. 94, d. 364, , 19. The ratio of three numbers is 35: 55: 77 and their H.C.F., is 24. The numbers are:, a. 420, 660, 924, b. 280, 440, 616, c. 840, 1320, 1848, d. 105, 165, 231, 20. Three different containers contain different qualities of, mixtures of milk and water whose measurements are 1653, kg, 2261 kg and 2527 kg respectively. What biggest, measure of milk must be there to measure all different, quantities exactly?, a. 19 kg, b. 26 kg, c. 29 kg, d. 31 kg, , ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , a, , a, , b, , d, , c, , a, , d, , c, , d, , c, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , b, , a, , b, , b, , d, , d, , a, , d, , c, , a, , SOLUTIONS, 1., , (a) 87)145(1, , 87, )87(1, 58, 58, )58(2, 29, 58, , , , , H.C.F. of given numbers is 29., 87145, 435., 29, (a) The given numbers are, , So, L.C.M. , 2., , 32 , 22 ,24 and 3., , 3., , 4., , , L.C.M. 32 24 27 16 432., (b)H.C.F. of 561 and 748 is 187., Dividing numerator and denominator by 187,, 3, The fraction is, 4, (d) H.C.F. of 1, 3, 5, 7, 9, is 1., L.C.M. of 2, 4, 6, 8, 10 is 120., 1, H.C.F. of given fraction , 120
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LCM and HCF, , 5., , (c) L.C.M. , , II.A.19, , L.C.M.of 1,5,5,10 10, ., H.C.F.of 3, 6,9, 27 3, , 2, 5, 9, 9, .666, . 714, . 692, ., 3, 7, 13, 14, 7, 9, 64 1.75. Clearly, the least fraction is ., 4, 14, 7. (d) The difference in the numerator and denominator of, each of the given fractions is the same, namely 3., 29, So, the one with largest numerator is the largest i.e., ., 32, Product of numbers 2025, 8. (c) L.C.M.=, , 135., H.C.F., 15, 9. (d) The other number, , 6., , (a), , , , L.C.M. H.C.F. 2310 30, , 330., given number, 210, , 10. (c) Let the numbers be 27a and 27b. Then,, 27 a 27b 216 or a b 8., , Value of coprimes a and b such that, a b 8 are (1, 7), (3, 5)., , , Numbers are 27 1, 27 7 i.e. 27,189 ., , 11. (b) The required number is the, H.C.F. of 522, 1276 and 1624., , Now, 522 2 32 29;1276 22 11 29 and, , 1624 23 7 29., , H.C.F. 2 29 58., 12. (a) Required number is the, H.C.F. of (432 –7), (534–7), and (398 –7), , , i.e. H.C.F. of 425, 527 and 391., Required number =17., 13. (b) The least number divisible by 6, 8, 15 is their L.C.M., which is 120., Now, 120 2 2 2 3 5., 14. (b) Required number, = (L.C.M. of 15, 27, 35, 42) + 7, = 1890 + 7 = 1897., 15. (d) Required number, = (L.C.M. of 21, 28, 36, 45) + 3, = 1260 + 3 = 1263., 16. (d) Required number, = (H.C.F. of (373–8) and (813–10), = H.C.F. of 365 and 803 = 73., 17. (a) Required number, = (L.C.M. of 20, 25, 35, 40) – 6, = 1400 – 6 = 1394., 18. (d) L.C.M. of 6, 9, 15 and 18 is 90., Let x be the least multiple of 7, which when divided by 90, leaves the remainder 4. Then, x is of the form 90k + 4., Now, minimum value of k for which 90 k + 4 is divisible, by 7 is 4., x 4 90 4 364., 19. (c) Let the numbers by 35x, 55x and 77x., Clearly, their H.C.F. is x., Now, x = 24., The number are 35 24,55 24, 77 24 , i.e. (840, 1320, 1848)., 20. (a) Biggest measure, = H.C.F. of 42m, 49m, 63m, = 7m = 19 kg., ,
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II.A.20, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 3, , Square and Cube Roots, , It is needful for carpenters, engineers, architects, construction, workers, those who measure and mark land, artists, and, designers. One time I observed construction people who were, measuring and marking on the ground where a building would, go. They had the sides marked, and they had a tape measure to, measure the diagonals, and they asked me what the measure, should be, because they couldn't quite remember how to do it., This diagonal check is to ensure that the building is really, going to be a rectangle and not a trapezoid or some other, shape., , Example 1. What is the square root of 16?, , 16 4 4 4, , Solution:, , Squares of Fractions: Remember that if a positive fraction, with a value less than 1 is squared, the result is always smaller, than the original fraction:, 0 n 1, If, , Then, Try it., , n2 n, , Example 2.What are the values of the following fractions?, 2, , 121, , 144, , 3, , 1, , SQUARE, ROOT, , 100, , 3, , 3, , 4, , x, , 81, , 9, , 64, , 16, , TIME, 49, , 36, , 3, , 1728, , 3, , CUBE, ROOT, , 1000, , 3, , 1, 3, , x, , 3, , 8, , 3, , 729, , TIME, , 512, 3, , 25, , 1331, , 2, 1, 3 and 8 , , , , 343, , 3, , 3, 3, , 216, , 27, , 64, , 125, , The concept of a square root is a prerequisite to, and ties in, with, many other concepts in mathematics:, Square root → 2nd degree equations → functions & graphing, Square root, , → Pythagorean theorem → trigonometry, , Square root, , → fractional exponents → functions & graphing, , Square root, , → irrational numbers, , → real numbers, , Square Root: The square root of a number is a value that,, when multiplied by itself, gives the number., e.g.: Find the square root of 25, you want to find the number, that when multiplied by itself gives you 25. The square root of, 25, then, is 5. Following is a list of the first eleven perfect, (whole number) square roots:, , 0 0, 1 1, 4 2, 9 3, , 16 4, 25 5, 36 6, 46 7, , 64 8, 81 9, 100 10, , 2, , 4, 1, and, . respectively. Each of, 9, 64, 4 2, these is less than the original fraction. For example, ., 9 3, , Solution: The answers are, , Special note, If no sign (or a positive sign) is placed in front of the square, root, then the positive answer is required. Only if a negative, sign is in front of the square root is the negative answer, required. This notation is used in many texts and is adhered to, in this book. Therefore,, , 9 3 and 9 3, Short Method of Squaring Numbers, To calculate the square of a given integer we have to multiply the, given integer with itself. For large numbers, multiplication may, prove to be time consuming. In this section, we shall see how to, find the square of two or three-digit numbers quickly without, actual multiplication. For this, we follow the vedic Method., Vedic Method, The method for squaring a two digit number uses the identity;, , a b 2 a 2 2 ab b 2, Note, If the number of digits in a perfect square ' n ' is even, then, , n, ;, 2, If the number of digits in a perfect square ' n ' is odd, then, the number of digits in its square root are, , the number of digits in its square root are, , n 1, ., 2
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Square and Cube Roots, , II.A.21, , To square a two digit number ab (where a is the tens digit and b is, the units digit), we make three columns and we write a 2 , 2 ab and, , digit number, write the tens digit above the diagonal and the, units digit below the diagonal., , b 2 respectively in these columns as follows:, , Here we multiply 2 by 2, 3 by 3, 3 by 5 and 5 by 5 and we get, the products 4, 9, 15 and 25 respectively., , Example 3.As an example we take ab 79., Column I, a, , Column II, , b, , 2 7 9 126, , (7 49), 2, , Clearly, we can observe that 15 and 25 are two-digit numbers,, but 4 and 9 are single digit numbers, therefore to make them in, two-digit numbers we write them as 04 and 09 respectively., , Column III, , 2ab, , 2, , 2, , 9 9 81, , 2, , Then we go through the following steps:, , 0, , 2, , Step I: Underline the units of b (in column III) and add, , Thus, the underlined digits give the required square, i.e.,, , 792 6241, I, , II, , a 2 2a b, 49, 126, 13 8, 62, 134, , III, , I, , II, , III, , b2, 81, , a2, 49, 13, 62, , 2a b, 126, 8, , b2, 81, , I, II, a 2 2a b, 49 126, , 13 4, , Step I, , 13, 62, , 8, 13 4, , 62, , 4, , Step II, , III, b2, 81, , 3, , 2, 3, , 2, , 5, , 2, (22)2, (i), , 3, , 3, , 2, , 2, , 0, , 0, , 4, , +, , 8, , (i), , 5, , 1, , 2, , 2, , 5, , (ii), , 0, +, , 1, , 1, , 9, , 3, 5, 0, 1, 9, 5, 0, 1, 5, 9, 1, , 5, , 2, 5, , 5, , 5, 1, 2 2, +, +, +, +, 1 1 2 2 2 2 1 2, 1, , 2, , 2, , 2, , 5, , 3352 112225, , (iii), , Note: The diagonal method can be applied to find the square of, any number irrespective of the number of digits., Example 4. Find the squares of the following numbers using, the identity., , 5, , Step II: Now multiply each digit on the left of the square with, each digit on top of the column one by one. Write the product, in the corresponding sub-square. If the number so obtained is a, single digit number, write it below the diagonal. If it is two, , 5, , 1, , 1, +, 1 2, , 222 484 352 1225, , a b, , (i), (iii), , 4, , 5 1, , 5, , 1, +, 1 2, , 0, +, , 3 0 9, 3 0, , 5, , 4, , 8, , 4, , 5, 2, , 1, , 5, , 3, , 9 1, , 4, , 8, , 5, , 3 0, , 4, 0, , 5, , (ii), , 2, 5, , (iii), , 3, , 0, 4, , (i) 491, Solution:, (335)2, , 1, 5, , Step III: Starting below the lowest diagonal, sum the digits, along the diagonals so obtained, underline the units digit of the, sum, and take carry the remaining digits if any to the diagonal, above. Units digits so underlined together with all the digits in, the sum above the top-must diagonal give the square. Numbers, in the empty places are taken as zero., , 3, , (35)2, , 5 1, , 5, (ii), , 4, , 3, , 2, 5, , (i), , Step III, , 5, , 5, , 1, , 4, , 2 0, , Step I: First we form a square. Then we divide it into subsquares and we draw some diagonals and write the digits of the, number to be squared as shown here:, , 3, 3, 5, 1, 3 0 9 0, 9, 5, 0, 0, 1, 3, 5, 9, 9, , 1, 9, , 5, , 0, 4, , 5, , 0, , 3, , 4, , 1, , For example, for squaring 22, 35 and 335, we go through the, following steps:, , 2, , 2 0, , 2, , Diagonal Method, As the number of digits increases the column method becomes, difficult, so we use the diagonal method which is fully, explained in the following example., , 3, , 0, 4, , 2, , the tens digit of b 2 , if any, to 2a b in column II., Step II: Underline the units digit in column II and add the, remaining digits of 2ab, if any to a2 in column I., Step III: Underline all the digits in column I., , 2, , 2, , a 2 2 ab b 2, , (ii) 189, , 4912 500 9 , , (iii) 575, , 2, , 2, 2, 500 2 500 9 9 2 a b a 2 2ab b 2 , , , , 250000 9000 81 241081, (ii) 189 2 200 11 200 2 2 200 11 112, 2, , 40000 4400 121 35721
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II.A.22, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , (iii) 575 600 25 600 2 600 25 25, 2, , 2, , 2, , 2, , 360000 30000 625 330625, Example 5. Find the square root of 363609., Solution: Given number is 363609., Applying the long division method, we have, 6 0 3, 6 3 3 0, 3, 12 0 3, 00, 120, 3 0, 3 0, 0, , , , Example 8. Find the square root of 0.00059049., Solution: Here, the number of decimal places is even. So, we, mark the periods and find the square root as shown below:, 0.0243, , 2, , 0 .00 05 90 49, 4, 190, 176, 1449, 1449, 0, , 44, 483, , , , 0.00059049 0.0243, Table: 3.1, , x, , 363609 603., , Example 6. Find the greatest number of seven digits which is a, perfect square. What is the square root of this number?, Solution: The greatest number of seven digits = 9999999, Now, we must find the least number which when subtracted, from 9999999 gives a perfect square., 3 1 6 2, 3 9 9 9 9, 9, 9, 6, 6, 62, 3 9, 3 5, 632, 1439, 1264, 175, , x, , x, , x, , 1, , 1.000, , 50, , 7.071, , 2, , 1.414, , 51, , 7.141, , 3, , 1.732, , 52, , 7.211, , 4, , 2.000, , 53, , 7.280, , 5, , 2.236, , 54, , 7.348, , 6, , 2.449, , 55, , 7.416, , 7, , 2.646, , 56, , 7.483, , 8, , 2.828, , 57, , 7.550, , 9, , 3.000, , 58, , 7.616, , 10, , 3.162, , 59, , 7.681, , 11, , 3.317, , 60, , 7.746, , 12, , 3.464, , 61, , 7.810, , 13, , 3.606, , 62, , 7.874, , 14, , 3.742, , 63, , 7.937, , 15, , 3.873, , 64, , 8.000, , 16, , 4.000, , 65, , 8.062, , 17, , 4.123, , 66, , 8.124, , 18, , 4.243, , 67, , 8.185, , 19, , 4.359, , 68, , 8.246, , Example 7. Find the square root of 176.252176?, Solution: Here, the number of decimal places is already even., So, mark the periods and proceed as follows:, 13.276, 1 1 76 .25 21 76, 1, 76, 23, 69, 725, 262, 524, 20121, 2647, 18529, 159276, 26546, 159276, 0, , 20, , 4.472, , 69, , 8.307, , 21, , 4.583, , 70, , 8.367, , 22, , 4.690, , 71, , 8.426, , 23, , 4.796, , 72, , 8.485, , 24, , 4.899, , 73, , 8.544, , 25, , 5.000, , 74, , 8.602, , 26, , 5.099, , 75, , 8.660, , 27, , 5.196, , 76, , 8.718, , 28, , 5.292, , 77, , 8.775, , 29, , 5.385, , 78, , 8.832, , 30, , 5.477, , 79, , 8.888, , 31, , 5.568, , 80, , 8.994, , , , 32, , 5.657, , 81, , 9.000, , 2, , Thus, (3162) < 9999999 by 1755., So, 1755 must be subtracted from 9999999 to get a perfect, square., Required perfect square number, = (9999999 – 1755) = 9998244, and, , 176.252176 13.276, , 9998244 3162.
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Square and Cube Roots, , II.A.23, , Example 9. Find the square root of 52, Solution: We have,, , 857, 110889, 110889, , , 2116, 2116, 2116, , 52, , 11 08 89, 9, 208, 189, 1989, 1989, 0, , 63, 663, , 4, , finding x3 , where x is a two digit number., , 21 16, 16, 516, 516, 0, , 86, , Thus, 110889 333 and, 110889 333, , 46, 2116, , , , find x 2 and then x2 x. Here we shall discuss a vedic method of, , 46, , 333, 3, , Finding the Cube of a Two-Digit Number (Vedic Method), The cube of a number can be obtained by multiplying the, number with itself two times. Thus, to find x3 , we may first, , 857, 2116, , Let x ab, where a is the tens digit and b is the units digit. We, use the Identity, , a b, , 52, , 857 333, , 7.24., 2116 46, , 64025 16 64009., , Cube Roots: The cube root of a number, some number that, when multiplied by itself twice gives you the original number., In other words, to find the cube root of 8, you want to find the, number that when multiplied by itself twice gives you 8. The, , cube root of 8, then, is 2, because 2 2 2 8. Notice that the, symbol for cube root is the radical sign with a small three, (called, , the index), , above, , and, , to, , the, , left, , 3, , ., , Some perfect (whole number) cube roots are:, 3, , 0 0, , 3, , 1 1, , 3, , 82, , 3, , 27 3, , 64 4, , 3, , 125 5, , 3, , 3, 3, , 3, , 216 6, 3, , 729 9, , Solution:Well, we just happen to know that 125 5 5 5 (if, , you use 5 three times in a multiplication you will get 125). So,, the answer is 5., Note, Perfect Cube: A natural number is said to be a perfect cube, if, it is the cube of some natural number. In other words, a number, ‘n’ is a perfect cube if there exists a natural number p such that:, , 2, 8, 10, 1000, , 3, , 3, 27, 11, 1331, , 4, 64, 12, 1728, , 9261 3 (3 3 3 7 7 7), , 3, 3, 3, 7, 7, , 1000 10, , Example 10. What is the cube root of 125?, , Table: 3.2, 1, a, 1, a3, 9, a, 729, a3, , Example 12. Find the cube root of 9261., Solution: Resolving 9261 into prime factors. We get, 9261 3 3 3 7 7 7, , 3 7 21, , 343 7, , n p 3 and n p , , Number of men in the front row 64009 253, Cube root of given number x is the number whose cube product, of prime numbers choosing one each from three of the same, type., , 3, , 512 8, 3, , a 3 3a 2 b 3ab 2 b 3, , Example 11. A general wishing to daw up his 64025 men in, the form of a solid square, found that he had 16 men over, find, the number of men in the front row., Solution: Number of men arranged in a solid square, , 2116 46, , or, , 3, , 5, 125, 13, 2197, , 6, 216, 14, 2744, , 7, 343, 15, 3375, , 8, 512, , 9261, 3087, 1027, 343, 49, 7, , Way to Cube: The cube of a number is that number multiplied, , by itself twice. e.g.: 5 cubed–denoted as 53 ; is equal to, 5 5 5 125. The technique for cubing any 2-digit number, discussed below is based on the algebraic observation., Step I: Write numbers in a row of 4 terms in such a way that, the first one is the cube of the 1st digit, second one is the square, of 1st number multiplied by 2nd digit, third one is the 1st digit, multiplied by square of 2nd digit and the fourth one is the cube, of the 2nd digit., Step II: Write twice the values of 2nd and 3rd terms under the, terms respectively in second row., Step III: Add all the values column-wise and follow the carry, over process.
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II.A.24, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Example 13. Find cube of 14., Solution:, Step I:, 13, 12 4, Worked-out row: 1, 4, Step II:, , 8, , Second Column from Right: 50 + 100 + 12 = 162. Bring down, 2 and carry over 16., 1 42 43, , 16, , 8, , 64, , 32, , Step III: Add the values column wise., First Column from Right: Bring down 4 and carry over 6., 1, 4, 16, 64, 8, 32, 6, 4, , Second Column from, and carry over 5., 4, 1, 8, 5, , Right: 16 + 32 + 6 = 54. Bring down 4, 16, 32, 6, 4, , 64, , 4, , Fourth Column from Right: 1 + 1 = 2. Write down 2., 4, 16, 1, 64, 8, 32, 1, 5, 6, 2, 7, 4, 4, , 23, , 2 5, , 25, , 8, , 20, , 50, , 40, , 100, , 2, , 2, , 5, , 3, , 125, , Carries, Sum, First Column from Right: Bring down 5 and carry over 12., 20, 50, 8, 125, 40, 100, 12, 5, Step-3, , 125, , 5, , Third Column from Right: 20 + 40+ 16 = 76. Bring down 6, and carry over 7., 8, 7, , 20, 40, 16, 6, , 50, 100, 12, 2, , 125, , 5, , 8, 7, 15, , 20, 40, 16, 6, , 50, 100, 12, 2, , 125, , 5, , This 15,625 is the cube of the number 25., What would happen to the result of cubing a number if that, number is a negative integer or a rational number? Rational, numbers and negative integers are just a form of numbers and, their repeated multiplication (thrice for a cube) can easily be, calculated keeping in mind the different sign conventions., Let’s see some of the sign conventions followed in Maths., Sign convention, ( ) ( ) ( ), , This 2,744 is the cube of the number 14., Example 14. Cube of 25 = ?, Solution:, Workedout, Step-2, , 50, 100, 12, 2, , Fourth Column from Right: 8 + 7 = 15., Write down 15., , Third Column from Right: 4 + 8 + 5 = 17. Bring down 7 and, carry over 1., 4, 16, 1, 64, 8, 32, 1, 5, 6, 7, 4, 4, , Step-1, , 20, 40, 16, , i.e., when we multiply a negative integer and a positive, integer, the result would always have a negative sign., ( ) ( ) ( ), i.e., when we multiply two negative integers, the result, would always have a positive sign., ( ) () ( ), i.e., when we multiply a positive integer and a negative, integer, the result would always have a negative sign., ( ) () (), i.e., when we multiply two positive integers, the result, would have a positive sign.
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Square and Cube Roots, , II.A.25, , Multiple Choice Questions, , (3 5) is equal to, , 1., , a. 5 1, , b. 3 2, , c. ( 5 1) / 2, , 1, d. ( 5 1), 2, , 4., , b. 5 3 2, , c. 5 3 2, , d. 2 3 5, , 15. If, , c. 2 2 1, , d. None of these, , a. 41 2 5, , b. 41 5, , c. 2 5, , d. None of these, , a. 4.54, , Which of the following is not a perfect square?, a. 36, b. 196, c. 181, d. 169, , 6., , In a perfect square number, the last digit is given. Which, of the following cannot be the last digit?, a. 1, b. 0, c. 5, d. 7, , 7., , Which of the following letters best represents the location, of x–y, where x 169 and y 64 ?, , 8., 9., , d. E, , The value of x, if 5 x 3 32 x 8 225, is:, a. 1, , b. 2, , c. 3, , d. equal to, , 10. The value of expression, a. 14, 11. It, , b. 12, , is, , given, , m, , that 4761 69, then, , of 4761 47 61 0.4761 is, a. 77, b. 75.59, c. 76.59, , d. 7, , d. 13, , the, , 1.69 1.44 0.25, is, , , 0.0036 6.76 1.21, b. 4.75, c. 4.95, , 19. Match the following:, Column-I, (A) Smallest perfect square, (B) Sum of first 8 odd, numbers, (C) Area of square is 144 cm2, its, perimeter is, (D) The least number added to sum of, squares of first 5 prime numbers to, form perfect square, , d. 4.99, Column-II, 1. 17, 2. 64, 3. 1, 4. 48, , 20. Assertion (A): 1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 9 + 11= 36., Reason (R): Sum of first n consecutive odd numbers is, , 248 52 144 is, , c. 16, , c. 5, , Code:, a.A1; B2; C3; D4, b.A3; B2; C4; D1, c.A3; B4; C2; D1, d.A2; B4; C3; D1, , d. 5, , If m is the square of a natural number n, then n is, a. the square of m, b. greater than m, c. equal to m, , b. 3, , 18. The square root of, , 5., , c. D, , 27 , x, 1 , then the value of x is, 169 13 , , 17. The greatest five-digit number, which is a perfect square,, is, a. 99746, b. 99856, c. 90456, d. 99999, , (61 46 5) , , b. A, , d. 49, , c. 49, , 16. What least number should be added to the number 6800,, so that the resultant number is a perfect square?, a. 24, b. 76, c. 89, d. 256, , b. 21/ 4 ( 2 1), , a. B, , 1, , a. 1, , (17 12 2) , , a. 2 1, , 3, , b. 7, , 14. The smallest square number which is exactly divisible by, each of the numbers 6, 9 and 15, is, a. 100, b. 400, c. 900, d. 1024, , a. 5 3 2, , 4, , 2 x 3, then the value of x is, , a. 1, , [10 (24) (40) (60)] , , 2., , 3., , 13. If, , value, , d. 70.59, , 12. The two other numbers forming a Pythagorean triplet,, whose third number is 5, are, a. (3, 4), b. (– 3, – 4) c. (6, 4), d. (3, 7), , n 2 . Which of the following is true?, , a. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct, explanation of (A), b. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct, explanation of (A), c. (A) is true and (R) is false, d. (A) is false and (R) is true
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II.A.26, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 188 53 , , 21. If, , a. 121, , b. 11, , 22. The value of, a. 6, , c. 1331, , d. 161, , c. 36, , d. 615 /16 s, , m 2 1, m 2 1, 2 m 1., , V. The square of a prime number is a prime number., I, II, III, IV, V, a. F, F, F, F, F, b. T, F, T, F, T, c. T, T, T, T, T, d. F, T, F, T, F, , 6 6 6 6 is, b. 61/ 4, , 4, , IV. The general from of Pythagorean triplet is, , y 14, then the value of y is, , 23. A group of students in a class collects R 9216. The, amount contributed by each student is equivalent to the, number of students in the class. Then, total number of, students is:, a. 43, b. 53, c. 96, d. 66, 24. If a 2 1 and b 2 1, then the value of expression, , 28. Fill in the blanks with the help of options, given in the box., (i) 169, (ii) 144, (iii) 200, (iv) 400, (v) 2n+1, (vi) 8, (vii) 16, (viii) 9, (ix) 15,, (x) 1, (xi) 4, I. 1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 9 + 11 + 13 + 15 + 17 + 19 + 21 + 23, , a 2 ab b 2, is:, a 2 ab b 2, , is__(find without adding), The value of 1012 99 2 is ____, , II., , a. 32 4 2, , b. 32 4 2, , c. 0, , d., , III. There are ___ natural numbers between n 2 and, , (n 1)2 ., , 5, 7, , IV. The sides of a right angled triangle, whose, hypotenuse is 17 cm, are __and __., I, II, III, IV, a. (ii), (iv), (v), (iv) , (ix), b. (i), (ii), (iv), (iv), (v), c. (vii), (viii), (ix), (x), (xi), d. (ii), (iii), (iv), (v), (vi), , 25. If three numbers are in the ration 1:2:3 and the sum of, their square is 224. Then, the difference between the, squares of greatest and least numbers, is:, a. 80, b. 160, c. 128, d. 240, 26. A person borrowed some money from a friend and promised, him to pay daily for 1 month. He will pay like R 1 for first, day, R 3 for second day, R 5 for third day and so on for 30, days. If he paid an interest of R 150 included in the above, amount, then the money borrowed by him is:, a. 600, b. 750, c. 900, d. 1200, 27. State ‘T’ for true of ‘F’ for false., I. The sum of two perfect squares is a perfect square., , 29., , 3, , 729 , , 2.5, , , , 1, 81, c. 243, , b. 81, , a., , 30., , II. The sum of first n even numbers is n2 ., III. When a square number ends in 6, the number whose, square it is, will have either 4 or 7 in unit’s place., , 4 3, , d. 729, , x2 , 1, , a. x, , b. x 2, 1, , 1, , c. x 3, , d. x 6, , ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , c, , b, , a, , a, , c, , d, , d, , d, , d, , c, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , c, , a, , d, , c, , a, , c, , b, , a, , b, , a, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , a, , d, , c, , d, , c, , b, , a, , a, , c, , d, , 3 5 x y 2 xy ., , Obviously x y 3 and 4 xy 5, So, , ( x y)2 9 5 4 or ( x y ) 2, 5, 1, After solving x , y , 2, 2, , SOLUTIONS, 1., , (c) Let, , 3 5 x y, , Hence, , 3 5 , , 5, 1, 5 1, , , 2, 2, 2
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Square and Cube Roots, , 2., , II.A.27, , (b) Let 10 24 40 60, , 0.4761 , , ( a b c ) + 23, 2, , 10 24 40 60 a b c 2 ab, 2 bc 2 ca , a , b, c , 0., , Then a b c 10, ab 6, bc 10, ca 15, a 2b 2 c 2 900 abc 30 30 , , So, a 3, b 2, c 5, Therefore,, 3., , (10 24 40 60) ( 3 5 2), , 4, , (17 12 2) (3 2 2) 2 1, , 4761 47.61 0.4761 69 6.9 0.69, , 12. (a) In general, Pythagorean triplet is, (2n, n 1, n 2 1)., , , , , n2, 2n 4, n2 1 4 1 3, So, the other numbers are 3 and 4., 13. (d), , , , 5 n2 1, , 2 x 3, , Squaring on both sides,, 2 x 9, , , , , x 7, , x (7) 2 49, , 4., , (a) 3 61 46 5 a b, , 14. (c) LCM of 6, 9, 15 = 3 2 3 5 90, , , , 61 46 5 ( a b ) 3 a 3 3ab (3a 2 b ) b, , But we see that, 90 is not a perfect square., , , , 61 a 3 3ab, 46 5 (3a 2 b ) b, , , , 61( a 2 3b ) a , 23 20 (3a 2 b ) b, , So, , a 1, b 20, , Therefore 61 46 5 1 20 1 2 5, 3, , 5., , (c) Here,, , 36 6, , 90 3 10, , For a perfect square,, 3 10 10 30, , Square of 30 = 900, So, smallest number which is a perfect square, is 900., 15. (a), 27 , x, 1 , 169 13 , , , , 1, , , , 169 27, x, 1, 169, 13, , 7., , Hence,181is not a perfect square., (d) 7 cannot be the last digit (unit place) for perfect, number., (d), , , , x 169 13 and y 64 8, , , , , , x y 13 8 5 E, , 9., , (d), , , , m n2, , , , n m, , 196 14, 169 13 181 13.45, , 6., , 248 52 12, 248 64, , 248 8 256 16, , 11. (c) Here,, 47.61 , , , , 4761 69, 4761 69, , 6.9, 100 10, , 14, x, 1, 13, 13, 1, x, 1 1, 13, 13, , , , x 1, 16. (c), , , , 10. (c) 248 52 144, , 76.59, , 2, , (a) (17 12 2), [32 (2 2) 2 2.3.2 2] 3 2 2, , , , , , 4761, 69, , 0.69, 10000 100, , 802 6400 and 852 7225, So, 6800 lies between 80 and 85., Also, 812 6561, , 822 6724, 832 6889... near to 6800., Hence, 89 must be added., 17. (b) We know that, Greatest five-digit number, = 99999, where, 99999 316.2261, But we have to find perfect square,, So 316 316 99856
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II.A.28, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 18. (a) We have,, , 1.3 1.3, 1.2 1.2 0.5 0.5, , , 0.06 0.06 2.6 2.6 1.1 1.1, , , , , , 1.69 1.44 0.25, , , 0.0036 6.76 1.21, , 1.3 1.2 0.5 5, , , , 4.54, 0.06 2.6 1.1 1.1, , 21. (a), , 188 53 , , y 14, , 24. (d) Given, a 2 1 and b 2 1, , , , and a b 2, Now, ab 2 1 1, , [ (a b)(a b) a 2 b 2 ], , , , On squaring both sides,, 188 53 , , y 196, , , , 53 , , , , 53 y 8 Again, squaring on both sides,, 53 , , , , y 196 188, , y 64, , 22. (d) Consider,, , 6 6 6 6, 6 6 6 61/ 2 6 6 6 3 / 2, , 23. (c) Total amount collected, = Rs. 9216, Let the number of students be x., Then, amount contributed by each student, = Rs. x, According to the question,, , , x x 9216, , , , x 2 9216, , , , x 9216 96, , (2)2 1, (2 2)2 1, , 4 1 5, , 8 1 7, 25. (c) Since, numbers are in the ratio 1:2:3., Let the number be x, 2 x and 3x., According to the question., , , x 2 (2 x)2 (3x) 2 224, , , x 2 4 x 2 9 x 2 224, , , , 14 x2 224, , x 2 16, x4, Difference between squares of greatest and smallest, numbers, , , (3 x) 2 ( x) 2 8 x 2 8 16 128, , 6 6 63/ 4 6 67 / 4, 6 6 7 / 8 615 /16, , a 2 ab b 2 (a b) 2 ab, , a 2 ab b 2 (a b) 2 ab, , , , y 64 53 11, , Again, squaring on both sides, y 121, , ab 2 2, , 26. (b) Total money paid, = 1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 9 + … + 30 terms, 30 2 900, , [since, sum of n consecutive numbers is n 2 ], Interest paid = Rs. 150, Amount borrowed = Rs. (900 – 150), = Rs. 750, 27. (a), I. False, II. False, III. False, IV. False, 28. (a), I. 144, II. 400, III. 2n + 1 IV. 8, 15, , Total number of students =96, ,
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Surds, Indices and Logarithm, , 4, , II.A.29, , Surds, Indices and Logarithm, , Measurement Scale: Richter, Decibel, etc., We're at the typical "logarithms in the real world" example:, Richter scale and Decibel. The idea is to put events which, can vary drastically (earthquakes) on a single 1–10 scale., Just like Page Rank, each 1-point increase is a 10x, improvement in power., Decibels are similar, though it can be negative. Sounds can, go from intensely quiet (pin drop) to extremely loud, (airplane) and our brains can process it all. In reality, the, sound of an airplane's engine is millions (billions, trillions), of times more powerful than a pin-drop, and it's, inconvenient to have a scale that goes from 1 to a gazillion., Logs keep everything on a reasonable scale., Powers: An expression that represents repeated multiplication, of the same factor is called its power., exponent, or index, or power, base, , Exponents are even used to describe the extent to which rain, water is acidic and even determine whether it would be safe to, go swimming in swimming pool (acidic water is not good for, skin!). You would have probably heard of the term pH scale, and Richter scale. A pH scale is a scale which is used to, determine the acidity of basicity of water. The scale uses, exponents to mark various acidity levels. Similarly, a Richter, scale is used to measure the magnitude of earthquakes. One, earthquake is different from another in terms of magnitude., This scale too uses exponents., Exponential growth can also be seen in population. If one, person has 4 children and then each of these children have 4, children, and so on, we get exponential increase in the, population., Generation, , 0, , 1, , 2, , 3, , 4, , Children, , 1, , 4, , 16, , 64, , 216, , We can correlate the above data in exponential form as, follows:, Generation, , (20)2, , (21)2, , (22)2, , (23)2, , (24)2, , Children, , 1, , 4, , 16, , 64, , 216, , (Anything to the power ‘zero’ is actually 1, we will learn more, about it in this concept), , Multiplication of Fractions:, The following rule for multiplying two fractions:, Product of two fractions, Product of numerators of the fractions, , Product of denominatiors of the fractions, Note, The rules of multiplication given above are applicable to, both, proper and improper fractions., To multiply mixed numbers, we first convent them into, improper fractions and then multiply., Division of Fractions: In our daily life we come across several, situations/problems, wherein we need to perform division, infractions. Some such situations are given in the following, examples., 1, A paper strip of length 7 cm is cut into two equal pieces., 2, What is the length of each piece?, A ribbon of length 44 cm is cut into equal pieces, each of, , 1, 2, , length 5 cm. How many pieces are obtained?, , 1, 1, A 38 m long rope is cut into pieces of 5 m length each., 2, 2, Indices and Surds: An index (plural: indices) is the power, or, exponent, of a number. For example, has an index of 3 and a, surd is an irrational number that can be expressed with roots. If, , a is not rational,, , n, , a is not a surd., , Laws of Indices, , , a0 1, ( a 0), am , , 1, , (a 0), am, , , , am n am .an , where m and n are rational numbers., , , , amn , , , , (a m ) n a mn, , , , a p/q , , am, , where m and n are rational numbers, a 0, an, , q, , ap, , x, y, If x y, then a a , but the converse may not be true.
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II.A.30, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , For example:, , 3, , 2, , (1)6 (1)8 , but 6 8, If a 1, or 0, then x y, If a 1, then x, y may be any real number., If a 0, then x, y may be any non-zero real number., a b ( ab ), only when a 0, b 0, a . b ( ab ), if at least one of a and, , In complex domain,, , 3 , 5 , , 2 , , , 3, 3, 3, 3, 3, 3, 3 3 2 2 3 2 , 3 3 3 , 2 5 5 3 5 5 , , a m .bm (ab)m is not always true., In real domain,, , 3, 2 , 2, , 3, 3, 3, 3 5 5 , , 2 3 2 , , If a 1, then x, y may be both even or both odd., , , , 5 , , 3, , , 3, 4 , 4, , 23 33 53 , 1, 33 53 23 , , , , b is positive., If a x b x then consider the following cases:, If a b, then x 0, , xa , Example 3. Show that b , x , , If a b 0, then x may have any real value., If a b, then x is even., Note, If we, , have, , ( x), , to, , solve, , ( x), , [ g ( x)], , [ f ( x)], , xa , Solution: b , x , the, , equation, , of, , the, , form, , xa, , have to solve (a) f ( x) g( x), (b) f ( x) g ( x), (c) ( x ) 0., , 2, , l 2 lm m2, , x , Solution: m , x , l, , (x, xl, , l m ( l 2 lm m2 ), , 3, , ), , m3, , 3, , 3, , x , n, x , m, , (x, 3, , m n m2 nm n2, , ), , 3, , 81 , Example 2. Simplify: , 16 , , 3 , 4 , 2 , 4, , / 4, , 3/ 4, , 3 4 , , 2 , , 2, , x , , xl , n, , 2, , 3/ 2, , n nll , , xn , l, x , , nl n2 nl l 2, , (x ), , m3 m3 n3 n3 l 3, , / 4, , 2, , n2 nl l 2, , 5, , 2, , 3, , , , , , 3 , 5 2 3/ 2, , 5 , , , 2 , 3 , , , 2, , ?, , xc , . a , x , , ca, , 1., , ca, , 2, , b 2, , . xb, , 2, , c 2, , . xc, , 2, , a2, , xa, , 2, , b2 b 2 c 2 c 2 a 2, , 2, , x0, , 1 1 1, 0., x y z, , Example 4. If 2 x 3 y 6 z , prove that, , 2 x 3 y 6 z k, , Solution: Let, , Then,, , 1/ z, 2 k 1/ x ,3 k 1/ y and 6 k, , Now,, , 23 6, , , , . . .(i), , k 1/ x k 1/ y k 1/ z, [Using (i)], , x0 1, , 25 3/ 2 5 3 , , 2 , 9 , , 25 3/ 2 5 3 , , 2 , 9 , , 5 , 2 , 3 , , 3/ 4, , 3, , m nmn , , xm , n, x , , m2 nm n2, , . x m n . x n l x l, , 81 , Solution: , 16 , , 2, , xc , . a , x , , bc, , 1 R.H.S., , Verification should be done in (b) and (c) cases., , l lmm , , bc, , xb , . c , x , , xb , . c , x , , ( x a b ) a b .( xb c )bc .( x c a )c a, , i.e., same index, different bases, then we, , xl , Example 1. For x 0, m , x , , a b, , a b, , 1 1, , y, , k, , , , 1, z, , , , kx, , , , 1 1, 1, , x y, z, , , , 1 1 1, 0, x y z, x, , 2x, , 81, 2 3, Example 5. Find the value of x if ., 16, 3 2, x, , 2x, , 81, 2 3, Solution: , 16, 3 2, , , 2 x 32 x 34, , , 3x 22 x 24, , 32x- x 3 , 2x- x , 2, 2, , 4
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Surds, Indices and Logarithm, , , , 3x 3 , , 2x 2 , , 4, , 3, 2, , x, , II.A.31, , 3, 2, , [Bring surd in simples form], , 4, , x4, , 15 6 6 6 4 6 15 6 4 6 13 6, , Types of Surds, Simple surd: A surd consisting of a single term. For, , (ii), , 5 5 3 2 7 2 3 2 14 3 3 2 25 14 42 3 2, , example 2 3, 6 5, 5 etc., Pure and mixed surds: A surd consisting of wholly of an, irrational number is called pure surd., Example: 5, 7. A surd consisting of the product of a, 3, , 3 3 2, (iii) 5 3 250 7 3 16 14 3 54, , 5 3 125 2 7 3 8 2 14 3 27 2, , rational number and an irrational number is called a mixed, surd., Example: 5 3., Compound surds: An expression consisting of the sum or, difference of two or more surds., , 5 5 3 2 7 2 3 2 14 3 3 2 25 14 42 3 2, 3 3 2, (iv) 4 3 3 48 , , Example: 5 2, 2 3 3 5 etc., , 5 1, 5 1 3, 4 3 3 16 3 , 2 3, 2 3 3, , 5 1, 5, 4 3 3 4 3 , 3 4 3 12 3 , 3, 2 3, 6, , Similar surds: If the surds are different multiples of the, same surd, they are called similar surds., , 5, 91, , 4 12 3 , 3, 6, 6, , , Example: 45, 80 are similar surds because they are, , equal to 3 5 and 4 5 respectively., Binomial surds: A compound surd consisting of two surds, is called a binomial surd., , 5 3 250 7 3 16 14 3 54 5 3 125 2 7 3 8 2 14 3 27 2, , Multiplication and Division of Surds, Example 7. Simplify, , Example: 5 2,3 3 2 etc., Binomial quadratic surds: Binomial surds consisting of, pure (or simple) surds of order two i.e., the surds of the, , form a b c d or a b c are called binomial quadratic, surds., Two binomial quadratic surds which differ only in the sign, which connects their terms are said to be conjugate or, complementary to each other. The product of a binomial, quadratic surd and its conjugate is always rational., , (i), , 3, , 4 3 22 , , (ii), , 3, , 2 4 3 12 24 12 33 12 24 33 12 16 27 12 432, , Addition and Subtraction of Surds: Addition and subtraction, of surds are possible only when order and radicand are same, i.e. only for surds., , 3, , 2 3 11 2 3 11, , 8a5b3 3 4a 2b2, , Solution: 6 83 a15b3 6 42 a 4b4 6 213 a19b7 6 2ab ., Example 9. Divide 24 3 200, Solution:, , Operation of Surds, , 4 22 , , Example 8. Simplify, , Example: The conjugate of the surd 2 7 5 3 is the surd, , 2 7 5 3., , 3, , 6, , 24, , 24 3 200 , , 3, , 200, , , 6, , 24, , 3, , 200, , 2, , 6, , 216, 625, , Comparison of Surds: It is clear that if x y 0 and n 1 is, , a positive integer then, , n, , x, , n, , y., , Example 10. Which is greater is each of the following:, Example 6. Simplify, (i) 6 216 96, , (ii) 5 3 250 7 3 16 14 3 54, , (iii) 5 3 250 7 3 16 14 3 54, , (iv) 4 3 3 48 , , 5 1, 2 3, , Solution:(i) 6 216 96 15 6 62 6 16 6, , (i), , 3, , 16 and 5 8 and, , Solution: (i) L.C.M. of 3 and 515., 3, , 6 35 6 5 15 7776, , 5, , 8 35 85 15 512, , (ii), , 1, and, 2, , 3, , 1, 3
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II.A.32, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , , , 75, , 7776 512, , , , 3, , 6 8, , If a b c d , where a and c are rational, and, , 15, , b , d are irrational, then a c and b d ., , 5, , (ii) L.C.M. of 2 and 3 is 6., 3, , so,, , 6, , 1, and, 2, , 6, , 1, and, 8, , 6, , 3, , 1, , 3, , 1, 9, , 6, , Example 13. The greatest number among, , 2, , Solution:, , 1 1, , As 8 9 8 9 , , 1 61, , , 8, 9, , , , 1 31, , 2, 3, , 3, , 3, , 9, 4 11, 6 17 is:, , 9 , 4 11, 6 17, , L.C.M of 3, 4, 6 is 12, 3, , 9 91/ 3 (9 4 )1/12 (6561)1/12, , 4, , 11 (11) / 4 (113 )1/ 12 (1331)1 /12, , 6, , 17 (17)1/ 6 (17 2 )1/ 2 (289)1/12, , Hence 3 9 is the greatest number., , 2 , 3 3 and, , Example 11. Arrange, , 4, , 5 is ascending order., , Solution: L.C.M. of 2, 3, 4 is 12., , , 2 26 26 12 64, 3, 4, , , , 12, , (ii) 12, , (i) 10, , 3, , 3 4, , 3 81, , (v) 16, , 5, , 43, , 5 12 125, , (ix) 3 3 2 2 (x) 3 3 3 2, , 4, , 12, , 3, , 3, , As, 64 81 125., , , Rationalisation Factors, Example 14. Find the R.F. (rationalising factor) of the following:, , , , Example 12. Which is greater, , 7 3 or, , 5 1, , ( 7 3)( 7 3), ( 7 3), , 73, 4, , , 7 3, 7 3, , 7 5 and, , So,, , 7 3 5 1, , , , 4, 4, , 7 3, 5 1, , So,, , 5 1 7 3, , (viii) 7 4 3, , (xi) 1 2 3, , 10 10 10 10 10 10 as, , , , , , , Now find R.F. (i.e. R.F. of, , 7 3 5 1, , Properties of Quadratic Surds, The square root of a rational number cannot be expressed as, the sum or difference of a rational number and a quadratic, surd., If two quadratic surds cannot be reduced to others, which, have not the same irrational part, their product is, irrational., One quadratic surd cannot be equal to the sum or difference, of two others, not having the same irrational part., , 3 is, , R.F. of 12 is . 3, , 162, , (iii), , Simplest form of 162 is 9 2., , 3 1, add, , 1, 1, , 7 3, 5 1, , 12, First write its simplest from i.e. 2 3., , , , ( 5 1)( 5 1) 5 1, 4, , , ( 5 1), 5 1, 5 1, , Now, we know that, , (vii) 2 3, , R.F. of 10 is 10, , (ii), , 2 is, , R.F. of, , , (iv), , , (v), , 2., 2, , R.F. of 162 is, 3, , 4, , 3, , 4 3 42 , , R.F. of, 3, , 3, , 4 is, , 3, , 43 4, , 3, , 42, , 16, , Simplest form of 3 16 is 2 3 2, Now R.F. of, , , (vi), , 3, , 2 is, , R.F. of 3 16 is, 4, , 3, , 3, , 22, , 22, , 162, , Simplest form of 4 162 is 34 2, Now R.F. of, , , R.F. of, , , , 4, , 4, , 2 is, , , , 162 is, , 4, 4, , 23, 23, , 4;, , (iv), , rational number., , 23345, , And, 5 1 , , (vi) 162, , Solution:(i), , 64 12 81 12 125, , Solution: 7 3 , , 4, , 3, , (iii) 162, , 3), , 10, , is
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Surds, Indices and Logarithm, , II.A.33, , Example 15. Express the following surd with a rational, denominator., , (vii) 2 3, , As, (2 3)(2 3) (2) 2 ( 3) 2 4 3 1,, , , , , , , , (viii) 7 4 3, , As , (7 4 3)(7 4 3) (7) 2 (4 3) 2 49 48 1, which, is rational, , (ix) 3 3 2 2, (3 3 2 2)(3 3 2 2) (3 3) 2 (2 2) 2 27 8 19,, , which is rational., , , R.F. of (3 3 2 2) is (3 3 2 2), , , , 33 2, , (x), , 3, , As, , ( 3 3 3 2)( 3 32 3 3 3 2 3 22 ) ( 3 33 3 23 ) 3 2 5,, , , , , , 3 2, 3 2, R.F. of ( 3 3 3 2 ) is ( 3 3 3 3 2 2 ), , (iii) (32 ) 2 ;, , 11 , (iv) ;, 12 , , 3, , 3, , 3, (v) , 4, Solution: Using the laws of indices, we have, , (i), , 52.54 52 4 56 15625, , 3 2 2 3 2 2, , , , am an amn, , 2 2 2 2 2 4, , (ii), , 58 53 , , , , am an amn, , (iii), , 3 3, a a, , R.F. of 1 2 3 is, , 2., , Note, , R.F. of, , a b or, , a b type surds are also called conjugate, , surds and vice versa., , 5 2 6 and vice versa., , m n, , 36 729, , m n, , m, , 5 1, , vice versa., conjugate, , 2 3, , 3, , 2 3, it’s conjugate is 2 3, its reciprocal is 2 3 and, 5 2 6, it’s, , 2 3, , 58, 583 55 3125, 53, , 3, 11 11 1331, (iv) 3 , 12 12 1728, , 2 3 is conjugate of 2 3, 5 1 is conjugate of, , , , , , am, a, m, b, b, , (v), , 3, , 4, , , , a n , , Sometimes conjugate surds and reciprocals are same, , , , 15 1 5 3, , (ii) 58 53 ;, , (1 2 3) and, , , , 8, , (i) 52 54 ;, , (1) 2 ( 2 ) 2 2(1)( 2 ) 3 1 2 2 2 3, , , , , , 2, , which is rational., , (1 2 3)(1 2 3) (1 2) 2 ( 3) 2, , , , , , 5 3 , , , Example 16. Evaluate each of the following:, , (xi) 1 2 3, , , , 8, , 2, , R.F. of (7 4 3 ) is (7 4 3 ), , As, , 15 1 5 3, , 15 1 , 15 1 , 15 1 , 8 15 1 5 3 , , 15 1 5 3 , 8 15 1 5 3 , , 15 1 2 15 5 3 2 15 , 8 15 1 5 3 , , , R.F. of (2 3) is (2 3), , , , 8, , Solution:, , which is rational., , is, , 5 2 6, its, , reciprocal, , 3, , , , is, , 1, an, , 1, 3, , 4, , 3, , , , 1, 1, 64, , , 27 27, 33, 43 64, , , , , 5 3 , , 5 3 ,
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II.A.34, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, 3, , 3, , 2 2, 3, Example 17. Evaluate: , 3 5, 5, 3, , 3, , 2 2, 3, Solution: We have, , 3 5, 5, , To find square root of a + b + c + d:, , 2, , Let ( a b c d ) x y z , ( x, y, z 0) and, , 2, , , , 3, , 2, , 2, 1, 3, , 2, 3, 3 2 / 5 5, , 23, 1, 32 23 53 32 5, 3 3 3 2 3 3 2 , 3, 3 2 /5 5, 3 2 5, , 81 , Example 18. Simplify , 16 , , 3/ 4, , take ( a b c d ) , , 3/ 4, , 3, , 2, , If a 2 b is not a perfect square, the square root of, a, , 3/ 4, , 5 2 , , 3 , , 5 , , 3 , , 2 x 3/ 2, , 5 , 3, 5, , 2, 2, 3 , 3, , 3, , 3/ 2, , 5, , 2, 3, , 52 3/ 2 5 3 , 2 , 2 , 3 , , 5 3 , , 2 , 3, , , , , , , , , , 2 5 5 , , 3 3 2 , 3, , 3, , , , 3, , 2 3 2 2 3 5 , 1, 33 53 53 33 53 23 , 3, , 3, , 3, , 3, , 3, , 3, , Square root of a + b + c + d whereb, c andd are, surds:, , Let, , x, , y , where x, y 0 are rational numbers., , Then squaring both sides we have, a b x y 2 x y, , b 2 xy, , (a b ) , , , , a a2 b, a (b ) , , 2, , , , , , , , a a2 b, , , 2, , , , , , , , , , a a2 b, a (b ) , , 2, , , , a a2 b, , , , 2, , , , , , , , , If a is a rational number,, , x, , y, , b , c , d , are surds then, , , , a b c d , , bd, bc, cd, , , 4c, 4d, 4b, , , , a b c d , , bd, cd, bc, , , 4c, 4b, 4d, , , , a b c d , , bc, bd, cd, , , 4d, 4c, 4b, , Cube Root of a Binomial Quadratic: If ( a b )1 / 3 x y, , then ( a b ) 2 / 3 x y , where a is a rational number and b is, , help of an example:, Taking (37 30 3)1/ 3 x y we get on cubing both sides,, , , , 37 30 30 x 3xy 3x y, 3, , 2, , , , y, , x 3 3 xy 37, , b 4 xy, So, ( x y)2 ( x y)2 4 xy a 2 b, After solving we can find x and y., Similarly square root of a b can be found by taking, (a b ) , , If ( a b ) x y , x y then, , a surd. Procedure of finding ( a b )1/ 3 is illustrated with the, , (a b ) , , a x y,, , b is complicated i.e., we can't find the value of, , ( a b ) in the form of a compound surd., 3/ 4, , 4 x 3/ 4, , z . Then by squaring, , Note, , 25 3/ 2 5 3 , , 2 , 9 , , 25 3/ 2 5 3 34 , 4 , 2 2 , 9 , , 3 4 , , 2 , , y, , and equating, we get equations in x, y, z. On solving these, equations, we can find the required square roots., , Solution: We have, , 81 , , 16 , , x, , x, , y, x y, , (3 x 2 y ) y 30 3 15 12, , As, , 3 cannot be reduced, let us assume, , 3 x 2 y 3 x 2 3 30, , x3, , Which doesn't satisfy x 3 3 xy 37, Again taking y 12, we get 3 x 2 12 15 ,, , y 3 we get
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Surds, Indices and Logarithm, , II.A.35, , x 1 x 1, y 12 satisfy x 3 3 xy 37, , , , 3, , 37 30 3 1 12 1 2 3, , Logarithm: The Logarithm of a given number to a given base, is the index of the power to which the base must be raised in, order to equal the given number.If a 0 and 1, then, , (10) log a n , , , log a n , ( 0), , , (11) a log c b b log c a , (a, b, c 0 and c 1), Logarithmic inequalities, (1) If a 1, p 1 loga p 0, , logarithm of a positive number N is defined as the index x of, which, equals, N, that, power, of, 'a', , (2) If 0 a 1, p 1 log a p 0, , i.e., log a N x iff a x N a log a N N,a 0 ,a 1 and N 0, , (4) If p a 1 log a p 1, , It is also known as fundamental logarithmic identity.Its domain, is (0, ) and range is R.a is called the base of the logarithmic, function.When base is 'e' then the logarithmic function is called, natural or Napierian logarithmic function and when base is 10,, then it is called common logarithmic function., Characteristic and mantissa, (1) The integral part of a logarithm is called the characteristic, and the fractional part is called mantissa., log10 N integer fraction ( ve), , , (3) If a 1, 0 p 1 log a p 0, (5) If a p 1 0 log a p 1, (6) If 0 a p 1 0 log a p 1, (7) If 0 p a 1 log a p 1, a mb , if m 1, , (8) If logm a b , , a mb , if 0 m 1, , a mb , if m 1, , (9) logm a b , , a mb , if 0 m 1, , (10) log p a log p b, , , , ab, , if base p is positive and >1 or, , a b if base p is positive and < 1 i.e., 0 p 1 ., , Mantissa, Characterstics, (2) The mantissa part of log of a number is always kept, positive., (3) If the characteristics of log 10 N be n, then the number of, , In other words, if base is greater than 1 then inequality remains, same and if base is positive but less than 1 then the sign of, inequality is reversed., , digits in N is (n+1)., (4) If the characteristics of log 10 N be (– n) then there exists (n, , Example 19. Logarithm of 325 4 to the base 2 2 is, , – 1) number of zeros after decimal part of N., Properties of logarithms: Let m and n be arbitrary positive, numbers such that a 0, a 1, b 0, b 1 then, , (1) log a a 1, log a 1 0, (2) loga b. logb a 1 log a b , , Solution: Let x be the required logarithm, then by definition, (2 2 )x 325 4, , (2.21/ 2 )x 25.22 / 5 ;, 3x, , 1, log b a, , log b a, (3) log c a log b a. log c b or log c a , log b c, , , , 2, 5, , Here, by equating the indices, 3 x 27 ,, 2, , , , x, , (4) log a (mn) log a m log a n, m, log a m log a n, n, , 5, , 22 2, , 5, , 18, 3.6, 5, , (5) log a , , Example 20. If log 7 2 m , then log 7 2 m , is?, , (6) log a m n n log a m, , Solution: log 49 28 log 28 log 7 log 4, , (7) a log a m m, 1, (8) log a log a n, n, , (9) log a n , , 1, , , , log a n, , log 49, , 2 log 7, , , , log 7, log 4, 1 1, , log 7 4, 2 log 7 2 log 7 2 2, , , , 1 1, 1, 1, 1 2m, .2log 7 2 log 7 2 m , 2 2, 2, 2, 2
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.A.36, , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , a. 11/48, 2., , b. 11/24, , 5., , 6., , 2, 3, , x+2, , If , , 3, = , 2, , c. –1, , The equation 4( x, , 2, , c. 4, , + 2), , − 9.2( x, , + 2), , b. x = −1, , The value of, , 15, is:, 10 + 20 + 40 − 5 − 80, , c. x =, , b. 5(2 + 2 ), , c. 5 (1 + 2 ), , d. 5(3 + 2 ), , a., , (, , ), , a. 2 (1 + 2m), , b. 5 + 3 − 2, , c. 5 − 3 + 2, , d. 2 + 3 − 5, , c. 2 2 + 1, , d. None of these, 3, , b. 0, 4, , c. 2, , d., , c., , 2, 1 + 2m, , d. 1 + m, , 2, , c. 2a = b, , d. a = b, , c. log10 α , loge α, log 2 α , log 3 α, d. log 3 α , loge α, log 2 α , log10 α, , −1, , b. 20, , b. a = b, , b. log10 α , log 3 α , loge α , log 2 α, , 6, 121, , 1 −2 3 , 11. × × , 2 3 5, a. 0, , 2, , 21., c., , 5, 486, , 3, , 20. Which is the correct order for a given number α in, increasing order?, a. log 2 α , log 3 α , loge α , log10 α, , 2 11 3 , × × , 11 3 2 , , 5, , b. 1 + 2m, , a+b 1, = (log e a + log e b) , then relation between, 2 2, , a. a = b, , b. 21 / 4 ( 2 + 1), , a. 1, , b. A rational number, d. A prime number, , a and b will be:, , a. 2 +1, , 2, , d. 2, , 19. If log e , , (17 + 12 2) =, , 4, , c. 0, , 18. If log 7 2 = m, then log 49 28 is equal to:, , a. 5 + 3 + 2, , 4, , b. 1, , a. An integer, c. An irrational number, , [10 − (24) − (40) + (60) ] =, , 8., , 1, 2, , 17. The number log 2 7 is:, b. 3 + 2, 1, 5 +1, d., 2, , ), , 16 × 2n+1 − 4 × 2n, 16 × 2 n+ 2 − 2 × 2n + 2, , 16. Logarithm of 325 4 to the base 2 2 is:, a. 3.6, b. 5, c. 5.6, d. None of these, , b. 6, d. None of these, , 5 +1 / 2, , d. None of these, , a. Any positive real number, b. Any number, c. ≥ e, d. Any positive real number ≠ 1, , (3 + 5) is equal to:, , (, , b. 0, , 15. For y = log a x to be defined 'a' must be, , If x = 3 ( 2 + 1) − 3 ( 2 − 1); then x3 + 3 x =, , c., , 14., , d. x = − 2, , 2, , a. 5(5 + 2 ), , a. 5 + 1, , (25) 3 / 2 × (243) 3 / 5, (16) 5 / 4 × (8) 4 / 3, , + 8 = 0 has the solution, , a. x = 1, , 7., , 10., , 2, , d. 0, , b. 1, d. -1, , a., , , then x=, , b. 3, , 2 55 × 2 60 − 2 97 × 218, a. 0, c. 2, , 3375, 512, c. 1, , d. 0, , 2− 2 x, , a. 2, c. 6x, , 9., , d. 11/96, 13., , b. 3, , a. 1, 4., , c. 11/8, , 2.3 n +1 + 7.3 n −1, =, 3 n + 2 − 2(1 / 3) l − n, , a. 1, 3., , 12., , 1 1 1, If 2 x = 4 y = 8z and xyz = 288, then + + =, 2x 4y 8z, , d. 1, , log ab − log | b |=, , a. log a, , b. log | a |, , c. − log a, , d. None of these
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Surds, Indices and Logarithm, , II.A.37, , 27. If log 4 5 a and log 5 6 b, then log 3 2 is equal to, , 22. The value of (log02.5 4) is:, b. (4), , c. 2, , d. None of these, , 24., , b. 2, , c. 3, , 26., , d. 4, , log 7 log 7 7( 7 7 ) , , b. 1 3 log 3 7, , c. 1 3 log7 2, , d.None of these, log 9 36, , 3, , 4 / log 7 9, , c. 216, , b. 1, , c. 2ab 1, , d., , a.k, , b. 1, , c. 5, , d. None of these, , 1, 2ab 1, , 5, , is equal to, d. 890, , c. log 2, , b. a 2, d. None of these, , a. 125, c. 25, , 30. If a 2 4 b 2 12ab, then log(a 2b) is, a. 1 [log a log b log 2], , b. log a log b log 2, , c. 1 [log a log b 4 log 2], , d. 1 [log a log b 4 log 2], , 2, , 16 , 25 , 81 , 7 log , 5 log , 3 log , is equal to, 15, 24, , , , , 80 , , a. 0, , 1, 2b 1, , 29. If log 5 a. log a x 2, then x is equal to, , a. 3 log 2 7, , 25. The value of 81(1 / log 5 3) 27, a. 49, b. 625, , b., , 28. If log k x. log 5 k log x 5, k 1, k 0, then x is equal to, , 23. The value of log 3 4 log 4 5 log 5 6 log 6 7 log 7 8 log 8 9 is:, a. 1, , 1, 2a 1, , a., , a. –2, , 2, , 2, , d. log 3, , 2, , 2, , ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , d, , a, , c, , a, b, , c, , a, , c, , b, , a, , d, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , c, , a, , a, , a, , d, , a, , c, , b, , a, , b, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , b, , c, , b, , c, , d, , c, , d, , b,c, , c, , c, , 4., , (a, b) 4( x, , (2, , 2, , 2), , 9.2( x, , ( x 2 2) 2, , Put 2 ( x, , ) 9.2, , 2, , 2 )2, , ( x 2 2), , (d) 2 x 2 2 y 2 3 z i.e., x 2 y 3 z k (say), k3, Then xyz , 288,, 6, , So,, , k 12, , , , x 12, y 6, z 4., , (a), , 2.3, , , , 3., , n1, , n 1, , 7.3, , , , 1, 3n 2 2 , 3, , 3, , n1, , 3, , 2, , n 1, , x2, , When y 1 2 x, , 5., , 2, , 2, , 2, , 2, , 2 x 2 2, , x 2, , 22 x, , 3, , 2, , , , 15, 10 20 40 5 80, , 15, 10 2 5 2 10 5 4 5, , 15, 3 10 3 5, , , , 5, 10 5, , ., , 10 5, 10 5, , 10 5 5( 2 1), , 6., , (a) x ( 2 1)1/ 3 ( 2 1)1/ 3, , x 3 ( 2 1) ( 2 1) 3( 2 1)1/ 3, ( 2 1)1/ 3 3 ( 2 1) , , , 2 x 2, , 2, ., 3, Clearly x 2 2x 2 x 4, , (c) Given fraction , , , n 1, , 2.3 .3 7.3, 3n1.33 2.3n 1, 2, , 18 7 1, 27 2, , 2, (c) , 3, , , 3, , 2, , 8 2x 2 23, , 0 x 2 2, which is not possible., , 1 n, , n1, , 8 0, , x2 2 3 x2 1 x 1, 1, 1 2x, , Therefore, 1 1 1 11, 2 x 4 y 8 z 96, 2., , 8 0, , Then y 2 9 y 8 0 which gives y 8, y 1, x2 2, , 1., , 2), , y., , When y 8 2, , SOLUTIONS, , 2, , , , x 3 2 3 (2 1)1 / 3 x, , , , x 3 3 x 2., , 3, , 2 1,
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II.A.38, , 7., , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , (c) Let, , 3 5 x y, , 14. (a), , 3 5 x y 2 xy ., , , , So, ( x y ) 2 9 5 4 or ( x y ) 2, , , , 2, , , , 2, , Then a b c 10, ab 6, bc 10, ca 15, a 2 b 2 c 2 900, , (a), , , , 32 2 2, , , , , 2, , 4, , number., , 2 1., , , , 10. (d) We have, 4, , 2, , 4, , 1 2 3 , 11. (c) We have, , 2 3 5, , ab 1, (log e a log e b), 2 2, , 19. (a) log e , , 1, , , , 1, 2, 5, 5, 4, 1 2 3 1 2 5, , 5, , 3, 34, 2 3 5 2, , , , , 12. (a) We have, 255 2 60 297 218 55 60 297 18, 215 2115 0, 13. (a), , 25 243, 5/ 4, 16 (8)4 / 3, , , , 3/ 5, , , , , 2 , 52, 4, , 3/ 2, , 5/ 4, , , , , 1, log e (ab ) log e, 2, , ab, , 2, , ab, , ab a b 2 ab, , a b, , 2, , 0 a b 0 ab., , 20. (b) Since 10, 3, e, 2 are in decreasing order. Obviously,, log10 , log3 , loge , log 2 are in increasing order., , 116 5, 5, 5, , , 32 81 3 2 81 3, 486, , 3/ 2, , log 7, log 4, 1 1, , log 7 4, 2 log 7 2 log 7 2 2, , 1 1, .2 log 7 2, 2 2, 1, 1, 1 2m, log 7 2 m , 2, 2, 2, , 23, 6, , 112, 121, 5, , log 28 log 7 log 4, , log 49, 2 log 7, , , , 3, , 24 112 33, 2 11 3 , , , , 11 3 2 114 32 23, , , , x, , 18. (b) log 49 28 , , 17 12 2 3 2 2 , , 5, , which is false since L.H.S is even and R.H.S is odd., Obviously log 2 7 is not an integer and hence not a prime, , 2.3.2 2 , , , 3 2 2, , , 2, 5, , p and q are integers, prime to each other. Then,, p, log 2 7 7 2 p / q 2 p 7 q ,, q, , (10 24 40 60), , 17 12 2 , , 5, , 18, 3.6 ., 5, 17. (c) Suppose, if possible, log 2 7 is rational, say p / q where, , , ( 3 5 2), , 9., , 2, , 2, , abc 30 30 . So, a 3, b 2, c 5, , Therefore,, , 3x, 2, , Here, by equating the indices, 3 x 27, , 10 24 40 60, , a b c 2 ab 2 bc 2 ac , a, b, c 0., , , , , , then by definition (2 2 )x 325 4, , (b) Let 10 24 40 60, , a b c, , n 2, , 15. (d) It is obvious., 16. (a) Let x be the required logarithm ,, , 5, 1, ,y ., 2, 2, , (2. 2 1 / 2 ) x 2 5 . 2 2 / 5 ;, , , , n2, , , , , , , , n5, , 2 2, 1, 2 2, 2n 5 2n 2, , , , n 5, n2, n6, n3, n 5, n2, 2, 2.2 2.2, 2 2, 2 2 2, , 5, 1, 5 1, , , 3 5 , 2, 2, 2, , Hence,, 8., , 16 2 4 2, 2 4 2 n 1 2 2 2 n, 4, n2, n2, 16 2 2 2, 2 2n 2 2 2n 2, n, , n 5, , Obviously x y 3 and 4 xy 5., , After solving x , , n 1, , , 2 , 35, , 3, , 3/5, 4/3, , 53 33, 125 27, 3375, 523/ 2 353/ 5, , , , 45 / 4, 3 4 / 3, 5, 4, 2, 2, 32 16, 512, 2 2, , 21. (b) log ab log | b |, , ab , log , log | a | ., |b|, 22. (c), , 2, log0.5, 4, , {log 0.5 (0.5)2 }2, , , ( 2) 2 2 .
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Surds, Indices and Logarithm, , II.A.39, , 23. (b) log 3 4. log 4 5. log 5 6. log 6 7. log7 8. log 8 9, , , log 4 log 5 log 6 log 7 log 8 log 9, ., ., ., ., ., log 3 log 4 log 5 log 6 log 7 log 8, , log 9, log 3 9 log 3 3 2 2 ., , log 3, , log 3 2 , , 1, ., 2ab 1, , 28. (b, c) log k x. log 5 k log x 5, , , log 5 x log x 5, , , , log x 5 , , log 7 log 7 77 / 8, , , , (log x 5)2 1, , log 7 (7 / 8), , , , log x 5 1, , , , x1 5, , , , x 5,, , 24. (c) log 7 log 7 7 7 7, , log 7 7 log 7 8, , 1 log 7 2, , 3, , 1 3 log 7 2 ., , 25. (d) 81(1 / log 5 3) 27log 9 36 34 / log 7 9, 1, 3. log 3 36, 3 2, , 3, , 4 log 3 5, , 3, , log 3 5 4, , 3, , 4, , 3/ 2, , , , 5 36, , log 3 36 3 / 2, , 3, , 3, , 4 log 9 7, , log 3 7 4 / 2, , 2, , 16, , 7, , 25, , 5, , 81 , 3, , = log 7 . 5 . 3 log 2 ., 15 24 80, , , , , (d) ab log 4 5. log 5 6 log 4 6 1 log 2 6, 2, ab , , 1, log x 5, , 1, ., 5, , 29. (c) log 5 a. log a x 2, , , log5 x 2, , , , x 52 25 ., , 7 890 ., , 26. (c) Given expression, , 27., , , , 1, (1 log 2 3) 2ab 1 log 2 3, 2, , 30. (c) a 2 4b 2 12ab, , , a 2 4 b 2 4 ab 16 ab, , , , (a 2b)2 16ab, , , , 2 log(a 2b) log16 log a logb, , , , log(a 2b) , , , , 1, [log a log b 4 log 2], 2
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II.A.40, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 5, , Average, , The term average is used frequently in everyday life to express, , 67 years, that of the parents is 35 years and that of the, , an amount that is typical for a group of people or things. For, , grandchildren is 6 years. What is the average age of the family?, , example, you may read in a newspaper that on average people, , 67 2 35 2 6 3 , Solution: , , , watch 3 hours of television per day. We understand from the, use of the term average that not everybody watches 3 hours of, television each day, but that some watch more and some, less. However, we realise from the use of the term average that, the figure of 3 hours per day is a good indicator of the amount, of TV watched in general., Average refers to the sum of numbers divided by n. Also called, the mean average or arithmetic mean; also known as Central, tendency: a measure of the middle value of the data set., Sum of values, Average =, Number of values, Example 1: If the average temperature this week was 70, degrees, the temperature would have been taken each day over, the 7 days., Those temperatures would be added up and divided by 7 to, determine the average temperature., Example 2: Calculate the average speed of a car that travels, 180km in 5 hours?, d 180, The average speed is , 36 k / h, 5, t, Example 3. In the first 10 overs of a cricket game, the run rate, was only 3.2. What should be the run rate in the remaining 40, overs to reach the target of 282 runs?, , 282 3.2 10 250, 6.25, Solution: , , 40, , 40, Example 4. A family consists of two grandparents, two parents, , , , 223, , , , 134 70 18 222, 5, , 31 years., 7, 7, 7, Example 5. The average height (arithmetic mean) of 4, , members of a 6-person volleyball team is 175 cm. What does, the average height in centimetres of the other 2 players have to, be if the average height of the entire team equals 180 cm?, Sum of values, Average, Number of values, Use what you know to find out the sum of the heights of the 4, , Solution:, , members whose average is 175 cm., Sum of heights, 175, 4, Sum of heights = 4 (175) = 700, , The average of all 6 players is 180 cm., Average of 6 players’ heights, =, , sum of 4 player's heights + sum of 2 player's heights, 6, , =, , sum of 4 player's heights + sum of 2 player's heights, 6, , 700 + sum of 2 player's heights, 6, 1080 = 700 + sum of 2 players’ heights, 1080 – 700 = sum of 2 players’ heights, 380 = sum of 2 players’ heights, The average of the heights of the 2 players, sum, ;, Average , number of players, 180 =, , and three grandchildren. The average age of the grandparents is, , Average , , 380, 190 cm, 2, , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , The average of first five multiples of 3 is?, a. 9, b. 27, c. 18, d. 81, , 2., , The average score of a cricketer for ten matches is 38.9, runs. If the average for the first six matches is 42, then, find the average for the last four matches., a. 33.25, b. 33.5, c. 34.25, d. 35, , 3., , A class has two sections, in one of which there are 40, students with an average of 14.5 years and the average of, the class is 14.2 years. If there be 32 students in the other, section, its average age is:, a. 11.32 years, b. 13.285 years, c. 14.23 years, d. 9.21 years
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II.A.41, , Average, , 4., , The mean of 100 observations was calculated as 40. It, was found later on that one of the observations was, misread as 83 instead of 53. The correct mean is:, a. 39.7, b. 112.2, c. 21.32, d.44.32, , 5., , Out of four numbers, the average of first three is 16 and, that of the last three is 15. If, the last number is 18, the, first number is:, a. 34, b. 22, c. 21, d. 112, The average of 30 students is 9 years. If the age of their, teacher is included, it becomes 10 years. The age of the, teacher (in years) is:, a. 48, b. 40, c. 37, d. 56, , 6., , The average of five consecutive odd numbers is 61., What is the difference between the highest and lowest, numbers?, a. 4, b. 6, c. 9, d. 8, , 7., , The average weight of 8 persons is increased by 2.5 kg., When one of them, whose weight is 56 kg is replaced by a, new man. The weight of the new man isa. 64 Kg, b.76 Kg, c. 80 Kg, d. 110 Kg, , 8., , The average of a husband and his wife was 23 years at the, time of their marriage. After five years they have a one –, year old child. The average age of the family now isa. 19 years, b. 23 years, c. 28.5 years, d. 29.3 years, , 9., , 10. Three maths classes X, Y and Z, take an algebra test. The, average score of class X is 83. The average score of class Y, is 76. The average score of class Z is 85. The average score, of class X and Y is 79 and average score of class Y and Z is, 81. What is the average score of classes X, Y and Z?, a. 81.5, b. 80.5, c. 83, d. 78, 11. The average of first five multiple of 3 is:, a. 3, b. 9, c. 12, d. 15, , 12. The average of 30 results is 20 and the average of other, 20 results is 30. The average of all the results is:, a. 25, b. 24, c. 50, d. 48, 13. The average of 3 numbers is 17 and that of the first two is, 16. The third number is:, a. 1, b. 16, c. 17, d. 19, 14. The average of 25 results is 18; that of first 12 is 14 and of, the last 12 is 17. Thirteenth result is:, a. 78, b. 85, c. 28, d. 72, 15. The average of 50 numbers is 38. If two numbers namely,, 45 and 55 are discarded, the average of remaining, numbers is:, a. 36.50, b. 37.00, c. 37.50, d. 37.52, 16. The average height of 30 girls out of a class of 40 is 160, cms. And that of the remaining girls is 156 cms. The, average height of the whole class is:, a. 158 cm, b. 158.5 cm c. 159 cm, d. 159.5 cm, 17. The sum of three numbers is 98. If the ratio between first, and second be 2 : 3 and that between second and third be, 5 : 8, then the second number is:, a. 30, b. 20, c. 58, d. 48, 18. The average weight of 8 persons is increased by 2.5 kg., When one of them, whose weight is 56 kg is replaced by a, new man. The weight of the new man isa. 66 kg., b. 75 kg., c. 76 kg., d. 86 kg., 19. The average age of a committee of seven trustees is the, same as it was 5 years ago; a young man having been, substituted for one of them. The new man compared to, the replaced old man, is younger in age by:, a. 5 years, b. 7 years, c. 12 years d. 35 years, 20. A ship sails out to a mark at the rate of 15 km/hr and sails, back at the rate of 10 km/hr. The average rate of sailing, is:, a. 12.5 km/hr, b. 12 km/hr, c. 25 km/hr, d. 5 km/hr, , ANSWERS, 2., , 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , a, , c, , b, , a, , c, , b, , d, , b, , a, , a, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , ∴, , b, , b, , d, , a, , c, , c, , a, , c, , d, , b, , 3., , = (10 × 38.9 ) − ( 6 × 42 ) = 389 − 252 = 137, , SOLUTIONS, 1., ⇒, ⇒, , (a) The five multiples of 3 is 3, 6, 9, 12, 15., n +1 5 +1, ⇒, the term, 2, 2, 6/2 the term = 3rd term; Here 3rd term is 9, , (c) Total sum of last 4 matches, , ∴, , Average = 137/ 4 = 34.25, (b) Given 40 students average 14.5 years, (40 + 32) = 72 students average 14.2 years, The total age of 32 students, = ( 72 × 14.2 − 40 × 14.5 ) years, = (1022.4 − 580 ) = 442.4 years, , ∴, , The average = 442.4/32 = 13.825 years
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II.A.42, , 4., , , , 5., , , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , (a) Given mean of 100 = 40, One is 53 – 83 = –30, Correct sum (40 100) (53 83), , X 83a , Y 76b and Z 85c, , 76b 85c, 81, bc, 76b 85c, 4, 5, 4c 5b, 81 4c 5b ab a , c a, bc, 3, 3, Average score of X, Y and Z, 83a 76b 85c 978, , , 81.5, 12, abc, 3 (1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5) 3 15 , 11. (b) Average =, , 9., 5, 5 , , , = 4000 – 30 = 3970, Correct mean = 3970/100 = 39.7, (c) Given average of first three = 16, Average of last three = 15, And last number = 18, Sum of 2nd and 3rd number (3 15) 18, = 45 – 18 = 27, The first number = (3 16) 27 = 48 – 27 = 21, , 6., , , (b) Given average of 30 students = 9 years, Average of 31 members = 10 years, The age of teacher (31 10) (30 9), , Given average is 61, x x 2 x 4 x6 x8, 61, , 5, 5x 20 61, 5x 20 305, 5, 5x 305 20 285 x 57, The highest number x 8 65, Lower number x 57, , , , The difference is 65 57 8, 5–1 = 4 by shortcut, Smallest No., 57, –4, 59, , 8., 9., , , , 8, +4, , 61, , Average , , 14. (a) Thirteenth result [(25 18) (12 14 12 17)], [450 (168 204)] 450 372 78., , 15. (c) Total of 50 numbers 50 38 1900., 1900 (45 55), Average of 48 numbers , 48, 1800, , 37.5., 48, 16. (c) The average of the whole class, (30 160 10 156), , 159 cms., 40, 17. (a) Let the numbers be x, y, z. Then,, x 2, y 5, x y z 98, and , y 3, z 8., 2y, 8y, and z ., 3, 5, 2y, 8y, 49 y, So,, y, 98 or, 98 or y 30., 3, 5, 15, 18. (c) Total weight increased (2.5 8) kg. 20 kg., , , Largest No., 65, , 63, , 61, , 1200, 24., 50, 13. (d) Third number [(3 17) (2 16)] (51 32) 19., , , (d) Let the numbers be x, x 2, x 4, x 6, x 8, , , , 4a 3b, , 12. (b) Total of 50 results (30 20 20 30) 1200., , = 310 – 270 = 40 years, Shortcut Method By: Formula:, Age of included teacher = old average + increase in, Average × New strength, 9 1 31 9 31 40 years, 7., , 83a 76b, 7a, ab, , Sum = 57 + 65 = 122, Difference = 65 – 57 = 8, (b) Total weight increased 8 2.5 = 20 kg, Weight of new man = 56 + 20 = 76 kg., (a) Sum of present ages of husband, wife and child, 23 2 5 2 1 57 years, Required average , , 57 , 19 years, 3 , , 10. (a) Let the number of student in classes X, Y and Z be a,, b,&c respectively then total score of, , x, , Weight of the new man = (56 + 20) kg. = 76 kg, 19. (d) During these 5 years, the total age would have, increased by (7 5) = 35 years., But, it remains the same as it was 5 years ago., The new man is younger than the replaced old man by, 35 years., 20. (b) Formula: If the body covers equal distances at x, 2 xy, km/hr and y km/hr, then average speed , x y, , , , , 2 15 10 , Average speed , km/hr = 12 km/hr, 15 10
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II.A.43, , Ratio and Proportion, , 6, , Ratio and Proportion, , When going shopping, children often look at the prices of, various groceries. A parent can easily explain ratios to her, child using two different boxes of cereal. For example, if a 1 kg, box of cereal costs Rs 100 and a 200 gm box of cereal costs Rs, 25, the 1 kg box is the better value because each gm of cereal is, cheaper., When you prepare recipes, paint your house, or repair gears in, a large machine or in a car transmission, you use ratios and, proportions., Say a recipe to make brownie requires 4 cups of flour for 6, persons., You may want to know how much flower to put for 24, persons., One of the most important mathematical relationships used in, the day to day world is Ratio. Proportions are built from ratios., A "ratio" is just a comparison between two different things. For, example: Suppose there are thirty-five people, fifteen of whom, are men. Then the ratio of men to women is 15 to 20. Notice, that, in the expression "the ratio of men to women", "men", came first. This order is very important, and must be respected:, whichever word came first, its number must come first. If the, expression had been "the ratio of women to men", then the, numbers would have been "20 to 15"., Ratio: The ratio of two quantities a and b in the same units, is, the fraction, , a, and we write it as a: b. In the ratio a : b, we call, b, , a as the first term or antecedent and b, the second term or, consequent., Proportion: The equality of two ratios is called proportion. If, a : b = c : d, we write a : b::c : d and we say that a, b, c, d are in, proportion. Here a and d are called extremes, while b and c are, called mean terms., Product of means = Product of extremes, Thus, a : b :: c : d ⇒ ( b × c ) = ( a × d ) ., Fourth Proportional:, If a : b = c : d, then d is called the fourth proportional to a, b, c., Third Proportional:, a : b = c : d, then c is called the third proportion to a and b., Mean Proportional:, Mean proportional between a and b is ab., , Compounded Ratio:, The compounded ratio of the ratios: (a : b), (c : d), (e : f) is, (ace : bdf)., Duplicate Ratios:, Duplicate ratio of ( a : b ) is ( a 2 : b 2 ) ., Sub-duplicate ratio of ( a : b ) is ( a : b) ., Triplicate ratio of ( a : b ) is ( a 3 : b 3 ) ., Sub-triplicate ratio of ( a : b ) is ( a 1 / 3 : b 1 / 3 ) ., If, , a c, a+b c+d, = then, =, (componendo and dividendo), b d, a−b c−d, , Example 1. Compare the ratios 2 : 3 and 4 : 7, 2, 4, Solution: 2 : 3 = & 4 : 7 = ., 3, 7, 2, 4, &, L.C.M. of denominators of, is 21., 3, 7, 2 2 × 7 14, =, =, ∴, 3 3 × 7 21, 4 4 × 3 12, And =, = ., 7 7 × 3 21, Clearly,, , 14 12, or(2 : 3) > (4 : 7), >, 21 21, , Example 2. If a : b = 4 : 5 & b : c = 6 : 8, find a : c., a 4 b 6, = & = ., b b c 7, a a b 4 6 24, = × = × =, ∴, c b c 5 7 35., Hence, a : c = 24 : 25., , Solution:, , Example 3. In a ratio which is equal to 7:8, if the antecedent is, 35, what is the consequent?, Solution: If antecedent is 7, then consequent = 8., 8, If antecedent is 35, then consequent = × 35 = 40., 7, Example 4. The ratio between two numbers is 2 : 3. If each, number is increased by 4, the ratio between them becomes 5 :, 7. What are the numbers?, Solution: Let the numbers be 2x and 3x.Then,, 2x + 4 5, = or 14 x + 28 = 15 x + 20 or x = 8., 3x + 4 7, ∴ The numbers are 16 and 24.
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.A.44, , Example 5. (i) Find the fourth proportional to 3, 5 and 21., (ii) Find the mean proportional between 64 and 81., (iii) Find the third proportional to 9 and 12., Solution: (i) Let 3: 5:: 21: x., 3 21, 5 × 21, Then,, =, or x =, = 35., 5 x, 3, (ii) Let 64 : x :: x :81., , 64 x, =, or x = 64 × 81 = 12., x 81, (iii) Since third proportional to 9 and 12 is the same as, fourth proportional to 9, 12, 12., Let 9 :12 ::12 : x., 9 12, 12 × 12, or x =, = 16., Then, =, 12 x, 9, , Then,, , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , If A : B = 5 : 7, B : C = 6 : 11 then A : B : C is, a. 55 : 77 : 66, b. 30 : 42 : 77, c. 35 : 49 : 42, d. 55 : 42 : 96, , 2., , If, , 3., , a b c, a+b+c, = = then, is equal to, 3 4 7, c, 1, a. 7, b. 2, c., 2, , If 15% of x = 20% of Y, then X : Y is, a. 3 : 4, b. 4 : 3, c. 17 : 16, , d. 7, , 11. The speeds of three cars are in the ratio 5 : 4 : 6. The ratio, between the time taken by them to travel the same, distance is:, a. 5 : 4 : 6, b. 6 : 4 : 5, c. 10 : 12 :15, d. 12 : 15 : 10, 1, 7, , d. 16 : 17, , 4., , The third proportional to 0.36 and 0.48 is–, a. 0.64, b. 0.1728, c. 0.42, d. 0.99, , 5., , The sum of the two numbers is 30 and their different is, 12. Find the ratio of these two numbers., a. 3 : 7, b. 4 : 7, c. 5 : 6, d. 7 : 3, , 6., , The ratio between two numbers is 3:4 and their L.C.M. is, 180. The first number is:, a. 60, b. 45, c. 20, d. 15, , 7., , An alloy is to contain copper and zinc in the ratio 9 : 4. If, quantity of zinc is 24 kg., the quantity of copper is–, 2, 1, 2, a. 10 kg, b. 10 kg, c. 9 kg, d. 9 kg, 3, 3, 3, , 8., , Gold is 19 times as heavy as water and copper is 9 times, as heavy as water. In what ratio should these be mixed to, get an alloy 15 times as heavy as water?, a. 1 : 1, b. 2 : 3, c. 1 : 2, d. 3 : 2, , 1 1 1, : : and its, 2 3 4, perimeter is 104 cm. The length of the longest side is:, a. 52 cm, b. 48 cm, c. 32 cm, d. 26 cm, , 12. The sides of a triangle are in the ratio, , 13. Three containers have their volumes in the ratio 3 : 4 : 5., They are full of mixtures of milk and water. The mixtures, contain milk and water in the ratio (4:1), (3:1), and (5:2), respectively. The contents of all these three containers are, poured into fourth container. The ratio of milk and water, in the fourth container is:, a. 4 : 1, b. 151 : 48 c. 157 : 53 d. 5 : 2, 14. A and B are two alloys of gold and copper prepared by, mixing metals in the ratio 7 : 2 and 7 : 11 respectively. If, equal quantities of the alloys are melted to form a third, alloy C, the ratio of gold and copper n C will be:, a. 5 : 7, b. 5 : 9, c. 7 : 6, d. 7 : 5, 15. A sum of Rs. 53 is divided among A, B, C in such a way, that A gets Rs. 7 more than what B gets and B gets Rs. 8, more than what C gets. The ratio of their shares is:, a. 16 : 9 : 18, b. 27 : 18 : 10, c. 18 : 25 : 10, d. 25:18:10, 16. Find the ratio compounded of the four ratios: 4: 3, 9 : 13,, 26 : 5 and 2 : 15?, a. 16 : 25, b.16 : 26, c. 16 : 27, d. 16 : 28, , 15 liters of mixture contains 20% alcohol and the rest of, water. If 3 liters of water be mixed with it, the percentage, of alcohol in the new mixture would be:, 2, 2, a. 15%, b. 16 %, c. 17%, d. 18 %, 3, 3, , 17. Divide 1458 into two parts such that one may be to the, other as 2 : 7., a. 1134, b. 1136, c. 1138, d. 1140, , 10. The average age of three boys is 25 years and their, ages are in the ratio 3 : 5 : 7. The age of the youngest, boy is:, a. 21 years, b. 18 years c. 15 years d. 9 years, , 18. The sum of three numbers is 98. If the ratio between the, first and second be 2 : 3 and that between the second and, third be 5 : 8, then find the second number., a. 10, b. 20, c. 30, d. 40, , 9.
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II.A.45, , Ratio and Proportion, , 19. The ratio of the money with Ratio and Sita is 7: 15 that, with Sita and Kavita is 7 : 16. If Rita has Rs. 490, how, much money does Kavita have?, a. Rs. 2000, b. Rs. 2200, c.Rs.2300, d.Rs. 2400, , 20. A hound pursues a hare and takes 5 leaps for every 6 leaps, of the hare, but 4 leaps of the hound are equal to 5 leaps of, the hare. Compare the rates of the hound and the hare., a. 25 : 24, b.25 : 26, c.25 : 27, d.25 : 28, , ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , b, , b, , b, , a, , d, , b, , a, , d, , b, , c, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , d, , b, , c, , d, , d, , a, , a, , c, , d, , a, , SOLUTIONS, (b) A : B 5 : 7, B:C, 6 : 11, A:B:C=, 30 : 42 : 77, a b c, 2. (b) = = = k then, 3 4 7, a = 3k , b = 4k , c = 7k, a + b + c 3k + 4k + 7 k 14k, ⇒, =, =, =2, c, 7k, 7k, 3. (b) 15% of x = 20% of y, 5 x 20 y x 20 100 4, =, = =, ×, =, 100 100 y 100 15 3, 4. (a) Let the third proportional to 0.36 and, 0.48 be × 0.36 : 0.48 : : 0.48 : x, 0.48 × 0.48, x=, = 0.64, 0.36, 5. (d) Let two numbers are x and y, ratio of two numbers, x : y = (30 + 12) : (30 – 12) = 42 : 18 = 7 : 3, 6. (b) Let the required numbers be 3x and 4x., Then, their L.C.M. is12x. 12 x = 180 ⇔ x = 15., Hence, the first number is 45., 7. (a) Let the required numbers be 3x kg, Then, 9 : 4 :: 24 : × ⇔ 9 x = 4 × 24, 4 × 24, 2, x=, = 10, 9, 3, 2, Hence, the required quantity of copper is 10 kg, 3, 8. (d) G = 19 w and C = 9 W (W = water), Let 1 gm of gold be mixed × gm of copper to get (1+ x) gm, of the alloy., (1 gm gold) + (x gm copper) = (x + 1) gm of alloy 19W +, 9W × = (x +1) × 15W, 2, 19 + 9 x = 15 ( x + 1) ⇔ 6 x = 4 ⇔ x =, 3, 2, ∴ Ratio of gold with copper = 1: = 3 : 2, 3, 1., , 9., , (b) Alcohol in 15 litres of mix = 20% of 15, 20, , Litres = , × 15 litres = 3 liters, 100, , Water in it = (15–3) litres= 12 litres, New quantity of mix = (15+3) =18 litres, Quantity of alcohol in it =3 litres, Percentage of alcohol in new mix, 2, 3, , = × 100 % = 16 %, 3, 18, , , , 10. (c) Total age of 3 boys = (25 × 3) = 75 years, Ratio of their ages = 3:5:7, Age of the younges, 3 , , t = 75 × years, 15 , , = 15 years, 1 1 1, 11. (d) Ratio of time taken = : : = 12 :15 :10, 5 4 6, 1 1 1, 12. (b) Ratio of sides = : : = 6 : 4 : 3, 2 3 4, 6, Largest side = 104 × cm = 48cm., 13 , , 13. (c) Let the three containers contain 3x, 4x and 5x liters of, mixtures respectively., 12 x, 4, Milk in 1st mix. = 3 x × liters =, liters, 5, 5, , 3x, 12 x , Water in 1st mix. = 3 x −, liters = 5 liters, 5 , , 3, Milk in 2nd mix = 4 x × liters = 3x liters, 4, , nd, Water in 2 mix. = (4 x − 3 x ) liters = x liters, , 10 x, 5, Milk in 3rd mix. = 5 x × liters =, liters, 7, 7, , 10 x, 25, Water in 3rd mix. = 5 x − liters =, liters, 7, 7, , , 12 x, 25 x , Total milk in final mix. = , + 3x +, liters, 7 , 5, 314 x, =, liters, 35
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.A.46, , 3x, 10 x , Total water in final mix. = + x +, liters, 7 , 5, 106 x, =, liters, 35, Required ratio of milk and water, 314 x 106 x, :, =, = 157 : 53, 35, 35, 7 7, 14. (d) Gold in C = + units., 9 18 , 5, 2 11, Copper in C = + units =, 6, 9 18 , , 7 5, : = 7:5, 6 6, 15. (d) Suppose C gets Rs. X, Then, B gets, Gold: Copper =, , Rs. ( x + 8) and A gets, Rs. ( x + 15), Then, X + ( x + 8) + ( x + 15) = 53 ⇔ x = 10, A:B:C = (10+15) : (10+8) :10, = 25:18:10, 16. (a) The required ratio, 4 × 9 × 26 × 2 16, =, =, 3 × 13 × 5 × 15 25, Note: When the ratio 4 : 3 is compounded with itself, the, 2, , 2, , resulting ratio is 4 : 3 . It is called the duplicate ratio of 4 : 3., Similarly, 43 : 33. is the triplicate ratio of 4 : 3., 4 : 3 is called the sub-duplicate ratio of 4 : 3., , a, , 1/3, , : b1/ 3 is sub-duplicate ratio of a and b., , 17. (a) 1st part, 1428, 1428, = 2×, = 2×, = 324 ;, 2+7, 9, 2nd part, 1428, = 7×, = 1134, 9, 18. (c) The theorem does not give the direct value of the, second number, but we can find the combined ratio of all, the three numbers by using the above theorem. The ratio, among the three numbers is:, 2 : 3, 5 : 8, 10 : 15 : 24, ∴ The second number, 98, =, × 15 = 30, 10 + 15 + 24, 19. (d ) Rita : Sita : Kavita, 7 : 15, 7 : 16, 49 : 105 : 240, The ratio of money with Rita, Sita and Kavita is 49 : 105 :, 240, we see that, 49 ≡ Rs.490, ∴ 240 ≡ Rs.2400, , 20. (a) 4 leaps of hound = 5 leaps of hare, 25, leaps of hare, ∴ 5 leaps of hound =, 4, ∴ the rate of hound : rate of hare, 25, : 6 = 25 : 24, =, 4
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Partnership, , II.A.47, , 7, Partnership is defined as a relation between two or more, persons who have agreed to share the profits of a business, carried on by all of them or any of them acting for all. The, owners of a partnership business are individually known as the, "partners" and collectively as a "firm., The minimum number of partners must be two, while the, maximum number can be 10 in case of banking business and, 20 in all other types of business., Two brains are better than one may explain why a lot of, entrepreneurs and small business owners, create partnerships; a, partnership include that:, two heads (or more) are better than one., your business is easy to establish and start-up costs are low., more capital is available for the business., you’ll have greater borrowing capacity high-calibre, employees can be made partners., In a general partnership, the partners manage the company and, assume responsibility for the partnership's debts and other, obligations. Partnerships come in two varieties: general, partnerships and limited partnerships. A limited partnership has, both general and limited partners. The general partners own, and operate the business and assume liability for the, partnership, while the limited partners serve as investors only;, they have no control over the company and are not subject to, the same liabilities as the general partners. Persons two or more, than two persons when start and run the new business jointly of, their own choice, the persons start they are called Partners and, the deal is done between the partners is known as Partnership., Ratio of Division of Gains:, The amount investment of all the partners are for the same, time period, the gain or loss amount is distributed among the, partners in the ratio of their investments amounts., Suppose, A and B invest Rs x and Rs y respectively for a, year in a business, then at the end of the year: (A's share of, profit):(B's share of profit) = x : y, When investments are for different time periods, then, equivalent capital are calculated a unit of time by taking, (Capital x number of unit of time)., Suppose A invests Rs x for p months and B invests Rs y for, q months, then (A's share of profit):(B's share of profit) =, xp : yq, , Partnership, Working and sleeping partners: A partner who manages, the business is known as working partner and the one who, simply invests the money is a sleeping partner., Formula:, I. When investments of A and B are Rs x and Rs y for a year, in a business, then at the end of the year (A's share of, profit) : (B's share of profit) = x : y, II. When A invests Rs x for p months and B invests Rs y for q, months, then A's share profit : B's share of profit = xp : yq, Example 1. Samir started a software business by investing, Rs. 40,000. After six months, Nitish joined him with a capital, of Rs. 60,000. After 3 years, they earned a profit of Rs. 27,900., What was Samir’s share in the profit?, Solution: Short tricks: Samir : Nitish share of capital, = ( 40,000 × 36 ) : ( 60,000 × 30 ), = 1440000 : 1800000 = 4 : 5., Samir’s share is = Rs. 27900 x 4 / 9 = Rs. 12400., Example 2. Anil, Mukesh and Ritesh started a business by, investing Rs. 125000 Rs. 150000 and Rs.175000 respectively., Find the share of each, out of an annual profit of Rs. 93,600., Solution: Ration of share Anil, Mukesh and Ritesh = Ratio of, their investment, Anil : Mukesh : Ritesh = 125000 : 150000 : 175000 = 5 : 6 : 7, Anil share = Rs. [93600 5/18] = 26000.Mukesh share = Rs., [93600 6/18] = 31200., Ritesh share = Rs. [93600 7/18] = 36400., Example 3. A, B, C enter into a partnership. A contributes Rs., 320000 for 4 months; B contributes Rs. 510000 for 3 months, and C contributes Rs. 270000 for 5 months. If the total profit, be Rs. 124800, how should they divide it among themselves?, Solution: Ratio of capitals of A, B and C, (320000 4) : (510000 3) : (270000 5), , 1280000 :1530000 :1350000 128 :153:135., Sum of ratios (128 153 135) 416., , , 128 , , A's Share Rs. 124800 , Rs. 38400;, 416 , , , , , 153 , , B's Share Rs. 124800 , Rs.45900;, 416 , , , , , C's Share Rs. [124800 (38400 45900)] Rs. 40500.
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II.A.48, , Example 4. Vimla and Surjeet started a shop jointly by, investing Rs. 9000 and Rs. 10500 respectively. After 4 months, Jaya joined them by investing Rs.12500 while Surjeet withdrew, Rs. 2000. At the end of the year there was a profit of Rs. 4770., Find the share of each., Solution: Clearly Vimla invested Rs. 9000 for 12 months;, Surjeet invested Rs. 10500 for 4 months and Rs. 8500 for 8, months; Jaya invested Rs. 12500 for 8 months., Ratio of capitals of Vimla, Surjeet and Jaya, , Example 5. A,B, and C enter into a partnership, A putting Rs., 2000 for the whole year, B putting Rs. 3000 at first and increasing, it to Rs. 4000 at the end of 4 months, whilst C puts in at first Rs., 4000 but withdraws Rs. 1000 at the end of 9 months. How should, they, at the end of a year, divide a profit of Rs. 8475?, Solution: Calculating equivalent capital For 1 month for each:, A’s capital (2000 12) Rs. 24000., , B’s capital Rs , , , 8475 45 , Rs.3375., 113 , , (9000 12) : (10500 4 8500 8) : (12500 8), , C’s capital Rs.(4000 9 3000 3) Rs.45000., , 108000 :110000 :100000, , Ratio of capitals 24000 : 44000 : 45000 24 : 44 : 45, Sum of ratios 24 44 45 113., 1, A’s share 6 %, 4, , 108 :110 :100 54 : 55: 50., Sum of ratios (54 55 50) 159., , , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Vimla’s share Rs.(3000 4 4000 8) Rs.44000., , 55 , Surjeet’s share Rs. 4770 , Rs.1650., 159, , , , Jaya’s share Rs.[4770 (1620 1650)] Rs.1500., , B’s share Rs , , , 8475 44 , Rs.3300., 113 , , 8475 45 , Rs.3375., 113 , , C’s share Rs , , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , 2., , Shekhar started a business investing Rs. 25,000 in 1999., In 2000, he invested an additional amount of Rs. 10,000, and Rajeev joined him with an amount of Rs. 35,000. In, 2001, Shekhar invested another additional amount of Rs., 10,000 and Jatin joined them with an amount of Rs., 35,000. What will be Rajeev’s share in the profit of Rs., 1,50,000 earned at the end of 3 years from the start of the, business in 1999 ?, a. Rs. 45,000, b. Rs. 50,000, c. Rs. 70,000, d. Rs. 75,000, Three partners A, B, C start a business. Twice A’s capital, is equal to thrice B’s capital and B’s capital is four times, C’s capital. Out of a total profit of Rs. 16,500 at the end, of the year, B’s share is:, a. Rs. 4000, b. Rs. 8000, c. Rs. 7500, d. Rs. 6000, , 3., , A, B and C rent a pasture. A puts 10 oxen for 7 months, B, puts 12 oxen for 5 months and C puts 15 oxen for 3, months for grazing. If the rent of the pasture is Rs. 175,, how much must C pay as his share of rent?, a. Rs. 45, b. Rs. 50, c. Rs. 55, d. Rs. 60, , 4., , A, B, C started a business with their investments in the ratio, 1 : 3 : 5. After 4 months, A invested the same amount as, before and B as well as C withdrew half of their investments., The ratio of their profits at the end of the year is:, a. 4 : 3 : 5, b. 5 : 6 : 10, c. 6 : 5 : 10, d. 10 : 5 : 6, , 1, 1, of the capital for, of the, 6, 6, 1, 1, time, B invests of the capital for, of the time and C,, 3, 3, the rest of the capital for the whole time. Out of a profit of, Rs. 4600, B’s share is:, a. Rs. 650, b. Rs. 800, c. Rs. 960, d. Rs. 1000, , 5., , In a partnership, A invests, , 6., , A and B start a business jointly. A invests Rs. 16,000 for, 8 months and remains B in the business for 4 months. Out, 2, of total profit, B claims of the profit. How much money, 7, was contributed by B?, a. Rs. 10,500, b. Rs. 11,900, c. Rs. 12,800, d. Rs. 13,600, , 7., , Two friends P and Q started a business investing in the, ratio of 5 : 6. R joined them after six months investing as, amount equal to that of Q’s. At the end of the year, 20%, profit was earned which was equal to Rs. 98,000. What, was the amount invested by R?, a. Rs. 1,05,000, b. Rs. 1,75,000, c. Rs. 2,10,000, d. Data inadequate, A started a business investing Rs. 35,000. After six, months B joined him with a capital of Rs. 60,000. At the, end of the year the total profit was Rs. 26,000. What will, be the difference between the share of profits, a. Rs. 4,000, b. Rs. 2,000, c. Rs. 1,500, d. Rs. 40,000, , 8.
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Partnership, , II.A.49, , A’s capital is equal to thrice B’s capital and B’s capital is, 4 times C’s capital. The ratio of the capitals is:, a. 1 : 3 : 12, b. 12 : 4 : 1, c. 3 : 1 : 4, d. 1 : 3 : 4, , 9., , 10. A, B, C can do a work in 20, 25 and 30 days respectively., They undertook to finish the work together for Rs. 2220,, then the share of A exceeds that of B by:, a. Rs. 120, b. Rs. 180, c. Rs. 300, d. Rs. 600, 11. A starts a business with Rs. 2,000. B joins him after 3, months with Rs. 4,000. C puts a sum of Rs. 10,000 in the, business for 2 months only. At the end of the year, the, business gave a profit of Rs. 5600. How should the profit, be divided among them?, a. Rs. 1300, b. Rs. 1400, c. Rs. 1500, d. Rs. 1600, 12. A and B enter into a partnership for a year. A contributes, Rs. 1500 and B Rs. 2000. After 4 months they admit C,, who contributes Rs. 2250. If B withdraws his contribution, after 9 months, how would they share a profit of Rs. 900, at the end of the year?, a. Rs. 100, b. Rs. 200, c. Rs. 300, d. Rs. 400, 13. A began a business with Rs. 450 and was joined afterwards, by B with Rs. 300. When did B join if the profits at the end, of the year were divided in the ratio 2 : 1?, a. 0 months, b. 1 months, c. 2 months, d. 3 months, 14. A and B enter into a partnership with their capitals in the, ratio 7 : 9. At the end of 8 months. A withdraws his, capital. If they receive the profits in the ratio 8 : 9, find, how long B’s capital was used., a. 7 months, b. 9 months, c. 11 months, d. 13 months, 15. A, B and C invested capitals in the ratio 2 : 3 : 5; the, timing of their investments being in the ratio 4 : 5 : 6. In, what ratio would their profit be distributed?, ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , b, , d, , a, , b, , b, , c, , c, , b, , b, , b, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , b, , c, , d, , a, , b, , d, , a, , d, , a, , c, , a. 4 : 7 : 15, c. 5 : 7 : 12, , b. 8 : 15 : 30, d.3 : 5 : 11, , 16. A, B and C invested capitals in the ratio 5 : 6 : 8. At the, end of the business term, they received the profits in the, ratio 5 : 3 : 12. Find the ratio of time for which they, contributed their capitals?, a. 3 : 1 : 2, b. 5 : 2 : 7, c. 0 : 2 : 3, d.2 : 1 : 3, 17. A, B and C are partners. A receives, , 2, of the profit and B, 5, , and C share the remaining profit equally. A’s income is, increased by Rs. 220 when the profit rises from 8% to, 10%. Find the capitals invested by A, B and C., a.Rs. 8250, b. Rs. 8450, c. Rs. 8650, d.Rs. 8850, 18. Two partners invest Rs. 125,000 and Rs. 85,000, respectively in business and agree that 60% of the profit, should be divided equally between them and the, remaining profit is to be treated as interest on capital. If, one partner gets Rs. 300 more than the other, find the total, profit made in the business., a.Rs. 3497.50, b.Rs. 3350.50, c.Rs. 3688.50, d.Rs. 3937.50, 19. A and B invested in the ratio 3 : 2 in a business. If 5% of, the total profit goes to charity and A’s share is Rs. 855,, find the total profit., a.Rs. 1500, b.Rs. 1600, c.Rs. 1700, d.Rs. 1800, 20. In a partnership, A invested, , the time, B invested, , 1, 1, th of the capital for th of, 6, 6, , 1, 1, rd of the capital for rd of the, 3, 3, , time, and C invested the rest of the capital for the whole, period. At the end of the period, they earned a profit of, Rs. 4600. Find the share of B., a.Rs. 200, b.Rs. 400, c.Rs. 800, d.Rs. 1000, , SOLUTIONS, 1. (b) Shekhar : Rajeev : Jatin, 25000 12 35000 12 45000 12 :, , 35000 24 : 35000 12
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II.A.50, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 1260000 :840000 : 420000 3: 2 :1, , 2., , 7, 26,000 14,000, 13, 6, B’s profit, 26,000 12,000, 13, Difference between A’s and B’s profit, 14,000 12,000 2,000, , A’s profit, , 2, Rajeev’s share = Rs. 150000 = Rs. 50000., 6, , , (d) Let C x. Then, B 4 x and 2 A 3 4 x 12 x, , or A 6 x., A : B : C 6 x : 4 x : x 6 : 4 :1, , , , 11 , , 3., , (a) A : B : C =10 7 : 12 5 : 15 3 = 70 : 60 : 45 = 14 : 12 : 9, , , , C’a rent = Rs. 175 , , 4., , (b) Let their initial investments be, , , , 9 , = Rs. 45, 35 , , x,3x and 5x, , respectively.Then, A : B : C x 4 2 x 8 :, 3x, 5x, , , , 8 5x 4 , 8, 3x 4 , 2, 2, , , , , 20 x : 24 x : 40 x 5: 6 :10, 5., , (b) Suppose A invests Rs., , Then,B invests Rs., , , , x, y, for months., 6, 6, , x, y, for months., 3, 3, , x , 3 , , x, 6, , C invests x i.e., Rs., , , , , , x, for y Months., 2, , 1 1 1, x y x y x, , : :, A: B :C : : y , 6 6 3 3 2, 36 9 2, , = 1: 4: 18., 4, Hence, B’s share = Rs. 4600 = Rs. 800, 23, , , , , (c) Let the total profit be Rs. X., 2x, 2x, 5x, Then, B , and A x , 7, 7 7, , , 6., , 5x 2 x, :, 5 : 2 Let B’s capital be Rs. Y., 7 7, 16000 8 5, 16000 8 2 , Then,, y , 12800, 7, y4, 5 4, , , 7. (c) Let the total profit be Rs. Z., Then, 20 % of, 98000 100 , x 98000 x , 490000, 20, , , Let the capitals of P, Q and R be Rs. 5x, Rs. 6x and Rs. 6x, respectively., Then, 5 x 12 6 x 12 6 x 6 490000 12, , So,, , A: B , , 490000 12 , 35000, 168, , , , 168x 490000 12 x , , , 8., , (b) Let C’s capital = Rs. x. Then, B’s capital = Rs. 4 x., A’s capital = Rs. (12x)., So, A : B : C = 12 x : 4 x : x = 12 : 4 : 1, 10. (b) Ratio of shares = Ratio of 1 day’s work, 1 1 1, . :, 15 :12 :10., 20 25 30, 9., , 4, So, B’s capital = Rs. 16500 = Rs. 6000, , R’s investment = 6x = Rs. (6 35000) = Rs. 210000, (b) A : B, : : 35, 000 12 : 60, 000 6, A : B, : :7, :, 6, , , , , , 15, A’s share = Rs. 2220 Rs.900, 37 , , , , B’s share = Rs. 2220 720, 37, 12, , , , , , A’s share exceeds B’s share = Rs. 180., 11. (b) Ratio of their profits (A’s : B’s : C’s), = 2 12 : 4 9 :10 2 6 : 9 : 5, Now, 6 + 9 + 5 = 20, 5600, Then A’s share , 6 Rs.1680, 20, 5600, B’s share , 9 Rs.2520, 20, 5600, C’s share , 5 Rs.1400, 20, 12. (c) A’s share : B’s share : C’s share, 1500 12 : 2000 9 : 2250 8, , 15 12 : 20 9 : 22.5 8 180 :180 :180 1:1:1, 900, Rs.300., 3, 13. (d) Suppose B joined the business for x months., 450 12 2, Then using the above formula, we have, , 300 x 1, or 300 2 x 450 12 ;, 450 12, x, 9 months, 2 300, Therefore, B joined after (12 – 9) = 3 months., 14. (a) Suppose B’s capital was used for x months. Following, the same rule, we have, 78 8, 7 8 9, , or, x , 7, 8 9, 9 x 9, Therefore, B’s capital was used for 7 months., 15. (b) We should know that if the three investments be in the, ratio a : b : c and the duration for their investments be in, the ratio x : y : z, then the profit would be distributed in, the ratio ax : by : cz. Thus, following the same rule, the, required ratio 2 4 : 3 5: 5 6 8:15: 30, , Therefore, each of them gets Rs.
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II.A.51, , Partnership, , 16. (d) Following the same rule:, If investment is in the ratio a : b : c and profit in the ratio, p:q:r, p q r, Then the ratio of time = : :, a b c, ax : by : cz, , ::, , 5, 5, , = 1, , :, , 3, 6, , :, , 12, 8, , p :q :, :, , q: r, , 1, :, 2, , 3, 2, , Therefore, the required ratio = 2 : 1 : 3, , 17. (a) For A’s share: (10% – 8%) ≡ Rs. 220, 220, × 100 ≡ Rs.11000, Rs. 11000, ∴ 100% ≡, 2, ∴ A’s capital = Rs. 11000, 2, For B’s and C’s share : ≡ 11000, 5, 3 11000, =, × 3 = Rs.16500, Rs. 16500, ∴, 5, 2, ∴ B’s and C’s capitals are Rs. 8250 each., 18. (d) The difference counts only due to 40% of the profit, which was distributed according to their investments., Let the total profit be Rs. x, Then 40% of x is distributed in the ratio, 125,000: 85,000 = 25 : 17, Therefore, the share of the first partner, 25 , = 40% of x , , 25 + 17 , 25 40 x 25 5 x, = 40% of x = , =, 42 100 42 21, And the share of the second partner, 17 17 x, = 40% of x =, 42 105, , Now, from the question, the difference in shares, 5 x 17 x, =, −, = 300, 21 105, x ( 25 − 17 ), or,, = 300, 105, 300 × 105, = 3937.50, or, x =, 8, 19. (a) Suppose the total profit is Rs. 100., Then, Rs. 5 goes to charity., Now, Rs. 95 is divided in the ratio 3 : 2., 95, × 3 = Rs..57, 57, ∴ A’s share =, 3+ 2, But, we see that A’s actual share is Rs. 855., ∴, , 100 , Actual total profit = 855 , = 1500, 57 , Direct Formula: In the above case:, , 100 3 + 2 , Total profit = 855 , , , 100 − 5 3 , 100 5 , = 855 , = Rs.1500, 95 3 , , 1 1, 1 1, 20. (c) C invested 1 − + = 1 − = part of the capital, 2 2, 6 3, Now, ratio of profit = A : B : C, 1 1 1 1 1, = × : × : ×1, 6 6 3 3 2, 1 1 1, : : = 1: 4 :18, =, 36 9 2, 4, , , ∴ B’s share = 4600 , , 1, 4, 18, +, +, , , 4 , = 4600 = Rs. 800, 23
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.A.52, , 8, Percentages are useful for comparing information where the, sample sizes or totals are different. By converting different data, to percentages you can readily compare them., Why would a reporter need to understand percentages,, fractions or statistics right? Well it just so happens that basic, math knowledge is very important. In fact, good math skills, can make all the difference between a successful and not-sosuccessful career. Journalists often depend on other sources for, data, but it is important to understand conversions as well., Percentages: The most useful statistics ever invented’:, William Buchanan. No meaningful discussion on percentage, can start anywhere other than this great quote. But before we, get down to understanding why the quote is so apt, let’s look, around for percentages which are part of our daily life:, The marks obtained in an exam but awarded as percent or, the ‘final average marks at the end of an academic year’., The interest rate charged by banks on housing loan or a, vehicle loan., The interest rate on the Fixed Deposits you parents keep in, a bank as part of their savings plan., The VAT charged at shops on purchase at a shop or, restaurants., The ‘rate of inflation’ announced by government every, fortnight., Interestingly: We all have at least a vague idea of what the, aforementioned five uses of percentage mean (e.g. a higher, interest rate on Fixed Deposit earns a higher amount of, interest). But why we must have a far more than ‘vague idea’, about percentage? Simply because it’s one of the best tools to, express certain forms of number (and it’s used very, extensively)., The next obvious question is – why do we use percent and why, it’s so uniquely a powerful form of numbers? Let’s recollect a, couple of everyday life experiences to find answer to the above, mentioned question:, In math, you secured 35 marks in your SA-1 (Summative, Assessment 1) and your friend in another school secured 40, marks in SA-1. Your friend has been telling everyone how, he performed better than you and it annoys you to no end, , Percentage, because you (somehow) know the truth he is not, academically better than you; but you fail to understand the, ‘mystery’ of his higher marks. You talk to your parents, about it and they advised you to find out the maximum, marks of his SA-1. The truth immediately tumbled out – his, maximum mark was 100 while in your case it was only 50!, And here is why percentage is a very powerful way to, express numbers., If the marks were given out as ‘percent’ there would never, have been a confusion – you had secured 70% while your, friend secured only 40% – far lower than you (don’t worry, about not getting the ‘%’ idea fully as yet, you will soon, learn all about percent)., A big retail shop has over 6000 different items. Come the, ‘sale period’ it has to broadcast all the prospective buyers, (i.e. people who may buy) the amount of discount it’s, offering on all the different items on sale; let’s assume that, 1800 different items of the 6000 are put on ‘sale’. The most, obvious way to tell the buyers about the amount of discount, on each of the 1800 items is to make a list of the 1800 items, and list the MRP and discounted price against each. But this, is very impractical in several ways – how would the shop, advertise for 1800 items (it will also be very expensive to, advertise), who will spend time to go through the long list, to find the discounted price of items one intends to buy, and, how will the price tags of each of the item will be re-written, (and more such issues)., Once again, percentage is a very powerful way to express, the discount numbers – the simplest way to share the, amount of discount being offered is to announce a, percentage figure for discount on the items! And this is, what big retails shops do – they advertise a number in ‘%’, form (e.g. ‘30% sale’) and the exact amount of discount on, individual items gets automatically defined – there is just, one figure for all the items on sale! A very simple way of, handling changes in descriptions of large numbers of items., In fact, there are many situations where the only practical, way to communicate a number is to express it in the form, of percentage. For example, growth in profit and revenues, of companies, performance bonus to executives in a, company, government taxes.
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II.A.53, , Percentage, , More importantly, percentages can be compared more easily than, fractions. How easy is to compare 5/17 and 11/19? And how easy, is it to compare 29.4% (5/17) and 57.8% (11/19)? Obviously,, comparison of numbers in percentage form is very easy., Having discovered that we live in a world of numbers in percent, form, we must explore the mathematics behind percentage., Results on Depreciation: Let the present value of a machine, be P. Suppose it depreciates at the rate of R% per annum., Then:, R ′′, , Value of the machine after n year = P 1 −, , 100 , Value of the machine n years ago =, , P, , R ′′, , 1 +, , 100 , If A is R% more than B, then B is less than A by, , , R, × 100 %, , (100 + R), , If A is R% less than B, then B is more than A, , , R, × 100 %, by , (100 − R), , Exploring percentage: A percentage is a part of a whole. It, can take on values between 0 (none of the whole) and 100 (all, of the whole). The whole is called the base. The base must, always be reported whenever a percentage is to be determined, and that is done by adding the ‘%’ sign whenever we have to, express a number as percentage., The unique thing about percentage is that every number, expressed as percentage ‘out of 100’. Thus, if it was 420 is, boys out of a total of 600 students, this is how we write:, As a fraction – 420/600 (boys/total students), As a ratio – 420 : 600 (420 boys in 600 students), As a percentage – 70% (70 boys in 100 students), All the three forms of numbers mentioned above are equal and, represent the same reality of 420 boys in 600 students., Percentage transforms the total to 100 (in the above case, 600, is made into 100)., Percent must bear some relationship with other forms of, number representing ‘part of a whole’ i.e. fraction and, ratio/proportion. We may actually start our discovery of, percent by comparing all the ‘parts of a whole’., , Concepts of True Discount: Suppose a man has to pay Rs., 156 after 4 years and the rate of interest is 14% per annum., Clearly, Rs. 100 at 14% will amount of R. 156 in 4 years. So,, the payment of Rs. 100 now will clear off the debt of RS. 156, due 4 years hence. We say that:, Sum due = Rs. 156 due 4 years hence;, Present Worth (P.W.) = Rs. 100, True Discount (T.D.) = Rs. (156 – 100) = Rs. 56 = (Sum due) –, (P.W.), We define: T.D. = Interest on P.W.; Amount = (P.W.) + (T.D.), Interest is reckoned on P.W. whereas true discount is reckoned, on the amount., How does a percentage differ from a fraction and a ratio?, Fractions and ratios also represent parts of a whole, but both, take on values between 0 (none of the whole) and 1 (all of the, whole), rather than between 0 and 100. To convert a number, given in the form of a fraction or a ratio to number in the form, of a percentage you multiply by 100 and add a % sign because, we have to make them represent values from 0 to 100; the, whole is 100 in percentage rather than 1., The following examples illustrate the percents and their, fractional values:, Example 1. A student gets 60 percent marks in Arithmetic, means that he obtained 60 marks out every hundred of full, marks. That is, if the full marks be 500, he gets, 60 + 60 + 60 + 60 = 300 marks in mathematics., Solution: The total marks obtained by the student can be, 60, calculated in other ways, like, 60% of 500 =, × 500 = 300, 100, The above calculations can be made easier by reducing the, fractional value to its prime. As, in the above case;, 60 3, =, 60% =, 100 5, , 3, 5, , If we remember that 60% = , our calculation becomes easier., In that case, the total marks obtained by the student, , 3, = × 500 = 300, 5, Example 2. A man invests 5% of his income into shares., Solution:, ⇒ It means: he invests 5 out of every 100 of his income into, shares., , 5, of his income into shares., 100, 1, th of his income into shares., ⇒ 3rd means: she invests, 20, , ⇒ 2nd means: he invests
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.A.54, , Now, if his income is Rs 1050, how does he invest in shares?, , 1050, = Rs 52.5, Your quick answer should be, 20, We suggest you not to move with the fraction contain 100, if, possible., , Example 3. The price of a sweater went up 20% since last year. If, last year’s price was x, what is this year’s price in terms of x?, Solution: Last year’s price = 100 % of x, This year’s price is 100% of x plus 20% of x., , ⇒, , x + 20%, , ⇒, , x = x + 0.2 x = 1.2 x, , x, 15, ⇒ x = 125, =, 12 100, Therefore, 15 is 125 percent of 12., This tells you what percent the current price ($15) is of the old, price ($12). But the question asks for the percent increase, so, you have to subtract 100 percent from 125 percent., 125% − 100% = 25% increase, , ⇒, , Percentage as a Ratio: A percent can be expressed as a ratio, with its second term 100 and first term equal to the given, percent., , Example 4. One year ago, an average restaurant meal cost Rs, 120. Today, the average restaurant meal costs Rs 150. By what, percent has the cost of the meal increased?, Solution: You can figure percent increase by taking the, difference in prices first and then expressing it as a, percentage of the original price: Rs 150 – Rs 120 = Rs 30, difference, What percentage of the original price is Rs 30?, x, 30, ⇒, =, 120 100, ⇒ 12 x = 300, , ⇒, , ⇒ 15 = x 12, 100 , , x = 25, , The cost increased by 25%., Or you can figure what percent the new price is of the old price:, 15 is what percent of 12?, , For example, 8% =, , 8, 36 9, = 8 :100; 36% =, = = 9 : 25, 100, 100 25, , Percent in Decimal Form: To convert a given percent in, decimal form, we express it as a fraction with denominator as, 100 and then the fraction is written in decimal form., For example, 65% =, , 65, 7.4, = 0.65 ; 7.4% =, = 0.074, 100, 100, , Example 5. What percent is Rs. 50 of Rs. 250?, 50, Solution: Out of Rs 250, Rs 50 is written as, 250, Now, converging into percentage, 50, , We have, , × 100 = 20%, 250, , ⇒ Rs 50 is 20% of Rs 250., , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , 4% of 400 − 2% of 800 = ?, , a.2, 2., , 6., , b. 280, , c. 7, , b. 2.5, , d. 70, 8., , c. 15, , 1, %, 4, , b. 25%, , c. 2.5%, , d. 1.5, , 1, 2, , d. 37 %, , 2, 1, ?, is, 7 35, , 9., , 10., , d. 0.025%, , b. 2.5%, d. 10%., , 3, , 0.756 × is equivalent to:, 4, , a. 18.9%, b. 37.8%, c. 56.7%, , d. 75%, , 8% of 80 ?, =, 8% of 40 8, , a. 12, , What is 25% of 25% equal to?, a. 6.25, b. 0.625, c. 0.0625, d. 0.00625, What percent of 7.2 kg is 18 gms?, a. 25%, b. 2.5%, c. 0.25%, , What percent of, , a. 25%, c. 1000%, , 0.025 in terms of rate percent is, , a., 5., , d. 16, , 0.2 % if ? = 0.03, , a. 20, 4., , c. 0, , 40 % of 70 = 4 × ?, , a. 28, 3., , b. –4, , 7., , b. 16, , 7, 3, is what % of ?, 8, 4, 1, a. 116 %, b. 1 1 6 %, 3, , c. 19, , d. 22, , 3, 2, , c. 116 %, , 2, 3, , d. 116 %
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II.A.55, , Percentage, , 11., , 1, 33 % of a number is 33. Find the number., 3, a. 9, c. 99, , b. 90, d. 0.9, , 12. In a school the ratio between boys and girls is 3 : 4. Find, the percentage of boys in the school number., 6, b. 75 %, a. 42 %, 7, c. 50%, d. 80%, 13. Rohan’s monthly income is Rs. 12000. If this monthly, income is increased by 10% find the total income after 2, months?, a. 14800, b. 14520, c. 14502, d. 14500, 14. A student has to score 60% to pass exam. He scores 225, marks and failed by 15%. Find the maximum marks of, exam., a. 400, b. 500, c. 600, d. Can’t be determined, 15. A student scores 25% and failed by 30 marks while, another student who scores 60% get 40 marks more than, minimum required marks to pass. Find the maximum, marks in the exam?, a. 150, b. 175, c. 200, d. 225, 16. In an election a candidate who gets 84% of the total votes, and wins by 476 votes. What is the total number of votes, polled?, , a. 672, b. 700, c. 749, d. 848, 17. The total population of a village is 5000. The number of, males and females increases by 10% and 15%, respectively and consequently the population of the, village becomes 5600. What was the number of males in, the village?, a. 2000, b. 2500, c. 30000, d. 4000, 18. Two numbers are less than a third number by 30% and, 37% respectively. How much percent as a percentage of, the second number less than the first?, a. 3 %, b. 4 %, c. 7%, d. 10%, 19. 40% of the population of a town are men and 35% are, women. If the number of children are 20000, then the, number of men will be:, a. 3200, b. 80000, c. 32000, d. 3,20,000, 20. If the price of sugar is increased by 7%, then by how, much percent should a housewife reduce her consumption, of sugar, to have no extra expenditure?, 58, 7, %, %, a. 6, b. 1, 107, 100, 58, %, c. 7%, d. 2, 107, , ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , c, , c, , c, , c, , c, , c, , d, , c, , b, , d, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , c, , a, , b, , b, , c, , b, , c, , d, , c, , a, , SOLUTIONS, 1., , 3., , (c) 0.2% of x = 0.03, , ⇒, , 0.2, × x = 0.03., 100, 0.03 × 100, = 15., x=, 0.20, , ∴, , (c) 0.025 =, , 5., , 25 25 , (c) 25% of 25% = , ×, , 100 100 , , (c) (4% of 400) − (2% of 800), 4, 2, , =, × 400 − , × 800 , 100, 100, , , = 16 − 16 = 0., 2., , ⇒, , 40, × 70 = 4 × x, 100, , 1, 40, × 70 × = 7., x=, 4, 100, , 625, = 0.0625, 10000, (c) Required percentage, =, , (c) Let 40% of 70 = 4 × x., Then,, , 25, 1 1, , =, = × 100 % = 2.5%, 1000 40 40, , , 4., , 6., , 18, , , =, × 100 %, 7.2 × 1000, , , = 0.25%.
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.A.56, , 7., , (d) Let x % of, , 2 1, = ., 7 35, , x 2 1, Then, × =, 100 7 35, 1 100 × 7, ⇒ x= ×, = 10., 35, 2, 3, 756 3 , 8. (c) 0.756 × = , × , 4 1000 4 , 756 × 3, , =, × 100 % = 56.7%, 1000, ×, 4, , , 8% of 80 x, =, 8% of 40 8, , 9., , (b), , or, , 8, × 80, x, 100, = or x = 16., 8, × 40 8, 100, , 7, 10. (d) 8 × 100, 3, 4, =, , 7 4, 7, × × 100 = × 100, 8 3, 6, , 2, = 116 %, 3, , 11. (c) 99, 12, , 300, 3, (a) × 100 =, 7, 7, 6, = 42 %, 7, , 13. (b), , 1200, 110, × 110 ×, 100, 100, , 14. (b) 60% − 15% = 225, , ⇒ 45% = 225, ⇒ 100% =, , 225, × 100 = 500 marks, 45, , 15. (c) 25% − 30 = 60% + 40, , ⇒ 35% = 70, ⇒ 100% =, , 70, × 100 = 200 marks, 35, , 16. (b) 84% − (100% − 84%), , = 84% − 16%, = 68% = 476 votes (extra), , 476, × 100 = 700, 68, 17. (c) Total % increased population, 5600 − 5000, =, × 100, 5000, 600, =, × 100 = 12%, 5000, By allegation method, ∴ Male population before increment, 5000, =, × 3 = 3000, 5, 18. (d) I : II : III = 70 : 63 : 100, = 100% =, , ∴, , Required % =, , 7, × 100 = 10%, 70, , 19. (c) 25% = 20,000, 20, 000, × 40 = 32000 men, 25, 7, 700, 20. (a) Less % =, × 100 =, = 6.54%, 107, 107, , ⇒ 40% =
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II.A.57, , Profit and Loss, , 9, , Profit and Loss, , Teaching students about profit and loss is giving them life, skills. Lessons on how to stay solvent are useful even for those, students who choose not to work in business. For those whogo, on to employment in the commercial sector, having knowledge, of how costs and revenues affect the economic viability of a, company is essential. A profit and loss, or P&L, forecast is a, projection of how much money you will bring in by selling, products or services and how much profit you will make from, these sales., In good times, you use it to ensure that there will be enough, money coming in to exceed the costs of providing the goods, and services so you can make a solid profit. In tough times,, your P&L can play an essential role in showing you what kind, of a plan you need to return to breakeven, so that you'll be able, to survive until better times come., In this chapter, the use of “Rule of Fraction” is dominant; we, should understand this rule because it is going to be used in, almost all the questions., The Rule of Fraction, It states, “If our required value is greater than the supplied, value, we should multiply the supplied value with a fraction, which is more than one. And if our required value is less than, the supplied value, we should multiply the supplied value with, a fraction which is less than one.”, If there is a gain of x%, the calculating figures would be, 100 and (100 + x ) ., If there is a loss of y%, the calculating figures would be 100, and (100 − y ) ., If the required value is more than the supplied value, our, multiplying fractions should be, , 100 + x, 100, or, 100, 100 − y, , (both are less than 1)., , If the required value is less than supplied value, our, multiplying fractions should be, are less than 1)., , 100, 100 − y, or, (both, 100, 100 + x, , Profit and Loss: A financial statement that summarizes the, revenues, costs and expenses incurred during a specific period, of time – usually a fiscal quarter or year. These records provide, information that shows the ability of a company to generate, profit by increasing revenue and reducing costs. The P&L, statement is also known as a "statement of profit and loss", an, "income statement" or an "income and expense statement". The, profit or loss is reckoned as so much percent on the cost., Cost Price: The price, at which an article is purchased, is, called its cost price, abbreviated as C.P., Selling Price: The price, at which an article is sold, is, called its selling prices, abbreviated as S.P., Profit or Gain: If S.P. is greater than C.P., the seller is said, to have a profit or gain., Important Formulae, Gain / Profit = Selling Price (SP) – Cost Price (CP), Loss = (C.P.) – (S.P.), Loss or gain is always reckoned on C.P., Gain × 100) , Gain Percentage: (Gain %) Gain% = , , C.P., , , Loss × 100) , Loss Percentage: (Loss %) Loss % = , , C.P., , , Selling Price: (S.P.), , È 100 - Loss %, ˘, S.P. = Í, ¥ C.P.˙, 100, Î, ˚, Cost Price: (C.P.), È, ˘, 100, C.P. = Í, ¥ S.P.˙, Î (100 - Gain %), ˚, Cost Price: (C.P.), È, ˘, 100, C.P. = Í, ¥ S.P.˙, Î (100 - Loss %), ˚, If an article is sold at a gain of say 35%, then S.P. = 135%, of C.P., If an article is sold at a loss of say, 35% then S.P. = 65% of, C.P., When a person sells two similar items, one at a gain of, say x%, and the other at a loss of x%, then the seller always, incurs a loss given by:, 2, , 2, , Common Loss and Gain % x , Loss % = , = ., 10, , 10
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II.A.58, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , If a trader professes to sell his goods at cost price, but uses, false weights, then, , , , Error, Gain % , 100, (True, Value), (Error), , , %., Example 1. A vendor bought toffees at 6 for a rupee. How, many for a rupee must he sell to gain 20%?, Solution: C.P. of 6 toffees Re. 1, 6, S.P. of 6 toffees 120% of Re. 1 Rs., 5, 6, For Rs. , toffees sold 6., 5, , 15, xy xy, 50, 1, 14, 100 , His % profit , 7 %, xy, 7, 7, Direct Formula: If the shopkeeper sells his goods at x% loss, on cost price butuses y gm instead of z gm, then his % profit or, z, loss is [100 x ] 100 as the sign is +ve or –ve., y, In the above case,, %profit or loss 100 6 100, 4 14 , , 1, , 375 16, 100, 4 14, 1500 1400 100, , , 14, 4, 50, 1, , 7 %, 7, 7, , , 5, For Re. 1, toffees sold 6 5., , , 6, , Example 2. On an order of 5 dozen boxes of a consumer, product, a retailer receives an extra dozen free. This is, equivalent to allowing him a discount of?, Solution: Clearly, the retailer gets 1 dozen out of 6 dozens free., 2, 6, , Equivalent discount 100 % 16 %, 6, 3, , , , 1, Example 3. A dishonest dealer sells goods at 6 % loss on, 4, cost price but uses 14 gm instead of 16 gm. What is his, percentage profit or loss?, Solution. Suppose the cost price is x per kg., 25 , , 100 4 , 15 x, per kg, Then, he sells the goods for x , Rs., 16, 100 , , , Now, suppose he bought y kg of goods., Then, his total investment xy, , and his total return =, , 15 x, 15, 16 , y Rs. xy, 16, 14, 14 , , 16, , 1, Example 4. A dishonest dealer sells the goods at 6 % loss on, 4, 1, cost price but uses 12 % less weight. What is his percentage, 2, profit or loss?, Solution: In this case, we use the direct formula as: Profit or, loss percentage, 1, 100 6, 4 100 100, , 1, 100 12, 2, 25, 100 , 4 100 100, , 25, 100 , 2, 375, 15, 100, 1, 4 100 100 100 100 , 7 %, 175, 14, 14, 7, 2, 1, Since, sign is +ve, there is profit of 7 %, 7, , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , 2., , A shopkeeper purchased 70 kg of potatoes for Rs. 420, and sold the whole at the rate of Rs. 6.50 per kg. What, will be his gain percent?, , 3., , 1, 1, 1, a. 4 %, b. 6 %, c. 8 %, d. 20%, 3, 4, 4, 100 oranges are bought at the rate of Rs. 350 and sold at the, rate of Rs. 48 per dozen. The percentage of profit or loss is:, , 4., , 2, a. 14 % gain, 7, , b. 15% gain, , 5., , 2, c. 14 % loss, 7, , d. 15% loss, , A sells an article which costs him Rs. 500 to B at a profit, of 20%. B then sells it to C, making a profit of 10% on, the price he paid to A. How much does C pay B?, a. Rs 472, b. Rs 476, c. Rs 528, d. None of these, By selling an article for Rs. 100, a man gains Rs. 30., Then, his gain% is:, 6, 11, 1, a. 15%, b. 42 %, c. 17 % d. 17 %, 7, 17, 4, A fruit seller sells mangoes at the rate of Rs. 8 per kg and, thereby loses 25%. At what price per kg, he should have, sold them to make a profit of 25%?, a. Rs. 11.81, b. Rs. 12, c. Rs. 12.25 d. Rs. 13.33
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Profit and Loss, , II.A.59, , A property dealer sells a house for Rs. 9, 00,000 and in, the bargain makes 12.5%. Had he sold it for Rs. 6,, 00,000, then what percentage of loss or gain have made?, a. 25% loss, b. 10% loss, 2, 1, c. 12 % gain, d. 16 % gain, 3, 2, 5, If selling price of an article is, of its cost price, the, 4, profit in that?, 2, 1, a. 16 %, b. 20 %, c. 25%, d. 30%, 3, 2, The ratio between the sale price and the cost price of an, article is 7: 5. What ratio between the profit and the cost, price of that article?, a. 2 : 7, b. 5 : 2, c. 7 : 2, d. None of these, The profit earned by selling an article for Rs. 900 is double, the loss incurred when the same article is sold for Rs. 450. At, what price should the article be sold to make 25% profit?, a. Rs. 600, b. Rs. 750, c. Rs. 800, d. Data inadequate, , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , The cost price of 20 articles is the same as the selling, price of x articles. If the profit is 25%, then the value, of x is:, a. 15, b. 16, c. 18, d. 25, 11. A loss of 5% was suffered by selling a plot for Rs. 4,085., The cost price of the plot was:, a. Rs. 4350, b. Rs.4259.25, c. Rs. 4200, d. Rs. 4300, 12. A man purchased a watch for Rs. 400 and sold it at a, gain of 20% of the selling price. The selling price of, the watch is:, a. Rs. 300, b. Rs. 320, c. Rs. 440, d. Rs. 500, 10., , 14. If the cost price of 15 tables be equal to the selling price, of 20 tables, the loss percent is:, a. 25%, b. 37.5%, c. 35%, d. 20%, 15. By selling 100 bananas, a fruit seller gains the selling, price of 20 bananas. His gain percent is:, a. 10%, b. 15%, c. 20%, d. 25%, 16. Profit after selling a commodity for Rs. 425 is same as, loss after selling it for Rs. 355. The cost of the, commodity is:, a. Rs. 385, b. Rs. 390 c. Rs. 395, d. Rs. 400, 17. The cost price of an article, which on being sold at a gain, of 12% yields Rs. 6 more than when it is sold at a loss of, 12%, is:, a. Rs. 30, b. Rs. 25, c. Rs. 20, d. Rs. 24, 18. The cost of 2 almirahs and a radio is Rs. 7000, while 2, radios and one almirah together cost Rs. 4250. The cost of, an almirah is:, a. Rs. 3000, b. Rs. 3160, c. Rs. 3240, d. None of these, 19. A shopkeeper mixes two varieties of tea, one costing Rs., 25 per kg; and another at Rs. 45 per kg. in the ratio 3 : 2., If he sells the mixed variety at Rs. 41.60 per kg, his gain, or loss percent is:, a. 4% gain, b. 4% loss, 2, c. 6 % gain, 3, , 2, d. 6 % loss, 3, , 20. A dishonest dealer professes to sell his goods at cost price, , but he uses a false weight and thus gains 6, , 13. If 5% more is gained by selling an article for Rs. 350 than, by selling it for Rs. 340, the cost of the article is:, a. Rs. 50, b. Rs. 160, c. Rs. 200, d. Rs. 225, , kg, he uses a weight of:, a. 953 gm, c. 960 gm, , b. 940 gm, d. 947 gm, , ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , c, , a, , d, , b, , d, , a, , c, , d, , b, , d, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , d, , d, , c, , a, , c, , b, , b, , b, , c, , b, , , , Gain % , , 2., , 350 , (a) C.P. of 1 orange Rs. , 3.50, , 420 , (c) C. P. of 1 kg Rs. , Rs. 6, 70 , , S. P. of 1 kg Rs. 6.50, , 100 , , S.P. of 1 orange Rs. 48 Rs. 4, , SOLUTIONS, 1., , 0.50, 25, 1, , 100 % , %8 %, 3, 3, 6, , , 12 , , , , Gain % 0.50 100 % 100 %14 2 %, 3.50, , , , 7, , 7, , 18, %. For a, 47
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II.A.60, , 3., , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , (d) C.P. for B 120 % of Rs. 500, 120, , Rs. , 500 Rs. 600, 100, , , C.P. for C 110 % of Rs. 600, Rs. , , 110, , 600 Rs. 660, 100, , , , 4., , (b) S.P. Rs. 100, gain Rs. 30, C.P. Rs. (100 – 30) Rs. 70, , , , Gain , , 30, 3000, 6, , 100 % , % 42 %, 70, 70, 7, , , , 5., , (d) 75 : 8 125 : x or x , , 8 125 , 13.33, 75 , , Hence S.P. per kg Rs. 13.33, 6., , 100, , (a) C.P. Rs. , 900000 Rs. 800000, 112.5, , , , , Required loss % , , 7., , (c) Let C.P. Rs. X, 5x, Then, S.P. Rs., 4, , 200000, , 100 25%, 800000, , , 5x, 1, Gain Rs. x Rs. x, 4, 4, , , , , , x 1, Gain % 100 % 25%, 4 x, , , 8., , (d) Let C.P. Rs. 5xand S.P. Rs. 7x, Then, Gain Rs. 2x, Required ratio 2x : 5x 2 : 5, , 9., , 13. (c) Let C.P. Rs. x, Then, if S.P. Rs. 350, gain Rs. (350 – x)., if S.P. Rs. 340, gain Rs. (340 – x), 5, x, (350 x ) (340 x) , 100, 5, 10 , x x Rs.200, 100, 14. (a) Let C.P. of each table be Rs. 1., C.P of 20 tables Rs. 20., S.P. of 20 tables Rs. 15., , (b) Required S.P. 125 % of Rs. 600, 125, , Rs. , 600 Rs.750, 100, , , 10. (d) Let C.P. of each article be Rs. 1, Then, C.P. of 16 articles Rs. 16,, S.P. of 16 articles Rs. 20, 4, Gain % 100 % 25%, 16, , 5, 11. (d) C. P. 10 , x x Rs.200, 100, , 5, Loss % 100 % 25%., 20, , 15. (c) Gain (S.P. of 100 bananas) – (C.P. of 100 bananas), Or S.P. of 20 bananas, (S.P. of 100 bananas) – (C.P. of 100 bananas), Or S.P. of 80 bananas C.P. of 100 bananas., Now, let C.P. of each banana be Re. 1. Then,, C.P. of 80 bananas Rs. 80., S.P. of 80 bananas = Rs. 100., , Gain % 100 % 25%., 80, , 20, , 16. (b) Let C.P. = Rs. x. Then,, 425 x x 355 2 x 780 x 390., , 17. (b) Let the C.P. be Rs. x, Then, S.P. when gain is, 12x, 112 x, 12% = , x , 100, 100, , 112 x 88 x, , 6., 100 100, 18. (b) Let the cost of each almirah be Rs. x and that of each, radio be Rs. y., Then, 2 x y 7000 and x 2 y 4520., , , , Solving these equations, we get x = Rs. 3160., 19. (c) C.P. of 5 kg mix., Rs.(35 3 45 2) Rs.195, S.P. of 5 kg mix. Rs.(41.60 5) Rs.280., Gain % , , 13, 2, , 100 % 6 %., 195, 3, , , , 12. (d) Let S.P. Rs. x, x, 20, , Then, gain Rs. , x Rs., 5, 100, , x, C.P. Rs. x Rs.400, , , , , 5, , 4, x 400 x Rs.500., 5, , , , 20. (b) Suppose he uses a weight of x gm For 1 kg., x, 300, x, 3, Then,, 100 , ., or, 1000 x, 47, 1000-x 47, Or 47 x 3000 3x or 50 x 3000 or x 60., , So, he uses a weight of (1000 – 60) 940 gm for 1 kg., ,
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II.A.61, , Interest: SI and CI, , 10, , Interest: SI and CI, , Interest is defined as the cost of borrowing money, and, depending on how it is calculated, can be classified as simple, interest or compound interest. Simple interest is calculated only, on the principal amount of a loan. Compound interest is, calculated on the principal amount and also on the accumulated, interest of previous periods, and can thus be regarded as, “interest on interest.” This compounding effect can make a big, difference in the amount of interest payable on a loan if interest, is calculated on a compound rather than simple basis. On the, positive side, the magic of compounding can work to your, advantage when it comes to your investments, and can be a, potent factor in wealth creation. While simple and compound, interest are basic financial concepts, becoming thoroughly, familiar with them will help you make better decisions when, taking out a loan or making investments, which may save you, thousands of rupees over the long term., Interest is the amount paid by the borrower to the lender for the, use of money lent. The sum lent is called the principal. Interest, is usually calculated at the rate of so many rupees for every Rs., 100 of money lent for a year. This is called the rate percent per, annum. ‘Per annum’ means for a year. The words ‘per annum’, are sometimes omitted. Thus, 6 p.c. means that Rs. 6 is the, interest on Rs 100 in 1 year., , Simple Interest Formula, , S.I. =, , P × R ×T, 100, , R ×T , , S.I. Amount = P 1 +, , 100 , , , Compound Interest Formula, T, , , R , C.I. = P 1 +, − 1, 100 , , , R , , C .I. Amount = P 1 +, , 100, , , , T, , Formulae, Simple interest = P × R × T, If the time is given in month, then divide the formula by 12, or if time is given in days then divide formula by 365, P × R ×T, P × R ×T, i.e., or, 12, 365, Amount (A) = Principal (P) + Interest (S.I), Example 1. A sum of money at simple interest amounts to Rs., 815 in 3 years and to Rs. 854 in 4 years. The sum is:, Solution: S.I. for 1 year = Rs. (854 – 815) = Rs. 39, S.I. for 3 years = Rs. (39 × 3) = Rs. 117, ∴ Principal = Rs. (815 – 117) = Rs. 698, Example 2. Mr Thomas invested an amount of Rs. 13,900, divided in two different schemes A and B at the simple interest, rate of 14% p.a. and 11% p.a. respectively. If the total amount, of simple interest earned in 2 years be Rs. 3508, what was the, amount invested in Scheme B?, , The sum of the principal and interest is called the amount. The, interest is usually paid yearly, half-yearly or quarterly as, agreed upon. Interest is of two kinds, Simple and Compound., Simple Interest (SI): Simple interest is determined by, multiplying the interest rate by the principal by the number of, periods; Simple interest is called simple because it ignores the, effects of compounding. The interest charge is always based on, the original principal, so interest on interest is not included., , PRT, 100, I = SI ×100, , SI =, , P=, , I, RT, , I, , R=, , I, PT, , I, T =P, PR, , R, , Where: P is the loan amount (Principal), R is the interest rate, T is the duration of the loan, using number of periods., , T, , Solution: Let the sum invested in Scheme A be Rs. x and that, in Scheme B be Rs. (13900 – x)., , x ×14 × 2 (13900 − x ) ×11× 2 , Then, , = 3508, +, 100, 100 , , ⇒, ⇒, ⇒, So,, , 28x – 22x = 350800 – (13900 × 22), 6x = 45000, x = 7500., sum invested in Scheme B = Rs. (13900 – 7500) = Rs. 6400, , Example 3. The simple interest on Rs. 1650 will be less than, the interest on Rs. 1800 at 4% simple interest by Rs. 30. Find, the time., Solution: We many consider than Rs.(1800–1650) gives, interest of Rs. 30 at 4% per annum., 30 × 100, = 5 yrs, ∴ Time =, 150 × 4
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II.A.62, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Example 4. A certain sum of money doubles itself and number, of years is equal to rate of interest. Find the rate of interest?, Solution: Let Principal x and Amount A 2x therefore simple, interest is, , A P 2 x x x and (Rate) R T (Time) y (say), S.I. , , , P R T, x y y, x , 100, 100, , Huge & Growing Fast, , 6,000, , Then, Amount P 1 , , 5,000, , , , 4,000, Compound Interest, , Pocket Change, Interest no Compounding, Principal, , Final, , 10 12 14 16 18, , 1,000, 0, , No. of times per year,, Interest is compounded, , Interest Rate, , No. of Years, , Money is said to be lent at Compound Interest (CI) when at the, end of a year or other fixed period the interest that has become, due is not paid to the lender, but is added to the sum lent, and, the amount thus obtained becomes the principal for the next, period. The process is repeated until the amount for the last, period has been found. Money invested that earns interest on, the interest, follows an Exponential rate of growth to produce, large amounts of money,. e.g., Retirement Funds, Long Term, Investments, and Property., Formulae, , Let Principal P, Time n or t yrs and Rate R or r% per annum, T, , , R , Compound interest, C.I. P 1 , 1, , 100 , , interest, , R , , P 1 , , 100 , , is, , compound, , Annually:, , R3 , R1 , R2 , 1 , 1 , ., 100 100 100 , , A , , R , Present Worth = Present worth 1 , , 100 , , , , F = P (1 + I/N) N T, , When, , Amount, , Present worth of Rs. x due n years hence is given by:, , 3,000, 2,000, , Principal, , Quarterly:, , When Rates are different for different years, say, R1 %, R2 %, R3 % for 1st, 2ndand 3rd year respectively., , 7,000, , 8, , compounded, , 3, , 8,000, , 6, , (R / 4) , P 1 , 100 , , , is, , 4n, , R 2/5R , , Amount P 1, , 1 , 100 100 , , Compound Interest (CI), , 4, , interest, , 2, fraction, say 3 years., 5, , y 100 y 10, , 2, , When, , When interest is compounded Annually but time is in, , 2, , 0, , (R / 2) , P 1 , 100 , , , 2n, , Amount, , n, , When interest is compounded Half-yearly: Amount, , When dealing with the above formulae; some mathematical, calculation become lengthy and takes more time. To simplify, the calculations and save the valuable time we are giving some, extra information., Study the following sections carefully and apply them during, your calculations., The problems are generally asked upto the period of 3 years, and the rates of interest are 10%, 5% and 4%., time, , rate , We have the basic formula: Amount + Principal 1 , , 100 , , If the principal is Re 1, the amount for first, second and third, 2, , 3, , r , r , r , , , years will be 1 , , 1 , and 1 , respectively., 100 100 , 100 , And, if the rate of interest is 10%, 5% and 4% these values, will be:, 2, , 3, , 2, , 3, , 2, , 3, , 11 , ,, 10 , , 11 11 , , , 10 10 , , 21 , ,, 20 , , 21 21 , , , 20 20 , , 26 , ,, 25 , , 26 26 , , , 25 25
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Interest: SI and CI, , II.A.63, , (1 + 0.05)10 which equals Rs., , The above information can be put in the tabular form as given, , Solution: FV Rs. 1000, , below:, , 1628.89. If the interest was compounded monthly instead of, , Principal Re. 1, then CI:, , annually, you'd get which equals Rs. 1647.01., , Time, , 1 Year, , 2 Year, , 3 Year, 2, , r, , r , , 1 , , 100 , , , r , , 1 , , 100 , , 10, , 11 , , 10 , , 121 , , , 100 , , 1331 , , , 1000 , , 5, , 21 , , 20 , , 441 , , , 400 , , 9261 , , , 8000 , , 4, , 26 , , 25 , , 676 , , , 625 , , 17576 , , , 15625 , , r , , 1 , , 100 , , ×, , Example 6. A sum of money is borrowed and paid back in two, , 3, , equal annual installments’ of Rs. 7290, allowing 8%, Compound interest. What was the sum borrowed?, Solution: Sum borrowed (Present value of Rs. 7290 due 1, , year hence) + (Present value of Rs. 7290 due 2 years hence), , Interest calculated on the initial principal and also on the, , , , , , 7290, 7290, , Rs. , , 2, , , 8 , 8, , 1 , 1 , , , 100, 100 , , , accumulated interest of previous periods of a deposit or loan., , Rs.(6750 6250) Rs.13000., , Compound interest can be thought of as “interest on interest,”, and will make a deposit or loan grow at a faster rate than, , Example 7. The difference between simple and compound, , simple interest, which is interest calculated only on the, , interests compounded annually on a certain sum of money for 2, , principal amount. The amount of compound interest accrued on, , years at 4% per annum is Re. 1. The sum (in Rs.) is?, , Rs. 100 compounded at 10% annually will be lower than that, , Solution: Let the sum be Rs. x., , on Rs. 100 compounded at 5% semi-annually over the same, , 2, , 51x, 4 , Then, C.I. x 1 , x , 100 , 625, , time, , period., , Compound, , interest, , is, , also, , known, , as, , compounding., , x 4 2 2x, S.I. , , 100 25, , Example 5. Let's say you want to invest Rs 1000 at 5%, , interest, compounded annually. At the end of 10 years, your, , , balance would be?, , 51x 2 x, , 1 x 625., 625 25, , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , The simple interest of Rs. 1820 from March 9, 2003 to, , 1, May 21, 2003 at 7 % rate will be:, 2, a. Rs. 22.50, c. Rs. 28.80, , b. Rs.27.30, d. Rs. 29, , 2., , How much time will it take for an amount of Rs. 450 to yield, Rs. 81 as interest at 4.5% per annum of simple interest?, a. 3.5 years, b. 4 years, c. 4.5 years, d. 5 years, , 3., , Reena took a loan of Rs. 1200 with simple interest for as many, years as the rate of interest. If she paid Rs. 432 as interest at the, end of the loan period, what was the rate of interest?, a. 3.6 %, b. 6%, c. 18%, d. cannot be determined, , 4., , The simple interest at x% for x years will be Rs. x on a, sum of :, , a. Rs. x, , b. Rs., , 100 , , x , , c. Rs. 100x, , d. Rs., , 100, x, , 5., , The simple interest on a certain sum of money at the rate, of 5% p.a. for 8 years is Rs. 840. At what rate of interest, the same amount of interest can be received on the same, sum after 5 years?, a. 6%, b. 8%, c. 9%, d. 10%, , 6., , A sum invested at 5% simple interest per annum increase, to Rs. 504 in 4 years. The same amount at 10% simple, , 1, 2, , interest per annum in 2 years will grow to:, a. Rs. 420, c. Rs. 525, , b. Rs. 450, d. Rs. 550
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II.A.64, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , What will be the ratio of simple interest earned by certain, amount at the same rate of interest for 6 years and that for, 9 years?, a. 1 : 3, b. 1 : 4, c. 2 :3, d. Data inadequate, , 7., , 1, 2, , If the compound interest on a sum for 2 years at 12 %, , 8., , per annum is Rs. 510, the simple interest on the same sum, at the same rate for the same period of time is:, a. Rs. 400, b. Rs. 450, c. Rs. 460, d. Rs. 480, , 1, 4, , The compound interest on Rs. 20,480 at 6 % per, , 9., , annum for 2 years 73 days is:, a. Rs. 2929, b. Rs. 3000, c. Rs. 3131, d. Rs. 363, 10. What is the difference between the compound interests on, Rs. 5000 for 1, , 1, year at 4% per annum compounded, 2, , yearly and half-yearly?, a. Rs. 2.04, c. Rs. 4.80, , b. Rs. 3.06, d. Rs. 8.30, , 11. The Simple interest on a certain sum of money for 3 years, at 8% per annum is half the compound interest on Rs., 4000 for 2 years at 10% per annum. The sum placed on, simple interest is:, a. Rs. 1550, b. Rs. 1650, c. Rs. 1750, d. Rs. 2000, 12. Sum of money invested at compound interest amounts to, Rs. 4624 in 2 years and Rs. 4913 in 3 years. The sum of, money is:, a. Rs. 4086, b. Rs. 4260, c. Rs. 4335, d. Rs. 4096, 13. Durgesh borrowed an amount of Rs. 15,000 at the simple, interest rate of 12 p.c.p.a. and another amount at the, simple interest rate of 15 p.c.p.a. for a period of two years, each. He paid amount of Rs. 9000 as total interest. What, is the total amount borrowed?, , a. Rs. 18,000, c. Rs. 35000, , b. Rs. 32000, d. Rs. 33000, , 14. The S.I. occurred on a sum of money at the rate of, interest 5% per annum for two years is Rs. 410. The, compound interest is the same as S.I. as occurred on, other sum of money at the same rate of interest and the, same time. Find the difference between the two sum of, money (principal)?, a. Rs. 80, b. Rs. 90, c. Rs. 150, d. Rs. 100, 15. There is 60% increase in an amount in 6 years at simple, interest. What will be the compound interest of Rs. 12,000, after 3 years at the same rate?, a. Rs. 2160, b. Rs. 3120, c. Rs. 3972, d. 6240, 16. At simple interest, a sum doubles after 20 years. The rate, of interest per annum is:, a. 5%, b. 10%, c. 20%, d. Data inadequate, 17. A sum of money amounts to Rs. 767 in 3 years, and Rs. 806 in 4 years. The sum is:, a. Rs. 600, b. Rs. 650, c. Rs. 675, d. 700, 18. A certain sum of money at S.I. amounts to Rs. 1012 in, , 2, , 1, years and to Rs. 1067.20 in 4 years. The rate of, 2, , interest per annum is:, a. 2.5%, c. 4%, , b. 3%, d. 5%, , 19. A sum amounts to Rs. 1352 in 2 years at 4% compound, interest. The sum is:, a. Rs. 1300, b. Rs. 1200, c. Rs. 1250, d. Rs. 1260, 20. At what rate percent compound interest will Rs. 625, amount to Rs. 900 in 2 years?, a. 10%, b. 15%, c. 20%, d. 25%, , ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , b, , b, , b, , b, , b, , c, , c, , d, , a, , a, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , c, , d, , d, , d, , c, , a, , b, , c, , c, , c, , SOLUTIONS, 1., , (b) Time = (22 + 30 + 21) days = 73 days, , , , 73 1, year, 365 5
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Interest: SI and CI, , , , II.A.65, , 15 1 1 , , S.I.=Rs. 1820 , , 2 5 100 , , , = Rs. 27.30., , , , 100 81, , 2., , years = 4 years, (b) Time , , 450 4.5 , , 3., , (b) Let rate = R% and time = R years,, 1200 R R , 2, then, , 432 12 R 432, , , , 100, , , , , , 5., , (b) S. I. = Rs. 840, R = 5%, T = 8 years., , , 1, , , 4 , , 4 , , 2, = Rs. 5000 1 , , 1 , 100 , 100 , , , , , 26 51 , , , 5000 , 25 50 , , , 100 840 , Principal = Rs. , Rs.2100, 58 , , = Rs. 5304, C.I. when interest is compounded half-yearly, , Now, P = Rs. 2100,, S.I. = Rs. 840, T = 5 years., , 6., , , , 5, Now, P = Rs. 420, R = 10% T = 2 years, 420 10 5 , S.I. = Rs. , = Rs. 105, 2, 100, , Amount = Rs. (420 + 105) = Rs. 525., (c) Let the principal be P and rate of interest be R%, P R6 , , 6PR 6, 100 , 2:3, P R9, , 9PR 9, 100 , , 8., , (d) Let the sum be Rs. P. Then,, , , , , 25 , , , 2, , , , P 1 , P 510, 2 100, , , 51 51 51 , , 5000 , 50, 50 50 , , , = Rs. 5306.04, Difference = Rs. (5306.04 – 5304) = Rs. 2.04, , (c) Let the sum be Rs. x ., Then, S.I. = Rs. (504 – x), , 120 x 50400 x 420, , , 7., , 3, , 2 , , = Rs. 5000 1 , , 100 , , , 100 840 , Rate , % 8%., 2100 5 , , x 5 4 , , 504 x 20 x 50400 100 x, 100 , , 16 16 80 , , C.I. = Rs. (23409 – 20480) = Rs. 2929, 10. (a) C.I. when interest is compounded yearly, , 100 S.I. , 100 x , 100 ., Rs. , Rs. , , , x x , x , , (b) Sum , R T, , , 10 2, , 4000 , 11. (c) C.I. = Rs. 4000 1 , , 100, , 11 11, = Rs. 840 4000 4000 , , , , , , 10 10, , , , 420 100 , Sum = Rs. , = Rs. 1750, 3 8, , , , , , 12. (d) S.I. on Rs. 4624 for 1 year, = Rs. (4913 – 4624) = Rs. 289, , , , 100 289 , 1, % 6 %, 4, , , Rate , 4624 1, , Now, x 1 , , , 2, , 25 , 4624, 4 100 , , 17 17, 4624, 16 16, , or, , x, , , , 16 16 , x 4624 , 17 17 , , or, , 9 2 , P 1 510 or P 510 64 1920, 17 , 8 , , , = Rs. 4096, 13. (d) Rs. 33000/Let the amount borrowed at 15% p.a. is x, , , , Sum = Rs. 1920, , 15000 , , 1920 25 2 , So, S.I. = Rs. , , , , , 2 100, , , , = Rs. 480., 9., , (a) Time 2, , 73, 1, years 2 years, 365, 5, , 1 25 , , 5 4 , , 100 , , , , 17 17 81, = Rs. 20480 = Rs. 23409, , R 2 36 R 6% ., 4., , , , 2, , 25 , , Amount = Rs. 20480 1 , 1 , 4 100 , , , , , , 2 12 15 x 2, , 9000, 100, 100, 3x, 3600 9000, 10, 3x, 5400, , 10
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II.A.66, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , x 18000, , , Total amount borrowed is, = 15000 + 18000, = Rs. 33000/14. (d) From S.I., , p, , 15, , , , , , 16, , (b) S.I. for 1 year, , = Rs. 39 3 Rs. 117., , , Sum = Rs. 767 117 Rs. 650., , 2, , 18. (c) S.I. for 1, , 1, years, 2, , = Rs. 1067.20 1012 Rs. 55.20, , 410, 410, , 1, 1, 41, , 10 400 400, , , , , 17, , S.I. for 3 years, , 410, 5 5 , , , 50 100 , , 100 x , Rate = , % 5%., x 20 , = Rs. 806 767 Rs. 39., , 410 100, p, Rs. 4100, 5 2, From C.I. p , , , , S.I. for 1, , 410 400, 41, , = Rs. 4000, Difference = Rs. 4100 – 4000, = Rs. 100, (c) Let P = Rs. 100. Then,, S.I. Rs. 60 and T = 6 years., 100 60 , R, 10% p.a., 100 6 , (1) Now, P, = Rs. 12000., T = 3 years and R = 10% p.a., , , , , , , , , C.I. = Rs. 12000 1, , 10 , , 3 1, 100 , , , 1, 2 5, years Rs. 55.20 Rs.92, 2, 3 2, , , , , Principal = Rs. (1012-92) = Rs. 920., , , , Rate % = , , , 100 92 2 , % 4%., 920 5 , , 19. (c) Let the sum be P. Then,, 1352 25 25, , P P Rs.1250., 25 26, 1352 25 25, , P P Rs.1250., 25 26, 20. (c) Let rate r. Then,, 2, 900 625 1 r , 100, , , , , , 900 , r , 1 , , 625 100 , 2, , , , 2, , 2, , 331 , = Rs 12000 , 3972., 1000 , , , 6, r, 1 , 5, 100, , (a) Let the sum be Rs. x. Then,, S.I. = Rs. x., , , , , , , , , , , , r , 6 , 1 , r 20%., 5 100
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Problems on Ages, , 11, Mathematics is often thought of as a subject that a student, either understands or doesn't, with little in between. In reality,, mathematics encompasses a wide variety of skills and, concepts. Although these skills and concepts are related and, often build on one another, it is possible to master some and, still struggle with others., In January of the year 2005, I was one more than eleven times, as old as my son Nakshatra. In January of 2014, I was seven, more than three times as old as him. How old was my son in, January of 2000?, Obviously, in "real life" you'd have walked up to my kid and, asked him how old he was, and he'd have proudly held up three, grubby fingers, but that won't help you on your homework., The language demands of mathematics are extensive in such, problems. Children's ability to understand the language found, in word problems greatly influences their proficiency at solving, them., When solving age problems, you need to represent the, following in terms of a variable:, The present ages of the people or things involved, The age, at the other specified time, of the people or things, involved, , Then, form an equation based on these representations. Here, are some examples:, Example 1. If 6 years are subtracted from the present age of, Gagan and the remainder is divided be 18, then the present age, of his grandson Anoop is obtained. If Anup is 2 year younger to, Madan whose age is 5 year, then what is Gagan’s present age?, Solution: Anup’s age = (5 – 2) years = 3 years. Let Gagan’s, age be x years., x6, Then,, 3 x 6 54 x 60., 18, Example 2. My brother is 3 years elder than me. My father, was 28 years of age when my sister was born while my mother, was 26 years of age when I was born. If my sister was 4 years, of age when my brother was born, then, what was the age of, my father and mother respectively when my brother was born?, , II.A.67, , Problems on Ages, Solution: Clearly, my brother was born 3 years before I was, born and 4 years after my sister was born., So, father age when brother was born (28 4) years = 32 years, , Mother’s age when brother was born (26 3) years = 23 years., Example 3. The ratio between the ages of father and son is 5 :, 2. If the difference between their ages is 27 years, what will be, the father’s age after 6 years?, Solution: Difference of father and son’s ages is 27 and ratio, of there is 5:2., 5, Father age is 27 45 years, 3, After 6 years father age is 51 years, Example 4. The ratio of present age of A and B is 2 : 3 the, present age of A is 30 years. Find the age of B after 5 years?, Solution: Step 1: A : B present age ratio is 2 : 3 and A = 30 years., 30, Step 2: B present age is, 3 45 years., 2, Step 3: B age after 5 years is 45 + 5 = 50 years., Example 5. Niloy is as younger to Ganesh as he is older to, Dev. If the sum of the ages of Ganesh and Dev is 58 years., What is Niloy age?, Solution: Let us denote Ganesh be G, Dev be D and Niloy be, N. Then,, Step I : G N N D, Step II : G D 2N, Step III : 58 = 2N, Step IV : N = 29 years, Example 6. The sum of ages of a father and a son is 50 years., Also, 5 years ago, the father’s age was 7 times the age of the, son. The present ages of the father and of son respectively., Solution: Let the son’s present age be x years., Then, the fathers present age = (50–x) years., 7 (x – 5) = (50 – x – 5) or x = 10., , So, their present ages are 40 years and 10 years., Example 7. In 10 years, A will be twice as old as B was 10, years ago. If A is now 9 years older than B, the present age of, B is?, Solution: Let the present age of B and A be x yrs and (x+9) yrs, (x + 9 + 10) = 2 (x – 10) or x = 39.
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.A.68, , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , 2., , The ratio between the present ages of P and Q is 6: 7. If Q, is 4 years old than P, what will be the ratio of the ages of, P and Q after 4 years?, a. 3 : 4, b. 3 : 5, c. 4 : 3, d. 7 : 8, At present, the ratio between the ages of Arun and, Deepak is 4 : 3. After 6 years, Arun’s age will be 26, years. What is the age of Deepak at present?, a. 12 years, b. 15 years, c. 197 years, , d. 21 years, , 3., , The ratio between the school ages of Neelam and Shaan is, 5 : 6 respectively. If the ratio between the one-third age of, Neelam and half of Shaan’s age is 5 : 9, then what is the, school age of Shaan ?, a. 25 years, b. 30 years, c. 36 years, d. Cannot be determined, , 4., , A man is 24 years older than his son after two years, his, age will be twice the age of his son. The present age of, the son is:, a. 14 years, b. 18 years, c. 20 years, d. 22 years, , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , A person’s present age is two-fifth of the age of his, mother. After 8 years, he will be one-half of the age of his, mother. How old is the mother at present?, a. 32 years, b. 36 years, c. 40 years, d. 48 years, The age of father 10 years ago was thrice the age of his, son. Ten years hence, father’s age will be twice that of his, son. The ratio of their present ages is:, a. 5 : 2, b. 7 : 3, c. 9 : 2, d. 13 : 4, The sum of the present ages of father and his son is 60, years. Six year ago, father’s age was five times the age of, the son. After 6 years, son’s age will be:, a. 12 years, b. 14 years, c. 18 years, d. 20 years, The sum of the ages of a father and his son is 45 years., Five years ago, the product of their ages was 34. The, ages of the son and the father are respectively: (in, years), a. 6 and 39, b. 7 and 38, c. 9 and 36, d. 11 and 34, , 9., , Father is aged three times more than his son Ronit. After, 8 years, he would be two and a half times of Ronit’s age., After further next 8 years, how many times would he be, of Ronit’s age?, a. 2 time, , 1, b. 2 times, 2, , 3, times, d. 3 times, 4, 10. After 10 years, A will be twice as old as B was 10 years ago., If A is now 9 years older than B, the present age of B is:, a. 19 years, b. 29 years c. 39 year, d. 49 years, c. 2, , 11. Ratio of Ashok’s age to Pradeep’s age is equal to 4 : 3., Ashok will be 26 years old after 6 years. How old is, Pradeep now?, 1, a. 19 years b. 21 years c. 12 years d. 15 years, 2, 12. The ratio of father’s age to the son’s age is 4 : 1. The, product of their ages is 196. The ratio of their ages after 5, years will be:, a. 3 : 1, b. 10 : 3, c. 11 : 4, d. 14 : 5, 13. The ages of A and B are in the ratio 2 : 5. After 8 years, their ages will be in the ratio 1 : 2. The difference of their, ages is:, a. 20 years, b. 24 years c. 36 years d. 29 years, 14. Deepak is 4 times as old as his son. Four years hence the, sum of their ages will be 43 years. How old is Deepak’s, son now?, a. 5 years, b. 7 years, c. 8 years, d. 10 years, 15. The ratio of Mona’s age to the age of her mother is 3 : 11., The difference of their ages is 24 years. The ratio of their, ages after 3 years will be:, a. 1 : 3, b. 2 : 3, c. 3 : 5, d. None of these, 16. Three years ago the average age of A and B was 18 years., With C joining them now, the average becomes 22 years., How old is C now?, a. 27 years, b. 30 years c. 28 years d. 24 years, 1, 4, times her age at the time of marriage. His son’s age is, 1 times her age. The age of her son is:, , , 10 , a. 2 years, b. 3 years, c. 4 years, d. 5 years, , 17. Kamla got married 6 years ago. Today her age is 1
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Problems on Ages, , II.A.69, , 18. The ratio of the ages of father and son at present in 6 : 1., After 5 years, the ratio will become 7 : 2. The present age, of the son is:, a. 10 years, b. 9 years, c. 30 years, d. 15 years, 19. Sachin was twice as old as Ajay 10 years back. How old, is Ajay today if Sachin will be 40 years old 10 years, hence?, , a. 20 years, c. 30 years, , b. 10 years, d. 15 years, , 20. The sum of the ages of a father and son is 45 years. Five, years ago, the product of their ages was four times the, father’s age at that time. The present age of the father is:, a. 39 years, b. 36 years, c. 25 year, d. None of these, , ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , d, , b, , d, , d, , c, , b, , d, , a, , a, , c, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , d, , c, , b, , b, , a, , d, , b, , d, , a, , b, , 7., , Then, 60 x 6 5 x 6 54 x, , 5x 30 54 5x 30, , SOLUTIONS, , 6 x 84 x 14., , 1., , (d) Let P’s age and Q’s age be 6x years and 7x years, respectively.Then, 7 x 6x 4 x 4, , , , Required ratio 6 x 4 : 7 x 4 28:32 7:8, , 2., , (b) Let the present ages of Arun and Deepak be 4x years, and 3x years respectively., Then, 4 x 6 26 4 x 20 x 5., Deepak’s age 3x 15 years, (d) Let the school ages of Neelam and shaan be 5x and 6x, years respectively., , 3., , 1, 5x, 5, 1, 5, , 9 5x 6 x 0, Then, 3, 1, 3, 2, , 6x 9, 2, Thus, Shaan’s age cannot be determined., 4. (d) Let the son’s present age be x years, Then, man’s present age = (x + 24) years., x 24 2 2 x 2 x 26 2 x 4 x 22., 5., , (c) Let the mother’s present age be x years., , , , Son’s age after 6 years x 6 20 years., , 8., , (a) Let the age of father and son be x and 45 x years, , respectively., Then, x 5 45 x 5 34 x 5 , , 40 x 34 x2 45x 234 0, x 39 x 6 0 x 39 or x 6., , 9., , 5 x 8 x 40., , (b) Let the ages of father and son 10 years ago be 3x and, x years respectively., Then, 3 x 10 10 2 x 10 10 3 x 20, , 4 x 16 48, 2, , x 16 24, , Hence, required ratio , , 10. (c) Let B’s present age, x years. Then, A’s present age, x 9 years., , = x 9 10, 2 x 10 x 19 2 x 20 x 39., , 11. (d) Ashok’s present age, = (26 – 6) years = 20 years, , , Required ratio 3x 10 : x 10 70 : 30 7 : 3., , Pradeep’s present age = 3 20 years=15 years, 4, , , , 12. (c) Let their ages be 4x and x respectively. Then,, , 4 x 2 196 or x 2 49 or x 7., , 2 x x 20., , , 5, x 8 8 x 16, 2, , 5x 40 3x 24 x 8., , 2 , x years., 5 , , 2, 1, x 8 x 8 2 2 x 40 , 5, 2, , Father’s age = 39 years and son’s age = 6 years., (a) Let Ronit’s present age be x years. Then, father’s, present age x 3 x years 4x years, , 4 x 8 , , Then, the person’s present age , , 6., , (d) Let the present ages of son and father be x and, 60 x years respectively., , , , Their present ages are 28 years and 7 years., Ratio of their ages after 5 years, = 33 : 12 or 11 : 4.
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II.A.70, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 5, 10 x (10 x 6), 4, Or 40 x 50 x 30, x 3., or, 18. (d) Let their present ages be 6x and x respectively, , 13. (b) Let their ages be 2x and 5x years. Then,, , , , 2x 8 1, , 5x 8 2, , x 8., Their ages are 16 years and 40 years., Hence, the difference of their ages = 24 years., 14. (b) Let the son’s age be x years., Then, ( x 4) (4 x 4), Or, , Then,, , , 43 or 5x 35, , 6x 5 7, , x5 2, , 2(6 x 5), 7( x 5), , x 7., 15. (a) Let the ages of Mona and her mother be 3x and 11x, years respectively. Then,, , Or, , (11x 3x) 24 or x 3., , So, their present ages are 9 years and 33 years., Ratio of their ages after 3 years 12 : 36 or 1 : 3., 16. (d) (A + B)’s total present age, = (35 + 6) years = 42 years., (A + B + C)’s total present age, = (22 3) years = 66 years., C’s age = (66–42) years= 24 years., 17. (b) Let son’s age be x. then, Kamla’s age = 10x years., Kamla’s age at time of marriage, = (10x – 6) years., , , , 19., , , 20., , x 5., The present age of the son is 5 years., (a) Let Ajay’s age 10 years back be x years., Then, Sachin’s age 10 years back = 2x years., 2x + 20 = 40 or x = 10., Ajay’s present age, = (10 + 10) years = 20 years., (b) Let father’s resent age = x years., Then, Son’s present age = (45 – x) years., ( x 5)(45 x 5) 4( x 5), , or, , x2 41x 180 0, , or, , ( x 36) ( x 5) 0, , , , x = 36 years., ,
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Mensuration, , II.A.71, , 12, , Mensuration, , We use measurements for volume when following recipe books, in cooking. Tools such as measuring jugs may be used to, determine volumes. When making a cake for example we may, need tins of a specific width and length for a particular recipe., We may also need to weight out the weight of the dry, ingredients using a measuring scale. When planning a car, journey, we may look at a map to find out the quickest way to, reach a particular distance. We may look at how to cut down, the number of miles we have to travel by taking shortcuts., Before leaving the door, we may check the weather forecast., The temperatures measured using thermometers will help, determine what we choose to wear., , Area: The area of a plane figure is the measure of the surface, enclosed by its boundary., , Calling into the coffee shop for your morning fix will also see, you faced with a mensuration dilemma. The size of cup you, choose will present you with a different volume of liquid., , , , A branch of mathematics which concerns itself measurement of, lengths, areas and volumes of plane and solid figure is called, Mensuration. Figure lying in a plane is called a plane figure. A, plane figure made up of lines or curve or both, is said to be a, closed figure if it has on free ends. Closed figure in a plane, covers some part of the plane, then magnitude o that part of the, plane is called the area of that closed figure. the unit of, measurement of that part of the plane is called the area of that, closed figure. the unit o measurement of area is square unit (i.e., square centimetre, square metre, etc.), Perimeter: The perimeter of a plane figure is the length of its, boundary. In case of a triangle or a polygon, the perimeter is, the sum of the lengths of its sides., Units of Perimeter: The unit of perimeter is the same as the unit, of length i.e. centimetre (cm), metre (m), kilometre (km), etc., 1 centimetre (cm) = 10 milimetre (mm), 1 decimetre (dm) = 10 centrimetre, 1 metre (m), = 10 decimetre, = 100 centimetre, = 1000 milimetre, 1 decametre (dam) = 10 metre = 1000 centimetre, 1 hectometre (hm) = 10 decametre, = 100 metre, 1 kilometre (km) = 1000 metre, = 100 decametre, = 10 hectometre, , Units of Area : The various units of measuring area are, square, centimetre (cm 2 ) , square metre (m 2 ) , 1 hectare, etc., 1 square centrimetre (cm 2 ) 1 cm 1 cm, , , , , , , 10 mm 10 mm 100 sq. mm, 1 square decimetre (cm 2 ) 1 dm dm 10 cm 10 cm, 100 sq. cm, 1 square metre (cm 2 ) 1 m 1 m 10 dm 10 dm, 100 sq. dm, 1 square decametre (dam 2 ) 1 dam 1 dam 10 m 10 m, 100 sq. m, 1 square hectometre (hm 2 ) 10 dam 10 dam 100 sq. dam, (or 1 hectare) =1000 sq. m, 1 square kilometre (km2 ) 1 km 1 km 10 hm 10, hm 100 sq. hm, , Heron’s formula : In ΔABC if sides of triangle BC, CA,, &AB are a, b, c respectively then perimeter, A, 2s a b c and, , here, s = semi-perimeter, c, , s, , abc, 2, , Area s s a s b s c , , B, , b, , a, C, Figure: 12.1, , Right-angled triangle: For an right-angled triangle, let b, be the base, h be the perpendicular and d be the hypotenuse., A, Then, Perimeter b h d, , Area , , 1, 1, (Base × Height) bh, 2, 2, , h, , Hypotenuse, d b 2 h 2, [Pythagoras theorem], , B, , d, , b, , C, , Figure: 12.2, , Isosceles right-angled triangle: For an isosceles rightangled triangle, let a be the equal sides, then, A, , Hypotenuse a 2 a 2 2 a, Perimeter 2a 2a, 1, Area , (Base × Height), 2, 1, 1, a a a2, 2, 2, , a, , 2a, , B, , a, Figure: 12.3, , C
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.A.72, , Equilateral triangle: For an equilateral triangle, let each, side be a, and the height of the triangle is h, then, ∠A = ∠B = ∠C = 60°, , Quadrilateral:, Let AC = d Area =, , A, , ∠BAD = ∠CAD = 30°, , 1, d ( h1 + h2 ), 2, C, , AB = BC = CA = a ( say ), BD = DC =, , a, , a, 2, , a, , D, , h, h1, , F, , 2, , a, In ∆ABC + h 2 = a 2, 2, or h 2 =, , B, , D, , C, , h2, , a/2, , 3a 2, 4, , B, , A, , a, Figure: 12.4, , Figure: 12.9, , Trapezium:, 1, Area = h ( a + b ), 2, , 3, Height ( h ) =, a, 2, , b, , 1, 1, 3, 3 2, (Base × Height) = × a ×, a=, a, 2, 2, 2, 4, Perimeter = a + a + a = 3a, , Area =, , h, D, , C, , Rectangle:, Perimeter = 2(l + b), Area = ℓ × b, , a, Figure: 12.10, , a, , Length of diagonal, , A, , = ℓ2 + b2, , Circle: Circle is a point, which moves so such a manner, that its distance from a fixed point is always equal. The, fixed point is called centre of the circle of the circle and the, fixed distance is called radius of the circle., , B, , λ, Figure: 12.5, , D, , C, , Area of circle ( A ) = π r 2, , Square: Perimeter = 4a, Area = a 2, , a 2, , a, , Circumference ( C ) = 2π r, , a, , Figure: 12.11, A, , B, a, Figure: 12.6, C, , D, h2, , Parallelogram:, Perimeter = 2 ( a + b ), , h1, , b, , Area = ah1 = bh2, , 1, Area = d1d 2, 2, , B, , a, Figure: 12.7, D, a, , Rhombus:, Perimeter = 4a = 2 d12 + d 22, , C, , Diameter ( D ) = 2π, , Length of diagonal = a 2, , A, , r, , a, , d1, d2, , A, a, , B, Figure: 12.8, , Note, If two circles touch internally. then the distance between, their centers is equal to the difference of their radii., If two circles touch externally, then the distance between, their centers is equal to the sum of their radii., Distance moved by a rotating wheel in one revolution is the, circumference of the wheel., Number of revolutions completed by a rotating wheel in 1, Distance moved in one minute, minute =, Circumference, Angle described by minute hand is 1 minute = 60°., Angle described by hour hand in 1 hour = 30°., , C, a, , r, , Semicircle:, , C, , Perimeter = π r + 2r = (π + 2 ) r, Area ( A ) =, , πr, 2, , r, , 2, , Figure: 12.12
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Mensuration, , II.A.73, , Total Surface Area (T.S.A.) 2 b b h h , , Sector:, , Area A , , r , 2, , Lateral Surface Area (L.S.A.) 2 b h h , , , , 360, , Length of arc , , A 2 h[ b ], , (or Area of 4 walls), , r, , r, , Volume of Cuboids = (Area of base) × height, , 180, , V b h, , 1, Area A r, 2, , Length of diagonal d 2 b 2 h 2, , Figure: 12.13, , Sector of a Circle, Perimeter 2r, , Cube: Cube has six faces. Each face is a square., T.S.A. 2 x x x x x x , , Segment: Shaded portion in the figure is called segment of, O, a circle., D, , , , 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 2 3 x 2 6 x 2, , h, , (ii) L.S.A., b, , 2 x 2 x 2 4 x 2, , r, , , , (iii) Volume, A, , B, , A, , B, , A, , C, , B, C, , Minor segment Major segment, , Minor Segment, , Figure: 12.14, , Area of minor segment =Area of the sector – Area of, triangle OAB, A, , r 2, 360, , , , , , = (Area of base) × Height ( x 2 ) x x3, Length of diagonal d x 3, Cylinder, Curved surface area of cylinder (C.S.A.): It is the area of, surface from which the cylinder is formed. When we cut, this cylinder, we will find a rectangle with length 2 r are, , height h units., C.S.A. of cylinder 2 r h 2 rh, , r sin cos, 2, 2, 2, , Figure: 12.16, , r 2, , r2, or, A , sin , 360 2, Here, segment ACB is called minor segment while ADB is, called major segment., , Mensuration of Solid Figures, If any figure such as cuboids, which has three dimensions, length, width and height are known as three dimensional, figures. Whereas rectangle has only two dimensional i.e.,, length and width. Three dimensional figures have volume in, addition to areas of surface from which these soils figures are, formed. Some of the main solid figures are:, , T.S.A = C.S.A. + circular top and bottom, 2 rh r, , 2, , h, , r , 2, , r, , 2 rh 2 r 2, , 2 r h r sq. units, , Figure: 12.17, , Volume of cylinder = Area of base × height ( r 2 ) h, , , r 2 h cubic units, , Hollow cylinder:, C.S.A. of hollow cylinder 2 R r h sq. units, T.S.A. of hollow cylinder 2 R r h R 2 r 2 , R r 2 h R r sq. units, , Volume of hollow cylinder, , h, , R 2 r 2 h cubic units, , r, R, , Where, r inner radius of cylinder, , b, , Figure: 12.15, , Cuboids: There are six faces (rectangular), eight vertices and, twelve edges in a cuboids., , R outer radius of cylinder, h height of the cylinder, , Figure: 12.18, , h
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II.A.74, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Cone:, C.S.A. of cone r, , 1, 1, Volume of Frustum r12 h1 r22 h1 h , 3, 3, 1, r12 h1 r22 h1 h , 3, , T.S.A . of cone = C.S.A. + Base area, , r r 2 r r , , , , h, , 1, Volume of cone r 2 h, 3, Where, h height, , rh, , 1 rh , r12 1 r22 1 h , 3 r1 r2 , r1 r2, , 1 r3 r3 , h 1 2 , 3 r1 r2 , , r, , r radius of base, , slant height, , 1, h r12 r22 r1r2 , 3, , Figure: 12.19, , Sphere:, , Curved Surface Area of Frustum r11 r2 1 , , r, , T.S.A. of sphere 4 r 2, , r , r, , r2, r2 , r1 1 r2 1 r 1 2 , r1 r2, , r1 r2 r1 r2 , r1 r2 , , 4, Volume of sphere r 3, 3, , r1 r2 , Figure: 12.20, , Total Surface Area of Frustum = CSA of frustum, , Hemisphere:, , r12 r12 r22, , r, , C.S.A. 2 r 2, , π l1 (r1+r2) +πr12 +πr22, , T.S.A.= C.S.A. + other area, , 2 r 2 r 2 3 r 2, , Slant Height of a Frustum h 2 r1 r2 , , 2, Volume r 3, 3, , where, h height of the frustum, r1 radius of larger circular end, , Figure: 12.21, , r2 radius of smaller circular end, , Hollow Hemisphere:, C.S.A. 2 R 2 r 2 , , r, , T.S.A. 2 R r R r, 2, , 2, , 2, , 2, , Example 1. The area of a triangle is 30 cm2. Find the base if, the altitude exceeds the base by 7 cm., , R, , , , Solution: Let base BC x cm then altitude x 7 cm, , 2, Volume R3 r 3 , 3, , Figure: 12.22, , Frustum of a Cone:, When a cone is cut by a plane parallel to base, a small cone is, obtained at top and other part is obtained at bottom. This is, known as ‘Frustum of Cone’., A, ABC ~ ADE, AC AB BC, , , AE AD DE, h1, , r, , , 1, h1 h 1 r2, , , , h , r, or, 1 1 1, r1 r2, h, , 2, , B, , 1 –, , E, , D, h, , h1, r2, r1, , C, Figure: 12.23, , , , A, , 60 x 2 7 x, , , x 2 7 x 60 0, , x 2 12 x 5 x 60 0, , h1 –, , 1, , 1, Area of ABC base height, 2, 1, 30 x x 7 , 2, , , , x x 12 5 x 12 0, , x 5 x 12 0, , , x 5 or x 12, , (x + 7) cm, B, , D, , C, x, , x 5 x 12, Base (x) = 5 cm and Altitude x 7 5 7 12 cm.
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Mensuration, , II.A.75, , Example 2. The cost of turning a triangle field at the rate of, Rs. 45 per 100 m2 is Rs. 900. Find the height, if double the, base of the triangle is 5 times the height., Solution: Let the height of triangular field be h metres., It is given that 2 × (base) = 5 × (Height), 5, Base h, 2, 1, Area Base Height, 2, 1 5, 5, Area h h h 2, . . . (i), 2 2, 4, Cost of turning the field is Rs. 45 per 100 m2, , Area Total cost 900 9000 2000 m2 . . . (ii), Rate per sq. 45 /100 , 45, From (i) and (ii) we have, , , 5h 2 8000, , , , h 2 1600, , 5 2, h 2000, 4, , Example 4. The difference between the sides at right angles in, a right-angled triangle is 14 cm. The area of the triangle is 120, cm2. Calculate the perimeter of the triangle., Solution: Let the sides containing the right angle be x cm and, ( x 14) cm., , The, its area x x 14 cm 2, 2, , 1, , But, area 120 cm2 [Given], , , 1, x x 14 =120, 2, , , , x 2 14 x 240 0, , , , x 2 24 x 10 x 240 0, , , , x x 24 10 x 24 0, , , , x 24 x 10 0 x 24, , [Neglecting x 10 ], , one side 24 cm, other side 24 14 cm 10cm, , 24 10 , 2, , 2, , h 40, Height of the triangular field is 40 m., , Hypotenuse , , Example 3. From a point in the interior of an equilateral, triangle, perpendicular drawn to the three sides are 8 cm, 10 cm, and 11 cm respectively. Find the area of the triangle., Solution: Let each side of the equilateral ABC x cm,, , Perimeter of the triangle 24 10 26 cm 60cm, , 576 100 676 cm 26 cm., , From an interior point O,OD,OE and OF be drawn perpendicular, to BC,AC and AB respectively. It is given that, OD 11 cm, OE 8 cm and OF 10 cm. Join OA,OB and OC., Area of ABC Area of OBC Area of OCA Area of, , OAB, , A, , 1, 1, 1, x 11 x 8 x 10, 2, 2, 2, 29, 2, , x cm, 2, But, area of an equilateral, triangle, whose ease side, , , B, , 29 58, 841, , cm 2 , cm 2, 2, 1.73, 3, , Area of ABC 486.1cm2, , 1, a b c, 2, The sides of the new triangle are 2a, 2b and 2c., Let s’ be its semi-perimeter., , s, , Let, , F, , D, x cm, , 1, 2a 2b 2c a b c 2s, 2, , And,, C, , . . .(i), , [Using (i)], , A Area of given triangle, , A s s a s b s c , , O, , 3 2 29, Therefore,, x , x, 4, 2, 4 29 58, cm, x, , 2 3, 3, , Area of ABC , , 8 cm, , 10, , 11, , 3 2, 2, is x , x cm, 4, , Example 5. Find the percentage increase in the area of a, triangle if its each side is doubled., Solution: Let a,b,c be the sides of the given triangle and s be, its semi-perimeter, , s' , F, , cm, , . . .(ii), , A Area of new triangle, , A s s 2a s 2b s 2c , A 2s 2s 2a 2s 2b 2s 2c [Using (i)], A 16s s a s b s c A 4 A, Increase in the area of the triangle A A 3 A, , 3A, , % increase in area 100 % 300%, A,
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II.A.76, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Example 6. Three equal cubes are placed adjacently in a row., Find the ratio of the total surface area of the new cuboids to, that of the sum of the surface areas of three cubes., Solution: Let the side of each of the three equal cubes be a cm., 2, , Then surface area of one cube 6a cm, 2, , 2, , 2, , 1, 1, m 100cm 50, 2, 2, Height (h) = 1.4 m 1.4 100 140 cm., , Solution: Radius of the base r , , Surface area of to tin-coated 2 2 rh r 2 , 2, 2 2 3.14 50 140 3.14 50 , , , , 2, , Sum of the surface areas of three cubes = 3 × 6a = 18a cm, For new cuboids, , , length 3a cm, , , , breadth b a cm, , , , height h a cm, , , , Total surface area of the new cuboids 2 b b h h , , 23a a a a a 3a , 2, 2 3a 2 a 2 3a 2 14 a 2 cm, , Required ratio , , , Total surface area of the new cuboid, Sum of the surface areas of three cubes, , 14a 2 7, 7 : 9, 18a 2 9, , Example 7. A classroom is 7 m long, 6.5 m wide and 4 m high., It has one door 3 m 1.4 m and three windows each, , measuring 2 m 1 m The interior walls are to be colourwashed. The contractor charges Rs. 15 per sq. m. Find the cost, of colour washing., Solution: 7 m, b = 6.5 m and h = 4 m, Area of the room 2 b h 2 7 6.5 4 108 m2, Area of door 3 1.4 4.2 m2, Area of one window 2 1 2 m, , 2, , Area of 3 windows 3 2 6 m2, Area of the walls of the room to be colour washed, , 108 4.2 6 , , 108 10.2 97.8 m2, Cost of colour washing at the rate of Rs. 15 per square metre =, Rs. 97.8 15 1467, , , 2 43960 7850 2 51810 103620 cm2, , Rs. 1467, , Example 8. A cylindrical vessel, without lid, has to be tin, coated including both of its sides. If the radius of its base is, 1, m and its height is 1.4 m, calculate the cost of tin-coating at, 2, the rate of Rs. 50 per 1000 cm2., , Cost of tin-coating at the rate or Rs. 50 per 1000 cm2, 50, 103620 5181., 1000, , Example 9. The diameter of a roller 120 cm long is 84 cm. If, its takes 500 complete revolutions to level a playground, determine the cost of leveling at the rate of Rs. 25 per square, 22, metre. Take , 7, Solution: 2r 84 cm, 84, 42 cm and h 120 cm, 2, Area of the playground leveled in one complete revolution, 2 rh, , r, , 22, 42 120 31680 cm2, 7, Area of the playground 31680 500 cm2, 31680 500, , 1584 m2, 100 100, Cost of leveling at the rate of Rs 25 per square metre = Rs, 1584 25 39600, , , 2, , Example 10. How many metres of cloth of 1.1 m width will, be required to make a conical tent whose vertical height is 12, m and base radius is 16 m ? Find also the cost of the cloth used, at the rate of Rs 14 per metre., Solution: h 12 m, , r 16 m, , , , , r 2 h2, , 16 12 , 2, , 2, , 256 144 400 20 m, , Curved surface area r , , 22, 7040 2, m, 16 20 , 7, 7, , Width of cloth 1.1 m, 7040 / 7 70400 6400, m, , , 1.1, 77, 7, Cost of the cloth used at the rate of Rs 14 per metre = Rs, 6400, 14 12800, 7, , Length of cloth
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Mensuration, , II.A.77, , Example 11. The surface area of a sphere of radius 5 cm is five, times the area of the curved surface of cone of radius 4 cm., Find the height of the cone., , Example 14. If v is the volume of a cuboids of dimensions a,b,, and c and s is its surface area, then prove that, , Solution: Surface area of cone of radius 4 cm 4 cm, , 1 21 1 1, , v aa b c, , when cm is the slant height of the cone., , Solution: L.H.S. , , 2, , According to the question, SA of sphere 5 times of curved, R.H.S., , surface of cone 4 (5) 2 5[ (4)], , 5 cm, r h 25, 2, , 2, , 16 h 25, 2, , or, , r 2 h2 5, , or, , 4, , or, , h 9 h 3, , 2, , and 18 m. How many persons can sit in the hall, if each, required 150 m3 of air?, Solution: 100 m, b 50 m, h 18 m, , Volume of the cinema hall bh 100 50 18 900000 m3, can, , sit, , in, , Thickness of wood = 1 cm, Inner dimensions, , 42 1 1 40 cm, , b 30 11 1 28 cm, h 27 1 1 25 cm, Capacity of the box b h, , , 40 28 25 28000 cm3. Ans., , . . . (ii), 1 21 1 1, ., v aa b c, , Example 15. The ratio of the volumes of the two cones is 4 : 5, and the ratio of the radii of their bases is 2 : 3. Find the ratio of, their vertical heights., Solution: Let the radii of bases, vertically heights and volumes, of the two cones be r1 , h1 , v1 and r2 , h2 , v2 respectively., , According to the question,, , the, , 900000, , 600, 150, Hence, 600 persons can sit in the hall., Example 13. The outer measurements of a closed wooden box, are 42 cm, 30 m and 27 cm. If the box is made of 1 cm thick, wood, determine the capacity of the box., Solution: Outer dimensions, 42 cm, h 30 cm, , 1, abc, , . . . (i), , Hence Proved., , Volume occupied by 1 person 150 m3, , b 30 cm, , , , From (i) and (ii), , Example 12. The dimensions of a cinema hall are 100 m, 50 m, , of, persons, who, Volume of the ball, hall , Volume occupied by 1 person, , 2, bc ca ab , , , 2 ab bc ca , abc, , , h 25, , Hence, the height of the cone is 3 cm., , Number, , , , 2, , 2, , 1, 1, , v abc, 2 1 1 1, , sa b c, , v1 4, , v2 5, , . . . (i), , r1 2, , r 3, , . . . (ii), , 1 2, r1 h1 4, From (i), we have 3, , 1 2, r2 h2 5, 3, , , , r12 h1 4, , r22 h2 5, , , , r1 h1 4, , , r2 h2 5, , , , 2 h1 4, , , 3 h2 5, , , , h1 4 3 , , h2 5 2 , , , , h1 9, , h2 5, , 2, , 2, , 2, , [Using (ii)], , Hence, the ratio of their vertical height is 9 : 5., Example 16. A chord of circle 14 cm makes an angle of 60 at, the centre of the circle. Find :, (i) area of minor sector, (ii) area of the minor segment, (iii) area of the major sector, (iv) area of the major segment
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II.A.78, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Solution: Given, r 14cm, 60, , Area of minor sector, , OAPB , r2, 360, , , , 30 n 6 30 180, 6, Hence, the required number of balls = 180., , Hence, we have n, Q, , , , 14 102.57, , Example 19. A conical empty vessel is to be filled up, completely by pouring water into it successively with the help, of a cylindrical can of diameter 6 cm and height 12 cm. The, radius of the conical vessel if 9 cm and its height is 72 cm., How many times will it required to pour water into the conical, vessel to fill it completely, if, in each time, the cylindrical can, is filled with water completely?, Solution: Let n be the required number of times. Then, the, volume of the conical vessel will be equal to n times the, volume of the cylindrical can., Now, the volume of the conical vessel, 1, 9 2 72cm 3 24 81 cm 3, 3, Add the volume of the cylindrical can, 32 12cm3 9 12 cm3, , , , 615.44 102.57 512.87 cm2, , Hence, 24 81 9 12 n, , , , 60, 3.14 14 14, 360, , O, , 102.57 cm2, , 14 cm, , Area of minor segment, , , , 102.57 98 , , 14 cm, , A, , B, , 2, , r, sin , 360 2, 14 14, 102.57 , sin 60, 2, APB , , , , r , 2, , 60°, , P, , 3, 2, 17.80 cm, 2, , Area of major sector = Area of circle – Area of minor sector, OAPB, 2, , 24 81, 18, 9 12, Hence, the required number of times = 18., , Area of major segment AQB, Area of circle – Area of minor segment APB, 615.44 17.80 597.64 cm2, , , , Example 17. The diameter of cycle wheel is 28 cm. How many, revolution will it make in moving 13.2 km?, Solution: Distance travelled by the wheel is one revolution, 2 r, 2, , 22 28, , 88 cm, 7 2, , and the total distance covered by the wheel, 13.2 1000 100 cm, 1320000 cm, Number of revolution made by the wheel, 1320000, , 15000, 88, Example 18. The base diameter of solid in the form of a cone, is 6 cm and the height of the cone is 10 cm. It is melted and, recast into spherical balls of diameter 1 cm. Find the number of, balls, thus obtained., Solution: Let the number of spherical balls be n. Then, the, volume of the cone will be equal to the sum of the volumes of, , , the spherical balls. The radius of the base of the cone , , 3 cm and the radius of the sphere 1 cm., 2, , Example 20. Water flows at the rate of 10 m per minute, through a cylindrical pipe having its diameter as 5 mm. How, much time till it take to fill a conical vessel whose diameter of, the base is 40 cm and depth 24 cm ?, 5, 1, Solution: Diameter of the pipe = 5 mm , cm cm, 10, 2, 1 1, 1, Radius of the pipe = cm = cm, 2 2, 4, In 1 minute, the length of the water column in the cylindrical, pipe = 10 m = 1000 cm, Volume, of water that flows out of the pipe in 1 minute, 1 1, 1000 cm 3, 4 4, 1, Also, volume of the cone 20 20 24 cm 3, 3, Hence, the time needed to fill up this conical vessel, , , 1 1, 1, , 20 20 24 1000 minutes, 4 4, 3, , , , , 20 20 24 4 4 4 24 16 256, , , 51.2 minutes., , , 3, 1000 , 30, 5, , , Hence, the required time of 51.2 minutes., 3, is full of, 4, water. It is connected with a pipe which empties it at the rate of, 7 liters per second. How much time will it take to empty the, tank completely?, , Example 21. A hemispherical tank of radius 1, , 1, 3, , Now, the volume of the cone 32 10 cm3 30 cm 3, 3, , and, the volume of each sphere 4 1 cm3 cm3, 3 2, , 6, cm, 2, , n, , 6
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Mensuration, , Solution: Radius of the hemisphere, 7, 7, m 100cm 175cm, 4, 4, 2, Volume of the hemisphere 175 175 175 cm 3, 3, The cylindrical pipe empties it at the rate of 7 litres i.e., 7000, cm3 of water per second., Hence, the required time to empty the tank, 2 22, , 175 175 175 7000 s, 3 7, , , 2 22 175 175 175, 11 25 7, 1925, min , min , min, , 3 7, 7000 60, 3 2 12, 72, 26.75 min, nearly., , Example 22. A well of diameter 2 m is dug 14 m deep. The, earth taken out of its is spread evenly all around it to a width of, 5 m to from an embankment. Find the height of the, embankment., Solution: Let n be the, 5, 6, 1, required height of the, embankment. The shape h, of the embankment will, be like the shape of a, 14, cylinder of internal radius, 1 m and external radius (5, + 1) m = 6 m [figure]., The volume of the, embankment will be, equal to the volume of the, earth dug out from the well., Now, the volume of the earth = volume of the cylindrical well, , II.A.79, , 500 30 12 m2 = 18000 m3, , , 3 10 10 , , , If the required area of the irrigated land is xm2, then the volume, of water to be needed to irrigate the land, 2x, 8 2x 2, , 18000, x, m Hence,, , 25, 100, 25, , , 25, 225000, 2, Hence, the required area is 225000 m2., , x 18000 , , , , Example 24. A bucket is 40 cm in diameter at the top and 28, cm in diameter at the bottom. Find the capacity of the bucket in, litters, if it is 21 cm deep. Also, find the cost of tin sheet used, in making the bucket, if the cost of tin is Rs. 1.50 per sq dm., Solution: Given: r1 20 cm, 20, r2 14 cm and h 21 cm, , , , 19272 cm3 , , C, 14, , = 19.272 liters, , I, , Now,, , r1 r2 , , 2, , h2 , , 477 cm 21.84, , , , F, , D, , 19272, litres, 1000, , 14 2, h, 0.4, 35 5, Hence, the required height of the embankment = 0.4 m, , 500, m/min., 3, The volume of the water flowing out of the canal in 1, minute, , 21, , 22 876 cm3, , , , min , , B, , E, , 22 21 2, 20 2014 142 , 73, , Hence, we have 35 h 14, , Example 23. Water in a canal, 30 dm wide and 12 dm deep, is, flowing with a speed of 10 km/hr. How much area will it, irrigate in 30 minutes if 8 cm of standing water is required, from irrigation?, Solution: Speed of water in the canal 10 km/ h 10000 m/60, , A, , Now,, the required capacity (i.e., volume) of bucket, h 2, , r1 r1 r2 r22 , 3, , 12 14 14 m3, Also, the volume of the embankment, 6 2 1 h cm 3 35 h m 3, , In 30 min, the amount of water flowing out of the canal, 600 30 m3 600 m3, , , , 6 6 212 cm , , 20 14 , , 2, , 212 cm, , 36 441 cm, , Total surface area of the bucket (which is open at the top), , r1 r2 r22 r1 r2 r22 , 22, 20 14 21.84 142 , 7 , , = 2949.76 cm3, , , Required cost of the tin sheet at the rate of Rs. 1.50 per, dm2 i.e., per 100 cm2, 1.50 2949.76, 44.45, 100
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.A.80, , Example 25. A cone is divided into two parts by drawing a, , Volume of cone AXY, , plane through a point which divides its height in the ratio 1 : 2, , 1, = π r22 ( h1 − h ), 3, , starting from the vertex and the place is parallel to the base., , 1, 3, 1 2, = π r22 h − h = π r2 h, 3, 2, , 6, , Compare the volume of the two parts., Solution: Let the plane XY divide the cone ABC in the ratio AE, , Volume of frustum XYBC, , : ED = 1 : 2, where AED is the axis of the cone. Let r1 and, , 1, = π h ( r12 + r22 + r1 r2 ), 3, , r2 be the radii of the circular section XY and the base BC of the, , 1, 1, = π h ( 9 r22 + r22 + 3r22 ) = π h (13 r22 ), 3, 3, , cone respectively and let h1 − h and h1 be their heights [figure]., , ⇒, , 1 2, π r2 h, Volume of cone AXY, ⇒, = 6, Volume of frustum AYBC 13 π r 2 h, 2, 3, , h1 3, =, h 2, , Then,, h=, , 3, h, 2, , ⇒, , ( 3/ 2) h = 3, r, h, And 1 = 1 =, ∴ r1 = 3r2, r2 h1 − h (1/ 2) h, , Volume of cone AXY, 1, =, Volume of frustum AYBC 26, , i.e. the ratio between the volume of the cone AXY and the, remaining portion BCYX is 1 : 26., , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , The area of the field ABGFEA is:, , a. 7225 m2, 2., , b. 7230 m2, , 5., , c.7235 m2, , d. 7240 m2, , a similar triangle. Around the flower bed runs a uniform path, of such a width that the side of the garden are double of the, , 2, , A cord in the form of a square enclose the area ‘S’ cm ., , corresponding sides of the flower bed. The areas of the path, and the flower bed are in the ratio:, , If the same cord is bent, F, , into the form of a, circle, then the area of, the circle is, , a. 1 : 1, , 50 cm, 50 cm, , 6., 40 cm, , a. 4, b. 4π S, , 45 cm, , 35 cm D, , 10 cm, , d., 3., , B, , C, , S, 4π, 4S, , A, , 7., , d. 3 : 1, , The height of a conical tent at the centre is 5m. The, distance of any point on its circular base from the top of, , π, , a. 144 π sq m, , b. 130 π sq m, , c. 156 π sq m, , d. 169 π sq m, , The lengths of four sides and a, diagonal of the given quadrilateral are, , A rectangular sheet of paper 22 m long and 12 cm broad can, be curved to form the lateral surface of a right circular, , indicated in the diagram. If a denotes, the area of quadrilateral, then A is:, , 22, , the difference, 7, between the volumes of the two cylinders thus formed is:, a. 200 c.c., b. 210 c.c., c. 250 c.c., d. 252 c.c., In the sides of a triangle are doubled, then its area :, a. Remains the same, b. Becomes doubled, c. Becomes three times, d. Becomes four times, , a. 12 6, , b. 6, , c. 6 6, , d. 2 6, , cylinder in two ways. Taking π =, , 4., , c. 1 : 2, , the tent is 13m. The area of the slant surface is:, , E, , 40cm, , c., , b. 1 : 2, , G, , πS2, 2, , Inside a triangular garden there is a flower bed in the form of, , 8., , 7m, , 5m, 6m, , 7m, , 5m, , The percentage increase in the surface area of a cube, 3, when each side is increased to, times the original, 2, length is:, a. 225, b. 200, c. 175, d. 125
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Mensuration, , 9., , II.A.81, , Area of shaded portion as, shown in the figure:, a. 12 m2, b. 13 m2, c. 14 m2, d. 15 m2, , 5m, , F, G, , E, D, , C, , a., 1m, , c. 2a 2 1, , 7m, B, , A, , 10. If ‘I’, ‘b’ and ‘h’ if a cuboids are increased, decreased and, increased by 1%, 3% and 2% respectively, then the, volume of the cuboids, a. increases, b. decreases, c. increases or decreases depending on original, dimensions, d. can’t be calculated with given data, 11. The radius and height of a cone are each increased by, 20%, then the volume of the cone is increased by:, a. 20%, b. 40%, c. 60%, d. 72.8%, 12. There is a cylinder circumscribing the hemisphere such that, their bases are common. The ratio of their volume is:, a. 1 : 3, b. 1 : 2, c. 2 : 3, d. 3 : 4, 13. Consider a hollow cylinder of inner radius r and thickness, of wall t and length . The volume of the above cylinder, , b. a 2 , , , , , 1, 2, , , 2, d. 2 a 1 , 2 2, , , , , , 17. There is a cylinder circumscribing the hemisphere such, that their bases are common. The ratio of their volume is:, a. 1 : 3, b. 1 : 2, c. 2 : 3, d. 3 : 4, 18. If a rectangle of sides 5 cm and 15 cm is be divided into, three squared of equal area, then the sides of the squares, will be:, a. 4 cm, b. 6 cm, c. 7 cm, d. None, 19. The area of the shaded region in the given figure is:, , a. sq. units, 3, 60, , b., sq. units, 1, 2, , b., , , 4, , sq. units, , d. 2 sq. units, , is given by:, a. 2 r 2 2 , , b. 2 r t , , c. 2 r 2 t 2 , , d. 2 r r t , , t, , 2r, , , 1, , , 14. The area of the shaded portion in the given figure is:, a. 7.5 sq. units, b. 6.5 sq. units, c. 5.5 sq. units, 1, , 5, , 15. A sphere of radius 3 cm is dropped into a cylindrical vessel, , of radius 4 cm. If the sphere is submerged completely, then, the height (in cm) to which the water rises, is:, b. 2.30, , c. 2.25, , d. 2.15, , 16. If BC passed through the centre of the circle, then the area, of the shaded region in the given figure is:, A, , 21. In the adjoining figure, the radius of the inner circle, if, other circles are of radii 1 m, is:, , , , , , 2 1 m, , b. 2 m, c., , 1, m, 2, , d., , 2, m, 2, , 22. The height of a conical tent of the centre is 5 cm. The, distance of any point on its circular base from the top of, the tent is 13 m. The area of the slant surface is:, a. 144 sq m, b. 130 sq m, c. 156 sq m, , a, a, B, , 20. A cone and a cylinder have the same base area. They also, have the same curved surface area. If the height of the, cylinder is 3m, then the slant height of the cone (in m) is:, a. 3, b. 4, c. 6, d. 7, , a., , C, , d. 4.5 sq. units, , a. 2.35, , a2, 3 , 2, , C, , d. 169 sq m, , 23. The radius of circle is increased by 1 cm, then the ratio of, the new circumference to the new diameter is:, 1, a. 2, b. 1, c. , d. , 2
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II.A.82, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 24. A hemispherical bowl of internal diameter 36 cm is full of, some liquid. This liquid is to be filled in cylindrical, bottles of radius 3 cm and height 6 cm. Then no. of bottles, needed to empty the bowl., a. 36, b. 75, c. 18, d. 144, 25. The perimeter of the following shaded portion of the, 17, figure is:, a. 40 m, b. 40.07 m, 4m, c. 40.28 m, 1m, d. 35 m, 1, , 26. How many balls, each of radius 1 cm, can be made from a, solid sphere of lead of radius 8 cm?, a. 512, b. 517, c. 518, d. 51 9, 27. By melting a solid cylindrical metal, a few conical, materials are to be made. If three times the radius of the, cone is equal to twice the radius of the cylinder an the ratio, of the height of the cylinder and the height of the cone is 4 :, 3, find the number of cones which can be made., a. 8, b. 9, c. 10, d. 11, 28. Water flows at the rate of 10 per minute through a, cylindrical pipe having its diameter as 5 mm. How much, time will it take to fill a conical vessel whose diameter of, the base is 40 cm and depth 24 cm?, a. 50.3, b. 50. 7, c.51.2, d. 51.9, 29. How many balls, each of radius 1 cm, can be made from a, solid sphere of lead of radius 8 cm?, a. 512, b. 513, c. 514, d. 515, 30. An iron of length 1 m and diameter 4 cm is melted and, cast into thin wires of length 20 cm each. If the number of, such wires be 2000, find the radius of each thin wire., a. 0.1cm, b. 1cm, c. 10cm, d. 11 cm, 31. Ratio of lateral surface areas of two cylinders with equal, heights is:, a. H : h, b. R : r, c. 1 : 2, d. None, 32. Ratio of curved surface areas of two cylinders with equal, radii is:, a. R : r, b. R2 : r2, c. H : h, d. None, 33. Ratio of volumes of two cylinders with equal radii are, a. R : r, b. H : h, c. R2 : r2, d. None, , 34. The base radius of a cylinder is 1 23 times its height. The, , cost of painting its CSA at 2 paise/cm2 is Rs. 92.40. The, volume of the liquid is?, a. 80850 cm2, b. 80580 cm2, 2, c. 80508 cm, d. None, 35. The lateral surface area of cylinder is 176 cm2 and base, area 38.5 cm2. Then its volume is ___, a. 830 cm2, b. 380 cm2, 2, c. 308 cm, d. 803 cm2, 36. A cylindrical vessel contains 49.896 litres of liquid. Cost, of painting its CSA at 2 paise/sq. cm is Rs. 95.04. Then, its total surface area is?, a. 5724 cm2, b. 7524 cm2 c. 5742 cm2 d. None, 37. Ratio of volumes of two cones with same radii is:, a. h1 : h2, b. r1 : r2, c. s1 : s2, d. None, 38. Ratio of volumes of two cones with same height is:, a. r1 : r2, b. r12 : r22, 2, 2, c. h1 : h2, d. None, 39. The cost of painting the CSA of cone at 5 ps/cm2 is Rs., 35.20. The volume of the cone its slant height being 25, cm is:, a. 1223 cm2, b. 1232 cm2 c. 1323 cm2 d. 1332 cm2, 40. A vessel is in conical shape. If its volume is 33.264 litres, and height is 72 cm, the cost of repairing its CSA at Rs., 12 /sq m is, a. 5.94, b. 6.94, c. 7.95, d. None, 41. From a circle of radius 15 cm a sector with 216° angle is, cut out and its bounding radii are bent so as to form a, cone. Then its volume is:, a. 1081.3 cm3, b. 1071.3 cm3, 3, c. 1018.3 cm, d. None, 42. A cylindrical vessel of diameter 9 cm has some water in, it. A cylindrical iron piece of diameter 6 cm and height, 4.5 cm is dropped in it. After it was completely immersed,, the raise in the level of water is?, a. 0.8 cm, b. 2 cm, c. 0.1 cm, d. None, 43. A piece of metal pipe is 77 m long with inside diameter of, the cross-section as 4 cm. If the outer diameter is 4.5 cm, and the metal weighs 8 gm/cu cm, the weight of pipe is?, a. 2.057 kg, b. 20.57 kg, c. 205.7 kg, d. None, 44. A circus tent is in the form of a cone over a cylinder. The, diameter of the base is 9 m, the height of cylindrical par is, 4.8 m and the total height of the tent is 10.8 m. The, canvas required for the tent is?, a. 241 sq m, b. 241.1 sq m, c. 241.84 sq m, d. None
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Mensuration, , II.A.83, , 45. A top is of the shape of a cone over a hemisphere. The, radius of the hemisphere is 3.5 cm. The total height of the, top is 15.5 cm. The total area of top is?, a. 214.5 sq cm, b. 21.45 sq cm, c. 215.4 sq cm, d. None, 46. A cylindrical vessel of diameter 4 cm is partly filled with, water. 300 lead balls are dropped in it. The raise in water, level is 0.8 cm. The diameter of each ball is?, a. 0.8 cm, b. 0.4 cm, c. 0.2 cm, d. None, 47. Liquid is full in a hemisphere of inner diameter 9 cm., This is to be poured into cylindrical bottles of diameter 3, cm and height 4 cm. The number of bottles required are?, a. 50, b. 54, c. 45, d. None, , 48. A hollow sphere of internal and external diameters 4 cm, and 8 cm respectively is melted into a cone of base, diameter 8 cm. Find the height of the cone., a. 14 cm, b. 12 cm, c. 16 cm, d. None, 49. The height of a cone is 30 cm. A small cone is cut off at the, 1, top by a plane parallel to the base. If its volume is, th the, 27, volume of cone, the height at which the section is made is?, a. 10 cm, b. 15 cm, c. 20 cm, d. None, 50. A cone of radius 10 cm is divided into two parts by, drawing a plane through the midpoint of its axis,, parallel to its base. The ratio of volumes of the two, parts formed is?, a. 1 : 7, b. 2 : 7, c. 3 : 7, d. None, , ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , a, , d, , b, , d, , d, , c, , a, , d, , a, , b, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , d, , c, , b, , d, , c, , d, , c, , d, , a, , c, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , a, , c, , c, , b, , c, , a, , b, , c, , a, , a, , 31., , 32., , 33., , 34., , 35., , 36., , 37., , 38., , 39., , 40., , b, , c, , b, , a, , c, , b, , a, , b, , b, , a, , 41., , 42., , 43., , 44., , 45., , 46., , 47., , 48., , 49., , 50., , c, , b, , a, , c, , a, , b, , b, , a, , c, , a, , SOLUTIONS, 2., , (d) Area of Square, , S a2 P 4 a, 2r 4a, , , r, , 2a, , , A r2 , , 3., , 4a 2 4S, , , 2, , (b) 2 r1 22 1, 2 r2 12 2, , V1 r12 , 2, , V2 r221, , 6., , (c) S r, , 8., , A ' A, (d) % A , A, , A 6a 2, 3 , A' 6 a , 2 , , 2, , 1, 11. (d) V r 2 h, 3, 2, , 1 120 120, V ' , r , h, 3 100 100, 1, 14. (d) A ( r22 r12 ), 2, 4, 15. (c) rs3 rc2 h, 3, , 22. (c) S r 2 h 2 r 2 13cm, h 5m, 4, 26. (a) Volume of the spherical ball of radius 8 cm = 83 cm3, 3, Also, volume of each smaller spherical ball of radius 1 cm, 4, 4, 13 cm3 cm3 ., 3, 3, Let n be the number of smaller balls that can be made., Then, the volume of the larger ball is equal to the sum of, all the volumes of n smaller balls., 4, 4, Hence, n 83 n 83 512, 3, 3, Hence, the required number of balls = 512., 27. (b) Let R be the radius and H be the height of the cylinder, and let r and h be the radius and height of the cone, respectively. Then, 3r 2 R, , And H ; h = 4 : 3, . . . (i), H 4, . . . (ii), 3H 4h, h 3, Let n be the required number of cones which can be made, from the materials of the cylinder. Then, the volume of, the cylinder will be equal to the sum of the volumes of n, cones.
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II.A.84, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , n, Hence, we have R 2 H r 2 h 3R 2 H nr 2 h, 3, , Hence, the required radius of each thin wire is, , 9r 2 4h, , 3R H, 4, 3 3 9 4 9, n 2 , 2, r h, r h, 3 4, 3r, 4h, [ From (i) and (ii), R and H , ], 2, 3, Hence, the required number of cones is 9. 28. (c), 1 1, 1, Radius of the pipe cm cm.In 1 minute, the, 2 2, 4, length of the water column in the cylindrical, pipe 10 m 1000 cm.Volume of water that flows out of, , 0.1 cm., 31. (b) 2 Rh : 2 rh R : r, , , , 9240 220 h 2, , 2, 21, h 21 r 35, , 1 1, the pipe in 1 minute 1000 cm2.Also, volume, 4 4, 1, of the cone 20 20 24 cm2. Hence, the time, 3, needed to fill up this conical vessel, 1 1, 1, , 20 20 24 1000 minutes, 3, 4, 4, , , , , , v r 2 h 80850 cm3 ., , 2, , 3, , 20 20 24 4 4 4 24 16 minutes, , , , 3, 1000 , 30, , , 256, minutes = 51.2 minutes. Hence, the required time, 5, is 51.2 minutes., 29. (a) Volume of the spherical ball of radius 8 cm, 4, 83 cm 3 Also, volume of each smaller spherical ball, 3, 4, of radius 1 cm 13 cm 3, 3, Let n be the number of smaller balls that can be made., Then, the volume of the larger ball is equal to the sum of, all the volumes of n smaller balls., 4, 4, Hence n 83 n 83 512, 3, 3, Hence, the required number of balls 512., 30. (a) Let the radius of each thin wire be r cm. The, the sum, of the volumes of 2000 thin wire will be equal to the, volume of the iron rod. Now, the shape of the iron rod and, each thin wire is cylindrical.Hence, the volume of the iron, 4, rod of radius, cm = 2 cm is 22 100 cm3, 2, , , 32. (c) 2 RH : 2 Rh H : h, 33. (b) R 2 H : R 2 h H : h, 34. (a) CSA 2 , , , 22, 5h 220h 2, h, , 7, 3, 21, , 35. (c) r 2 38.5 r 7 cm, 2, , , , 36. (b) V 49.896 10000 cm3, , r 2 h 49896 cm 3, , , , 2 rh 4752, , , , 2, h 36 TSA 2 r h r 7524 cm, , 1 2, 1, r1 h1 : r22 h2 r1 r2 , 3, 3, h1 : h2, , 37. (a), , , 1 2, 1, r1 h1 : r22 h2 h1 h2 r12 : r22, 3, 3, 3520, 39. (b) TSA , 704cm 2, 5, , 38. (b), , , , r l r 704 7 l 7 704 l 7 32 l 25, , , , r 7, , , , h l2 r2 , , 25 2 7 2 24, , 1, V r 2 h 1232 cm 3 ., 3, 40. (a) V = 33264 cm3, 1 2, , r h 33264, 3, r 21, , , Hence, we have 22 100 2000 r 2 20, , , , 1 sq m = 10000 cm2, , , , cos t , , r2 , , h 2 r 2 75 CSA rl , , 2, , 1, 1, [Taking positive square root only], r, 100, 10, , CSA , , r 2 h 49896, r 21, , r 2 h 4752, , l, , , , 9504 3, cm, 2, , , , , , 40r 4, , 2 rh 176 h 8 cm, , V r h 308 cm3, , Again, the volume of each thin wire r 2 20, , , 1, cm of, 10, , 12 12 21 75, 5.94, 7 10000, , 22, 21 75, 7
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Mensuration, , II.A.85, , 41. (c) CSA rl, , 47. (b) Bottles required, , , , 22, 216 22, 2, r 75 , 15 , 7, 360 7, r 9, , , , h, , , , , , 22 3 3, 4, 7 2 2, 54, 2 22, 3, 9, 3 7, 48. (a) Volume of cone = volume of hollow sphere, 1 2, 4, r h R 3 r 3 , 3, 3, 4 22 3, 7 1, 3, = 14 cm., h , 4 2 3, , 3 7 , 22 16 , 49. (c) Volume of given cone, 1, R 2 30 10 R 2, 3, 1, Volume of smaller cone r 2 h, 3, , w, , s 2 r 2 12, , 1, V r 2 h 1018.3 cm3, 3, 42. (b) Let height raised be ‘x’., Volume of water raised = volume of piece droped, , , , , , , 22, 22, 2, 2, 4.5 x 3 4.5, 7, 7, 9, x, 2cm, 4.5, x 2 cm., , 43. (a) Mass D V R r R r h D, , , 22 4.5, 4.5, , 2 , 2 77 8 gm/cc 2.057 kg, , 7 2, 2, , , , 6 4.5, 2, , 44. (c) l h 2 r 2 , , 2, , 2, , , , 7.5 m, , 1 h r , 2, , 3.5 12 , 2, , 2, , 2, , 12.5 cm, , CSA of hemisphere 2 r 2 77 sq cm, total area of top = 214.5 sq cm., , 46. (b) Volume of 300 spherical balls = Volume of water, raisen, 3, , , , 4 22 d 22, 4, 2, 300 2 2 d 0.4, 3 7 2, 7, 5, 5, , R 30, , r, h, , , , 30 9 , h, h 10 , h 10 cm, , , , Height of the section 30 h 20 cm, , , , CSA rl = 137.5 sq cm, , , , 9, R, h, 10, r, , From figure,, , Total canvas required, 22, 22, = rl 2 rh 4.5 7.5 2 4.5 4.8, 7, 7, = 241.84 sq m, 45. (a) Height of cone 15.5 3.5 12 cm, 2, , vol. ofone bottle, vol. ofliquid in vessel (hemispherical), , 50. (a) Ratio of volumes, volume of smaller cone, , volume of frustum, 1 2, r h / 2, 3, , 1, h / 2 R 2 r 2 Rr , 3, 5 5, 1, , 1 : 7., 22, 2, 10 5 10 5 7, ,
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.A.86, , 13, , Plane and Coordinate Geometry, , Fauvism, Cubism, Symbolism, and other movements played, an important role in the development of his own, revolutionary approach to painting. Decrying literal, representation, Kandinsky emphasised instead the, importance of form, colour, rhythm, and the artist's inner, need in expressing reality. Relying on his own unique, terminology, he develops the idea of point as the "protoelement" of painting, the role of point in nature, music, and, other art, and the combination of point and line that results, in a unique visual language. He then turns to an absorbing, discussion of line — the influence of force on line, lyric and, dramatic qualities, and the translation of various phenomena, into forms of linear expression. With profound artistic, insight, Kandinsky points out the organic relationship of the, elements of painting, touching on the role of texture, the, element of time, and the relationship of all these elements to, the basic material plane called upon to receive the content of, a work of art., A construction is a geometric drawing for which only a, compass and a straightedge may be used. A ‘point’, a ‘line’ and, a ‘plane’ are the basic concepts to be used in geometry., Straight Line: A straight line may be drawn from any one, point to any other point. A line is the collection of infinite, number of points. A line is defined as a line of points that, extends infinitely in two directions. It has one dimension,, length; A line is breathless length. The ends of a line segment, are points. The edges of surface are lines. A plane surface is, that which lies evenly with the straight lines on itself. A, terminated line or a line segment (AB) can be produced, infinitely., A, Q, , S, , concurrent if there is a point which lies on all of them., Through a given point, infinite lines can be drawn., m, , m, p, P, , n, , O, , ℓ, ℓ, Figure: 13.2, , Intersecting lines: Two lines are intersecting if they have a, common point. The, , ℓ, , common point is called, the, “point, of, , m, , intersection”., Parallel lines: Two, lines I and m in a plane, are said to be parallel, lines if they do not, , A, , B, A, , C, , B, , Figure: 13.3, , have a common point., Ray: Directed line segment is called a ray. If AB is a ray, then it is denoted by AB ., , A, , Point A is called initial point, of ray., Opposite rays: Two rays AB, and AC are said to be opposite, , O, , B, , Figure: 13.4, , rays if they are collinear and point A is the only common, point of the two rays., An angle is the union of two non-collinear rays with a, common initial point. The common initial point is called, the ‘vertex’ of the angle and two rays are called the ‘arms’, , B, , ℓ, P, , Concurrent Lines: Three or more lines are said to be, , T, , Figure: 13.1, , Note, The distance between two points A and B is the length of, line segment AB. Three or more points (P, Q, R, S and T), are said to be collinear if there is a line which contains all of, them., , of the angles., Note: Every angle has a measure and unit of measurement is, degree., One right angle = 90°, 1 ° = 60′ (minutes), 1′ = 60 ′′ (seconds)
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II.A.87, , Plane and Coordinate Geometry, , Types of Angles:, Right angles: An angle whose measure is 90 is called a, , Supplementary angles: Two angles, the sum of whose, measures is 180 , are called the supplementary, , angles. AO C and BO C are supplementary as their, , right angle., B, , sum is 180 ., B, C, , 90, , A, , O, , Figure: 13.9, , Acute angle: An angle whose measure is less than 90 is, , called an acute angle, 0 BOA 90 , , Angle bisectors: A ray OX is said to be the bisector of, AOB , if X is a point in the interior of A O B ,, , B, , A, , A, , O, , Figure: 13.5, , and AOX BOX, C, , B, , O, , A, , A, , O, , B, , O, Figure: 13.10, , Figure: 13.6, , Obtuse angle: An angle whose measure is more than, 90 but less than 180 is called an obtuse angle,, 90 AOB 180 , , Straight angle: An angle whose measure is 180 is called, , a straight angle., , Adjacent angles: Two angles are called adjacent angles, it, they have the same vertex, they have a common arm, non, common arms are on either side of the common arm., AO X and BO X are adjacent angles, OX is common, , arm, OA and OB are non common arms and lies on either, side of OX., B, , O, , A, , B, X, , Figure: 13.7, , Reflex angle : An angle whose measure is more than, 180 is called a reflex angle, 180 AOB 360 , , O, , B, , A, , Figure: 13.11, , Linear pair of angles: Two adjacent angles are said to, form a linear pair of angles, if their non common arms are, two opposite rays., , Figure: 13.8, , Complementary angles: Two angles, the sum of whose, measures is 90 are called complementary angles. AO C and, BO C are complementary as AOC BOC 90, , A, , O, , D, , B, , C, , O, B, , O, , A, C, Figure: 13.12, , A
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II.A.88, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , opposite rays. AO C and BO D from a pair of vertically, opposite angles. Also OD and BO C form a pair of, vertically opposite angles., Angles Made by Transversal With Two Parallel Lines:, Corresponding angles: Two angles on the same side of, transversal are known as the corresponding angles if both lie, either above the two lines or, n, below the two lines, in figure, 2 1, , 3 4, l, are the pairs of, corresponding angles., 6 5, 7 8, , Alternate interior angles:, 3 & 5, 4 & 6, are the, pairs of alternate interior angles., , l||m n is transversal, , Coordinate Geometry is an effective way to introduce points,, lines, planes, origin, x-axis, y-axis, slope, intercept, geometric, transformation and many other important mathematical concepts., Tap icons and use simple gestures to draw on a coordinate plane., , For many people, coordinate geometry is the familiar in many, different ways. For example, in some cities streets are layed, out as a coordinate grid. A Street, B Street C Street, intersects, with First Avenue, Second Avenue and Third Avenue. The, basic concept of coordinate geometry is used in spreadsheets,, mapping, and many other systems for locating positions, including GPS. In some way it seems that the human brain is, intuitively adapt at using coordinate systems., Y, , X’, , P(x,, , 90, , O, , Y’, Figure: 13.14, , Y, II quadrant, (x< 0, y> 0), , (–6, 4), , –, , interior angles., , y, , Polar coordinate system: In polar coordinate system we, represent any point by ordered pair (r, ) where ' r ' is called, radius vector and ' ' is called vectorial angle of that point., , m, , Figure: 13.13, Consecutive interior angles :, The pair of interior angles on the same side of the, transversal are called pairs of consecutive interior angles. In, figure 2 & 6, 3 & 7, are the pair of consecutive, , N, , In two dimensional coordinate geometry generally two types of, co-ordinate systems are:, Cartesian or Rectangular coordinate system:, In, cartesian coordinate system we represent any point by, ordered pair (x,y) where x and y are called X and Y coordinate of that point respectively., , x, , 90, M, , X, , 9, 8, 7, 6, 5, 4, 3, 2, 1, , –9 –8 –7 –6 –5 –4 –3 –2 –1 0, –1, –2, (–8,–2), –3, –4, –5, –6, –7, III quadrant, –8, (x< 0, y< 0), –9, , I quadrant, (x> 0, y> 0), , B, (7, 7), , A, (2, 4), Origin, 1 2, , 3 4 5 6, , 7 8, , 9, , X, , (5, –7), IV quadrant, (x> 0, y< 0), , –Y, Figure: 13.15, , Cartesian or rectangular coordinate system: Let X’OX and, Y’OY are two lines such that X’OX is horizontal and Y’OY is, vertical lines in the same plane and they intersect each other at, O. This intersecting point is called origin., Let PM and PN be the perpendiculars on X-axis and Y-axis, reservedly. The length of the line segment OM is called the, x-coordinate be the or abscissa of point P. Let OM = x and, ON = y. The position of the point P in the plane with respect, to the coordinate axis is represented by the ordered pair (x,y)., The ordered pair (x,y) is called the coordinates of point P., Example 1. Plot the point, Y, (3, 4) on a graph paper., 4, Solution: Let X’IX and, 3, Y’OY be the coordinate, 2, axis. Here given point is P, 1, (3, 4), first we move 3, X’, units along OX as 3 is, O, positive then we arrive a, point M. Now from M we, Y’, move vertically upward as, 4 is positive. Then we arrive at P (3,4)., , P(3, 4), 4 unit, , Vertically opposite angles: Two angles are called a pair of, vertically opposite angles, if their arms form two pairs of, , 3 unit, X, 1, , 2, , 3, , 4
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II.A.89, , Plane and Coordinate Geometry, , Example 2. Plot the following points on the graph paper., (ii) B 5, 7 , (iii) C 3, 2 , (i) A 2, 5 , , (iv) D 0, 5 , , (v) E 5, 0 , , Solution: Let XOX’ and YOY’ be the coordinate axis. Then, the given points may be plotted as given below:, Y, D(0, 5), , 5, , A(2, 5), , 4, 3, 2, 1, , X’, , –5 –4, , E(5,0), , –3 –2 –1 O, –1, , 2, , 1, , –2, , 3, , 4, , X, , 5, , C(3, –2), , –3, –4, –5, –6, –7, , B(–5, –7), Y’, , Distance between Two points, Let two points be P x1 , y1 and Q x2 , y2 . Take two mutually, , perpendicular lines as the coordinate axis with O as origin., Mark the points P x1 , y1 and Q x2 , y2 ., We have PR AB OB OA x2 x1, Now, using Pythagoras Theorem, in right angled triangle PRQ,, Or PQ2 x2 x1 y2 y1 , 2, , Y, , x2 x1 y2 y1 , 2, , Solution: Let d1 , d 2 , d 3 be the required distances. By using the, , (i) d1 , , 5 3 3 2, , (ii) d3 , , a b b a, , 2, , 2, , 2, , 22 12 5, 2, , a b a b, 2, , , , 2, , 2a2 2b2, , 2, , Since the distance or length of, the line-segment PQ is always, non-negative, on taking the, positive square root, we get the, distance as, , PQ , , Example 3. Find the distance between, (i) (5,3) and (3, 2) ; (ii) ( a , b ) and ( b, a ), , formula, we have, , Similarly, QR QB RB QB PA y2 y1, We have, PQ2 PR2 RQ2, , Some useful points: In questions related to geometrical, figures, take the given vertices in the given order and proceed, as indicated., For an isosceles triangle: We have to prove that at least, two sides are equal., For an equilateral triangle: We have to prove that three, sides are equal., For a right-angled triangle: We have to prove that the, sum of the squares of two sides is equal to the square of the, third side., For a square: We have to prove that the four sides are, equal, two diagonals are equal., For a rhombus: We have to prove that four sides are equal, (and there is no need to establish that two diagonals are, unequal as the square is also a rhombus)., For a rectangle: We have to prove that the opposite sides, are equal and two diagonals are equal., For a Parallelogram: We have to prove that the opposite, sides are equal (and there is no need to establish that two, diagonals are unequal sat the rectangle is also a, parallelogram)., For three points to be collinear: We have to prove that the, sum of the distances between two pairs of points is equal to, the third pair of points., , Example 4. Prove that the points 1, 1 , , and (1, 2) are, 2 2, 1 1, , Q(x2, y2), , D, , , , the vertices of an isosceles triangle., C, , R, , P(x1, y1), , Solution: Let the point 1, 1 , , and (1, 2) be denoted, 2 2, 1 1, , , , Corollary: The distance of a, , , , by P, Q and R, respectively. Now, , 2, , This result is known as, distance formula., , , , 2, , A, , B, , X, , 2, , 18 3, 1 1 , PQ 1 , , 2, 2, 2, 4 2, , , , 2, , Figure: 13.16, , point P x1 , y1 from the origin (0, 0) is given by OP x12 y12, , 2, , 1, 18 3, 1 , QR 1 2 , , 2, 2, 2, 4 2, , , , , PR , , 1 1 2 1, 2, , 2, , 9 3, , From the above, we see that PQ = QR The triangle is isosceles.
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II.A.90, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Example 5. Using distance formula, show, points 3, 2 , 1, 2 and 9, 10 are collinear., , that the, , Then AB 3 2 4 5 106, 2, , Now,, , AB , , 1 3 2 2, 2, , BC , , 9 1 10 2, , AC , , 9 3 10 2, , 2, , 2, , 2, , 2, , 2, , 16 16 4 2, , 64 64 8 2, 144 144 12 2, , Since, AB BC 4 2 8 2 12 2 AC , the, points A, B, and C are collinear., Example 6. Find a point on the X-axis which is equidistant, from the points (5, 4) and (– 2, 3)., Solution: Since the required point (say P) is on the X-axis, its, ordinate will be zero. Let the abscissa of the point be x., Therefore, coordinates of the point P are (x, 0)., Let A and B denote the points 5, 4 and 2, 3 respectively., , Since we are given that AP = BP, we have AP 2 BP 2, i.e.,, , x 5 0 4 , , or, , x 2 25 10 x 16 x 2 4 4 x 9, , or, , 14 x 28, , or, , x2, , 2, , 2, , x 2 0 3, 2, , 2, , 2, , 2, , AC 2 7 2 10 5 106, 2, , 2, , We see that BC 2 AB 2 AC 2, , 212 106 106 212 212, A 90 , , , , Thus, ABC is a right triangle, right angled at A., Section Formulae, Formula for Internal Division: The coordinates of the pint, which divided the line segment joining the pints ( x1 , y1 ) and, ( x 2 , y 2 ) internally in the ratio m : n are given by:, , x, , mx2 nx1, my ny1, ,y 2, mn, mn, , Let O be the origin and let OX and OY be the X-axis and Yaxis respectively. Let A( x1 , y1 ) and B ( x2 , y 2 ) be the given, points; A H P and P K B are similar., , AP AH PH, , , BP PK BK, or, , m x x1 y y1, , , n x2 x y2 y, , Now,, , Y, B(x2, y2), , m x x1, , n x2 x, , n, P (x, y), , Example 7. The vertices of a triangle are (–2, 0), (2, 3) and (1,, –3). Is the triangle equilateral, isosceles or scalene?, Solution: Let the points (–2, 0), (2, 3) and (1, –3) be denoted, by A, B and C respectively. Then,, , AB , , 2 2 3 0, , BC , , 1 2 3 3, , and AC , , 1 2 0 0, , 2, , 2, , 2, , 2, , 5, 2, , 2, , 37, 3 2, , Clearly, AB BC AC, Therefore, ABC is a scalene triangle., Example 8. Show that the points (–2, 5), (3, –4) and (7, 10) are, the vertices of a right triangle., Solution: Let the three points be A 2, 5 , B 3, 4 and, , A, x1 , y 1 , , or mx nx mx2 nx1, , x, And, , mx2 nx1, mn, , K, , m, , mx2 mx nx nx1, , Thus, the required point is (2, 0)., , C 7, 10 ., , 2, , BC 2 7 3 10 4 212, , Solution: Let the given points 3, 2 , 1, 2 and 9, 10 be, , denoted by A, B and C, respectively. Points A, B and C will be, collinear, if the sum of the lengths of two line-segments is, equal to the third., , 2, , O, , L, , H, , N, , M, , X, , Figure: 13.17, , m y y1, , n y2 y, , my2 my ny ny1 or my ny my2 ny1, , y, , my2 ny1, mn, , mx nx1 my2 ny1 , ,, Thus, the coordinates of P are 2, , mn , mn, Note: If P is the mid-point of AB, then it divides AB in the, x x y y2 , ratio 1 : 1, so its coordinates are 1 2 , 1, , 2, 2, , , , , , Formula for External Division: The coordinates of the points, which divides the line segment joining the points ( x1 , y1 ) and, ( x 2 , y 2 ) externally in the ratio m: n are given by:, , x, , mx2 nx1, my ny1, , y 2, mn, mn
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II.A.91, , Plane and Coordinate Geometry, , Example 9. Find the coordinates of the point which divides the, line segment joining the points (6, 3) and (– 4, 5) in the ratio 3 :, 2 (i) internally (ii) externally., 3, , 2, , A (6, 3), , P(x, y), , 2, , For internal division, we have x , , a point dividing BE in the ratio 2 : 1 are:, , , 2 x1 x3 , 2 y y , 1 y2 1 3 x x x y y y, 1 x2 , , , 2, 2, ,, , 1 2 3 , 1 2 3 , 1, , 2, 1, , 2, 3, 3, , , , , , , , , , 3x 4 2 6, 3 2, , 3 5 2 3, 3 2, 21, x 0 and y , 5, , and y , , Similarly the coordinates of a point dividing CF in the ratio 2 :, x x x y y 2 y3 , 1 are 1 2 3 , 1, , 3, 3, , , , 21, So, the coordinates of P are 0, , 5, , , Thus, the point having coordinates , , , , (ii) For external division, we have x , , , , 3x 4 2 6, 3 2, , 3 5 2 3, 3 2, x 24 and y 9, So, the coordinates of P are (– 24, 9)., , Hence, medians of a triangle are concurrent and the coordinates, x x x y y 2 y3 , of the centroid are 1 2 3 , 1, ., 3, 3, , , , Centroid of a triangle: Prove that the coordinates of the, triangle, whose, vertices, are, x x2 x3 y1 y 2 y3 ., ( x1 , y1 ),( x2 , y2 ) and x3 , y 3 are 1, ,, , 3, 3, , , Also, deduce that the medians of a triangle are concurrent., A x , y , , x1 x2 y1 y 2 , 2 ,, , 2, , , , B x, , 2, , , y2 , , F, , 1, , G, , D, , x2 x3 y 2 y 3 , ,, 2, , 2, , , , E, , 3, , , y3 , , A( x1 , y1 ), B ( x2 , y 2 ) and C ( x3 , y3 ) be, , Area of a triangle: Let ABC be any triangle whose vertices, are A( x1 , y1 ), B ( x2 , y3 ) ., Y, , Draw BL, AM and CN, perpendicular from B,A, and C respectively, to the, X-axis. ABLM, AMNC and, BLNC are all trapeziums., Area of ABC Area of, , Area of trapezium , , Figure: 13.18, , Let, , , , trapezium ABLM + Area, of trapezium AMNC –, Area of trapezium BLNC, We know that,, , x1 x3 y 1 y 3 , 2 ,, , 2, , , , C x, , x1 x2 x3 y1 y 2 y3 , ,, is, 3, 3, , , common to AD, BE and CF and divides them in the ratio 1 : 2., , and y , , 1, , , , the, , vertices, , of A B C whose medians are AD, BE and CF respectively. So., D,E and F are respectively the mid-points of BC, CA and AB., , A(x1, y1), C(x3,, , B(x2, y2), , , , dividing AD in the ratio 2 : 1 are:, , x1 x3 y1 y3 , ,, . The coordinates of, 1 , 2, , Solution: Let P(x, y) be the required point., , (i), , x2 x3 y 2 y3 , ,, . Coordinates of a point, 2, 2 , , The coordinates of E are , , P(x, y), , B (–4, 5), , , , , x2 x3 , y2 y3 , 1 x1 2 2 1 y1 2 2 x x x y y y , , ,, , 1 2 3 , 1 2 3, , , , 1 2, 1 2, 3, 3, , , , , , , , , B (–4, 5), , 3, A (6, 3), , Coordinates of D are , , O, , L, , N, , M, , X, , Figure: 13.19, , 1, (Sum of parallel sides) (distance b/w them), 2, , Therefore,, Area of ABC , , 1, 1, BL AM LM AM CN MN, 2, 2, , , 1, BL CN LN , 2
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.A.92, , 1, 1, ( y2 + y1 )( x1 − x2 ) + ( y1 + y3 )( x3 − x1 ), 2, 2, , Area of ∆ABC =, , 1, − ( y2 + y3 )( x3 − x2 ), 2, , 1, 2, , Area of ∆ABC = x1 ( y2 − y3 ) + x2 ( y3 − y ) + x3 ( y1 − y2 ) , Note, Condition for colinearity: Three points AA( x1x,1 ,y1y)1 , ,BB (xx2 ,2 ,yy2 2 ), , A x1 , y1 , B ( x2 , y2 ) , C ( x3 , y3 ) and D ( x 4 , y 4 ) ., , Area of ∆ = 5 sq. unit, , 5=, , ⇒, , 10 = 3 x3 + y3 − 7, , ⇒, , 3x3 + y3 – 7 = ± 10, Taking positive sign 3 x3 + y3 − 7 = 10, 3 x + y3 = 17, , . . . (i), , Taking negative sign 3 x3 + y3 − 7 = −10, ⇒, 3 x∴ + y3 = −3, A ( x1 , y1 ) , B xGiven, C x3 , y 3, 2 , y 2 ,that, ( x3 , y 3 ) lies on y = x + 3, , So, Area of quadrilateral ABCD = Area of ∆ABC + Area of, , . . . (iii), , Solving eq. (i) and (iii), , 7, 13, x3 = , y3 =, 2, 2, , C, (x3, y3), , Solving eq. (ii) and (iii) x3 =, , A, (x1, y1), , Figure: 13.20, , Example 10. The vertices of ∆ A B C are, , ( 2, −3 ), , −3, 3, , y3 =, 2, 2, , 7 13, −3 3, So the third vertex are , or , ., 2 2 2 2, , B, (x2, y2), , ( −2,1) , ( 5, 4 ), , . . . (ii), , So, − x∴ + y3 = 3, , ∆ACD, D, (x4, y4), , 1, 2 ( −2 − y3 ) + 3( y3 −1) + x3 (1 + 2), 2, , ⇒, , ⇒, , and C ( x3 , y3 ) are collinear if Area of ∆ ABC = 0, Area of Quadrilateral:, Let the vertices of Quadrilateral ABCD are, , As x1 = 2 y1 = 1 ; x2 = 3, y 2 = −2, , Example 12. Find the area of quadrilateral whose vertices,, and, , taken in order, are A ( −3, 2 ) , B ( 5, 4 ) , C ( 7, − 6 ) and D ( −5, − 4 ) ., , respectively. Find the area of triangle., , D, , C, , (–5, –4), , Solution: A ( −2,1) , B ( −2,1) and C ( 2, −3 ) be the vertices of, , (7, –6), , triangle., x1 = −2, y1 = 1 ; x2 = 5, y 2 = 4; x3 = 2 y3 = −3, , So,, , Area of ∆ABC =, , =, , 1, x1 ( y2 − y3 ) + x2 ( y3 − y1 ) + x3 ( y1 − y2 ) , 2, , 1, ( −2)( 4 + 3) + ( 5)( −3 − 1) + 2(1 − 4) , 2, , 1, = −14 + ( −20) + ( −6) + 2(1− 4) , 2, , 1, = −40 = 20 sq. unit., 2, , A, , B, , (–3, 2), , Solution: Area of quadrilateral, = Area of ∆ ABC + Area of ∆ A C D, So, Area of ∆ABC =, =, , the third vertex., Solution: Let the third vertex be ( x 3 , y 3 ) area of triangle, , =, , 1, x1 ( y2 − y3 ) + x2 ( y3 − y1 ) + x3 ( y1 − y2 ) , 2, , 1, ( −3)( 4 + 6) + 5( −6 − 2) + 7( 2 − 4), 2, , 1, −30 − 40 − 14, 2, , 1, −84 = 42 sq. units, 2, 1, Area of ∆ACD = −3( −6 + 4) + 7 ( −4 − 2 ) + ( −5)( 2 + 6 ), 2, 1, 1, = +6 − 42 − 40 = −76 = 38 sq. units, 2, 2, So, Area of quadrilateral, ABCD = 42 + 38 = 80 sq. units, =, , Example 11. The area of a triangle is 5. Two of its vertices, area (2, 1) and (3, − 2). The third vertex lies on y = x + 3 . Find, , (5, 4)
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II.A.93, , Plane and Coordinate Geometry, , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , 2., , 3., , If two lines intersected by a transversal, then each pair of, corresponding angles so formed is:, a. Equal, b. Complementary, c. Supplementary, d. None of these, Two parallel lines have:, a. a common point, c. no any common point, , 12. If the abscissa of any point is zero then that point will lie :, a. on x-axis, b. on y-axis, c. at origin, d. none of these, 13. The co-ordinates of one end point of a diameter of a circle, are (4, −1) and coordinates of the centre of the circle are, (1, −3) then coordinates of the other end of the diameter are:, , b. two common point, d. infinite common points, , An angle is 1 4 ° more than its complementary angle then, , a. (2, 5), , 4., , 5., , 6., , b. 52 °, , c. 50 °, , d. none of these, , of a:, a. Rectangle, c. Square, , The angle between the bisectors of two adjacent, supplementary angles is:, a. acute angle, b. right angle, a. obtuse angle, d. none of these, If one angle of triangle is equal to the sum of the other, two then triangle is:, a. acute a triangle, b. obtuse triangle, c. right triangle, d. none, X, , lies, , in, , the, , interior, , of ∠ BAC . If, , 7., , c. 27 °, , b. 35 °, , c. 50 °, , 9., , b., , 8, 5, , c., , 1, 2, , d., , c. 5, , d. None of these, , ), , 17. If the points ( 5,1) , (1, p ) and ( 4, 2 ) are collinear then the, value of p will be:, a. 1, b. 5, 18. Length, , of, , the, , c. 2, median, , from, , d. -2, B, , on, , AC, , where, , A ( − 1,3 ) , B (1, − 1) , C ( 5,1) is:, , a. 18, , b. 10, , c. 2 3, , d. 4, , 19. The points ( 0, −1) , ( −2,3 ) , ( 6,7 ) and ( 8, 3 ) are:, a. collinear, b. vertices of a parallelogram which is not a rectangle, c. vertices of a rectangle, which is not a square, d. none of these, , 2, 3, , The abscissa of a point is distance of the point from:, a. x-axis, b. y-axis, c. origin, d. none of these, , b. 3, , a. collinear, b. vertices of a parallelogram, c. vertices of a rectangle, d. none of these, , 4a, that 2 a − 3b = 60 ° then, = ? . If they form a linear pair:, 5b, , a. 0, , a. 34, , (, , d. 45 °, , Two angles whose measures are a and b are such, , b. Parallelogram, d. Rhombus, , 2, 16. The points ( − a , −b ) , ( 0, 0 ) , ( a , b ) and a , ab are, , d. 30 °, , If the supplement of an angle is three times its, complement, then angle is:, a. 40 °, , 8., , b. 29 °, , d. ( − 3, − 2), , 15. The distance of the point (3, 5) from x-axis is:, , ∠ BAC = 70 ° and ∠ BAX = 42 ° then ∠ ΧΑΧ =, , a. 28 °, , c. (3, 2), , 14. The point ( −2, −1), (1, 0), (4,3) and (1, 2) are the vertices, , angle is:, a. 38 °, , b. ( − 2, − 5), , 20. If ( 3, −4 ) and ( − 6,5 ) are the extremities of the diagonal of, a parallelogram and ( −2,1) is third vertex, then its fourth, vertex is:, , 10. The y-coordinate of a point is distance of that point from:, a. x-axis, b. y-axis, c. origin, d. none of these, , a. ( −1,0 ), , b. ( 0, −1), , c. ( −1,1), , d. none of these, , }}, , 11. If both coordinates of any point are negative then that, point will lie in:, a. first quadrant, b. second quadrant, c. third quadrant, d. fourth quadrant, , 21. The area of a triangle whose vertices are ( a, c + a ) , ( a, c ), and ( − a, c, − a ) are:, a. a 2, , b. b 2, , c. c2, , d. a 2 + c 2
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II.A.94, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 22. The area of the quadrilateral’s the coordinates of whose, verticals are (1, 2)(6, 2), (5,3) and (3, 4) are:, , 9, 1, b. 5, c., 2, 2, 23. The point (–2, –3) belongs to quadrant, a. Q1, b. Q2, c. Q3, , d. 11, , a., , 25. The point (0, –2) lies on, a. +ve x-axis, c. –ve x-axis, , b. +ve y-axis, d. –ve y-axis, 3a,, , 16 4 , , , 5 5, , 3a, , , , form the, , d. 0, 2 3 or -3, 3 , , 29. The points (4, 4), (3, 5) and (–1, –1) form the vertices of, a. right angled triangle, b. right angled isosceles triangle, c. isosceles triangle, d. equilateral triangle, , by, , vertices, , A 1, 2 , B 3, 4 and C 2, 3 is?, , d. None, , 3, 1, , b., , 3, 1, , c., , 2, 3, , d. None, , (–7, –1) divided by x-axis?, , c. 0, 2 3 or -3, 3 , , c. 13 sq units, , a., , 35. In what ratio is the segment joining the points (4, 6) and, , b. 0, 2 3 or 3, - 3 , , b. 11 sq units, , d. None, , and B (6, 7) is?, , a. 0, 2 3 or 3, - 3 , , a. 11 sq units, , 16 , , 4, 5, , , b. , , 34. The ratio by which P (4, 6) divides the join of A (–2, 3), , triangle then the third vertex is?, , ABC formed, , 16 , , 5 , , c. , , 28. If (0, 0) and 3, 3 are two vertices of an equilateral, , of, , d. 1, , , , 27. In which ratio does the point (–1, –1) divides the line, segment joining the pints (4, 4) and (7, 7)?, a. 5 : 8, b. 8 : 3, c. 3 : 8, d. 8 : 5, , area, , c. 2, , a. 4,, , vertices of an?, a. scalene triangle, b. right angled triangle, c. isosceles right angled triangle, d. equilateral triangle, , 30. The, , b. 4, , A (2, 6) and B (5, 1) in the ratio 2 : 3 is?, , d. Q4, , b. +ve y-axis, d. –ve y-axis, , , , a. 3, , 33. The coordinates of the point C dividing the join of points, , 24. The point (–2, 0) lies on, a. +ve x-axis, c. –ve x-axis, , 26. The points (a, a) (–a, –a) and, , 32. The value of k if (–3, 12), (7, 6) and (k, 9) are collinear is?, , 31. Find the value of k if the area of triangle formed by (1, k),, (4, –3) and (–0, 7) is 15 sq units., , a. 1 : 6, , b. 6 : 2, , c. 2 : 6, , d. 6 : 1, , 36. In what ratio is the segment joining the points (–3, 2) and, , (6, 1) divided by y-axis?, a. 1 : 3, , b. 2 : 1, , c. 1 : 2, , d. 3 : 1, , 37. One end of diameter of a circle is (2, 3) and the centre is, , (–2, 5). The coordinates of the other end is?, a. (–6, 7), , b. (6, –7), , c. (6, 7), , d. None, , 38. The coordinates of the points of tri-section of a segment, , joining A 3,2 and B (9, 5) is?, a. (3, 1), (4, 5), , b. (1, 3), (5, 4), , c. (1, 3), (4, 5), , d. (3, 1), (5, 4), , 39. If D (3, –1), E (2, 6) and F (–5, 7) are the midpoints of the, , sides of ABC , the area of the triangle is?, a. 96 sq units, , b. 24 sq units, , c. 48 sq units, , d. 50 sq units, , 40. Area of quadrilateral formed by the vertices (–1, 6), (–3,, , 21, or –3, 13, 21, c. or 3, 13, , a., , 21, or 3, 13, 21, d. , or –3, 13, b. , , –9), (5, –8) and (3, 9) is:, a. 96 sq units, , b. 18 sq units, , c. 50 sq units, , d. 25 sq units
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II.A.95, , Plane and Coordinate Geometry, , ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , d, , c, , b, , b, , c, , a, , d, , b, , b, , a, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , c, , b, , b, , b, , c, , a, , b, , b, , c, , a, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , a, , c, , c, , c, , d, , d, , a, , a, , a, , b, , 31., , 32., , 33., , 34., , 35., , 36., , 37., , 38., , 39., , 40., , a, , c, , b, , a, , d, , c, , a, , b, , a, , a, , (b) x (90 x) 14, , 6., , (a) CAX BAC BAX, , 7., , (d) 180 x 3(90 x), , 8., , (b) a b 180, 2a 3b 60, , , , 6m 3n, 4, mn, 6m 2n 4m 4n, , , , 2m 6n, , , , m, 3, 3 : 1, n, 1, , , , m 6, 6 : 1, n 1, , x2 y3, ,, 2 , 2, , x2, 2, 2, y 3, 5, and, 2, x 2 4, y 3 10, , , 7k 4 7k 4 , coordinates of C are , ,, But, we are given, k 1 k 1 , , , , m 6n 0, , 2, 5 , , 27. (a) Suppose the point C (–1, –1) divides the line joining, the points A (4, 4) and B (7, 7) in the ratio k : 1 Then, the, , 7k 4, 1, k 1, 5, k , 8, Thus, C divides AB externally in the ratio 5 : 8., m(6) n (2) m(7) n (3) , ,, 34. (a) 4.6 , , mn, mn, , , , , 6m 3n, 0, mn, m 1, 6m 3n , n 2, 37. (a) Centre = midpoint of diameter, , 14. (b) Calculate AB, BC, CD, DA, AC and BD to conclude., 17. (d) Prove value of triangle is zero., , , , m 6n, 0, m n, , , , 13. (b) d ( x2 x1 )2 ( y2 y1 ) 2, , that the coordinates of the points C are (–1, –1)., , , , m(6) n (3) m(1) n (2) , ,, 36. (c) 0, b , , mn, mn, , , , SOLUTIONS, 3., , m(7) n (4) m(1) n (6) , ,, 35. (d) a, 0 , , mn, mn, , , , , , x 6 , y 7, , 38. (b) Case (i) 1 : 2, 1(9) 2 ( 3) 1(5) 2 (2) , P, ,, 1, 3 , 1 2, 1 2, , , , Case (ii) 2 : 1, , 2(9) 1(3) 2(5) 1(2) , P, ,, 5, 4 ., 2 1, 2 1 , , 39. (a) Ar DEF 24 sq units, , Ar ABC 4 DEF 4 4 96 sq units, 40. (a) Area, , , , , , 1 x1 x3, 2 y1 y3, , x 2 x4, y2 y4, , , , 1 6 6, 96 sq units, 2 14 18
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.A.96, , 14, Why do architects use triangles when building bridges, roofs, on houses, and other structures? Why not a quadrilateral, why, not a pentagon?, , Triangle, Congruent Triangles: Two triangles are congruent if and only, if one of them can be made to superimposed on the other, so an, to cover it exactly., D, , A, , If there is a single most important shape in engineering, it is the, triangle. Unlike a rectangle, a triangle cannot be deformed, without changing the length of one of its sides or breaking one, of its joints. In fact, one of the simplest ways to strengthen a, rectangle is to add supports that form triangles at the rectangle's, corners or across its diagonal length. A single support between, two diagonal corners greatly strengthens a rectangle by turning, it into two triangles., Triangles feature very frequently in the discipline of, mathematics. For example, almost all two dimensional shapes, (apart from a circle) can be made up of a series of triangles, arranged in a certain way., A plane figure bounded by three lines in a plane is called a, triangle. Every triangle have three sides and three angles. If, ABC is any triangle then AB, BC and CA are three sides and, , B, , C, , E, , F, , Figure: 14.1, , If two triangles ∆ABC and ∆DEF are congruent then there, exist a one to one correspondence between their vertices and, sides., i.e., we, get, following, six, equalities., ∠A = ∠D, ∠B = ∠E , ∠C = ∠F and AB = DE, BC = EF, AC =, DF., Sufficient Conditions for Congruence of Two Triangles:, SAS Congruence Criterion Two triangles are congruent if two, sides and the included angle of one are equal to the, corresponding sides and the included angle of the other, triangle., A, , P, , ∠A, ∠B and ∠C are three angles., Types of Triangles: On the basis of sides we have three types, of triangles:, Scalene triangle: A triangle whose no sides are equal is, called a scalene triangle., Isosceles triangle: A triangle having two sides equal is, called an isosceles triangle., Equilateral triangle:A triangle in which all sides are equal, is called an equilateral triangle., , B, , C, , Q, , R, , Figure: 14.2, , ASA Congruence Criterion: Two triangles are congruent if, two angles and the included side of one triangle are equal to the, corresponding two angles and the included side of the other, triangle., A, , P, , On the basis of angles we have three types of triangles:, Right triangle: A triangle in which any one angle is right, angle ( = 90 °) is called right triangle., Acute triangle: A triangle in which all angles are, acute ( > 90 °) is called an acute triangle., Obtuse triangle: A triangle in which any one angle is obtuse, ( < 90 °) is called an obtuse triangle., , B, , C, , Q, , R, , Figure: 14.3, , AAS Congruence Criterion: If any two angles and a non, included side of one triangle are equal to the corresponding, angles and side of another triangle, then the two triangles are, congruent.
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Triangle, , II.A.97, A, , P, , B, , C, , Q, , R, , Figure: 14.4, , SSS Congruence Criterion: Two triangles are congruent if, two angles and the included side of one triangle are equal to the, corresponding two angles and the included side of the other, triangle., A, , P, , B, , C, , Q, , Results based upon Characteristic Properties of Similar, Triangles, , R, , Figure: 14.5, , RHS Congruence Criterion: Two right triangles are congruent if, the hypotenuse and one side of one triangle are respectively equal, to the hypotenuse and one side of the other triangle., A, , Characteristic Properties of Similar Triangles:, AAA Similarity: If two triangles are equiangular, then they, are similar., SSS Similarity: If the corresponding sides of two triangles, are proportional, then they are similar., SAS Similarity: If in two triangle’s one pair of, corresponding sides are proportional and the included, angles are equal then the two triangles are similar., , P, , If two triangles are equiangular, then the ratio of, corresponding sides is the same as the ratio of, corresponding medians., If two triangles are equiangular, then the ratio of, corresponding sides is same at the ratio of, corresponding angle bisector segments., if two triangles are equiangular then the ratio of, corresponding sides is same at the ratio of, corresponding altitudes., , the, the, the, the, the, the, , If one angle of a triangle is equal to one angle of another, , triangle and the bisectors of these equal angles divide the, B, , C, , opposite side in the same ratio, then the triangles are, , Q, , R, , similar., , Figure: 14.6, , If two sides and a median bisecting one of these sides of a, , Note, If two triangles are congruent then their corresponding sides, and angles are also congruent by cpctc (corresponding parts of, congruent triangles are also congruent)., , triangle are respectively proportional to the two sides and, the corresponding median of another triangle, then the, triangles are similar., If two sides and a median bisecting the third side of a, , Congruent and Similar Figures: Two geometric figures, having the same shape and size are known as congruent, figures. Geometric figures having the same shape but different, sizes are known as similar figures., Similar Triangles: Two triangles ΔABC and ΔDEF are said, to be similar if their, Corresponding angles are equal. i.e., A D, B E, C F , And, Corresponding sides are proportional i.e., , AB BC AC, , , DE EF DF, , triangle are respectively proportional to the corresponding, sides and the median another triangle, then two triangles are, similar., Thales Theorem (Basic Proportionality Theorem), If a line is drawn parallel to one side of a triangle to intersect, the other sides in distinct points, then the other two sides are, , divided in the same ratio,, , AD AE, , DB EC, A, , D, N, , A, , M, E, , D, , C, , B, B, , C E, Figure: 14.7, , F, , Figure: 14.8
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II.A.98, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Corollary: If in a ABC , a line DE BC , intersects AB in D, , , , 20 x 15 x 12 x 9 24 x 2 21x 8 x 7, , and AC in E, then, DB EC, AB AC, AD AE, (i), (ii), (iii), , , , AD AE, AD AE, AB AC, AB AC, DB EC, (iv), (v), , , DB EC, AB AC, Converse of Basic Proportionality Theorem: If a line divides, any two sides of a triangle in the same ratio, then the line must, be parallel to the third side., , , , 20 x 2 27 x 9 24 x 2 29 x 7, , , , 4x2 2x 2 0, , , , 2 x2 x 1 0, , , , 2 x 1 x 1 0, , Some Important Results and Theorems: The internal, bisector of an angle of a triangle divides the opposite side, internally in the ratio of the sides containing the angle., In a triangle ABC, if D is a point on BC such that D divides, BC in the ratio AB : AC,, A, then AD is the bisector of, A., The external bisector of an, E, D, angle of a triangle divides, the opposite sides externally, in the ratio of the sides B, C, Figure: 14.9, containing the angle., The line drawn from the mid-point of one side of a triangle, parallel to another side bisects the third side., The line joining the mid-points of two sides of a triangle is, parallel to the third side., The diagonals of a trapezium divide each other, proportionally., If the diagonals of a quadrilateral divide each other, proportionally, then it is a trapezium., Any line parallel to the parallel sides of a trapezium divides, the non-parallel sides proportionally., If three or more parallel lines are intersected by two, transversal, then the intercepts made by them on the, transversal are proportional., Example 1. In a ABC , D and E are points on the sides AB, , and, , AC, , respectively, , such, , that, , 2, , 4 3, , , , C, , Solution: We have, AB = 12 cm, AC = 18 m, AD = 8 cm and, AE = 12 cm., A, BD AB AD, , 12 8 cm 4cm, , CE AC AE, , D, , E, , 18 12 cm 6cm, AD 8 2, C, B, , BC 4 1, AE 12 2 AD AE, And,, , , , CE 6 1 BD CE, Thus, DE divides sides AB and AC of ABC in the same ratio., , Now,, , Therefore, by the conserve of basic proportionality theorem we, have DE BC ., Example 3. In a trapezium ABCD AB DC and DC = 2AB. EF, , drawn parallel to AB cuts AD in F and BC in E such, BE 3, that, . Diagonal DB intersects EF at G. Prove that 7FE, EC 4, = 10AB., Solution: In DFG and DAB ,, A, , B, 2, , F, 1, , 1 2, , 3, G, , E, 4, C, , D, , [By Basic Proportionality Theorem], , 5 3, , cm and AC = 18 cm, show that DE BC ., , Solution: In ABC we have, , , , E, , D, , Example 2. D and E are respectively the points on the sides AB, and AC of a ABC such that AB = 12 cm, AD = 8 cm, AE = 12, , CE 5 x 3, find the value of x., , AD AE, , DB EC, 4x 3 8x 7, , 3x 1 5 x 3, , 8 7, , 1, x 0 or x , 3 1, 2, So, the required value of x B, is 1., 1, [ x is neglected as length cannot be negative], 2, , DE BC . If AD 4x 3, AE 8 x 7, BD 3x 1 and, , DE BC, , A, , [Corresponding angles as AB FG ], , FDG ADB, DFG ~ DAB, , [Common], [By AAA rule of similarity]
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Triangle, , II.A.99, , DF FG, , DA AB, , Example 5. In the given figure, PA, QB and RC are each, 1 1 1, perpendicular to AC. Prove that , x z y, , . . . (i), , Again in trapezium ABCD EF AB DC, , P, , AF BE, , DF EC, AF 3, , DF 4, , R, , AF, 3, 1 1, 4, DF, AD 7, DF 4, or, , DF 4, AD 7, From (i) and (ii), we get, FG 4, 4, i.e., FG AB, , 7, AB 7, In BEG and BCD, we have, , BEG BCD, , BE 3, , EC 4 (given) , , , AF DF 7, , 4, DF, , A, , . . . (iii), , [Common], [By AA rule of similarity], , CD 2 AB (given), , . . . (iv), 4, 6, 10, AB AB AB, 7, 7, 7, , 10, EG , AB i.e., 7 EF 10 AB, 7, Hence proved., , Area ACD , , 3x-19, , A, , A, , bisector of A., AB BD, . . . (i), , AC DC, [By internal bisector theorem], B, , L, , D, , 1, Area ABD 2 BD AL BD AB, [From (i)], , , , Area ACD 1 DC AL DC AC, 2, Hence Proved., , C, , . . .(ii), , C, 4, , Solution: In ABC , AD is the, , ABQ ~ ACR , , Example 6. In the given figure, AB CD. Find the value of x., D, , AB, AC, , From A draw AL BC, , . . .(i), , BQ AB, , CR AC, y AB, , z AC, Adding (i) and (ii), we get, y y CB AB, , , x z AC AC, y y AB BC, y y AC, or , , x z, AC, x z AC, y y, 1 1 1, 1 or, , x z, x z y, Hence Proved., , Example 4. In ABC , if AD is the bisector of A , prove, , , , CBQ ~ CAP, , In ACR , we have BQ CR, , Adding (iii) and (iv), we get EG EG , , Area ABD , , C, , B, , BQ CB, , AP CA, y CB, , x CA, , BE EG, 3 EG, , , 7 CD, BC CD, BC 4, EC BE 4 3 , BE 3, , EG 7 i.e., BE 3 , BE, 3 , , , that, , z, , Solution: In PAC , we have BQ AP, , [Corresponding angles as EG||CD], , 3, 3, EG , CD 2 AB , 7, 7, 6, EG AB, 7, , Q, y, , . . . (ii), , GBE DBC, BEG ~ BCD, , x, , x-3, O, , xB, , Solution: Since the diagonals of a trapezium divide each other, proportionally., AO BO, , OC OD, 3 x 19 x 4, , , 4, x3, 2, 12 x 76 x 4 x 3x 12, , , x 2 19 x 88 0, , , , x 2 11x 8 x 88 0, , , , x 8 x 11 0, , , , x 8 or x 11
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II.A.100, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Areas of similar triangles: The ratio of the areas of two, similar triangles is equal to the square of the ratio of their, corresponding sides., Two triangles ABC and PQR such that ABC PQR [Shown, , in the figure], P, , A, , In any triangle, the sum of the squares of any two sides is, equal to twice the square of half of the third side together, with twice the square of the median which bisects the third, side. Three times the sum of the squares of the sides of a, triangle is equal to four times the sum of the squares of the, medians of the triangle., Example 7. O is any point inside a rectangle ABCD (shown in, , the figure). Prove that OB 2 OD 2 OA2 OC 2, B, , CQ, , M, , area ABC , , R, , N, , 2, , 2, , D, , A, , 2, , AB BC CA , , , , area PQR PQ QR RP , Pythagoreans Theorem: In a right triangle, the square of the, hypotenuse is equal to the sum of the square of the other two, sides. A right triangle ABC, right angled at, B. AC 2 AB 2 BC 2, Converse of Pythagoreans Theorem: In a triangle, if the, square of one side is equal to the sum of the squares of the, other two sides, then the angle opposite to the first side is a, right, angle., A, triangle, ABC, such, , P, , Q, , O, , B, , C, , Solution: Through O, draw PQ BC so that P lies on A and Q, , lies on DC., Now,, , B, , PQ BC, , Therefore,, PQ AB and PQ DC, , that AC 2 AB 2 BC 2 . Then, ABC is a right triangle, right, , B 90 and, , angled at B., , So, BPQ 90 and CQP 90, , A, , C 90, , A, , Therefore, BPQC and APQD are both rectangles., Now, from OPB ,, , D, , OB 2 BP 2 OP 2, , . . . (i), , Similarly, from ODQ, , C, , B, , F, , E, , OD 2 OQ 2 DQ 2, , A, , . . . (ii), , From ΔOQC, we have, , OC 2 OQ 2 CQ 2, , . . . (iii), , And form Δ OAP, we have, OA2 = AP2 + OP2, D, , an obtuse triangle, obtuse, angled, at, B., If, AD CD, then, , AB 2 OD 2 BP 2 OP 2 OQ 2 DQ 2, CQ 2 OP 2 OQ 2 AP 2 [As BP = CQ and DQ = AP], CQ 2 OQ 2 OP 2 AP 2, , A, , OC 2 OA2, , 2, , Example 8. ABC is a right triangle, right-angled at C., Let BC a , CA b, AB c and let p be the length of, , the given figure,, In, if B of ABC is an acute, angle, , [From (iii) and (iv)], , Hence Proved., , AC AB BC 2BC BC, 2, , . . . (iv), , Adding (i) and (ii), , C, , B, , Some Results Deduced from Pythagorean Theorem:, In the given figure ABC is, , 2, , C, , D, , and AD BC , then, , AC 2 AB 2 BC 2 2 BC BD, , B, , D, , C, , perpendicular form C on AB, prove that, 1, 1, 1, (i) cp ab, (ii) 2 2 2, p, a, b
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Triangle, , II.A.101, , Solution:Let CD AB . Then, , AB 2 AD 2 ED 2 EB 2, , A, , CD p, Area, , of, 1, ABC (Base height), 2, 1, 1, AB CD cp, 2, 2, B, Also, Area of, 1, 1, ABC BC AC ab, 2, 2, 1, 1, , cp ab, 2, 2, cp ab, , C D, , b, , a, , C, , , ab , cp ab c , , p, , , ab , 2, 2, P a b, , , , , , a 2b 2, a2 b2, p2, , , , 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 2 2 or 2 2 2, 2, p, b, a, p, a, b, , Example 9., , AB 2 , , BC 2 BC 2, , AD 2, 36, 4, , BC , , EB 2 , , , , AB 2 , , AB 2 AB 2, , AD 2, 36, 4, , , , AB BC , , 36 AB 2 AB 2 9 AB 2, AD 2, 36, , AB 2 CB 2 AC 2 or c 2 a b 2, , , BC, BC, BC, BC , , BD DE 2 3 DE 2 DE 6 , , , , p, , (ii) Since ABC is a right triangle, right angled at C., 2, , BC 2 BC 2, , 36, 4, , AB 2 AD 2 , , , , 28 AB 2, AD 2, 36, , , , 7 AB 2 9 AD 2, In ABC , AD, BE and CF are medians., , Example 10., , , , , , Then 4 AD 2 BE 2 CF 2 , Solution: AB 2 AC 2 2 AD 2 2 BD 2, , 1, 2 AD 2 BC 2, 2, , In an equilateral triangle ABC, the side B is, , trisected at D. Prove that 9 AD2 7 AB 2 ., Solution: ABC be can equilateral triangle and D be point on, 1, BC such that BC BC (Given), 3, Draw AE BC , Join AD., , . . . (i), 1, , , as BD = DC 2 BC , , , , BC 2 AB 2 2 BE 2 , , , , 1, AC 2, 2, , . . . (ii), , A, , A, E, F, C, D, B, , D, , E, , C, , BE EC (Altitude drown from any vertex of an equilateral, triangle bisects the opposite side), So,, , BE EC , , In, , ABC, , BC, 2, , AB AE EB, 2, , 2, , BC 2 AC 2 2CF 2 , , , , , , , , 2 AB 2 BC 2 AC 2, 2, , AD 2 AE 2 ED 2, From (i) and (ii), , B, , . . . (i), . . . (ii), , , , 1, AB 2, 2, , , , 12 AB, , 2 AD 2 BE 2 CF 2 , , , , . . . (iii), , ( AB 2 BC 2 AC 2 ), 4( AD 2 BE 2 CF 2 ), , 2, , BC 2 AC 2, ,
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II.A.102, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , 2., , 3., , In the three altitudes of a are equal then triangle is:, a. isosceles, b. equilateral, c. right angled, d. none, In a XYZ , LM YZ and bisectors YN and ZN of Y &Z, respectively meet at N on LM then YL+ZM =, a. YZ, b. XY, c. XZ, d. LM, P and, In, a PQR , PS is, bisector, of, , Q 70, R 30, then, a. QS > PQ > PR, c. PQ > QS > SR, 4., , b. QS< PQ < PR, d. PQ< QS<SR, , If D is any point on the side BC of a ABC , then:, A, , a. AB + BC + CA > 2AD, b. AB + BC + CA < 2AD, c. AB + BC + CA > 3AD, d. None, , 10. In the following figure, AE BC, D is the mid point of, , BC, then x is equal to:, , a., , A, , 1 2, a2 , 2, b d , 4, a, , b, , c, h, , hd, b., 3, cd h, c., 2, , B, , d, x, , E, , a, , C, , D, , a2 b2 d 2 c2, 4, 11. Two triangles ABC and PQR are similar, if BC : CA : AB, QR, = 1 : 2 : 3 , then, is, PR, , d., , P, , A, C, B, , 5., , For given figure, which one is correct?, D, a. ABC DEF, b. ABC FED, , a., , c. ABC DFE, d. ABC EDF, 6., , 7., , E, , In a right angled triangle. One acute angle is double the other, then the hypotenuse is:, a. Equal to smallest side, b. Double the smallest side, d. Triple the smallest side, d. None of these, In ABC, AD is a median and P is a point is AD such that, AP: PD = 1: 2 then the area of ABP , 1, Area of ABC, 2, 1, c. Area of ABC, 3, , a., , 8., , 2, Area of ABC, 3, 1, d. Area of ABC, 6, , b., , In ABC if D is a point in BC and divides it the ratio 3, : 5 i.e., if BD : DC = 3 : 5 then, area ( ADC ) : area, ( ABC ) = ?, a. 3 : 5, b. 3 : 8, c. 5 : 8, d. 8 : 3, , 9., , The perimeters of two similar triangles are 25 cm and 15, cm respectively. If one side of first triangle is 9 cm, then, the corresponding side of the other triangle is:, a. 6.2 cm, b. 3.4 cm, c. 5.4 cm, d. 8.4 cm, , C, , B, , F, , 2, 3, , b., , 1, 2, , Q, , R, , c., , 1, 2, , d., , 2, 3, , 12. In a triangle ABC, if angle B 90 and D is the point in, BC such that BD = 2 DC, then, a. AC 2 AD 2 3CD 2, , b. AC 2 AD 2 5CD 2, , c. AC 2 AD 2 7CD 2, , d. AC 2 AB 2 5CD 2, , 13. P and Q are the mid points of the sides AB and BC, respectively of the triangle ABC, right-angled at B, then, 4, a. AQ 2 CP 2 AC 2, b. AQ2 CP2 AC2, 5, 5, 3, c. AQ2 CP2 AC2, d. AQ2 CP2 AC3, 4, 5, 14. In a ABC, AD is the bisector of A, meeting side BC at, , D. If AB = 10 cm, AC = 6, cm, BC = 12 cm, find BD., a. 3.3, b. 18, c. 7.5, d. 1.33, , A, , 10cm, , B, , X cm, , 6cm, , D (12 – x) C, , 15. In a triangle ABC, a straight line parallel to BC intersects AB, and AC at point D and E respectively. If the area of ADE is, one-fifth of the area of ABC and BC = 10 cm, then DE equals, a. 2 cm, , b. 2 5 cm, , c. 4 cm, , d. 4 5 cm
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Triangle, , II.A.103, , 16. ABC is a right-angle triangle, right angled at A. A circle is, inscribed in it. The lengths of the two sides containing the, right angle are 6 cm and 8 cm, and then radius of the, circle is, a. 3 cm, b. 2 cm, c. 4 cm, d. 8 cm, 17. If ABC DEF , then DF =, A, 6, , 7.5, , 23. In, , ABC , if, , Area ABD , , Area ADC , a., , BD, DC, , D, , b., , AB, AC, , 4, , c. Both 1 and 2, , AD, , is, , the, , bisector, , A then, , of, , A, , , , E, , B, , F, , C, , D, , d. None, B, , C, , 4.5, , a. 4.5, , E, , b. 5.4, , F, , 3, , c. 6.0, , d. 5.0, , C, 3, , 1, , B, , D, , then DEF and ABC are:, a. Congruent, b. Similar, c. Both 1 and 2, d. None, 20. From the given figure the value of x is _______ if, , DE BC ., , A, 5, D, , E, , 3, , E, , C, , 21. In the figure, BD is the bisector of B, PQ AC., , F, , C, , D, , 25. In the figure AD BE CF and B is the midpoint, , of AC CD intersects BE at x. Then AD + CF, a., , 1, BE, 2, , E, , b. 2BE, 1, AC, 2, , F, , D, x, A, B, , 1, d. DF, 2, , x, a, , B, , d. EDF 30, , c., , 4, , B, , a. EDF 90, c. EDF 60, , 1.2, , 19. If D, E, F are the midpoints of sides BC, CA, AB of ABC, , a. 2.8, b. 2.5, c. 2.4, d. 4, , A, , b. EDF 45, , E, 1.5, A, , bisector of ADB and, , EF BC. Then____, , 18. If ADE ABC, then BC =, a. 4.5, b. 3, c. 3.6, d. 2.4, , 24. In the figure, D is the midpoint of BC and DE is the, , C, , 26. The areas of two similar triangles are 196 cm2 and 169, , cm2. If the median of first one is 4 cm, the other median is, , Then ____, a. RP QR BQ BP, , B, , b. PR BQ QR BP, , P, , a. 7.31, , b. 1.73, , c. 3.71, , d. 1.37, , Q, , 27. If the ratios of areas of two similar triangles are 25 : 16, , R, c. Both 1 and 2, A, d. None of these, D, 22. In, the, following, figures ABC ~ DEF . Then x =_., A, , C, , then the ratios of their corresponding angle-bisector, segments is ____, a. 5 : 4, b. 16 : 25, , D, , c. 4 : 5, 3, B, , a. 6 cm, , 8, , 4, , 2, C, , b. 4 cm, , E, , c. 3 cm, , x, , 3, , d. 625 : 256, F, , d. None, , 28. In the given figure DE BC and DE : BC = 3 : 5 then, , area ADE : ABC is:
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II.A.104, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 33. In ABC, AD is the median then AB 2 AC 2 , , A, , a. AD 2 BD 2, D, , , , E, , B, , C, , b. 25 : 9, d. 9 : 25, CA, 29. In the figure BAC ADC then, , CB, A, a. CB CD, , , , B, , , , B, , triangle, , with, , measurements, , a. equilateral, b. right angled isosceles, c. isosceles, d. right angled triangle, C, , D, , 3 2, a . Then its altitude, 4, , 35. The area of triangle with side ‘a’ is, , DR, then, , SE, , A, , DQ, EP, , C, , EP, DQ, , D, , SE, DR, d. None, , a. 3 a, , b., , 3a, 2, , 2a, 3, , d., , 2a, 3, , 36. In equilateral ABC, AD is altitude. Then, 4 AD 2 , , C, , a, , is:, , c., , b, P, , B, , C, , D, , a 2 p 1 cm, b 2 2 p , c 2 p 1 cm is:, , 30. In the figure PQRS is a square and DEF is equilateral, , b., , 1, AD 2 BD 2, 2, , 34. The, , c., , a., , , , d. AD 2 AE 2, , 2, , CD, CA, d. None, , b. 2 AD 2 BD 2, c., , a. 5 : 3, c. 3 : 5, , b. CA, , A, , A, , a. 2BD2, , c., , b. 2DC2, c. BC 2, , 31. In the figure angle B is obtuse. Then AC 2 , , d. 3AB 2, , A, , B, , C, , D, , 37. In an equilateral ABC , BC is trisected at D. Then, , 7 AB 2 , D, , a. 9DE 2, , C, , B, , A, , b. 9BD 2, , a. AB 2 BC 2 2BC BD, , c. 9AD2, , b. AB 2 BC 2, , B, , d. 9EC 2, , c. AB 2 BC 2 2 BC BD, d. AD 2 BD 2, , 8AB 2 ___, , b. AB 2 BC 2, , , b. 4 AC, , c. AB 2 BC 2 2 BC BD, , c. AP 2 BQ 2, , a. AB BC 2BC BD, , B, , D, , , BC , , a. 4 AQ 2 BP 2, , A, , 2, , d. AB 2 AD 2, , E, , C, , 38. In the figure, P and Q are midpoints of AC and BC. Then, , 32. In the given figure D is right angled. Then AC 2 , 2, , D, , C, , 2, , d. PC 2 CQ 2, , 2, , A, , P, , C, , Q, , B
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Triangle, , II.A.105, , 39. In the figure, CD AB, CD p. Then, c, b, c, b., p, , 40. In the figure, AD BC , BE AC , CF AB then, , c, __, a, , AF 2 BD 2 CE 2 , , D, , a., , a. OA OB OC, 2, , R, , A, , 2, , F, , b. OD 2 OE 2 OF 2, , Q, , c. AB 2 BC 2 AC 2, , S, , p, c., b, db, d., pc, , 2, , E, , d. AE BF CD, 2, , F, , P, , 2, , B, , 2, , O, , E, , C, , D, , ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , b, , d, , b, , a, , c, , b, , d, , c, , c, , a, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , b, , b, , c, , c, , b, , b, , d, , c, , b, , c, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , b, , a, , c, , a, , b, , c, , a, , d, , c, , a, , 31., , 32., , 33., , 34., , 35., , 36., , 37., , 38., , 39., , 40., , c, , a, , b, , d, , b, , d, , c, , a, , b, , d, , SOLUTIONS, x 15, 27, 9. (c) , x, 5 4cm, 9 25, 5, AB, 7, 10, 14. (c), , , AC 12 x 6, 120, 6 x 120 10 x x , 7.5, 16, 17. (d) ABC ~ DEF, AB DE, , AC DF, 6, 4, , , x5, 7.5 x, AE ED, 1.5 1.2, 18. (c), , , , x 3.6, 4.5, AC BC, x, AD AE, 5, 4, 20. (c), , , 8 4 x, AB AC, 20 5 x 32, , 23. (b) In ABC ,, , 12, 2.4, 5, PR BP, 21. (b) In BPQ , , RQ BQ, , , , 5 x 12 x , , 1, BD AL BD AB, 2, , , Area ADC 1 DC AL DC AC, 2, , , , AE AD, AE AD, , , , BE DB, EB DC, AE AF, , EB FC, AD AF, From (i) and (ii), , DC FC, DF is bisector of ADC, , , , EDF 90 (since angle between linear pair bisectors, , 24. (a), , . . . (i), . . . (ii), , is 90°), 25. (b) In ADC BX , , In FDC EX , , 1, AD AD 2 BX, 2, , 1, CF, 2, , CF 2EX, , AD CF 2 BX 2 EX 2 BX EX 2 BE, 26. (c), , , , , Area DEF , Area ABC , , Area DEF , , AX, , DY, , 28. (d), , , , Area ABC , , , , AP2, 196 42, , 2 , DQ, 169 x 2, , , , AX 2, DY 2, , x 3.71 sq cm., , 27. (a), , PR BQ BP RQ, , AC DF, 22. (a), , BC EF, 8 x, , x6, 4 3, , . . . (1), , Area ABC , , , , , , BD AB, , DC AC, , 25, 5 : 4, 16, , Area ADE , Area ABC , , , , DE 2 32, , BC 2 52, , Area ADE : Area ABC 9 : 25
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II.A.106, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 29. (c) ABC ~ DAC (AA similarity), , AD 2 , , BAC ADC (given) ACB DCA, , , , (common), CA CD, , , CB CA, 30. (a) DRQ ~ SEP (AA similarity), , , , DR SE, , DQ EP, , or, , DR DQ, , SE EP, , 1, 2, 1, 37. (c) BD BC , DC BC , EC BC, 3, 3, 2, , AD 2 AC 2 DC 2 2 DC EC, 2, , AC 2 , 2, , AB 2 , , , 2, , , , BD 2 BC 2 2 BC BD, , , , AB 2 BC 2 2 BC BD, 32. (a) AC 2 AD2 DC 2 AD2 BC BD , , , AD, , 2, , 2, , BD2 BC 2 2BC BD, , AC 2 AD 2 BD 2 2 BD DE, , , , 4 BP 2 4 BC 2 AC 2, , , , , , 4 AQ2 BP2 5 AB2, , AB 2 AC 2 2 AD 2 BD 2, , , , 2, , , , b2 2 2 p, , , , 2, , 8p, , 2, , a b 4 p 4 p 1 8 p, 2, , 2, , 4 p 4 p 1 c, , 2, , 35. (b) Given area is the area of equilateral triangle., , altitude , , 1, 1, cp ab, 2, 2, , , , cp ab, , , , c b, , a p, , 2, , , , 1, 1, cp ab, 2, 2, , 40. (d) OB 2 OD 2 BD 2, , OC 2 OD 2 CD 2, , 3, a, 2, , 36. (d) In equilateral triangle the altitude bisects base., 1, BD DC BC, 2, 2, , , , , , 2, , 2, , , , 39. (b) Area ABC , , c2 2 p 1 4 p2 4 p 1, , , , 9 AD 2 7 AB 2, , 1, , BP 2 BC 2 PC 2 BC 2 AC , 2, , , 2, 2, 34. (d) a 2 p 1 4 p 4 p 1, , , , 2 2, AB (since AB BC AC ), 9, , 4 AQ 2 4 AC 2 BC 2, , 33. (b) AB 2 AD 2 BD 2 2 BD DE, , , , 2, BC 2, 9, , 1, , 38. (a) AQ 2 AC 2 QC 2 AC 2 BC , 2, , , , , AB 2 BC 2 2 BC BD, , , , 3 AB 2 4 AD 2, , 2, , 2, 1, , AC 2 BC 2 BC BC , 3, , 3, 2, , , 31. (c) AC 2 AD2 DC 2 AD2 BC BD , , AD, , 1, AB 2 (since AB BC ), 4, , 1, 1, , AB 2 AD 2 BD 2 AD 2 BC AD 2 BC 2, 4, 2, , , , OB 2 OC 2 BD 2 CD 2, , , OC 2 OA2 CE 2 AE 2, , , , OC 2 OA2 BD 2 CD 2, , , , AF 2 BD 2 CE 2 AE 2 BF 2 CD 2, , , , 2
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Quadrilateral, , II.A.107, , 15, , Quadrilateral, , A polygon is a closed shape with three or more straight lines., They have different names depending on how many sides, they have. Quadrilaterals come in the form of numerous, shapes, including squares, rectangles, rhombuses, kites, and, trapezoids, just to name a few. Squares are special rectangles,, are special parallelograms are special quadrilaterals, etc., , A, , C, , A, , B, , B, , D, , By definition a regular polygon is an n-gon ( a polygon with n, sides) with all sides equal in length and all angles equal. A, regular triangle is an equilateral triangle and a regular, quadrilateral is a square, so they both can be constructed using, ruler and compasses. In a regular n-gon each side subtends the, angle at the centre., , C, , D, , Figure: 15.2, , Consider a quadrilateral ABCD as shown alongside. Join A and, C to get the diagonal AC which divides the quadrilateral ABCD, into two triangles ABC and ADC., C, , D, , Quad’ means ‘four’ and ‘lateral’ is for ‘sides’ therefore, ‘quadrilateral’ means ‘a figure bounded by four sides’., A, Square, , Rhombus, , B, Figure: 15.3, , We know the sum of the angles of each triangle is 180 (2 right, angles)., In ABC, CAB B BCA 180 and, , No, parallel, sides, , ABC; DAC D DCA 180, Quadrilateral, , Rectangle, , Kite, 2 Parallel, li, Trapezoid, , 2 Pairs of, Parallel lines, Parallelogram, , Isosceles, Trapezoid, , Figure: 15.1, , On adding, we get:, , CAB DAC B D BCA DCA , 180 180, , A B D C 360, Thus, the sum of the angles of a quadrilateral is 360 (4-right, angles)., Types Of Quadrilaterals, Square: It is a quadrilateral whose all the sides are equal, and each angle is 90. The adjoining figure shows a, , quadrilateral ABCD in which AB = BC = CD = DA and, A B C D 90, therefore ABCD is a square., D, , C, , A, , B, , D, , C, , A quadrilateral is a plane figure with four sides. The, quadrilateral on the left is called a convex quadrilateral because, each of its four interior angles are less than 180. The, quadrilateral on the right is called a non-convex quadrilateral, because one of its interior angles is a reflex angle., , A, , Figure: 15.4, , B
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II.A.108, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Rhombus: It is a quadrilateral whose all the sides are, equal. The adjoining figure shows a quadrilateral ABCD in, which AB=BC=CD=DA; therefore it is a rhombus., D, , C, , Area of Parallelogram: Any side of parallelogram can be, called its base. The length of the line segment which is, perpendicular to the base from the opposite side is called the, altitude or height of the parallelogram corresponding to the, given base., C, , D, B, , A, Figure: 15.5, , Rectangle: It is a quadrilateral whose each angle is 90, A B 90 90 180 AD BC, , A, , L, , B C 90 90 180 AB DC, , D, , C, , A, , C, , B, , A, , B, , C, , L, , M, , R, , S, , Q, , P, , B, , A, , B, , Figure: 15.8, , Rectangle ABCD is a parallelogram Also., Parallelogram: It is a quadrilateral in which both the pairs, of opposite sides are parallel. The adjoining figure shows a, quadrilateral ABCD in which AB is parallel to DC and AD, is parallel to BC, therefore ABCD is a parallelogram., D, , D, , M, , Figure: 15.6, , Trapezium: It is a quadrilateral in which one pair of, opposite sides are parallel. In the quadrilateral ABCD,, drawn alongside, sides AB and DC are parallel, therefore it, is a trapezium., Kite: It is a quadrilateral in which two pairs of adjacent, sides are equal. The adjoining figure shows a, quadrilateral ABCD in which adjacent sides AB and AD, are equal i.e.,AB = AD and also the other pair of adjacent, sides are equal i.e., BC = CD; therefore it is a kite or kite, shaped figure., , In the Adjoining Figure:, DL is the altitude of, , gm, , ABCD, corresponding to the, , base AB., gm, , DM is the altitude of, , ABCD, corresponding to the, , base BC., The area of parallelogram is the product of its base and the, corresponding altitude., Parallelograms on equal bases and between the same, parallels are equal in area., Note, A diagonal of parallelogram divides it into two triangles of, equal area., Parallelograms on the same base or equal base and between, the same parallels are equal in area., D, , C, , D, , F, , E, , C, , A, B, , A, , B, , A, , D, , B, , Figure: 15.9, , A rectangle is also parallelogram., , C, Figure: 15.7, , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , ABCD is a square and P, Q, R are points on AB, BC and, CD respectively such that AP = BQ = CR and, PQR 90, then QPR, a. 45, , 2., , b. 50, , c. 60, , d. 90°, , In a parallelogram ABCD, D 105, then the A and, B will be., , 3., , a. 105, 75, , b. 75,105, , c. 105,105, , d. 75, 75, , In a parallelogram ABCD diagonals AC and BD intersects, at O and AC = 12.8 cm and BD = 7.6 cm, then the, measure of OC and OD respectively equal to:, a. 1.9 cm, 6.4 cm, b. 3.8 cm, 3.2 cm, c. 3.8 cm, 3.2 cm, d. 6.4 cm, 3.8 cm
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Quadrilateral, , 4., , II.A.109, , Two opposite angles of a parallelogram, (3 x 2) and (50 x) then the value of x will be:, a. 17, , b. 16, , c. 15, , are, , d. 13, , 5., , When the diagonals of a parallelogram are perpendicular, to each other then it is called, a. Square, b. Rectangle, c. Rhombus, d. Parallelogram, , 6., , In a parallelogram ABCD, E is the mid-point of side BC. If DE, and AB when produced meet at F then:, , 1, AB, 2, c. AF 4 AB, a. AF , , 7., , 8., , 9., , b. AF 2 AB, , 14. When only one pair of opposite sides of a quadrilateral, parallel to each other it is, C, D, called., a. Square, y, b. Rhombus, x, c. Parallelogram, A, B, d. Trapezium, 15. When the diagonals of a parallelogram are equal but not, perpendicular to each other it is called ., a. Square, b. Rectangle, c. Rhombus, d. Parallelogram, , ABCD is a rhombus with ABC 56, then the ACD, , 16. When each angle of a rhombus equal to 90º, it is called ., a. Square, b. Rectangle, c. Trapezium, d. Parallelogram, , will be:, a. 56, , 17. In the adjoining figure, AP and BP are angle bisectors, of A and B which meets at P on the parallelogram, , d. Data Insufficient, , b. 62, , c. 124, , d. 34, , In a triangle, P, Q and R are the mid-points of the sides, BC, CA and AB respectively. If AC = 16 cm, BC = 20 cm, and AB = 24 cm then the perimeter of the quadrilateral, ARPQ will be., a. 60 cm, b. 30 cm, c. 40 cm, d. None, LMNO is a trapezium with LM O . If P and Q are the, mid-points of LO and MN respectively and LM = 5 cm, and ON = 10 cm then PQ =, a. 2.5 m, b. 5 cm, c. 7.5 cm, d. 15 cm, , 10. In a isosceles trapezium ABCD if A 45 then C, , will be., a. 50, c. 90, , b. 135, d. None, , 11. In a right angle triangle ABC is right angled at B. Given, that AB = 9 cm, AC = 15 cm and D, E are the mid-points, of the sides AB and AC respectively, then the area, of ADE , a. 67.5cm 2, , b. 13.5cm2, , c. 27cm2, , d. Data insufficient, , 12. When the opposite sides of quadrilateral are parallel to, each other then it is called., a. Square, b. Parallelogram, c. Trapezium, d. Rhombus, 13. In the adjoining parallelogram ABCD, the angles x and y, are:, a. 60, 30, b. 30, 60, c. 45, 45, , d. 90, 90, , ABCD. Then 2 APB , , A, , a. C D, , D, , 1, , 2, , b. A C, , P, , c. B D, , 3, B, , d. 2 C, , 4, , C, , 18. In rhombus ABCD, AB 2 BC 2 CD 2 DA2 ?, D, , a. OA2 OB2, b. OB 2 OC 2, A, , c. OC 2 OD 2, , O, , C, , d. AC 2 BD 2, B, , 19. In a parallelogram the sum of the angle bisectors of two, adjacent angle is:, a. 30, b. 45, c. 60, d. 90, 20. In a ABC , D , E and F are respectively, the mid-points of, , BC, CA and AB. If the lengths of side AB, BC and CA are 17, cm, 18 cm and 19 cm respectively, then the perimeter, of DEF equal to:, a. 54 cm, b. 18 cm, c. 27 cm, d. 13.5 cm, 21. From the figure find the value of SQP and QSP of, , parallelogram PQRS., a. 60, 50, , S, , R, , b. 60, 45, c. 70, 35, d. 35, 70, , 70, , P, , 50, , Q
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II.A.110, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , a. 60, 30, , 22. The sides BA and DC of the parallelogram ABCD are, produced as shown in the, C, D, figure then, yo, a, a. a x b y, b. a y b a, d. a b x y, , b. 30, 60, c. 45, 45, , 24. In the adjoining figure, AP and BP are angle bisector of, A and B which meet at a point P of the parallelogram, C, , A, , b. A C, , 2, , c. B D, d. C D, , B, , B, , 26. In a parallelogram ABCD D 600 then the measureement of A, a. 120, , b. 65, , c. 90, , d. 75, , 60, , 75, , Q, , P, , 29. In parallelogram ABCD, AB = 12 cm. The altitudes, corresponding to the sides AB and AD are respectively 9, cm and 11 cm. Find AD., , P, , A, , S, , d. 35, 70, , D, , b. 45, , B, , c. 70, 35, , 1, , 3, 4, , x, , b. 60, 45, , a., , 108, cm, 11, , b., , 108, cm, 10, , d., , 12 cm, , A, , B, , 9 cm, , N, , 11 cm, , 99, c., cm, 10, , O, , d. 90, , A, , a. 45, 60, , 25. In a parallelogram the sum of the angle bisector of two, adjacent angles is:, D, C, a. 30, c. 60, , Y, , d. 90, 90, , 23. The sum of the interior angles of polygon is three times, the sum of its exterior angles. Then numbers of sides in, polygon is:, a. 6, b. 7, c. 8, d. 9, , ABCD. Then 2 APB , a. A B, , C, , 28. From the figure parallelogram PQRS, the values of, SQP and QSP are:, R, , B, , A, , 60, , 30, , x, , b, , c. a b x y, , D, , D, , C, , M, , 108, cm, 17, , 30. In a quadrilateral ABCD, AD = BC. If P, Q, R, S are mid, points of AB, AC, CD and BD respectively. Then ____, R, D, C, a. PQRS is a rhombus, b. PQRS is a square, Q, S, c. PQRS is a rectangle, d. None of these, A, B, P, , 27. In the adjoining figure ABCD, the angles x and y are, ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , AP BQ CR, , a, , b, , d, , d, , c, , b, , b, , c, , c, , b, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , QCR QBP, , c, , b, , a, , d, , b, , a, , a, , d, , d, , c, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , a, , c, , c, , d, , d, , a, , a, , a, , a, , a, , SOLUTIONS, 1. (a) In rhombus diagonals are right bisectors, D, , R, , C, 90, , A, , P, , , , RQ PQ, , , , Therefore PQR is isosceles right triangle., QPR 45., , 4., or, , (d) 3x 2 50 x, 4 x 52, x 13., 50 – x, , Q, B, , PB CQ DR, , 3x – 2
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Quadrilateral, , 7., , II.A.111, , (b), , , , A, , 1, AC 2 BD2 or 4AB 2 AC 2 BD 2, 4, , 111y 4 BC 2 AC 2 BD 2, B, , 56°, , 56°, , D, , 4CD 2 AC 2 BD 2, 4 AD 2 AC 2 BD 2, , C, , 180 56, 62., 2, , , , AD 2 BD 2 AB 2 BC 2 CD 2 AD 2, , 30. (a) PQ , 10. (b), , 1, BC, 2, , 1, 2, , RQ DA, 45°, , A, , 1, 2, , SP DA, , 45°, B, , 1, 2, , 1, 2, , SR BC DA, , c 180 45, c 135., 18. (d) In rhombus diagonals are right bisectors, 2, , 1, 1, , AB 2 OA2 OB 2 AC BD , 2, 2, , , 2, , , , SP RQ and PQ SR, , and PQ RQ SP SR, , , , , , PQRS is a rhombus.
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II.A.112, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 16, , Circle, , Early in primary school, we were placed in circles in the, classroom, where we were taught how to share and take turns., The circle is one of the most common shapes in our daily life,, and indeed the universe. Planets, the movement of the planets,, natural cycles, and natural shapes – there are circles absolutely, everywhere. The circle is one of the most complex shapes, and, indeed the most difficult for man to create, yet nature manages, to do it perfectly. The centres of flowers, eyes, and many more, things are circular and we see them in our everyday life., Without circles the motion wouldn't be created and the wheels, simply wouldn't move properly, or make the car move. Some, examples of circles in real life are camera lenses, pizzas, tires,, Ferris wheels, rings, steering wheels, cakes, pies, buttons and a, satellite's orbit around the Earth., Circle: The locus of a point in a plane, which is at a fixed, distance from a fixed point in the plane, is called a circle. The, fixed point is called the centre of the circle and the fixed, distance is called the radius of the circle. The circle and its, interior make up the circular region., , Minor Segment, , D, , O, , Segment: The region between a chord and either of its arcs, is called a segment of the circular region or simply a, segment of the circle. There are two types of segments also,, which are the major segment and the minor segment (as in, figure)., Sector: The region between an arc and the two radii,, joining the centre to the end points of the arc is called a, sector. In figure, the region OPQ in the minor sector and, the remaining part of the circular region is the major sector., When two arcs are equal, then both segments and both, sectors become the same and each is known as a, semicircular region., Theorem-1: Equal chords of a circle subtend equal angles, at the centre., A, , D, , O, , P, , O, , B, , Major Segment, Minor Sector, (ODAB), , its circumference. c 2 r 2 and area of circle is r 2, , A, , Minor arc ( , AB), , A, , Arc: A piece of a circle between two points is called an arc., If we look at the pieces of the circle between two points P, and Q in figure, The longer one is called the major arc PQ, (or PRQ) and the shorter one is called the minor arc PQ., Circumference: The length of the complete circle is called, , B, Radius (OC), , Center, , B, , C, , Q, , Figure: 16.2, , C, , Diameter (DC), , Major Sector, (ODCB), , Converse of above Theorem: In the angles subtended by the, chords of a circle at the centre are equal, then the chords are equal., Theorem-2: The perpendicular from the centre of a circle to, a chord bisects the chord., , Major arc ( , ADCB), , O, , Figure: 16.1, , Chord: If we take two points P and Q on a circle, then the, line segment PQ is called a chord of the circle. The chord, which passes through the centre of the circle is called a, diameter of the circle. A diameter is the longest chord and, all diameters have the same length, which is equal to two, times the radius., , A, , M, , B, , Figure: 16.3, , Converse of above Theorem: The line drawn through the, centre of a circle to bisect a chord a perpendicular to the, chord.
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Circle, , II.A.113, , Theorem-3: There is one and only one circle passing, through three given non-collinear points., (Note: R R R is only one point in lying on the circle), C, R, R, , Construction : Join AC, AD, BC, BD and AB., P, , R, , O, , A, , S, , Q, , B, Figure: 16.4, , Note, If ABC is a triangle, then by above theorem, there is a unique, circle passing through the three vertices A, B and C of the, triangle. This circle the circumcircle of the ΔABC; its centre, and radius are called respectively the circumcentre and the, circumradius of the triangle., Example 1. In figure, AB CB and O is the centre of the, circle. Prove that BO bisects ΔABC., B, , A, , O, , ΔABO ΔCBO, , Proof : In ΔACB and ΔADB,, AC = AD, BC = BD, AB = AB, ΔACB ADB, , ΔACB ADB., , Hence Proved., , C, , [By cpctc], , BO bisects ABC ., Hence Proved., , Example 3. Prove that the line joining the mid-points of the, two parallel chords of a circle passes through the centre of the, circle., Solution: Let AB and CD be A, L, B, two parallel chords of a circle, whose centre is O. Let l and M, O, X, be the mid-points of the chords, D, AB and CD respectively. Join C, M, PL and OM., Draw, OX AB or CD., , [The perpendicular drawn from the centre of circle to, chord bisects the chord], But, OX AB, , , , C, , , , , D, , . . .(i), , M is the mid-point of the chord CD and O is the centre of, the circle., OMD 90, , [ The perpendicular drawn from the centre of a circle to, a chord bisects the chord], But OX CD, . . .(ii), [ Sum of the consecutive interior angles on the same, side of a transversal is 180 ], , , B, , LOB 90, , [ Sum of the consecutive interior angles on the same, side of a transversal is 180 ], , Example 2. Two circles with centres A and B intersect at C and, D. Prove that ΔACB ΔADB., , A, , [Radii of the same circle], [Radii of the same circle], [Common], [By SSS], [By cpctc], , L is the mid-point of the chord AB and O is the centre of, , the circle., OLB 90, , , Solution: Given: In figure, AB CB and O is the centre of the, circle., To Prove: BO bisects ΔABC., Construction: Join OA and OC., Proof: In ΔOAB and ΔOCB,, OA = OC, [Radii of the same circle], AB = CB, [Given], OB = OB, [Common], ΔOAB ΔOCB, [By SSS], , , , Solution: Given : Two circles with centres A and B intersect, at C and D., To Prove : ΔACB ΔADB., , MOX 90 , , From above equations, we get, LOX MOX 90 90 180, , LOM 180, LM is a straight line passing through the centre of the circle., Hence Proved.
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II.A.114, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Example 4. is a line which intersects two concentric circle, (i.e., circles with the same centre) with common centre O at A,, B, C and D (as in figure). Prove that AB = CD., , In right triangle OMR, OR OM 2 RM 2, [By Pythagoras Theorem], 2, , 2, , or, , , D, , O, , C, , 1, , OR 2 OM 2 RS , 2, , , [ The perpendicular drawn from the centre of a circle, to a chord bisects the chord], 1, 2, 10 OM 2 12 , 2, , , E, B, A, , 2, , 2, or 10 OM 6, 2, , 2, , OM 2 10 6 10 610 6 416 64 8, 2, , Solution: Given: l is a line which intersects two concentric, circles (i.e., circles with the same centre) with common centre, O at A, B, C and D., To Prove : AB = CD., Construction : Draw OE , Proof :, The perpendicular drawn from the centre of a circle to a, , chord bisects the chord., AE = ED, . . .(i), , And BE = EC, . . .(ii), Subtracting (ii) from (i), we get, AE BE ED EC AB = CD., , , , 2, , 2, , OM 8 cm, LM OM OL 8 6 2 cm, , Hence, the distance between PQ and RS, if they lie on he same, side of the centre O, is 2 cm., (ii) Draw the perpendicular bisectors OL and OM of PQ and RS, respectively., , , , PQ RS, , , , OL and OM are in the same lineL, O and M are collinear., Join OP and OR., M, R, S, In right triangle OLP,, , OP2 OL2 PL2, , Hence Proved., , [By Pythagoras Theorem], , Example 5. PQ and RS are two parallel chords of a circle, whose centre is O and radius is 10 cm. If PQ = 16 cm and RS =, 12 cm, find the distance between PQ and RS, if they lie., (i) on the same side of the centre O., (ii) on opposite sides of the centre O., Solution: (i) Draw the perpendicular bisectors OL and OM of, PQand RS respectively, , or, , O, 2, , , , PQ RS, , , , OL and OM are in the same, line., O, L and M are collinear., Join OP and OR. In right, triangle OLP,, , OP 2 OL2 PL2, , M, , 10 , , 2, , 1, , OL2 16 , 2, , , , 100 OL2 8, , 2, , 2, , or, , 100 OL2 64, , or, , OL2 36 6, , 2, , Therefore, OL 6 cm, , L, R, , a chord bisects the chord], , OL2 100 64, , O, P, , 1, , Q, P, L, OP 2 OL2 PQ , 2, , [ The perpendicular drawn from the centre of a circle to, , Q, S, , In right triangle OMR,, , OR 2 MO 2 RM 2 [By Pythagoras Theorem], 2, , 1, , OR 2 MO 2 12 , 2, , [The perpendicular drawn, from the centre of a circle to a, chord bisects the chord], , [By Pythagoras Theorem], 2, , 1, 2, 10 OL2 pq , 2, , [ The perpendicular drawn from the centre of a circle to, a chord bisects the chord], , 10 , , 2, , 2, 2, 1, , 100 OL 16 or 100 OL 8, 2, , , 2, , 2, , 1, , MO 2 RS , 2, , , , A, , O, , N, , M, B, , D, , or, , 100 OL2 64, , or, , OL2 100 64, , or, , 10, , or, , OL2 36 (6)2, , or, , OL 6 cm, , or, , MO2 10 6 10 610 6 416 64 8, , 2, , MO2 6, , 2, , C, , 2, , 2, , 2, , 2
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Circle, , II.A.115, , or, , OM = 8 cm, , ∴, , LM = OL + OM = 6 + 8 = 14 cm, , Hence, the distance between PQ and RS, if they lie on the, opposite side of the centre O, is 14 cm., Theorem-4: Equal chords of a circle (or of congruent, circles) are equidistant from the centre (or centers’)., A, , P, , E, , C, , Q, , Note:Chords equidistant from the centre of a circle are equal in, length., Example 6. AB and CD are equal chords of a circle whose, centre is O. When produced, these chords meet at E. Prove, that EB = ED, Solution: Given: AB and CD are equal chords of a circle, whose centre is O. When produced, these chords meet at E., To Prove : EB = ED., Construction : From O draw OP ⊥ AB and OQ ⊥ CD. Join OE., , 1, 1, PE − AB = QE − CD, 2, 2, PE − PB = QE − CD, , [Given], [Common], [Each = 90° ], [By AAS], , OR = OQ, , [By cpctc], , AB = CD, [∵ Chords of a circle which are equidistant from the, centre are equal], Some Important Theorems, Theorem 1: Equal chords of a circle subtend equal angles, at the centre., P, O, S, , Q, , Theorem 2: If the angles subtended by the chords at the, centre (of a circle) are equal then the chords are equal., P, , [By cpctc], , O, S, , [∴AB = CD (Given)], Q, , EB = ED, Hence Proved., , Example 7. AB and CD are the, chords of a circle whose centre is O., They intersect each other at P. If PO, be the bisector of ∠ APD, prove that, AB = CD., OR, In the given figure, O is the centre, of the circle and PO bisect the angle, APD. Prove that AB = CD., , R, , R, , Now in right tingles OPE and OQE,, OE = OE, [Common], Side OP = Side OQ, [Proved above], ∴ OPE ≅ ∆OQE, [By RHS], OE = QE, , Q, , ∆ORP ≅ ∆OPQ, , Proof :, ∴ AB = CD, [Given], ∴ OP = OQ, [∴ Equal chords of a circle are equidistant from the centre], , ∴, , O, , OQ ⊥ CD ., , And ∠ ORP = ∠ OQP, , D, , S, , P, , Construction : Draw OR ⊥ AB and, Proof: In ∆OPR and ∆OPQ,, ∠ OPR = ∠ OPQ, OP = OP, , B, , O, , Solution: Given : AB and CD are the, chords of a circle whose centre is O., They interest each other at P. PO is, the bisector of ∠ APD., To Prove : AB = CD., , R, , A, R, , C, , O, , P, B, , pQ, D, , Corollary 1: Two arc of a circle are congruent, if the, angles subtended by them at the centre are equal., Corollary 2: If two arcs of a circle are equal, they subtend, equal angles at the centre., Corollary 3: If two arc of a circle are congruent (equal),, their corresponding chords are equal., Corollary 4: If two chords of a circle are equal, their, corresponding arc are also equal. Chord AB = Chord CD, , ∴ Arc APB = Arc COD.
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II.A.116, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Theorem-3: The angle subtended by an arc at the centre is, double the angle subtended by it at any point on the, remaining part of the circle., , D, C, , An arc PQ of a circle subtending angles POQ at the centre, O and PAQ at a point A on the remaining part of the circle., POQ 2PAQ ., A, , A, , A, , P, , P, , Q, , O, , O, Q, , O, , B, , R, , (A), , (B), , (C), A, , Proof : There arises three cases:, (A) Arc PQ is minor, (B) Arc PQ s a semicircle, (C) Arc PQ is major., , C, , O, P, , Q, , Theorem-4: Angles in the same segment of a circle are, equal., A, , C, , P, , Q, , O, , B, , Corollary: If the sum of a pair of opposite angles of a, quadrilateral is 180 then quadrilateral is cyclic., Note, If the nonparallel sides of a trapezium are equal, then it is, cyclic., A cyclic parallelogram is a rectangle., , B, , Q, , A, , Example 8. Bisectors of angles A, B and C of a triangle ABC, intersect its circumcircle at D, E and F respectively. Prove that, the angles of the triangle DEF are, E, , 1, 1, A, 90 B and, 2, 2, C, 90 , ., 2, Solution: Given: Bisectors of angles, A, B and C of a triangle ABC, intersect its circumcircle at D, E and, F respectively., 90 , , To, Theorem-5: Angle in the semicircle is a right angle., Theorem-6: If a line segment joining two points subtend, equal angles at two other points lying on the same side of, the line containing the line segment the four points lie on a, circle (i.e., they are concyclic)., D, , C, , E’, , E, , Prove:, , Cyclic Quadrilateral: A quadrilateral ABCD is called, cyclic if all the four vertices of it lie on a circle., Theorem-7 : The sum of either pair of opposite angles of a, cyclic quadrilateral is 180, , of, , F, , D, B, , the, , DEF, , are, , C, A, B, , 90 , and 90 , respectively., 2, 2, 2, Construction: Join DE, EF and FD., Proof: FDE FDA EDA FCA EBA, [ Angles in the same segment are equal ], 1, 1, C B 180 A, , C B D , 2, 2, 2, 2, [In ABC, A B C 180 ], , Similarly,, B, , angles, , C, , 90 , , D 90 , , A, , The, , A, , A, 2, we, , can, , show, , that, , C, B, and F 90 , 2, 2, Hence Proved., Example 9. Find the area of a triangle, the radius of whose, circumcircle is 3 cm and the length of the altitude drawn from, the opposite vertex to the hypotenuse is 2 cm., E 90
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Circle, , II.A.117, , Solution: We know that the hypotenuse of a right angled, triangle is the diameter of its circumcircle., A, BC 2OB 2 3 6 cm, Let, AD BC AD 2 cm[Given], , Area of ABC , , 1, BC AD , 2, , B, , D, , O, , C, , 1, 6 2 6 cm 2 Ans., 2, Example 10. In figure, O is the centre of the circle. Prove, that x y z, A, , 1, 1, EOF z, 2, 2, x, [Angle subtended by an arc of a, circle at the centre in twice the angle, subtended by it at any point of the, B, D, remaining part of the circle], 1, C, ABF 180 z . . . (i), Oy, 2, z, [Linear Pair Axiom], E, F, 1, 1, EDF EOF z, 2, 2, , [ Angle subtend by any arc of a circle at the centre is twice, the angle subtended by it at any point of the remaining part of, the circle.], 1, ADE 180 z . . . (ii) [Linear Pair Axiom], 2, BCD ECF y [Vert. Opp. Angle], Solution: EBF , , BAD x, In quadrilateral ABCD, ABC BCD CDA BAD 2 180, [Angle Sum Property of a quadrilateral], 1, 1, 180 z y 180 z x 2 180, 2, 2, , x, , , y, , , z, or, Hence Proved., Example 11. Prove that the quadrilateral formed by angle, bisectors of a cyclic quadrilateral is also cyclic., A, 2, , 3, , B, , R, S, , 14, , Q, , P, D, , 5, , 6, , C, , Solution: Given: ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral. Its angle, bisectors from a quadrilateral PQRS., To Prove : PQRS is a cyclic quadrilateral., Proof : 1 2 3 180, . . . (i), , [ Sum of the angles of a APB is 180 ], , 4 5 6 180, , . . . (ii), , [ Sum of the angles of a DRC is 180 ], , 1 2 3 4 5 6 360, , . . . (iii), , [Adding (i) and (ii)], But 2 3 6 5 , , 1, A B C D, 2, , = ½ ( 360) = 180, [ Sum of the angles of quadrilateral is 360 ], 1 4 360 2 3 6 5 , , 1 + 4 = 180, So, PQRS is a cyclic quadrilateral., [ If the sum of any pair of opposite angles of a quadrilateral, is 180 , then the quadrilateral is a cyclic], Hence Proved., Example 12. Two concentric circles with centre O have A, B,, C, D as the points of intersection, with the line as shown in the, figure. If AD 12 cm and, O, BC 8 cm, find the length of, AB, CD, AC and BD., , E, A B, C D, Solution: Since OM BC , a, , chord of the circle, is bisects BC., , 1, 1, BC 8 4 cm, 2, 2, Since, OM AD , a chord of the circle, it bisects AD., BM CM , , 1, 1, AD 8 4, 2, 2, Since, OM CD , a chord of the circle, it bisects AD., AM AD , , 1, 1, AD 12 6 cm, 2, 2, Now, AB BM 6 4 2 cm, CD MD MD 6 4 2 cm, AC AM MC 6 4 10 cm, BD BM MD 4 6 10 cm, Example 13. OABC is a rhombus whose three vertices, A B, and C lie on a circle with centre O. If the radius of the circle is, 10 cm. Find the area of the rhombus., A, Solution: Since OABC is a rhombus, 10 cm, OA = AB = BC, O, B, = OC = 10 cm, Now, OD BC, D, AM MD , , and CD , , 1, 1, BC 10 5 cm, 2, 2, , C
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II.A.118, , A Complete Study Guide For NTSE, , By Pythagoras theorem,, OC 2 OD2 DC 2, OD2 OC 2 CD2 10 5 100 25 75, 2, , 2, , Example 15. ABCD is a parallelogram. The circle through A,, B, C intersects CD (produced if necessary) at E. Prove that AD, = AE., , OD 75 5 3, , E, , 1, 1, Area ( OBC) BC × OD 10 5 3 25 3 sq. cm., 2, 2, Example 14. Chords AB and CD of a circle with centre O,, intersect at a point E. If OE objects AED. Prove that, AB CD ., A, O, E, , M, , D, , Solution: In OLE and OME, OLE OME, [ 90 each], , and, , OE OE, , OLE OME, , , OL OM, , Solution: Given: ABCD is a parallelogram. The circle through, A, B, C intersects CD, when produced in E., To prove: AE AD, , From (i) and (ii), we get, 1 2 3 4, , . . . (iii), , But, , [Common], , From (iii) and (iv), we get 1 4, , [By AAS Criteria], , Now in ADE, since 1 4, , [By cpctc], , Multiple Choice Questions, 1. If two circular wheels rotate on a horizontal road then locus, of their centres will be:, a. Circles, b. Rectangle, c. Two straight line, d. Parallelogram, 2. In a plane locus of a centre of circle of radius r, which, passes through a fixed point., a. Rectangle, b. A circle, c. A straight line, d. Two straight line, 3. In a circle of radius 10 cm, the length of chord whose, distance is 6 cm from the centre is:, a. 4 cm, b. 5 cm, c. 8 cm, d. 16 cm, , 5., , B, , [Given], , This chords AB and CD are equidistant from centre. But we, know that only equal chords are equidistant from centre., AB DC, , , 4., , 2, A, , [opposite angles of a cyclio quadrilateral are supplementary], 3 4 180 [linear pair], . . . (ii), Also, , B, , LEO MEO, , C, , Proof: Since ABCE is a cyclic quadrilateral, 1 2 180, . . . (i), , L, C, , D, 4, 1 3, , If a chord a length 8 cm is situated at a distance of 3 cm, form centre, then the diameter of circle is:, a. 11 cm, b. 10 m, c. 12 cm, d. 15 cm, In a circle the lengths of chords which are situated at a, equal distance from centre are:, a. double, b. four times, c. equal, d. three times, , 2 3, , . . .(iv), , AD AE, [Sides opp. to equal angles of a triangle are equal], Hence Proved, , 6., , In the given circle ABCD, O is the, and B D E 4 2 . The BAC is equal to:, D, , C, , 42, , B, , A, , a . 48°, c. 42°, 7., , centre, , b. 45°, d. 60°, , In the diagram, O is the centre of the circle. The CBD, is equal to:, , O, , C, , 50, , D, , B, A, , a. 25°, , b. 50°, , c. 40°, , d. 130°
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Circle, , II.A.119, , 8., , The length of a chord a circle is equal to the radius of the, circle. The angle which this chord subtends on the longer, segment of the circle is equal to:, a. 30°, b. 45°, c. 60°, d. 90°, , 9., , In the given figure, if C is the centre of the circle and, PC 25 and PRC 15 , then QCR is equal to:, a. 40°, , b. 60°, , c. 80°, , d. 120°, , 10. In a cyclic quadrilateral if B D 60 , then the, smaller of the angles B and D is:, a. 30°, b. 45°, c. 60°, d. 75°, 11. Three, , wires, , of, , length 1 , 2 , 3 from, , a, , triangle, , surmounted by another circular wire, If 3 is the diameter, and 3 2 1 , then the angle between 1 and 3 will be:, a. 30°, , b. 60°, , c. 45°, , d. 90°, , 12. In a circle with centre O, OD chord AB. If BC is the, , diameter, then:, a. AC = BC, c. AC = 2OD, , b. OD = BC, d. None of these, , 13. In the diagram two equal circles of radius 4 cm intersect, each other such that each passes through the centre of the, other. Find the length of, A, the common chord., a. 2 3 cm, b. 4 3 cm, , C1, , c. 4 2 cm, d. 8 cm, , C2, , B, , 14. The sides AB and DC of cyclic quadrilateral ABCD are, produced to meet at P, the sides AD and BC are produced, to meet at Q. If ADC 85 and BPC 40 , then, CQD equals., a. 30°, b. 45°, c. 60°, d. 75°, 15. In the given figure, if ACB 40, DPB 120 then, , y will be:, a. 40°, b. 30°, c. 0°, d. 60°, 16. Any cyclic parallelogram is a:, a. rectangle, b. rhombus c. trapezium d. square, 17. The locus of the centre of all circles of given radius r, in, the same planes, passing through a fixed point is:, a. A point, b. A circle, c. A straight line, d. Two straight lines, 18. In a cyclic quadrilateral if A C 70, then the greater, , of the angles A and C is equal to:, a. 95°, b. 105°, c. 125°, , d. 115°, , 19. In the given figure, CAB 80 , ABC 40 . The sum, of D A B A B D is equal to:, D, C, a. 80°, b. 100°, c. 120°, 80 40, B, A, d. 140°, 20. If a trapezium is cyclic then,, a. Its parallel sides are equal., b. Its non-parallel sides are equal., c. Its diagonals are not equal., d. None of these above, 21. PT is the tangent drawn from P. If the radius is 7 cm; and, OP is 25 cms. Then the length of the tangent is:, a. 18 cm, T, b. 12.5 cm, 7, P, c. 24 cm, O, 25, d. 16 cm, 22. If OP = 10 cm and PT = 8 cm; then radius of the circle is:, T, a. 6 cm, 8, b. 9 cm, ?, P, c. 7 cm, O, 10, d. 4 cm, 23. ‘d’ is the distance between the centres. The radii are R and, r. Then length of the direct common tangent is:, a. d 2 R r , 2, c. d R r , , b. d 2 R r , , 2, , d. d2 Rr, , 2, , 2, , 2, , 24. If d 5 cm; R 2.5 ; r 1.5 cm; then the length of the, direct common tangent is:, a. 3, , b. 4, , c. 2 6, , d. 3 2, , 25. If ‘d’ is the distance between the centres and R, r are radii,, then the length of the common transverse is:, a. d 2 R r , c. d 2 R r , , 2, , b. d 2 R r , , 2, , 2, , d. d 2 R r , , 2, , 26. The area of a circle is 2464 m2, then the diameter is:, a. 56 m, b. 154 m, c. 176 m, d. None, 27. A circular grass lawn of 35 m in radius has a path 7 m wide, running around it on the outside. The area of the path is:, a. 1496 m2, b. 1450 m2 c. 1576 m2 d. 1694 m2, 28. If the radius of a circle is, , 7, , , , cm, then the area of the, , circle is:, a. 154 cm2, , b., , 49, , , , cm 2, , c. 22 cm2, , d. 49 cm2
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II.A.120, , A Complete Study Guide For NTSE, , 30, , 29. If the circumference of a circle is, , , , , then the diameter, , of the circle is:, a. 60 , , b., , 15, , c., , , , 30, , , , d. 30, , 2, , 30. If the ratio of circumference of two circles is 4 : 9, the, ratio of their area is:, a. 9 : 4, b. 16 : 81, c. 4 : 9, d. 2 : 3, 31. If the area of a circle is A, radius of the circle is r and, circumference of it is C, then, a. r C 2 A, , b., , C r, , A 2, , c. AC , , r2, 4, , d., , A, C, r, , 32. The area of a sector of a circle of radius 16 cm cut off by, an arc which is 18.5 cm long is:, a. 168 cm2, b. 148 cm2, c. 154 cm2, d. 176 cm2, 33. The area of the largest triangle that can be inscribed in a, semicircle whose radius is r cm is:, a. 2r cm2, , b. r2 cm2, , b. 2 3 cm, , c. 10 3 cm, , d. 14 3 cm, , 36. The circumference of a circle is 35.2 cm. The radius of, the circle is:, a. 2.8 cm, b. 7 cm, c. 5.6 cm, d. 14 cm, 37. The diagram shows an isosceles triangle and a semicircle, with centre O. Given that the radius of the semicircle is 2.8, cm, find the perimeter of the whole diagram., a. 15.6, 5 cm, 2.8 cm, b. 18.8, O, c. 16.8, d. 20.4, 38. The diagram shows a right-angled triangle and a, semicircle. PQ is the diameter of the semicircle. The, perimeter of the whole diagram is: R, a. 13 8, c. 18 + 6, , 34. A wire bent in the form of a circle of radius 42 cm is cut, and again bent in the form of a square. The ratio of the, regions enclosed by the circle and the square in the two, cases is given by:, a. 11 : 12, b. 21 : 33, c. 22 : 33, d. 14 : 11, 35. The radius of a circle is 20 cm. Three more concentric, circles are drawn inside it in such a manner that it is, divided into four parts of equal area. The radius of cone of, the three concentric circles is:, , 13 cm, , b. 30 + 5, , r, d. cm2, 2, , c. 2r2 cm2, , a. 8 3 cm, , P, , 12 cm, , d. 18 + 5, , 5 cm, Q, , 39. When the circumference and area of a circle are, numerically equal, then the diameter is numerically, equal to:, a. area, b. circumference, c. 2, d. 4, 40. If the ratio of areas of two circles is 16 : 25 the ratio of, their circumference is:, a. 25 : 16, b. 5 : 4, c. 4 : 5, d. 3 : 5, , ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , 4. (b), , c, , b, , d, , b, , c, , a, , a, , a, , c, , c, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , r 5, , b, , c, , b, , a, , b, , a, , b, , c, , c, , b, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , c, , a, , b, , c, , a, , a, , d, , d, , c, , b, , 31., , 32., , 33., , 34., , 35., , 36., , 37., , 38., , 39., , 40., , a, , b, , b, , d, , c, , c, , b, , c, , d, , c, , AB 16., , 10, , 6, A, , x, , B, , 3, , 10cm., 9., , r, 4, , (c) QPR 25 15 40, , QCR 2QPR., 10. (c) B D 180, B D 60, 2B 240, B 120,, , SOLUTIONS, 3. (d) x = √100 – 36, x = √64, x 8cm, , D 2r, , r 32 42, , D 60., , …(i), …(ii)
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Circle, , II.A.121, , 15. (b) y , , 180 120, 30., 2, , 31. (a) A r 2 , , , 18. (c), , rc, 2, , rc 2 A, , 32. (b) A 1 lr 1 18.5 16 148 cm2., , 2A, , 33. (b) Angle in a semicircle is a right angle. We have, the, largest triangle is having diameter of the circle as base, , 2, , 250, , 2, , C 60, , height 1 2 r r r 2 cm2., , D 60, , 2, , Therefore DAB ABD 180 60 120., , 34. (d) Length of wire 2 42 84 cm., , Let x be the side of the square., We have, 4 x 84 x 21, , 21. (c) PT 252 7 2 576, , PT 24., , Area of the circle : Area of the square, , 2, 2, 22. (a) r 10 8 36 6cm., , 26. (a), , d, 4, , 2, , 2464 , d 2 , , 42 :, 2, , 2464 4, 3136, 22 / 7 , , d 3136 56 m., , 27. (d) r 35 m, , 35, , R r R r , , 7m, , 22, 7, 7, 2, , , 49 cm ., 7, , , , 29. (c) 2 r , , 30, , , , 2r , , 30, , 4 : 4:, , , , Area of the largest circle 3 area of given circle.We, 4, , 4, , r2 , , 3, 20 20 300, 4, , r 300 10 3 cm., , 39. (d) Circumference = area 2 r r , , , 30. (b) Given that C1 : C2 4 : 9, , A1 : A2 16 : 81, , 22 14 : 11, 7, , have, r 2 3 20 2, , 2, , A1 C12 42 16, , , ,, A2 C22 92 81, , 2, , 42 42 : 21 21 , , 22, , 42 35 42 35 1697 m2., 7, , 28. (d) r 2 , , 21 , , 35. (c) Suppose r is the radius of the largest of the three, circles., , R, , R 35 7 42 m, Area of circular path, , We have,, , 2, , and radius as its height. Area of the triangle 1 base ×, , 19. (c) C 180 80 40, , , , 2, , , , A C 180, A C 70, , A 125., , , , r 2 r , , r 2, , Diameter 2r 2 2 4, , 40. (c) We have, A1 : A2 16 : 25, , , , , , C1, , C2, , A1, 16 4, , , A2, 25 5, , The ratio of circumferences is 4 : 5.
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II.A.122, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 17, , Pair of Linear Equations, , Linear equations use one or more variables where one variable, is dependent on the other. While most students learn about, linear equations in a classroom, they can be applied outside, school in the real world. Almost any situation where there is an, unknown quantity can be represented by a linear equation., Linear equations can be used to represent variable costs, rates,, budget entries and numerical predictions., If you've ever doubled a favourite recipe, you've applied a, linear equation. If one cake equals 1/2 cup of butter, 2 cups of, flour, 3/4 tsp. of baking powder, three eggs and 1 cup of sugar, and milk, then two cakes equal 1 cup of butter, 4 cups of flour,, 1 1/2 tsp. of baking powder, six eggs and 2 cups of sugar and, milk. To get twice the output, you put in twice the input. You, might not have known you were using a linear equation, but, that's exactly what you did., It's not hard to see other similar situations. If you want to buy, ice cream for the big party and you've got Rs. 1000 in your, pocket, a linear equation tells you how much you can afford., Whether you need to bring in enough wood for the fire to burn, overnight, calculate your paycheck, figure out how much paint, you need to redo the upstairs bedrooms or buy enough gas to, make it to and from your Aunt Sylvia's, linear equations, provide the answers. Linear systems are, literally, everywhere., "Linear" equations are equations with just a plain old variable, x, like "x", rather than something more complicated like x or, y, 2, , or square roots or such., , Linear Equations in Two Variables: An equation of the form, , Ax By C 0 is called a linear equation., Where, A is called coefficient of x, B is called coefficient of y, and C is the constant term (free form x and y), A , B , C R belongs, to R Real number , , But A and B ca not be simultaneously zero., If A B, B 0 equation will be of the form Ax C 0., [Line || to y-axis], If A 0, B 0, equation will be of the form By C 0., [Line || to x-axis], If, , A 0, B 0, C 0 equation, , Ax By 0., If, , will, , be, , means, , that, , each, , equation, , gives, , new, , Otherwise they are "Dependent". they are also called "Linear, Independence" and "Linear Dependence"., Example: x y 3, , 2x 2 y 6, Those equations are "Dependent", because they are really the, same equation, just multiplied by 2., So, the second equation gave no new information., , the, , form, , [Line passing through origin], , A 0, B C , C 0 equation, , will, , be, , of, , the, , form, , Ax By C 0., It is called a linear equation in two variable because the two, unknown (x and y) occurs only in the first power, and the, product of two unknown equalities does not occur., Since it involves two variable therefore a single equation will, have infinite set of solution i.e. indeterminate solution. So we, require a pair of equation i.e. simultaneous equations., Example 1. Prove that x 1, y 1 as well as x 2, y 5 is a, , solution of 4 x y 3 0., Solution: Given eq. is 4 x y 3 0, , "Independent", information., , of, , . . . (i), , First we put x 1, y 1 in L.H.S. of eq (i), Here, , L.H.S. 4 x y 3 4 1 1 3 4 4 0 R.H.S., , Now,, , we put x 2, y 5 in eq. (i), , L.H.S. 4 x y 3 4 2 5 3 8 8 0 R.H.S., Since,, , x 1, y 1 and x 2, y 5 both pair satisfied in, , given equation therefore they are the solution of given, equation.
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Pair of Linear Equations, , II.A.123, , 2 x 3 5; 2 x 5 3 2 x 2; x 1, , Straight Line: The intercept from is y mx c where, m is the, , slope of line and c is intercept made by line with c. If a line makes, an angle with positive direction of x-axis then tangent of this, angle is called the slope of a line, it is denoted by m i.e. m tan ., Y, , y mx c, , B, , A, , II. Substitution Method:, Example 3. Solve x 4 y 14, , . . . (i), , 7x – 3y 5, , . . . (ii), , Solution: From equation (i) x 14 4 y, , Substitute the value of x in equation (ii), , , , X, , x 1, y 1, , , , 7 14 4 y 3 y 5; 98 28 y 3 y 5, , X, , O, , 98 31y 5;93 31y, OB = c, m = tan, , y, , , , Now substitute value of y in equation (ii) 7 x 3 3 5, , Y, , The equation of a line passing through origin is y mx., , 7 x 14; x , , Here c 0 then the line passes always from origin., x y, 1 where a and b are, a b, intercepts on positive direction of x-axis and y-axis, respectively made by line., , Intercept from of line is, , Y, , So, solution is x 2 and y 3, III. Elimination by Cross Multiplication:, a1 x b1 y c1 0, a2 x b2 y c2 0, , , , y mx, , b, , A, , O, , a, , X, , X, , X, , O, , Solutions of Two Variables Equations, I . By Elimination of Making Equal Coefficient:, Example, 2., Solve, 2 x 3 y 5, 3x 2 y 1, Solution: Given equations are, 2x 3y 5, , 3x 2 y 1, , the, , following, , equations, , . . . (i), , b1, , b2, , c2 a2, , b2, , x, 1, , b1c2 b2 c1 a1b2 a2 b1, , , , , , , , x, , Also,, , b1 c2 b2 c1, a1b2 a 2 b1, , y, 1, , a 2 c1 a1c2 a1b2 a 2 b1, , y a 2 c1 a1c2, , a1b2 a 2 b1, , Example 4. Solve, 3x 2 y 25 0, , 9 y 4 y 15 2, , . . . (ii), , Sol. Here, a1 3, b1 2, c1 25, , 13 y 13, , 13, ; y 1, 13, Put the value of y in eq. (i) we get 2 x 3 1 5, , . . . (i), , x y 15 0, , 6 x 4 y 2, , y, , c1 a1, , . . . (ii), , Multiplying equation (i) by 3 and equation(ii) by 2 we get, On subtraction 6 x 9 y 15, , , , b1, , a1 b1 , , a2 b2 , [Write the coefficient in this manner], , x, y, 1, , , b1c2 b2 c1 a2 c1 a1c2 a1b2 a2 b1, , Y, , Y, , , , 14, 2, 7, , Y, , B, X, , 93, ; y3, 31, , a2 1, b2 1, c2 15, , , , 2, , 25, , 3, , 2, , 1, , 15, , 1, , 1
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II.A.124, , , , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , x, y, 1, , , ;, 2 15 25 1 25 1 15 3 3 1 2 1, x, y, 1, , , 30 25 25 45 3 2, , and y 7, Hence number is 75., , , , x, y, 1, , , 5 20 1, , , , x, y, 1, 1,, , 20 1, 5, , Example 8. The sum of a two-digit number and the number, obtained by reversing the order of its digits is 165. If the digits, differ by 3, find the number., Solution: Let unit digit be x ten’s digit be y no. will be, 10 y x., , , , x 5, y 20, , Acc. to problem: 10 y x 10 x y 165, , . . . (i), , So, solution is x = 5 and y = –20., , x y 15, , Example 5. Find two numbers such that the sum of twice the, first and thrice the second is 89 and four times the first exceeds, five times the second by 13., Solution: Let the two numbers be x and y., Then, equation formed are, 2 x 3 y 89, . . . (i), , 4 x 5 y 13, Hence required numbers are 22 and 15., , Example 6. The numerator of a fraction is 4 less than the, denominator If the numerator is decreased by 2 and the, denominator is increased by 1, then the denominator is eight, times the numerator, find the fraction., Solution: Let the numerator and denominator of a fraction be x, and y, Then, equation formed are, yx 4, . . . (i), , . . . (ii), , On solving eq. (i) and (ii) we get, x 3 and y 7, 3, Hence, fractions is ., 7, , Example 7. A number consists of two digits, the sum of the, digits being 12. If 18 is subtracted from the number, the digits, are reversed. Find the number, Solution: Let the two digits number be 1y x, , Then, equations formed are, 10 y x 18 10 x y y x 2, , . . . (i), , And x y 12, , . . . (ii), , On solving eq. (i) and (ii) we get x 5, , or, , x y 3, , . . . (ii), . . . (iii), , On solving eq. (i) and (ii) we gets x 9 and y 6, The number will be 69., On solving eq. (i) and (iii) we gets x 6 and y 9, The number will be 96., , . . . (ii), , On solving eq. (i) and (ii) we get x 22 , y 15, , y 1 8 x 2, , and x y 3, , . . . (i), , Example 9. Six years hence a men’s age will be three times the, age of his son and three years ago he was nine times as old as, his son. Find their present ages., Solution: Let man’s present age be x yrs and son’s present age, be ‘y’ yrs., , According to problem: x 6 3 y 6, , [After 6 yrs], , and x 3 9 y 3, , [Before 3 yrs.], , On solving equation (i) and (ii) we gets x 30, y 6., So, the present age of man = 30 years, present age of son =, 6 years., Example 10. A boat goes 12 km upstream and 40 km, downstream in 8 hrs. It can go 16 km. upstream and 32 km, downstream in the same time. Find the speed of the boat it still, water and the speed of the stream., Solution: Let the speed of the boat in still water be x km/hr and, the speed of the stream be y km/hr then speed of boat in, , downstream is x y km/hr and the speed of boat upstream, is x y km/hr., Time taken to cover 12 km upstream, , , 12, hrs, x y, , Time taken to cover 40 km downstream, , , 40, hrs, x y
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Pair of Linear Equations, , II.A.125, , Example 13. In a cyclic quadrilateral, , But, total time taken 8 hr, , , 12, 40, , 8, x y x y, , ABCD, A 2 x 11 ,, , . . . (i), , B y 12 ,, , Time taken to cover 16 km upstream, , C 3 y 6 , , 16, , hrs., x y, Time taken to cover 32 km downstream , , and D 5x 25 ,, 0, , 32, hrs., x y, , Find the angles of the quadrilateral., Solution: Acc. to problem, , 2 x 11 3 y 6 180, y 12 5x 25 180, , Total time taken = 8 hr, , , 16, 32, , 8, x y, x y, , . . . (ii), , Solving equation (i) and (ii) we gets x 6 and y 2, Hence, speed of boat in still water = 6 km/hr, and speed of stream = 2 km/hr, Example 11. Ramesh travels 760 km to his home partly by, train and partly by car. He taken 8 hr, if he travels 160 km by, train and the rest by car. He takes 12 minutes more, if he, travels 240 km by train and the rest by car. Find the speed of, train and the car., Solution: Let the speed of train be x km/hr and car be y km/hr, respectively., Acc. to problem, 160 600, , 8, x, y, , . . . (i), , 240 520 41, , , x, y, 5, , . . . (ii), , Hence , speed to train = 80 km/hr, and speed of car = 100km/hr., Example 12. Points A and B are 90 km apart from each other, on a highway. A car starts from A and another from B at the, same time. If they go in the same direction, they meet in 9 hrs, 9, hrs. Find, 7, , their speeds., Solution: Let the speeds of the cars starting from A and B be x, km/hr and y km/hr respectively., Acc. to problem, 9 x 90 9 y, . . . (i), and, , 9 9, y 90, 7 7, , and y , , 416, 13, , 429, x 32, 13, , and y 33, A 75, B 45,, C 105, D 135, , Example 14. A lady has 25 p and 50 p coins in her purse. If in, all she has 40 coins totaling Rs. 12.50, find the number of coins, of each type she has., Solution: Let the lady has x coins of 25 p and y coins of 50 p., Then acc. to problem, x y 40, . . . (i), , and 25 x 50 y 1250, , Solving equation (i) and (ii) we gets x 80 and y = 100., , and if they go in opposite direction, they meet in, , Solving we get x , , Solving for x and y, we get x = 30 (25 p coins), andy = 10 (50 p coins)., Example 15. Students of a class are made to stand in rows. If, one student is extra in a row, there would be 2 rows less. If one, students is less in row, there would be 3 rows more. Find the, total number of students in the class., Solution: Let x be the original no. of rows and y be the, original no. of students in each row., Total no. of students xy ., , Acc. to problem, , and, . . . (ii), , Solving (i) and (ii) we gets x = 40 and y = 30., Hence, speed of car starting from point A = 40 km/hr and speed, of car starting from point B = 30 km/hr., , . . . (ii), , y 1 x 2 xy, , . . . (i), , y 1 x 3 xy, , . . . (ii), , Solving (i) and (ii) we get, x 12 and y 5, Total no. of students = 60
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II.A.126, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , Which of the following equation is not linear equation?, , 2., , 2, b. x 5 3x 4, 3, , c. x 3 5 x 3, , d. x 2 x 8, 2, , Solution of equation, a. 2, , , , , , b. 2 1 3, , The value of x which satisfy, , 4., , b. 1, , b. a b c, , b. k 4, , c. k 6, , d. Does not exist, , what value of p will the system of, equations 3x y 1, 2 p 1 x p 1 y 2 p 1 has, , d. –2, , c. a b c, , a. k 3, 14. For, , no solution?, a. p 2, , x a x b x c, Solution of, , , 3 is:, bc ca ab, , a. a b c, 5., , 6 x 5 3x 5, is:, , 4x 7 2x 6, , c. 2, , b. a = 5, b = 1, d. a = 5, b = –1, , 13. For what value of k, the system of equations, kx y 2, 6 x 2 y 3 has infinitely many solutions?, , , d. 2 1 3 , , 3 1, , a. –1, , coincident lines?, a. a = –5, b = 1, c. a = –5, b = –1, , 2, , 3 x 2 2 3 4 is:, , c. 1 3, 3., , 2 x 3 y 7, a b x a b y 3a b 2 represent, , a. 2 x 3 7 x 2, 2, , 12. For what values of a and b will the equations, , d. a b c, , A man is thrice as old as his son. After 14 years, the man, will be twice as old as his son, then present age of this, son., a. 42 years, b. 14 years c. 12 years d. 36 years, , b. p 2, , c. p 2, , 15. The solution of the system of equations, , and, , d. p 2, , 2x 5 y 0, , 3x 7 y 0 is:, , a. x 3, y 5, , b. x 2, y 7, , c. x 1, y 2, , d. x 0, y 0, , 6., , One forth of one third of one half of a number is 12, then, number is:, a. 284, b. 286, c. 288, d. 290, , 16. Divide 62 into two parts such that fourth part of the first, and two-fifth part of the second are in the ratio 2 : 3., a. 24, 38, b. 32, 30, c. 16, 46, d. 40, 22, , 7., , A linear equation in two variables has maximum:, a. only one solution, b. two solution, c. infinite solution, d. none of these, , 8., , Solution of the equation x 2 y 2 is/are:, , 17. The income of P and Q are in the ratio 3 : 2 and expenses, are in the ratio 5 : 3. If both save Rs.200, what is the, income of P?, a. Rs. 700, b. Rs. 1000 c. Rs. 1400 d. Rs. 1200, , 9., , a. x 4, y 1, , b. x 2, y 0, , c. x 6, y 2, , d. All of these, , The graph of line 5x 3y 4 cuts Y-axis at the point, 4, a. 0, , , , 3, , 3, b. 0, , , , 4, , c. ,0 , 5, 4, , , , , , d. ,0 , 4, 5, , , , , , 10. If x = 1, y = 1 is a solution of equation 9ax + 12ay = 63, then, the value of a is:, a. 3, b. 3, c. 7, d. 5, 11. Which of the following system of equations is consistent?, a. 3x y 1,6 x 2 y 5, b. 4 x 6 y 7 0,12 x 18 y 21 0, c. 4 x 7 y 3,8x 14 y 7, d. None, , 18. A toy train crosses 210 m and 122 m long tunnels in 25, and 17 seconds respectively. The length of the train is, _____., a. 11 m, b. 65 m, c. 332 m, d. 88 m, 19. If, , x y, , bx ay a 2 b 2 , then the values of x, y are, b a, , a. a, b , , b. a, b , , c. b, a , , d. b, a , , 20. Two numbers are such that their difference, their sum and, their product are to one another as 1 : 7 : 24. The product, of two numbers is _., a. 12, b. 24, c. 48, d. 96, 21. When simple interest is charged, a certain principle, amounts to Rs. 7400 in 4 years and Rs. 9200 in 7 years., Then the rate of interest is:, a. 6%, b. 8%, c. 10%, d. 12%
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Pair of Linear Equations, , II.A.127, , 22. The denominator of a rational number is greater than its, numerator by 3. If 3 is subtracted from the numerator and, 2 is added to the denominator, the new number becomes, 1, . Then the original number was, 5, 7, 3, 5, 4, a., b., c., d., 11, 5, 8, 7, 23. In ABC , if A = x°, B = 3x°, C = y° and 3y – 5x =, 30, then ABC is ____., a. a right angled triangle, b. an isosceles triangle, c. an equilateral triangle, d. a right angled isosceles triangle, , 24. The age of a woman is four times the age of her daughter., Five years hence, the age of the woman will be three times, the age of her daughter. The present age of daughter is ____., a. 40 years, b. 10 years, c. 18 years, d. 20 years, , 1, y, 1, 25. If x, y and y are not zero, then, equals to:, 1, x, y, x, x, , b. x, , a. 1, c., , y, , y, x, , d. x y, y, , x, , ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , c, , d, , b, , d, , b, , c, , c, , d, , a, , b, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , b, , d, , b, , d, , c, , b, , b, , d, , a, , d, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , d, , c, , a, , b, , b, , SOLUTIONS, 2., , (d), x, , 3x 6 2 3, , 11. (b) Consistence means the system of equations has at, least one solution. Since B has infinitely many solutions,, that system of equations is consistent., 12. (b) Given equations represent coincident lines only when, they have an infinite number of solution., We have,, , , a1, b, c, 1 1 (See synopsis) Here a1 2, b1 3, c1 7, a 2 b2 c 2, , , , a2 a b, b2 a b, c2 3a b 2 , , So,, , 2, 3, 7, , , a b a b 3a b 2 , , 62 3, 3, , x 22 3, , , , , , Take, , x 2 1 3 ., 3., , By solving we get a 5, b 1., , (b) 6 x 5 2 x 6 , 3 x 5 4 x 7 , , 12 x2 46 x 30 12 x 2 41x 35, , k 1 2, 13. (d) We have, a1 b1 c1 , , 6 2 3, a 2 b2 c 2, , Since, , 5x 5, x 1., , 5., , (b) F 3 S, , F 14 2 S 14 , 6., , 1, 1, 1, (c) of of of x 12, 4, 3, 2, 1 1 1, x 12, 4 3 2, x 288., , 10. (b) 9 a 12 a 63, , , a, , 63, 3., 21, , 2, 3, 3, 7, and, , , a b a b, a b 3a b 2 , , 1 2, , so k does not exist., 2 3, , 14. (a) We have, a1 b1 c1, a2, , b2, , , , 3, 1, 1, , , 2 p 1 p 1 2 p 1, , , , 3, 1, , 2 p 1 p 1, , , , 1, 1, , p 1 2 p 1, , c2, , Since p = 2 satisfies the condition p –2, it is the correct, answer.
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II.A.128, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 15. (d) By observation we conclude that the given equations, are homogeneous., So, x = 0, y = 0 is the answer., 16. (b) Let the two parts be x and y., . . .(i), We have, x y 62, , , , x, 4 2, 2y 3, 5, 15 x 16 y 0, , By solving (i) and (ii) we get a = 4x, b = 3x., Substitute these values in (iii),, 12x2 = 24x, x=2, So, ab = 8 6 = 48., 21. (d) Let sum = x and rate of interest = y., , . . .(ii), , , , y, , Savings of P and Q are 3 x 5 y , 2 x 3 y ., , We have,, y x 3 xy 3, , We have, 3x 5 y 2 x 3 y, 3x 5 y 200, , 3x 5 x , , , , x, y, 2, , , , x 400, , , , P’s income, , 5x 15 y 2, , x, 200, 2, , 5 x y 17, , . . .(ii), , Solving (i) and (ii) we get x = 5, y = 8., 5, So required number ., 8, , 23. (a) We have x 3x y 180, , 18. (b) Let length of the train be x mand speed of the train be, y m/sec., We have, 210 x 25 y, . . .(i), , and 122 x 17 y, , . . .(ii), , By solving (i) and (ii) we get, y 11m / sec, x y, , b a, , ax by 0, , bx ay a b, 2, , 2, , 4 x y 180, , . . .(i), , 3 y 5 x 30, , . . .(ii), , Solving (i) and (ii) we get x 30, y 60, So, A 30, B 90, C 60, Hence ABC is a right angled triangle., 24. (b) Let present age of woman = x,, Present age of daughter = y., We have, x = 4y, , x 65 m., , 19. (d), , . . .(i), , x3 1, , y2 5, , 3 x 3 400 = Rs. 1200., , , , . . .(ii), , 22. (c) Let the fraction be x ., , Expenditure of P and Q are 5 y,3y., , , , 7y , , 9200 x 1 , , 100 , , , , By solving (i) and (ii) we get y = 12%., , 17. (d) Incomes P and Q are 3x,2x., , , , . . .(i), , , , By solving (i) and (ii) we get x 32, y 30., , x 2y, , 4y , We have, 7400 x 1 , , 100, , . . .(i), . . .(ii), , Solving (i) and (ii) we get, x = b, y = a, So, (x, y) = (b, a)., 20. (c) Let the numbers be a and b., We have, (a – b) : (a + b) : ab = 1 : 7 : 24, So, a – b = 1x, . . .(i), a + b = 7x, . . .(ii), ab = 24x, . . .(iii), , x 4y 0, , . . .(i), , x + 5 = 3(y + 5), x 3 y 10, , . . .(ii), , Solving (i) and (ii) we get x = 40, y = 10., , 1, xy 1, y, y, , 25. (b), xy 1, 1, y, x, x, x, , , , , , xy 1, x, x, , ., y, xy 1 y
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II.A.129, , Polynomials, , 18, , Polynomials, , Polynomial functions are powerful tools that can help people, make decisions every day. These functions can also help you, design amazing monuments or build bridges for people to drive, and walk across. You could even analyse for the FBI or create, estimations of the future weather patterns., As an environmentalist is it important not to waste material as, well as getting as much out of the product as possible. You are, being commissioned to develop a cardboard box, with no lid,, that has the most volume. The problem is that the machine that, produces the cardboard box has not been programmed yet with, a polynomial function for the sample size of cardboard you, have in stock. It is up to you to conserve the material and create, a box with no lid with the most possible amount of volume., An algebraic expression (f(x) of the form f ( x) = a0 + a1 x + a2 x2, +... + a x , where a0 , a1 , a2 … , an are real numbers and all the, n, , n, , index of ' x ' are non-negative integers is called a polynomials, in x., , Quadratic Polynomials: A polynomial of degree two is, called a quadratic polynomial. The general form of a, quadratic polynomial is ax 2 + b + c , where a ≠ 0., Cubic Polynomials: A polynomial of degree three is called, a cubic polynomial. The general form of a cubic, polynomial is ax 3 + bx 2 + cx + d , where a ≠ 0., Biquadratic (or quadric) Polynomials: A polynomial of, degree four is called a biquadratic (quadratic) polynomial., The general form of a biquadratic polynomial is, , ax 4 + bxj 3 + cx 2 + dx + e, where a ≠ 0., Note: A polynomial of degree five or more than five does not, have any particular name. Such a polynomial usually called a, polynomial of degree five or six or ....etc., Based on Number of Terms: There are three types of, polynomials based on number of terms. These are as follows:, Monomial: A polynomial is said to be monomial if it has, only one term, e.g., x , 9 x 2 , 5 x 3 all are monomials., Binomial: A polynomial is said to be binomial if it contains, , Degree of the Polynomial: Highest index of x in algebraic, expression is called the degree of the polynomial, here, 2, , n, , a0 , a1 x, a2 x … an x , are called the terms of the polynomial and, z 0 .a1 , a 2 … , a n, , are, , called, , various, , coefficients, , of, , the, , polynomial f ( x ) ., , two terms, e.g.,, , 2 x 2 + 3x, 3x + 5 x3 , −8 x3 + 3, all are, , binomials., Trinomials: A polynomial is said to be a trinomial it if, , 5, contains three terms, e.g., 3x3 − 8 + ., 2, 7 x10 ,8 x 4 − 3 x 2 ,5 − 7 x + 8 x 9 , are all trinomials., , Note, A polynomial in x is said to be in standard form when the terms, are written either in increasing order or decreasing order of the, indices of x in various terms., , Note, A polynomial having four or more than four terms does not, have particular Name. These are simply called polynomials., , Different Types of Polynomials: Generally, we divide the, polynomials in the following categories., , Zero Degree Polynomial: Any non-zero number (constant) is, regarded as polynomial of degree zero or zero degree, polynomial. i.e. f ( x ) = a, where a ≠ 0 is a zero degree, , Based on Degrees: There are four types of polynomials based, on degrees. These are listed below:, Linear Polynomials: A polynomials of degree one is, called a linear polynomial. The general formula of linear, polynomial is ax + b, where a and b are any real constant, and a ≠ 0., , polynomial, since we can write f ( x ) = a as f ( x ) = ax0 ., Zero polynomial: A polynomial whose all coefficients are, zeros is called as zero polynomial i.e. f ( x ) = 0, we cannot, determine the degree of zero polynomial.
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.A.130, , = (6x + 7 y ), , Algebraic Identity, , ( a + b), ( a − b), , 2, , 2, , = a 2 + 2ab + b2, = a − 2ab + b, 2, , = ( 6 × 3 + 7 × 6), , 2, , = a + b + 3ab ( a + b ), , 3, , = a3 − b3 − 3ab ( a + b ), , ⇒, , x2 +, , ⇒, , ( x 2 ) + 1x + 2.x. 1x = 25, , ⇒, , 1, 2, , x + = ( 5), x, , , ⇒, , x+, , 3, , 3, , a 4 + a 2b2 + b4 = ( a 2 + ab + b2 )( a 2 − ab + b2 ), , Special case: if a + b + c = 0 then a3 + b3 + c3 = 3abc., , a 2 + b2 = ( a + b ) − 2ab,, , If a + b and ab are given, , a 2 + b2 = ( a − b ) + 2ab, , If a − b and ab are given, , a+b =, , ( a − b), , 2, , + 4ab, , If a − b and ab are given, , a −b =, , ( a + b), , 2, , − 4ab, , If a + b and ab are given, , 2, , 2, , 2, , 1 , 1, = a + − 2, a2 , a, , If a +, , 2, , 1 , 1, a + 2 = a − + 2, a, a, , , 1, is given, a, , = a 2 + b2 + c 2 − ab − bc − ca, , 1, = 2a 2 + 2b2 + 2c 2 − 2ab − 2bc − 2ca , 2, 1, = ( a 2 − 2ab + b2 ) + ( b2 − 2bx + c 2 ) + ( c 2 − 2ca + a 2 ) , 2, , a − b = ( a − b ) + 3ab ( a − b ) If ( a − b) and ab are given, 3, , 3, , 1, 1 , 1, 1, , a + 3 = a + − 3 a + If a + is given, a, a, a, a, , , , , 3, , 3, , 1 , 1, 1, 1, , , = a − + 3 a − , If a − is given, 3, a, a, a, a, , , , , a 4 + b4 = ( a2 + b, , ), , 2, , − 2a 2 b2 = ( a + b ) − 2ab − 2a 2b 2 ,, , , 2, , if ( a + b ) and ab are given, 2, , a − b = (a + b, , 2, , a +b, , 3, , 3, , 5, , 2, , (i) (107), , 2 2, , x = 3, y = 6, , = ( 6x) + ( 7 y ) + 2 × ( 6x) × ( 7 y ), 2, , 2, , 2, , = (100) + ( 7 ) + 2 ×100 × 7, 2, , = 10000 + 49 + 1400 = 11449, (ii), , ( 94), , 2, , = (100 − 6) = (100) + ( 6) − 2 ×100 × 6, 2, , 2, , = 10000 + 36 − 1200 = 8836, (iii), , Solution: 36 x2 + 49 y 2 + 84 xy, , (iii) ( 0.99 ), , 2, , 2, , Example 1. Find the value of: 36 x 2 + 49 y 2 + 84 xy, when, , 2, , (ii) ( 94), , 2, , Solution: (i) (107 ) = (100 + 7 ), , 2, , 2, , 2, , 1, 2, 2, 2, = ( a − b ) + ( b − c ) + ( c − a ) = RHS, , , 2, Hence Proved., Example 4. Evaluate:, , 2, , )( a − b ) = ( a + b) − 2ab ( a + b)( a − b), = ( a + b )( a + b ) − a b ( a + b ), 2, , 1, =5, x, , 1, 2, 2, 2, = ( a − b ) + ( b − c ) + ( c − a ) ., , 2, Solution: Here, L.H.S., , 3, , 2 2, , [Adding 2 on both sides of (i)], , Example 3. Prove that a 2 + b 2 + c 2 − ab − bc − ca, , a3 + b3 = ( a + b ) − 3ab ( a + b ) If ( a + b ) and ab are given, 3, , 1, + 2 = 25, x2, , 2, , 1, If a − is given, a, , 2, , . . . (i), , 2, , a3 + b3 + c3 − 3abc = ( a + b + c ) ( a2 + b2 + c2 − ab − bc − ac ), , 5, , 1, = 23, x2, , Solution: x 2 +, , ( a − b), , 4, , 1, 1, , = 23, find the value of x + ., x, x2, , , 3, , ( a + b), , 4, , 2, , Example 2. If x 2 +, , a3 − b3 = ( a − b ) ( a 2 + ab + b2 ), , a3 −, , [When x = 3, y = 6 ], , 21, , a3 + b3 = ( a + b ) ( a 2 − ab + b2 ), , 3, , 2, , = (18 + 42 ) = ( 60 ) = 3600., , a 2 − b 2 = ( a + b )( a − b ), , a2 +, , 2, , ( 0.99), , 2, , = (1 − 0.01), , 2, , = (1) + ( 0.01) − 2 ×1× 0.01, 2, , 2, , = +1.0001 − 0.02 = 0.9801, , 2
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II.A.131, , Polynomials, , Note, We may extend the formula for squaring a binomial to the, squaring of a trinomial as given below., , ( a + b + c), , 2, , = a + ( b + c ) , , 2, , 2, , ∴, , [Using the identity for the square of binomial], , = a 2 + b2 + c 2 + 2bc + 2a ( b + c ), [Using ( b + c ) = b + c + 2bc ], 2, , Example 7. Simplify:, , − b2, , 2, , 2, , 2, , 3, , 2, , 3, , 2, , 3, , 2, , 2, , ( a − b) + (b − c) + (c − a), , ∴, , Given expression, , 3, , 3, , 3, , 3, , = 1000000000 + 125 + 15000 × (1000 + 5), , = 1000000000 + 125 + 15000000 + 75000, = 1015075125, 3, , = (1000 ) − ( 3) − 3 ×1000 × 3 × (1000 − 3), , 2, , 2, , 2, , 2, , 2, , 2, , 2, , = 3( a − b )( b − c )( c − a ), , ∴, , a3 + b3 + c3 = 3abc, , or, , ( x − y )3 + ( y − z )3 + ( z − x )3, , 3, , . . . (i), , 3, , 1, 3, , x − x = ( 5), , , , 3, , Example 9. Find the value of ( 28) − ( 78) + ( 50 ) ., , 1, 1, = 5, find the value of x 3 − 3, x, x, 1, =5, x, , 3, , = 3( x − y )( y − z )( z − x ), , = 1000000000 − 27 − 900000 + 27000, = 991026973, , ⇒, , 2, , 3 ( a − b )( b − c )( c − a ), , 3, , 3, , Solution: We have, x −, , 3, , ( x − y ) + ( y − z ) + ( z − x ) = 3 ( x − y )( y − z )( z − x ) ., Solution: Let ( x − y ) = a, ( y − z ) = b, and ( z − x ) = c., Then, a + b + c = ( x − y ) + ( y − z ) + ( z − x ) = 0, , = 1000000000 − 27 − 9000 × (1000 − 3), , Example 6. If x −, , ., , 3, , Example 8. Prove that:, , = (1000) + ( 5) + 3 ×1000 × 5 × (1000 + 5), , 3, , 3, , 3, , 3, , = (1000 − 3), , ), , 3 ( a − b )( a + b )( b − c )( b + c )( c − a )( c + a ), , = ( a + b )( b + c )( c + a ), , 3, , − a2, , 3 ( a − b )( b − c )( c − a ), , Example 5. Evaluate : (i) (1005 ) (ii) ( 997), , ( 997 ), , 2, , 3 ( a − b )( a + b )( b − c )( b + c )( c − a )( c + a ), , =, , 2, , (ii), , 3, , 3, , 3, , 2, , ∴ ( a +b + c ) = a 2 + b2 + c2 + 2ab + 2bc + 2ac, , 3, , ) + (c, , − c2, , ( a − b) + (b − c) + ( c − a), , ∴, , =, , 3, , 2, , (, ) (, ) + (c − a ) = 0, ( a −b ) +(b −c ) +( c −a ) = 3( a −b )(b −c )( c −a ), , = a 2 + b2 + c 2 + 2ab + 2bc + 2ac, , 3, , 3, , Also, ( a − b ) + ( b − c ) + ( c − a ) = 0, , = a 2 + b2 + c 2 + 2bc + 2ab + 2ac, [Using the distributive law], , Solution: (i) (1005) = (1000 + 5), , ) + (b, , Solution: Here a 2 − b2 + b2 − c 2, , = a2 + ( b + c ) + 2 × a × ( b + c ), , 2, , (a, , 3, , 3, , Solution: Let a = 28, b = − 78, c = 50, Then, a + b + c = 28 − 78 + 50 = 0, , ∴, , a3 + b3 + c3 = 3abc., , So,, , ( 28) + ( −78) + ( 50), 3, , 3, , 3, , = 3 × 28 × ( −78) × 50, , = –3,27,600, , [Cubing both sides of (i)], , Example 10. If a + b + c = 9 and ab + bc + ac = 26, find the, , ⇒, , x3 −, , 1, 1 , 1, − 3 x. . x − = 125, 3, x, x , x, , ⇒, , x3 −, , 1, 1, , − 3 x − = 125, 3, x, x, , , ⇒, , x3 −, , 1, 1, , − 3 × 5 = 125 [Substituting x − = 5 ], 3, x, x, , , [On squaring both sides of (i)], ⇒, , a 2 + b2 + c 2 + 2 ( ab + bc + ac ) = 81, , ⇒, , x3 −, , 1, − 15 = 125, x3, , ⇒, , a 2 + b2 + c2 + 2 × 26 = 81, , ⇒ x3 −, , value of a3 + b3 + c3 − 3abc., Solution: We have, ⇒ a+b+c = 9, ⇒, , 1, = (125 + 15 ) = 140, x3, , (a + b + c), , 2, , . . . (i), , = 81, , [∴ab + bc + ac = 26]
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II.A.132, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , , , a b c 81 52 , , , , a 2 b2 c 2 29., , 2, , 2, , 2, , 2, , 1 , 2, , 2x 3y , 2x , , , Now, we have a3 b3 c3 3abc, , , , a b c a 2 b2 c 2 ab bc ac, , , , 1, 1, , , , 2x , 3y 2x , 3y , 2x, 2x, , , , , , , , , a b c a 2 b 2 c 2 ab bc ac , , , , Example 13. Factorise:, a4 , , 9 29 26 9 3 27, , 1, 3., a4, , , , (b) A Special Product:, , Solution: a 2, , We have x a x b x x b a x b , , 2, , 2, , 1 , 1 , 2 2. a 2 2 1, a, , a , , , , 2, , 1 , 2, , a 2 2 1, a, , , , x 2 xb ax ab, x 2 bx ax ab xb bx , , 1, 1, , , , a 2 2 1 a 2 2 1, a, a, , , , , x 2 ax bx ab, x 2 a b x ab, , Example 14. Factorise:, , 64a13b 343ab13 ., , Thus, we have the following identity, , x a x b x2 a b x ab., , Solution: 64a13b 343ab13, , ab[64a112 343b12 ], , 2, , 1, 1, 1 , , , 1, , Example 11. 3a 6 3a 9 c 2a 3a 3, , b, , , , , , b, , , , b, , , , b, , , , 2, , 1, 1, 1 , , , 1, , Solution: 3a 6 3a 9 c 2a 3a 3 , b, b, b , , , b, , 2, , 1, 1, 1 , 2, , , 1, , 3a 2.3 3a 3 c 2a 3a 3, b, b, b, b, , , , , , , , 2, , 1 1, 1 , , , 3a 3 c 2a 3a 3 , b b, b , , , 1, 1, 1, , , , 3a 3 3a 3 2a , b, b, b, , , , 1, , , 3a 3 a c 3, b, , , , Example 12. Factorise : 4 x 2 , Solution: 4 x 2 , , 7b , , ab 4a 4, , , 3, , 4, , 3, , 4a 7b 7b , , ab 4a 4 7b4 4a 4, , , 2, , 4, , 4, , ab 4a 4 7b4 16a8 28a 4b4 49b8 , Example 15. Factorise:, , x3 6 x 2 32, Solution: x 3 32 6 x 2, , x3 8 24 6 x 2, 3, 3, x 2 6 4 x 2 , , , , x 2 x2 2 x 4 6 2 x 2 x, 1, 2 9 y2., 4x2, , x 2 x2 2 x 4 6 2 x , x 2 x2 2 x 4 12 6 x , , 1, 2 9 y2., 2, 4x, 2, , 2, 2, 1 1 , 2 x 2. 2 x . 3 y , x, x, 2, 2, , , x 2 x2 8x 16, x 2 x 4 , , 2, , 4, , 2
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Polynomials, , II.A.133, , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , 2., , The product of x a x b is:, a. x 2 a b x ab, , b. x 2 a b x ab, , c. x 2 a b x ab, , d. x 2 a b x ab, , The value of 150 98 is:, a. 10047, , 3., , b. 14800, , c. 14700, , d. 10470, , The expansion of x y z is:, 2, , a. x 2 y 2 z 2 2 xy 2 yz 2 zx, , d. x 2 y 2 z 2 2 xy 2 yz 2 zx, , 5., , The value of x 2 y 2 z x 2 y 2 z is:, 2, , 2, , a. 2 x 2 8 y 2 8 z 2, , b. 2 x 2 8 y 2 8 z 2 8 xyz, , c. 2 x 2 8 y 2 8 z 2 8 xyz, , d. 2 x 2 8 y 2 8 z 2 16 xyz, , The value of 25 x 16 y 40 xy at x 1 and y 1 is:, 2, , a. 81, c. 1, 6., , b. –49, d. None of these, , a. 8a 2, 7., , , , On simplifying a b a b 6a a b, 3, , 3, , b. 8a 2b, , Find, , the, , value, , of, , c. 8a 3b, , 2, , 2, , we get:, , d. 8a 3, , a 3 b 3 c 3 3abc, , when, ab bc ca a 2 b 2 c 2, , a 5,5 6, c 10., a. 1, 8., , b. –1, , a. x 7 x 6 , , b. x 7 x 6 , , c. x 7 x 6 , , d. x 7 x 6 , , c. 2, , d. -2, , 1, b. (2 x 1)(3x 1), 6, 1, d. (2x 1)(3x 1), 6, , 14. Factors of polynomial x3 3 x 2 10 x 2 x are:, a. ( x 2)( x 3)( x 4), b. ( x 2)( x 3)( x 4), c. ( x 2)( x 3)( x 4), , d. ( x 2)( x 3)( x 4), , 15. If ( x a) is a factor of x 2 px q and x 2 mx n then, , the value of a is:, m p, a., b. n q, n p, m p, 16. The, , HCF, , c. n q, , m p, , d. m p, nq, , (6 x 4 13x 3 6 x 2 ) and, , of, , (8 x 4 36 x 3 54 x 2 27 x ) is:, b. x 2 (2 x 3) c. x (3 2 x ), , a. x (2 x 3), , d. x (2 x 3), , 17. There are four polynomials P ( x ), Q ( x ), R ( x ). If the HCF, , of each pair is ( x 3) 4 and the LCM of all the four, , If x y z 1, xy yz zx 1xyz 1 then value of, , polynomials is ( x 1)( x 2)( x 3) then the product of, , x y z is:, , four polynomials is ____., , 3, , 3, , 3, , a. –1, 9., , , , 1, a. (2 x 1)(3x 1), 6, 1, c. (2 x 1)(3x 1), 6, , c. x 2 y 2 z 2 2 xy 2 yz 2 zx, , 2, , , , 12. Factors of 42 x x 2 are:, , x 1, , 13. Factors of x 2 are:, 6 6, , , b. x 2 y 2 z 2 2 xy yz 2 zx, , 4., , 11. Degree of zero polynomial is:, a. 0, b. 1, c. Both 0 and 1, d. Not defined, , b. 1, , c. 2, , d. –2, , In method of factorisation of an algebraic expression., Which of the following statement is false?, a. Taking out a common factor from two or more terms., b. Taking out a common factor from a group of terms., c. By using remainder theorem., d. By using standard identities., , 10. Factors of a b a b is:, 3, , , , a. 2ab 3a 2 b2, , , , c. 2b 3a 2 b 2, , , , , , 3, , , , b. ab 3a 2 b 2, d. 3a 2 b 2, , , , a. x 3, , x 1 x 2 x 3, b. x 3 x 1 x 2 x 3, 4, , c. x 3 x 1 x 2 x 3, 4, , 4, , d. x 3 x 1 x 2 , 4, , 4, , 4, , 4, , x 3, , 4, , 18. Which of the following expressions is a rational, expression?, a. x 3 3 x 2 5 x 11, , 2, b. x 3, , 2, c. 5 x 6 x 7, , d., , x3, , 2 x 1, , 2 x2 4 x 5, x 2
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II.A.134, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 19. If x 2 x 3x mx 5 is exactly divisible by x 3 ,, 4, , 3, , 2, , b. a0 a2 a4 0, , then m ?, a. –4, c., , a. a0 a1 a2 an 0, , 40, 3, , b. –40, , c. a1 a2 a3 0, , d. None, , d. a0 a2 a4 a1 a3 a5 , , 20. If f x x2 5x p and g x x2 3x q have a common, , factor, then p q ?, 2, , 26. The product of x3 2 x 2 3x 4 and 2 x 2 5 x 1 is ___., a. 2 x5 x 4 15 x3 25 x 2 23x 4, b. 2 x5 x 4 15 x3 25 x2 23x 4, , a. 2 5 p 3q , , b. 2 3 p 5q , , c. 2 x5 x 4 15 x3 25 x 2 23x 4, , c. 3 p 5q, , d. 5 p 3q, , d. 2 x5 x 4 15 x3 23x 4, 27. If g x x6 3x 4 24 x 2 3, find g 1 , g 2 and g 3 ., , 3x 2, x 5, , ., 21. Simplify 2, x 16 x 42, , a. g 1 17, g 2 19, g 3 759, , a., , 4 x 2 5 x 28, x 4 x 2 16 x 64, , b., , 4x2 5x 28, x 4 x2 16 x 64, , c., , 4 x 2 5 x 28, 3, x 4 x 2 16 x 64, , d., , 4x2 5x 28, 3, x 4x2 16x 64, , 3, , 22. If P , , 1 2x, 1 2x, and Q , then P Q ___, 1 2x, 1 2x, PQ, , 4x, a., 1 4x2, , c. , , 3, , 4x, 1 4x2, , 1 4x2, b., 4x, , d., , 1 4 x2 , 4x, , 2x 2x 7 , 23. What should be subtracted from 2, to get, x x6 , x 1 ?, , , x2, , x2, x 3, , x2, c., x3, , a., , 6 x 10 x 4, 2x 1, , x, c. 3 x 4 , 2x 1, , b., , 28. Find f 4 , f 5 , f 3.2 if, , f x 6.2 x 2 4 x3 4.28., a. f 4 152.52, f 5 659.28, f 3.2 63.304, b. f 4 152.52, f 5 659.27, f 3.2 63.304, , d. f 4 152.53, f 5 659.28, f 3.2 63.304, 29. Find, , the, , value, , of, , “k”, , if, , the, , expressions, , same reminder when divided by x 3 ., , x2, x3, , x2, d., x3, , b. 3 x 4 , , a. k 2, , b. k 2, , c. k 1, , d. k 3, , 30. For, , the, , expression f x x3 ax 2 bx c, if, , f 1 f 2 0 and f 4 f 0 . Find the values of, x, 2x 1, , x, d. 3 x 4 , 1 2x, , 25. If (x + 1) is a factor of f ( x) a0 x n a1 x n 1 a2 x n 2, ... an 0, then:, , d. g 1 17, g 2 19, g 3 759, , p x kx 3 4 x 2 3 x 4 and q x x3 4x k leave the, , x, 24. The additive inverse of 3 x 4 , is:, 2x 1, 2, , c. g 1 17, g 2 19, g 3 759, , c. f 4 152.53, f 5 659.28, f 3.2 63.304, 2, , a., , b. g 1 17, g 2 19, g 3 759, , a, b and c., a. a 9, b 20 and c 12, b. a 8, b 20 and c 12, c. a 9, b 20 and c 12, d. a 8, b 20 and c 12
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Polynomials, , II.A.135, , ANSWERS, 1., a, , 2., c, , 3., c, , 4., d, , 5., c, , 6., d, , 7., a, , 8., b, , 9., c, , 10., c, , 11., d, , 12., c, , 13., b, , 14., a, , 15., b, , 16., d, , 17., a, , 18., a, , 19., d, , 20., b, , 21., b, , 22., a, , 23., d, , 24., b, , 25., d, , 26., c, , 27., a, , 28., a, , 29., c, , 30., a, , 20. (b) Let the common factor be x k ,, , we have, f x g k 0, , , k, , SOLUTIONS, 1., , (a) x a x b x x b a x b , , k 2 5k p k 2 3k q, , q p, 2, , Substituting “k” in x 2 5 x p 0, , , x2 5x p 0, , x a b x ab., , , , q p q p, , , p 0, 2 2 , , (c) 150 100 2 , , , , p q, , x bx ax ab, 2, , 2, , 2, , 2., , 15000 300 14700., 5., , 21. (b), , (c) 25 1 16 1 40 1 1, 2, , 2, , 25 16 40 41 40 1., , , , , , 10. (c) x3 y 3 x y x 2 xy y 2 ., , , , 16. (d) 6 x 4 13x 6 x 2 x2 6 x2 13x 6, , , , x 2 2 x 3 3x 2 , , 8 x 4 36 x3 54 x 2 27 x, , x 8 x3 36 x2 54 x 27 , x 2 x 3, , = (HCF of each pair)n LCM, product of polynomials, , x 3 x 1 x 2 x 3 ., 4, , 18. (a) By the definition of rational expression, , , x 3 3 x 2 x 11 , , x 3 3 x 2 5 x 11, 1, , is a rational expression., 19. (d) Let f x x 4 2 x3 3x 2 mx 5, , Since it is exactly divisible by x 3 ,, we have f 3 0, , 3, , 2 3 3 3 m 3 5 0, , , , 81 54 27 3m 5 0, , , , m, , 3, , 59, 3, , , , 3x 2 x 4 x 5 x 4 , 2, x 4 x 4 , , , , 4 x 2 5 x 28, ., x 3 4 x 2 16 x 64, , P 1 2 x , , 22. (a), Q 1 2 x 2, , 2, , By componendo and dividendo rule, , P Q 1 2 x 11 2 x , , , P Q 1 2 x 2 1 2 x 2, , , 8x, , 2 1 4 x, , 23. (d), , 2, , , , , , 2, , 4x, 1 4 x2, , 2x 2x 7 x 1, 2x2 2x 7, x2, , , , x 2 x 2 x 3 x 2, x2 x 6, 2, , , , 2x2 2x 7 x2 2x 3, x 2 x 3 , , , , x2, x2 4, , ., x 2 x 3 x 3, , 24. (b) Additive inverse of, 3x 4 , , x, x, is 3x 4 , ., 2x 1, 2 x 1, , 25. (d) Since (x + 1) is a factor we have, , , , 4, , 3x 2, x5, , x 2 16 x 4 2, , 2, , 3, , So, HCF = x(2x – 3), 17. (a) We have, product of ‘n’ polynomials, So,, , 2 3 p 5q ., , 2, , 2, , f 1 0 a0 1 a1 1, n, , n1, , a2 1, , n2, , an 0, , a0 a2 a4 a1 a3 a5 , , where ‘n’ is even (or) odd number whatever it may be.
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II.A.136, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , , , , x 2x 5x1 2x 2x 5x1 3x 2x 5x1 4 2x 5x1, , But given that p x and q x leave the same remainder, , 26. (c) x 2 x 3x 4 2 x 5x 1, 3, , 3, , 2, , 2, , 2, , 2, , 2, , 2, , when divided by x 3, , 2, , 2 x5 5 x 4 x3 4 x 4 10 x3 2 x 2 6 x3 15 x 2 3x , , , , 8 x 2 20 x 4, , we have 27 k 41 15 k [from (i) and (ii)], , 2 x5 5 x 4 4 x 4 4 x4 x3 10 x3 6 x3 , , 2x, , 2, , , , since it is a cubic expression it has three factors., f 1 f 2 0, , 27. (a) Given that g x x 6 3x 4 24 x 2 3, , , , , , g 1 1 3 1 24 1 3 1 3 24 3 17, , , , g 2 2 3 2 24 2 3 64 48 96 3 19, , , , g 3 3 3 3 24 3 3 7292432163 759., , 4, , 6, , 6, , 2, , 4, , 4, , x 1 and x 2 are factors of f x as per, remainder theorem., , , , 2, , f x is a third degree it will have three linear factors., , Let the third factor be x k ., , 2, , , , 28. (a) Given that f x 6.2 x 4 x 4.28, 2, , k 1., , 30. (a) Given that f x x 3 ax 2 bx c,, , 16 x 2 8 x 2 3x 20 x 4, , 2 x5 x 4 15x3 25 x2 23x 4., , 6, , p 3 q 3, , 3, , f x x 3 x 2 bx c x 1 x 2 x k , , Now, f 4 4 1 4 2 4 k 24 6 k, , , , f 4 6.2 4 4 4 4.2899.22564.28152.52, , , , f 5 6.2 5 4 5 4.28 659.28, , given that f 4 f 0 , , , , f 3.2 6.2 3.2 4 3.2 4.28 63.304, , we have 24 6k 2k k 6, , 2, , 3, , 2, , , , 3, , 2, , 3, , 29. (c) p x kx3 4 x 2 3x 4 is divided by, , x 3 ,, , , , 2, , 27 k 41, , Again, , But as k 6, putting the value of ‘k’ in f x we have, , , p 3 k 3 4 3 3 3 4 27k 3694, 3, , As f x x3 ax2 bx c x 1 x 2 x k , , the, , remainder is p 3 ., , q x x 4x k, , is divided by, , x 3 , the, , coefficient of x 2 a 9 ; coefficient of x b 20, , remainder is q 3 ., , , , p 3 3 4 3 k 27 12 k 15 k, 3, , f x x 3 ax 2 bx c x 1 x 2 x 6 , , x3 9 x2 20 x 12, Comparing the coefficients we have, , . . . (i), 3, , f 0 0 1 0 2 0 k 2 k, , constant term c 12, . . . (ii), , , , , , a 9, b 20, c 12.
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Quadratic Equations, , II.A.137, , 19, , Quadratic Equations, , Polynomial: Algebraic expression containing many terms of, , the form cx n , n being a non-negative integer is called a, polynomial,, , i.e.,, , f x a0 a1x a2 x a3 x an1x, 2, , n1, , 3, , an x , where, n, , x, , is, , a, , variable, a0 , a1 , a2 , an are constants and an 0. If f (x) is a, polynomial, real or complex, then f(x) = 0 is called a, polynomial equation., Example 1. 4 x 4 3x3 7 x 2 5 x 3,3x3 x 2 3x 5., , Real polynomial, f x a0 a1 x a2 x 2 a3 x 3 an x n, , Remember that time = distance/speed. Let v = the Kayak's, speed relative to land, and let x = the swimmer's speed in the, water. So, we know that, while traveling upstream, the, swimmer's speed is v = x – 2 (subtract 2 for the resistance, from the river current), and while going downstream, the, Kayak's speed is v = x + 2., The total time is equal to 3 hours, which is equal to the time, going upstream plus the time going downstream, and both, distances are 15 km. Using our equations, we know that 3, hours = 15/(x – 2) + 15/(x + 2). Once this is expanded, algebraically, we get 3x2 – 30x –12 = 0. Solving for x, we, know that the Kayak moved at a speed of 10.39 km/hr., , is called real polynomial of real variable x with real coefficients., Example 2. 3 x 4 x 5 x 4, x 2 x 1, 3, , 2, , 2, , Complex polynomial, f x a0 a1 x a2 x 2 a3 x 2 an x n, , is called complex polynomial of complex variable x with, complex coefficients., , Quadratic Equation: In a mathematical calculation, a, quadratic equations is came from the Latin word that is, quadrature which is called square is a structure. Quadratic, equations can (and often times do) have more than one, solution., Let ax 2 bx c a x x 0., , Then, x and x will satisfy the given equation., , Example 3. 3 x 2 2 4i x 5i 4 , x3 5ix 2 1 2i x 4 etc., , Hence, factorise the equation and equating each factor to zero, gives roots of the equation., , are complex polynomials., Degree of polynomial: Highest power of variable x in a, polynomial is called degree of polynomial., , Example 5. 3 x 2 2 x 1 0 x 1 3 x 1 0; x 1, 1/ 3, , Example 4. f x a0 a1 x a2 x 2 an 1 x n 1 an x n is a n, , degree polynomial., f x 4 x 3 3 x 2 7 x 5 is a 3 degree polynomial., , A polynomial of second degree is generally called a quadratic, polynomial. Polynomials of degree 3 and 4 are known as cubic, and biquadratic polynomials respectively., Quadratic equations are also useful in calculating speeds. For, example, use quadratic equations to estimate their speed when, going up and down a river., Assume a swimmer is going up a river, and the river moves at, 2 km/hr. Say he goes upstream against the current at 15 km,, and the trip takes him 3 hours to go there and return., , Sridharacharya method: By completing the perfect square as, , ax2 bx c 0, , x2 b x c 0, a, , a, , Adding, , and, , subtracting, , b b 4ac , b , 0 which gives,, , x , 2a , 4a 2 , 2a , 2, , x, , 2, , 2, , b b 2 4 ac, ., 2a, , Hence the quadratic equation ax2 bx c 0 (a 0) has two, b b 2 4 ac, b b 2 4 ac, , , ,, 2a, 2a, Every quadratic equation has two and only two roots., , roots, given by
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II.A.138, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Nature of roots: In a quadratic equation ax bx c 0, let us, , For example, a 2 is a symmetric function of and, , suppose that a , b, c are real and a 0. The following is true, , whereas 2 2 3 is not a symmetric function of , , about the nature of its roots., The equation has real and distinct roots if and only if, , and ., , D b2 4ac 0., The equation has real and coincident (equal) roots if and, , In order to find the value of a symmetric function of , and , express the given function in terms of and, , only if D b2 4ac 0., The equation has complex, i , 0, 0 R ., , . The following results may be useful., , 2, , roots, , of, , the, , 2, , form, , 2, , 2 2 2, 2, , The equation has rational roots if and only if a , b , c Q, , , , a3 3 3 , , (the set of rational numbers) and D b 2 4ac is a perfect, square (of a rational number)., The equation has (unequal) irrational (surd form) rootsif, , , , 4 4 3 3 2 2 , , , , 5 5 3 3 2 2 2 2 , , and only if D b 2 4ac 0 and not a perfect square even, , , , , , , , 2 2 , , , , 2 2 , , , , 4 4 2 2 , , if a, b and c are rational. In this case if p q , p, q rational, is an irrational root, then p q is also a root (a, b, c being, rational)., , 3, , i 0 and , R is a root if and only if its, , , , 2, , 4, , conjugate i is a root, that is complex roots occur in pairs, , Condition for common roots: Only one root is common: Let, , in a quadratic equation. In case the equation is satisfied by, more than two complex numbers, then it reduces to an identity., 0.x 2 0.x 0 0, i.e., a 0 b c., , a1 x b1 x c1 0 and a2 x b2 x c2 0., , Relation between roots and coefficients of quadratic, equation: If and are the roots of quadratic equation, , be, , b Coefficient of x, , Coefficient of x 2, a, , c, Constant term, Product of roots P . , a Coefficient t of x 2, , Formation of an equation with given roots: A quadratic, equation whose roots are and is given by, , common, , root, , of, , quadratic, , equations, , 2, , a1 2 b1 c1 0, a2 2 b2 c2 0, By Cramer’s rule:, , ax 2 bx c 0, a 0 then,, , Sum of roots S , , the, , 2, , or, , 2, b1c2 b2 c1, , 2, c1, c2, , b1, b2, , , , , , a2 c1 a1c2, , , , , , , a1, a2, , c1, c2, , , , 1, a1, a2, , b1, b2, , 1, a1b2 a2 b1, , a 2 c1 a1 c2 , 2 b1c2 b2 c1 , a 0, a1b2 a 2 b1, , a 2 c1 a1 c2, , The condition for only one root common is:, , c1a2 c2 a1 , , 2, , b1c2 b2 c1 a1b2 a2b1 , , x x 0., x 2 x 0, i.e. x 2 sum of roots x product of roots 0, , Both roots are common: Then required condition is, , x 2 Sx P 0, , The quadratic expression, (1) Let f x ax 2 bx c , a , b, c R , a 0 be a quadratic, , Symmetric function of the roots: A function of and is, , expression. Since,, , said to be a symmetric function, if it remains unchanged when, and are interchanged., , a1, b, c, 1 1, a 2 b2 c 2, , b b 2 4ac , , f x a x , , 2a 4a 2 , , 2, , . . . (i)
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Quadratic Equations, , II.A.139, , The following is true from equation (i), f x 0 0 for all values of x R if and only if, , x-axis, a> 0, D < 0, , a 0 0 and D b 4ac 0., 2, , a< 0, D < 0, x-axis, , f x 0 0 if and only if, 2, a 0 0 and D b 4ac 0., , b, In this case D 0 , f x 0 if and only if x , 2a, , If D b 2 4ac 0 and a 0 0 ,, , Figure: 19.1, , Intersection with x-axis:, For x axis, y 0, , , , ax 2 bx c 0 x , , b D, 2a, , For D> 0, parabola cuts x-axis in two real and distinct points, , then, , for x lying between the roots of f x 0, 0 0 ,, , f x 0 0 , for x not lying between the roots of f x 0, 0,, for x each of the roots of f x 0, , i.e. x b D ., 2a, , For D = 0, parabola touches x-axis in one point, x b / 2 a., a< 0,, , If a 0, 0 then f x has a minimum (maximum) value at, x, , x-axis, , b, 4 ac b 2, and this value is given by f x min max , ., , , 2a, 4a, , x-axis, a> 0,, , D>0, , Graph of a quadratic expression, We have y ax 2 bx c f x , , a< 0,, , D, Y, 4a, , And X x , , b, 2a, , Y aX 2 X 2 , , D=0, x-axis, , 2, 2, , b , D , D, b , , a x , y a x 2 y , 2a 4a , 4a, 2a , , , , Now, let y , , D> 0, , x-axis, a> 0,, , D=0, Figure: 19.2, , For D< 0, parabola does not cut x-axis (i.e. imaginary value, of x)., 1, Y, a, , a< 0,, , D< 0, , x-axis, , The graph of the curve y f x is parabolic., The axis of parabola is X 0, b, 0, 2a, i.e. (parallel to y-axis)., , a> 0,, , x-axis, D< 0, , or x , , If a > 0, then the parabola opens upward., If a < 0, then the parabola opens downward., Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , The equation x x 2 4 has:, a. two real roots, b. one real and one imaginary root, c. two imaginary roots, d. one real root, , Figure: 19.3, , Note: Intersection with axis y-axis: For y axis x 0, y c., , 2., , The roots of the equations x 2 2 x 0 can be obtained, graphically by finding the abscissas of the points of, intersection of each of the following pairs of equations, except, a. y x, y x 2, b. y x 2 , y 2 x, c. y x 2 2 x 1, y 1, , d. y x 2 2 x, y 0
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II.A.140, , 3., , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , If in applying the quadratic formula to a quadratic, equation, b2, f x ax bx c 0 it happens that C , . Then the, 4a, 2, , graph of y f x will certainly:, a. have a maximum, c. be a tangent to x-axis, 4., , b. have a minimum, d. be a tangent to the y-axis, , x x 1 m 1, , In the equation, , x 1 m 1, , , , x, the roots are equal, m, , when, a. m , 5., , 1, 2, , b. m , , 1, 2, , c. m 0, , 7., , 15. If, , b. 0 x 1, d. 1 x 2, , a. 7, , b. –9, , The equation, , x 10 , , 6, x 10, , 16. If, , d. None, , c. 85, , , , 1, 2, , d. None of these, , 2, , of, , the, , equation a b c x 2 b c a x c a b 0 is 1, then the, other root is:, a., , a b c , , b., , a b c , , c a b, , c., , a b c , , b c a , , d., , c a b, a b c , , 10. If a and b are the roots of x 2 px q 0, then, , a 2 b2 0 ___, a. p 2 q 2, , b. p 2 2q, , c. p2 q2, , d. p 2 2q, , 11. The solution of, , c. x 1, , and, , , , are the roots of the quadratic, , c. –7, , d. 7 or –7, , b., , 7, only, 6, , c. 2 or, , 7, 6, , d. None, , 18. If a b c, then the roots of the equation, a. real and unequal, c. real and equal, 19. If the sum of, , the, , b. imaginary, d. none of these, roots of the, , quadratic, , equation 3x (2k 1) x (k 5) 0 is equal to the product, 2, , of the roots, then the value of ‘k’ is:, a. –4, b. 4, c. 0, , d. 1, , 20. For a quadratic equation, 3 5 is one root. The other, root must be, a. 3 5, c. cannot be determined, , b. 3 5, d. none of the above, , 21. If , are the roots of the equation x 2 px q 0, then, , the quadratic equation whose roots are, a. qx2 px 1 0, , 5 x 1 x 1 2 is :, , a. x 2, x 1 b. x 2, , , , b. a 2 b 2 c. a 2 b 2 d. None, , x a x b x b x c x c x a 0 are, , c. 4 x 17 x 4 0, , b c a , , b, xa, then the value of x in terms of a and b is :, , xa, b, , a. 2 only, , 5 can be found by, , root, , 1, 4, , 17. The roots of 2 x 3 3 x 5 5 x 6 0 are, , b. 4 x 25 x 4 0, , one, , d. 1, , c. 5, , then the value of ‘p’is:, a. 1, b. 7, , a. 4 x 25 x 4 0, , If, , b. 0, , equation x 2 px 12 0 with the coordination 1,, , 5 has:, , The roots of the equation 2 x 2 x, solving:, 2, , x 1 x 1 1 0, then 4x equals :, , a. a 2 b 2, , The difference of the roots of x 2 7 x 9 0 is:, , x 4 x 3 1 0 has:, , a. no root, b. one real root, c. one real and one imaginary root, d. two imaginary roots, , If x 1 1 1 , then, , 2, , 9., , 13. The equation, , 14. If, , d. m 1, , a. an extraneous root between –5 and –1, b. an extraneous root between –10 and –6, c. two extraneous roots, d. a real root between 20 and 25, 8., , constants is zero. The roots must be:, a. equal and integral, b. rational and equal, c. real and equal, d. imaginary, , a. 4 1, , a. x 1, c. x is infinite, 6., , 12. The discriminant of ax 2 2 x c 0 with a, c and real, 2, , d. None, , , , , , 2, 2, c. qx 2q p x q 0, , , , , , and, is:, , , , , , 2, 2, b. qx p 2q x q 0, , d. none of the above
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Quadratic Equations, , II.A.141, , 22. Find the value of k, if the expression x 2 kx 1 is, factorisable into two linear factors., a. k 2, b. k 2, c. either k 2 or k 2, d. neither k 2 nor k 2, 23. The perimeter of a rectangular room is 34 m and the, length of a diagonal is 13 m. The dimensions of the room, is 13 m. The dimensions of the room are, a. 9 m and 2 m, b. 15 m and 2 m, c. 12 m and 5 m, d. 17 m and 7 m, 24. If x 4ax 3 0 and 2 x 3ax 9 0 have, a. 3, b. 1, c. 1 only, d. none, 2, , a., c., , 25. The roots of the quadratic equation abx a b x 1 are :, a. a , b, 1 1, c. ,, a b, , 26. If , , , , , 2, , ,, , 1, , , , d., , 2, , , ,, , , a. 4, c. 6, , b. 5, d. None, , 29. If the roots of, , 1, 1, 1, , are equal in magnitude, xa xb c, , but opposite in sign, then the product of the roots is:, , d. none, , a 2 b2 , a. , , 2 , c., , a. x 2 x 1 0, , b. x 2 x 1 0, , c. x 2 2 x 1 0, , d. None of these, , roots, , of, , a2 b2, 2, , d., , 1, 2, , 27. If and are the roots of the equation x 2 ax b 0, , the, , a 2 b2 , b. , , 4 , , 30. The value of 2 , , 2, , then, , 1, , b. a b, a b, , are and is:, , b 0,, , , , value of is:, , x 2 2 x 1 0, then the quadratic equation whose roots, , where, , b. 2 2, , 6 x 2 11x 0 are rational numbers, then the smallest, , be the roots of the quadratic equation, , 2, , 1, , ,, , 28. If is a positive integer and the roots of the equation, , 2, , 2, , 1, , the, , equation, , 1, 2 , , a2 b2, 2, , is :, , a. 1 2, , b. 1 2, , c. 1 2, , d. None of these, , bx2 ax 1 0 are:, ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , For (c) y x 2 2 x 1 1, , 10., , d, , a, , c, , b, , d, , c, , b, , c, , d, , d, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , c, , c, , a, , c, , a, , d, , c, , c, , b, , b, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , c, , c, , c, , b, , c, , d, , a, , d, , a, , b, , x2 2 x 0, For (d) y x 2 2 x 0, , x2 2 x 0., (c) Since c , , 3., SOLUTIONS, 1., , x2 4x, (d) x x 2 4, Squaring on the both sides, , x 2 16 x 8 x, x2 9x 18 0, x 6 x 3 0 x 6 or 3, 2, , 2., , But by checking, only x = 3 satisfies the equation., (a) Except (a) the remaining equations show the equation, , x 2x 0, 2, , For (b) y x 2 x, 2, , x2 2 x 0, , b2, 4a, , b2 4ac b2 4ac 0, , This implies that f(x) = 0 has equal roots, i.e., the curve, touches the x-axis at exactly one point., 4., , (b), , x x 1 m 1, , x 1 m 1, , , , x, mx2 mx m2 m mx2 mx, m, , x x, 2, , x 2 x m m 1 0, a 1, b 1, c m m 1, We have, b2 4ac 0, , 1 4 m m 1 0, , , 2m 1, , 2, , 0, , 4m 2 4m 1 0, 1, 2, , m .
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II.A.142, , 5., , , , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , , , (d) x 1 x, Squaring on both sides, x2 x 1 0, , x, , 1 , , 1 4 1 1, , , , 1 5, 2, , Let , the roots. , , , , 2, , 2, , , , 6., , (c) x 7, x 9 0, , 82 82 0, , x, , 7., , 4 1 9 , , 2 1, , 7 85, , 2, , 7 85 7 85, Difference , , 85., 2, 2, 6, (b) x 10 , 5 x 10 6 5 x 10, x 10, , a, , a, , Hence, the roots are real and equal., Squaring on both sides, x 4 1 x 3 2 x 3, 3 x 3, , It is impossible because a +ve number cannot be equal to, –ve number. So there is no root for the given equation., , 2, , (c) 2 x , , 2, , 5, , x, , 2x 2 5 x, , 4 x 8 x 4 25 x, 4 x2 17 x 4 0., , x 4 1 x3, , 13. (a), , Squaring on both sides,, x2 8x 16 25x 250, , 8., , x 1 , , 14. (c), , , , (d) Let be another root., c, c a b, Product of roots 1 , a, a b c , , , c a b , , a b c , , ., , 10. (d) We have, a b ; p ab q, , a2 b2 a b 2ab p2 2q., 2, , 11. (c) 5 x 1 2 x 1, Squaring on both sides, 5x 1 4 x 1 4 x 1, , x 1 1, , Squaring on both sides, , x 1 x 11 2 x 1, 3 2 x 1, Squaring on both sides 9 4 x 1, , 2, , 9., , a, , So, 2, , x 4 5 x 10, , x 17 x 234 0, x2 26 x 9 x 234 0, x x 26 9 x 26 0, x 26 x 9 0 x 26 (or) –9., , 9, 4, , x 1 , , , 5, 4, , 5, 4 x 4 5., 4, b, xa, , xa, b, , 15. (a), , x 2 a 2 b2, x 2 b2 a 2, x a2 b2 ., 16. (d) x 2 px 12 0 p, 12, 1, , We have,, , , , 4, , x 1 x 1, , , , (Squaring on both sides), x2 2x 1 x 1, , p 1 4 12, , x 2 3x 2 0, x 2 x 1 0 x 2 (or) x 1, So, , But x 2 is not satisfying the given equation., x 1 is the only solution., , 2 2, a, , 4, , 1 x 2., 2, , 4 ac 0, , c, 2, , a a2, , , , So, , 7 , , 2, , a, , 1 5, only. x 1.6 nearly., 2, , 7 , , , , 4ac 8 ac 2 c 2, , 2, , 2 1, , Here x , , 12. (c) ax 2 2 2 x c 0 2 2, , 2, , 2, , 2, , , , p 2 49, , , , p, , , , 2, , 49 7, , p = 7 (or) –7.
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Quadratic Equations, , II.A.143, , 2 x 3 3x 5 5 x 6, , 17. (c), , Squaring on both sides, , 2 x 3 3x 5 2 2 x 3 3x 5 5 x 6, , So, , the required quadratic equation is, , p 2 2q , x 1 0, q , , x2 , , 2 2 x 3 3x 5 2, , qx2 p2 2q x q 0, , , , qx2 2q p2 x q 0 ., , 2 x 3 3x 5 1, , Squaring on both sides 2 x 3 3 x 5 1, , 6 x2 19 x 15 1 0, , 22. (c) We have, , b2 4ac 0, , (see synopsis), , 6 x 19 x 14 0, , k 4 11 0, , x 2 6 x 7 0, , k2 4 0, k 2 k 2 0, , 2, , x 2 (or), , 2, , 7, (Both satisfy the equation), 6, , 18. (c) x a x b x b x c , , x c x a 0, 3 x 2 2 x a b c ab bc ca 0, , So, k 2 (or) k 2., 23. (c) Let the length be ‘a’ m and breadth be ‘b’ m., Perimeter = 2(1 + b) = 34 m, 2(a + b) = 34 m, , a + b = 17, , D b 2 4ac, , Diagonal = 13 m. a b 2 13, , 2, 2 a b c 4 3 ab bc ca , , , , a 2 b2 169, , 4 a2 b2 c2 ab bc ca , , , , a b, , 2 2a2 2b2 2c2 2ab 2bc 2ca , , , , 17, , 2, 2, 2, 2 a b b c c a , , , , = 0 (since a b c ), So, the roots are real and equal., sum of the roots = product of the roots, 2 k 1, , 3, , k 5, , , , 24. (b) We have,, , c1a2 c2 a1 , , Here a1 1, b1 4 a, c1 3, 2, , 4a 9 3a 3, , 2, 2, 2, 2, , , 1, , , , , a1b2 a2b1 b1c2 b2 c1 , , 3 2 9 1 1 3a 2 4 a , , p, q, , p 2q, q, , 2, , a2 2, b2 3a, c2 9, , 21. (c) x 2 px q 0, , , , If a1 x 2 b1 x c1 0 and a2 x 2 b2 x c2 0, common root, then, , 3 5., , , , .........(ii), , Solving (i) and (ii) we get a =12 m and b = 5 m., , 20. (b) The other root must be conjugate of 3 5, that is, , 2, , 2ab 169, , a–b=7, , 2k 1 k 5 k 4., , , , 2ab 169, , a b a b 2 4ab 17 2 4 60 7, , *, , 3, , 2, , 2, , ab 60, , 19. (b) 3 x 2 2 k 1 x k 5 0, , , , ......(i), 2, , , , , , 6 9 3a 8a 36a 9a, , , , 15, , 2, , 2, , 5a 45a , , 225 5 45a 2, a 2 1 a 1., , have a
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II.A.144, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 25. (c) The equation, , 29. (a), , abx a b x 1 0, 2, , xa xb, 1, , x a x b c, , ax 1 bx 1 0, x 1,1, , 2x a b c x a x b , , a b, , Hence the roots are, , x 2 x a b ab 2cx a b c 0, , 1 1, , ., a b, , 26. (d) The roots of x 2 x 1 0 are 1, 1., 2, , , , 2 and 1., , , , The equation whose roots are, 2, 1 is (x – 2)(x – 1) = 0, , i.e., x 2 3x 2 0., 27. (a) Since , are roots of x 2 ax b,, , x 2 x a b 2c ab ca bc 0, But since roots are equal in magnitude but opposite in, sign, We have 0, , , , a b 2c , 1, a b 2c 0, , , 2c a b, , Let , be the roots of bx ax 1., 2, , Then , , , , , , , , 1, , , , 1, , , , a, 1, and , b, b, , 1 1, and, , , , , , , , , 1 1, , , But c , , , ab, 2, , ab , , a b, , 1, , , , 2, , 2, , 2, ., , 28. (d) Since roots of 6 x 2 11x 0 are rational,, We have, 121 – 24 is a perfect square., Clearly, for 3,121 24 49 a perfect square., , x 2, , , , a 2 b2 , 2, , 1, , 30. (b) Let x 2 , , , , and , , 0, , Also ab ac bc c a b , , a and b, , , , 1, 1, 1, , can be rewritten as, xa xb c, , 1, 1, 2, 2 , , 1, 2 , (on simplification), , x 1 2, But the value of the given expression cannot be negative, or less than 2, therefore 1 2 is required answer., ,
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Progression, , II.A.145, , 20, , Progression, , Arithmetic or arithmetics (from the Greek arithmos, "number"), is the oldest and most elementary branch of mathematics. It is, an elementary part of number theory, and number theory, (addition, subtraction, multiplication and division) is, considered to be one of the top-level divisions of modern, mathematics, along with algebra, geometry, and analysis. The, terms arithmetic and higher arithmetic were used until the, beginning of the 20th century as synonyms for number theory, and are, sometimes, still used to refer to a wider part of number, theory., The sequences whose terms follow certain patterns are called, progression; Generally there are three types of progression: (i), Arithmetic Progression (A.P.) (ii) Geometric Progression, (G.P.) and (iii) Harmonic Progression (H.P.), Arithmetic Progression: A sequence is called an A.P., if the, difference of a term and the previous term is always same. i.e., d t n 1 t n for all n N. The constant difference, generally, , denoted by ‘d’ is called the common difference., If we denote the starting number i.e. the 1st number by ‘a’ and a, fixed, number, to, the, added, is, ‘d’, then, a , a d , a 2 d , a 3d , a 4 d , forms an A.P., Let A.P. be a , a d , a 2 d , a 3d , , Then,, , First term a1 a 0.d, , Second term a2 a 1.d, Third term a3 a 2.d, nth term an a n 1 d, , , , an a n 1 d is called the nth term., , Sometimes we require certain number of terms in A.P. The, following ways of selecting terms are generally very convenient., No. of Terms, , Terms, , Common, Difference, d, , For 3 terms, , a d , a, a d, , For 4 terms, , a 3d , a d , a d , a 3d, , 2d, , For 5 terms, , a 2d , a d , a d , a 2d, , d, , For 6 terms, , a 5d , a 3d , a d , a d , a 3d , a 5d, , 2d, , Sum of n terms of an A.P., , Let A.P. be a , a d , a 1d , a 3 d , a n 1 d, Then, Sn a a d a n 2 d a n 1 d , . . . (i), also, Sn a n 1 d a n 2 d a d a, . . . (ii), Add (i) and (ii), , 2Sn 2a n 1 d 2a n 1 d 2a n 1 d, 2Sn n 2a n 1 d , S n n 2a n 1 d , 2, , S n n a a n 1 d n a l , 2, , Sn , , 2, , n, a l where is the last term., 2, , Properties of A.P: For any real numbers a and b, the sequence, whose nth term is an an b is always an A.P. with common, , difference ‘a’ (i.e. coefficient of term containing n), If any nth term of sequence is a linear expression in n then, the given sequence is an A.P., If a constant term is added to or subtracted from each term, of an A.P. then the resulting sequence is also an A.P. with, the same common difference., If each term of a given A.P. is multiplied or divided by a, non-zero constant K, then the resulting sequence is also an, A.P. with common difference Kd or respectively. Where d, is the common difference of the given A.P., In a finite A.P. the sum of the terms equidistant from the, beginning and end is always same and is equal to the sum, of 1st and last term., If three numbers a, b, care in A.P., then 2b a c., Geometric Progression (G.P.): A progression is called a G.P., if the ratio of its each term to its previous term is always, constant. This constant ratio is called its common ratio and it is, generally denoted by r.
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II.A.146, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Example 1: The sequence 4, 12, 36, 108, ….. is a G.P.,, , a ( r 1), lr a, and S n , , (when |r|> 1), r 1, r 1, S n na , (when r = 1), n, , Sn , , 12 36 108, because, , , ..... 3 , which is constant., 4 12 36, Solution: Clearly, this sequence is a G.P. with first term 4 and, common ratio 3., , Sum of infinite terms of a G.P., , 1, 1 1 3 9, The sequence , , , ,.... is a G.P. with first term and, 3, 3 2 4 8, , When |r|< 1, (or 1 r 1) ; S , , 1, 1, 3, common ratio . General term of a G.P., 2, 3, 2, , , , , We know that, a , ar , ar 2 , ar 3 ,.....ar n 1 is a sequence of, , G.P.Here, the first term is ‘a’ and the common ratio is, ‘r’.The general term or nth term of a G.P. is Tn ar n 1 ., It should be noted that, r , , the beginning ar, , th, , .Also, the p term from the end of a, n 1, , 1, G.P. with last term l and common ratio r is l ., r, Selection of terms in a G.P., When the product is given, the following way is adopted in, selecting certain number of terms:, , Number of terms, , Terms to be taken, , 3, , a, , a , ar, r, , 4, , a a, , , ar , ar 3, r3 r, , 5, , a a, , , a , ar , ar 2, r2 r, , When the product is not given, then the following way is, adopted in selection of terms, Number of terms, , Terms to be taken, , 3, , a , ar , ar 2, , 4, , a , ar , ar 2 , ar 3, , 5, , a , ar , ar 2 , ar 3 , ar 4, , Sum of first ‘n’ terms of a G.P.: If a be the first term, r the, common ratio, then sum S n of first n terms of a G.P. is, , given by, a (1 r n ), a lr, and S n , , (when |r|< 1), Sn , 1 r, 1 r, , If r 1, then S doesn’t exist., Geometric mean:, If a, G, b are in G.P., then G is called G.M. between a and, b., If a, G1 , G2 , G3 ,.... Gn , b are in G.P. then G1 , G2 , G3 ,.... Gn are, , called n G.M.’s between a and b., , T2 T3, ...... ., T1 T2, , pth term from the end of a finite G.P.: If G.P. consists of, ‘n’ terms, pth term from the end ( n p 1) th term from, n p, , a, ., 1 r, , Insertion of geometric means:, (a) Single G.M. between a and b: If a and b are two real, , numbers then single G.M. between a and b ab ., (b) n G.M.’s between a and b: If G1 , G2 , G3 ,......, Gn are n, G.M.’s between a and b, then, 1, , 2, , b n 1, b n1, G1 ar a , G2 ar 2 a ,, a, a, 3, , n, , b n1, b n1, G3 ar a , ……………….., Gn ar n a ., a, a, Properties of G.P., If all the terms of a G.P. be multiplied or divided by the, same non-zero constant, then it remains a G.P., with the, same common ratio., The reciprocal of the terms of a given G.P. form a G.P. with, common ratio as reciprocal of the common ratio of the, original G.P., If each term of a G.P. with common ratio r be raised to the, same power k, the resulting sequence also forms a G.P. with, 3, , common ratio r k ., In a finite G.P., the product of terms equidistant from the, beginning and the end is always the same and is equal to, the product of the first and last term. i.e., if a1 , a2 , a3 ,...... an, be in G.P. Then,, a1 an a2 an 1 a3 an 2 a4 an 3 .......... ar . an r 1, If the terms of a given G.P. are chosen at regular intervals,, then the new sequence so formed also forms a G.P., If a1 , a2 , a3 ,....., an ...... is a G.P. of non-zero, non-negative, , terms, then log a1 , log a2 , log a3 ,.....log an ,...... is an A.P. and, vice-versa., Three non-zero numbers a, b, c are in G.P., iff b 2 ac .
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II.A.147, , Progression, , If first term of a G.P. of n terms is a and last term is l, then, the product of all terms of the G.P. is ( al ) n / 2 ., , c. Let a, b be two given numbers. If n numbers, H 1 , H 2 ,...... H n are inserted between a and b such that, , If there be n quantities in G.P. whose common ratio is r and, S m denotes the sum of the first m terms, then the sum of, , the sequence a , H 1 , H 2 , H 3 ,...... H n , b is a H.P., then, H 1 , H 2 ,...... H n are called n harmonic means between, , r, their product taken two by two is, S n S n −1 ., r +1, If a x , a x , a x ,...., a x are in G.P., then x1 , x2 , x3 ,...., xn will, , a and b., Now, a , H 1 , H 2 , H 3 ,...... H n , b are in H.P., , be are in A.P., , ⇒, , 1, , 2, , 3, , n, , Harmonic Progression (H.P.): A progression is called a, harmonic progression (H.P.) if the reciprocals of its terms are, in A.P., 1, 1, 1, Standard form: +, +, + ...., a a + d a + 2d, 1 1 1 1, Example 1: The sequence 1, , , , ,... is a H.P., because, 3 5 7 9, the sequence 1, 3, 5, 7, 9, ….. is an A.P. Proof?, , Solution: General term of an H.P:, 1 1, 1, If the H.P. be as ,, ,, ,.... then corresponding A.P., a a + d a + 2d, is a , a + d , a + 2 d ,....., Tn of A.P. is a + ( n − 1) d, , ∴ Tn of H.P. is, , 1 1 1, 1 1, ,, ,, ,......, , are in A.P., a H1 H 2, Hn b, , Let D be the common difference of this A.P. Then,, 1, = ( n + 2)th term = Tn + 2, b, , a−b, 1 1, ., = + ( n + 1) D ⇒ D =, (n + 1) ab, b a, Thus, if n harmonic means are inserted between two given, numbers a and b, then the common difference of the, corresponding A.P. is given by D =, , Also,, , 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, = +D,, = + 2D ,…….,, = + nD ,, H1 a, H2 a, Hn a, , Where, D =, , 1, a + (n − 1) d, , In order to solve the question on H.P., we should form the, corresponding A.P. Thus, general term:, 1, Tn =, a + (n − 1) d, , 2ab, ., a+b, , b. H.M. of n non-zero numbers a1 , a2 , a3 ,...., a n is given, 1, 1, 1, +, + ..... +, a a2, an, 1, by, ., = 1, H, n, , (a) No term of H.P. can be zero., (b) If H is the H.M. between a and b, then, 1, 1, 1 1, +, = +, H −a H −b a b, , b. ( H − 2 a )( H − 2 b ) = H 2, , Harmonic Mean: If three or more numbers are in H.P., then, the numbers lying between the first and last are called, harmonic means (H.M.’s) between them. For example 1, 1/3,, 1/5, 1/7, 1/9 are in H.P. So 1/3, 1/5 and 1/7 are three H.M.’s, between 1 and 1/9., Also, if a, H, b are in H.P., then H is called harmonic mean, between a and b., (a) Insertion of harmonic means, a. Single H.M. between a and b =, , a−b, ., (n + 1) ab, , Properties of H.P, , a., , 1, or Tn of H.P. =, Tn of A.P., , a−b, ., (n + 1) ab, , c., , H +a H +b, +, =2, H −a H −b, , Example 2. Find the common difference of the following A.P., 1, 4, 7, 10, 13, 16,...., Solution: 4 – 1 = 7 – 4 = 10 – 7 = 13 – 10 = 16 – 13 = 3, (constant)., Common difference (d) = 3., Example 3. Find the A.P. whose 1st term is 10 and common, difference is 5., Solution: Given : First term (a) = 10 and common difference, (d) = 5., A.P. is 10, 15, 20, 25, 30, .....
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II.A.148, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Example 4. Determine the A.P. whose third term is 16 and the, difference of 5th term from 7th term is 12., Solution: Given : a3 a 3 1 d a 2d 16, a7 a5 12, , . . . (i), . . . (ii), , a 6d a 4d 12, a 6d a 4d 12, 2d 12 or d 6, , Example 8. If p , q, , th, , th, , and r, , term of an A.P. are a, b, c, , respectively, then show than a q r b p c p q 0., Solution: a p a A p 1 D a, , . . . (i), , aq b A q 1 D b, , . . . (ii), , ar c A r 1 D c, , . . . (iii), , Now, L.H.S. a q r b r p c p q , , A p 1 D q r A q 1 D r p , , Put d = 6 in equation (i), , a 16 12, a4, , A r 1 D p q , , A.P. is 4, 10, 16, 22, 28, ......, Example 5. Which term of the sequence 72, 70, 68, 66, ... is 40?, Solution: Here 1st term x = 72 and common difference, d = 70 – 72 = – 2, For finding the value of n, , an a n 1 d, 40 72 n 1 2, , 40 72 2n 2, 32 2n 2, 34 2n or n 17 17th term is 40., Example 6. Is 184, a term of the sequence 3, 7, 11,... ?, Solution: Here 1st term (a) = 3 and common difference, (d) = 7 – 3 = 4nth term an a n 1 d, 184 3 n 1 4, , 185 4n, , th, , n, , 181 4n 4, , 185, 4, , Since, n is not a natural number.184 is not a term of the given, sequence., 1, 1, 3, Example 7. Which term of the sequence 20,19 ,18 ,17 is, 4, 2, 4, the 1st negative?, Solution: Here 1st term (a) = 20, common difference, 1, 3, d 19 20 , 4, 4, Let nth term of the given A.P. be 1st negative term an 0, , i.e. a n 1 d 0, , Example 9. If m times the mth term of an A.P. is equal to n, times its n th term. Show that the (m + n)th term of the A.P., Solution: Let A the 1st term and D be the common difference, of the given A.P., Then, mam nan, , m A m 1 D n A n 1 D , A m n D m2 m n2 n 0, , m n A D m n 1 0, a m n 0., , Example 10. If the pth term of an A.P. is q and the qth term is, , p, prove that its nth term is p q n ., Solution: a p q A p 1 D q, , . . . (i), , and aq p A q 1 D p, , .....(ii), , Solve (i) and (ii) to get D 1 and A p q 1, , an A n 1 D, an p q 1 n 1 1, an p q n., , Example 11. If the mth term of an A.P., , 1, 1, and nth term be, n, m, , then show that its (mn) term is 1., , 83 3n, 3, , 0, 20 n 1 0 , 4, 4, 4, , 3n 83 n , , = 0. R.H.S, , 83, 3, , n 27, , 2, 3, , 2, Since, 28 is the natural number just greater then 27 ., 3, st, th, 1 negative term is 28 ., , Solution: am , , and am , , 1, 1, A m 1 D , n, n, , 1, 1, A n 1 D , m, m, , By solving (i) and (ii) D , , 1, 1, and A , nm, mn, , amn A mn 1 D 1., , . . . (i), . . . (ii)
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Progression, , II.A.149, , Example 12. The sum of three number in A.P. is –3 and their, product is 8. Find the numbers., Solution: Three no.‘s in A.P. be a d , a , a d, , If, If, , 994 105 n 1 7, , a d aa d 8, , a a2 d 2 8, , 1 1 d, , 1 d 8 d 9 d 3, , 2, , 8, , 2, , Solution: 1st no. is 105 and last no. is 994., , Find n, , a d a a d 3 3a 3, a 1, and, , Example 14. Find the sum of all three digit natural numbers., Which are divisible by 7., , n 128, , 2, , a 8 and d 3 numbers are –4, –1, 2., a 8 and d = –3 numbers are 2, –1, –4., , Sum, S128 , , 128, 105 994 , 2, , Example 15. Check whether a n 2 n 2 1 is an A.P. or not., Solution: a n 2 n 2 1, , Example 13. Find the sum of 20 terms of the A.P. 1, 4, 7,, 10....., Solution: a 1, d 3, , Then an 1 2 n 1 1, 2, , an 1 an 2 n2 2n 1 1 2n2 1, , n, 2 a n 1 d , 2, , , , Sn, , , , S 20 , , 2n 2 4n 2 1 2n 2 1, , 4n 2, which is not constant, , 20, 2 1 20 1 3, 2 , , The above sequence is not an A.P., , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , If the AM of ‘a’ and ‘b’ is, , a n 1 b n 1, , then the value, an bn, , 7., , 1, 1, 1, 1, , , , ___, a1 an a2 an 1 a3 an 2, an a1, , of n is:, a. 1, 2., , The value of, , b., 15, , 1, 2, , 2k 3, , c. –1, , d. 0, , 4., 5., , a. 390, b. 195, c. 210, d. 420, The sum of the first 100 positive integers exactly divisible, by 7 is:, a. 35350, b. 35700, c. 34650, d. 1393, The sum of 20 terms of log 2 + log 4 + log 8 + ... is:, a. 20 log 2, b. log 20, c. 210 log 2 d. log 2, If ‘a’ is the AM of 3 numbers and ‘b’ is the AM of their, squares, then the AM of their pair wise products in terms, of a and b is:, a., , b., , 3a 2 b, 2, , b 3a 2, d. None, 2, In an AP, the sum of 3 numbers is 15 and their product is, 45. Then the three numbers are:, a. 1, 3, 15, b. 2, 4, 9, c. 1, 5, 9, d. 0, 5, 9, , c., , 6., , 3a 2 b, 2, , a., , 1, a1 an, , 1 1, 1, , an , a1 a2, , b., , 2, a1 an, , 1 1, 1, , an , a1 a2, , is:, , k 1, , 3., , If a1 , a2 , a3 , , an 2 , an 1 , an are in AP then, , 1 1, 1, , an , a1 a2, d. none of these, If the nth term of an AP is 3n + 5, then sum of the ‘n’, terms?, c., , 8., , a1 an, 2, , 3n 2 13n, 3n 2 13n, b., 2, 2, d. none of these, c. cannot be determined, 9. The AM between 10½ and 25½ is:, a. 15, b. 18, c. 20, d. 17.5, 10. A man saves Rs.100 in a certain year and in each year, thereafter he saves Rs.40 more than the preceding year. In, how many years will his total savings amount to, Rs.15,600?, a. 22 years, b. 24 years, c. 26 years, d. None, , a.
Page 321 : II.A.150, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 11. The sum of ‘n’ terms of the series a, 3a, 5a, ... is:, a. na, b. 2na, c. n2a, d. None, 12. A circle with area A1 is contained in the interior of a, larger circle with area A1 A2 . If the radius of the larger, , circle is 3 and A1 , A2 , A1 A2 are in AP, then the radius of, the smaller circle is:, 3, a., 2, , b. 1, , 2, , c., , 13. If x y and the sequence x , a1 , a 2 , y and x, b1 , b2 , y each, , are in AP, then, a., , 2, 3, , a2 _ a1 , ?, b2 b1 , b., , c.1, , d., , ba, b., n 1, , ba, c., n, , ba, d., n, , sum of the first one hundred terms of the progressions, (a1+b1), (a2 + b2), ..., a. 0, b. 100, c. 10,000, d. 5,05,000, 16. The number of terms in an AP is even. The sums of the odd, and even numbered terms are 24 and 30 respectively. If the, last term exceeds the first term by 10.5, the number of terms, in the AP is:, a. 6, b. 8, c. 10, d. 12, , , , , , , , 17. The nth term of the series 12 , 12 22 , 12 22 32 , is:, b., , n n 1, , 2, , d., , 4, , n n 1, , 2, n n 1 2n 1, , 6, , 18. For what value of ' x ' are the terms 2 x, x 10 and 3x 2, , in AP?, a. 2, , b. 4, , 19. If the mth term of an AP is, , c. 6, , d. 1, , 1, 1, and nth term is , then the, n, m, , sum of first mn terms is:, a. mn1, , b., , mn 1, 2, , b. 115, , 21. If, , the, , to, , the, , c. 116, , distinct, , d. 231, , non-zero, , x y z , y z x , z x y form, , numbers, , a, , geometric, , a. r 2 r 1 0, , b. r 2 r 1 0, , c. r 4 r 2 1 0, , d. None of these, , a. for all positive values of a1 and a 2, , such that a1 25, b1 75 and a100 b100 100. Find the, , c., , 2 4 6 2n, , a. 110, , solution, , 115, :, , 116, , sequence a1 , a2 , a3 , is a geometric progression, , 3, 4, , 15. Let a1 , a2 , and b1 , b2 , be the arithmetic progressions, , 2, , integral, , that an 2 an an 1 for all positive integers ‘n’, then the, , 3, 2, , a. n, , equation, , positive, , 1 3 5 2 n 1, , 22. If a1 , a2 , a3 , is a sequence of positive numbers such, , 14. If there are ‘n’ AMs between a and b, then common, difference d?, ba, a., n 1, , a, , progression with common ratio “r”, then “r” satisfies the, equation, , d. 3, , 3, , 20. Find, , c., , mn 1, 2, , d., , mn 1, 3, , b. if and only if a1 a2 1, c. if and only if a1 a2, d. if and only if a2 1, 23. If the first term of an infinite geometric series is a positive, integer, the common ratio is the reciprocal of a positive, integer, and the sum of the series is 3, then the sum of the, first two terms of the series is:, a., , 1, 3, , b., , 2, 3, , c., , 8, 3, , d. 2, , 24. Let a1 , a2 , and b1 , b2 , be arithmetic progressions, , such that a1 25, b1 75 and a100 b100 100. Find the, sum of the first one hundred terms of the progression, a1 b1 , a2 b2 , , a. 50500, , b. 10000, , c. 100, , d. 0, , 25. The number of terms in an A.P. is even. The sums of the odd, and even numbered terms are 24 and 30 respectively. If the, last term exceeds the first by 10.5, the number of terms in the, A.P. are:, a. 18, b. 12, c. 10, d. 8, 26. If a, b can c are in G.P. with 1 <a<b<c and n> 1 is an, integer, then log a n, log b n, log c n form a sequence, a. which is a G.P., b. which is an A.P., c. in which the reciprocals of the terms form an A.P., d. none of these, , an , a1 2, an 1 an 2n n 1 , then, , 27. If, , the, , a. 9900, , sequence, , b. 9902, , is, , defined, , a100 equals:, , c. 9904, , d. 10100, , by
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Progression, , II.A.151, , 28. If the sum of the first 10 terms and the sum of the first, 100 terms of a given A.P. are 100 and 10 respectively., Then the sum of the first 110 terms is:, a. 90, b. –90, c. 110, d. –110, 29. A circle with area A1 is contained in the interior of a larger, circle with area A1 A2 . If the radius of the larger circle is, , 3 and A1 , A2 , A1 A2 are in A.P., then the radius of the, 3, 2, , b., , 2, , c. 3, , 3, , d., , 3, 2, , a., c., , n2 n 1, , b., , 2, n2 n 1, 4, , 31. The, , sum, , a., , 2, , a., c., , 6, , n n2 1, , d., , 6, , series, , a., , n n2 1, , c., , 6, , 33. If A1 be the A.M. and G1 , G2 be two G.Ms between two, G13 G23, is equal to:, G1G2 A1, , b. 1, d. None of these, , 34. If the sum to n terms of a series be 5n 2 2 n, then second, , term is:, a. 15, 35., , b. 17, , c. 10, , b., , n 2 3n, 4, , c., , n2 1, 4, , d., , n terms, , n2 1, 4, , of the series, , n n 1, , 2, , , when n, , 2, , n 2 n 1, , b., , 2, , n n 1, , 2, , n n 1 2 n 1, , 6, , n n 1, 2, , d., , 2, , 2, , 2, , 40. The third term of a G.P. is 4, the product of the first, five terms is:, , n n 1, , 1, 1, is always equal to:, , ba bc, a. 2/a, b. 2/b, c. 2/c, d. None of these, , a. 3, c. 2, , n2 n, 4, , 6, , 32. If a, b, c be positive real numbers forming a H.P., then, , positive numbers a and b, then, , d. 1, 2 , , is even. When n is odd, the sum is:, , the, , b., , c. 1, 2, , 12 2.22 32 2.42 52 2.62 is, , n .1 n 1 .2 n 2 .3 1.n is:, n n 1 n 2 , , b. 1, 2 , , 39. The sum of the first, , 2, , of, , 5 1 5 3 , ,, d. r , , 2 , 2, , 38. The sum of the series 1 + 4 + 3 + 6 + 5 + 8 + ……. upto n, terms when n is an even number is:, , n n 1, , n n 1 , d. , , 4 , , 2, , 5 1 5 1 , ,, c. r , , 2 , 2, , a. 1, 2, , 30. The sum of “n” terms 1, 8, 27, 64, ... is:, 2, , 5 1 , , , b. r , 2, , , 37. If a, b, c are in A.P., then the straight line, ax by c 0 will always pass through the point, , smaller circle is:, a., , 5 1 , , , a. r , 2, , , d. 5, , A, B, C of a triangle ABC are in A.P. If a, b, c are the, , corresponding sides, then, , a. 4, , 3, , b. 4, , c. 4, , 4, , d. None of these, , 41. If a, b , c are in H.P. , then the value of, a. 0, , b. a 2 c2 ac b2, , c. b2 a 2 ab c2, , d. None of these, , 36. Sides of a triangle ABC; a, b, c are in G.P. If ‘r’ be the, common ratio of this G.P., then, , b. 1, , c. 2, , ba bc, is:, , ba bc, d. 3, , th, , 42. If first and (2n – 1) terms of an A.P. , G. P. and, H.P., are equal and their nth terms are a, b, c, respectively , then, a. a c 2b, 43., , b. a c b, , The sum of the infinite series, a., , 1, 3, , b., , 1, 2, , 44. If a, b, c are in H.P., then, a., , a. b2 c 2 bc a 2, , 5, , c, a, , b., , a, c, , c. a b c, , d. ac b2 0, , 1, 1, 1, , , is :, 1.4 4.7 7.10, , c., , 1, 4, , d., , 1, 7, , ab, is always equal to, bc, , c., , b, a, , d., , a, b, , 45. If H be the harmonic mean of a and b then the value of, H H, 2 is:, a b, a. 0, , b. 2, , c. 1, , d. a b
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II.A.152, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , d, , b, , a, , c, , b, , c, , b, , a, , b, , c, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , c, , d, , c, , b, , c, , b, , d, , b, , b, , b, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , a, , b, , c, , b, , d, , c, , b, , d, , c, , c, , 31., , 32., , 33., , 34., , 35., , 36., , 37., , 38., , 39., , 40., , a, , b, , c, , b, , b, , c, , b, , b, , a, , b, , 41., , 42., , 43., , 44., , 45., , c, , c&d, , a, , b, , a, , 5., , (b) Let the 3 numbers be x, y and z., , We have,, and, , x yz, a, 3, , x2 y2 z 2, b, 3, , AM of pairwise products of x, y and z, , , , 2, 2, 2, xy yz zx x y z x y z, , , 23, 3, 2, , , , SOLUTIONS, , 3a , , 2, , 3b, , 6, , , , 3a 2 b, ., 2, , 6., , (c) Let the 3 numbers be a d , a, a d ., , , , We have, a d a a d 15 3a 15, a 5, , , , a, , n, , , , a d a a d 45, , , , a n a b bn a b , , , , a a2 d 2 45, , , , a n b n since a b , , 1., , , , , 2., , a, , (d), , 2a, , n 1, , n 1, , b, a bn, n, , n 1, , n 1, , 2b, , b, , n 1, , n 1, , ab, 2, , , , a, , n 1, , b, , n 1, , ab a b, n, , n, , ab a b, n, , Sn , , , , 15, S15 1 27 195., 2, , 3., , (a) First 100 positive integers divisible by 7 are 7, 14,, 21, ..., 700., Here a = 7, l = 700,, n = 100., , , , 4., , 7., , n, a l , 2, , The numbers are 1, 5 and 9., 1 1 a1 an, (b), , , a1 an, a1an, a an 1, 1, 1, , 2, a2 an 1 a2 an 1, , , n, a l , 2, , We have, S n , , d 4, , , , n 0., (b) If we substitute k = 1, 2, 3, ..., 15 in (2k – 3) we get, – 1, 1, 3, ..., 27 which are in A.P., Here a = –1, l = 27,, n = 15., We have,, , a1 d an d , a2 an 1, , Similarly,, , , , a1 an, a2 an 1, , a a, 1, 1, , 1 n, a3 an 2 a3 an 2, , 1 1 a1 an, , an a1 an a1, , Adding all the above,, , , 1 1 1, 1, 2 , an , a1 a2 a3, , Sn , , 100, 7 700 35350., 2, (c) log 2 log 4 log 8 20 terms, , 1, 1, 1 , a1 an , , , , an a1 , a1 an a2 an 1, , log 2 log 2 2 log 2 3 log 2 20, , , , 2, 1, 1, 1, , , a1 an a2 an 1, an a1 an, , 8., , (a) We have, , log 2 2.log 2 3.log 2 20.log 2 (Since, log a m m.log a ), , 20 21 , 1 2 3 20 log 2 , log 2, 2 , , Since n , , n n 1, , 2, , 210.log 2., , , , 1 1, 1, ., an , a1 a2, , Sn tn 3n 5, 3n 5, 3, , n n 1, , 2, , 5n , , 3n2 10n 3n 3n2 13n, , ., 2, 2
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Progression, , II.A.153, , 1, and, 2, 1, 1, 10 25, 1, 2, 2 36 18., 25 , 2, 2, 2, 10. (c) The series of savings is 100, 140, 180, ...,, Here a 100, d 40, S n 15, 600., , 9., , (b) AM of 10, , We have, S n , , n, 2 a n 1 d , 2, , n, 2 100 n 1 40 , 2, , , , 15, 600 , , , , n 200 40n 40 2 15, 600, , , , n 80 20n 15, 600, , , , n 4 n 780, , , , n n 4 26 30, , , , n 26 years., , 6, Solving (i) and (ii) we get d ., n, Also given that last term exceeds the first term by 10.5., , i.e., n 1 2d 10.5, , 11. (c) Given series is a,3a,5a,, , We have, S n , , , Sn , , 16. (b) Let the AP be ..., a – 5d, a – 3d, a – d, a + d, a + 3d, a, + 5d, ..., Let the number of terms be ‘n’., Sum of the odd numbered terms, n, a d 24, 2, 48, . . . (i), ad , n, Sum of the even numbered terms, n, a d 30, 2, 60, . . . (ii), ad , n, , , , n, 2 a n 1 d , 2, , 12 2 2 32 n 2 , , A1 A2 2 A1 A1, , , , 198, 3 A1 A1 A2 , 7, , 2 x 20 5 x 2, , , A1 , , , , 22 2 66, A1 r 2 , r , 7, 7, , , , r 3 r 3., , 3x 18 , , 19. (b) tm , , 13. (c) In the given two APs, a2 a1 and b2 b1 are the, , . . . (i), . . . (ii), , a2 a1 d, 1., b2 b1 d, , Sn , , , , S mn , , 14. (b) You have to remember that d , , ba, ., n 1, , 15. (c) Here a1 b1 a2 b2 100, , a1 b1 a2 b2 100, , terms = 100 × 100 = 10,000., , 20. (b), , 1, 1, ;a , mn, mn, , n, 2 a n 1 d , 2, , , , common difference., , So,, , 1, 1, a m 1 , n, n, , Solving (i) and (ii) we get d , , 2, , So, d a2 a1 b2 b1 , , x 6., , 1, 1, a n 1 , m, m, , tn , , 66, 7, , , , 6, , 2 x 10 2 x 3x 2, , We have, 2 A2 A1 A1 A2, , , n n 1 2 n 1, , (See synopsis), 18. (b) 2 x, x 10,3x 2 are in A.P., , 22 2 198, 3 , 7, 7, Since A1 , A2 , A1 A2 are in A.P.,, , 12. (d) A1 A2 R 2 , , A2 2 A1, , 6, 10.5 n 8., n, , 17. (d) nth term, , n, 2 a n 1 2 a n 2 a., 2, , , , n 1 2 , , mn 2, 1 mn 1, mn 1 , ., , , 2 mn, 2, mn , , 1 3 5 2 n 1, 2 4 6 2n, 2, , , , n, 115, , n n 1 116, , , , n, 115, , n 1 116, , , , n 115., , , , 115, 116
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II.A.154, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 21. (a) Let a x y z , , a a 2d a 4d a 2n 2 d 30 24, , ar y z x ar 2 z x y , , nd 6, , We have, x y z y z x z x y 0, , , , , , a ar ar 2 0 a 1 r r 2 0, , , 1 r r 2 0 a 0 , , 22. (b) a1 , a2 , a3 , is a G.P., , Substituting in (i) we get, 2nd d 10.5, 12 d 10.5 or d 1.5, n, , 26, , (c) b ar l log n b log n a log n r, , c ar 2 l log n c l log n a 2.log n r, , a1 , a 2 , a1 a 22 , a 22 , a12 a 23 is a G.P., , , , common ratio a1 a2, , , , log n a, log n b, log n c are in A.P., , Since a1 and a 2 are positive, , , , The reciprocals of log a n, log b n, log c n are in A.P., , If a1 a2 1 then only the sequence a1 , a2 , a3 , is a G.P., , 27. (b) Given that a1 2, an 1 an 2n, , 23. (c) Let the first term be “a” and common ratio be, , 1, 1 , r, , a 4 a3 2.3, , ---------------------------------, , r 3 and a 2, , The sum of the first two terms, , a100 a99 2.99, , 1 8, 2 2 ., 3 3, , 24, , Adding, , (b) Let “d” be the common difference of the series, a1 b1 , a2 b2 , , d, , a100 b100 a1 b1 , 98 1, , Sum of first 100 terms , , d, , 100 100, 0, 99, , n, a l , 2, , 100, a1 b1 a100 b100 50 100 100 1000, 2 , 25. (d) Let “a” be the first term and “d” be the common, , , difference, Let the number of terms be “2n”, The terms of an A.P. are,, , a d a 3d a 2n 1 d , , 99 100, 9900, 2, , a100 9900 a1 9900 2 9902., , 28. (d) Let “a” be the first term and “d” be the common, difference., Given that, S n 100, 10, 2 a 10 1 d 100, 2 , 2 a 9 d 20, , 1, 5, By solving (i) and (ii), we get,, 2 a 9 d 20, 2a 99d , , . . . (i), , 2 1, , a d a 3d a 5d , a 2n 1 d 30, , 2, , . . . (i), , S100 10, , Given that, a a 2d a 4d , , a 2n 2 d 24, , a100 a1 2 1 2 3 99 , , S100 10, , a, a d , a 2d , a 3d , a 2n 1 d, , , , a n 1 a n 2 n, a3 a 2 2.2, , r, Since “a” and “r” are positive integers, 0, , , , a2 a1 2.1, , a, 3, 1, 3 a 3, S , 1, r, r, 1, , , , 6, 4 number of terms 2n 8., 1.5, , , , 2a 99d , . . . (ii), , 90d , 2a , , 99, 5, , 99, 20, 50, , 1, 5, , . . . (ii)
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Progression, , II.A.155, , 2a 20 , , Or a , S110 , , 1/ 3, , 99 1099, , 50, 50, , 33. (c) A1 , , 1099, 100, , 110 1099, 11 , 110 1 , 2, 2 , 100, 50 , , , , 2/3, , G13 G23 ab a b .2, , 2, G1G2 A1, ab a b , , 34. (b) Sn 5n2 2n, Sn 1 5 1 2 n 1, 2, , 22, 198, 2, 29. (c) A A2 , 3 , 7, 7, , . . . (i), , , , Tn S n S n 1 10n 3 T2 20 3 17, , We have, A2 A1 A1, , 35, , Hence (b) is the correct answer., (b) 2B A C, , 2 A1 A2, , , , B , , 198, Substituting in (i) we get 3 A1 , 7, , , , cos, , Since A1 , A2 , A1 A2 are in A.P., , , , b, , G2 a. , a, , b, G13 a 2 b, G23 b 2 a , G1G2 a 2 . ab, a, , 55 2 110., , , , ab, b, , G1 a. , 2, a, , 66 22 2 66, A1 , r , 7 7, 7, , We have,, n n 1, 2, , 13 23 33 n3 , , 2, , 4, th, 31. (a) The r term of the series is given by, , ., , Tr n r 1 r, n, , n, , n, , r 1, , r 1, , r 1, , Sum of the series Tr n 1 r r 2, , , Sn , , , , Sn , , , n 1 n n 1, 2, , , , 6, , n n 1 , 2n 1, n 1 , , 2 , 3 , , n n 1 n 2 , , , , r 2 r 1 0 , , , , a r r2 a, , , , r2 r 1 0, , , , , 1 5 1 5 , , , r ,, , 2 2, , , , 2b a c , , b b a c ac, 2, , b 2ac ac, 2, , , , , , 2ac, 2, 2 b ., b ac b, 2b , , a 1 r 2 ar r 2 r 1 0., , which is true for all values of r.In this case ‘r’ can not be, , 5 1 1 5 , ,, negative r , ., 2 , 2, 37. (b) a, b, c are in A.P., So, 2b a c, then straight line ax by c 0 will pass, through 1, 2 because if the line satisfies the condition, a 2b c 0, , or, , 2b a c., , 38, , (b) The series can be written as S = (1 + 3 + 5 + 7 +, …..n/2 terms) + (4 + 6 + 8 + 10 + …..n/2 terms), S, , 2b a c , b 2 ac, , 1 5, 1 5, Also, b c a, r, 2, 2, , Finally, a c b, , 6, , 2b a c , , a 2 c2 ac b2, , a ar ar 2, , n n 1 2 n 1, , 2b a c , 1, 1, , , 32. (b), b a b c b a b c , , , , a 2 c2 b2 1, , 2 ac, 2, , , , Hence (a) is the correct answer., , , , , , For triangle ABC, a b c, , 13 , 2 3 , 33 , 4 3 , , , 3, , 3, , 3, , 36. (c) Let b ar , c ar 2, , r2 3 r 3, 30. (c) Given series is 1, 8, 27, 64, ..., , n, , , , , , n n n n , 2 1 2 8 1 2, 4 2 4 2 , , n, n, n 8 n 2 , 4, 4, n 2 n n 6 2n 2 6n n 2 3n, , , , , 4, 4, 4, 4, , , Hence (b) is the correct answer.
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II.A.156, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 39. (a) If n is odd, n – 1 is even. Sum of (n – 1) terms will, , n 1 n 1 1, , 2, , Hence a, b, c are respectively A. M. , G.M. and H.M. of, and ., , n n 1, 2, , , , Since, A.M. G.M. H.M. ,, , 2, 2, The nth term will be n2., , Hence the required sum , , n, , 2, , a b c., , n 1, 2, , n2 , , n, , 2, , Hence (a) is the correct answer., 40. (b) Let the first five terms of the, a1 , a2 , a3 , a4 , a5 . Hence a3 4., , n 1, , Again a , , 2, , given G.P., , and c , , be, , 41, , , b, , 2ac, b, 2c, b a 3c a, , , , ac, a ac, ba ca, , 43. (a) S , , , , , , r 1, , , , . . . (ii), , and be the, , 2n 1, , terns, , of an A.P. , G.P. and H.P. then , a, will be in A.P.,, , , b, will be G.P. , c, will be in H.P., , 1, 1, , , 1.4 4.7, , 1, , 3r 2 3r 1, , a b bc, , ab, bc, , , , a b a, , bc c, , 45. (a), , , , 1 1, 1 , , , , , 3 r 1 3r 2 3r 1 , , 1 1 1 1, , b a c b, , , , 0, , , , 1 1 1 1 1, 1, , 3 1 4 4 7, 3, , 44. (b), , b a b c 3c a 3a c, , , , 2., ba bc ca, ac, Hence (c) is the correct answer., , 42. (c&d) Let be the first, , , b 2 , , 2, ., , , , , , , . . . (i), , Again a, b, c are in H.P., 2ac, b, 2a, b c 3a c, , , , b, ac, c ac, bc ac, From (i) and (ii), , 2, , Hence ac b 2 0., Hence (c) and (d) are correct answers., , Now a1a5 a2 a4 a32 a1a2 a3 a4 a5 45., Hence (b) is the correct answer., (c) a, b, c are in H.P, , , , 2 1 1, H H, , 2 0, H a b, a b
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Probability, , II.A.157, , 21, , Probability, , The probability of an event is a number between 0 and 1,, inclusive. If an event is certain, it has probability 1. If an, event is impossible (i.e., it cannot occur), it has probability 0., Theory of probability deals with measurement of uncertainty, of the occurrence of same event or incident in terms of, percentage or ratio., , n, mn, Where is for an event A can happen in m ways and fail in n, ways all these ways being equally likely to occur., , Probability of not happening of A (falling of A) , , Certain to, choose red, , 1, 6, , +, , 1, 6, , +, , 1, 6, , +, , 1, 6, , = 1®, , 1, , +, , 6, , +, , Likely to choose, red, , Equally likely to choose, red or blue, , 1, 6, , 100 %, unlikely to, choose red, , Impossible to, choose red, Figure: 21.2, , 1/2, , Heads, , tails, , Figure: 21.1, , Equally likely outcomes: There are equal uncertainty in, getting 1 dot, 2 dots, 3 dots, 4 dots, 5 dots, 6 dots when we, throw a single dice., , Some questions in the math section will involve elementary, probability. You may be asked, for example, to find the, probability of choosing an even number at random from the, set: {6, 13, 5, 7, 2, 9}, Because there are 6 numbers in the set and 2 of them are even,, 2, the probability of randomly choosing an even number is (2, 6, 1, out of 6) ., 3, One dice:, , Probability of an Event A: Written as P A in a random, , experiment and is defined as:, Number of outcomes in favour of A, P A , Total number of possible outcomes, Important Properties:, , , 0 P ( A) 1, , P (not happening of A P (happening of A) 1, , Or P A P A 1, , P( A) 1 P( A), Probability of the happening of, Number of favourable outcomes, m, P A , Total number of possible outcomes m n, , Probability, 1/6, , 1, , 2, , 3, , 4, , 5, 6, Outcome, Figure: 21.3, , Problems of Dice: A die is thrown once. What is the, probability of getting an even number in the throwing of a die,, the total number of outcomes is 6. Let be the event of getting, an even number then there are three even numbers 2, 4, 6., Number of favourable outcomes = 3., Number of favourable outcomes 3 1, P A , ., Total number of outcomes, 6 2
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II.A.158, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Solution: Total no. of outcomes 52, , Two dice:, , Figure: 21.4, , Getting an odd number (A) total outcomes = 6,, favourable outcomes = 3(1, 3, 5), 3 1, P A , 6 2, 6, Getting a natural number: P A 1, 6, Getting a number which is multiple of, , 2, , and, , Fabourable cases , 3, , 6, , , , Getting a number 3 3, 4, 5, 6 , P A , , 4 2, , 6 3, , Getting a number 5 or 6 (5 or 6) P A , Getting a number 5 P A , , 2 1, , 6 3, , 5, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 , 6, , Problems Concerning Drawing a Card, A pack of 52 cards, Face cards (King, Queen, Jack), Example 1. A card is drawn from a well shuffled deck of 52, cards. Find the probability of, (i) A king., (ii) A heart., (iii) A seven of heart., (iv) A jack, queen or a, king., Black cards (26), Reed cards (26), (v) A two of heart or, Spade Club, Diamond Heart, a two of diamond., 13, 13, 13, 13, (vi) A face card., (vii) A black card., , (viii) Neither a heart nor a king., (ix) Neither an ace nor a king., , (i) A king: No. of kings 4 (favourable cases), 4, 1, P A , ., 42 13, 13 1, (ii) A heart P A , , 52 4, 1, (iii) A seven of heart P A , 52, 12 3, (iv) A jack, queen or a king P A , , 52 13, (v) A two of heat or a two of diamond., 2, 1, P A , , 52 26, 12 3, (vi) A face card P A , , 52 13, 26 1, (vii) A black card P A , , 52 2, (viii) Neither a heart nor a king (13 heart + 4 king, but, 1 common), 16 52 16 36 9, P A 1 , , , , 52, 52, 52 13, (ix) Neither an ace nor a king., 44 11, P A , , 52 13, Example 2. Two coins are tossed simultaneously. Find the, probability of getting, (i) two heads, (ii) at least one head, (iii) no head, Solution: On tossing two coins simultaneously, all the possible, outcomes are, HH, HT, TH, TT., (i) The probability of getting two heads, Even of occurence of two heads, 1, P HH , , Total number of possible outcomes 4, , (ii) The probability of getting at least on head, Favourable outcomes, 3, , , Total number of outcomes 4, (iii) The probability of getting no head P TT , , 1, 4, , Example 3. A bag contains 5 red balls, 8 white balls, 4 green, balls and 7 black balls. If one ball is drawn at random, find the, probability that it is, (i) Black, (ii) Not red, (iii) Green
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Probability, , Solution: Number of red balls in the bag 5, , Number of white balls in the bag 8, Number of green balls in the bag 4, Number of black balls in the bag 7, Total number of balls in the bag 5 8 4 7 24., Drawing balls randomly are equally likely outcomes., Total number of possible outcomes 24, Now,, (i) There are 7 black balls, hence the number of such, favourable outcomes = 7 Probability of drawing a black, ball, Number of favourable outcomes, 7, , , Total number of possible outcomes 24, (ii) There are 5 red balls, hence the number of such, favourable outcomes = 5., Probability of drawing a red ball, Number of favourable outcomes, 7, , , Total number of possible outcomes 24, Probability of drawing not a red ball P (Not Red ball), 5 19, 1, , 24 24, (iii) There are 4 green balls., Number of such favourable outcomes = 4, Probability of drawing a green ball, Number of favourable outcomes, 4 1, , , , Total number of possible outcomes 24 6, Example 4. A card is drawn from a well-shuffled deck of, playing cards. Find the probability of drawing, (i) a face card, (ii) a red face card, Solution: Random drawing of cards ensures equally likely, outcomes, (i) Number of face cards (King, Queen and Jack of each, suits) 4 3 12, , II.A.159, , 6, 3, , 52 26, Example 5. A box contains 20 balls bearing numbers, 1, 2, 3,, 4, …, 20. A ball is drawn at random from the box. What is the, probability that the number of the ball is, (i) an odd number, (ii) divisible by 2 or 3, (iii) prime number, Solution: Here, total numbers are 20., Total number of elementary events = 20, , , (i) The number selected will be odd number, if it is elected, from 1, 3, 5, 7, 9, 11, 13, 15,17, 19, Favourable number of elementary events 10, Hence, P (An odd number), 10 1, , , 20 2, (ii) Number divisible by 2 or 3 are 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, 9, 10, 12, 14,, 15, 16, 18, 20, Favourable number of elementary events 13, 13, 20, (iii) There are 8 prime number from 1 to 20 i.e., 2, 3, 5, 7, 11,, 13, 17, 19, Favourable number of elementary events 8, , P (Number divisible by 2 or 3) , , P (prime number) , , 8 2, , 20 5, , Example 6. A die is drop at random on the rectangular region, as shown in figure. What is the probability that it will and, inside the circle with diameter 1 m?, 3m, , 1m, , 2m, , Total number of cards in deck 52, Total number of possible outcomes 52, P (drawing a face card), 12 3, , , 52 13, (ii) Number of red face cards 2 3 6, Number of favourable outcomes of drawing red face, card 6, P (drawing of red face red), , Solution: Area of rectangular region 3m 2m 6m 2, , Area of circle r 2, 2, , , , , , , 1, m2, 2, 4, , Probability that die will land inside the circle, /4, , 6
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II.A.160, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , 3 Coins are tossed simultaneously. The probability of, getting at least 2 heads is:, 3, 3, 3, 1, a., b., c., d., 10, 4, 8, 2, , 2., , Two cards are drawn successively with replacement from a, pack of 52 cards. The probability of drowsing two aces is:, 1, 1, a., b., 169, 221, 1, 4, d., c., 265, 663, , 3., , In a single throw of two dice, the probability of getting, more than 7 is:, 7, 7, 5, 5, a., b., c., d., 36, 12, 12, 36, , 4., , Two cards are drawn at random from a pack of 52 cards., The probability that both are the cards of space is:, 1, 1, a., b., 26, 4, 1, c., d. None of these, 17, , 5., , Two dice are thrown together. The probability that sum of the, two numbers will be a multiple of 4 is:, 1, 1, a., b., 9, 3, 1, 5, c., d., 4, 9, , 6., , If the odds in favour of an event be 3 : 5 then the, probability of non-happening of the event is:, 3, 5, 3, 5, a., b., c., d., 5, 3, 8, 8, , 7., , In a cricket match, a batswoman hits a boundary 6 times, out of 30 balls she plays. Find the probability that she did, not hit a boundary., a. 0.8, b. 0.6, c. 0.5, d. 0.2, , 8., , If the three coins are simultaneously tossed again compute, the probability of 2 heads coming up., 3, 1, 5, 3, a., b., c., d., 8, 4, 8, 4, , 9., , A coin is tossed successively three times. The probability, of getting one head or two heads is:, a. 2/3, b.3/4, c. 4/9, d. 1/9, , 10. One card is drawn from a pack of 52 cards. What is the, probability that the drawn card is either Red or King:, a. 15/26, b.1/2, c. 7/13, d. 17/32, , 11. Two card are drawn successively with replacement from a, pack of 52 cards. The probability of drawing two aces is:, 1, 1, a., b., 169, 221, 1, 4, c., d., 2652, 663, 12. In a single throw of two dice, the probability of getting, more than 7 is:, 7, 7, 5, 5, a., b., c., d., 36, 12, 12, 36, 13. The probability of drawing a white ball from a bag, containing 3 black balls and 4 white balls, is:, 4, 3, a., b., 7, 7, 1, c., d. None of these, 7, 14. A and B toss a coin alternatively, the first to show a head, being the winner. If A starts the game, the chance of his, winning is:, a. 5/8, b. 1/2, c. 1/3, d. 2/3, 15. If two balanced dice are tossed once, the probability of, the event, that the sum of the integers coming on the, upper sides of the two dice is 9, is:, 7, 5, 1, 1, a., b., c., d., 18, 35, 9, 6, 16. From a well shuffled pack of cards one card is drawn at, random. The probability that the card drawn is an ace is:, 1, 4, a., b., 13, 13, 3, d. None of these, c., 52, 17. A single letter is selected at random from the word, “PROBABILITY”. The probability that the selected letter, is a vowel is:, 2, 3, 4, a., b., c., d. 0, 11, 11, 11, 18. There are n letters and n addressed envelopes. The, probability that all the letters are not kept in the right, envelope, is:, 1, 1, a., b. 1 −, n!, n!, 1, d. None of these, c. 1 −, n
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Probability, , II.A.161, , 19. From a book containing 100 pages, one page is selected, randomly. The probability that the sum of the digits of the, page number of the selected page is 11, is:, 2, 9, a., b., 25, 100, 11, d. None of these, c., 100, , 20. There are two childrens in a family. The probability that, both of them are boys is, 1, 2, 1, c., 4, , a., , b., , 1, 3, , d. None of these, , ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , d, , a, , c, , c, , c, , d, , a, , a, , b, , c, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , a, , c, , a, , d, , c, , a, , c, , b, , a, , c, , 1, 1, and not of head =, 2, 2, Since A has first throw, he can win in the first, third, …, Probability of A’s winning, , 14. (d) The chance of head =, , ∴, , 2, , SOLUTIONS, 1., , 1 1 1 1 1, + . + . + ........, 2 2 2 2 2, , =, , 1 1 1, 2, + + + ......... =, 2 2 2, 3, , (d) Total Coins: 8, , 3, , HHH , HTH , HHT, HTH , THH ,, , 4 1, =, 36 9, 4, 1, =, 16. (a) Required probability =, 52 13, , 4C2, , (a) P =, , 8., , 4×3, 1, P=, P=, 52 × 51, 221, (a) HHH , HTH ,, , 52C2, , 17. (c) Since there are one A, two I and one O, hence the required, 1+ 2 +1 4, = ., 11, 11, 18. (b) Required probability is 1 − P (All letters in right, 1, envelope) = 1 −, n!, probability =, , HTH , HTH, HHT, , THH ,TTH ,TTT, P=, , {As there are total number of n! ways in which letters can, , 3, 8, 2, , 1, 4 , 11. (a) Required probability = =, 52 169, P (getting 8) + P (9) + P (10) + P (11) + P (12), , 5, 4, 3, 2, 1 15 5, + + + +, =, =, 36 36 36 36 36 36 12, , 13. (a) Required probability =, , take envelopes and just one way in which they have, corresponding envelopes}., 19. (a) Favourable ways, , {29,92,38,83,47,74,56,65}, , 12. (c) Required probability is, , =, , 5, , 15. (c) Required probability =, , HTT , TTH , TTT ,, 2., , 4, , =, , 4, 7, , 8, 2, = ., 100 25, 20. (c) To be both boys the probability, Hence required probability =, , 1 1 1, = = ., 2 2 4
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II.A.162, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 22, , Statistics, , In statistics we shall try to study, in detail about collection,, classification and tabulation of such data and their, interpretation. Expressing facts with the help of data is of great, importance in our day-to-day life. For example, instead of, saying that India has a large population it is more appropriate, to say that the population of India, based on the census of 2000, is more than one billion. The data can be divided into two, categories:, Primary data: Data which are collected for the first time by, the statistical investigator or with help of his workers is, called primary data. As example if an investigator wants to, study the condition of the workers working in a factory then, fro this he collects some data like their monthly income,, expenditure, number or brother, sisters, etc., Secondary data: These are the data already collected by a, person or a society and these may be in published or, unpublished form. These data should be carefully used., The figure below explains how to adapt a double-slotted wall, outlet to accept a 2-prong plug. The explanation is given in, words (part A) and a drawing (part B)., With a double-slotted wall outlet. use an, adapter plug. Connect the green tab or, pigtail on the adapter plug by first removing, the screw in the centre of the receptacle, faceplate and then putting the screw through, the tab and back into the receptacle. Insert, the 2-prong plug into the adapter., , Part A - Words, , Part B- A picture, , Figure: 22.1, , Reading Tables: As you already know, we live in a world full, of numbers. We need ways to organise numbers so that we can, make sense out of them. One of the simplest ways to organise, numbers is to put them all together in rows or columns. When, we do this, we make a table., , does a bar graph do that a list of data or a table doesn’t do?, Let’s look at a sample bar graph. The first item to read in any, graph is the title of the graph. The title gives you information, about what is pictured in the graph. In figure, the title is, Households with electronic appliances. Next, what is shown on, the horizontal line at the bottom?, What is shown on the vertical line on the left? The tables tell us, that horizontal scale shows the percentage of households. The, vertical scale lists electronic appliances. Then, what are the bars, for? The length of a bar allows us to make comparisons., What does the length of a bar represent? Look at the label at, the bottom of the graph. The length of the bar must show the, percentage of households that have a particular appliance. The, numbers at the end of the bar tells you what the actual, percentage is., Study the bar graph in following figure and then try to, answer the following questions., Should automobiles be included in the list of appliances?, Why or why not?, How many kinds of appliances are shown?, What appliances are used in over half of the households?, What appliances are used in less than half of the, households?, What other information do you need to find how many, households have home computers?, Electronic appliances:, Compact-disc, Cordless telephones, , 7%, 16%, , Telephone-answering, machines, Home computers, Videocassette, recorders, Stereosystems, , 17%, 18%, 45%, 89%, 93%, , Colour television, , Sometimes tables of numbers are rather detailed. They can be, difficult to read because there may be too many values listed., In such a case, you can use graphs-another useful way to show, data . Let’s see how bar graphs can be used to do this., Reading Bar Graphs: A bar graph is picture information. The, same information can be listed or written in a paragraph. What, , Households with, electronic, appliances, , Radios, , 98%, , All televisions, , 98%, 0, , 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100, Percentage of households, Figure: 22.2
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Statistics, , Battery performance (for different battery types), Answer, the following questions based on the bar graph in, figure:, Which type battery lasts the longest under with high-rate or, low-rate use?, The department is using heavy-duty batteries now. How do, they compare to the types of batteries available?, The police department needs batteries in flashlights to last, through a minimum 8-hour shift of high-rate use. Which, battery type(s) would you select to meet this requirement?, Under conditions requiring only occasional, low-rate usesuch as portable radio gear-batteries should last at least 48, hours. Which battery type(s) would you select to meet this, requirement?, Cost in an important factor. What does the graph say about, the cost of each type of battery?, , 110, High-rate use use, , 100, , Low-rate use, , 90, 80, , Lifetime (hr), , A horizontal bar graph: What does bar graph do that a list of, the information does not do? A bar graph provides a picture of, information. The picture in a graph helps us to see groups of, information more quickly than we can from a that the top four, are reasonably close together, close together, the last four are, very close together, and the middle bar (for VCRs) doesn’t, seem to fit either group. The grouping of the bars into three, categories might suggest conclusions such as these:, Almost all households have televisions, radios, and stereo, systems., About half of all households have videocassette recorders., Only a few households have computers, telephone-answering, machines, cordless phones, or compact-disc players. The bar, graph makes it possible for you to grasp information quickly, and also help you make a variety of comparisons., Write a sentence that compares the numbers of households, with compact-disc players to those with stereosystems., Write a sentence that compares the number of households, with color televisions to those with videocassette recorders., Write the percent of homes that do not have a home, computer. The bar graph makes it easy to understand and, compare information., How to end any graph: You can get information from a graph, quickly if you follow the steps given here? First, read the title, of the graph. Second, read the labels and range of numbers, (scale) along the sides. Third, determine what units the graph, uses. Fourth, look for groups, patterns, and differences., Practice these steps in the following study activity., Study activity: As a purchaser for police department supplies,, you are responsible for keeping a supply of dry-cell batteries, for handheld equipment used by the officers. A trade magazine, shows that some types of batteries perform better than others., The report displays a bar graph, as shown below., , II.A.163, , 70, 60, 50, 40, 30, 20, 10, 0, , Alkaline Heavy duty General purpose, , Rechargeable, , Figure charting battery performance, Figure: 22.3, , Drawing Bar Graphs: To draw a bar graph, follow steps, similar to those you used to read a bar graph. Now, however,, you must decide on the labels and you must choose how to, draw the bars. First, decide what you are trying to show., , Choose a title that describes your graph accurately. Second,, choose the general labels and range of numbers (scales) for the, bottom and the left side. Third, decide what units you want for, your chart. Fourth, draw the graph., A bar graph is good for showing one or two facts about several, things, or for showing one or two facts over several time, periods. When you want to show changes over time, a vertical, bar graph works best, with the time periods labelled across the, bottom., A bar graph is easiest to read when there are not very many, bars. If you have more than 12 bars, another kind of graph or, chart may be better. Bar graphs work best when you have only, three to seven groups of information to compare., Reading Circle Graphs: A circle graph, like a bar graph, is a, picture of information. A circle graph usually shows how a, whole is made up of several parts., , The whole is the compete circle, like a while pie. Each part is a, slice of the pie. Some people refer to circle graphs as “pie, charts.”, Each part in a circle graph is shown as a percentage of the, whole. The whole circle represents 100%, and each slice, shows a part of 100%. Together the percentages (the slices), add to 100% (the whole pie). Use a circle graph when you
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.A.164, , can picture your information as a whole pie (100%) divided, into slices. Figure shows a circle graph about types of, treatment at clinic., , Relationship between Celsius And, Fahrenheit Temperatures by Line Graph, , Broken bones, 17%, , 30, , Respiratory, 40%, , 28, 26, 24, , Routine, Examinations, 27%, Others, 7%, , Figure: 22.4 A circle graph, , Temperature °F, , 9%, Cardiovascular, , What if you want to know how the Fahrenheit and Celsius, temperature scales are related? Figure shows a line graph that, relates Celsius and Fahrenheit temperatures., , 22, 20, 18, 16, 14, , 12, 10, 80, 68, 60, 40, 20, , To read the graph in Figure, first, read the title of the graph., Second, read the labels. Third, figure out what units the graph, uses. In a circle graph the units are often percentages, or parts, of a whole. Fourth, look for groups, patterns, and differences., For this circle graph, compare the sizes of the slices. Notice, that this circle graph shows what happened at the clinic for one, year and it does not show changes over time. Use the circle, graph in Figure to answer the questions in the following study, activity., Study Activity:, What kind of treatment was provided most often at the, Clinic during the year?, Compare the number of cardiovascular treatments to the, number of routine examinations., Rank the types of treatment given at the clinic this year,, starting with the most frequent, down to the least frequent., A circle graph helps you compare parts of a whole to each, other and to the whole., Reading Line Graphs, You have seen how bar graphs and circle graphs are used to, display information. Another common type of graph is a line, graph. A line graph shows values of data over a certain range,, by displaying the data as points on a graph that male up a line, or a curve. You may have seen thermometers that are labeled, with both Celsius and Fahrenheit temperature scales., On these thermometers, you can read the temperature in degrees, Fahrenheit or in degrees Celsius. But what if your thermometer, has only temperature scale and you need the other?, , 0, – 20, , 0, , 20, , 40, , 60, , 80, , 100, , 120, , 140, , 160, , Temperature °C, Figure: 22.5, , To figure out what the graph contains, first look at the labels., What temperature scale is shown on the bottom axis? What, temperature scale is shown on the side axis? Notice how a line, graph differs from bar graphs and circle graphs. You can see that, the information is not shown with bars, or sections of a circle,, but rather with little “dots.” Notice that the dots are used to form, a line that shows how the temperature is related. It is this line, that gives the graph its name-line graph. You can see in Figure, that the line slopes up, from left to right. This means that for low, Celsius temperatures, you can expect low Fahrenheit, temperatures-and for high Celsius temperatures, you can expect, correspondingly higher Fahrenheit temperatures., Example 1., Directions: Study the following table carefully and answer the, questions given below it., Number of candidates appeared (App.) and percentage of, candidates qualified (Qual.) under different disciplines over the, years., Year, , Arts, , Science, , App., , Qual.%, , App., , Qual.%, , 2009, , 842, , 29, , 1928, , 40, , 2010, , 1019, , 27, , 2028, , 38, , 2011, , 985, , 31, , 2536, , 42, , 2012, , 1215, , 28, , 2113, , 45, , 2013, , 1429, , 34, , 1725, , 36, , 2014, , 1128, , 24, , 1820, , 39
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Statistics, , II.A.165, Commerce, , Agriculture, , Engineering, , App., , Qual.%, , App., , Qual.%, , App., , Qual.%, , 2009, , 908, , 21, , 843, , 42, , 579, , 45, , 2010, , 878, , 28, , 719, , 36, , 608, , 38, , 2011, , 1156, , 31, , 645, , 41, , 492, , 45, , 2012, , 1290, , 32, , 720, , 39, , 714, , 55, , 2013, , 1025, , 24, , 586, , 48, , 801, , 48, , 2014, , 1416, , 35, , 620, , 35, , 726, , 51, , Year, , 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , Increase % % , 4., 5., , In which of the following pairs of years was, approximately the number of Candidates qualified under, Agriculture disciplines the same?, a. 2012 and 2013, b. 2009 and 2012, c. 2010 and 2014, d. 2011 and 2013, , (b) Candidates appeared in Science in 1992 = 2113., Total candidates appeared in Arts in 1991 and 1994 =2113., (a) Candidates qualified in Agriculture in various years:, 100, , , , 36, , In2010 , 719 258,, 100, , , , 41, , In 2011 , 645 264,, 100, , 39, , In 2012 , 720 280,, 100, , Approximately what was the percentage decrease in the, number of candidates appeared under Arts discipline from, 2013 to 2014?, a. 20, b. 25, c. 35, d. 40, , In which of the following pairs of years was the total, number of candidates appeared under Arts discipline, exactly equal to the number of candidates appeared under, Science discipline in?, a. 2011 and 2013, b. 2011 and 2014, c. 2012 and 2013, d. 2010 and 2014, , , 100 100% (app.), , , 42, , In 2009 , 843 354,, , Approximately how many candidates qualified under, Science discipline?, in 2012?, a. 850, b. 950, c. 1000, d. 1050, , Approximately what was the percentage increase in the, number of candidates qualified under Commerce, discipline form 2010 to 2014?, a. 80, b. 100, c. 150, d. 50, , 250, , 245, , , , 48, , In 2013 , 586 281,, 100, , , , 35, , In 2014 , 620 217,, 100, , , , Clearly, it is the approximately same in 2012 and 2013., Example 2., Directions: Study the following table carefully and answer the, questions given below it., Number of boys of standard XI participating in different, games., Class , , Games, , XI A, , XI B, , XI C, , XI D, , XI E, , Total, , Chess, , 8, , 8, , 8, , 4, , 4, , 32, , Badminton, , 8, , 12, , 8, , 12, , 12, , 52, , Table Tennis, , 12, , 16, , 12, , 8, , 12, , 60, , Hockey, , 8, , 4, , 8, , 4, , 8, , 32, , Football, , 8, , 8, , 12, , 12, , 12, , 52, , Total Number, of Boys, , 44, , 48, , 48, , 40, , 48, , 228, , SOLUTIONS, 1., , (b) Required number, 45, , , 2113 950.8 950 (app.), 100, , , 2., , (a) Candidates appeared in Arts in 1993 = 1429., Candidates appeared in Arts in 1994 = 1128., , Decrease , 100 21% 20% (app.), 1429, , , (b) Candidates qualified in Commerce in, , 301, , 3., , 28, , 878 245., 1990 , 100, , , Candidates qualified in Commerce in, 35, , 1416 495., 1994 , 100, , , Note, Every student of each section of standard xi participates in, a game., In each class, the number of girls participating in each game, is 25% of the number of boys participating in that game., Each student participates in one and only game., 1., , All the boys of class XI D passed at the annual, examination but a few girls failed If all the boys and girls, who passed and entered class XII D and if in class XIII D,, the ratio of boys to girls is 5:1, what would be the number, of girls who failed in XI D?, a. 8, b. 5, c. 2, d. 1
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II.A.166, , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Girls playing which of the following games need to be, combined to yield a ratio of boys to girls of 4:1, if all, boys playing Chess and Badminton are combined?, a. Chess and Hockey, b. Hockey and Football, c. Tables Tennis and Hockey, d. Badminton and Table Tennis, What should be the total number of students in the school, if all the boys of XII A together with all the girls of XI B, and XI C were to be equal to 25% of the total number of, students?, a. 272, b. 560, c. 656, d. 340, Boys of which of the following classes need to be, combined to equal to four times the number of girls in XI, B and XI C?, a. XI D and XI E, b. XI A and XI B, c. XI A and XI E, d. None of these, If boys if XI E participates in Chess together with girls of, XI V and XI C participating in Table Tennis and Hockey, respectively are selected for a course at the college of, sports, what percent of the students will get this, advantage approximately?, a. 13.5, b. 10.52, c. 3.51, d. 4.38, If for social work, every boy of XI D and XI C is paired, with a girl of the same class, what percentage of the boys, of these two classes can participate in Social work?, a. 60, b. 75, c. 66, d. 88, , 4., , 5., , Let the total number of students be x. Then,, 25, x 44 12 12 , 100, Or, x 272., (d) 4 (Girls in XI B and XI C) = 4 (12 + 12) = 96., But, none of the pairs of class given through (a) to (d) has, this as the number of boys., (c) Boys of XI E Playing Chess = 4., , Girls of XI B playing Table Tennis , , 25, , 16 4., 200, , , , Girls of XI C playing Hockey , 8 2., 100, , , 25, , Number selected at the college of sports 4 4 2 10., Total number of students 228 , , , Let x % of 285 = 10., 10 100 , 3.51., 285 , , Then, x , 6., , , , , (b) Girls = 25% of boys, 25% of the boys can participate in Social work., 75% of the boys can not participate in Social work., , Example 3., Directions: Study the following Pie-diagrams carefully and, answer the questions given below it., , 25, , (c) Boys in XI D = 40, Girls in XI D , 40 10., 100, , , Boys in XII D = 40, Ratio of boys and girls in XII D = 5 : 1., Let the number of girls in XII D be x., 40 5, Then,, or x 8., x 1, Girls in XII D = 8., Girls failed in XI D = (10 – 8) = 2., 2. (b) Boys playing Chess and Badminton = (32 + 52) = 84., Girls playing Hockey and Football , , 25, , 84 21., 100, , , , , 3., , Proteins, 16%, , Muscles, 1/3, , SOLUTIONS, 1., , 25, , 228 285., 100, , , Required ratio = 84 : 21 = 4 : 1., (a) Boys in XI A = 44,, Girls in XI, 25, , B, 45 12,, 100, , , Girls in XI C , , 25, , 48 12,, 100, , , Hormones, enzymes &, other, proteins, , 1., , Other dry elements, 14%, , Skin, 1/10, , Water, 70%, , Bones, 1/6, , In the human body, what part is made of neither bones, nor skin?, a., , 2, 5, , b., , 3, 5, , c., , 1, 40, , d. None of these, , 2., , What is the ratio of the distribution of proteins in the, muscles to that distribution of proteins in the bones?, a. 1: 18, b. 18: 1, c. 2: 1, d. 1: 2, , 3., , What will be the quantity of water in the body of a person, weighing 50 kg?, a. 20 kg, b. 35 kg, c. 71.42 kg, d. 120 kg
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Statistics, , II.A.167, , 4., , What percent of the weight of human body is equivalent, to the weight of the skin in human body?, a. 0.016, b. 1.6, c. 0.16, d. Data inadequate, , Read the diagram carefully and answer the questions given, below it., 1. How many percent passed in first division in 2013?, a. 20%, b. 34%, c. 14.28%, d. 11.76%, , 5., , To show the distribution of proteins and other dry, elements in the human body, the are of the circle should, subtend at the centre an angle of, a. 50, b. 126, , 2., , In which year, the college had the best result for B Com?, a. 2013, b. 2014, c. 2015, d. Cannot be determined, , 4., , What is the number of third divisioners in 2015?, a. 160, b. 70, c. 60, d. 65, , (d) Part of body made of neither bones nor skin, , 5., , 1 1 11, 1 ., 6 10 15, , What is the percentage of students in 2015 over 2013?, a. 30%, b. 17.6%, c. 117.6%, d. 85%, , 6., , What is the aggregate pass percentage during 3 years?, a. 51.6%, b. 80.3%, c. 82.5%, d. 77.6%, , d. 252, , SOLUTIONS, , 1 1, : 2 :1., 3 6, , 2., , (c) Required ratio , , 3., , (b) Quantity of water in the body of a person weighing 50, , SOLUTIONS, 1., , kg., 70, , , 50 kg = 35 kg., 100, , , (b) Weight of skin , , 1, part of 16% Proteins., 10, , 5., , (c) Percentage of Proteins and other dry elements = 30%, , , , Required angel , , first, , divisioners, , 3., , (c) Pass percentage in 2013 = 82.3%, , in, , First Division, Second Division, Third Division, Failed, , 200, 190, 170, 160, 150, 140, 100, 90, 80, 40, 30, 20, 2015, , 140, , Pass percentage in 2014 , , 150, , 100 78.9%, 190, , , , Pass percentage in 2015 , , 170, , 100 85%, 200, , , 4., , Example 4., Directions: The following sub-divided bar diagram depicts the, result of B Com students of a college of a 3 years., , 2014, , of, , , (d) Pass percentage in 2013 , 100 82.3%, 170, , , , , , 30, , 360 108 ., 100, , , 2013, , Percentage, , 2., , 1 16, , , 100 % Of Proteins= 1.6% of Proteins., 10 100, , , Years, , (d), , 20, , 2013 , 100 11.76%, 170, , , = 70% of 50 kg, , 4., , d. 82.3%, , 3., , c. 180, , 1., , What was the pass percentage in 2013?, a. 65%, b. 70%, c. 74.6%, , 5., , The college had best result for B.Com in 2015., (c) Number of third divisionars in 2015 = (160 – 100) =, 60., (c) Percentage of students in 2015 over 2013, 200, , , 100 117.6%, 170, , , 6., , (b) Number of students who passed, = (140 + 150 + 160) = 450, Number of students who appeared, = (170 + 190 + 200) = 560, , , , , Aggregate pass percentage , 100 % 80.3%., 560, , , , 450, , When the data are classified into different groups on the basis of, their descriptive qualities and properties, such a classification is, known as descriptive or qualitative classification. Since the, attributes cannot be measured directly, they are counted on the
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II.A.168, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , basis of presence or absence of qualities. For example intelligence,, literacy, unemployment, honesty etc. The following table shows, classification on the basis of sex and employment., , 10, 10, to 94 , or, 89 to 99, 2, 2, Therefore class limits are 49–59, 59–69, 79–89, and 89–99., , Table: 22.1 Population (in lacs), Gender Position of, , Male, , Female, , Frequency Distribution: The marks scored by 30 students of, IX class, of a school in the first test of Mathematics out of 50, marks are as follows:, , 16.2, 26.4, 42.6, , 13.7, 24.8, 38.5, , Table: 22.3, , Employment , , Employed, Unemployed, Total, , For 5th class 94 , , If such facts are kept into classes then it is called, classification according to quantitative or class intervals., Table: 22.2, Marks obtained, , 10–20, , 20–30, , 30–40, , 40–50, , No. of students, , 7, , 9, , 15, , 6, , Variate: The numerical quantify whose value varies in, objective is called a variate; generally a variate is, represented by x. There are two types of variate:, Discrete variate: Its magnitude is fixed. For example, the, number of teacher in different branches of a institute are, 30, 35, 40, etc.;, Continuous variate: Its magnitude is not fixed. It is, expressed in groups like 10–20, 20–30, ... etc., Range: The difference of the maximum and the minimum, values of the variable x is called range., Class limits: The lowest and the highest value of the class, are known as lower and upper limited restively of that, class., Class mark: The average of the lower and the upper limits, of a class is called the mid value or the class mark of that, class. It is generally denoted by x. If x be the mid value and, , h be the class interval, then the class limits are, , h, 4, , x , x ., 2, 2, , , Example 5. The mid values of a distribution are 54, 64, 74, 84, and 94. Find the class interval and class limits., Solution: The class interval is the difference of two consecutive, class marks, therefore class interval (h) = 64 – 54 = 10., Here the mid values are given and the class interval is 10. So, class limits are:, 10, 10, to 54 , or 49 to 59, For 1st class 54 , 2, 2, 10, 10, to 64 , or 59 to 69, For 2nd class 64 , 2, 2, 10, 10, to 74 , or 69 to 79, For 3rd class 74 , 2, 2, 10, 10, to 84 , or, 79 to 89, For 4th class 84 , 2, 2, , 6, , 32, , 10, , 17, , 22, , 28, , 0, , 48, , 6, , 22, , 32, , 6, , 36, , 26, , 48, , 10, , 32, , 48, , 28, , 22, , 22, , 22, , 28, , 26, , 17, , 36, , 10, , 22, , 28, , 0, , The number of times a mark is repeated is called its frequency., It is denoted by f., Table: 22.4, Marks, obtained, , Tally, mark, , Frequency, , Marks, obtained, , Tally, mark, , Frequency, , 0, , II, , 2, , 26, , II, , 2, , 6, , III, , 3, , 28, , IIII, , 4, , 10, , III, , 3, , 32, , III, , 3, , 17, , II, , 2, , 36, , II, , 2, , 22, , IIII I, , 6, , 48, , III, , 3, , Classes can be made mainly by two methods: Above ungrouped, frequency distribution can be classified into groups in following, ways and it is called grouped frequency distribution., Exclusive series (Table (i)): In this method upper limit of the, previous class and lower limit of the next class is same. In this, method the term of upper limit in a class is not considered in, the same class, it is considered in the next class., Table: 22.5 (i):Exclusive series, Class, 0–10, 10–20, 20–30, 30–40, 40–50, , Frequency, 5, 5, 12, 5, 3, , Inclusive series (Table (ii)): In this method value of upper, and lower limit are both contained in same class. In this, method the upper limit of class and lower limit of other, class are not same., Table: 22.6 (ii): Inclusive series, Class, , Frequency, , 0–10, , 8, , 11–20, , 2, , 21–30, , 12, , 31–40, , 5, , 41–50, , 3
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Statistics, , II.A.169, , Table: 22.7, , 10, , 72, , 0 and more 50, , 250 = 250, , 5–10, , 103, , 5 and more 78, , 250 – 72 = 178, , 10–15, , 50, , 10 and more 75, , 178 – 103 = 75, , 15–20, , 25, , 15 and more 25, , 75 – 50 = 25, , Example 6. A family with monthly income of Rs. 20,000 had, planned the following expenditure per month under various, heads: Draw bar graph for the data given below:, Heads, , Expenditure (in Rs. 1000), , Grocery, , 4, , 10 = 1 0, , Rent, , 5, , 10 + 8, , Education of children, , 5, , Medicine, , 2, , Fuel, , 2, , Entertainment, , 1, , Miscellaneous, , 1, , 23, , 18 + 5, , 11000, , 7, , 30, , 23 + 7, , 20000, , 2, , 32, , 30 + 2, , 25000, , 1, , 33, , 32 + 1, , Continuous frequency distribution: In the previous page we, obtained cumulative frequency for discrete series. Similarly, cumulative frequency table can be made from continuous, frequency distribution also. For example, for table:, Table: 22.8, Monthly income, Variate (x), , No. of, employee, Frequency (f), , Cumulative, Frequency, (cf), , Explanation, , 0–5, , 72, , 72, , 72 = 72, , 5 – 10, , 103, , 175, , 72 + 103 = 175, , 10 – 15, , 50, , 225, , 175 + 50 = 225, , 15–20, , 25, , 250, , 225 + 25 = 250, , Above table can also be written as follows:, Table: 22.9, Class, , Cumulative Frequency, , Less than 5, , 72, , Less than 10, , 175, , Less than 15, , 225, , Less than 20, , 250, , From this table the number of students of age less than the, upper limit of a class, i.e., number of student whose age is less, than 5, 10, 15, 20 year can determined by merely seeing the, table but if we need the number students whose age is more, than zero, more than 5, more than 10 or more than 15, then, table should be constructed as follows:, , Solution:, 7, 6, 5, 4, , Entertainment, , 5, , 3, 2, 1, O, , Fuel, , 8000, , Medicine, , 18, , Explanation, , 0–5, , Education, , 8, , Explanation, , Age Cumulative, frequency, , Rent, , 6000, , 10, , Cumulative, frequency (cf), , Frequency, , Grocery, , 4000, , Frequency (f), , Class, , Expenditure (in thousand rupees), , Class, , Table: 22.10, , Mescellaneous, , Cumulative Frequency, Discrete frequency distribution: From the table of discrete, frequency distribution, it can be identified that number of, employees whose monthly income is 4000 or how many, employees of monthly income 1100 are there. But if we want, to know how many employees whose monthly income is upto, 11000, then we should add 10 + 8 + 5 7 i.e., number of, employees whose monthly income is upto 11000 is 30. Here, we add all previous frequency and get cumulative frequency. It, will be more clear from the following table:, , Heads, , Histogram: Histogram is rectangular representation of grouped, and continuous frequency distribution in which class intervals, are taken as base and height of rectangles are proportional to, corresponding frequencies. To raw the histogram class intervals, are marked along x-axis on a suitable scale. Frequencies are, marked along y-axis on a suitable scale, such that the areas of, drawn rectangles are proportional to corresponding frequencies., Example 7. The weekly wages of workers of a factory are, given in the following table. Draw histogram for it., Weekly, , 1000–, , 2000–, , 2500–, , 3000–, , 5000–, , wages, , 2000, , 2500, , 3000, , 5000, , 5500, , No. of, workers, , 26, , 30, , 20, , 16, , 1
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II.A.170, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Solution: Here frequency distribution is grouped and, continuous but class intervals are not same. Under such, circumstances the following method is used to find heights of, rectangle so that heights are proportional to frequencies., (i) Write interval (h) of the least interval, here h = 500., (ii) Redefine the frequencies of classes by the using the, following formula., , Y, 16, , Frequency, , 14, , h, Redefined frequency of class , frequency of, clssinterval, class interval., So, here the redefined frequency table is obtained as follows:, Weekly wages (in Rs.), , No. of workers, , Redefined of workers, , 1000–2000, , 26, , 500, 26 13, 1000, , 2000–2500, , 30, , 500, 30 30, 500, , 2500–3000, , 20, , 500, 20 20, 500, , 3000–5000, , 16, , 500, 16 4, 2000, , 5000–5500, , 1, , 500, 1 1, 500, , Now mark class interval on x-axis (scale 1 cm = 500) and, no. of workers on y-axis (scale 1 cm = 5). On the basis of, redefined frequency distribution construct rectangle A, B, C, D and E., , Number of workers’, , 25, 20, 15, 10, 5, , O, , A, , B, , D, , C, , Q, , 12, , S, , 10, , P, , 8, 6, , T, , 4, 2, , T’, , P’, 10 20, , 30, , 40 50, Class, , 60, , 70, , 80, , X, , Measures of Central Tendency, Mean: Arithmetic mean or mean is what is usually thought of, when talking about averages. If you want to know the, arithmetic mean of a list of values, the formula is:, The sum of a list of values, The number of values in the list, For example, if there are three children, aged 6, 7, and 11, the, arithmetic mean of their ages is:, 6+7+11 24, , 3, 3, or 8 years., , The mean of a number of observation is the sum of the values of, all the observations divided by the total number of observations. It, is denoted by the symbol x , read as x bar., Properties of Mean:, If a constant real number ‘a’ is added to each of the, observation than new mean will be x a., If a constant real number ‘a’ is subtracted from each of the, observation then new mean will be x a., If a constant real number ‘a’ is multiplied with each of the, observation then new mean will be x, If each of the observation is dived by a constant no ‘a’ then, x, new mean will be ., a, Mean of Ungrouped Data: If x1 , x2 , x3 , , xn are then n values, , 30, , 0, , R, , 18, , E, , 1000 1500 2000 2500 3000 3500 4000 4500 5000 5500, , Weekly wages, , (or observations) then A.M. (Arithmetic mean) is:, Example 8. For the following frequency distribution, draw a, histogram and construct a frequency polygon with it., Class, , 20 – 30, , 30 – 40, , 40 – 50, , 50 – 60, , 60–70, , Frequency, , 8, , 12, , 17, , 9, , 4, , Solution: The given frequency distribution is grouped and, continuous, so we construct a histogram by the method given, earlier. Join the middle points P,Q,R,S,T of upper horizontal, line of each rectangles A,B,C,D,E by straight lines., , n, , xi, n, x1 x2 xn , i1 nx Sum of observation xi, n, n, i 1, i.e. product of means and no. of items given sum of, observation., Example 9. Find the mean of the factors of 10, Solution: Factors of 10 are 1,2,5 and 10., 1 2 5 10 18, x, 4.5, 4, 4, x
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Statistics, , II.A.171, , Example 10. If the mean of 6,4,7 P and 10 is 8 find P., 6 4 7 P 10, Solution: 8 , P 13, 5, Method for Mean of ungrouped frequency distribution., fi, , f i xi, , x1, , f1, , f1 x1, , x2, , f2, , f 2 x2, , x3, , f3, , f 3 x3, , ., ., ., , xn, , i, , xi, , i i, , , , fx, f, , i i, i, , n1 x1 n2 x2 , Combined Mean: x , Uses of Arithmetic, n1 n2 , Mean, It is used for calculating average marks obtained by a, student., It is extensively used in practical statistics., It is used to obtain estimates., It is used by businessman to find out profit per unit article,, output per machine, average monthly income and, expenditure, etc., Example 11. Find the mean for the following distribution:, Marks, , 10–, 20, , 20–30, , 30–, 40, , 40–50, , 50–60, , 60–, 70, , 70–, 80, , Frequency, , 6, , 8, , 13, , 7, , 3, , 2, , 1, , Solution:, Marks, , Mid values xi, , No. of students, fi, , 10–20, 20–30, 30–40, 40–50, 50–60, 60–70, 70–80, , 15, 25, 35, 45, 55, 65, 75, , 6, 8, 13, 7, 3, 2, 1, , f, , fi xi, , 1430 143, x, , , 35.75, fi 40 4, , 40, , 20, , 22, , 24, , 25, , 30, , 33, , 38, , 5, , 8, , 11, , 20, , 23, , 18, , 13, , 2, , i i, , fi d i, , 15, , 5, , –10, , –50, , 20, , 8, , –5, , –40, , 22, , 11, , –3, , –33, , 24, , 20, , –1, , –20, , 25, , 23, , 0, , 0, , 30, , 18, , 5, , 90, , 33, , 13, , 8, , 104, , 38, , 2, , 13, , 26, , f, x A, , fd, f, i, , i, , i, , fd, , 100, , 25 , , i, , i i, , 77, , 77, 25.77, 100, , , fu , Step-Deviation Method: x A i i h, f , i , , , Where, A = Assumed mean ui , , xi A, , h Width of class, h, , interval., Example 13. Find the mean of following distribution with, step-deviation method:, 10–15, 5, , Class, Frequency, , 15–20, 6, , 20–25, 8, , 25–30, 12, , 30–35, 6, , 35–40, 3, , Solution:Calculation of Mean:, Let, , fi, , 12.5, 17.5, 22.5, 27.5, 32.5, 37.5, , 5, 6, 8, 12, 6, 3, , f, , 1430, , , , f i ui, , x 27.5, A 27.5, ui i, 5, , Class, , 10–15, 15–20, 20–25, 25–30, 30–35, 35–40, , f x, , Let A 25, d i x i 25, , fi, , xi, , fi x i, , 90, 200, 455, 345, 165, 130, 75, i, , 15, , Solution:, , Method for Mean of grouped frequency distribution., , Then mean x , , i, , where, A = Assumed mean, , xi, , fx, , , , i i, , Frequency, , f n xn, , f, , fd, f, , Example 12. Find the mean for the following distribution by, using deviation method:, , ., ., ., fn, , x A, , d i Deviation from mean xi A , , xi, , ., ., ., , Deviation Method : (Assumed Mean Method), , -3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, i, , 40, , f i ui, x A, f, i, , , –15, –12, –8, 0, 6, 6, , f u -23, i i, , , 23 , h x 27.5 x , 24.625, 40 ,
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II.A.172, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Median: The median is the middle value of a list when the, numbers are in order. To find the median, place the values in, ascending (or descending) order and select the middle value., For instance, what is the median of the following values?, 200, 2, 667, 19, 4, 309, 44, 6, 1, Place the values in ascending order: 1, 2, 4, 6, 19, 44, 200,, 309, 667, Select the value in the middle., There are nine values listed. The middle value is the fifth., The median of these values is 19., The Median of a List with an Even Number of Values:, When the number of values in a list is an even number, the, median is the average (arithmetic mean) of the two middle, values, when the numbers are placed in order. For example, the, 7 10, median of 3, 7, 10, 20 is, 8.5, 2, Median of a distribution is the value of the variable which, divides the distribution into two equal parts., Median or ungrouped data: Arrange the data in ascending, order. Count the no. of observations (Let there be ‘n’, observations). If n is odd then median = value of, th, , n 1 , , observation.If n is even the median = value of, 2 , th, , n, 2, , th, , n, 2, , , , , mean of observation and 1 observation., Example 14. Find the median of the following values: 37, 31,, 42, 43, 46, 25, 39, 45, 32, Solution:Arranging the data in ascending order, we have,, 25, 31, 32, 37, 39, 42, 43, 45, 46, Here, the number of observations n = 9 (odd), th, , 9 1 , th, observation= Value of 5, 2 , , Median = Value of , , observation 39, Example 15. The median of the observation 11, 12, 14, 18, x +, 2, x + 4, 30, 32, 35, 41 arranged in ascending order is 24. Find, the value of x., Solution: Here, the number of observations, n = 10. Since n is, even, therefore, th, , th, , n, n , conservation 1 observation, 2, 2 , Median , 2, 5th observation + 6 th observation, 24 , , 2, x 2 x 4, 24 , , 2, 2x 6, 24 x 3 x 21., 24 , 2, Hence, x 21, , Example 16. Calculate the median for the following, distribution class:, Class, Frequency, , 0–10, 5, , 10–20, 10, , 20–30, 20, , 30–40, 7, , 40–50, 8, , 50–60, 5, , Solution:, Class, , f, , c.f., , 0–10, , 5, , 5, , 10–20, , 10, , 15, , 20–30, , 20, , 35, , 30–40, , 7, , 42, , 40–50, , 8, , 50, , 50–60, , 5, th, , 55, th, , 55 , N, th, value i.e. 27.5, 2, 2, , , , First we find , , which lies in 20–30., 20–30 class in median classhere l 20, N, 27.5, C = 15, f = 20, h = 10, 2, 275 15, median 20 , 10, 20, Median = 26.25, Example17. In the median of the following frequency, distribution is 46, find the missing frequencies:, Variable, , 10–, 20, , 20–, 30, , 30–, 40, , 40–, 50, , 50–, 60, , 60–, 70, , 70–, 80, , Tot, al, , Frequency, , 12, , 13, , ?, , 65, , ?, , 25, , 18, , 229, , Solution:, Class Interval, , Frequency, , C.F, , 10–20, , 12, , 12, , 20–30, , 30, , 42, , 30–40, , f1, , 42 f 1, , 40–50, , 65, , 107 f 1, , 50–60, , f2, , 107 f 1 f 2, , 60–70, , 25, , 132 f 1 f 2, , 70–80, , 18, , 150 f 1 f 2, , Let the frequency of the class 30–40 be f1 and that of the class, 50–60 be f 2 . The total frequency is 229., 12 30 f1 65 f 2 25 18 229, , , , f1 f 2 79, , It is given that median is 46., clearly, 46 lies in the class 40–50., So, 40–50 is the median class, l 40, h = 10, f = 65 and C 42 f1 , N = 229
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Statistics, , N, C, h, Median l 2, f, , , , , 229, 42 f1 , 46 40 2, 10, 65, 145 2 f1, 46 40 , 13, 145 2 f1, 2 f1 67, 6, 13, f1 33.5 or 34, , II.A.173, , Mode or ungrouped data (By inspection only): Arrange the, data in an array and then count the frequencies of each variate., The variate having maximum frequency is the mode., Mode of continuous frequency distribution, , Mode l , , Where, l lower limit of the modal class, f1 frequency of the class i.e. the largest frequency., f 0 frequency of the class preceding the modal class., f 2 frequency of the class succeeding the modal class., , Since, f1 f 2 79, , , , f1 45, , Hence, f1 34 and f 2 45., Merits of Median, It is rigidly defined, easily, understood and calculate., It is not all affected by extreme values., It can be located graphically, even if the class-intervals are, unequal., It can be determined even by inspection is some cases., Demerits of Median, In case of even numbers of observations median cannot be, determined exactly., It is not based on all the observations and not subject to, algebraic treatment., It is much affected by fluctuations of sampling., Uses of Median, Median is the only average to be used while dealing with, qualitative data which cannot be measured quantitatively, but can be arranged in ascending or descending order of, magnitude., It is used for determining the typical value in problems, concerning wages, distribution of wealth, etc., Mode: The mode of a list of values is the value or values that, appear the greatest number of times. Consider the following list:, 1, 5, 5, 7, 89, 4, 100, 276, 89, 4, 89, 1, 8, The number 89 appears three times, which is more times than, any other number appears., The mode of this list is 89., Multiple Modes: It is possible to have more than one mode in, a list of numbers: 1, 5, 5, 7, 276, 4, 10004, 89, 4, 276, 1, 8., In the list above, there are four modes: 1, 4, 5 and 276., , f1 f 0, h, 2 f1 f 0 f 2, , h = width of the modal class, Example 18. Find the mode of the following array of an, individual series of scores: 7, 10, 12, 12, 12, 11, 13, 13, 17., Number, , 7, , 10, , 11, , 12, , 13, , 17, , Frequency, , 2, , 1, , 1, , 3, , 2, , 1, , , , Mode is 12, Uses of Mode: Mode is the average to be used to find the, ideal size, e.g., in business forecasting, in manufacture of, ready-made garments, shoes, etc., Coefficient of the Range: If l and h are the lowest and, highest scores in a distribution then the coefficient of the, hl, Range , hl, Example 19. Find the range of the following distribution: 1, 3,, 4, 7, 9, 10, 12, 13, 14, 16 and 19., Solutions: l 1, h 19, , , , Range h l 19 1 18, , Example 20. Find the range of the following frequency, distribution:, Class-Interval, 0–5, 5 – 10, 10 – 15, 15 – 20, 20–25, , Frequency, 6, 8, 12, 5, 4, , Solution: The range is the difference between the mid value of, the least class-interval and the greatest class interval., 05, Mid value of least class interval , 2.5, 2, 20 5, Mid value of greatest class interval , 22.5, 2, Range = 22.5 – 2.5 = 20
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II.A.174, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Example 21. The following table shows the age distribution of, cases of a certain disease admitted during a year in a particular, hospital., Age (in Years), , 5–14, , 15–24, , 25–34, , 35–44, , 45–54, , No. of Cases, , 6, , 11, , 21, , 23, , 14, , 55–, 64, 5, , Solution: Here class intervals are not is inclusive form. So,, Converting the above frequency table in inclusive form., 4.5–, 14.5, 6, , Age (in Years), No. of Cases, , 14.5–, 24.5, 11, , 24.5–, 34.5, 21, , 34.5–, 44.5, 23, , 44.5–54.5, 14, , 54.5–, 64.5, 5, , Class 34.5–44.5 has maximum frequency. So it is the modal, class., l 34.5, h 10, f 0 21, f1 23 and f 2 14., , , , Mode l , , f1 f 0, h, 2 f1 f 0 f 2, , Mode 34.5 , 34.5 , , Merits of Mode, It can be easily understood and is easy to calculate., It is not affected by extreme values and can be found by, inspection is some cases., It can be measured even if open-end classes and can be, represented graphically., Demerits of Mode, It is ill-fined. It is not always possible to find a clearly, defined mode., It is not based upon all the observation., It is not capable of further mathematical treatment. it is, after indeterminate., It is affected to a greater extent by fluctuations of sampling., Uses of Mode : Mode is the average to be used to find the ideal, size, e.g., in business forecasting, in manufacture of readymade garments, shoes, etc., Empirical Relation between Mode, Median and Mean :, Mode = 3 Median – 2 Mean, , 23 21, 10, 46 21 14, , 2, 10 = 36.31, 11, , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , The median of following series is 520, 20, 340, 190, 35,, 800, 1210, 50, 80, a. 1210, , 2., , 4., , 5., , 6., , c. 190, , If the class intervals in a frequency distribution are (72–, 73.9), (74–75.9), (76–77.9), (78–79.9) etc., the mid-point, of the class (74–75.9) is:, a. 74.50, b. 74.90, c. 74.95, d. 75.00, , 8., , Which one of the following is not correct :, a. Statistics is liable to be misused, b. The data collected by the investigator to be used by, himself are called primary data, c. Statistical laws are exact, d. Statistics do not take into account of individual cases, , 9., , If the first five elements of a se replaced by, ( x1 5), where i = 1,2,3,...5 and the next five elements are, , d. 35, , If the arithmetic mean of 5, 7, 9, x is 9 then the value of x is:, a. 11, , 3., , b. 520, , 7., , b. 15, , c. 18, , d. 16, , The mode of the distribution 3,5,7,4,2,1,4,3,4 is:, a. 7, , b. 4, , c. 3, , d. 1, , If the mean and median of a set of numbers are 8.9 and 9, respectively, then the mode will be:, a. 7.2, , b. 8.2, , c. 9.2, , d. 10.2, , A student got marks in 5 subjects in a monthly test is, given below: (A) 2,3,4,5,6, in these obtained marks, 4 is, the:, a. Mean and median, , b. Median but no mean, , c. Mean but no median, , d. Mode, , What is the mode from the following table:, Marks obtained, , 3, , 1, , 23, , 33, , 43, , Frequency (f), , 7, , 11, , 15, , 8, , 3, , a. 13, , b. 43, , c. 33, , d. 23, , replaced by (xi – 5), where = 6 ..... 10 then the mean will, change by:, a. 25, b. 10, c. 5, d. 0, 10. The following numbers are given 61, 62, 63, 61, 63, 64,, 64, 60, 65, 63, 64, 65, 66, 64. The difference between, their mean and median is:, a. 0.4, b. 0.3, c. 0.2, d. 0.1
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Statistics, , II.A.175, n, , 11. The value of, , ∑ (x, , 1, , − x ) where x is the arithmetic mean, , i =1, , of x1 is:, a. 1, c. 0, , b. nx, d. None of these, , 12. The average of 15 numbers is 18. The average of first 8 is, 19 and that last 8 is 17, then the 8th number is:, b. 16, c. 18, d. 20, a. 15, 13. In an examination, 10 students scores the following marks, in Mathematics 35, 19, 28, 32, 63, 02, 47, 31, 13, 98. It, rage is:, a. 96, b. 02, c. 98, d. 50, Direction (14): Question 14 is based on the histogram given, in the adjacent figure., 600, 550, 500, 450, 400, 350, 300, 250, 200, 150, 10, 50, 0, , Arts, Commerse, Science, Law, , 18. What is the upper limit of the class-interval 200–250, a. 200, b. 250, c. 225, d. None of these, 19. The median of following series if 520, 20, 340, 190, 35,, 800, 1210, 50, 80, a. 1210, b. 520, c. 190, d. 35, 20. The formula for Mode is:, C∆2, a. l +, 2 f − ( ∆1 + ∆ 2 ), c. l +, , ∆1, ×C, 2 f − ( ∆1 + ∆ 2 ), , b. l −, d. l −, , C∆2, 2 f − ( ∆1 + ∆ 2 ), ∆1, , ( ∆1 + ∆ 2 ), , ×C, , 21. If the median is 20 and each item is increased by 2, the, new median will be, a. 40, b. 10, c. 22, d. No change, 22. If the mean and median of a set of numbers are 8.9 and 9, respectively, then the mode will be:, a. 7.2, b. 8.2, c. 9.2, d. 10.2, 23. If the class of a distribution are 1 – 8, 9 – 16, 17 – 24, etc.,, the class interval is:, a. 8, b. 9, c. 7, d. 3, , 1990 - 1991, , 1991 - 1992, , 1992 - 1993, , 14. The percentage of students in science faculty in 1990–91, is:, a. 26.9%, b. 27.8%, c. 14.81%, d. 30.2%, 15. For the scores 8,6,10,12,1,5,6 and 6 the Arithmetic mean is:, a. 6.85, b. 6.75, c. 6.95, d. 7, Direction (16 to 18): Each question from 16 to 18 is based, on the histogram given in the adjacent figure., 50, 40, 30, 20, 10, , 200 250 300 350 400 450, , 16. What is the number of worker earning Rs. 300 to 350 ?, a. 50, b. 40, c. 45, d. 130, 17. In which class interval of wages there is the least number, of workers?, a. 400 – 450, b. 350 – 400, c. 250 – 300, d. 200 – 250, , 24. If the classes of a distribution are 1 – 10, 11 – 20, … the, upper boundary of class 1–10 is:, a. 9.5, b. 10, c. 11.5, d. 10.5, 25. The range of the values 64, 82, 19, 12, 3, 48, 54 is:, a. 68, b. 74, c. 79, d. 54, 26. The frequency polygon is one drawn using:, a. mid point of classes and frequencies, b. end points of classes and frequencies, c. upper boundaries of classes less than cumulative, frequencies, d. upper boundaries of classes greater than cumulative, frequencies, 27. Less than cumulative frequency curves are drawn using:, a. upper boundaries of classes, cumulative frequencies, b. lower boundaries of classes, cumulative frequencies, c. mid values of classes, cumulative frequencies, d. upper boundaries of classes, less than cumulative, frequencies, 28. The median of the scores 13, 23, 12, 18, 26, 19, 14 is:, a. 14, b. 26, c. 13, d. 18, 29. The mode of 9, 10, 6, 9, 6, 7, 9, 9, 10, 8, 10 is:, a. 10, b. 13, c. 12, d. 9
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II.A.176, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 30. The A.M. of d – 2, d, d, d + 2 is:, a. d + 2, b. d, c. d – 2, , 35. The median and A.M. of a unimodel data are 30.5 and, 26.2 respectively then its mode is:, a. 31.2, b. 35.1, c. 40.4, d. 39.1, , d. 3d, , 31. Formula for the median of grouped data is:, , N, , F, 2, C, a. L , f, , N, , F, 2, C, b. L , F, , 3N, , F, , 2, C, c. L , f, , 3N, , F, , 2, C, d. L , F, , 36. One of the properties of Mode is:, a. Not easy to calculate, b. It is not affected by greatest and least values, c. Algebraic, d. Difference of greatest and least values, , 32. The mean and median for a unimodel data are 43, 43.4, respectively then the mode is:, a. 43.4, b. 42.4, c. 44.2, d. 49.3, , 37. Among 100 employees, the average salary of 99 is Rs.50., The 100th employee has the salary exceeds the average of, 100 employees by Rs.49.50 then average salary of all, employees (in Rs.) is:, a. 49, b. 49.50, c. 50, d. 50.50, , 33. The sum of all the deviations of the observations of a data, from it’s A.M. is:, a. 0, b. maximum, c. minimum, d. negative number, , 38. An average which can not determined graphically is:, a. Median, b. Mode, c. H.M., d. A.M., , 34. In a frequency distribution, C = 3, l = 66.5, t = 42, m = 23,, n = 102 then the median of the distribution is:, a. 66.5, b. 68.5, c. 66.9, d. 67.5, , 40. An give curve is used to determine:, a. A.M., b. H.M., c. Mode, d. Median, , 39. The measure which takes into account all the data is:, a. A.M., b. Median, c. Range, d. Mode, , ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , c, , b, , b, , c, , a, , d, , c, , c, , d, , b, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , c, , c, , a, , c, , b, , a, , d, , b, , c, , c, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , c, , c, , a, , d, , c, , a, , b, , d, , d, , b, , 31., , 32., , 33., , 34., , 35., , 36., , 37., , 38., , 39., , 40., , a, , c, , a, , b, , d, , b, , d, , c, , a, , d, , 13. (a) 98 2 96, 14. (c) Science faculty, 20000, 200, 14.81%, %, 100 , 1350, (150 200 400 600), x, N, 22. (c) Mode = 3 Median – 2 Mean, 25. (c) R 82 3 79, , 15. (b) x , , SOLUTIONS, , 28. (d) 12,13,17,18,19, 23, 26, , 1., , 7 1, 4, 2, Therefore median is 18, 29. (d) 9 has maximum frequency, , 2., , (c) 20,35,50,80,190,340,520,800,1210, N 1 9 1, , 5 Median = 190, 2, 2, 579 x, (b), 9, 4, , N, , 30. (b) x , , x 36 21 x 15, , 3., 4., 6., , (b) 4 has maximum frequency, (c) Mode = 3 median – 2 Mean, (d) f max 15, , Therefore mode is 23., 12. (c) (8 19) (8 17) (15 18), , x, , d 2d d d 2, 4, , 4d, 4, , x d, 32. (c) Mode, 3 43.4 2 43, , 130.2 86, = 44.8, , 152 136 270 288 270 18, ,
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Trigonometry, , II.A.177, , 23, , Trigonometry, , Trigonometry means, the science which deals with the, measurement of triangles. A right angled triangle is shown in, the Figure, B is of 90° side opposite to B be called, hypotenuse., , Trigonometric Table:, , , There are two other angles i.e. A and C . Let us consider, C as , then opposite side to this angle is called Perpendicular, , 0, , 30, , sin, , 0, , 1, 2, , cos, , 1, , 3, 2, , tan, , 0, , 1, 3, , 1, , 3, , 0, , cot, , Not, defined, , 3, , 1, , 1, 3, , 0, , sec, , 1, , cosec, , Not, defined, , and side adjacent to is called base., A, , H, , A, , , B, , , B, , Trigonometric Ratios:, sin , , Perpendicular P AB, , Hypotenuse, H AC, , cos ec , , Hypotenuse, H AC, , Perpendicular P AB, , cos , , Base, B BC, , Hypotenuse H AC, , sec , , Hypotenuse H AC, , Base, B BC, , tan , , Perpendicular P AB, , Base, H BC, , cot , , Base, B BC, , Parpendicular P AB, , Basic Trigonometric Ratio:, 1, 1, cot , tan , cot , tan , 1, 1, sec , cos , sec , cos , 1, 1, cos ec , sin , cos ec, sin , sin , cos , cot , tan , cos , sin , , C, , 45, , 60, , 1, 2, , 3, 2, , 1, 2, , 2, 3, , 2, , 2, , 1, 2, , 1, 0, , Not, defined, , 2, , 2, , 90, , 2, 3, , 1, , Trigonometric Identities:, (i) sin 2 cos 2 1, (A) sin 2 1 cos 2 , (B) cos 2 1 sin 2, (ii) 1 tan 2 sec 2 , (A) sec 2 1 tan 2 , (B) sec 2 tan 2 1, (C) tan 2 sec 2 1, (iii) 1 cot 2 cos ec 2, (A) cos ec 2 1 cot 2 , (B) cos ec 2 cot 2 1, (C) cot 2 cos ec 2 1, Trigonometric Ratio of Complementary Angles:, sin 90 cos , cos 90 sin , tan 90 cot , , cot 90 tan , , sec 90 cos ec, , cos ec 90 sec , , Example 1. In the given triangle AB = 3 cm and AC = 5 cm., Find all trigonometric ratios., Solution: Using Pythagoras theorem, AC 2 AB 2 BC 2, , , , 5 2 32 p 2, , , , 16 p, , A, , , , 2, , P cm, Here P = 4 cm, B = 3 cm,, H = 5 cm, , H, , A, , B, , P, , C
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.A.178, , ∴, ⇒, ⇒, ⇒, , R.H.S. = sin A × sec A, 4, , P 4, =, H 5, B 3, P 4, = ⇒ tan θ = =, cos θ =, H 5, B 3, B 3, H 5, =, cot θ = = ⇒ secθ =, P 4, B 3, H 5, =, cos ecθ =, P 4, , sin θ =, , 5 5 , = − , 12 13 , , 2, , 2, , 4, , 2, , 5 13 , = ×, , 13 12 , , m, , then find sin θ ., n, Solution: Let P = mα and B = nα, P m, A, ∴ tan θ = =, B n, , =, , 25 25, −, 144 169, , =, , 25 (169 − 144 ), 5 4 × 132, =, 4, 2, 13 × 12, 144 × 169, , =, , 25 × 25, 54, =, 2, 2, 13 × 12, 144 × 169, , Example 2. If tan θ =, , ⇒, , H 2 = P2 + B2, , ⇒, , H 2 = m 2α 2 + n 2α 2, , ⇒, , H = α m2 + n2, tan θ =, , ⇒, , Hence Proved., θ, C, , nα, , B, , sin θ =, , Example 4. In ∆ ABC , right angled at B. AC + AB = 9 cm., Determine the value of cot C, cosec C, sec C., , P, ma, =, H a m2 + n 2, , Solution: In ∆ ABC , we have, , ( AC ), , m, , m2 + n2, , Example 3. If cos ecA =, 4, , 25 × 25, 144 × 169, So, L.H.S. = R.H.S., =, , H, , mα, , ∴, , ⇒, , 13, then prove tan 2 A − sin 2 A = sin4, 5, , 2, , sin A sec A., 13, Hypotenuse, Solution: We have cos ec A = =, 5 Perpendicular, , AB2 = BC 2 + AC 2 ⇒ (13) = ( 5) + AC 2, 2, , AC 2 = 169 − 25 = 144, , ⇒, , AC = 144 = 12 units, , ⇒, , BC 5, tan A =, =, AC 12, , ⇒, , sin A =, , BC 5, =, AB 13, , 2, , 2, , = ( AB ) + BC 2, , ( 9 − AB ), , 2, , 2, , = AB2 + ( 3), , 2, , [∵ AC + AB = 9cm ⇒ AC = 9 − AB ], ⇒, , 81 + AB 2 − 18 AB = AB 2 + 9, , ⇒, , 72 − 18 AB = 0, , AB =, , AC = 9 – 4 = 5 cm, , 5 cm, , A, , BC 3, = ,], So, cot C =, AB 4, cos ecC =, , 4 cm, , 3 cm, , B, , 5, AC, AC 5, = − , sec C =, = ., 4, AB, BC 3, , B, , Example 5. Given that cos ( A − B ) = cos A cos B + sin B , find, 5, , 13, , the value of cos15°, , Solution: Putting A = 45 ° and B = 30 °, C, , 12, , We get cos ( 45° − 30° ) = cos 45° cos 30° + sin 45° sin 30°, , A, , AB 13, =, AC 12, , ⇒, , cos15 ° =, , 1, 3, 1, 1, ×, +, ×, 2, 2, 2 2, , L.H.S. = tan 2 A − sin 2 A, , ⇒, , cos15 ° =, , 3 +1, 2 2, , and sec A =, , C, , 72, = 4cm., 18, Now, AC + AB = 9 cm, ⇒, , So, we draw a right triangle ABC, right angled at C such that, hypotenuse, AB = 13 units and perpendicular BC = 5 units, By Pythagoras theorem,, , ⇒, , 2
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II.A.180, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , cos A sin A , 1, , , , , , sin A cos A sin A cos A , 2, , 2, , , , sin 2 A cos2 A 1, = 1 (R.H.S.), Hence Proved., Example 11. If sin cos m and sec cos ec n, then, , , , , Solution: L.H.S. n m, , prove that n m2 1 2m., 2, , tan x , , or, , 1 , , tan x , , 4x , , , sec tan x , , 2sin cos , , Adding equation (i) and (ii), 1, 1, 1, x, , 4x, 4x 2x, 1, ., 2x, , Example 13. If is an acute angle and tan cot 2 find, , the value of tan 9 cot 9 ., Solution: We have, tan cot 2, , Hence Proved., Example 12. If sec x , , 1, , then prove that sec tan 2x, 4x, , 1, ., 2x, 1, 4x, , . . . (i), , , , 1 tan 2 sec2 , , , , 1, 1, 2, 2, 1 , , tan 2 x , 1 tan x 16x2 2 x 4x 1, 4x , , , tan 2 sec2 1, , , , 1, 1, 1, tan x , 1 tan x , 16 x 2 2, 4x , , , 2, , 2, , 1, 1, x, 4x, 4x, , Hence, sec tan 2 x or, , R.H.S., , Solution: sec x , , . . . (iii), , sec tan 2 x, , sec tan x , , 2 sin cos 2 m, , or, , . . . (ii), , Adding equation (i) and (ii), , cos sin , , 1 2 sin cos 1, sin cos , , sin cos , , 1, 4x, , So,, , 1, , 1 , 1, 2, 2, , , sin cos 2sin cos 1, cos sin , , cos sin , , 2, , 1 , tan x , , x, 4, , , 2, sec cos ec sin cos 1, , , , , , 1 , , tan 2 x , , 4x , , , 1, 2, tan , , tan 2 1, 2, tan , , , , tan , , , , tan 2 1 2 tan , , tan 2 2 tan 1 0, , , , tan 1, , tan 1 0, , , , tan 1, , tan tan 45 , , , , 45 , , tan 9 cot 9 , , 2, , , , 0, , tanº 45º cotº 45º, tan 45 cot 45 1 1 2., 9, , 2, , 9, , 9, , 9, , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , The angle subtended at the centre of a circle of radius 3, metres by an arc of length 1 metre is equal to, a. 20°, , 2., , b. 60°, , c., , 1, radian, 3, , 3., , a. 10cm, , d. 3 radians, , A circular wire of radius 7 cm is cut and bend again into, an arc of a circle of radius 12cm . The angle subtended by, the arc at the centre is:, a. 50°, b.210°, c.100°, d.60°, , The radius of the circle whose arc of length 15cm makes, an angle of 3/4 radian at the centre is:, , 4., , b. 20 cm, , c. 11 1 cm, 4, , d. 22 1 cm, 2, , 1, If for real values of x, cos x , then, x, , a. is an acute angle, , b. is a right angle, , c. is an obtuse angle, , d. No value of is possible
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Trigonometry, , 5., , II.A.181, , The incorrect statement is:, a. sin , , 6., , 7., , 8., , b. cos 1, , c. sec , , 1, d. tan 20, 2, , a. sin , , 5, 3, , b. tan 1002, , c. cos , , 1 p2, , ( p 1), 1 p, , d. sec , , 24, 25, , b. , , c., , 25, 24, , d. None of these, , 4, , then sin , 3, a. – 4/5 but not 4/5, c. 4/5 but not – 4/5, , a. 2a b, , b. a b, , c. a 2b, , d. None of these, , 19. If sin , , d. 1/2, , If sin cos ec 2, the value of sin10 cos ec10 is, b. 210, , a. 10, , c. 29, , 20. If sin , , d. 2, , a. 1, c. 2, , b. 4, d. None of these, , c. 2m, , 12. If sin cos 1, , then sin cos , a. 0, b. 1, c. 2, 24, and , 25, , then sec tan , a. – 3, b. – 5, 14. If cos ecA cot A , , 16, , a. , , 20, 41, , 22. If tan , , 23., , c. 44, , 117, , c. 1/6, , d. – 9, , d. 117, 43, , 1, 21, , c. , , 1, 10, , and lies in the fourth quadrant, then, , c. 10, , d. 10, , 11, , 11, , ( m 2) sin (2 m 1) cos 2 m 1, if, , a. tan , , 3, 4, , b. tan , , c. tan , , 2m, m2 1, , d. None of these, , 4, 3, , 24. If A lies in the second quadrant and 3 tan A 4 0, the, , value of 2 cot A 5 cos A sin A is equal to:, a. 53, 10, , d. 6, , b., , 7, 10, , c. 7, , 10, , d., , 23, 10, , 25. If sin x sin y 3(cos y cos x), then the value of sin 3 x is:, , 20, , cos cos will be, 21, b. , , 2, 5, , d. , , d. None of these, , b. 1 / 11, , a. 1 / 11, , lies in the second quadrant,, , c. – 7, , 2, 5, , c., , cos , , d. 1/2, , 5 sin 3 cos , , 5 sin 2 cos , , b. 1, , 16. If tan , , d. 2n, , 11, , then tan A , 2, , b. 15, , 15. If 5tan 4, then, a. 0, , 5, , c. 60º , 15º, , b. n, , 21, a., 22, , b. 1, , 1, 1, and cos( ) , where and , 2, 2, are positive acute angles, then, a. 45º , o 15º, b. 15º , , , n ( m 1)( m 1) , , 13. If sin , , , 4, and lies in the third quadrant, then cos , 2, 5, , 21. If sin , , 11. If sin cos m and sec cos ec n, then, a. m, , b. Second, d. Fourth, , 5, , 2, , b. – 4/5 or 4/5, d. None of these, , and tan 1, then lies in which, , 2, , a. 1, , 10. If sin cos ec 2, then sin cosec , 2, , 1, , quadrant, a. First, c. Third, , tan 1º tan 2º tan 3º tan 4º ..... tan 89º , , c. , , 24, 7, , 18. If tan , , 1, 2, , The equation (a b) 2 4ab sin 2 is possible only when, , b. 0, , 24, , then the value of tan x is:, 25, , a., , Which of the following relations is possible?, , a. 1, 9., , 1, 5, , 17. If sin x , , sin 3 y, , 21, 29, , d. , , 20, 21, , a. 1, c. 0, , b. – 1, d. None of these
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II.A.182, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 26. If lies in the second quadrant, then the value of, 35., , 1 sin , 1 sin , , , , 1 sin , 1 sin , , 27., , a. 2sec, , b. 2sec, , c. 2 cos ec, , d. None of these, , sin , cos , , , 1 cot 1 tan , , 36., , a. 0, , b. 1, , c. cos sin, , d. cos sin, , 28. If tan sec e , then cos equals, , 1 sin A cos A, , 1 sin A cos A, , a. sin, , A, 2, , b. cos, , A, 2, , c. tan, , A, 2, , d. cot, , A, 2, , 2 sin tan (1 tan ) 2 sin sec 2 , , (1 tan ) 2, , a., , sin , 1 tan , , b., , c., , 2 sin , (1 tan ) 2, , d. None of these, , x, , a., , (e x e x ), 2, , b., , 2, (e x e x ), , c., , (e x e x ), 2, , d., , (e x e x ), (e x e x ), , 29. If cos sin 2 sin , then cos sin is equal to, 2 cos , , a., , c. 2cos, , 2 sin , , b., , d. 2 cos , , 30. If sec tan p, then tan is equal to, a. 22 p, , b., , p 1, , c., , p2 1, 2p, , 34., , sin 2 y, 1 cos y, sin y, is equal to:, , , 1 cos y, sin y, 1 cos y, , a. 0, c. sin y, , b. 1, d. cos y, , 38. If 2y cos x sin and 2x sec y cosec 3, then, x 2 4y 2 , , a. 4, c. ± 4, , b. – 4, d. None of these, , 1, , x, , 40. If x sec tan , y cosec cot , then, , b. 2sec, , c. 2, , d. 2tan, , a. 110, , a. x , , b. 191, , y 1, y 1, , c. y 1 x, , 1 x, , If x 1 2 cos , then x n 1n , x, x, n, , a. 2 cos, , b. 2 cos n, , c. 2i sin n, , d. 2 cos n, , 33. If cos , , 1, , 39. If tan A cot A 4, then tan 4 A cot 4 A is equal to, , a. 1, , n, , 37. The value of the expression, , d. 22 p, , p 1, , 31. If x sec tan , then x , , 32., , p 1, 2p, 2, , 2 sin , 1 tan , , 1, 1, 1, 1 , x , then x 2 2 , 2, 2, x, x , , a. sin2, , b. cos 2, , c. tan 2, , d. sec 2, , cot x tan x , a. cot 2x, , b. 2 cot 2 x, , c. 2 cot 2 x, , d. cot 2 2x, , 41. If tan , , c. 80, , b. x , , d. 194, , y 1, y 1, , d. None of these, , x sin , and tan y sin , then x , 1 x cos , y, 1 y cos , , a., , sin , sin , , b., , sin , sin , , c., , sin , 1 cos , , d., , sin , 1 cos , , 42. If p , , 2 sin , cos , , and q , , then, 1 cos sin , 1 sin , , a. pq 1, , b. q 1, , c. q p 1, , d. q p 1, , p
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Trigonometry, , II.A.183, , ANSWERS, 9., , (d) We have, sin cosec 2, , , , sin 2 1 2 sin , , b, , , , sin 2 2 sin 1 0, , 29., , 30., , , , (sin 1) 2 0 sin 1, , b, , a, , b, , 37., , 38., , 39., , 40., , d, , a, , d, , b, , 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , c, , b, , b, , d, , c, , b, , b, , a, , d, , c, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , c, , a, , c, , c, , c, , c, , b, , b, , c, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , a, , c, , b, , d, , b, , b, , d, , 31., , 32., , 33., , 34., , 35., , 36., , b, , d, , b, , c, , c, , a, , 41., , 42., , b, , d, , Required value of, sin 10 cos ec10 (1)10 , , 1, 2. ., (1)10, , 10. (c) sin 2 cosec 2 (sin cosec ) 2, 2 sin cosec, , SOLUTIONS, 1., , (2)2 2 4 2 2, since (sin cosec ) 2., , (c) Given that radius (r ) 3m and arc (d ) 1m, , We know that Angle , 2., , arc, 1, radian ., radius, 3, , (b) Given that diameter of circular wire = 14 cm, , Therefore length of circular wire = 14 cm., , , Required angle arc, , radius, , 4., , 14 , 7, , 12, 6, , ( m2 1 2 sin cos ), sin cos , .2 sin cos 2m. ., sin .cos , 12. (a) sin cos 1, Squaring on both sides, we get, , , , Radius = 20 cm, , sin 2 cos 2 2sin cos 1, sin cos 0 ., 24, 7, 24, 13. (c) sin , , tan , cos , 25, 25, 7, 25 24, sec tan , , 7, 7, 7, , (d) The quadratic equation is x 2 x cos 1 0, , 14. (c) cosec A cot A , , , , 3., , , , 11. (c) n(m 2 1) (sec cosec ). 2 sin cos , , 7 180, ., 6, , , o, , (b) Angle , , 210 o, , arc, 15, , cm, radius (3 / 4), , , , 11, 2, cosec A cot A , 2, 11, Therefore 2 cot A 117 tan A 44 ., 22, 117, , But x is real, therefore B 2 4 AC 0, , , cos2 4(1)(1), , , , cos 2 4, , 15. (c) 5 tan 4 tan , , which is impossible., 5., , (c) Incorrect statement is sec 1, , , , 2, , 6. (b) Options (a), (c), (d) are false but (b) is correct., i.e. tan 1002 possible., (b) We have (a b)2 4 ab sin 2 , , , , sin 2 , , , , (a b) 2 0 a b., , 8., , (a b) 2, 1 ( a b ) 2 4 ab 0, 4 ab, , (a) tan 1 tan 2.... tan 89, (tan 1 tan 89 )(tan 2 tan 88 )......, 1 1 1.... 1., , 4, 41, , and cos , , 5, 41, , 4, 5, 3, 5 sin 3 cos, 41, , 5 sin 2 cos 5 4 2 , 41, , because value of sec is always 1 ., , 7., , sin , , 4, 5, , 5, 41, 5, 41, , 20 15 5 1, , ., 20 10 30 6, , 16. (c) tan , , 20, 21, cos . ., 21, 29, 2, , 7, 24 , , 25, 25 , , 17. (b) cos x 1 sin 2 x 1 , , , tan x , , sin x 24, ., , cos x, 7
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II.A.184, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 18. (b) Since cos ec 2 1 cot 2 1 , , 2, , 9 25, , 16 16, , (3t 4)[(1 m ) t 2m] 0 ,, , which is true if t tan , , 1, 16, 4, , 2, tan sin cosec 2 25, 3, , , , , , or, , 4, sin ,, 5, , Both the values are acceptable, since tan 4 i.e., lies, 3, 19. (c) sin , , , 1, , and tan 1, , 2, , 4, 20. (b) Given that sin and lies in the III quadrant., 5, , cos, , , 2, , But cos, , , 2, , 16, 3, , 25, 5, , 1 cos , , 2, , , , , , Hence cos, , , 2, , 1, 5, , , 1 3/5, 1, , 2, 5, , , , since, 1, 5, , 2, , will be in II quadrant., , 4, 5, , 25. (b) We have sin x sin y 3 (cos y cos x), , , sin x 3 cos x 3 cos y sin y, , , , r cos ( x ) r cos (y ),, , . . .(i), , 1, 3, , x y 2, , Clearly, x y satisfies (i);, , 22. (c) We have tan 1 , therefore is in IV quadrant., , , , sin 3 x sin 3 y, , 1., sin 3 y, sin 3 y, , 1 sin , 1 sin , , , 1 sin , 1 sin , , 26. (b) , , So cos ve. ., , is the sum of two, , positive quantities and hence the result must be, positive. But for, 1 sin 1 sin , 1 sin , 2, , 10, , , 2, , , , we have the sum equal to, 2, ;, cos , , which is negative.( cos is negative for lying in 2nd, , Now 1 tan 2 sec 2 1 , 11, sec , cos , 10, , the, , , , 3 4 23, 3, ., 2 5 , 5 5 10, 4, , or, , ., , Trick: In such type of problems, students should satisfy, the given conditions with the values given in the options., Here 45 and 15 satisfy both the conditions., , 23. (b) Squaring, , 1 16 / 9, , x (y ) x y, , 1, sin 30º 30º, …..(i), 2, 1, and cos( ) 60º, …..(ii), 2, Solving (i) and (ii), we get 45º and 15º., , , , 4 / 3, , , , Where, r 10 , tan , , 21. (a) sin( ) , , 2, , tan A, 1 tan 2 A, , 3, and cos a ., 5, Thus, 2 cot A 5 cos A sin A, , sin sin 225º 225º, , cos 1 , , sin A , , 4, 3, , ( A is in 2nd quadrant), , Since sin is ve and, tan is ve in third quadrant., , , , 2m, .., m2 1, , 24. (d) 3 tan a 4 0 tan A , , , in 2nd or 4 th quadrant., , tan , , 4, 3, , 1, sec 2 , 10, , quadrant). So the required positive value, , , 10 , , , 11 , , given, , relation, , and, , putting, , tan t,, , (m 2)2 t 2 2(m 2) (2m 1)t (2m 1)2 (2m 1)2 (1 t 2 ), (m 2)2 t 2 2(m 2) (2m 1)t (2m 1)2 (2m 1)2 (1 t 2 ), 3 (1 m2 ) t 2 (4m2 6m 4) t 8m 0, , 2, , 2 sec , , cos , 2, , 27. (d), , , ., , , sin , cos , , 1 cot 1 tan , , , sin .sin , cos .cos , , sin cos cos sin , , , , (cos2 sin 2 ), cos sin ., (cos sin )
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Trigonometry, , II.A.185, , 28. (b) tan sec e x, , , , sec tan e, , From (i) and (ii), 2sec e e, cos , , x, , 2, ., e e x, , Trick : Put A 60 o ., , x, , 29. (a) We have cos sin , , , 2 sin, , . . .(ii), x, , , , A, A, A, sin cos , A, 2, 2, 2, = tan ., , 2, A, A, A, 2 cos cos sin , 2, 2, 2, , . . .(i), , x, , Then 1 ( 3 / 2) (1 / 2) 1 3 1, , 2 sin , , 1 ( 3 / 2) (1 / 2), , 2 cos cos sin sin cos , , 1, p2 1, ., tan , p, 2p, , x, , 1, 1, sec tan , x, sec tan , , , , sec tan sec tan 2 sec , 1, 32. (d) We have, x 2 cos , x, 1, x 2 2 2 4 cos 2 ., x, , , , , , 1, 2 cos n ., xn, , , , 1, 1, 1, x x 2 cos , x, x, 2, x2 , , 1, x, , 2, , , , 35. (c), , 2, , 2, , cos x sin x, cos x sin x, , , sin x cos x, sin x cos x, , 2 cos 2 x, 2 cot 2 x ., sin 2 x, , 1 sin A cos A, 1 sin A cos A, , A, A, A, 2 sin cos, 2, 2, 2, , A, A, A, 2 cos2 2 sin cos, 2, 2, 2, , 2 sin , ., 1 tan , , cos y (1 cos y), 0 cos y., 1 cos y, , . . .(i), , and 2 x sec y cosec 3, , . . .(ii), , y, 2x, , 3, cos sin , 2 x sin y cos 3 sin cos 0, , . . .(iii), , 4 (cos 2 sin 2 ) 4 ., , 1 2, 1 1, x 2 2 cos 2 cos 2, 2, x 2, , , , , , Now, x 2 4 y 2 4 cos 2 4 sin 2 , , ( 2 cos ) 2 4 cos 2 2 2 cos 2, , 34. (c) cot x tan x , , 1 tan 2 , , Solving (i) and (iii),, we get y sin and x 2 cos , , 2, , 1, , x 2, x, , , 2, , , , 2, , 38. (a) Given that 2y cos x sin , , 33. (b) Given that, , We know that, , tan tan, , 1 cos y sin 2 y (1 cos 2 y) sin 2 y, , 1 cos y, sin y (1 cos y), , 1, 4 cos 2 2 ,, x2, 1, x 2 2 2(2 cos 2 1) 2 cos 2, x, , cos , , 2 sin , (1 tan ) 2, , , , 37. (d) The expression can be written as, , x2 , , n, Similarly x , , 3, , , , 31. (b) Given that x sec tan , , , 2, , Note: Students should remember at the time of assuming, the values of A, B, , ..... etc. that, for the assumed values,, the options must have different values., 36. (b) Given expression, 2 sin , , tan (1 tan ) sec 2 , (1 tan ) 2, , Subtracting second from first,, we get 2 tan p , , 3, , o, i.e. tan 60 1, , 2 cos ., , 1, 30. (b) sec tan p sec tan , p, , 3, , which is given by option (c),, , cos ( 2 1) sin ( 2 1) cos sin , , , , 3, , 39. (d) tan A cot A 4, tan 2 A cot 2 A 2 tan A cot A 16, , , tan 2 A cot 2 A 14 tan 4 A cot 4 A 2 196, , , , tan, , 4, , A cot, , 4, , A 194 ., , 40. (b) We have xy (sec tan ) (cosec cot ), , , , 2 sin2, , , , 1 sin 1 cos , ., cos , sin , , xy 1 , , 1 sin cos sin cos sin cos , cos sin
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II.A.186, , , , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 1 sin cos , cos sin , , . . .(i), , x y (sec tan ) (cosec cot ), , , , , , 1 sin 1 cos , , cos , sin , , , , sin sin 2 cos cos 2 , cos sin , , , , sin cos 1, cos sin , , , , 1, tan sin tan cos , y, , , , 1 sin tan cos , , tan , y, , Now, , sin tan cos , tan , x , , , , y sin cos tan , tan , , , sin , , sin cos, tan , cos, tan cos sin, , , , , sin tan cos , sin , tan , sin, , cos, , , , , cos, , , , , . . .(ii), , Adding (i) and (ii) we get, xy 1 ( x y) 0, , Aliter: x sin tan x cos tan, , y 1, x , ., y 1, , , , 41. (b) We have tan , , , , , x, , x sin , 1 x cos , , , , 1, tan tan cos sin , x, , y sin , 1 y cos , , sin , , , , tan , , , , 1, tan tan cos sin , y, , 1, cos , y, , sin , sin , , cos sin cos sin , sin ( ), , Similarly, y , , 1 sin cos tan, , x, tan, , and tan , , tan , sin cos tan , , , , x sin , , ., y, sin , , 42. (d) p , , 2 sin , cos , ,q, 1 cos sin , 1 sin , , 2 sin , cos , , , 1 sin 1 sin cos , , , , pq , , , , p q 1., , , , sin , ;, sin ( )
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Height and Distance, , II.A.187, , 24, , Height and Distance, , Trigonometry is one of the most important branches of, mathematics. Application of trigonometry includes:, Measuring the heights of towers or big mountains, Determining the distance of the shore from sea, Finding the distance between two celestial bodies, The above examples are just few of the applications of, trigonometry. In most of the applications, trigonometry is, used to measure heights and distances. To measure heights and, distances of different objects, we use trigonometric ratios., Angle of Elevation: In order to see an object which is at a, higher level compared to the ground level we are to look up., , The line joining the object and the eye of the observer is known, as the line sight and the angle which this line of sight makes, with the horizontal drawn through the eye of the observer is, known as the angle of elevation., P, Line of sight, , Horizontal line, , A, , 0, , Angle of, depression, , Line of sight, P, , Figure: 24.2, , Suppose a man from a point O looks down at an object P,, placed below the level of his eye, then the angle which the line, of sight makes with the horizontal through O, is called the, angle of depression of P as seen from O., Example 1. A man is standing on the deck of a ship, which is 8, m above water level. He observes the angle of elevations of the, top of a hill as 60º and the angle of depression of the base of, the hill as 30º. Calculation the distance of the hill from the ship, and the height of the hill., Solution: Let x be distance of hill from man and h 8 be, height of hill which is required. Is right triangle ACB., A, , h, , Angle of elevation, O, , B, Horizontal line, , 60, 30, , C, , A, , Figure: 24.1, , 8, , Suppose a man from a point O looks up at an object P, placed, above the level of his eye., Then, the angle which the line of sight makes with the, horizontal through O, is called the angle of elevation of P as, seen from O., Angle of elevation of P from O AOP., Angle of Depression: When the object is at a lower level tan, the observer’s eyes, he has to look downwards to have a view, of the object., , It that case, the angle which the line of sight makes with the, horizontal thought the observer’s eye is known as the angle of, depression (Figure 24.2)., , D, , x, , , , tan 60 , , AC h, , BC x, , In right triangle BCD., , , , , h, x, 1, 8, , 3 x, 3, , , , x 8 3, , , , Height of hill h 8 3.x 8 , , 3 8 3 8 32m., , Distance of ship from hill x 8 3 m., Example 2. A vertical tower stands on a horizontal plane and is, surmounted by vertical flag staff of height 5 meters. At a point on, the plane, the angle of elevation of the bottom and the top of the, flag staff are respectively 30º and 60º find the height of tower.
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.A.188, C, , In ∆ADE, , AE, ED, 1, h −8, =, x, 3, , tan 30° =, , 5m, B, , ⇒, , h, , ⇒, , (∵ CB = DE = x ), x = 3 ( h − 8), , . . . (i), , In ∆ACB, 30°, , D, , 60°, , tan 45° =, , A, , X, , Solution: Let AB be the tower of height h metre and BC be the, height of flag staff surmounted on the tower, Let the point of, the place be D at a distance x meter from the foot of the tower, in ∆ABD., AB, h, 1, ⇒ tan 30° =, ⇒, =, AD, 3 x, ⇒, In, , x = 3h, ∆ABD, , AC, AD, , ⇒, , 3=, , 5+h, x, , 5+ h, 3, From (i) and (ii), 5+h, ⇒, 3h, 3, ⇒, , x=, , . . . (ii), , ⇒, , h, x, , 1=, , ⇒ x=h, Form (i) and (ii), , . . . (ii), , 3 ( h − 8) = h, 3h − 8 3 = h, , ⇒, , (, , 3h − h = 8 3, , ⇒, , ), , 3 −1 = 8 3, , ⇒, , h, , ⇒, , h=, , ⇒, , h=4 3, , ⇒, , h = 4 3 + 3 metres, , . . . (i), , tan 60° =, , h, x, , 8 3, ×, 3 −1, , (, , (, , (, , )⇒, , 3 +1, , 8 3, h=, , 3 +1, , (, , ), , 3 +1, 2, , ), , 3 +1, , ), , Form (ii) x = h, So,, , ⇒, 3h = 5 + h, 5, ⇒ h = = 2.5 m, 2, So, the height of tower = 2.5 m, ⇒, , (, , ), , x = 4 3 + 3 metres, , ( ), 3 ) metres, , Hence, height of multistoried building = 4 3 + 3 metres, , 2h = 5, , (, , Distance between two building = 4 3 +, , Example 3. The angles of depressions of the top and bottom, of 8m tall building from the top of a multistoried building are, 30º and 45º respectively. Find the height of multistoried, building and the distance between the two buildings., Solution: Let AB be the multistoried building of height h and, let the distance between two buildings be x metres., ∠XAC = ∠ACB = 45° [Alternate angles ∵ AX || DE], , Example 4. The angle of elevation of an aeroplane from a, point on the ground is 45º. After a flight of 15 sec, the, elevation changes to 30º. If the aeroplane is flying at a height, of 3000 metres, find the speed of the aeroplane., Solution: Let the point on the ground is E which is y metres from, point B and let after 15 sec flight it covers x metres distance., A, , C, , XAD = ADE = 30° [Alternate angles ∵ AX || BC], X, , 30°, , 45°, , D, , 30°, , 3000 m, , A, h–8, E, , E, , h, , 30°, , 45°, y, , 8m, 45°, C, , X, , B, , In, , ∆AEB., , ⇒, , tan 45° =, , AB, EB, , B, , D, x
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Height and Distance, , 3000, y, , , , 1, , , , y 3000 m, , In, , CED, , , , , , , II.A.189, , . . . (i), , CD, tan 30 , ED, 1 3000, , AB CD , 3 x y, x y 3000 3, , . . . (ii), , From equation (i) and (ii), , , x 3000 3000 3, , , , x 3000 3 3000, , , , x 3000 1.732 1, , , , x 3000, , , , , , 3 1, , x 2196, Speed of Aeroplane, Distance covered, , Time Taken, 2196, , m/sec. =146.4m/sec., 15, 2196 18, , km/hr, 15, 5, = 527.04 km/hr, Hence, the speed of aeroplane is 527.04 km/hr., Example 5. If the angle of elevation of cloud from a point h, metres above a lake is and the angle of depression of its, , reflection in the lake is , prove that the distance of the cloud, 2h sec , ., tan tan , , Solution: Let AB be the surface of the lake and let C be a point, of observation such that AC- h metres. Let D be the position of, the cloud and D’ be its reflection in the lake. Then BD = BD’., D, , H, C, , , , , h, , DCE, , , , tan , , , , CE , , , , tan , , In, , CED ', , , , CE , , hH h, tan , , , , CE , , 2h H, tan , , DE, CE, , H, tan , , . . . (i), , ED ', EC, , . . . (ii), , From (i) and (ii), , , , from the point of observation is, , In, , E, B, , h, , , , H, 2h H, , tan , tan , , , , H tan 2h tan H tan , , , , H tan H tan 2h tan , , , , H tan tan 2h tan , , , , H, , In, , DCE, , , , sin , , , , CD , , DE, sin , , , , CD , , H, sin , , 2h tan , tan tan , , . . . (iii), , DE, CD, , Substituting the value of H from (iii), 2h tan , , , , CD , , , , sin , , cos, CD , tan tan sin , , , , CD , , A, , tan tan sin , 2h, , 2h tan , tan tan , , Hence, the distance of the cloud from the point of observation, H+h, , is, , 2h sec , tan tan , , Hence Proved., D’
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II.A.190, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Example 6. A boy is standing on the ground and flying a kite, with 100 m of string at an elevation of 30º. Another boy is, standing on the roof of a 10 m high building and is flying his, kite at an elevation of 45º. Both the boys are on opposite sides, of both the kites. Find the length of the string that the second, boy must have so that the two kites meet., Solution: Let the length of second string b x m., A, X, 45, , F, , In, , In, , , , 1 AC, , AC 50 m, 2 100, AEF, AF, sin 30 , AE, 1, AC FC, , x, 2, , 1, 50 10, , x, 2, [ AC = 50 m, FC = ED = 10 m], 1, 40, , , x, 2, , , 100, , B, , , , E, 10 m, , 30, D, , C, , , , x 40 2 m, , (So, the length of string that the second boy must have so that, , ABC, sin 30 , , the two kites meet 40 2 m.), , AC, AB, , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , The angle of elevation of the top of a tower at point on the, ground is 30°. If on walking 20 metres towards the tower,, the angle of elevation become 60°, then the height of the, tower is:, 10, a.10 metre, b., metre, 3, c. 10 3metre, , 2., , 3., , d. None of these, , A person standing on the bank of a river observes that the, angle subtended by a tree on the opposite bank is 60°., When he retires 40 meters from the bank, he finds the, angle to be 30°. The breadth of the river is:, a. 20 m, b. 40 m, c. 30 m, d. 60 m, , 6., , A vertical pole consists of two parts, the lower part being, one third of the whole. At a point in the horizontal plane, through the base of the pole and distance 20 meters from, it, the upper part of the pole subtends an angle whose, , The angle of elevation of a tower at a point distant d, meters from its base is 30°. If the tower is 20 m high,, then the value of d is, 20, c. 20 3m, a. 10 3m, b., d. 10 m, m, 3, , tangent is, , The angle of elevation of the top of the tower observed, from each of the three points A, B, C on the ground,, forming a triangle is the same angle . If R is the circumradius of the triangle ABC, then the height of the tower is:, a. R sin , b. R cos , c. R cot , d. R tan , , 4., , 5., , 7., , a., c., , tan 2 tan 2 , d, cot cot , 2, , 2, , b., d., , d, tan 2 tan 2 , d, cot cot 2 , 2, , b. 20 m and 60 m, , c. 16 m and 48 m, , d. None of these, , From a 60 metre high tower angles of depression of the, , height of the house is, a. sin sin , c. sin cos , 8., , d, , a. 20 m and 20 3 m, , top and bottom of a house are and respectively. If the, , The angle of elevation of the top of a tower from a point, A due south of the tower is and from a point B due, east of the tower is . If AB =d, then the height of the, tower is:, , 1, . The possible heights of the pole are, 2, , 60sin ( ), , then x =, x, b. cos cos , d. cos sin , , An observer on the top of a tree, finds the angle of, depression of a car moving towards the tree to be 30o., After 3 minutes this angle becomes 60o. After how much, more time, the car will reach the tree, a. 4 min, b. 4.5 min, c. 1.5 min, d. 2 min
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Height and Distance, , II.A.191, , A house of height 100 m subtends a right angle at the, window of an opposite house. If the height of the window, be 64 m, then the distance between the two houses is, a. 48 m, b. 36 m, c. 54 m, d. 72 m, , 16. The angle of elevation of a tower from a point A due, south of it is 30o and from a point B due west of it is 45o., If the height of the tower be 100 m, then AB =, a. 150 m, b. 200 m, c. 173.2 m d. 141.4 m, , 10. The length of the shadow of a pole inclined at 10o to the, vertical towards the sun is 2.05 m, when the elevation of, the sun is 38o. The length of the pole is:, , 17. An aeroplane flying horizontally 1 km above the ground is, observed at an elevation of 60o and after 10 seconds the, elevation is observed to be 30o. The uniform speed of the, aeroplane in km/ h is, , 9., , a., , 2.05 sin 38o, sin 42o, , b., , 2.05 sin 42o, sin 38o, , c., , 2.05 cos 38o, cos 42o, , d. None of these, , 11. The angle of elevation of the top of a tower from a point, 20 m away from its base is 45o. The height of the tower is:, a. 10 m, , b. 20 m, , c. 40 m, , d. 20 3 m, , 12. The horizontal distance between two towers is 60 m and the, angular depression of the top of the first tower as seen from, the top of the second, is 30o. If the height of the second tower, be 150 m, then the height of the first tower is, a. 150 60 3 m, , b. 90 m, , c. 150 20 3 m, , d. None of these, , 13. From the top of a light house 60 m high with its base at, the sea level, the angle of depression of a boat is 15o. The, distance of the boat from the foot of light house is:, , 3 1 , a. , 60 m, 3 1, , 3 1, b. , 60 m, 3 1 , , 3 1, c. , m, 3 1 , , d. None of these, , 14. An observer in a boat finds that the angle of elevation of a, tower standing on the top of a cliff is 60o and that of the, top of cliff is 30o. If the height of the tower be 60 m, then, the height of the cliff is, a. 30 m, , b. 60 3 m, , c. 20 3 m, , d. None of these, , 15. A tower subtends an angle at a point A in the plane of, its base and the angle of depression of the foot of the, , tower at a point l meters just above A is . The height of, the tower is:, a. l tan cot , , b. l tan cot , , c. l tan tan , , d. l cot cot , , a. 240, , b. 240 3, , c. 60 3, , d. None of these, , 18. From a point a metre above a lake the angle of elevation, of a cloud is and the angle of depression of its reflection, is . The height of the cloud is:, a sin ( ), a sin( ), a., metre, b., metre, sin ( ), sin( ), c., , a sin ( ), metre, sin ( ), , d. None of these, , 19. If the angle of depression of a point A on the ground from, the top of a tower be 30o, then the angle of elevation of, the top of the tower from the point A will be:, a. 60o, b. 45o, o, c. 30, d. None of these, 20. Two vertical poles of equal heights are 120 m apart. On, the line joining their bottoms, A and B are two points., Angle of elevation of the top of one pole from A is 45o, and that of the other pole from B is also 45o. If AB = 30, m, then the height of each pole is:, a. 40 m, b. 45 m, c. 50 m, d. 42 m, 21. At a distance 2h from the foot of a tower of height h, the, tower and a pole at the top of the tower subtend equal, angles. Height of the pole should be:, 5h, 4h, 7h, 3h, a., b., c., d., 3, 3, 5, 2, 22. A house subtends a right angle at the window of an, opposite house and the angle of elevation of the window, from the bottom of the first house is 60o. If the distance, between the two houses be 6 m, then the height of the first, house is, a. 6 3 m, , b. 8 3 m, , c. 4 3 m, , d. None of these, , 23. The angle of elevation of the sun, when the shadow of the, , pole is 3 times the height of the pole, is, a. 60o, b. 30o, c. 45o, , d. 15o
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.A.192, , 24. A ladder rests against a wall so that its top touches the, roof of the house. If the ladder makes an angle of 60o with, the horizontal and height of the house be 6 3 meters,, then the length of the ladder is, , 28. The base of a cliff is circular. From the extremities of a, diameter of the base the angles of elevation of the top of, the cliff are 30o and 60o. If the height of the cliff be 500, m, then the diameter of the base of the cliff is:, , a. 12 3, , b. 12 m, , a. 1000 3 m, , b. 2000 / 3 m, , c. 12 / 3 m, , d. None of these, , c. 1000 / 3 m, , d. 2000 2 m, , 25. If the angles of elevation of two towers from the middle, point of the line joining their feet be 60o and, 30orespectively, then the ratio of their heights is:, b. 1 : 2, , a. 2 : 1, , d. 1 : 3, , c. 3 : 1, , 26. At a point on the ground the angle of elevation of a tower, is such that its cotangent is 3/5. On walking 32 m towards, the tower the cotangent of the angle of elevation is 2/5., The height of the tower is, a. 160 m, b. 120 m, c. 64 m, d. None of these, 27. Some portion of a 20 m long tree is broken by the wind, and the top struck the ground at an angle of 30o. The, height of the point where the tree is broken is:, a. 10 m, , b. (2 3 − 3) 20 m, , 20, c. m, 3, , d. None of these, , 29. The angle of elevation of the top of a tower from the top, of a house is 60o and the angle of depression of its base is, 30o. If the horizontal distance between the house and the, tower be 12 m, then the height of the tower is:, a. 48 3 m, , b. 16 3 m, , c. 24 3 m, , d. 16 / 3 m, , 30. A man whose eye level is 1.5 m above the ground, observes the angle of elevation of a tower to be 60o. If the, distance of the man from the tower be 10 m, the height of, the tower is:, a. (1.5 + 10 3) m, , b. 10 3 m, , 10 , , c. 1.5 +, m, 3, , , d. None of these, , ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , c, , c, , d, , c, , a, , b, , d, , c, , a, , a, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , b, , c, , b, , a, , b, , b, , b, , b, , c, , b, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , a, , b, , b, , b, , c, , a, , c, , b, , b, , a, , 2., , ⇒ d = 20 3, , 3., , SOLUTIONS, 1., , (c) OA = h cot 60 , OB = h cot 30, o, , (c) 20cot 30o = d, , (d) Since the tower makes equal, angles at the vertices of the, triangle, therefore foot of the tower, is at the circumcentre., From ∆OAP,, , o, , we have tan α =, , OB − OA = 20 = h(cot 30° − cot 60°), P, , h, , ⇒, , OP = OA tan α, , ⇒, , OP = R tan α, , A, , α, , OP, OA, , B, , 4., , 30°, B, , ⇒, , 20m, , 20, , 60°, A, , O, , 20 3, h=, =, = 10 3, 1 , 2, , 3−, , 3, , , h, , OA = h cot α, , β, O, , h2 =, ⇒ h=, , d2, cot 2 β + cot 2 α, d, , cot 2 β + cot 2 α, , α, A, , α, , α, C, , P, , (c) OB = h cot β ,, , O, , P
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II.A.195, , Height and Distance, , 22. (b), , 12, = sin 60o, h, , ∴, , d=, , 20, (sec 30º + tan 30º ), , 20, , =, , and hence, h = d tan 30o =, , 3, , 60°, , 28. (b) d 2 = h cot 30o = 500 3, d1 =, , h, , 20, m, 3, , 500, 3, , 90°, 12, 60°, 6m, , 6 3m, , ⇒, , h, , h =8 3m, , 1, h, o, 23. (b) tan α =, =, ⇒ α = 30, 3h, 3, , 6 3, = 12 m, sin 60o, 25. (c) H1 = d tan 60o , H 2 = d tan 30o, 24. (b) Length of ladder =, , 60°, , 30°, , d1, , d2, , Diameter D = 500 3 +, , 29. (b) h = 12 tan 30o =, , 500, 2000, m, 3=, 3, 3, , 12, 3, , H1, H2, , H, , 60°, d, , 30°, d, , H1 tan 60o 3, =, =, H 2 tan 30o 1, 26. (a) cot α =, , 60°, , h, , 3, 2, , cot β =, 5, 5, , 30°, 12 m, , h, , α, , and H = 12 tan 60o +, = = 12 3 +, , β, 32, , 32 = h cot α − h cot β, , 12, = 16 3m, 3, , 30. (a) H = (10 tan 60o + 1.5) = (10 3 + 1.5)m, , , 32, 32, h=, = 160m, =, cot, α, cot, β, −, , 1/ 5, d, , h = d tan 30o, 27. (c) H = 20 = l + h, l =, cos30o, l, , H, , h, , 30°, , 60°, h, , d, , 12, 3, , 10m
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Section, , B, , PHYSICS, Chapter in this sECTION, 1. Measurement, , II.B.3, , 2. Motion, , II.B.9, , 3. Force, , II.B.20, , 4. Work, Energy and Power, , II.B.28, , 5. Gravitation, , II.B.35, , 6. Sound Waves, , II.B.42, , 7. Fluid Mechanics, , II.B.50, , 8. Thermometry, , II.B.57, , 9. Optics: Reflection, , II.B.63, , 10. Optics: Refraction, , II.B.71, , 11. Electricity, , II.B.87, , 12. Chemical, Heating and, Magnetic Effects of Current, , II.B.99, , 13. Sources of Energy, , II.B.112, , 14. The Universe, , II.B.120
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II.B.3, , Measurement, , 1, Did you know that your feet get bigger during the day?, Although this may be hard to believe, it’s true. When you are, standing or sitting, the earth’s gravity pulls blood and other, body fluids down to your feet. By the end of the day, your feet, are slightly bigger; People discovered this change by making, by and comparing measurements of foot length and width., Just like any other thing, the concept of measurement didn't, just come out from nothingness. Due to its demand and its, importance, people in the ancient times devised units and tools, for measurement. Like all other sciences, physics is based on, experimental observations and quantitative measurements., When the question "how much" is thrown, measurement is, already being applied when the answer is given. Measurement, is usually used even before when we deal with continuous, quantity., We use them everyday; when we deal with cooking, baking,, mixing the stuff. When we are estimating the quantity of salt to, be added on the soup, we are applying concept of, measurement. When we take the ratio of baking powder to, flour, measurement is still applied. Like in restaurant services,, when we consider distances of hotels, we are using units and, measurements., Numbers are meaningless for the physicist without the correct, use of units. It makes no sense to say "the distance from my, house to school is two", unless we follow that statement with, "miles" or "kilometrs", or whichever unit makes the statement, true. In 1799, the legal standard of length in France became the, metre, defined as one ten-millionth of the distance from the, equator to the North Pole. Until 1960, the official length of the, metre was the distance between the two lines on a specific bar, of platinum-iridium alloy stored under controlled conditions., This standard was abandoned for several reasons, the principal, one being that measurements of the separation between the, lines are not precise enough. In that year, the metre was, defined as 1 650 763.73 wavelength of orange-red light, emitted from a krypton-86 lamp. In October 1983, this, definition was abandoned also, and the metre was redefined as, the distance travelled by light in vacuum during a time interval, of 1/299 792 458 seconds. This latest definition establishes, that the speed of light is 299792458 metres per second., , Measurement, We will distinguish between dimension, the abstract quality of, a measurement without scale (i.e., length), and unit, the quality, of a number which specifies a previously agreed upon scale, (i.e., meters). While dimensional arguments are of primary, importance in understanding the qualitative behaviour of, systems, the uses of units are necessary for the predictions we, seek. Compare the units shown here. How many centimetres fit, into the space occupied by one decimetre? How many, millimeters fit into the space occupied by one metre? Can you, express all of this as multiples of ten?, 1 metre, , 1 decimetre, , 1 millimetre, Figure: 1.1, , Many early units for measurement were originally based on the, human body., cubit, , Yard, , Fadam, , Foot, 1000 double paces =1 mile, Hand, Foot, Pace, Figure: 1.2
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.B.4, , Body Parts as Units of Measurement:, INCH, Originally was the length of three barley grains, placed end to end. Distance from tip of thumb to, first knuckle or from first to second knuckle on, index finger., FOOT, Length of foot from longest toe to heel., YARD, Distance from tip of nose to end of thumb with, arm outstretched (cloth merchants, King Henry I)., HAND, Width of one hand, including the thumb (height of, horses)., CUBIT, Length from point of bent elbow to middle, fingertip (Egyptian pyramids, Noah's ark)., BRACCIO Italian for "an arm's length" (Da Vinci's, parachute)., FATHOM From the Anglo-Saxon word for "embrace," it was, the length of rope held between two hands with, the arms outstretched (sailors)., PACE, Length of a single step. In Roman times one pace, was a double step, and our MILE came from the, Latin mille passuum, meaning 1000 paces., List of Physical Quantities: The table lists the base quantities, used in the International System of Units to define the physical, , dimension of physical quantities for dimensional analysis. Note, that the angle (1 radian = the size of the plane angle between two, radii in a circle which on the circumference cuts an arc with the, length of the radius) and solid angle (1 steradian = the size of a, solid angle for a cone which has its apex at the centre of a sphere, and cuts a surface of this sphere with an area which is equal to the, area of a square with a side that has the same length as the radius, of the sphere) are included in this list but are actually, dimensionless quantities., Note: Neither the names nor the symbols used for the physical, quantities are international standards. Some quantities are, known as several different names such as the magnetic B-field, which known as the magnetic flux density, the magnetic, induction or simply as the magnetic field depending on the, context. Similarly, surface tension can be denoted by σ, γ or T., The table usually lists only one name and symbol., The final column lists some special properties some of the, quantities have such as their scaling behaviour (i.e. whether the, quantity is intensive or extensive), their transformation, properties (i.e. whether the quantity is a scalar, vector or, tensor) or whether the quantity is conserved., , Table: 1.1, Base quantity, Length, , Symbol, l, , Description, The one-dimensional, extent of an object., , SI unit, metre (m), , Symbol for dimension, L, , Comments/Definition, 1 metre, , =, , the length of the path traveled by light in, , vacuum during a time interval of 1 / 299792458 of a, second. (17th CGPM, 1983, Resolution 1), , Mass, , m, , The, amount, of, matter in an object., , kilogram, (kg), , M, , Extensive/1 kilogram = the mass of the international, prototype of the kilogram. (3rd CGPM, 1901), , Time, , t, , The duration of an, event., , second (s), , T, , 1 second = the duration of 9192631770 periods of the, radiation corresponding to the transition between the, two hyperfine levels of the ground state of the cesium, 133 atom. (13th CGPM, 1967, Resolution 1), , Electric current, , I, , Rate of flow of, electrical charge., , ampere (A), , I, , 1 ampere = that constant current which, if maintained, in two straight parallel conductors of infinite length, of, negligible circular cross-section, and placed 1 metre, apart in vaccum, would produce between these, conductors a force equal to 2· 10–7 newton per metre of, length. (9th CGPM, 1948), , Temperature, , T, , Average energy per, degree of freedom of, a system., , kelvin (K), , θ, , Intensive/1 kelvin = the fraction 1 / 273.16 of the, thermodynamic temperature of the triple point of water., (13th CGPM, 1967), , Amount of, substance, , n, , Number of particles, compared to the, number of atoms in, 0.012 kg of 12C., , mole (mol), , N, , Extensive/1 mole = the amount of substance of a, system which contains as many elementary entities as, there are atoms in 0.012 kilogram of carbon – 12. (14th, CGPM, 1971), , Luminous, intensity, , L, , Amount of energy, emitted by a light, source in a particular, direction., , candela (cd), , J, , 1 candela = the luminous intensity, in a given, direction, of a source that emits monochromatic, radiation of frequency 540 · 1012 hertz and that has a, radiant intensity in that direction of 1 / 683 watt per, steradian. (16th CGPM, 1948)
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Measurement, , II.B.5, , Conversion Factors of Non-SI Units, Length, 1 Å (angstrom) 10, 1 fermi 10, , 15, , 10, , m, , m, , 1 knot = 1.852 km / h = 0.514 44 m/s, 1 km / h = 1 / 3.6 m/s = 0.277 777 8 m/s, 1 ft /s = 0.3048 m/s, , 1 au (atomic unit) 1 bohr 1 a0 0.529 177 Å, 1 Au (astronomical unit) = 1.495 978 70 · 1011 m, 1 light year* 9.460 55 · 1015 m = 6.32 · 104 AU, 1 pc (parsec) 3.0857 · 1016 m = 2.062, 65 · 105 AU = 3.262, light year, 1 nautical mile 1852 m, 1 yard 0.9144 m, 1 ft (foot) 12 in (inches) 0.3048 m, 1 in (inch) 2.54 cm, , Mass, 1 u (atomic mass constant, atomic mass unit) = 1.66054 · 10–27 kg, 1 au (atomic unit) 1 me = 9.109 38 · 10–31 kg, 1 lb (pound) = 16 oz (ounces) = 0.453 592 37 kg, 1 slug 0.453 592 37 · 9.806 65/0.3048 kg = 14.593 903 kg, 1 metric ton 1000 kg, Density, 1 amagat 0.040 96 mole · dm–3 (ideal gas at STP), 1 lb/ft3 16.0185 kg/m3, 1 lb/in3 27.6799 · 103 kg/m3, , *A corresponding unit, 1 beard-second 10–8 m, has been, suggested for microscopic distances. One beard-second is the, distance which a standard beard in a standard face grows in one, second. Its chances of ever becoming an established unit in, physics seem rather slim though., Wave number, 1 kayser 1cm 1, , Temperature, x K = ( x – 273.15) C (degrees Celcius), x oC = ( x · 9/5 + 32) F (degree Fahrenheit), 0, x R (degree Rankine) = ( x – 459.67) F (0 R – 0 K), x oReaumur = 1.25 . x C, , Area, 1 acre = 4 046.86 m2, 1 ha (hectare) = 10 000 m2, 1 ft2 (square foot) = 92.903 04 · 10–3 m2, 1 yd2 (square yard) = 0.836 127 36 m2, Volume, 1 barrel (British) 163.66 , 1 gallon (British) 4.546 09 , 1 pint (British) = 20 Brit. Fluid ounces = 0.568 25 , 1 cu in (cubic inch) = 0.016 387 064 , 1 cu ft (cubic foot) = 28.316 847 , 1 cu yd (cubic yard) = 0.764 554 86 m3, Plane angle, 1 = π / 180 rad = 1 / 57.2958 rad = 0.017 453 3 rad, 1′ (minute) = π / 10 800 rad = 0.290 888 21 · 10–3 rad, 1″ (second) = π / 648 000 rad = 4.848 136 8 · 10–6 rad, 1 gon = π / 200 rad = 15.707 963 · 10–3 rad, Time, 1 tropical year (solar year) = 31.556 925 974 · 106 s = 365.242, 198 78 d, 1 sidereal year (stellar year) = 31.558 150 · 106 s = 365.256 37 d, 1 calender year = 365 d = 8 760 h = 31.536 · 106 s, 1 leap-year = 366 d = 8784 h = 31.6224 · 106 s, 1 au (atomic unit) = 2.418 884 · 10–17 s, Speed, 1 mph (mile per hour) = 1.609 344 km/h = 0.447 04 m/s, , Energy, 1 eV (electron volt) = 1.602 1765 · 10–19 J, 1 Ry (Rydberg) = 2.1799 · 10–18 J = 13.605 692 eV, 1 au (atomic unit) = 1 H (hartree) = 2 Ry = 4.359 · 10–18 J, 1 erg = 10–7 J, 1 kWh = 3.6 · 106 J, 1 kcal = 1000 cal = 4 186.8 J (= energy needed to raise the, temperature of 1 kg of water from 14.5C to 15.5C when the, pressure is 1 atm), 1 kcal / mol = 4.336 · 10–2 eV/molecule, 1 Btu (British thermal unit) = 1 055.06 J, 1 Q = 1 000 quad = 1018 Btu = 1.055 06 · 1021 J., Power, 1 hk (horsepower, metric) = 75 kpm/s = 735. 50W, 1 hp (horsepower, UK and US) = 550 ft · lbf /s = 745.70 W, Force, 1 dyn = 10–5 N, 1 kp (kilopound) = 9.806 65 N (conventional value), 1 lbf (pound force) = 4.4482 N = 0.453 59 kp, Pressure, 1 torr (mm Hg) = 1.333 22 · 102Pa, 1 atm = 760 torr = 1.013 25 · 105 Pa, 1 bar = 105 Pa, 1 at = 1 kp/cm2 = 9.806 65 · 104 Pa, Logarithmic units, 1 B (bel) = (In 10) / 2 Np (neper) = 1.151 29 Np, 1 dB (decibel) = (In 10) / 20 Np = 0.115 129 Np
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II.B.6, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , Light year is a unit of, a. Time, b. Mass, , 7., , 8., , Which of the following is not equal to watt, a. Joule/second, b. Ampere volt, 2, c. (Ampere) ohm, d. Ampere/volt, Newton–second is the unit of, a. Velocity, b. Angular momentum, c. Momentum, d. Energy, , 13. Unit of energy in SI system is, a. Erg, b. Calorie, c. Joule, d. Electron volt, 14. Wavelength of ray of light is 0.00006 m. It is equal to, a. 6 microns, c. 600 microns, 15. Unit of power is, a. Kilowatt, c. Dyne, , b. 10 6 cm, , c. 10 7 cm, , c. 1micron 10 5 cm, , d. 1micron 10 4 cm, , The unit of power is, a. Joule, b. Joule per second only, c. Joule per second and watt both, d. Only watt, , b. Velocity of sound (332 m / sec), c. 1 km/sec, d. 1 m/sec, , a. g (cm / sec 2 ), , b. g (cm / sec) 2, , c. g (cm 2 / sec), , d. g (cm / sec), , 21. The unit of specific resistance is, , a. Pascal, , b. Dynes / cm 2, , c. cm of Hg, , d. Atmosphere, , 10. Which of the following is not a unit of energy?, a. W-s, , b. kg-m /sec, , c. N-m, , d. Joule, a bt ct 2 . S is measured in metres and t in, , seconds. The unit of c is:, , 12. Joule-second is the unit of, a. Work, c. Pressure, , b. Momentum, d. Acceleration, , 20. The unit of potential energy is, , b. N m1 sec c. N m 2 kg 2 d. kg m sec 1, , b. m, , Ergm 1 can be the unit of measure for, , a. Force, c. Power, , SI unit of pressure is:, , a. None, , 18. The unit for nuclear dose given to a patient is, a. Fermi, b. Rutherford, c. Curie, d. Roentgen, 19., , A suitable unit for gravitational constant is, , 11. In S, , d. 5000, , 17. One Mach number is equal to, a. Velocity of light, , A micron is related to centimetre as, b. 1micron 10 6 cm, , b. Kilowatt-hour, d. Joule, , The corresponding value in MKS units is, a. 500, b. 5, c. 0.5, , d. 10 9 cm, , a. 1micron 10 8 cm, , b. 60 microns, d. 0.6 microns, , 16. Density of wood is 0.5 gm / cc in the CGS system of units., , One nanometre is equal to, , a. kg- m sec 1, 9., , d. Energy, , The magnitude of any physical quantity, a. Depends on the method of measurement, b. Does not depend on the method of measurement, c. Is more in SI system than in CGS system, d. Directly proportional to the fundamental units of mass,, length and time, , a. 109 mm, 6., , c. Distance, , c. ms 1, , d. ms 2, , b. Momentum, d. Angular momentum, , a. Ohm/cm 2, , b. Ohm/cm, , c. Ohmcm, , d. (Ohmcm) 1, , 22. Parsec is a unit of, a. Distance, b. Velocity, , c. Time, , d. Angle, , 23. 'Torr' is the unit of, a. Pressure, b. Volume, , c. Density, , d. Flux, , 24. Which of the following is not the unit of energy?, a. Calorie, b. Joule, c. Electron volt, d. Watt, 25. Length cannot be measured by, a. Fermi, b. Debye, c. Micron, d. Light year
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Measurement, , II.B.7, , 26. With the usual notation , the following equation, said to, give distance covered in nth second i.e.,, 1, sn u a 2n 1 is:, 2, a. Numerically correct only, b. Dimensionally correct only, c. Both numerically and dimensionally correct, d. Neither numerically nor dimensionally correct, 27. Two quantities A and B have different dimension. Which, mathematic operation given below is physically, meaningful?, A, a., b. A B, c. A B, d. A B, B, 28. If ‘muscle times speed equals power’, what is the ratio of, the SI unit and the CGS unit of muscle?, a. 10 5, b. 10 3, c. 10 7, d. 10 5, 29. A body of mass m = 3.513 kg is moving along the x-axis, with a speed of 5.00 m s–1. The magnitude of its, momentum is recorded as, a. 17.6 kg ms 1, b. 17.5465 kg ms 1, c. 17.56 kg ms 1, , d. 17.57 kg ms 1, , 30. Match the statement of Column with those in Column II:, Column I, Column II, (A) Fermi, 1. 10 13 cm, , 3. 3.08 1016 m, , (D) Parallactic second, , 4. 1.496 1011 m, , a. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4, c. A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3, , b. A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2, d. A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4, , Paragraph Question 31–33, A student is given a calorimeter made of copper sheet. He is, given a Vernier calliper and screw gauge. The Vernier calliper, used by him has 20 division in a centimetre on main scale and, 25 divisions of vernier scale coincide with 24 divisions of main, scale. Screw gauge also has 20 divisions in a centimeter on, linear scale and 100 divisions an circular scale. Check the, following measurement made by him., 31. Least founts of Vernier callipers and screw gauge are, a. 0.01 mm, 0.01 mm, b. 0.02 mm, 0.05 mm, c. 0.02 mm, 0.005 mm, d. 0.02 mm, 0.005 cm, 32. He measures depth by Vernier callipers as 5.250 cm, and diameter as 2.500 cm. The thickness of sheet used, is measured by Screw gauge as 250 mm. The area of, sheet used to make calorimeter with correct significant, figures is, a. 27.500 cm2 b. 27.5 cm2 c. 27.50 cm2 d. 0.275 cm2, 33. Volume of cylinder with % error is, , 2. 10 13 cm, , (B) X-ray, , (C) Astronomical unit, , a. 25.8 0.20%, , b. 25.78 2%, , c. 25.781 0.2%, , d. 25.8 2.0%, , ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , c, , b, , d, , c, , c, , d, , c, , c, , a, , b, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , d, , d, , c, , b, , a, , a, , b, , d, , a, , b, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , c, , a, , a, , d, , b, , a, , a, , a, , d, , c, , 31., , 32., , 33., , c, , c, , c, , SOLUTION, 1., 2., 3., , (c) Light year is a distance which light travels in 1 year., (b) Because magnitude is absolute., (d) Watt Joule/second, , Ampere×volt = Ampere2 × Ohm, 4. (c) Impulse = change in momentum F t, So, the unit of momentum will be equal to Newton-sec., 5., , (c) 1 nm 10 9 m 10 7 cm, , 6., , (d) 1 micron 10 6 m 10 4 cm, , 7., , (c) Watt = Joule/sec., Gm1m2, (c) F , ;, d2, , 8., , , G, , Fd 2, Nm2 / kg 2, m1m2, , 10. (b) Kg-m/sec is the unit of linear momentum., 11. (d) ct 2 must have dimensions of L, , c must have dimensions of L / T 2 i.e. LT 2 ., dL, dt, dL dt r F dt, i.e. the unit of angular momentum is joule-second., , 12. (d) , , 14. (b) 6 10 5 60 10 6 60 microns, 16. (a) 1 C.G.S unit of density = 1000 M.K.S. unit of density, , 0.5 gm/cc 500 kg /m 3
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II.B.8, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 30. (c) Fermi Size of nucleus 10 15 m 10 13 cm, , 17. (b) Mach number, , , , Velocity of object, ., Velocity of sound, , X-ray unit Wavelength of X-rays 10–13 m, Astronomical unit is average distance of the Sun from the, Earth at 12.00 noon on equator., Parallactic sec is distance of star at which orbit of the, Earth around the sun makes an angle of 1 second., , 19. (a) Energy (E) F d, , F E,, , d, So, Erg/metre can be the unit of force., 20. (b) Potential energy, , cm , cm , mgh g 2 cm g , , sec , sec , 21. (c) R , , 2, , L, A, , RA, ohm×cm, L, 22. (a) Astronomical unit of distance., 24. (d) Watt is a unit of power., , , , , , 26. (a) sn and u has same dimenstion [ LT 1 ], while last term, has dimensions [ LT 2 ]., 27. (a) The quantities having different dimensions can not be, equated, added or subtracted. They may be multiplied and, divided., 28. (a) Muscle × speed = power, , , Muscle , , , Solution of Paragraph 31–33., 31. (c) For Vernier callipers: Least Count, 1 MSD, , No. of divisions on vernier scale, 1 1, 1, cm 0.002 cm, , , , 20 25 500, For Screw gauge,, Pitch, Lest Count , No. of divisions on C.S., 1, 1, 1, cm, , , 20 100 2000, 0.0005 cm 0.005 mm, 32. (c) Area of sheet used, Curved area + Cross-section of bottom, , 2 rl r 2 r 2l r , Rounded off to 4 significant figures, 22 2.5, , , 5.25 2.5 / 2 , 7, 2, , power , speed, , work , , 27.500 cm 2, , ML T , , MLT 2 , time speed T IT 1 , 2, , 2, , 33. (c) Volume of calorimeter, , r2 l , , mass × acceleration = force, Hence,, , , 27.50 cm 2, , D2, l, 4, , 2.5 , 3.14 , , SI uniit of force, CGS unit of force, , 4, = 27.781 cc, , kg×m×s 2, 103 102 105, gm cm s 2, , 2, , 5.25 cm2, , % Error 100 , , 29. (d) Momentum P = mv, , V 2D l , , 100, V, l , D, , 2 0.002, 2 0.002, 100 , 100, 2.500, 5.250, 0.16% 0.04% 0.20%, , P 3.513kg 5.00 ms 1, , , , 17.565 kg ms 1 17.57 kg ms 1, ,
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Motion, , II.B.9, , 2, , Motion, , To optimise athletic performance is training velocity. It has, been suggested that training at a specific velocity improves, strength mainly at that velocity and as velocity deviates from, the trained velocity, the less effective training will be., Developing qualities such as strength, power and rate of force, development would appear of greater importance than training, at the actual movement velocity of a task. The ability of the, nervous system to activate and coordinate agonist, synergist, and antagonist activity would seem essential. It was suggested, training techniques that simulate the velocity and acceleration, profiles associated with the desired functional performance,, such as throw or jump training, may optimise functional, adaptation., , Table: 2.1, One dimensional, Motion of a body in a, straight line is called, onedimensional, motion, When, only, one, coordinate of the, position of a body, changes with time, then it is said to be, moving, one, dimensionally, Ex. (i) Motion car on, a straight road. (ii), Motion, of, freely, falling body., , Mechanics, the oldest of the physical sciences, is the study of, the motion of objects. The calculation of the path of a baseball, or of a space probe sent to Mars is among its problems, as is, the analysis of the tracks of the elementary particles. Formed, following collision in our largest accelerators. When we, describe motion, we are dealing with the part of mechanics, called kinematics and when we analyse the cause of motion we, are dealing with dynamics., , Motion in One Dimension: Equations of Kinematics, u at, u initial velocity, , One of the most important topics in a motion is the motion of, projectiles, such as a shotput. A shotput is a very ideal, projectile to look at because it isn't affected much by the air it, moves through. One can therefore ignore effects like air drag, or aerodynamic lift in the case of a shot-put., , The displacement of the jogger x (read as “Delta” x ) is, , s ut , , Two dimensional, Motion of body in a, plane is called two, dimensional motion., , Three dimensional, Motion of body in, space is called three, dimensional motion, , When two coordinates, of the position f a, body change with, time then it is said to, be, moving, two, dimensionally, , When, all, three, coordinates of the, position of a body, change with time then, it is said to be moving, three dimensionally, , Ex. (i) Motion of car, on a circular tum. (ii), Motion of billiards, ball, , Ex. (i) Motion of, flying kite., (ii) Motion of flying, insect., , 1 2, at, 2, , v velocity after t se, s displacement in t seconds, , v 2 u 2 2as, st u , , 1, a(2t 1), 2, , a constant acceleration, , st displacement in second, , defined as his change in position. (We shall use the Greek, letter delta, , to denoted a change in any physical quantity) As, he moves from one position to another, his displacement is, given by the difference between his final and initial position,, or x f xi . Therefore, we write the displacement, or change in, position, of the jogger as, y, , Bending, , ∆x, , Symmetric stretching, , Asymmetric stretching, vibrational motion, , Rotational motion, Figure: 2.1, , Translation motion, , O, , xi, , xf, , Figure: 2.2 A jogger moving along the x axis from xi to xf undergoes a, displacement of x x f xi . x x f xi
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II.B.10, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , From this definition, we see that x is positive if x f is greater, than xi and negative if x f is less than xi . If the jogger moves, from an initial position of xi 3 m to a final position of, , The speed is magnitude of velocity and it can never be, negative. The distance is length of actual path and it can never, be negative., , x 15 m – 3 m 12 m., , Average speed , , Total distance traversed, Total time taken, , Displacement is an example of a vector quantity., Displacement-time graphs and their characteristics:, If the graph is a straight line parallel to time-axis means, that the body is at rest, i.e., v 0 ., , Distance covered, , , , x f 15 m, his, , displacement, , is, , P, , A straight line inclined to x-axis shows that body is moving, with a constant velocity. Remember that a straight line, inclined x-axis by an angle 90 represent negative, velocity., It is worth nothing that no line can ever be to the time, axis because it implies infinite velocity., P, , T, , O, , s1 s2 s1 s2, where s s1 s2, , vav, v1 v2, , If the curve is of the type whose slope decreases with time,, the velocity goes on decreasing i.e., motion is retarded., If the curve is of the type whose slope increases with time,, the velocity goes on increasing i.e., motion is accelerated., The slope of s-t graph gives velocity., , Fast, steady, speed, , getting, faster, , stationary, returning, to start, , x, Figure: 2.5, , v1 is the speed during time t1 and v 2 is the speed during time, , t2 then average speed vav , , Total distance v1t1 v2t2, =, t1 t2, Total time, , When particle moves with speed v1 upto half time of its, , total motion and in rest time it is moving with speed, , v 2 then vav, , v1 v2, ., 2, , When particle moves the first half of a distance at a speed, of v1 and second half of the distance at speed v 2 then, , vav, , Figure: 2.4 The graph shows that particle coming towards origin initially, and after that it is moving away from origin., , DISTANCE, , traversed with speed v1 , v2 respectively, then average speed, , When journey is divided into time intervals t1 and t2 such that, , T, , Figure: 2.3 This graph shows that at one instant the particle has two, positions, which is not possible., , steady, speed, , When total journey is divided into distances s1 , s2 which are, , vav is given by, , O, , magnitude of displacement, , 2v1v2, ., v1 v2, , When particle covers one third distance at speed v1, next one, , third at speed v 2 and last one third at speed v3 , then, 3v1 v2 v3, vav, ., v1v2 v2 v3 v3v1, For two particles having displacement time graph with, slopes 1 and 2 possesses velocities v1 and v2 respectively, , then, , v1, v2, , tan, tan, , 1, , ., , 2, , Speedometer measures the instantaneous speed of a, vehicle., Velocity-time graphs and their characteristics:, If the graph is a straight line parallel to time axis means, that the body is moving with a constant velocity or, acceleration (a) is zero., If the graph is a straight line inclined to the x-axis with +ve, slope means that the body is moving with constant, acceleration., If the graph is a straight line inclined to x-axis with, negative slope means that the body is under retardation., The slope of v-t graph gives acceleration.
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Motion, , II.B.11, , One return to the ground the changes in these quantities are as, follows:, Change in speed 0, change in velocity 2u, Change in momentum 2mu, Change in kinetic energy = Change in potential energy 0, If, the friction of air be taken into account, then the motion of, the object thrown upwards will have the following properties:, Time taken to go up (ascent) < time taken to come down, (descent), The speed of the object on returning to the ground is less, than the initial speed. Same is true for velocity, (magnitude), momentum (magnitude) and kinetic energy., , 10, , 9, Constant deceleration, , 8, , Velocity in m/s, , 7, 6, , Constant acceleration, , 5, 4, Constant Velocity, , 3, , 2, 1, , Maximum height attained is less than, 0, , 1, , 2, , 3, , 4, , 5, , 6, , 7, , 8, , 9, , 10, , Time in S, Figure: 2.6 The area enclosed by v – t curve and times axis gives, displacement., , Special Cases of Motion, Vertical motion, In case of motion under gravity, the speed with which a, body is projected up is equal to the speed with which it, comes back to the point of projection. As well as the, magnitude of velocity at any point on the path is same, whether the body is moving in upward or downward, direction., The motion is independent of the mass of the body, as in, any equation of motion, mass is not involved. That is why a, heavy and light body when released from the same height,, reach the ground simultaneously and with same velocity, , i.e., t , , 2h, and v, g, , A part of the kinetic energy is used up in overcoming the, fraction., A ball is dropped form a building of height h and it reaches, after t seconds on earth. From the same building if two, balls are thrown (one upwards and other downwards) with, the same velocity u and they reach the earth surface after, , t1 and t2 seconds respectively then t, , 2u, ., g, Let m be the mass of the body. Then in going from the ground, to the highest point, following changes take place:, Change in speed u, , Total time of light T, , t1 t2, , Change in velocity u, Change in momentum mu, Change in kinetic energy Change in potential energy, 1, mu 2, 2, , t1t2 ., , A particle is dropped vertically form rest form a height., The time taken by it to fall through successive distance of, 1m each will then be in the ratio of the difference in the, square, roots, of, the, integers, i.e.,, 1, ( 2 1), ( 3 2),( 4 3),, , A body is thrown vertically upwards. If air resistance is to, be taken into account, then the time of ascent is less than, that time of descent, t2 t1, , Let u is the initial velocity of body then time of ascent, , 2hg ., , In case of motion under gravity, time taken to go up is equal to, the time taken to fall down through the same distance., u, ., Time of descent (t2 ) time of ascent (t1 ), g, , u2, ., 2g, , t1 , , u, and g, ga, , u2, ., 2( g a), , Where, g is acceleration due to gravity and a is retardation by, air resistance and for upward motion both will work vertically, downward. For downward motion a and g will work in, opposite direction because a always work in direction opposite, to motion and g always works vertically downward., 1, So,, h ( g a)t22, 2, , , u2, 1, ( g a )t22, 2( g a ) 2, , , , t2 , , u, ( g a )( g a ), , Comparing t1 and t2 we can say that t1 t2 ,, since ( g a) ( g a)
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II.B.12, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Horizontal motion, If a particle is accelerated for a time t1 with, acceleration a1 and for time t2 with acceleration a2 then, , average acceleration is aav, , a1t1 a2 t2, ., t1 t2, , If same force is applied on two bodies of different masses, m1 and, m 2 separately, then, it, produces, , acceleration a1 and a2 respectively. Now these bodies are, attached together and form a combined system and same, force is applied on that system so that a be the acceleration, of the combined system, then a, , So, we cay say that the ratio of distance covered in 1 sec, 2, sec and 3 sec is 12 : 2 2 : 32 or 1 : 4 : 9 ., A body moving with a velocity u is stopped by application of, brakes after covering a distance s. If the same body moves, with velocity nu and same braking force is applied on it then it, 2, will come to rest after covering a distance of n s., , , , 0 u 2 2 as, , u2, , s u 2 [since a constant], 2a, So we cay say that if u becomes n times then s becomes, n 2 times that of previous value., , , s, , A particle moving with uniform acceleration from A to B, along a straight line has velocities v1 and v2 at A and B, , respectively. If C is the mid-point between A and B then, velocity of the particle at C is equal to v, Motion with Variable Acceleration:, If acceleration is a function of time, t, , t, , 0, , 0, , v u f (t ) dt and s ut , , v12, , v22, 2, , ., , a f (t ) then, , f (t) dt dt, , v, , v 2 u 2 2 f ( x) dx, u, , acceleration, , is, a, function, v vdv, dv, dx and x x0 , velocity a f (v) then t , u f (v), u f (v), v, , 0, , 120, , 160, , of, , 200, , 240, , 10, , Q, 12, , 2, , 4, , 6, , 8, , Solution: (i) Average velocity, path length 360m, time interval, 18, , 280, 14, , 20 ms, , path length, time interval, , 320, , 360, , 16, , P, 18, , 400 [Meter], 20, , [Sec.], , 1, , 360m, 18, , 20 ms, , 1, , (ii) From O to P and back to Q, 240m, OQ, Average velocity , , 10 ms 1, 18 6, 24, Average speed, path length OP PQ 360 120, , , , 20 ms 1, timeinterval, 18 6, 24, Example 2. A car covers the 1st half of the distance between, two places at a speed of 40 kmh-1 and the 2nd half at 60 kmh-1., What is the average speed of the car?, Solution: Suppose the total distance covered is 2S. Then time, S, taken to cover first distance with speed 40 km/h, t1 h, 40, Time taken to cover second S distance with speed 60 km/h,, S, t2 h, 60, totaldistance, SS, , , Vav , S, S , total time, , , 40 60 , 2S, 2S, , Vav , , 120, 3S 2S 5S, , , 120 , , , If acceleration is a function of distance a f ( x) then, , If, , 80, , Average speed, , proportional to t 2 (i.e., s t 2 )., , v 2 u 2 2 as, , 40, O, , a1a2, ., a1 a2, , If a body start from rest and moves with uniform, acceleration then distance covered by the body in t sec is, , As, , Example 1. A car is moving along x-axis. As shown in figure, it moves from O to P in 18 seconds and returns from P to Q in, 6 seconds. What is the average velocity and average speed of, the car in going from (i) O to P and (ii) from O to P and back, to Q., , Vav 48km / h, , Example 3. A non-stop bus goes from one station to another, station with a speed of 54 km/h, the same bus returns from the, second station to the first station with a speed of 36 km/h. Find, the average speed of the bus for the entire journey., Solution: Suppose the distance between the stations is S. Time, S, taken in reaching from one station to another station, t1 h, 54, S, Time taken in returning back, t2 h, 36
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Motion, , II.B.13, , Total time, t, , t1 t2, , S, S 2 S 3S 5 S, , , , h, 54 36, 108, 108, Total distance, Average speed Vav , Total time, t, , 2S, 108, , 5S, 216, , Vav , 43.2 km / h, 5, Example 4. A car is moving at a speed of 50 km/h. Two, seconds there after it is moving at 60 km/h. Calculate the, acceleration of the car., 5, m/s, Solution: Here u 50 km / h 50, 18, 250, u, m/s, 18, 5, 300, and, v 60 km / h 60 m / s , m/s, 18, 18, 300 250 50, , v u 18 18, 50, , 18 , 1.39 m / s 2, Since a , t, 2, 2 36, Vav , , Example 5. A car attains 54 km/h in 20 s after it starts. Find, the acceleration of the car., Solution: u 0 (as car starts from rest), , , , v 54 km / h 54 , , As,, , a, , 5, 15 m / s, 18, , v u, t, , 15 0, 0.75 m / s 2, 20, Example 6. A ball is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity, , , , a, , of 20 m/s. How high did the ball go? (take g 9.8 m / s 2 )., Solution: u 20 ms, a g 9.8 m / s 2 (moving against gravity), , s ?, v 0 (at highest point), v 2 u 2 2 as, (0) 2 (20) 2 2( g ) s, , , , 400 2(9.8)s, , , , 400 19.6 s, , , , 400, s s 20.4 m, 19.6, , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , A body whose position with respect to surrounding does, not change, is said to be in a state of:, a. Rest, b. Motion, c. Vibration d. Oscillation, In case of a moving body:, a. Displacement > Distance, b. Displacement < Distance, c. Displacement Distance, d. Displacement Distance, Vector quantities are those which have:, a. Only direction, b. Only magnitude, c. Magnitude and direction both, d. None of these, What is true about scalar quantities?, a. Scalars quantities have direction also., b. Scalars can be added arithmetically., c. There are special laws to add scalars., d. Scalars have special method to represent., A body is said to be in motion if:, a. Its position with respect to surrounding objects remains, same., b. Its position with respect to surrounding objects keeps, on changing., c. Both a. and b., ., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , d. Neither a. nor b., A distance is always:, a. shortest length between two points., b. path covered by an object between two points., c. product of length and time., d. none of the above, A displacement:, a. is always positive., b. is always negative., c. may be positive as well as negative., d. is neither positive nor negative., Examples of vector quantities are:, a. velocity, length and mass, b. speed, length and mass, c. time, displacement and mass, d. velocity, displacement and force, Which of the following is not characteristic of, displacement?, a. It is always positive., b. It has both magnitude and direction., c. It can be zero., d. Its magnitude is less than or equal the actual path, length of the object.
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II.B.14, , 10. S.I. unit of displacement is:, a. m, c. ms-2, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , b. ms-1, d. None of these, , 11. Which of the following is not a vector?, a. Speed, b. Velocity, c. Weight, d. Acceleration, 12. Time is an example of:, a. Scalar, c. Scalar or vector, , b. Vector, d. Neither scalar nor vector, , 13. In 5 minutes distance between a pole and a car changes, progressively. What is true about the car?, a. Car is at rest., b. Car is in motion., c. Nothing can be said with this information., d. None of the above, 14. A distance:, a. is always positive., b. is always negative., c. may be positive as well as negative., d. is neither positive nor negative., 15. When a body covers equal distance in equal intervals of, time, its motion is said to be:, a. Non-uniform, b. Uniform, c. Accelerated, d. Back and forth, 16. The motion along a straight line is called:, a. Vibratory, b. Stationary, c. Circular, d. Linear, 17. A particle is traveling with a constant speed. This means:, a. Its position remains constant as time passes., b. It covers equal distance in equal interval of time, c. Its acceleration is zero, d. It does not change its direction of motion, 18. The rate of change of displacement is:, a. Speed, b. Velocity, c. Acceleration, d. Retardation, 19. Speed is never:, a. zero, b. Fraction, c. Negative, d. Positive, 20. The motion of a body covering different distances in same, intervals of time is said to be:, a. Zig-Zag, b. Fast, c. Slow, d. Variable, 21. Unit of velocity is:, a. ms, c. ms2, , b. ms-1, d. none of these, , 22. A speed:, a. is always positive., b. is always negative., c. may be positive as well as negative., d. is neither zero nor negative., 23. A particle moves with a uniform velocity:, a. The particle must be at rest., b. The particle moves along a curved path., c. The particle moves along a circle., d. The particle moves along a straight line., 24. A quantity has value of –6.0 ms-1. It may be the, a. Speed of a particle, b. Velocity of a particle, c. Position of a particle, d. Displacement of a particle, 25. In 10 minutes, a car with speed of 60 kmh-1 travels a, distance of :, a. 6 km, b. 600 km, c. 10 km, d. 7 km, 26. A particle covers equal distances in equal intervals of, times, it is said to be moving with uniform:, a. Speed, b. Velocity, c. Acceleration, d. Retardation, 27. The SI unit of the average velocity is:, a. m/s, b. km/s, c. cm/s, d. mm/s, 28. Metre per second is not the unit of:, a. Speed, b. Velocity, c. Displacement, d. None of them, 29. A car accelerated uniformly from 18 km/h to 36 km/h in 5, s. The accelerating is ms-2 is:, a. 1, b. 2, c. 3, d. 4, 30. Out of energy and acceleration which is vector, a. Acceleration, b. Energy, c. Both, d. None of these, 31. C.G.S. unit of acceleration is:, a. ms-2, b. cms-2, c. ms2, d. cms2, 32. A train starting from a railway station and moving with, uniform acceleration, attains a speed of 40 kmh-1 in 10, minutes, Its acceleration is:, a. 18.5 ms-2, b. 1.85 cms-2, -2, c. 18.5 cms, d. 1.85 ms-2, 33. The brakes applied to a cap produce a negative, acceleration of 6 ms-2. If the car stops after 2 seconds, the, initial velocity of the car is:, a. 6 ms-1, b. 12 ms-1, c. 24 ms-1, d. zero, 34. A body is moving with uniform velocity of 10 ms-1. The, velocity of the body after 10 s is:, a. 100 ms-1, b. 50 ms-1, c. 10 ms-1, d. 5 ms-1
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Motion, , II.B.15, , 35. In 12 minutes a car whose speed is 35 kmh travels of, distance of:, a. 7 km, b. 3.5 km, c. 14 km, d. 28 km, 36. A body is moving along a straight line at 20 ms-1, undergoes an acceleration of 4 ms-2. After 2 s, its speed, will be:, a. 8 ms-2, b. 12 ms-1, c. 16 ms-2, d. 28 ms-2, 37. A car increase its speed from 20 kmh-1 to 50 kmh-1 is 10, sec, its acceleration is:, a. 30 ms-1, b. 3 ms-1, c. 18 ms-1, d. 0.83 ms-1, 38. When the distance travelled by an object is directly, proportional to the time, it is said to travel with:, a. zero velocity, b. constant speed, c. constant acceleration, d. uniform velocity, , 45. Velocity-time graph AB (Figure) shows that the body has:, A, v, , 0, , 46. In figure BC represents a body moving:, , 39. A body freely failing from rest has a velocity V after it, falls through a height h. The distance it has to fall further, for its velocity to become double is:, a. 3 h, b. 6 h, c. 8 h, d. 10 h, , O, , 47., , d. 15 10 4 m / s 2, , 41. A body starts falling from height ‘h’ and travels distance, h/2 during the last second of motion. The find of travel (in, sec) is:, a., , 2 1, , b. 2 2, , 2 3, , c., , d., , 32, , 42. Area between speed–time graph and time axis gives:, a. Distance, b. Velocity, c. Speed, d. None of these, 43 An object undergoes an acceleration of 8 ms-2 starting, from rest. Distance traveled is 1 s is:, a. 2 m, b. 4m, c. 6m, d. 8 m, 44, , For the velocity time graph shown in figure, the distance, covered by the body in the last 2 seconds of its motion is, what fraction is of the total distance covered in all the 7, seconds?, , C, , Time, , Radian ?, , a. 57.3, , b. 573, , c. 180, , d. 360, , 48. An athlete complete one round of a circular track of, diameter 200 m in 40 s. What will be the displacement at, the end of 2 minutes 40 s?, a. 2200 m, b. 220 m, c. 22 m, d. Zero, 49. What will be the distance in the above equation?, a. 800 m, b. 2500 m, c. 2200 m, d. Zero, 50. The distance traveled by a body is directly proportional to, the time, then the body is said to have:, a. Zero speed, b. Zero velocity, c. Constant speed, d. None of these, 51. An athlete runs along a circular track of diameter 28 m. The, displacement of the athlete after he completes one circle is:, a. 28 m, b. 88 m, c. 44 m, d. Zero, 52. A boy is running along a circular track of radius 7 m. He, completes one circle in 10 seconds. The average velocity, of the boy is:, a. 4.4 m-1, b. 0.7 ms-1 c. Zero, d. 70 ms-1, , 1, 8, 6, 4, 2, 0, , a. 1/2, , B, , A, , a. Backward with uniform velocity, b. Forward with uniform velocity, c. Backward with non-uniform velocity, d. Forward with non-uniform velocity, , 40. The velocity of bullet is reduced from 200 m/s to 100 m/s, while traveling through a wooden block of thickness 10, cm. The retardation, assuming it to be uniform will be:, a. 10 10 4 m / s 2, b. 10 10 4 m / s 2, c. 13.5 10 4 m / s 2, , B, , t, , a. A uniform acceleration, b. A non-uniform retardation, c. Uniform speed, d. Initial velocity OA and is moving with uniform, retardation, , Displacement, , -1, , 1, , 2 3 4, Time (s), , b. 1/4, , 5, , c. 1/3, , 6, , 53. A body is moving with a uniform speed of 5 ms-1 in a, circular path of radius 5 m. The acceleration of the body is:, a. 25 ms-2, b. 15 ms-2, c. 5 ms-2, d. 1 ms-2, , 7, , d. 2/3
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II.B.16, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 54. Unit of angular velocity is:, a. red, b. m/s, , c. rad/s2, , d. rad/s, , 55. The bodies in circular paths of radii 1 : 2 take same time, to compete their circles. The ratio of their linear speeds is:, a. 1 : 2, b. 2 : 1, c. 1 : 3, d. 3 : 1, 56. In a circular path of radius 1m, a mass of 2kg moves with a, constant speed 10 ms-1. The angular speed in radian/sec. is:, a. 5, b. 10, c. 15, d. 20, 57. The relation among v, and r is :, v, , a. , b. v , r, r, r, c. , d. None of these, v, 58. Uniform circular motion is an example of:, a. Variable acceleration, b. Constant acceleration, c. a. and b. both, d. None of these, 59. Rate of change of angular velocity refer to:, a. angular speed, b. angular displacement, c. angular acceleration, d. None of these, th, , 1, 60. A car travels of a circle with radius r. The ratio of, 4, the distance to its displacement is:, , a. 1:, , 2 2, , b., , , 2 2, , :1, , c. 2 2 : , , d. 2, , 2 :1, , 61. A person travels along a straight road for half the distance, with velocity v1 and the remaining half distance with, , velocity v2 . The average velocity is given by:, a. v1v2, , b., , v22, v12, , c., , v1 v2, 2, , d., , 2v1v2, v1 v2, , 62. The displacement-time graph for two particles A and B, are straight lines inclined at angles of 30°and 60° with the, time axis. The ratio of velocities of VA : VB is:, a. 1:2, , b. 1 :, , 3, , c., , 3 : 1, , d. 1 : 3, , 63. A car travels from A to B at a speed of 20 km / hr and, , returns at a speed of 30 km / hr. The average speed of the, car for the whole journey is:, a. 25 km / hr b. 24 km / hr c. 50 km / hr d. 5 km / hr, 64. A boy walks to his school at a distance of 6 km with, constant speed of 2.5 km/hour and walks back with a, constant speed of 4 km/hr. His average speed for round, trip expressed in km/hour, is:, a. 24/13, b. 40/13, c. 3, d. 1/2, , 65. A car travels the first half of a distance between two, places at a speed of 30 km/hr and the second half of the, distance at 50 km/hr. The average speed of the car for the, whole journey is:, a. 42.5 km/hr, b. 40.0 km/hr, c. 37.5 km/hr, d. 35.0 km/hr, 66. One car moving on a straight road covers one-third of the, distance with 20 km/h and the rest with 60 km/h. The, average speed is:, a. 40 km/h, b. 80 km/h, 2, c. 46 km/h, d. 36 km/h, 3, 67. A car moves for half of its time at 80 km/h and for rest, half of time at 40 km/h. Total distance covered is 60 km., What is the average speed of the car?, a. 60 km / h, b. 80 km / h, c. 120 km / h, 68, , d. 180 km / h, , Which of the following is a one-dimensional motion?, a. Landing of an aircraft, b. Earth revolving a round the sun, c. Motion of wheels of a moving trains, d. Train running on a straight track, , 69. A 150 m long train is moving with a uniform velocity of, 45 km/h. The time taken by the train to cross a bridge of, length 850 metres is:, a. 56 sec, b. 68 sec, c. 80 sec, d. 92 sec, 70. A particle is constrained to move on a straight line path. It, returns to the starting point after 10 sec. The total distance, covered by the particle during this time is 30 m. Which of, the following statements about the motion of the particle, is false?, a. Displacement of the particle is zero, b. Average speed of the particle is 3 m/s, c. Displacement of the particle is 30 m, d. Both a. and b., 71. The ratio of the numerical values of the average velocity, and average speed of a body is always, a. Unity, b. Unity or less, c. Unity or more, d. Less than unity, 72. A person travels along a straight road for the first half, , time with a velocity v1 and the next half time with a, velocity v 2 . The mean velocity V of the man is:
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Motion, , a., , II.B.17, , 2 1 1, , v v1 v2, , c. v v1v2, , b. v , , v1 v2, 2, , d. v , , v1, v2, , a. 10 m along North, c. 10 m along West, , 79. An aeroplane flies 400 m North and 300 m South and, then flies 1200 m upward then net displacement is:, a. 1200 m, b. 1300 m, c. 1400 m d. 1500 m, , 73. The correct statement from the following is:, a. A body having zero velocity will not necessarily have, zero acceleration., b. A body having zero velocity will necessarily have zero, acceleration., c. A body having uniform speed can have only uniform, acceleration., d. A body having non-uniform velocity will have zero, acceleration., 74. A bullet fired into a fixed target loses half of its velocity, after penetrating 3 cm. How much further it will penetrate, before coming to rest assuming that it faces constant, resistance to motion?, a. 1.5 cm, b. 1.0 cm, c. 3.0 cm, d. 2.0 cm, 75. A particle experiences a constant acceleration for 20 sec, after starting from rest. If it travels a distance S1 in the first, , 10 sec and a distance S 2 in the next 10 sec, then, a. S1 S2, , b. 3S1 S 2, , b. 10 m along South, d. Zero, , c. 2 S1 S2, , 80. An athlete completes one round of a circular track of, radius R in 40 sec. What will be his displacement at the, end of 2 min 20 sec?, a. Zero, b. 2R, c. 2 R, d. 7 R, 81. A wheel of radius 1 metre rolls forward half a revolution, on a horizontal ground. The magnitude of the, displacement of the point of the wheel initially in contact, with the ground is:, a. 2 , , 2, , d. , , c. 2 4, , 82. The initial velocity of the particle is 10 m / sec and its, , retardation is 2 m / sec 2 . The distance moved by the, particle in 5th second of its motion is:, a. 1 m, , b. 1 9 m, , c. 5 0 m, , d. 7 5 m, , 83. A motor car moving with a uniform speed of, 20 m / sec comes to stop on the application of brakes after, , travelling a distance of 1 0 m . Its acceleration is:, , d. 4 S1 S2, , 76. A body moves 6 m North, 8 m East and 10 m vertically, upwards, what is its resultant displacement from initial, position?, 10, a. 10 2m, b. 1 0 m, c., d. 1 0 2 m, m, 2, 77. A man goes 10 m towards North, then 20 m towards East, then displacement is:, a. 22.5 m, b. 25 m, c. 25.5 m, d. 30 m, 78. A person moves 30 m North and then 20 m towards East, , b., , a. 20 m / sec 2, , b. 20 m / sec 2, , c. 40 m / sec 2, , d. 2 m / sec 2, , 84. The velocity of a body moving with a uniform, acceleration of 2 m / sec 2 is 10 m / sec. Its velocity after an, , interval of 4 sec is:, a. 12 m / sec b. 14 m / sec c. 16 m / sec d. 18 m / sec, The initial velocity of a body moving along a straight line, is 7 m / s. It has a uniform acceleration of 4 m / s 2 . The, , 85, , distance covered by the body in the 5th second of its, motion is:, a. 25 m, b. 35 m, c. 50 m, d. 85 m, , and finally 3 0 2 m in South-west direction. The, displacement of the person from the origin will be, ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , b, , a, , b, , b, , d, , a, , c, , d, , a, , c, , a, , d, , c, , b, , b, , b, , c, , d, , a, , a, , 51., , 52., , 53., , 54., , 55., , 56., , 57., , 58., , 59., , 60., , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , d, , c, , c, , d, , a, , b, , a, , b, , c, , b, 70., , a, , a, , b, , a, , b, , d, , b, , b, , c, , d, , 61., , 62., , 63., , 64., , 65., , 66., , 67., , 68., , 69., , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , d, , d, , b, , b, , c, , d, , a, , d, , c, , d, , b, , a, , d, , b, , c, , a, , a, , c, , a, , a, , 71., , 72., , 73., , 74., , 75., , 76., , 77., , 78., , 79., , 80., , 31., , 32., , 33., , 34., , 35., , 36., , 37., , 38., , 39., , 40., , b, , a, , a, , b, , b, , a, , a, , c, , a, , b, , b, , b, , b, , c, , a, , d, , d, , b, , a, , d, , 81., , 82., , 83., , 84., , 85., , 41., , 42., , 43., , 44., , 45., , 46., , 47., , 48., , 49., , 50., , c, , a, , b, , d, , a
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II.B.18, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , SOLUTIONS, , 53. (c) a , , 25. (c) d u t, 60k, k, u 60 , h 60kmh 1, u 1 k/min t 10 min, , , , d 1 10 10 km, , v2 v1, 29. (a) a , t, 5, 5sec, v1 18kh, 18, 5, v2 36k / 4 , 18, t 5sec, 10 5, a , 1m/ sec 2, 5, 32. (b) a , , a, , 56. (b) v w r, v 10, w , w 10 rad / sec, r 1, 61. (d) As the total distance is divided into two equal parts, , therefore distance averaged speed, , v u, t, , v u, t, , 65. (c) Distance average speed, 2v v, 2 30 50 75, 1 2 , , 37.5 km / hr, v1 v2, 30 50, 2, 66. (d) Average speed , , , , u 2as, , u2, 2gh2, , 2 h1 4h, u1, 2gh1, h2 h1 4h h 3h, , 40. (d) v 2 u 2 2 a s, , a, , v2 u 2, 2s, , 1, 41. (b) st u a (2t 1), 2, 44. (b) Area of Trapezium, 47. (a) 180 Radian, , 48. (d) Diameter 200 m, t 2 min 40sec, , t 160 sec means will complete four rounds., displacement 0, 49. (a) d 4 200 m, , vA tan A tan 30 1/ 3 1, , , , , 3, vB tan B tan 60, 3, , 64. (b) Distance average speed, 2v v, 2 2.5 4 200 40, km / hr, 1 2 , , , v1 v2, 2.5 4, 65 13, , 39. (a) u 2 u 2 2 a s, , , , 2v1v2, ., v1 v2, , 63. (b) Distance average speed, 2v v, 2 20 30 120, 1 2 , , 24 km / hr, v1 v2, 20 30, 5, , 34. (c) u constant as uniform velocity, 35. (a) d ut, 36. (d) v u at, , , , v, r, , 25, 5m / sec 2, 5, v, 2 r1 t2, v, r, 55. (a) 1 , ; As t1 t2 1 1, v2 2 r2 t1, v2 r2, , , , 62. (d), , u0, 33. (b) v u at, , 37. (d) a , , 2, , , , 800 m, , 52. (c) As in one round displacement is zero., , Total distance, x, , t1 t2, Total time, , x, 1, , 36 km / hr, x / 3 2x / 3, 1, 2, , , v1, v2, 3 20 3 60, , v1 v2 80 40, , 60km / hr ., 2, 2, 69. (c) Total distance to be covered for crossing the bridge, length of train + length of bridge, 150m 850m 1000m, , 67. (a) Time average speed , , Time , , Distance, 1000, , 80 sec, Velocity 45 5, 18, , 70. (d) Velocity of particle, , Total displacement, Total time, , Diameter of circle 2 10, , 4 m/s, 5, 5, | Average velocity | | displacement |, , 1, 71. (b), | Average speed |, | distance |, , , Because displacement will either be equal or less than, distance. It can never be greater than distance.
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II.B.19, , Motion, , 73. (a) When the body is projected vertically upward then at, the highest point its velocity is zero but acceleration is not, , 20 m, 45°, , A, , equal to zero ( g = 9.8m / s 2 )., , 30 m, 30 2, , 74. (b) Let initial velocity of the bullet = u, After penetrating 3 cm its velocity becomes, From v 2 = u 2 − 2as, , u, 2, , C, , ∴ Net displacement,, , u, , , , A, , B u/2, x, , v=0, C, , 2, , u, 3u 2, ⇒ 6a =, ⇒a =, 3 cm, 8, 4, Let further it will penetrate through distance x and stops, at point C., For distance BC, v = 0, u = u / 2, s = x, a = u 2 / 8, From v 2 = u 2 − 2 as, 2, , u2 , u, ⇒ 0 = − 2 . x, 2, 8 , ⇒ x = 1 cm, 1, 75. (b) As S = ut + at 2, 2, 1, ∴ S1 = a(10)2 = 50a, 2, As v = u + at, , ⇒, , OC = 10 m., , 79. (a) An aeroplane flies 400 m North and 300 m South so, the net displacement is 100 m towards North. Then it flies, 1200 m upward., So,, , r = (100) 2 + (1200)2 = 1204 m −ɶ 1200 m, , The option should be 1204 m, because this value mislead, one into thinking that net displacement is in upward, direction only., 80. (b) Total time of motion is 2 m in 20 sec = 140 sec., As time period of circular motion is 40 sec so in 140 sec., Athlete will complete 3.5 revolution i.e., he will be at, diametrically opposite point i.e., Displacement = 2R., 81. (c) Horizontal distance covered by the wheel in half, revolution = π R ., A' Final, , . . . (i), , 2R, A, Initial, , ∴ velocity acquired by particle in 10 sec, v = a × 10, , = AA′ = (π R ) 2 + (2 R ) 2, , 1, S2 = (10a) ×10 + (a) × (10)2, 2, . . . (ii), , From (i) and (ii) S1 = S2 / 3, , 76. (a) r = xiˆ + yjˆ + zkˆ, , ∴, , r = x2 + y2 + z 2, , ⇒, , r = 6 + 8 +10 = 10 2 m, , πR, , So, the displacement of the point which was initially in, contact with ground, , For next 10 sec ,, , S2 = 150 a, , O, , OC = OA + AB + BC = −10i + 0 j, , Target, , 2, , ⇒ u = u 2 − 2a (3), 2, , B, , = R π 2 + 4 = π 2 + 4 ⇒ ( As R = 1 m ), a, 2, 82. (a) Sn = u − (2n − 1) = 10 − (2 × 5 − 1) = 1 metre, 2, 2, 83. (b) From v 2 = u 2 + 2 aS, , ⇒, , 0 = u 2 + 2 aS, , 77. (a) r = 20iˆ + 10 ˆj, , −u 2 −(20)2, =, = −20m / s 2, 2S, 2 ×10, 84. (d) v = u + at = 10 + 2 × 4 = 18 m / sec, , ∴, , 85. (a) S n = u +, , 2, , 2, , 2, , r = 202 + 102 = 22.5 m, , 78. (c) From figure, OA = 0 i + 30 j, AB = 20 i + 0 j, , BC = −30 2 cos 45°i − 30 2 sin 45° j = −30i − 30 j, , ⇒, , ⇒, , a=, , S5th = 7 +, , a, [ 2n − 1], 2, , 4, [ 2 × 5 − 1] = 7 + 18 = 25m, 2
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II.B.20, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 3, We all know that force is a push-pull forces acting; "Forces, acts almost everywhere and in whichever activity you do"., When we think of a force, we usually imagine a push or a pull, exerted on some object. For instance, you exert a force on a, ball when you throw it or kick it, and you exert a force on a, chair when you sit down on it. What happens to an object when, it is acted on by a force depends on the magnitude and the, direction of the force. Force is a vector quantity; thus, we, denote it with a directed arrow, just as we do velocity and, acceleration., A man pulls the door of the room., A bull is pulling the cart due with force., Squeezing of wet clothes to make it dry., A moving bike stops when brakes are applied., Gravitational force attracting the ball moving up., A boy put his drawing paper by inserting a board pin with it, on the notice board., Two team of the players are pulling with enough force the, rope in a tug of war game., A football is kicked harder. It moves faster later after some, time its force decreases due to friction., A glass rod is rubbed with silk so that it attracts the tiny, parts of the paper towards itself. It is the example of action, at a distance force., Newton’s three laws of motion are basic in our lives first law, affirms that an object at rest will remain at rest unless, otherwise an external force will cause it to move. An object in, motion will remain in uniform motion following a straight line, unless it is acted on by an external motion which causes it to, change in direction or to decrease its speed., A car travelling on a highway at a fixed rate tends to maintain, its motion and everything else inside the car are also moving at, the same velocity as the car. When there is an outside force, applied to the car in motion, like a sudden change in direction,, although the car itself will respond to this sudden change, the, passengers in the car or objects inside it are still responding to, inertia, as such their motion will still be in a straight line when, in fact the direction has already shifted causing the passengers, or the objects to be thrown off., , Force, Note, Suppose you are sitting in a rowboat on a sandy beach. Your, friends get behind the boat and push it toward the water. The, force of their push and the force of the sand on the boat act, against each other. Your friends push with a greater force than, the friction force of the sand. The boat moves because the two, opposing force are unbalanced. When two opposing forces are, unbalanced, the combined, or net, force is determined by, subtracting the small force from the large one., Point Mass, An object can be considered as a point object if during, motion in a given time, it covers distance much greater than, its own size., Object with zero dimension considered as a point mass., Inertia, Inertia is not a physical quantity, it is only a property of the, body which depends on mass of the body and cannot change, their state of rest or uniform motion along a straight line by, their own is called inertia. Inertia has no units and no, dimensions., Linear Momentum, Linear momentum of a body is the quantity of motion, contained in the body., It is measured in terms of the force required to stop the, body in unit time., It is also measured as the product of the mass of the body, and its velocity i.e., Momentum mass × velocity., , If a body of mass m is moving with velocity v then its, , , , linear momentum p is given by p mv ., It is a vector quantity and it’s direction is the same as the, direction of velocity of the body., Units : kg-m/sec [SI], g-cm/sec [CGS]., Dimension : [ MLT 1 ], If two objects of different masses have same momentum,, the lighter body possesses greater velocity., , p m11 m2 2 constant, , , , v1 m2, , v2 m1
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Force, , II.B.21, , i.e. v , , 1, m, , [As p is constant], v, p constant, , m, Figure: 3.1, , For a given body p , For different bodies moving with same velocities p , p, , p, , m constant, , m, , A bullet fired on a window pane makes a clean hole, through it, while a ball breaks the whole window. The, bullet has a speed much greater than the ball. So its time of, contact with glass is small. So in case of bullet the motion, is transmitted only to a small portion of the glass in that, small time. Hence a clear hole is created in the glass, window, while in case of ball, the time and the area of, contact is large. During this time the motion is transmitted, to the entire window, thus creating the cracks in the entire, window., , v constant, , m, , Figure: 3.2, , Newton’s First Law (Law of Inertia), If the net force F exerted on a object is zero, the object, , continues in its original state of motion. That is if F 0, an, object at rest remains at rest and object moving with some, velocity continues with that same velocity., A body continue to be in its state of rest or of uniform motion, along a straight line, unless it is acted upon by some external, force to change the state., If no net force acts on a body, then the velocity of the body, cannot change i.e. the body cannot accelerate., Newton’s first law defines inertia and is rightly called the, law of inertia. Inertia are of three types: Inertia of rest,, Inertia of motion and Inertia of direction., Mass and Inertia, A bowling ball and a golf ball lie side by on the ground., Newton’s first law tells us that both remain at rest as long as no, external force acts on them. Now imagine supplying a net force, by striking each ball with a golf club. Both balls resist your, attempt to change their state of motion. But you know from, everyday experience that if the two are struck with equal force,, the golf ball will travel much farther than the bowling ball., That is, the bowling ball is more successful in maintaining its, original state of motion. The tendency of an object to continue, in its original motion is called inertia., A person who is standing freely in bus, thrown backward,, when bus starts suddenly., When a horse starts suddenly, the rider tends to fall, backward on account of inertia of rest of upper part of the, body as explained above., , Cracks by the ball, , Hole by the bullet, Figure: 3.3, , In the arrangement as shown in the figure; If the string B is, pulled with a sudden jerk then it will, experience tension while due to inertia of, A, rest of mass M this force will not be, M, transmitted to the string A and so the, string B will break. If the string B is, B, pulled steadily the force applied to it will, be transmitted from string B to A through, the mass M and as tension in A will be, Figure: 3.4, greater than in B by Mg (weight of mass, M), the string A will break., If we place a coin on smooth piece of card board covering a, glass and strike the card board piece suddenly with a finger., The cardboard slips away and the coin falls into the glass, due to inertia of rest., The dust particles in a carpet falls off when it is beaten with, a stick. This is because the beating sets the carpet in motion, whereas the dust particles tend to remain at rest and hence, separate., Newton’s Second Law, The rate of change of linear momentum of a body is directly, proportional to the external force applied on the body and, this change takes place always in the direction of the applied, force., , Newton’s first law explains what happens to an object when no, force acts on it: The object either remains at rest or continues
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II.B.22, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , moving in a straight line with constant speed. Newton’s second, law answers the question of what happens to an object that has, a net force acting on it., , , If a body of mass m, moves with velocity v then its linear, , , , momentum can be given by p mv and if force F is applied, on a body, then, , dp, dp, F, FK, dt, dt, dp, or F , (K 1 in CGS and SI units), dt, , d, dv, , , or F ( mv ) m, ma, dt, dt, , dv, (As a , acceleration produced in the body), dt, , , F ma, Force mass acceleration, Newton’s Third Law, To every action, there is always an equal (in magnitude) and, opposite (in direction) reaction. According the Newton, the, hammer exerts a force on the nail and nail exerts a force on the, hammer. You can tell that there is clearly a force exerted by the, nail on the hammer, because the hammer rapidly slows down, after coming into contact with the nail., When a body exerts a force on any other body, the second, body also exerts an equal and opposite force on the first., A force in nature always occurs in pairs. A single isolated, force is not possible., Any agent, applying a force also experiences a force of, equal magnitude but in opposite direction. The force, applied by the agent is called ‘Action’ and the counter force, experienced by it is called ‘Reaction’., Then according to Newton’s third law of motion, , , , F AB F BA, , As the system is at rest, net force on it is zero. Therefore, force of action and reaction must be equal, and opposite., When a gun is fired, the bullet moves, forward (action). The gun recoils, K, backward (reaction)., While walking a person presses the, ground in the backward direction (action), by his feet. The ground pushes the person, , in forward direction with an equal force, F, (reaction). The component of reaction in Figure: 3.6, horizontal direction makes the person, move forward., It is difficult to walk on sand or ice., Driving a nail into a wooden block without holding the, block is difficult., , , , , , Newton’s III law F12 F21, , Net force on a body F ma, , Force constant of a given spring is inversely proportional to, 1, its length i.e. k or kl constant., l, If F is force applied on a spring and spring is stretched by, x, then restoring force in spring kx and for equilibrium, , external force F, , kx ., , Apparent Weight of a Body in a Lift, , u – constant, a0, , Moving upward, with acc.a, , Coming down, with acc. a, , Freeling falling acc., a = 9.8 m/s2, , F, d, , Gravity, Figure: 3.5, , Figure: 3.7
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Force, , II.B.23, , When the lift is at rest or moving with uniform velocity i.e.,, a=0, mg R 0, R mg or W app W0, , Where, Wapp R reaction of supporting surface and, , W0 mg true weight., When the lift moves upwards with an acceleration a:, , a, R mg ma or R m g a mg 1 , g, , , a, , Wapp W0 1 , g, , , , When the lift moves downwards with an acceleration a:, , mg R ma or R m g – a, , , , a, , , , , , mg 1, , a, g, , Wapp W0 1 , g, Here, if a g , Wapp will be negative. Negative apparent, weight will mean that the body is pressed against the roof, of the lift instead of floor. When the lift falls freely, i.e.,, a g:, , R mg g g 0 or Wapp 0, If the carriage/lift begins to fall freely, then the tension in the, string becomes zero. Mass m experiences a pseudo force ma, opposite to acceleration; the mass m is in equilibrium inside the, 2, 2, carriage and T sin ma, T cos mg , i.e., T m g a ;, , The string does not remain vertical but inclines to the vertical, at angle tan 1 ( a / g ) opposite to acceleration. This, arrangement is called accelerometer and can be used to, determine the acceleration of a moving carriage from inside by, noting the deviation of a plumb line suspended from it., Example 1. A force F1 acting on a body of 2 kg produces an, , acceleration of 2.5 ms². An other force F2 acting on the another, body of mass 5 kg produces an acceleration of 2 m/sec². Find, F, the ratio 2 ., F1, Solution: For fist body F ma , F1 2 2.5 5 N, , For second body F2 5 2 10 N, So,, , F2 10, 2., F1 5, , Example 2. A force of 20 N acting on a mass m1 produces an, , acceleration of 4 ms-2. The same force is applied on mass, m2 then the acceleration produced is 0.5 ms-2. What, , acceleration would the same force produce, when both masses, are tied together?, Solution: For mass, F, a, , m1 F 20 N , a 4 ms 2 then m1, , For mass m2 : F, , 20 N , a, , 0.5 ms, , 20, 4, , 5 kg, , 2, , F 20, 40 kg, a 0.5, When m1 and m2 are tied together:, , then m2, , Total mass, , m1 m2, , a, , F, m1 m2, , then, , 45 kg , F, 20, 45, , 20 N, , 0.44 ms, , 2, , Example 3. A field gun a mass 1.5 t fires a shell of mass 15 kg, with a velocity of 150 m/s. Calculate the velocity of the recoil, of the gun., Solution: Mass of gun 1.5 t 1.5 × 1000 kg = 1500 kg, Mass of shell = 15 kg, Velocity of shell = 150 m/s., Velocity of recoil of the gun ?, Momentum of gun Mass of gun × velocity of recoil of the, gun = 1500 V kg m/s, Momentum of shell Mass of shell × velocity of shell = 15 ×, 10 kg m/s., By the law of conservation of momentum:, Momentum of gun Momentum of shell, 15 150, 1.5 m / sec, 1500, The recoil velocity of gun 1.5 m/sec., Example 4. A hunter of 45 kg is standing on ice fires a bullet, on 100 g with a velocity of 500 ms-1 by a gun of 5 kg. Find the, recoil velocity of the hunter., Solution: The initial momentum of the system,, P1 Momentum of hunter + momentum of gun + momentum, , 1500 V = 15 × 150 or V, , of bullet, or P1 + 45 × 0 + 5 × 0 + 0.1 × 0 = 0, , . . . (1), , Final momentum of the system, P1 Momentum of hunter +, Momentum of gun + momentum of bullet, P2 45 V + 5 V + 0.1 × 500 (Here, V is the recoil velocity, of gun with hunter)., P2 50 V + 50, By the conservation of momentum P1 P2, 0 = 50 V + 50 or V –1 m/s., The recoil velocity of gun with hunter is 1 m/s., , . . . (2)
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II.B.24, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , If A and B two objects with masses 10 kg and 30 kg, respectively then:, a. A has more inertia than B, b. B has more inertia than A, c. A and B have the same inertia, d. None of the two have inertia, First law of motion defines:, a. inertia, b. force, c. both inertia and force, d. neither inertia nor force, Newton’s first law of motion is:, a. qualitative, b. quantitative, c. both qualitative and quantitative, d. neither qualitative nor quantitative, Inertia depends upon :, a. acceleration of the body, c. shape of the body, , b. velocity of the body, d. mass of the body, , Which of the following has largest inertia?, a. A pin, b. An ink pot, c. Your physics book, d. Your body, When a bus starts suddenly the passengers standing on it,, lean backwards in the bus. This is an example of:, a. Newton’s first law, b. Newton’s second law, c. Nekton’s third law, d. None of the above, , 11. Newton’s second law of motion:, a. defines force, b. defines inertia, c. gives measure of force, d. none of these, 12. Newton’s second law of motion is:, a. qualitative, b. quantitative, c. both qualitative and quantitative, d. neither qualitative nor quantitative, 13., , Momentum measures amount of _______ in a body, a. inertia, b. motion, c. velocity d. acceleration, , 14. Force measures rate of change of ____ of a body :, a. mass, b. inertia, c. velocity, d. momentum, 15. CGS unit of force is:, a. m/s, b. s/m, , c. dyne, , d. Newton, , 16. Momentum has same unit as:, a. impulse, b. torque, c. moment of force, d. couple, 17. When force of 1 N acts on mass of 1 kg. Which is able to, move freely, the object moves with a /an:, a. speed of 1 ms-1, b. speed of 1 kms-1, c. acceleration of 10 ms-2, d. acceleration of 1ms-2, 18. The net force acting on a body of mass of 1 kg moving, with a uniform velocity of 5 ms-1 is:, a. 5 N, b. 0.2 N, c. 0 N, d. None of these, , 7., , The law which defines force is:, a. Newton’s third law, b. Newton’s first law, c. Newton’s second law, d. None of these, , 19. A body of mass 20 kg moves with an acceleration of 2ms2, . The rate of change of momentum is S.I. unit is:, a. 40, b. 10, c. 4, d. 1, , 8., , Inertia of rest is the property by virtue of which the body, is unable to change by itself:, a. the state of rest only, b. the state of uniform linear motion, c. the direction of motion only, d. the steady state of rest, , 20. A body of mass M strikes against wall with a velocity v, and rebounds with the same velocity. Its change in, momentum is:, a. zero, b. Mv, c. –Mv, d. –2 Mv, , 9., , An iron ball and aluminium ball has same mass:, a. inertia of iron is greater than aluminium, b. both the ball have same inertia, c. inertia of iron is less than that on Aluminium, d. None of these, , 10. Mass measure amount of ____ in a body:, a. inertia, b. motion, c. velocity, d. acceleration, , 21. Gram weight is a unit of:, a. mass, c. a. and b. both, , b. weight, d. neither a. nor ., , 22. 9.8 N is equal to:, a. 1 kgf, c. a. and b. both, , b. 1 kgwt, d. Neither a. nor b., , 23. A body of mass 5 kg undergoes a change in speed from, 20 m/s to 0.20 m/s. The momentum:, a. increases by 99 kgm/s, b. decreases by 99 kgm/s, c. increases by 101 kgm/s, d. decreases by 101 kgm/s
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Force, , II.B.25, , 24. The combined effect of mass and velocity is taken into, account by a physical quantity called:, a. torque, b. moment of force, c. momentum, d. all of them, 25. How many dynes are equal to 1N?, a. 108, b. 104, c. 105, 26. Choose correct relation:, a. a F / m, c. m F a, , d. 103, , b. aF m, d. None of these, , 27. If a moving ball A collides with another moving ball B, then, a. momentum of A momentum of B, b. (momentum A + momentum of B) before, collision (momentum A + momentum of B) after, collision, c. neither A nor B, d. A or B both are possible, 28. When a bullet is fired from a gun. The gun recoils to:, a. conserve mass, b. conserve momentum, c. conserve K.E., d. none of these, 29. A bullet is motion hits and gets embedded in a solid, resting on a frictionless table. What is conserved?, a. Momentum and K.E., b. Momentum alone, c. K.E. alone, d. None of these, 30. A bullet of mass 0.01 kg is fired from a gun weighing 5.0, kg. If the initial speed of the bullet is 250 m/s, calculate, the speed with which the gun recoils :, a. – 0.50 m/s, b. – 0.25 m/s, c. + 0.05 m/s, d. + 0.25 m/s, 31. Forces of action and reaction are:, a. equal and in same direction, b. equal and in opposite direction, c. unequal and in same direction, d. unequal and opposite., 32. Forces of action and reaction act:, a. one after the other on same body, b. simultaneously on same body, c. one after the other on different bodies, d. simultaneously on different bodies, 33. A man is standing on a boat in still water. If he walks, towards the shore the boat will:, a. more away from the shore b. remain stationary, c. move towards the shore, d. sink, 34. In the action and direction were to act on the same body:, a. the resultant would be zero, b. the body would not move at all, c. both a. and b. are correct, d. neither a. nor b. is correct, , 35. Consider two spring balances hooked as shown in the, figure. We pull them in opposite directions. If the reading, shown by A is 1.5 N, the reading shown by B will be:, , a. 1.5 N, , b. 2.5 N, , c. 3.0 N, , d. Zero, , 36. Newton used, quantity of motion’ for:, a. momentum, b. force, c. acceleration due to gravity, d. none of these, 37. A cannon after firing recoils due to:, a. conservation of energy, b. backward thrust of gases produced, c. Newton’s first law of motion, d. Newton’s’ third law of motion, 38. The forces of action and reaction have ____ magnitude, but ____ direction:, a. same, same, b. same, opposite, c. opposite, same, d. opposite, opposite, 39. Choose correct statement:, a. Action and reaction forces act on same object., b. Action and reaction forces act on different objects., c. a. and b. both are possible., d. Neither a. nor b. is correct., 40. Newton's first law of motion describes which of the, following?, a. Energy, b. Work, c. Inertia, d. Moment of inertia, 41. A person sitting in an open car moving at constant, velocity throws a ball vertically up into air. The ball falls, a. outside the car, b. in the car ahead of the person, c. in the car to the side of the person, d. exactly in the hand which threw it up, 42. A bird weighs 2 kg and is inside a closed cage of 1 kg. If, it starts flying, then what is the weight of the bird and, cage assembly, a. 1.5 kg, b. 2.5 kg, c. 3 kg, d. 4 kg, 43. A particle is moving with a constant speed along a, straight line path. A force is not required to, a. Increase its speed, b. Decrease the momentum, c. Change the direction, d. Keep it moving with uniform velocity
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II.B.26, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 44. When a bus suddenly takes a turn, the passengers are, thrown outwards because of, a. Inertia of motion, b. Acceleration of motion, c. Speed of motion, d. Both b. and c., 45. Newton's second law gives the measure of, a. Acceleration, b. Force, c. Momentum, d. Angular momentum, 46. A force of 100 dynes acts on mass of 5 gm for 10 sec. The, velocity produced is:, a. 2 cm/sec, b. 20 cm/sec, c. 200 cm/sec, d. 2000 cm/sec, 47. An object will continue moving uniformly until, a. The resultant force acting on it begins to decrease, b. The resultant force on it is zero, c. The resultant force is at right angle to its rotation, d. The resultant force on it is increased continuously, 48. A diwali rocket is ejecting 0.05 kg of gases per second at, a velocity of 400 m/sec. The accelerating force on the, rocket is:, a. 20 dynes, b. 20 N, c. 22 dynes d. 1000 N, 49. A body of mass 2 kg is hung on a spring balance mounted, vertically in a lift. If the lift descends with an acceleration, equal to the acceleration due to gravity ‘g’, the reading on, the spring balance will be:, a. 2 kg, b. (4 g )kg, c. (2 g )kg, , d. Zero, , 50. In the above problem, if the lift moves up with a constant, velocity of 2 m/sec, the reading on the balance will be:, a. 2 kg, b. 4 kg, c. Zero, d. 1 kg, 51. In the above problem if the lift moves up with an, acceleration equal to the acceleration due to gravity, the, reading on the spring balance will be:, a. 2 kg, b. (2 g )kg, c. (4 g )kg, 52, , d. 4 kg, , A force of 5 N acts on a body of weight 9.8 N. What is the, acceleration produced in m/sec 2 ?, a. 49.00, c. 1.46, , b. 5.00, d. 0.51, , 53. A body of mass 40 gm is moving with a constant velocity, of 2 cm/sec on a horizontal frictionless table. The force on, the table is:, a. 39200 dyne, b. 160 dyne, c. 80 dyne, d. Zero dyne, , 54. When 1 N force acts on 1 kg body that is able to move, freely, the body receives, a. A speed of 1 m/sec, b. An acceleration of 1 m / sec 2, c. An acceleration of 980 cm / sec 2, d. An acceleration of 1 cm / sec 2, 55. An object with a mass 10 kg moves at a constant velocity, of 10 m/sec. A constant force then acts for 4 seconds on, the object and gives it a speed of 2 m/sec in opposite, direction. The acceleration produced in it, is:, a. 3 m / sec 2, , b. 3 m / sec 2, , c. 0.3 m / sec 2, , d. 0.3 m / sec 2, , 56. In the above question, the force acting on the object is:, a. 30 N, b. – 30 N, c. 3 N, d. – 3 N, 57. In the above question, the impulse acting on the object is:, a. 120 newton × sec, b. 120 newton × sec, c. 30 newton × sec, d. 30 newton × sec, 58. Swimming is possible on account of, a. First law of motion, b. Second law of motion, c. Third law of motion, d. Newton's law of gravitation, 59. When we jump out of a boat standing in water it moves, a. Forward, b. Backward, c. Sideways, d. None of these, 60. You are on a frictionless horizontal plane. How can you, get off if no horizontal force is exerted by pushing against, the surface?, a. By jumping, b. By spitting or sneezing, c. By rolling your body on the surface, d. By running on the plane, 61. On a stationary sail-boat, air is blown at the sails from a, fan attached to the boat. The boat will, a. Remain stationary, b. Spin around, c. Move in a direction opposite to that in which air is, blown, d. Move in the direction in which the air is blown, 62. A man is at rest in the middle of a pond on perfectly, smooth ice. He can get himself to the shore by making, use of Newton's, a. First law, b. Second law, c. Third law, d. All the laws
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Force, , II.B.27, , 63. A man is standing on a balance and his weight is, measured. If he takes a step in the left side, then weight, a. will decrease, , b. will increase, c. remains same, d. first decreases then increases, , ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , b, , c, , a, , d, , d, , a, , b, , d, , b, , a, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , c, , b, , b, , d, , c, , a, , d, , c, , a, , d, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , b, , c, , b, , c, , c, , a, , b, , b, , b, , a, , 31., , 32., , 33., , 34., , 35., , 36., , 37., , 38., , 39., , 40., , b, , d, , a, , c, , a, , a, , d, , b, , b, , c, , 41., , 42., , 43., , 44., , 45., , 46., , 47., , 48., , 49., , 50., , d, , c, , d, , a, , b, , c, , b, , b, , d, , a, , 51., , 52., , 53., , 54., , 55., , 56., , 57., , 58., , 59., , 60., , d, , b, , a, , b, , b, , b, , b, , c, , b, , b, , 61., , 62., , 63., , a, , c, , c, , 17. (d) F ma, , F, m, , 1N, 1kg, , 1 ms, , 2, , 51. (d) When lift moves upward then reading of the spring, balance, R m( g a) 2( g g ) 4 g N 4kg, , 18. (c) As v = constant a 0, Therefore F ma 0, , [As a g ], , dp, ma 20 2 40 N, dt, 20. (d) P M (v f vi ) v f v P 2Mv, , 19. (a) F , , 52. (b) As weight 9.8 N, Mass 1 kg, Force 5, Acceleration , 5 m / s2, Mass 1, 53. (a) Force on the table mg 40 980 39200 dyne, , 23. (b) P mv f mvi 5(0 20 20) 99, 30. (a) From conservation of momentum Pf Pi, , , , Pi 0, , F 1N, , 1 m / s2, m 1 kg, , v v ( 2) ( 10) 12, 55. (b) a 2 1 , , 3 m / s 2, 4, 4, t, 56. (b) F ma 10 (3) 30 N, , 54. (b) a , , Pf m g v g mb vb 0, , , , vg , , mbvb, mg, , 0 01 250, vg, 5, , dm , 48. (b) F u , 400 0.05 20 N, dt , , 49. (d) Reading on the spring balance m (g – a) and since a g, Force 0, 50. (a) The lift is not accelerated, hence the reading of the, balance will be equal to the true weight., R mg 2 g Newton or 2kg, , SOLUTIONS, , Given F 1N , m 1kg a, , 42., (c) When the bird flies, it pushes air down to, balance its weight., So the weight of the bird and closed cage assembly remains, unchanged., 43. (d) Particle will move with uniform velocity due to, inertia., F 100, 46. (c) Acceleration a , 20 cm / s 2, 5, m, Now v at 20 10 200 cm / s, , 0.5 m / sec, , 35. (a) | FA || FB | . In magnitude, 40. (c) Newton’s first law of motion defines the inertia of, body. It states that every body has a tendency to remain in, its state (either rest or motion) due to its inerta., 41. (d) Horizontal velocity of ball and person are same so, both will cover equal horizontal distance in a given, interval of time and after following the parabolic path the, ball falls exactly in the hand which threw it up., , 57. (b) Impulse = Force Time 30 4 120 Ns, 58. (c) Swimming is a result of pushing water in the opposite, direction of the motion., 59. (b) Because for every action there is an equal and, opposite reaction takes place., 61. (a) The force exerted by the air of fan on the boat is, internal and for motion external force is required., ,
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II.B.28, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 4, , Work, Energy and Power, An alternative approach to such problems is to relate the speed, of an object to the work done on the object by some net, external force., If the work done by the net force on the object can be, calculated for a given displacement, the change in the object’s, speeds is easy to evaluate., Normal Force (N), Reaction (FR), , Note, What does the word work make you think of? You probably, think of tasks that you would rather not do. For example, you, might think it is work to take leaves in your front yard or run, laps around a school track. Your idea of work might be quite, different from another person’s idea. If you are a member of a, sports team, you might like to run. In everyday life, the word, work means different things to different people., , Solving problems using Newton’s second law can be difficult, if the forces involved are complicated., , Fraction (Ft), , The term work was introduced in 1826 by the French, mathematician Gaspard-Gustave de Coriolis as "weight lifted, through a height", which is based on the use of early steam, engines to lift buckets of water out of flooded ore mines. In, physics, a force is said to do work if, when acting on a body,, there is a displacement of the point of application in the, direction of the force. The work is the product of force an, displacement., , Action (FA), , Weight (W), , Figure: 4.1, , But in science, work has a specific meaning. In science work, relates to force, motion, and energy., , , Work W F s Fs cos , , Taking into account the kinetic and potential energies of a, , Where, angle between force F and displacements s.Unit, of work in M.K.S. or S.I. system is joule., Work done by a force is positive of 90, , system, we have the law of conservation of mechanical energy,, which provides a way of understanding mechanical problems, that is based on Newton’s laws but often provides new or, different insights., Let us consider some cases where work is not done:, Work is zero if applied force is zero (W 0 if F 0): If a, block is moving on a smooth horizontal surface, (frictionless), no work will be done. Note that the block, may have large displacement but no work gets done., Work is zero if cos is zero or , , , 2, , . This explains why, , no work is done by the porter in carrying the load., As the porter carries the load by lifting it upwards and the, moving forward it is obvious the angle between the force, applied by the porter and the displacement is 90., Now that we have seen how to evaluate the work done by a, force on an object, let us explore the power of this approach., , Work done by a force is zero if 90, Work done by a force is negative if 180 90, , Work W, Power P , , F F cos , Time, t, Unit of power in S.I. system is watt., 1, Kinetic Energy T m 2 Kinetic energy is never, 2, negative., r , Potential energy U F dr, r0, , Where, r0 is reference position for zero potential energy., Referred to zero potential energy at, surface U mgh. Referred to zero potential, , earth’s, energy, , G M e m, where M e mass of earth and r, r, distance of body of mass m from earth’s centre. Potential, energy may be positive or negative., , at , U
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Work, Energy and Power, , II.B.29, , 1, Elastic potential energy U kx2, 2, Mechanical energy E T U, Under conservation force E K U constant, Under non-conservative forces, total energy of universe, remains constant., , If an external force is applied to an object and if the work done, by this force is W in the time interval t, then the average, power during this interval is defined as the ratio of the work, , done to the time interval: P , , Q, t, , Example 1. A porter lifts a luggage of 15 kg from the ground, and put it on his head, 1.5 m above the ground. Calculate the, work done by him on the luggage. (take g 10 m/s²), Solution: Mass of luggage, m 15 kg, , Work Energy Theorem, U; K E 0, , Displacement, d 1.5 m, KE+U, , Acceleration due to gravity, g 10 m / s 2, , KE+U, , Work done, W Fd mgd, W 15 × 10 × 1.5 225 J, , K E; U 0, Figure: 4.2, , 1, 1, Work gain in kinetic energy m22 m12, 2, 2, Stopping distance of a vehicle on a rough surface. s , , 2, 2 g, , Example 2. A force of 10 N displaces a body by 5 m, the angle, between force and displacement is 60º, then find the work, done., Solution: Force, F 10 N ,, , Displacement, d 5m,, Angle between force and displacement, 6 0 ,, , Conservation of Momentum, Recoiling of a gun, , vG, , Work done, W Fd cos 10 5 cos60, , vB, , , , cos60 , , 1, 2, , Then, W 10 5 , Figure: 4.3, , By the law of conservation of linear momentum:, , , mG vG mB vB 0, , , So, recoil velocity vG , , mB , vB, mG, , If ‘n’ bullets each of mass m are fired per unit time from a, machine gun, then the force required to hold the gun, dm , v, v mn mnv, dt , , Power, From a practical view point, it is interesting to know not only, the amount of energy transferred to or from a system but also, the rate at which the transfer occurred. This is a particularly, interesting issue for living creatures because the maximum, work per second, or power output, of an animal varies greatly, with output duration. To handle such problems in a systematic, way, power is defined as the time rate of energy transfer., , 1, 2, , W 25 J, Example 3. What is the work to be done to increase the, velocity of a car from 30 km/h to 60 km/h. If mass of the car is, 1500 kg., Solution: Mass of car, m 1500 kg., Initial velocity, u 30 km/h 8.33 m/s., Final velocity, v 60 km/h 16.67 m/s., 1, 1, Work done, W mv 2 mu 2, 2, 2, 1, W 1500[(16.67) 2 (8.33) 2 ], 2, 750(277.9 – 69.4), W 750 × 208.5 156375 J., W 1.56 105 J ., Example 4. A body of mass 10 kg is kept at a height 10 m, from the ground, when it is released after sometime its kinetic, energy becomes 450 J. What will be the potential energy of the, body at the instant ?
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II.B.30, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Solution: At a height of 10 m. The mechanical energy of the, body,, E Kinetic energy + potential energy, E m (o)² + mgh ( initial velocity of the body is zero), E 10 × 10 × 10 1000 J., After sometime the kinetic energy is 450 J. Suppose at, that instant potential energy is U, then by the law of, conservation of mechanical energy., E 450 + U, 1000 450 + U or U 1000 – 450 U 550 J., , Example 5. A boy of mass 50 kg runs up a staircase of 45, steps in 9 s. If the height of each step is 15 cm. Find his power., , (g 10 m/s²), Solution: Mass of man, m 50 kg., Height covered,, , h 45 × 15 675 cm 6.75 m, W mgh 50 10 6.75, Power P , , , 9, t, t, , , , P 375 watt, , 8., , Force F acts on a body such that force F makes an angle, with the horizontal direction and the body is also, displaced through a distance S in the horizontal direction,, then the work done by the force is:, a. FS, b. FS cos, , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , 2., , Work done upon a body is:, a. a vector quantity, c. a. and b. both are correct, , b. a scalar quantity, d. none of these, , Work done:, a. is always positive, b. is always negative, c. can be positive, negative or zero, d. none of these, , 3., , No work is done when :, a. a nail is plugged in a wooden board, b. a box is pushed along a horizontal floor, c. there is no component of force parallel to the direction, of motion, d. there is no component of force perpendicular to the, direction of motion, , 4., , A body at rest can have:, a. speed, b. velocity, c. momentum, d. energy, Types of mechanical energies are:, a. kinetic energy only, b. potential energy only, c. kinetic energy and potential energy both, d. neither kinetic energy nor potential energy, Work means:, a. effort, b. interview, c. achievement, d. get-together, , 5., , 6., , 7., , Work is done on a body when:, a. force acts on the body but the body is not displaced, b. force does not act on the body but it is displaced, c. force acts on the body in a direction perpendicular to, the direction of the displacement of the body, d. force acts on the body and they body is either displaced, in the direction of force or opposite to the direction of, force., , c. FS sin, , d. Zero, , In tug of war work done by winning team is:, a. zero, b. positive, c. negative, d. None of these, 10. In tug of war work done by losing team is:, a. zero, b. positive, c. negative, d. None of these, 11. Work done by the force of gravity, when a body is lifted, to height h above the ground is:, a. zero, b. positive, c. negative, d. None of these, 9., , 12. When work is done on a body:, a. it gains energy, b. it looses energy, c. its energy remains constant, d. none of these, 13. Choose correct relation :, a. 1 J 105 erg, , b. 1 J 107 erg, , c. 1 J 103 erg, , d. None of these, , 14. The kinetic energy of an object is K. If its velocity is, doubled than its kinetic energy will be:, a. K, , b. 2K, , c., , K, 2, , d. 4K, , 15. Two bodies of mass 1 kg and 4 kg possess equal, momentum. The ratio of their KE:, a. 4 : 1, b. 1 : 4, c. 2 : 1, d. 1 : 2
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Work, Energy and Power, , II.B.31, , 16. Which of is not the unit of energy?, a. kilocalorie, b. kWh, c. erg, d. watt, , 27. A raised hummer possess :, a. kinetic energy only, b. gravitational potential energy, c. electrical energy, d. sound energy, , 17. 1 kg mass has K.E. of 1 J when its speed is:, a. 0.45 ms-1, b. 1 ms-1, c. 1.4 ms-1, d. 4.4 ms-1, 18. When you compress a spring you do work on it. The, elastic potential energy of the spring:, a. increases, b. decreases, c. disappears, d. remains constant, 19. When a ball is thrown upward, its total energy?, a. increases, b. decreases, c. remains same, d. None of these, 20. If a stone of mass ‘m’ falls a vertical distance ‘d’ the, decrease in gravitational potential energy is:, Mg, a., d, , Mg 2, b., 2, , c. mgd, , Mg, d. 2, d, , 21. An object of mass 10 kg falls from height 10 m. Kinetic, energy gained by the body will be approximately equal to:, a. 1000 J, b. 500 J, c. 100 J, d. None of these, 22. A spring is stretched. The potential energy in stretching, the spring:, a. remains the same, b. increases, c. decreases, d. becomes zero, 23. The potential energy of a boy is maximum when he is:, a. standing, b. sleeping on the ground, c. sitting on the ground, d. sitting on chair, 24. The potential energy of a freely falling object decreases, continuously. What happens to the loss of potential, energy?, a. It is continuously converted into sound energy, b. It is continuously converted into kinetic energy, c. It is continuously destroyed, d. None of these, 25. A device which converts mechanical energy into, electrical energy is known as:, a. electric motor, b. lever, c. generator, d. microphone, 26. The value of g on moon 1/6th of the value of g on the, earth. A man can jump 1.5 m high on the earth. On moon, he can jump up to a height of:, a. 9 m, b. 7.5 m, c. 6 m, d. 4.5 m, , 28. An object of mass 1 kg has a P.E. of 1 J relative to the, ground when it is at a height of : (g 9.8 m/s²), a. 0.10 m, b. 10 m, c. 9.8 m, d. 32 m, 29. To lift a 5 kg mass to a certain height, amount of energy, spent is 245 J. The mass was raised to a height of:, a. 15 m, b. 10 m, c. 7.5 m, d. 5 m, 30. Chlorophyll in the plants convert the light energy into:, a. heart energy, b. chemical energy, c. mechanical energy, d. electrical energy, 31. Kilowatt is the unit of:, a. energy, c. force, , b. power, d. momentum, , 32. Work is product of time and:, a. energy, b. power, c. force, d. distance, 33. A young son work quickly for 2 hours and prepares 16, items in a day. His old father works slowly for either, hours and prepare 24 items a day:, a. son has more power, b. son has more energy, c. both have equal power, d. both have equal energy, 34. One horse power is:, a. 746 W, b. 550 W, , c. 980 W, , d. 32 W, , 35. Power of a moving body is stored in the form of:, a. work and distance, b. force and distance, c. force and velocity, d. force and time, 36. A weight lifter lifts 240 kg from the ground to a height of, 2.5 m in 3 seconds his average power is:, a. 1960 W, b. 19.6 W, c. 1.96 W, d. 196 W, 37. Which of the following is not the unit of power?, a. J/s, b. Watt, c. kJ/h, d. kWh, 38. A body of mass m is moving in a circle of radius r with a, , mv 2, and is, r, directed towards the centre. What is the work done by this, force in moving the body over half the circumference of, the circle?, constant speed v. The force on the body is, , a., , mv 2, r2, , b. Zero, , c., , mv 2, r2, , d., , r2, mv 2
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II.B.32, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 39. If the unit of force and length each be increased by four, times, then the unit of energy is increased by:, a. 16 times, b. 8 times, c. 2 times, d. 4 times, 40. A man pushes a wall and fails to displace it. He does, a. negative work, b. positive but not maximum work, c. no work at all, d. maximum work, 41. The same retarding force is applied to stop a train. The, train stops after 80 m. If the speed is doubled, then the, distance will be:, a. same, b. doubled, c. halved, d. four times, 42. A body of mass 10 kg is dropped to the ground from a, height of 10 metres. The work done by the gravitational, force is: ( g 9.8 m / sec 2 ), a. – 490 Joules, c. – 980 Joules, , b. + 490 Joules, d. + 980 Joules, , 45. A force of 5 N acts on a 15 kg body initially at rest. The, work done by the force during the first second of motion, of the body is:, c. 6 J, , d. 75J, , 46. Which of the following is a unit of energy?, a. Unit, b. Watt, c. Horse Power, d. None, 47. If force and displacement of particle in direction of force, are doubled. Work would be:, a. Double, , b. 4 times, , c. Half, , d., , 51. When a spring is stretched by 2 cm, it stores 100 J of, energy. If it is stretched further by 2 cm, the stored energy, will be increased by:, a. 100 J, b. 200 J, c. 300 J, d. 400 J, 52. A spring when stretched by 2 mm its potential energy, becomes 4 J. If it is stretched by 10 mm, its potential, energy is equal to:, a. 4 J, b. 54 J, c. 415 J, d. None, , a. 6.25 N-m, c. 18.75 N-m, , 44. The work done in pulling up a block of wood weighing 2, kN for a length of 10 m on a smooth plane inclined at an, angle of 15° with the horizontal is:, a. 4.36 kJ, b. 5.17 kJ, c. 8.91 kJ, d. 9.82 kJ, , a. 5 J, , 50. A spring of force constant 800 N/m has an extension of 5, cm. The work done in extending it from 5 cm to 15 cm is:, a. 16 J, b. 8 J, c. 32 J, d. 24 J, , 53. A spring of spring constant 5 103 N/m is stretched, initially by 5 cm from the unscratched position. Then the, work required to stretch it further by another 5 cm is:, , 43. Which of the following is a scalar quantity?, a. Displacement, b. Electric field, c. Acceleration, d. Work, , 5, b. J, 6, , 49. A ball is released from the top of a tower. The ratio of, work done by force of gravity in first, second and third, second of the motion of the ball is:, a. 1 : 2 : 3, b. 1 : 4 : 9, c. 1 : 3 : 5, d. 1 : 5 : 3, , 1, times, 4, , 48. Two bodies of masses 1 kg and 5 kg are dropped gently, from the top of a tower. At a point 20 cm from the, ground, both the bodies will have the same:, a. Momentum, b. Kinetic energy, c. Velocity, d. Total energy, , b. 12.50 N-m, d. 25.00 N-m, , 54. Two bodies of masses m1 and m 2 have equal kinetic, , energies. If p1 and p2 are their respective momentum, then, ratio p1 : p2 is equal to:, a. m1 : m2, , b. m2 : m1, , c., , d. m12 : m22, , m1 :, , m2, , 55. Work done in raising a box depends on:, a. How fast it is raised, b. The strength of the man, c. The height by which it is raised, d. None of the above, 56. A light and a heavy body have equal momenta. Which, one has greater KE?, a. The light body, b. The heavy body, c. The KE are equal, d. Data is incomplete, 57. A body at rest may have, a. Energy, c. Speed, , b. Momentum, d. Velocity, , 58. The kinetic energy possessed by a body of mass m, 1, moving with a velocity v is equal to mv 2 , provided, 2, a. The body moves with velocities comparable to that of, light
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Work, Energy and Power, , II.B.33, , b. The body moves with velocities negligible compared to, the speed of light, c. The body moves with velocities greater than that of, light, d. None of the above statement is correct, 59. When work is done on a body by an external force, its, a. kinetic energy increases, b. potential energy increases, c. Both kinetic and potential energies may increase, d. Sum of kinetic and potential energies remains constant, 60. A light and a heavy body have equal kinetic energy., Which one has a greater momentum?, a. The light body, , b. The heavy body, c. Both have equal momentum, d. It is not possible to say anything without additional, information, 61. If the linear momentum is increased by 50%, the kinetic, energy will increase by, a. 50%, b. 100%, c. 125%, d. 25%, 62. If the stone is thrown up vertically and return to ground,, its potential energy is maximum., a. during the upward journey, b. at the maximum height, c. during the return journey, d. at the bottom, , ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , b, , c, , c, , d, , c, , c, , d, , b, , b, , c, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , c, , a, , b, , d, , a, , d, , c, , a, , c, , c, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , a, , b, , a, , b, , c, , a, , b, , a, , d, , b, , 31., , 32., , 33., , 34., , 35., , 36., , 37., , 38., , 39., , 40., , b, , b, , a, , a, , c, , a, , d, , b, , a, , c, , 41., , 42., , 43., , 44., , 45., , 46., , 47., , 48., , 49., , 50., , d, , d, , d, , b, , b, , a, , d, , c, , c, , b, , 51., , 52., , 53., , 54., , 55., , 56., , 57., , 58., , 59., , 60., , c, , c, , c, , a, , a, , b, , c, , b, , c, , d, , 61., , 62., , c, , b, , SOLUTIONS, 8., , (b) W F cos S, θ, F cosθ, S→, , , , 1 2, mv, 2, ( K E ) New 4( K E ) vNew 2v, , P2, 2m, E1 m2 4, , , E 2 m1 1, , 15. (a) E , , , , As P – constant, 21. (a) v 2 u 2 2 gh, , , , u0, , v2 2 10 10 200, , , , E, , 1, 1, m v 2 10 200 1000J, 2, 2, , 26. (a) v 2 u 2 2 gh, , , , hm ge, , he gm, , , , hm he , , g, 1, g, 6, , 28. (a) h , , U, mgh, , 29. (d) h , , U, mgh, , 1.5 6 9m, , U, mgh, P, t, t, 38. (b) Work done by centripetal force is always zero,, because force and instantaneous displacement are always, perpendicular., , 36. (a) P , , F, , 14. (d) K E , , , , , , , W F.s Fs cos Fs cos(90) 0, , 39. (a) Work = Force × Displacement (length). If unit of, force and length be increased by four times then the unit, of energy will increase by 16 times., 40. (c) No displacement is there., 41. (d) Stopping distance S u 2 . If the speed is doubled, , then the stopping distance will be four times., 42. (d) As the body moves in the direction of force therefore, work done by gravitational force will be positive., , W Fs mgh 10 9.8 10 980 J
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II.B.34, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 44. (b) W mg sin s, , 1, 52. (d) U kx 2 if x becomes 5 times then energy will, 2, become 25 times., i.e. 4 25 100 J, , 2 10 sin1510 5.17 kJ, 3, , s, , 53. (c) W , , m, , mg sin , , , , , , 54. (c) P 2mE, , 1 F, , W F t 2 , 2, m, , , 46., 47., 48., 49., , , , 2, , 25 5, , J, 30 6, (a) Both part will have numerically equal momentum and, lighter part will have more velocity., (d) Watt and Horsepower are the unit of power., (c) Velocity of fall is independent of the mass of the, falling body., (c) When the ball is released from the top of tower then, ratio of distances covered by the ball in first, second and, third second:, hI : hII : hIII 1 : 3 : 5 : [because hn (2n 1)], , , , P m (if E = const.), , , , P1, , P2, , 56. (a) E , , 1, k x22 x12 , 2, , 1, 2, k 2 x x 2 , , 2 , , 1, , 3 kx 2 3 100 300 J, 2, , , 1, m, , 57. (a) Body at rest may possess potential energy., 58. (b) Due to theory of relativity., 60. (b) P 2mE if E are equal then P m, i.e. heavier body will possess greater momentum., 61. (c) Let P1 P, P2 P1 50% of, P1 P1 , , P1 3P1, , 2, 2, , E P , EP 2 2 , E1 P1 , , 1, 50. (b) W k ( x22 x12 ), 2, 1, 800 152 52 10 4 8 J, 2, , W, , P2, if, 2m, , P = constant then E , , 1 : 3 : 5, , 1, 2, , m1, m2, , 55. (c) Work in raising a box = (weight of the box) × (height, by which it is raised), , Ratio of work done, mghI : mghII : mghIII, , 2, 51. (c) 100 kx (given), , 1, 5 103 10 2 52 104, 2, , 18.75 J, , 1, 1, , , 45. (b) W Fs F at 2 from s ut at 2 , 2, 2, , , , F 2 t 2 25 1, , , 2m, 2 15, , 1, k ( x22 x12 ), 2, , 2, , 2, , 2, , 3P / 2 , 9, 1 , 4, P1 , , E2 2.25,, E E1 1.25 E1, , , E2 E1 125% of E1, , i.e. kinetic energy will increase by 125%., 62. (b) Potential energy = mgh, Potential energy is maximum when h is maximum., ,
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Gravitation, , II.B.35, , 5, , Gravitation, , If you travelled through the universe, you would experience, many kinds of forces. On the most distant planets, you would, be subjected to the same four forces that exist all around you, on the earth, these four forces are: gravitational,, electromagnetic, and strong nuclear and weak interactions are, called the universal forces. Newton proposed that the sun, exerts a gravitational force on the earth and its moon, as well as, on all the other planets. Gravitational force keeps the earth and, other objects in the solar system in orbit around the sun, each, planet moves in an elliptical orbit around the sun., You take batting and stand to hit the ball and the baseball, comes towards you. When it reaches home plate, the curve ball, suddenly “breaks”, or drops. You might observe many, different forces action on the curve ball, and other batters, might agree. However, physicists who study the forces on, curve balls would tell you and the other batters that you’re, wrong. The physicists claim that the forces acting on pitched, balls do not cause a sudden drop. According to the laws of, physics, two forces affect the ball’s flight. The force the, pitcher’s arm gives the ball horizontal velocity. The downward, force makes the ball follow a gradual curve on its downward, path., Note, The gravity is the thing which causes objects to fall to the, Earth. The role of physics is to explain phenomenon in terms, of underlying principles. Gravity must be understood in terms, of its cause, its source, and its far-reaching implications on the, structure and the motion of the objects in the universe., , The gravitational force between two particles is, independent of the presence of other bodies or the, properties of the intervening medium., Gravitational force is conservative force, therefore work, done in a body from one place to another is independent of, path; it depends only on initial and final positions., The mass of air bubble in material medium is negative, G m1 m2, (Attractive), F, r2, Here G is constant of proportionality which is called, , 'Universal gravitational constant'. If m1 m2 and r 1 then, G F, , i.e. universal gravitational constant is equal to the force of, attraction between two bodies each of unit mass whose centres, are placed unit distance apart., The value of G in the laboratory was first determined by, Cavendish using the torsion balance., The, , value, , of, , G, , 6.67 1011 N m2kg 2 in, , is, , 8, , and 6.67 10 dyne cm g, 2, , 2, , in CGS system., h, , x, , R, , w, , Figure: 5.2, , Acceleration due to gravity ‘g’at earth’s surface g , Value of g at he height h,, , Newton’s Law of Gravitation, In 1687 Newton published his work on the law of universal, gravitation, which states that everybody in this universe attracts, every other body with a force, which is directly proportional to, the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the, square of the distance between their centres. The direction of, the force is along the line joining the particles., m, , F, , F, , r, Figure: 5.1, , m2, , S.I., , gh , , GM e, , Re h , , 2, , , , g, , h , 1 , R, e , , , 2, , 2h , If h Re , g h g 1 , Re , , Value of g at depth x form earth’s surface, , x , g x g 1 (assuming earth of uniform density), R, e , , , Value of g due to earth’s rotation of latitude , , g ' g Re2 cos2 , , GM e, Re2
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II.B.36, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, g, Below earth’s, surface, , O, , The torque on a satellite is zero both in circular and, elliptical orbits, so Angular momentum of satellite is, conserved in both circular and elliptical orbits, while, velocity is minimum at maximum distance ( r1 ) and velocity, , Above the Earths, surface, , r, , Re, Figure: 5.3, , Weightlessness conditions:, When objects fall freely under gravity., When a satellite revolves in its orbit around the earth., When bodies are at null points in outer space (gravitation, pull of two bodies are eaual and opposite)., F, Gravitational field strength: f g , Newton/kg, m, F, Due to point mass m at distance r, f g , m, Kepler's Laws of Planetary Motion: Johannes Kepler,, working with data painstakingly collected by Tycho Brahe, without the aid of a telescope, developed three laws which, described the motion of the planets across the sky., The Law of Orbits: All planets move in elliptical orbits,, with the sun at one focus., The Law of Areas: A line that connects a planet to the sun, sweeps out equal areas in equal times., The Law of Periods: The square of the period of any, planet is proportional to the cube of the semi-major axis of, its orbit., Kepler's laws were derived for orbits around the sun, but, they apply to satellite orbits as well., Satellite in Circular Orbit, The time period of communication satellite is 24 h and its, plane coincides with equatorial plane of earth. The height of, communication satellite is nearly 36,000 km above earth’s, surface., Elliptical Orbit: Properties of ellipse are: If a and b are semi-, , major and semi-minor axes, then 1 , maximum distance r1 a 1 , minimum distance r2 a 1 , , , , vmax 1 , , vmin 1 , , Semi-latus recturn L , , b2, a2, , is maximum at minimum distance r2 ., , J mvr constant, Maximum height attained by a projectile projected, r, vertically upward H , 2 Rg, 1, 2, , , , Escape velocity e , , The total energy of just escaping body is zero. Relation, between orbital velocity and escape velocity near earth’s, , surface ve 2v0, For escape of an orbiting satellite near earth’s surface, its, speed must be increased 0.414 0 41.4%, Time period: Period of revolution of a satellite is, , R h, , g, , 1/ 2, , , , , For a satellite revolving very near to the surface of earth:, 2, T , R, , 3, , 1/ 2, , R, T 2 84.6 min, g, Like orbital speed, time period also does not depend on, mass, size and shape of the satellite. It depends only on the, radius of circular orbit., , Geostationary satellite: A satellite which appears to, be stationary for a person on the surface of the earth is, called geostationary satellite., It revolves in the equatorial plane form west to east with a, time period of 24 hours., Its height from the surface of the earth is nearly 35,600 km, and radius of the circular orbit is nearly 42,000 km., The orbital velocity of this satellite is nearly 3.08 km/sec., The relative velocity of geostationary satellite with respect, to earth is zero., Note, If a satellite is close to earth’s surface such that h<<R, then, , orbital speed v0 , , b2 2r1r2, , a 2 r1 r2, , 2GM e, 2 Re g, Rc, , GM, , g, , R2 g, Rg and periodic time,, R, , R3 , R3 , R, T 2 , 2 2 2, g, GM , R g
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Gravitation, , II.B.37, , For earth R 6400, m 6.4 10 6 m and g 9.8 m/s2 orbital, 9, 3, speed v0 (6.40 10 9.8) 8 10 m/s 8km/s and period of, , revolution, T 2, , 6.4 10 6, 5 10 6 , 9.8, , Time 84.6 min., , Example 1. Calculate the values of the acceleration due to, gravity (i) at a depth of 8 km and (ii) at an altitude of 32 km, from the surface, given that the value of g on the surface at sea, level is 9.8 ms–2., Solution: (i) The value of g at any depth is given, h, by g g 1 , R, , , , , 8 103 , 1 , , 9.8 1 , g 9.8 1 , 3, 800 , 640 10 , 799, 800 1 , 9.8 , 9.8 , 800, 800 , , , , g 9.788 ms –2, , (ii) The value of g at any altitude of 32 km is, , 2h , g g 1 , R, , Example 2. Calculate the mass of the earth using the following, data. Radius of the earth is 6400 km. Acceleration due to, gravity is 9.8 ms–2 and the gravitational constant is, , 6.673 1011 Nm2 kg–2., Solution: The relation between g and G is g , , , , , , gR 2, G, , 9.8 (6400 103 )2, 6.673 1011, M = 6.016 × 1024 kg, M, , Example 3. Calculate the escape velocity for a body projected, from a point on the earth’s surface using the following data., Mass of the earth M 6.016 × 1024 kg, radius of the earth R , 6400 km, and G 6.673 × 10–11 N m2 kg–2, Solution: Escape velocity for any object from a planet is given, by:, 2GM, R, With respect to earth, ve , , veE , , 2 32 103 , 99, 1 , , 9.8 , 9.8 1 , 9.8 1 , 3 , , 100, 100 , 6400 10 , , , , Mass of the earth, M , , GM, R2, , 2 6.673 10 11 6.016 10 24, 6400 103, , veE = 11.2 km s–2, , g 9.70 ms –2, , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , The value of acceleration due to gravity (g) on earth’s, surface is:, a. 6.67 10 11 Nm 2 kg 2, b. 8.9 m / s 2, c. 9.8 m / s 2, , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , it has fallen 20 m is: [Take g 10 ms, a. 5 ms, , d. None of these, , The acceleration due to gravity:, a. has the same value everywhere in space, b. has the same value everywhere on the earth, c. varies with the latitude on the earth, d. is greater on the moon because it has smaller diameter, When a space ship is at a distance of two earths radius from, the centre of the earth, the gravitational acceleration is:, a. 19.6 ms2, b. 9.8 ms2, c. 4.9 ms2, d. 2.45 ms–2, If the planet existed whose mass and radius were both, half of the earth, the acceleration due to gravity at the, surface would be:, a. 19.6 m / s 2 b. 9.8 m / s 2 c. 4.9 ms 1 d. 2.45 m / s 2, , A stone is dropped from the top a tower. Its velocity after, 1, , c. 15 ms, , 1, , 2, , b. 10 ms, , ], 1, , d. 20 ms, , 1, , 6., , A ball is thrown vertically upwards. The acceleration due, to gravity:, a. is the direction opposite to the direction of its motion, b. is in the same direction as the direction of its motion, c. increases as it comes down, d. become zero at the higher point., , 7., , The acceleration due to gravity on the moon’s surface is:, a. approximately equal to that near the earth’s surface, b. approximately six times that near the earth’s surface, c. approximately one-sixth of that near the earth’s surface, d. slightly greater than that near the earth’s surface
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II.B.38, , 8., , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , The force acting on a ball due to earth has a magnitude, Fb and that acting on the earth due to the ball has a, magnitude Fe Then:, a. Fb Fe, , 9., , b. Fb Fe, , c. Fb Fe, , d. Fe 0, , Force of gravitation between two bodies of mass 1 kg, each kept at a distance of 1 m is:, a. 6.67 N, b. 6.67 10 9 N, c. 6.67 10 11 N, , d. 6.67 10 7 N, , 10. The force of gravitation between the bodies does not, depend on:, a. their separation, b. the product of their masses, c. the sum of their masses, d. the gravitational constant, 11. The ratio of the value of g on the surface of moon to that, on the earth’s surface is:, 1, 1, a. 6, b. 6, c., d., 6, 6, 12. Order of magnitude of G in S.I. unit is :, 11, , 7, , 11, , a. 10, , b. 10, , 7, , c. 10, , d. 10, , 2, , 2, , 2, , b. m/ s, , c. s / m, , d. m / s, , 14. If the distance between two masses be doubled then the, force between them will become:, 1, 1, a. times, b. 4 times, c. times, d. 2 times, 4, 2, 15. The type of force which exists between charged bodies is, a. only gravitational, b. neither gravitational nor electrical, c. only electrical, d. both electrical and gravitational, , 2, , b. 4.9 m/ s, , 2, , c. 9.8 m/ s, , 22. The mass of body is measured to be 12 kg on the earth. Its, mass on moon will be:, a. 12 kg, b. 6 kg, c. 2 kg, d. 72 kg, 23. A heavy stone falls:, a. faster than a light stone, b. slower than a light stone, c. with same acceleration as light stone, d. None of these, , 25. A ball is thrown up and attains a maximum height of 19.6, m. Its initial speed was:, a. 9.8 ms-1, b. 44.3 ms-1, -1, c. 19.6 ms, d. 98 ms-1, 26. The value of g at pole is:, a. greater than the value at the equator, b. less than the value at the equator, c. equal to the value of the equator, d. None of these, , c. a A a B, , 17. A particle is taken to a height R above the earth’s surface,, where R is the radius of the earth. The acceleration due to, gravity there is:, 2, , 21. Weight of an object depends on:, a. temperature of the place b. atmosphere of the place, c. mass of an object, d. none of these, , 27. Two bodies A and B of mass 500 g and 200 g respectively, are dropped near the earth’s surface. Let the acceleration, of A and B be aA and aB respectively, then:, a. a A a B, b. a A a B, , 16. The acceleration due to gravity is 9.8 m/s²:, a. Much above the earth’s surface, b. Near the earth’s surface, c. Deep inside the earth, d. At the centre of the earth, , a. 2.45 m/ s, , 20. The weight of an object is:, a. the quantity of matter it contains, b. refers to its inertia, c. same as its mass but is expressed in different units, d. the force with which it is attracted towards the earth, , 24. A stone is dropped from the roof of a building takes 4s to, reach ground. The height of the building is:, a. 19.6 m, b. 39.2 m, c. 156.8 m d. 78.4 m, , 13. The S.I. unit of g is:, a. m / s, , 19. Mass of an object is:, a. amount of matter present in the object, b. same as weight of an object, c. measure of gravitational pull, d. None of these, , 2, , d. 19.6 m/ s, , 18. When a body is thrown up, the force of gravity is:, a. in upward direction, b. in downward direction, c. zero, d. in horizontal direction, , d. a A aB, , 28. A body is thrown up with a velocity of 20 m/s. The, maximum height attained by it is approximately:, a. 80 m, b. 60 m, c. 40 m, d. 20 m, 29. The weight of a body is 120 N on the earth. If it is taken, to the moon, its weight will be about:, a. 120 N, b. 60 N, c. 20 N, d. 720 N
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Gravitation, , II.B.39, , 30. Two iron and wooden balls identical in size are released, from the same height in vacuum. The time taken by them, to reach the ground are:, a. not equal, b. exactly equal, c. regularly equal, d. zero, 31. The orbit of a geostationary satellite is called as parking, orbit. The tidal waves in the sea are primarily due to, a. The gravitational effect of the moon on the earth, b. The gravitational effect of the sun on the earth, c. The gravitational effect of venus on the earth, d. The atmospheric effect of the earth itself, 32. A satellite of the earth is revolving in a circular orbit with, a uniform speed v. If the gravitational force suddenly, disappears, the satellite will, a. continue to move with velocity v along the original orbit, b. Mmove with a velocity v, tangentially to the original, orbit, c. fall down with increasing velocity, d. ultimately come to rest somewhere on the original orbit, 33. The atmosphere is held to the earth by, a. Winds, b. Gravity, c. Clouds, d. None of these, 34. The weight of a body at the centre of the earth is:, a. Zero, b. Infinite, c. Same as on the surface of earth, d. None of the above, 35. If the distance between two masses is doubled, the, gravitational attraction between them, a. is doubled, b. becomes four times, c. is reduced to half, d. is reduced to a quarter, 36. The gravitational force between two stones of mass 1 kg, each separated by a distance of 1 metre in vacuum is:, a. Zero, b. 6.675 10 5 newton, c. 6.675 10 11 newton, , d. 6.675 10 8 newton, , 37. Gravitational mass is proportional to gravitational, a. Field, b. Force, c. Intensity, d. All of these, 38. The gravitational force between two point masses m1 and m2, mm, at separation r is given by F k 1 2 2 ; The constant k, r, a. Depends on system of units only, b. Depends on medium between masses only, c. Depends on both a. and b., d. Is independent of both a. and b., , 39. Reason of weightlessness in a satellite is:, a. Zero gravity, b. Centre of mass, c. Zero reaction force by satellite surface, d. None, 40. The force of gravitation is:, a. Repulsive, c. Conservative, , b. Electrostatic, d. Non-conservative, , 41. Weightlessness experienced while orbiting the earth in, space-ship, is the result of, a. Inertia, b. Acceleration, c. Zero gravity, d. Free fall towards earth, 42. An iron ball and a wooden ball of the same radius are, released from a height ‘h’ in vacuum. The time taken by, both of them to reach the ground is:, a. Unequal, b. Exactly equal, c. Roughly equal, d. Zero, 43. The correct answer to above question is based on, a. Acceleration due to gravity in vacuum is same, irrespective of size and mass of the body, b. Acceleration due to gravity in vacuum depends on the, mass of the body, c. There is no acceleration due to gravity in vacuum, d. In vacuum there is resistance offered to the motion of the, body and this resistance depends on the mass of the body, 44. When a body is taken from the equator to the poles, its, weight, a. Remains constant, b. Increases, c. Decreases, d. Increases at N-pole and decreases at S-pole, 45. A body of mass m is taken to the bottom of a deep mine., Then, a. Its mass increases, b. Its mass decreases, c. Its weight increases, d. Its weight decreases, 46. If the earth stops rotating, the value of ‘g’ at the equator, will, a. Increase, b. Remain same, c. Decrease, d. None of the above, 47. Spot the wrong statement:, The acceleration due to gravity ‘g’ decreases if, a. We go down from the surface of the earth towards its, centre, b. We go up from the surface of the earth, c. We go from the equator towards the poles on the, surface of the earth, d. The rotational velocity of the earth is increased
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II.B.40, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 48. Which of the following statements is true?, a. g is less at the earth's surface than at a height above it, or a depth below it, b. g is same at all places on the surface of the earth, c. g has its maximum value at the equator, d. g is greater at the poles than at the equator, 49. A spring balance is graduated on sea level. If a body is, weighed with this balance at consecutively increasing, heights from earth's surface, the weight indicated by the, balance, a. Will go on increasing continuously, b. Will go on decreasing continuously, c. Will remain same, d. Will first increase and then decrease, 50. The acceleration due to gravity at pole and equator can be, related as, a. g p ge, , b. g p ge g, , c. g p ge g, , d. g p ge, , g 4 R3 , , , G 3 , , b. D , , g 4, , c. D R 2 , G 3, , , d. D , , 53. The two planets have radii r1 and r2 and densities d1 and, , d 2 respectively. The ratio of accelerations due to gravity, on them will be:, a. r1d 2 : r2 d1, 2, , g /G, 4, , R, 3, , , g /G, 4 3, R, 3, , b. r1d1 : r2 d 2, , 2, , 2, , c. r1 d1 : r2 d2, , a. F r, , 6, , b. F r, , 2, , d. F 1/ r, , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , c, , c, , d, , a, , d, , a, , c, , a, , c, , c, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , c, , a, , b, , a, , d, , b, , a, , b, , a, , d, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , c, , a, , c, , d, , c, , a, , a, , d, , c, , b, , 31., , 32., , 33., , 34., , 35., , 36., , 37., , 38., , 39., , 40., , a, , b, , b, , a, , d, , c, , d, , a, , c, , c, , 41., , 42., , 43., , 44., , 45., , 46., , 47., , 48., , 49., , 50., , d, , b, , a, , b, , d, , a, , c, , d, , b, , d, , 51., , 52., , 53., , 54., , 55., , b, , c, , b, , b, , c, , SOLUTIONS, 3., , (d) h Re g h , , g, , h , 1 , R, e , , , 2, , , , g, 4, , 4, 2, , 55. There are two bodies of masses 100 kg and 10000 kg, separated by a distance 1 m. At what distance form the, smaller body, the intensity of gravitational field will be, zero?, 1, 1, a. m, b., m, 9, 10, 1, 10, c., d., m, m, 11, 11, , ANSWERS, 1., , 2, , d. rd, 1 1 : r2d2, , 54. Two metal spheres of equal radius r are touching each, other. The force of attraction F between them is:, c. F r, , 51. If G is gravitational constant and R is the radius of the, earth, then acceleration due to gravity ‘g’ and the mean, density of earth D are related by the equation, a. D , , 52. A balloon filled with CO2 released on earth would, (neglect viscosity of air), a. climb with an acceleration 9.8 ms/2, b. fall with an acceleration 9.8 m/s2, c. fall with a constant acceleration 3.4 m/s2, d. fall with acceleration and then would attain a constant, velocity, , 4., , (a) g , , M, , GM, G, g ' 2 2g, 2, 2, R, R, , 2, , 9., , (c) F G, , 14. (a) F , , m1m2, R2, , 1, r2, , 17. (a) g h , , g, 2, , , h, 1 , Re , 1, 24. (d) S ut at 2, 2, u 0, a g 9 8m / sec 2, , , 1, S 9 8 42, 2, , 78.4 m
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Gravitation, , II.B.41, , 25. (c) u 2gh, , 52. (c) If B is upthrust of air on balloon, and a is downward, , u2, 28. (d) h , 2g, , , , acceleration, then Mbg B Ma, , a, , 1, 29. (c) Wm We, 6, 32. (b) Due to inertia of direction., 1, 35. (d) F 2 ., r, , If r becomes double then F reduces to, 36. (c) F G, 6.675 , , , air, CO, 2, , 11, 10 11, 12, , 6.675 1011 N, 38. (a) k represents gravitational constant which depends only, on the system of units., , 44., 45., 47., 49., , , , , , , g Rd, , , , g1 r1d1, , g 2 r2 d 2, , 54. (b) Newton's law of gravitation F , , holds when, , r, , r, , 2r, , 4, 4, , G r 3 r 3 , Gm1m2, 3, 3, , , r4, In this cases F , , r, r2, , 55. (c), , GM, R2, , 4, , G R3 D , 3, , , g, R2, g, D, 4, , , G R, 3, , , 1, r2, , objects are far apart., , 2h, ., g, , In vacuum no other force works except gravity so time, period will be exactly equal., (b) Because acceleration due to gravity increases., (d) Because acceleration due to gravity decreases., (c) Value of g decreases when we go from poles to, equator., (b) Because value of g decreases with increasing height., , 51. (b) g , , , 28.8 , , 2, 2, g g , 8.9 m/s 3.4 m/s, , 44, , , , , 4, , G R 3d , GM, 3, , 4 GRd, 53. (b) g 2 , 3, R, R2, , F, 4, , m1m2, r2, , 42. (b) Time of decent t , , V g, Mg B, g air, M, V CO2, , GM1, GM 2, , 2, 2, x, 1 x , , 2, , Planet, r2, , P, , r1, , , , 100 10,000, 1, x2, , , 2 or, 2, x, 100 1 x 2, 1 x , , , , 1, x2, 1, , x m, 10 1 x, 11, , , , 1
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II.B.42, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 6, We've all tried the swing. You can spend most of the time, sitting or if you are the older one, you will spend a lot of time, swinging your brother or sister. A swing can be considered a, simple harmonic motion if the swinging is constant. You swing, forward with the same distance as you swing backward. If you, will push the swing harder, your brother will be swung further., This follows the condition that the force must be directly, proportional to the displacement. The circus trapeze is just like, a swing but it is more dangerous and fantastic. Instead of a, seat, a trapeze has a small metal rod where the circus, performers hang on or sit on several feet in the air., You may realise that simple harmonic motion actually can be, seen everywhere in our daily life. However, what are the exact, applications of this special motion, which is periodic and has a, driving force whose magnitude is proportional to the, displacement?, How do movie sound directors make a hallway seem long and, empty? They add sound effects, such as the distant echo is, footsteps. Sound directors know how a sound changes in, different surrounding. They can change sound of the footsteps, so that they seem to be on wooden flour or on concrete stairs., You might go to your school auditorium to hear a speaker,, watch a play, or listen to a concert by the school chorus or a, band. If you can hear most of the sounds hear from the stage in, any location the auditorium has good acoustics. Acoustics, engineers design concert halls, theatres, and recording studios, to control sound waves. Reflected sound waves can add, richness to sound. Reflected sound waves in a room make, sound lively by making them last a little longer. To be heard, speech sound should be reflected about 0.5 second in a small, auditorium. The sound of music should be reflected one to two, second in a concert hall., Note, How does sound get from its source to your ears? What do the, twang of a guitar and the boom of a bass drum have in, common?, , They are sounds. All sounds have a source. In a guitar, the, sound comes from a plucked string. In a drum, the sounds, comes from vibration of the drumhead. Recall that sound is, , Sound Waves, form of energy, and it travels in waves. While some forms of, energy can through a vacuum, sound waves only move through, matter. Sound travels through solids, liquid, and gases., Simple Harmonic Oscillations, Necessary and sufficient condition of linear S.H.M. is, , , a y displacement, or, force, acceleration, , , , F y displacement., , , , a 2 y, , Standard equation of linear S.H.M. is, , or, , d2y, 2 y 0, 2, dt, Solution of acceleration (II order differential equation), , representing displacement is y Asin t , Velocity: Differentiation of displacement with time, , v A cos t , , , A, , 2, , y2 , , max 2 A at mean position, , When, y , , A, , V 0.86 max, 2, , , , Acceleration a 2 y, , a max 2 A at extreme position., , In SHM, the phase relationship between the displacement y,, velocity (v) and acceleration (Aa) is as follows:, Displacement, y, , Acceleration, , Velocity, , t, , y, , t, , y, , Figure: 6.1, , Leads y by, , , 2, , a lags behind the v by, , , 2, , ;, , a differs in phase with y by , 1, 1, Kinetic energy, Ek m 2 m 2 ( A2 y 2 ), 2, 2, , 1, 2, , 1, 2, , Potential energy U Ky m y, 2, , 2 2, , t
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Sound Waves, , II.B.43, , (Where spring constant K m 2 ) If particle has energy, , U 0 in, , equilibrium, , position,, , then, , potential, , energy, , 1, U U0 m 2 y 2, 2, , M, Mass per unit length and M r 2 Ld, L, , Equation of plane progressive wave:, , Energy, , y A sin t kx , t x , A sin 2 , T , , Total energy, KE, , y A sin t kx , t x , A sin 2 , T , , PE, –A, , Where, m , , +A, , displacement, Figure 6.2, , 1, 1, Total energy, E Ek U m 2 A2 KA2 or, 2, 2, For transverse wave propagation medium must be rigid. Air, has no rigidity; therefore sound waves in air are, longitudinal. In longitudinal waves pressure and density, vary., , wave propagating along positive, x-axis, wave propagating along negative, x-axis, , Echo: An echo can be cited as an example of reflection of, sound from a distant object such as hill or cliff. It is basically a, sound of short duration reflected back to the observer 0.1 sec or, more after the production of original sound., If there is a sound reflector at a distance d form the source,, the time interval between original sound and its echo at the, , site of source will be: t , , d d 2d, , v v v, , Now as persistence of ear is (1/10) sec, echo of a sharp or, momentary sound will be heard if:, , Transverse, wave, , Wavelength, Compression, , Longitudinal wave, , t, , If a person standing between two parallel hills fires a gun, and hears the first echo after t1 sec, the second echo after, , Expansion, , t2 sec, and v is the velocity of sound, then the distance, , Wavelength, , between the two hills is given by:, , Figure: 6.3, , Speed of longitudinal wave , , 1, 2d 1, v, , or, i.e., d , v 10, 10, 20, , s1 s2 , , E, d, , vt1 vt2 v t1 t2 , , , , 2, 2 , 2, , , In solids , , E, d, , A man standing in front of a mountain at a certain distance, beats a drum at regular intervals. The drumming rate is, gradually increased and he finds that the echo is not heard, when the rate becomes n1 per minute. He then moves, , In liquids v , , K, d, , nearer to the mountain by x metre and finds that the echo is, again not heard when the drumming rate becomes n2 per, , where E elasticity and d density of medium, , In gases v , , P, , , , RT, , d, M, Pressure has no effect on velocity of sound waves. Velocity, of sound in a gas increases with increase of temperature i.e.,, , v T , Velocity of sound decreases with increase, , n n , nx, xt, x 2 1 d or d 2 1, n2 n1 t1 t2, n2 , , v t1 t2 , 2, If a motor car approaching a cliff with a velocity u m/s, sounds the horn and the echo is heard after t sec, then the, distance between the cliff and the point where the horn is, Where, x , , 1, molecular weight v , M, Velocity of transverse wave in a string v , , of, , minute. Then, the distance between the mountain and the, initial position is given by the equations:, , T, T, , m, r 2d
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II.B.44, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , vu , sounded is given by: s , t ( v velocity of sound), 2 , The distance between the cliff and the point where the echo, v u , is heard is given by: s1 , t, 2 , A road runs midway between two parallel rows of building., If a motorist moving with a speed u m/s sound the horn and, hears the echo after t sec, then the distance between the two, , rows of building is d v 2 u 2 t where, v is the velocity, , , of sound., A road runs parallel to a long line of smooth cliffs. If a, motorist moving with speed u m/s sounds the horn and, hears the echo after t sec, then the distance between the, t, road and the cliffs is given by d v 2 u 2 where, v is, , 2, the velocity of sound., Beats: Number of beats/sec n1 n2, , Note, The prongs of a tuning fork always vibrate in opposite, phase., When the prongs of a tuning fork are loaded, the frequency, of fork decreases and when they are filed, the frequency of, fork increases., The frequency of fork increases with increase of thickness, and decreases with increase of length., Pendulum in an accelerated vehicle: The time period of, simple pendulum whose point of suspension moving, horizontally with acceleration a., , In this case effective acceleration geff . g2 a2, , T 2, , l, 1 a , and tan , 2 1/ 2, (g a ), g, 2, , a, , geff., , , g, , g, , If simple pendulum suspended in a car that is moving with, constant speed v around a circle of radius r., , v 2 2 g cos cos0 , String tension Ttension mg 3cos 2cos0 , Second pendulum has time period = 2 second length nearly, 1 m (on earth). If length of pendulum is sufficient,, , , , , R, T 2 , , g 1 R , , l , , If l , T 2, , , , Figure: 6.5, , Simple pendulum (For compound pendulum), T 2, , , , a, , In beats two sources are coherent but of slightly different, frequencies. Time interval between successive maximum, 1, (or successive minima) T , n1 n2, , T 2, , l, v2 , g2 , r , , 2, , Elastic (spring) force F kx applied to mass m, , T, , 2, , 0, , 2, , m, k, , S, , 1, Ep k x2, 2, 1, E k A2, 2, , , , When a spring of length l is cut in two pieces of length l1, and l2 such that l1 nl2 ., , R, 84.6 min, g, , T, l, , y, O, , P, , mg sin , mg mg cos , , Figure: 6.4, , m, Figure: 6.6, , If the constant of a spring is k then spring constant of first, k ( n 1), part k1 , n, Spring constant of second part k2 n 1 k and ratio of, spring constant, , k1 1, , k2 n
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Sound Waves, , II.B.45, , If second pendulum is taken at height h Re ; time, , period increase and clock, h, h, n , 86400 per day., Re, Re, , loses, , time, , given, , by, R, , If second pendulum is taken at depth h Re ; the clock, , loses time given by, , h, h, n , 864000 per day., 2 Re, 2 Re, , If length of second pendulum is increased by l, the clock, , loses time given by, , l, l, n 86400 per day., 2l, 2l, If length of second pendulum is decreased, the clock gains, , time given by, , l, l, n 86400 per day., 2l, 2l, , Note, A seconds pendulum is a pendulum whose period is, precisely 2 seconds; 1 second for a swing in one direction, and 1 second for the return swing, a frequency of 1/2 Hz. A, pendulum is a weight suspended from a pivot so that it can, swing freely., S.H.M. of a body in a tunnel dug along any chord of, , ear T 2, , R, 84.6 minutes, g, , Figure: 6.7, , Example 1. The ultrasonic waves take 4 seconds to travel, from the ship to the bottom of the sea and back to the ship., What is the depth of the sea?, (Speed of sound in water 1500 m/s.), Solution: The time taken by the ultrasonic sound waves to, travels from the ship to the sea-bed and back to the ship is 4, seconds. So, the time taken by the ultrasonic sound to travel, from the ship to sea-bed with be half of this time, which is, 4, 2 seconds. This means that the sound takes 2 seconds to, 2, travel from the ship to the bottom of the sea., , Now, Speed , , Distance, Time, , Distance, Time, and, Distance 1500 2m 3000 m, , So, 1500 , , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , A sound wave travels from east to west, in which, direction do the particles of air move?, a. East-west, b. North-south, c. Up and down, d. None of these, , 2., , In which medium sound travels faster?, a. Solid, b. Liquid, c. Gas, d. None of these, What is the name of short duration wave?, a. Pulse, b. Frequency, c. Time period, d. Velocity, , 3., , 4., , 5., , What is the velocity of sound in water at room, temperature?, a. 1500 m/s, b. 330 m/s, c. 1500 km/s, d. 330 km/s, The unit of quantity on which pitch of the sound depends, is:, a. Hertz, b. metre, c. metre/second, d. second, , 6., , The unit of quantity on which loudness of found depends is, a. metre, b. Hertz, c. metre/second, d. second, , 7., , Nature of sound wave is:, a. transverse, c. electromagnetic, , 8., 9., , b. longitudinal, d. seismic, , Pitch of high frequency sound is:, a. high, b. low, c. zero, , d. infinite, , Voice of a friend is recognised by its:, a. pitch, b. quality, c. intensity, d. velocity, , 10. Sound waves in air are:, a. Longitudinal waves, c. Transverse waves, , b. Radio waves, d. Electromagnetic waves, , 11. Sound waves can not pass through:, a. A solid liquid mixture, b. A liquid gas mixture, c. An ideal gas, d. A perfect vacuum
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II.B.46, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 12. A periodic wave is characterised by :, a. Phase only, b. Wavelength only, c. Frequency only, d. All the above, , 24, , 13. The spend of sound is maximum in:, a. Air, b. Hydrogen c. Water, , 25. A sonar echo takes 4.4s to return from a submarine. If the, speed of sound in water is 1500 ms-1, then the distance of, submarine from the sonar is:, a. 1500 m, b. 3000 m, c. 3300 m, d. 3600 m, , d. Iron, , 14. When wound waves travelling in air enter into the, medium of water, the quantity which remains unchanged, is:, a. Wavelength b. Velocity c. Frequency d. None, 15. For the echo of the last syllable of the speech to be heard, the least distance of the reflector must be (approximately):, a. 22 metre, b. 32 metre, c. 110 metre, d. 340 metre, 16. During summer, an echo is head:, a. Sooner than during winter, b. Later than during winter, c. After same time as in winter, d. Rarely, 17. The velocity of sound in air at 30C is approximately:, a. 332 ms 1, , b. 350 ms 1, , c. 530 ms 1, , d. 332 ms 1, , 18. With the rise of temperature, the velocity of sound:, a. decreases, b. increases, c. remains the same, d. is independent of temperature, 19. Infrasonic frequency range is:, a. Below 20 Hz, b. 20 Hz to 20 kHz, c. Above 20 kHz, d. No limit, 20. Ultrasonic frequency range is:, a. Below 20 Hz, b. 20 Hz to 20 kHz, c. Above 20 kHz, d. No limit, 21. The speed of sound in air at constant temperature:, a. Decreases with increases of pressure, b. Increases with increases of pressure, c. Remains the same with the increase in pressure, d. None of these, 22. The frequency of sound waves in water is:, a. Same at that of frequency of source, b. Less than frequency fo source, c. More than frequency of source, d. None, 23. The equipment (device) used for locating the position and, distance of an inside sea, using ultrasound is called:, a. Pukar, b. Upkar, c. Radar, d. Sonar, , Human ear can hear:, a. audible sound, c. ultra sound, , 26. The eardrum is a:, a. bone, c. stretched membrane, , b. infra sound, d. all the above, , b. coiled tube, d. fluid, , 27. The part of the ear, that is filled with a liquid is the:, a. cochlea, b. ear canal c. anril, d. hammer, 28. A fishing boat using sonar detects a shoal of fish 190 m, below it. How much time elapsed between sending the, ultrasonic signal which detected the fish and receiving the, signal’s echo ?, (speed of sound in sea water is 1519 ms-1) :, a. 0.25 s, b. 0.50 s, c. 0.75 s, d. 1.0 s, 29. A particle is moving with constant angular velocity along, the circumference of a circle. Which of the following, statements is true?, a. The particle so moving executes S.H.M., b. The projection of the particle on any one of the, diameters executes S.H.M., c. The projection of the particle on any of the diameters, executes S.H.M., d. None of the above, 30. Which one of the following is a simple harmonic motion?, a. Wave moving through a string fixed at both ends, b. Earth spinning about its own axis, c. Ball bouncing between two rigid vertical walls, d. Particle moving in a circle with uniform speed, 31. A particle is moving in a circle with uniform speed. Its, motion is, a. Periodic and simple harmonic, b. Periodic but not simple harmonic, c. A periodic, d. None of the above, 32. A system exhibiting S.H.M. must possess, a. Inertia only, b. Elasticity as well as inertia, c. Elasticity, inertia and an external force, d. Elasticity only, 33. Which of the following is a necessary and sufficient, condition for S.H.M.
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Sound Waves, , a. Constant period, b. Constant acceleration, c. Proportionality between acceleration and displacement, from equilibrium position, d. Proportionality between restoring force and, displacement from equilibrium position, 34. If a hole is bored along the diameter of the earth and a, stone is dropped into hole, a. The stone reaches the centre of the earth and stops there, b. The stone reaches the other side of the earth and stops, there, c. The stone executes simple harmonic motion about the, centre of the earth, d. The stone reaches the other side of the earth and, escapes into space, 35. The acceleration of a particle in S.H.M. is, a. Always zero, b. Always constant, c. Maximum at the extreme position, d. Maximum at the equilibrium position, 36. For a particle executing simple harmonic motion, which, of the following statements is not correct?, a. The total energy of the particle always remains the same, b. The restoring force of always directed towards a fixed point, c. The restoring force is maximum at the extreme positions, d. The acceleration of the particle is maximum at the, equilibrium position, 37. In S.H.M. maximum acceleration is at, a. Amplitude, b. Equilibrium, c. Acceleration is constant d. None of these, 38. Acceleration of a particle, executing SHM, at it’s mean, position is:, a. Infinity, b. Varies, c. Maximum d. Zero, 39. Which one of the following statements is true for the, speed v and the acceleration a of a particle executing, simple harmonic motion, a. When v is maximum, a is maximum, b. Value of a is zero, whatever may be the value of v, c. When v is zero, a is zero, d. When v is maximum, a is zero, 40. The total energy of a particle executing S.H.M. is, proportional to, a. Displacement from equilibrium position, b. Frequency of oscillation, c. Velocity in equilibrium position, d. Square of amplitude of motion, , II.B.47, , 41. A particle executes simple harmonic motion along a, straight line with an amplitude A. The potential energy is, maximum when the displacement is:, , A, 2, , A, 2, 42. A particle of mass m is hanging vertically by an ideal, spring of force constant K. If the mass is made to oscillate, vertically, its total energy is:, a. Maximum at extreme position, b. Maximum at mean position, c. Minimum at mean position, d. Same at all position, a. A, , b. Zero, , c. , , d. , , 43. The period of a simple pendulum is doubled, when, a. Its length is doubled, b. The mass of the bob is doubled, c. Its length is made four times, d. The mass of the bob and the length of the pendulum are, doubled, 44. The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum of, constant length at earth surface is T. Its period inside a, mine is:, a. Greater than T, b. Less than T, c. Equal to T, d. Cannot be compared, 45. A simple pendulum is made of a body which is a hollow, sphere containing mercury suspended by means of a wire., If a little mercury is drained off, the period of pendulum, will, a. Remains unchanged, b. Increase, c. Decrease, d. Become erratic, 46. A pendulum suspended from the ceiling of a train has a, period T, when the train is at rest. When the train is, accelerating with a uniform acceleration a, the period of, oscillation will, a. Increase, b. Decrease, c. Remain unaffected, d. Become infinite, 47. The mass and diameter of a planet are twice those of, earth. The period of oscillation of pendulum on this planet, will be: (If it is a second's pendulum on earth), , 1, 1, sec, b. 2 2 sec c. 2 sec, d. sec, 2, 2, 48. The time period of a second's pendulum is 2 sec. The, spherical bob which is empty from inside has a mass of, 50 gm. This is now replaced by another solid bob of same, radius but having different mass of 100 gm. The new time, period will be:, a. 4 sec, b. 1 sec, c. 2 sec, d. 8 sec, a.
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.B.48, , 49. A man measures the period of, a simple pendulum inside a, stationary lift and finds it to, be T sec. If the lift accelerates, upwards with an acceleration, , Pendulum, Lift, , 54. The bob of a pendulum of length l is pulled aside from its, equilibrium position through an angle θ and then, released. The bob will then pass through its equilibrium, position with a speed v, where v equals, , g /4 , then the period of the, , a., , 2gl (1 − sinθ ), , pendulum will be:, , b., , 2gl (1+ cosθ ), , c., , 2gl (1 − cosθ ), , d., , 2gl (1 + sinθ ), , a. T, , b., , T, 4, , c., , 2T, 5, , d. 2T 5, , 50. A simple pendulum is suspended from the roof of a trolley, which moves in a horizontal direction with an, acceleration a, then the time period is given by, , T = 2π l / g′, where, g ′ is equal to:, b. g − a, , a. g, , c. g + a, , d., , g 2 + a2, , 51. If the length of second's pendulum is decreased by 2%,, how many seconds it will lose per day?, a. 3927 sec, b. 3727 sec, c. 3427 sec, d. 864 sec, 52. The period of simple pendulum is measured as T in a, stationary lift. If the lift moves upwards with an, acceleration of 5 g, the period will be:, a. The same, b. Increased by 3/5, c. Decreased by 2/3 times, d. None of the above, 53. The length of a simple pendulum is increased by 1%. Its, time period will, a. Increase by 1%, b. Increase by 0.5%, c. Decrease by 0.5%, d. Increase by 2%, , 55. A simple pendulum executing S.H.M. is falling freely, along with the support. Then, a. Its periodic time decreases, b. Its periodic time increases, c. It does not oscillate at all, d. None of these, 56. A chimpanzee swinging on a swing in a sitting position,, stands up suddenly, the time period will, a. become infinite, b. remain same, c. increase, d. decrease, 57. A plate oscillated with time period ‘T’. Suddenly, another, plate put on the first plate, then time period, a. will decrease, b. will increase, c. will be same, d. None of these, 58. A simple pendulum is taken from the equator to the pole., Its period, a. Decreases, b. Increases, c. Remains the same, d. Decreases and then increases, , ANSWERS, SOLUTIONS, 2. (a) Simple harmonic waves are set up in a string fixed at, the, two ends., , 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , c, , c, , d, , a, , d, , a, , c, , a, , c, , c, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , c, , a, , b, , a, , d, , b, , a, , b, , a, , d, , 5., , (d) F = − kx, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , 6., , (c) The stone execute S.H.M. about centre of earth with, , c, , a, , c, , d, , c, , a, , a, , d, , c, , b, , 31., , 32., , 33., , 34., , 35., , 36., , 37., , 38., , 39., , 40., , a, , b, , b, , a, , d, , c, , d, , a, , c, , c, , 41., , 42., , 43., , 44., , 45., , 46., , 47., , 48., , 49., , 50., , d, , b, , a, , b, , d, , a, , c, , d, , b, , d, , 51., , 52., , 53., , 54., , 55., , b, , c, , b, , b, , c, , time period T = 2π, , R, ; where R = Radius of earth., g, , 7., , (c) Acceleration = ω 2 a at extreme position is maximum., , 8., , (d) Acceleration ∝ − displacement, and direction of, acceleration is always directed towards the equilibrium, position.
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Sound Waves, , 9., , II.B.49, , (a) Amax 2 a, , 10. (d) A a at mean position y 0, , So, acceleration is minimum (zero)., 11. (d) In S.H.M. v a y, 2, , , , vmin 0 and amax 2 a, 12. (d) E m a, , 2 2, , 1 2 2, 13. (a) P.E. m x It is clear P.E. will be maximum when, 2, x will be maximum i.e., at x A, 14. (d) In simple harmonic motion, energy changes from, kinetic to potential and potential to kinetic but the sum of, two always remains constant., , l, g, , T l, , l, ; T increase, g, , Hence from T 2, , 17. (b) When a little mercury is drained off, the position of, c.g. of ball falls (w.r.t. fixed and) so that effective length, of pendulum increases hence T increase., 18. (b), Initially, time, period, , g, , g, , 23. (d) T l, , T 1 l 0.02 0.01 T 0.01T, , T, 2 l, 2, Loss of time per day 0.01 24 60 60 864sec, , 24. (d), , T, , T, , g, , g ' a, , g, 1, T, , T , g 5g, 6, 6, , T 1 l 1, , 1% 0.5%, T, 2 l, 2, 26. (c) If suppose bob rises up to a height h as shown then, after releasing potential energy at extreme position, becomes kinetic energy of mean position., 1 2, mgh mvmax, 2, h=l (1 – cos ), , vmax 2gh, , , , l, , l, , Also, from figure, , cos , , ( g 2 a2 ) which is greater than g., , a, geff, , 2, , R, g earth, M, e 2, g planet M p Re, , T, 1, Also T , e , Tp, g, , , gp, , ge 2, , gp 1, , 2, , , ge, Tp, , 1, 2, , Tp 2 2 sec., , l h, l, , h, , h l (1 cos ), g, , So, vmax 2 gl (1 cos ), , Hence, new time period, becomes less than the initial time, period., GM, 19. (b) As we know g 2, R, , 20. (c) T 2, , a, , 2T, 5, , 2, 2, 22. (d) g g a, , l, ., g, , When train accelerates, the effective, value, of, g, becomes, , , , a, , g, g, 4, , , g, 5, ga, , g , 4, , , 25. (b) T l , , 16. (a) Inside the mine g decreases,, , was T 2, , T, , T, , T , , E a2, , 15. (c) T 2, , l, ( a Acceleration of lift), ( g a), , T 2, , 2, , and a 2 y when y a, , 1, 2, , l, . In upward moving lift, g, , 21. (c) In stationary lift T 2, , 2, , 27. (c) T 2 l ; for freely falling system effective g 0, g, , So, T or n = 0 It means that pendulum does not oscillate, at all., 28. (d) After standing centre of mass of the oscillating body, will shift upward therefore effective length will decrease, and by T l , time period will decrease., 29. (c) Time period is independent of mass of pendulum., 30. (a) As we go from equator to pole the value of g, increases. Therefore time period of simple pendulum, , , , 1 , 1 , T , decreases. T , , g, g , , , , l, (Independent of mass), g,
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II.B.50, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 7, , Fluid Mechanics, , How many times in the past week have you made two things, stick together? Maybe you pasted together some cardboard or, sealed in envelope. Or possibly you stuck a sticker somewhere, or fixed something with glue. Substance that make things stick,, called adhesives, are important in our daily lives., , brakes by applying a pushing force to the brake pedal. The, , Most matter can conveniently be described as being in one of, three phase – solid, liquid, or gas. Solids and liquids (also, called condensed matter) have a certain set of properties in, common; for example, they are relatively incompressible, and, their densities stay relatively constant as we vary the, temperature (keeping other properties, such as pressure,, constant). Gases, on the other hand, are easily compressible,, and their density changes substantially with temperature if we, hold the pressure constant. Most substances are slightly sticky, because the molecules that make them up are attracted to other, molecules. This attraction occurs in part because the electric, charges in many molecules are not evenly distributed, throughout the molecule. Certain atoms hold shared electrons, more tightly than the atoms to which they are bonded. As a, result, some parts of the molecules are slightly positive, and, some parts are slightly negative., , into the brake line. The high-pressure fluid them moves evenly, , The negative parts of one molecule attract the positive parts of, other molecules, and the positive parts attract other molecules’, negative parts. Each attraction is relatively weak, but they, combine to create a stickiness., Usually you don’t notice this stickiness, called intermolecular, attraction, because most surface aren’t really flat or clean at a, microscopic level. Surface roughness prevent most molecules, in the two surface from coming close enough to be attracted., That’s why an adhesive, such as glue, come in handy., , brake pedal moves a metal rod attaches to a piston. A piston is, a “plug” that can slide snugly inside a cylinder, or tube. As the, piston slides into the master cylinder, it presses on the fluid, inside. Under pressure, the fluid exits the cylinder and flows, throughout the system., The brake line connects the master cylinder to a smaller, cylinder near the hub of each wheel. Pressurised fluid from the, brake line enters each wheel cylinder through a small opening., Within each cylinder, the high pressure fluid pushes against, the pistons. The pistons move forcefully out of the cylinders,, pushing a brake pad against the spinning car wheel. The, friction between the brake pad and the wheel slows the car, down., Density, Pressure and Flotation, mass, M, Density , , volume V, , Relative density specific gravity , Relative density , , density of body, density of water, , weight of body in air, W air, , up thrust of water, Wair W water, , With rise of temperature, density of liquid decrease, so up, thrust decreases., Relative density of liquid, W Wliquid, fraction of solid immersed in water, , air, fraction of same solid immersed in liquid Wair Wwater, , Glue can flow into the microscopic valleys of a surface,, coming in contact with all the surface molecules. The, molecules in the glue are attracted to the surface, molecules, causing them to stick together. The same thing, occurs when another surface is pressed onto the glue. As long, the glue holds itself together, the two surface will stick, together., Note, A car’s braking system uses fluid pressure to allow a driver to, , stop a moving car with just one foot! The driver puts on the, , Sinker in air Wair, , Sinker in water Wwater, Figure: 7.1, , Sinker in liquid Wliquid
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Fluid Mechanics, , II.B.51, , Note: Upthrust on a solid body within liquid Vin l g where, , l density of liquid Vin volume inside liquid., When ice floating in water in a beaker melts, there is no, change in level of water., If ice containing metal floating in water melts completely,, level of water falls., If ice containing cork floating in water metals, there is no, change in level., , Gauge pressure: The difference of hydrostatic pressure and, atmospheric pressure is called the gauge pressure., i.e., P P0 h g, p, , p0 > ptm, , density , , 1V1 2V2, 1 2, , Pressure: The normal force exerted by liquid at rest on a given, surface in contact with it is called thrust of liquid on that, surface. The normal force (or thrust) exerted by liquid at rest, per unit area of the surface in contact with it, is called pressure, of liquid or hydrostatic pressure., Force F, Pressure P , Pressure is a scalar quantity., , Area A, If F be the normal force acting on a surface of area A in, contact with liquid, then pressure exerted by liquid on this, F, surface is P , A, , B, , It is independent of shape of vessel in which liquid is filled., When g varies barometric height remains unchanged., , Figure: 7.3, , For floating equilibrium, Weight of body weight of liquid displaced., Apparent weight of a floating body is a always zero., The condition of equilibrium for a floating body can be, expressed in terms of Meta centre (M) and the centre of, gravity of body (GM) height as follows:, GM > 0 M is above G, Stable equilibrium, , 2, , 2, Dimension: [ P ] [ F ] [ MLT2 ] [ ML 1T 2 ], , [ A], , [L ], , units of pressure are atmosphere, bar and tor (mm of Hg)., 1atm 1.01 10 5 Pa 1.01bar 760 torr, , The atmospheric pressure is maximum at the surface of, earth and goes on decreasing as we move up into the earth's, atmosphere., Hydrostatic pressure at a depth h below the surface of a, liquid P P0 hdg where P0 atmospheric pressure, , Q, , Figure: 7.2, , Units: N / m or Pascal (S.I.) and Dyne/cm2 (C.G.S.), , At a point pressure acts in all directions and a definite, direction is not associated with it. So, pressure is a tensor, quantity., Atmospheric pressure: The gaseous envelope surrounding, the earth is called the earth's atmosphere and the pressure, exerted by the atmosphere is called atmospheric pressure., Its value on the surface of the earth at sea level is, nearly 1.013 10 5 N / m 2 or Pascal in S.I., other practical, , x, , P, , m1 m2, ( m1 / 1 ) (m2 / 2 ), , If volume V1 and V2 of density 1 and 2 are mixed, then, , p0, , A, , Density of mixture: If masses m1 and m2 and densities 1 and, , 2 are mixed, then density of mixture d , , ptm, , y, , GM 0, , M coinciding with G, , Neutral equilibrium, , GM < 0, , M is below G, , Unstable equilibrium, , Note, When a body is immersed in water the loss of weight of, body is equal to upthrust and it is also equal to gain of, weight of liquid + beaker, so that total weight of (body +, liquid + beaker) remains unchanged., Example 1. The relative density of silver is 10.5. The density, of water is 103 kg/m3. What is the density of silver in S.I. unit?, Solution: Density of water d w 10 3 kg / m 3, , Relative density (R.D.) of silver 10.5, Density of silver dAg ?, , , , R.D. , , , , 10.5 , , density of silver, density of water, d Ag, 10, , 3, , d Ag 10.5103 kg / m3
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II.B.52, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , Pressure varies with force as:, 1, 2, a. F, b., c. F, F, , d., , 1, F2, , 5, 2, a. 1.0110 Nm, , b. 1.01105 Nm2, , 7, 2, c. 1.0110 Nm, , 7, 2, d. 1.0110 Nm, , 2., , Pressure exerted by a sharp needle on a surface is:, a. more than the pressure exerted by blunt needle, b. less than the pressure exerted by a blunt needle, c. equal to the pressure exerted by a blunt needle, d. none of these, , 15. A piece of wood is held under water. The upthrust on it is, a. equal to the weight of the wood, b. less than the weight of the wood, c. more than the weight of wood, d. zero, , 3., , If a force of 10N acts on two surfaces (area in the ratio 1 :, 2), then the ratio of thrusts will be:, a. 1 : 2, b. 2 : 1, c. 3 : 1, d. 1 : 1, , 4., , The height of mercury which exerts the same pressure as, 20 cm of water column, is equal to:, a. 1.48 cm, b. 14.8 cm, c. 148 cm, d. None of these, , 16. Archimedes principle states that when a body is totally or, partially immersed in a fluid the upthrust is equal to:, a. the weight of the fluid displaced, b. the weight of the body., c. volume of the fluid displaced, d. volume of the body., , 5., , Pressure varies with area (A) as:, 1, a. A, b., c. A 2, A, , d., , 1, A2, , 6., , A force of 50 N is applied on a nail of area 0.001 s cm., Then the thrust is:, a. 50 N, b. 100 N, c. 0.05 N, d. 10 N, , 7., , The S.I. unit of pressure is:, a. atmosphere, c. Pascal, , b. dyne/cm², d. mm of Hg, , 8., , The pressure exerted by a liquid at depth h is given by:, h, a. h, b. hdg, c., d. hg, d, dg, , 9., , The S.I. unit of thrust:, a. N, b. dyne, , c. Nm², , 10. Pressure cannot be measured in:, a. Nm-2, b. bar, c. Pa, , d. Nm-2, d. kg wt., , 11. The total force exerted by the body perpendicular to the, surface is called:, a. pressure, b. thrust, c. impulse, d. None of these, 12. Pressure is a :, a. scalar quantity, c. vector quantity, , b. normal force, d. none of these, , 2, , 13. 1 N / m equals:, a. 1 Pa, , b. 0.1 Pa, , c. 0.01 Pa, , d. 10 Pa, , 14. The atmosphere exerts a pressure of P on the surface of, earth, then P equal, , 17. S.I. unit of density is:, a. kgm–2, b. kgm–3, , c. m2 kg–1, , 18. Unit of relative density is:, a. kgm–3, c. g litre–1, , b. gcm–3, d. It does not have a unit, , d. N kg–1, , 19. Relative density of a solid is 0.6. It floats in water with:, a. whole of its volume inside water, b. 60% volume inside water, c. 60% volume outside water, d. 40% volume inside water., 20. Buoyant force acting on a body due to different fluids is:, a. same, b. different, c. zero, d. None of these, 21. The relative density of silver is 10.5, if the density of, water is 1000 kgm–3, then density of silver will be:, a. 10.5 kgm–3, b. 1050 kgm–3, –3, c. 10.5 kgm, d. 10.500 kgm–3, 22. A body floats with, , 1, rd of its volume outside water and, 3, , 3, th of its volume outside liquid, then the density of, 4, liquid is:, 3, 8, a. g / cm 3, b. g / cm 3, 8, 3, 9, 4, c. g / cm 3, d. g / cm 3, 4, 9, 23. A boat full of iron nail is floating on water in a lake., When the iron nails are removed, the water level:, a. rises, b. remains same, c. fails, d. nothing can be said
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Fluid Mechanics, , II.B.53, Q, 10 cm, , 24. A cylinder of wood floats vertically in water with onefourth of its length out of water. The density of wood is:, a. 0.5 g/cm³, b. 0.5 g/cm³, c. 0.75 g/cm³, d. 1 g/cm³, 25. Relative density of a solid is:, Density of substance, a. R.D. , Density of water, b. R.D. , , Weight of certain volume of substance, Weight of same volume of water, , c. R.D. , , Weight of substance, Density of water, , d. All of the above, , a. 105 N/m, c. Zero, , 28. The balloon stops rising up beyond a particular height, when the density of gas inside the balloon:, a. exceeds the density of air outside, b. equal the density of air, c. becomes less than the density of air, d. none of these, 29. If pressure at half the depth of a lake is equal to 2/3, pressure at the bottom of the lake then what is the depth, of the lake, a. 10 m, b. 20 m, c. 60 m, d. 30 m, 30. Two bodies are in equilibrium when suspended in water, from the arms of a balance. The mass of one body is 36 g, and its density is 9 g / cm3. If the mass of the other is 48 g,, its density in g / cm3 is:, a. 4/3, b. 3/2, c. 3, d. 5, 31. An inverted bell lying at the bottom of a lake 47.6 m deep, has 50 cm3 of air trapped in it. The bell is brought to the, surface of the lake. The volume of the trapped air will be, (atmospheric pressure = 70 cm of Hg and density of Hg =, 13.6 g/cm3), a. 350 cm3, b. 300 cm3 c. 250 cm3 d. 22 cm3, 32. A siphon in use is demonstrated in the following figure., The density of the liquid flowing in siphon is 1.5 gm/cc., The pressure difference between the point P and S will be:, , 20 cm, , b. 2 × 105 N/m, d. Infinity, , 33, , The height of a mercury barometer is 75 cm at sea level, and 50 cm at the top of a hill. Ratio of density of mercury, to that of air is 104. The height of the hill is:, a. 250 m, b. 2.5 km, c. 1.25 km d. 750 m, , 34, , The pressure at the bottom of a tank containing a liquid, does not depend on, a. Acceleration due to gravity, b. Height of the liquid column, c. Area of the bottom surface, d. Nature of the liquid, , 35, , When a large bubble rises from the bottom of a lake to the, surface. Its radius doubles. If atmospheric pressure is, equal to that of column of water height H, then the depth, of lake is:, a. H, b. 2H, c. 7H, d. 8H, , 26. Archimedes principle is used to:, a. design ships, b. design submarines, c. design lactometers, d. all of them, 27. Two solids X and Y float on water, X floats with half of, its volume submerged while Y float s with one-third of its, volume out of water. The densities of X and Y are in the, ratio of, a. 4 : 3, b. 3 : 4, c. 2 : 3, d. 1 : 3, , R, , 36. The value of g at a place decreases by 2%. The barometric, height of mercury, a. Increases by 2%, b. Decreases by 2%, c. Remains unchanged, d. Sometimes increases and sometimes decreases, 37. A barometer kept in a stationary elevator reads 76 cm. If, the elevator starts accelerating up the reading will be:, a. Zero, b. Equal to 76 cm, c. More than 76 cm, d. Less than 76 cm, 38. The height to which a cylindrical vessel be filled with a, homogeneous liquid, to make the average force with, which the liquid presses the side of the vessel equal to the, force exerted by the liquid on the bottom of the vessel, is, equal to, a. Half of the radius of the vessel, b. Radius of the vessel, c. One-fourth of the radius of the vessel, d. Three-fourth of the radius of the vessel, 39. A vertical U-tube of uniform inner cross section contains, mercury in both sides of its arms. A glycerin (density =, 1.3 g/cm3) column of length 10 cm is introduced into one, of its arms. Oil of density 0.8 gm/cm3 is poured into the
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II.B.54, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Glycerin, , other arm until the upper surfaces of the oil and glycerin, are in the same horizontal level. Find the length of the oil, column, Density of mercury = 13.6 g/cm3, Oil, , h, , 10 cm, , Mercury, , a. 10.4 cm, , b. 8.2 cm, , c. 7.2 cm, , d. 9.6 cm, , 40. From the adjacent figure, the correct observation is, , Water, , Water, , (1), , (2), , a. The pressure on the bottom of tank 1. is greater than at, the bottom 2., b. The pressure on the bottom of the tank 1 is smaller than, at the bottom of 2., c. The pressure depend on the shape of the container., d. The pressure on the bottom of 1 and 2 is the same., 41. A given shaped glass tube having uniform cross-section is, filled with water and is mounted on a rotatable shaft as, shown in figure. If the tube is rotated with a constant, angular velocity then, A, , B, , L, , 2L, , a. Water levels in both sections A and B go up, b. Water level in Section A goes up and that in B comes, down, c. Water level in Section A comes down and that in B it, goes up, d. Water levels remains same in both sections, 42. Why the dam of water reservoir is thick at the bottom?, a. Quantity of water increases with depth, b. Density of water increases with depth, c. Pressure of water increases with depth, d. Temperature of water increases with depth, 43. An ice berg of density 900 Kg/m3 is floating in water of, density 1000 Kg/m3. The percentage of volume of icecube outside the water is:, a. 20%, b. 35%, c. 10%, d. 25%, , 44. A log of wood of mass 120 Kg floats in water. The weight, that can be put on the raft to make it just sink, should be, (density of wood 600 Kg/m3), a. 80 Kg, b. 50 Kg, c. 60 Kg, d. 30 Kg, 45. A sample of metal weighs 210 gm in air, 180 gm in water, and 120 gm in liquid. Then relative density (RD) of:, a. Metal is 3, b. Metal is 7, c. Liquid is 3, d. Liquid is 1/3, 46. Two solids A and B float in water. It is observed that A floats, with half its volume immersed and B floats with 2/3 of its, volume immersed. Compare the densities of A and B., a. 4 : 3, b. 2 : 3, c. 3 : 4, d. 1 : 3, 47. A body is just floating on the surface of a liquid. The, density of the body is same as that of the liquid. The body, is slightly pushed down. What will happen to the body?, a. It will slowly come back to its earlier position, b. It will remain submerged, where it is left, c. It will sink, d. It will come out violently, 48. A cork is submerged in water by a spring attached to the, bottom of a bowl. When the bowl is kept in an elevator, moving with acceleration downwards, the length of, spring:, a. Increases, b. Decreases, c. Remains unchanged, d. None of these, 49. A suction pump at ground level can draw water from a, well whose depth of level is:, a. more than 40 cm, b. less than 34 cm, c. less than 10.2 cm, d. about 105 m, 50. A cylinder is filled with liquid of density upto a height h., if the beaker is at rest the mean pressure at then walls is:, a. 0, b. hdg, c. hdg /2, d. 2hdg, 51. A cylinder is filled with a liquid of density d unto a height, h. If the cylinder is placed in a lift moving downwards, with acceleration ‘a’ then pressure at the bottom is:, a. 0, b. hdg, c. hd ( g a) d. hd ( g a), 52. The value of g at a place decreases by 2%. The barometric, height of mercury:, a. increase by 2%, b. decreases by 2%, c. remain unchanged, d. sometimes increases and sometimes decreases, 53. A block of steel of size 5 cm × 5 cm × cm is weighed in, water. If the relative density of steel is 7, its apparent, weight is:, a. 5 5 5 6g, b. 4 4 4 7g, c. 5 5 5 7g, , d. 4 4 4 6g
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Fluid Mechanics, , II.B.55, , ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , a, , a, , d, , a, , b, , a, , c, , b, , a, , d, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , b, , a, , a, , a, , c, , a, , b, , d, , b, , b, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , d, , b, , c, , c, , d, , d, , b, , b, , b, , c, , 31., , 32., , 33., , 34., , 35., , 36., , 37., , 38., , 39., , 40., , b, , c, , b, , c, , c, , a, , d, , b, , d, , d, , 41., , 42., , 43., , 44., , 45., , 46., , 47., , 48., , 49., , 50., , a, , c, , c, , a, , b,c, , c, , b, , b, , c, , c, , 51., , 52., , 53., , c, , a, , a, , 32. (c) As the both points are at the surface of liquid and, these points are in the open atmosphere. So both point, possess similar pressure and equal to 1 atm. Hence the, pressure difference will be zero., 33. (b) Difference of pressure between sea level and the top, , of hill P h1 h2 Hg g, , , , h, Pressure at half the depth of a lake P0 g, 2, 1, 2, According to given condition P0 h g ( P0 h g ), 2, 3, , 1 P0 1 h g, , , , 2P, 2 105, 20m., h 0 3, g 10 10, , 30. (c) Apparent weight V ( ) g , , m, , , , ( )g, , Where m mass of the body,, , , , 36, 48, (9 1) ( 2 1) By solving we get 2 3., 2, 9, , 31. (b) According to Boyle's law, pressure and volume are, 1, inversely proportional to each other i.e. P , V, P2V2, PV, 1 1 PV, 2 2, , ( P0 h w g )V1 PV, 0 2, , , , , , V2 1 , , , h, , h w g , V1, P0 , , 47.6 10 11000 , V1, 70 13.6 1000 , 2, , , h 25 102 Hg 25 10 2 104 2500 m, air , , Height of the hill = 2.5 km., 34. (c) P h g i.e. pressure does not depend upon the area, , of bottom surface., 35. (c) PV, 1 1 P2V2, , 4, 4, 3, 3, Where, h = depth of lake, , P0 h g r 3 P0 2r , , 3, , g, , If two bodies are in equilibrium then their apparent, weight must be equal., m1, m, ( 1 ) 2 ( 2 ), 1, 2, , V2 1 , , … (ii), , h g 7 P0 h 7 H g 7 H ., , density of the body, density of water, , , , and pressure difference due to h metre of air, P h air g, , h air g 75 50 102 Hg g, , 29. (b) Pressure at bottom of the lake P0 h g, , 6, , … (i), , By equating (i) and (ii) we get, , SOLUTIONS, , 3, , 75 50 102 Hg g, , , , (P1 V1), , V2 1 5 50 cm3 300 cm3., [As P2 P0 70 cm of Hg 70 13.6 1000 ], , 36. (a) h , , , , h, , P, g, , 1, (P and are constant), g, , If value of g decreased by 2% then h will increase by 2%., 37. (d) h P, g, , , , h, , 1, ., g, , If lift moves upward with some acceleration then effective, g increases., So, the value of h decreases i.e. reading will be less than 76, cm., 38. (b) Pressure at the bottom h g, and pressure on the vertical surface , , 1, h g, 2, , Now, according to problem, Force at the bottom Force on the vertical surface, h g r 2 1 h g 2 rh h r, 2
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II.B.56, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Glycerine, , 39. (d) At the condition of equilibrium, Oil, , h, , 10 cm, , A, , The body will just sink in liquid if the weight of the body will, be equal to the weight of displaced liquid., , (120 x) 10 0.2103 10, 120 x 200, x = 80 kg, 45. (b, c) Density of metal ,, Density of liquid , , 10–h, B, Mercury, , Pressure at point A = Pressure at point B, , , , PA PB, , , , 10 1.3 g h 0.8 g (10 h) 13.6 g, , If V is the volume of sample then according to problem, 210 V g, … (i), , By solving we get h = 9.7 cm, 40. (d) Pressure = hg i.e. pressure at the bottom is, independent of the area of the bottom of the tank. It, depends on the height of water upto which the tank is, filled with water. As in both the tanks, the levels of water, are the same, pressure at the bottom is also the same., 42. (c) A torque is acting on the wall of the dam trying to, make it topple. The bottom is made very broad so that the, dam will be stable., 43. (c) Let the total volume of ice-berg is V and its density is, . If this ice-berg floats in water with volume Vin inside it, then Vm g V g, , , Vm V [ density of water], , or, , , Vout V Vin , V, , , , , Vout 1000 900 1, , , , 1000, 10, V, , , , , Vout 10% of V, , 44. (a) Volume of log of wood, mass, 120, V , , 0.2 m 3, density 600, , Let x weight that can be put on the log of wood., So, weight of the body, , 120 x 10 N, , 180 V ( 1) g, , … (ii), , 120 V ( ) g, , … (iii), , By solving (i), (ii) and (iii) we get 7 and 3., 46. (c) If two different bodies A and B are floating in the same, liquid then, , A ( f in ) A 1/ 2 3, , , , B ( f in ) B 2 / 3 4, 48. (b) Effective weight W ' m( g a) which is less than, , actual weight mg, so the length of spring decreases., 5, 3, 49. (c) P hdg and Pmax 1atm 10 N/m, , h P , dg, , 105 N/m 3, 10.2m, 10 kg/m3 9.8 , 3, , 50. (c) Mean pressure at walls, , hdg, 0h, , dg , 2, 2, , , 51. (c) If lift moves downwards with acceleration a, then, effective value of g is reduced from g to g g a , , Pressure at bottom hdg hd g a , 52. (a) Pressure due to vertical column above point, P, hg const, d, 53. (a) Apparent weight in air – force of buoyancy, , Vdm Vdw g, , Weight of displaced liquid, , 5 5 5 7 5 5 5 1 g 5 5 5 6 g, , V g 0.2 10 3 10 N, ,
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Thermometry, , II.B.57, , 8, Thermal physics, the branch of physics that deals with the, changes in the properties of system that occur when work is, done on (or by) them and heat energy is added to (or taken, form) them., The water in the shower or bathtub feels hot or cold or warm., The weather outside is chilly or steamy. We certainly have a, good feel for how one temperature is qualitatively different, than another temperature. We may not always agree on, whether the room temperature is too hot or too cold or just, right., The temperature of a body may be defined as its thermal, condition, considered with reference to its power of, communicating heat to or receiving heat from other bodies., This definition gives no direction as to how the temperature of, a body is to be measured numerically., In order to measure temperature we may select one of the, effects produced by an accession of heat in a particular, instrument, and estimate the range of temperature through, which that instrument is raised or lowered when placed in, contact with the body whose temperature is to be measured by, measuring the amount of the effect produced., This is the method practically adopted. The instrument which is, so used is called a thermometer, and the branch of the science, of heat which treats of the application of such instruments is, called thermometry., A thermometer is calibrated by typical process involves using, the freezing point and the boiling point of pure water. Water is, known to freeze at 0°C and to boil at 100°C at an atmospheric, pressure of 1 atm. By placing a thermometer in mixture of ice, water and allowing the thermometer liquid to reach a stable, height, the 0 mark can be placed; Similarly, by placing the, thermometer in boiling water and allowing the liquid level to, reach a stable height, the 100 mark can be placed upon the, thermometer., With these two markings placed upon the thermometer, 100, equally spaced divisions can be placed between them to, represent the 1 marks for which it has been calibrated., , Thermometry, Note, Today, there are a variety of types of thermometers. The type, that most of us are familiar with from science class is the type, that consists of a liquid encased in a narrow glass column., Older thermometers of this type used liquid mercury. In, response to our understanding of the health concerns associated, with mercury exposure, these types of thermometers usually, use some type of liquid alcohol. These liquid thermometers are, based on the principle of thermal expansion. When a substance, gets hotter, it expands to a greater volume. Nearly all, substances exhibit this behaviour of thermal expansion. It is the, basis of the design and operation of thermometers., Temperature Scales, Fahrenheit, , Celsius, , Kelvin, , Boiling Point, of Water, , 212F, , 100C, , 373.15 K, , Highest Temp. ever, recorded in US, , 134F, , 56.7C, , 330 K, , Freezing Point of, Water, , 32F, , 0C, , 0F, , –18C, , 255 K, , Moon, at its, coldest, , –280F, , –173C, , 100 K, , Absolute Zero, , –460F, , –273C, , 0K, , 273.15 K, , Figure: 8.1, , Thermometry, If X is temperature dependent property of substance varying, linearly with temperature, then, , Temperature t , , Xt X0, 100C, X 100 X 0, , Relation of change of reading of one thermometer to another is:, C 1 F 32 K 273 R 0 Rn 492, , , , , 100, 180, 100, 80, 180
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II.B.58, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Table: 8.1 Different temperature scales, Name of, Symbol for Lower fixed, the scale, each, point (LFP), degree, , Upper, fixed point, (UEP), , Number of, divisions on, the scale, , Celsius °C, , °C, , °C, , 100°C, , 100, , Fahrenheit, , °F, , 32°F, , 212°F, , 180, , Reaumur, , °R, , 0°R, , 80°R, , 80, , Rankine, , °Ra, , 460 Ra, , 627 Ra, , 212, , Kelvin, , K, , 273.15 K, , 373.15 K, , 100, , Pt P0, 100C, P100 P0, , h, X, Hg, , Liquid under test, , Plastic tubing, Figure: 8.2, , Vapour Pressure Thermometer: log P a bt , Table: 8.2, S No. Thermometers, , Heat is a scalar quantity. It's units are joule, erg, cal, kcal etc., The calorie (cal) is defined as the amount of heat required, to raise the temperature of 1 gm of water from 14.5°C to, 15.5°C., Also 1 kcal = 1000 cal = 4186 J, and 1 cal = 4.18 J, British Thermal Unit (BTU): One BTU is the quantity of heat, required to raise the temperature of one pound ( 1 lb ) of water, , Movable tube, , Air, , . . ; where, c = specific heat, nature of material i.e. Q mc, of material., , Gas Thermometers: In this thermometer a gas, assumed ideal,, is used at constant volume. This gas is filled at high, , temperature and low pressure. t , , The amount of heat (Q) is given to a body depends upon it's, mass (m), change in it's temperature and, , C, T, , 1, , Mercury Thermometer, , Temperature Ranges, Different, –30°C to 357°C, , of, , 2, , Gas Thermometer, , –268°C to 1500°C, , 3, , Thermocouple Thermometer, , –200°C to –1200°C, , 4, , Thermocouple Thermometer, , –200°C to –1600°C, , 5, , Radiation Pyrometer, , Form 800°C to no upper limit., , 6, , Disappearing Filament Pyrometer, , 600°C to 2700°C, , 7, , Vapour Pressure thermometer, , 0.71 K to 122 K, , 8, , Magnetic Thermometer, , Near absolute zero, , Heat, The form of energy which is exchanged among various, bodies or system on account of temperature difference is, defined as heat., We can change the temperature of a body by giving heat, (temperature rises) or by removing heat (temperature falls), from body., , from 63°F to 64°F., 1 BTU 778 ft. lb 252 cal 1055 J, In solids thermal energy is present in the form of kinetic, energy, in liquids, in the form of translator energy of, molecules. In gas it is due to the random motion of, molecules., Heat always flows from a body of higher temperature to, lower temperature till their temperature becomes equal, (Thermal equilibrium)., The heat required for a given temperature increase depends, only on how many atoms the sample contains, not on the, mass of an individual atom., Specific Heat: When a body is heated it's temperature rises, (except during a change in phase)., Gram specific heat: The amount of heat energy required, to raise the temperature of unit mass of a body through 1°C, (or K) is called specific heat of the material of the body., If Q heat changes the temperature of mass m by then, Q, specific heat c , m, Units: Calorie/gm °C (practical), J/kg K (S.I.), Dimension: [ L2T 2 1 ], For an infinitesimal temperature change d and, corresponding quantity of heat dQ., 1 dQ, Specific heat c , m d, Molar specific heat: Molar specific heat of a substance is, defined as the amount of heat required to raise the, temperature of 1 gram mole of the substance through a unit, degree it is represented by (capital) C., Molar specific heat, (3) M Gram specific heat, , (3) (M = Molecular mass of substance)
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Thermometry, , II.B.59, , m, Q, 1 Q , , where, Number of moles , M, m , Units: calorie/mole °C (practical); J/mole kelvin (S.I.), Dimension: [ ML2T 2 1 ], , LV Lsteam 540 cal / gm, , CM, , In S.I. cice 500, , cal, Joule, 2100, ., kg C, kg C, , Specific Heat of Liquid (Water), Among all known solids and liquids specific heat of water, is maximum i.e. water takes more time to heat and more, time to cool w.r.t. other solids and liquids., It is observed that by increasing temperature, initially, specific heat of water goes on decreasing, becomes, minimum at 37°C and then it start increasing. Specific heat, of water is –, 1cal, cal, J, 1000, 4200, (This, value, is, gm C, kg C, kg C, , Latent heat of vapourisation is more than the latent heat of, fusion. This is because when a substance gets converted, from liquid to vapour, there is a large increase in volume., Hence more amount of heat is required., Anomalous Expansion of Water, Generally matter expands on heating and contracts on, cooling. In case of water, it expands on heating if its, temperature is greater than 4C. In the range 0C to 4C,, water contracts on heating and expands on cooling, i.e., is, negative. At 4C, density of water is maximum while its, specific volume is minimum. This behaviour of water in, the range from 0C to 4C is called anomalous expansion., Maximum density at, 3.90 = 39.2F, , 1.9997, Density g/cm3, , Specific heat of ice : In C.G.S., cal, cice 0.5, gm C, , 40.8 kJ / mol 2260 kilo joule / kg, , obtained between the temperature 14.5°C to 15.5°C)., m, p, Relative humidity , 100% 100%, M, P, , 0.9997, 4, Temperature °C, , 0, , Latent heat: The amount of heat required to change the state, of the mass m of the substance is written as: Q mL, where L, , is the latent heat. Latent heat is also called as Heat of, Transformation. Its unit is cal/gm or J/kg and Dimension:, , Figure: 8.3, , The anomalous behaviour of water arises due to the fact, that water has three types of molecules, viz., H 2O, , [ L2T 2 ], , Latent heat of fusion: The latent heat of fusion is the heat, energy required to change 1 kg of the material in its solid state, at its melting point to 1 kg of the material in its liquid state. It is, also the amount of heat energy released when at melting point, 1 kg of liquid changes to 1 kg of solid. For water at its normal, freezing temperature or melting point (0°C), the latent heat of, fusion (or latent heat of ice) is, LF Lice 80 cal / gm 60 kJ / mol 336 kilo joule / kg, Latent heat of vaporisation: The latent heat of, vapourisation is the heat energy required to change 1 kg of, the material in its liquid state at its boiling point to 1 kg of, the material in its gaseous state. It is also the amount of, heat energy released when 1 kg of vapour changes into 1, kg of liquid. For water at its normal boiling point or, condensation temperature (100°C), the latent heat of, vapourisation (latent heat of steam) is, , 10, , ( H 2O)2 and ( H 2O)3 having different volume per unit mass, and at different temperatures their properties in water are, different., Thermal Resistance, The thermal resistance of a body is a measure of its opposition, to the flow of heat through it. It is defined as the ratio of, temperature difference to the heat current (= rate of flow of, heat). Unit of thermal resistance is C sec/cal or K sec/kcalorie., Now, temperature difference 1 2 , , Heat current, H , , , RTh , , , 1 2, H, , , , Q, t, , 1 2, , Q / t , , 1 2, d, , KA 1 2 / d KA
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II.B.60, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Table: 8.3 Temperature of mixture in different cases, Condition, If bodies are of same material i.e. c1 c2, If bodies are of same mass m1 m2, If m1 m2 and c1 c2, , Temperature of mixture, , mix , mix , , mix , , m11 m22, m1 m2, , 1c1 2 c2, c1 c2, , 1 2, 2, , Evaporation: Vaporisation occurring from the free surface, of a liquid is called evaporation. Evaporation is the escape, of molecules from the surface of a liquid. This process, takes place at all temperatures and increases with the, increase of temperature. Evaporation leads to cooling, because the faster molecules escape and, therefore, the, average kinetic energy of the molecules of the liquid (and, hence the temperature) decreases., Melting (or fusion)/freezing (or solidification):, The phase change of solid to liquid is called melting or fusion., The reverse phenomenon is called freezing or solidification., When pressure is applied on ice, it melts. As soon as the, pressure is removed, it freezes again. This phenomenon is, called regelation., Vaporisation/liquefaction (condensation): The phase, change from liquid to vapour is called vaporisation. The, reverse transition is called liquefaction or condensation., Sublimation: Sublimation is the conversion of a solid, directly into vapours. Sublimation takes place when boiling, point is less than the melting point. A block of ice, sublimates into vapours on the surface of moon because of, very low pressure on its surface. Heat required to change, unit mass of solid directly into vapours at a given, temperature is called heat of sublimation at that, temperature., Hoar frost: Direct conversion of vapours into solid is, called hoar frost. This process is just reverse of the process, of sublimation, e.g., formation of snow by freezing of, clouds., , equilibrium is established. The pressure exerted by this, vapour is called Saturated Vapour Pressure (S.V.P.) whose, value depends only on the temperature – it is independent, of any external pressure. If the volume of the space is, reduced, some vapour liquefies, but the pressure is, unchanged., A saturated vapour does not obey the gas law whereas the, unsaturated vapour obeys them fairly well. However, a, vapour differs from a gas in that the former can be liquefied, by pressure alone, whereas the latter cannot be liquefied, unless it is first cooled., Boiling: As the temperature of a liquid is increased, the rate, of evaporation also increases. A stage is reached when, bubbles of vapour start forming in the body of the liquid, which rise to the surface and escape. A liquid boils at a, temperature at which the S.V.P. is equal to the external, pressure. It is a fast process. The boiling point changes on, mixing impurities., Dew point: It is that temperature at which the mass of, water vapour present in a given volume of air is just, sufficient to saturate it, i.e. the temperature at which the, actual vapour pressure becomes equal to the saturated, vapuor pressure., Humidity: Atmospheric air always contains some water, vapour. The mass of water vapour per unit volume is called, absolute humidity. The ratio of the mass of water vapour, (m) actually present in a given volume of air to the mass of, water vapour (M) required to saturate the same volume at, the same temperature is called the relative humidity (R.H.)., Generally, it is expressed as a percentage, i.e.,, R.H.(%) , , m, 100(%), M, , Relative humidity may also be defined as the ratio of the, actual vapour pressure (p) of water at the same temperature,, i.e. R.H.(%) , , p, 100(%), P, , Thus R.H. may also be defined as, Vapour pressure: When the space above a liquid is closed,, it soon becomes saturated with vapour and a dynamic, , R.H.(%) , , S.V.P. at dew point, 100, S.V. P. at given temperature
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Thermometry, , II.B.61, , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , The temperature of the sun is measured with, a. Platinum thermometer, b. Gas thermometer, c. Pyrometer, d. Vapour pressure thermometer, , 2., , Maximum density of H 2O is at the temperature, a. 32F, , b. 39.2 F, , c. 42 F, , d. 4 F, , 3., , The study of physical phenomenon at low temperatures, (below liquid nitrogen temperature) is called, a. Refrigeration, b. Radiation, c. Cryogenics, d. Pyrometry, , 4., , The absolute zero is the temperature at which, a. Water freezes, b. All substances exist in solid state, c. Molecular motion ceases, d. None of the above, , 5., , 6., , Absolute zero (0 K) is that temperature at which, a. Matter ceases to exist, b. Ice melts and water freezes, c. Volume and pressure of a gas becomes zero, d. None of these, On which of the following scales of temperature, the, temperature is never negative, a. Celsius, b. Fahrenheit, c. Reaumur, d. Kelvin, , 7., , The temperature on Celsius scale is 25°C. What is the, corresponding temperature on the Fahrenheit scale, a. 40°F, b. 77°F, c. 50°F, d. 45°F, , 8., , The temperature of a body on Kelvin scale is found to be, x K. When it is measured by Fahrenheit thermometer, it is, found to be x°F, then the value of x is:, a. 40, b. 313, c. 574.25, d. 301.25, , 9., , A centigrade and a Fahrenheit thermometer are dipped in, boiling water. The water temperature is lowered until the, Fahrenheit thermometer registers 140°. What is the fall in, temperature as registered by the Centigrade thermometer, a. 30°, b. 40°, c. 60°, d. 80°, , 10. At what temperature the centigrade (Celsius) and, Fahrenheit, readings are the same, a. – 40°, b. + 40°, c. 36.6°, d. – 37°, 11. Mercury thermometers can be used to measure, temperatures upto, a. 100°C, b. 212°C, c. 360°C, d. 500°C, , 12. Mercury boils at 367°C. However, mercury thermometers, are made such that they can measure temperature up to, 500°C. This is done by, a. Maintaining vacuum above mercury column in the, stem of the thermometer, b. Filling nitrogen gas at high pressure above the mercury, column, c. Filling nitrogen gas at low pressure above the mercury, level, d. Filling oxygen gas at high pressure above the mercury, column, 13. A device used to measure very high temperature is:, a. Pyrometer, b. Thermometer, c. Bolometer, d. Calorimeter, 14. The absolute zero temperature in Fahrenheit scale is, a. – 273°F, b. – 32°F, c. – 460°F d. – 132°F, 15. If temperature of an object is 140°F, then its temperature, in centigrade is:, a. 105°C, b. 32°C, c. 140°C, d. 60°C, 16. When a rod is heated but prevented from expanding, the, stress developed is independent of, a. Material of the rod, b. Rise in temperature, c. Length of rod, d. None of above, 17. Expansion during heating, a. Occurs only in solids, b. Increases the weight of a material, c. Decreases the density of a material, d. Occurs at the same rate for all liquids and solids, 18. In cold countries, water pipes sometimes burst, because, a. Pipe contracts, b. Water expands on freezing, c. When water freezes, pressure increases, d. When water freezes, it takes heat from pipes, 19. A quantity of heat required to change the unit mass of a, solid substance, from solid state to liquid state, while the, temperature remains constant, is known as:, a. Latent heat, b. Sublimation, c. Hoar frost, d. Latent heat of fusion, 20. The latent heat of vaporisation of a substance is always, a. Greater than its latent heat of fusion, b. Greater than its latent heat of sublimation, c. Equal to its latent heat of sublimation, d. Less than its latent heat of fusion
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II.B.62, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , c, , b, , c, , c, , c, , d, , b, , c, , c, , a, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , c, , b, , a, , c, , d, , c, , c, , b, , d, , a, , SOLUTIONS, 1., , 2., , , , , F 39.2F, , 3., , (c) Production and measurement of temperature close to, 0 K is done in cryogenics., (c) At absolute zero (i.e. 0 K) vrms becomes zero., (c) We know that P P0 (1 t ), , 4., 5., , and V V0 (1 t ), , 7., , , , C F 32, , 5, 9, , t t 32, t 40, , 5, 9, 11. (c) The boiling point of mercury is 400°C. Therefore, the, mercury thermometer can be used to measure the, temperature upto 360°C., 12. (b) By filling nitrogen gas at high pressure, the boiling, point of mercury is increased which extend the range upto, 500°C., 13. (a) Pyrometer is used to measure very high temperature., , , , 14. (c), , , F 32 K 273, , 9, 5, , F 32 0 273, , 9, 5, F 459.4 F 460F, C F 32, , 5, 9, , 15. (d), , Hence, at absolute zero,, the volume and pressure of the gas become zero., (d) Zero Kelvin 273C (absolute temperature)., , , , As no matter can attain this temperature, hence, temperature can never be negative on Kelvin scale., , 16. (c) Stress Y , hence it is independent of length., , (b) C F 32, 5, , 5, , , , C 140 32 , C 60, , 5, 9, , We have P 0 and V 0, , 9, , 25 F 32 F 77 F, 8., , , , , , and (1/ 273) / C for t 273C ,, , 6., , (c), , 10. (a), , (c) Pyrometer can measure temperature from 800°C to, 6000°C. Hence temperature of sun is measured with, pyrometer., (b) Maximum density of water is at 4°C, C F 32, Also , 5, 9, 4 F 32, , 5, 9, , C F 32, , 5, 9, , 9., , (c), , 9, , F 32 K 273, , 9, 5, , x 32 x 273, , 9, 5, , x 574.25, , C 140 32, , 5, 9, C 60C, 17. (c) Solids, liquids and gases all expand on being heated as, result density (= mass/volume) decreases., 18. (b) In anomalous expansion, water contracts on heating, and expands on cooling in the range 0°C to 4°C., Therefore water pipes sometimes burst, in cold countries., 20. (a) The latent heat of vaporisation is always greater than, latent heat of fusion because in liquid to vapour phase, change there is a large increase in volume. Hence more, heat is required as compared to solid to liquid phase, change., ,
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Optics: Reflection, , II.B.63, , 9, , Optics began with the development of lenses by the ancient, Egyptians and Mesopotamians. The earliest known lenses,, made from polished crystal, often quartz, date from as early as, 700 BC for Assyrian lenses such as the Layard/Nimrud lens., Refractive surgery is being well publicised as the modern way, to reduce your dependence on glasses or contacts., This type of surgery includes several procedures for, permanently lessening or possibly even eliminating myopia., All are intended to reduce the cornea's optical power to achieve, normal or near-normal focus. It’s easy to overlook your eyes., Most people agree that sight is the sense they rely on most., Despite this, taking care of our eye health is usually an, afterthought, or worse, something we take for granted., Note, Some phenomena depend on the fact that light has both wavelike and particle-like properties. Explanation of these effects, requires quantum mechanics. When considering light's particlelike properties, the light is modelled as a collection of particles, , Optical science is relevant to and studied in many related, disciplines including astronomy, various engineering fields,, photography, and medicine (particularly ophthalmology and, optometry). Practical applications of optics are found in a, variety of technologies and everyday objects, including, mirrors, lenses, telescopes, microscopes, lasers, and fibre, optics., , The Electromagnetic Spectrum, c , Also commonly written v f , , 10, , Wavelength is, about 3 football, fields long, , 10, , 11, , 10, , 10, , 12, 10, , 13, , Wavelength, about 3 cm or 1, inch long, , Wavelength, about 3 m or 10, feet long, , 14, , 10, , 15, , 10, , X-rays, Gamma rays, , 9, , 10, , Ultraviolet, , 8, , 10, , Inrrared, , 7, , 10, , Millimeter, waves,, telemetry, , Microwaves, radar, , 6, , Television, FM radio, , 5, 10, , Visible light, , C 3 108 m / s, , Speed of light, , AM Radio, , When you hear the word light, you probably think about, sunlight that keeps you warm or the lights you use in your, classroom. Actually, you use many kinds of light energy. The, kind of light energy is determined by the amount of energy in, photons. You can’t see some kinds of light. You can’t see, radiowaves, which are made of low energy photons. A picture, of your bones is taken with invisible X-rays which are highenergy photons. Photons in light you can see have a moderate, energy., , called "photons". Quantum optics deals with the application of, quantum mechanics to optical systems., , Short wave, radio, , Have you ever walked into a darkened room late at night? If so, you probably walked and moved slowly and carefully to keep, from bumping into things. When you switched on the light,, everything were changed. Things you couldn’t see were, suddenly visible. Light was reflected off of objects to make, them visible. You could see forms, shapes and colours. Light, affects your life in many ways. You need light to read this, book. When you look at a clear sky at night, you can see the, light from distant stars. By making things this visible, light, links you to objects that are close by or far away., , Optics: Reflection, , 16, , 10, , 17, , 10, , 10, , 18, 10 Hz, , Wavelength about 30 ×, diameter of hydrogen, atom, , Wavelength, 400–700 nm, , Visible, Name of, wave, , Radio waves, , Length of, 2, (metres) 10, , 11m, , Length of Football, wavelength field, , 1m, , Human, , Microwaves, , 10–1, , 10–2, , Bee, , 10–3, , Pin, , Ultra, , Infrared, , 10–4, , Cell, , 10–5 10–6 m 10–7 m 10–8, , Bacteria, , X-rays Gamma, , 10–9, , Virus, , 10–10 10–11 10–12, , Atom, , Nuclei, , Figure: 9.1, , The electromagnetic spectrum is all the different wavelengths, of electromagnetic radiation including radiowaves, light waves, and X-rays to name a few. Light waves or visible light covers, the range of wavelength from 400 to 700 nm, which is the, range in size from a molecule to a protozoan. The sun emits, most of its radiation in the visible range, which we perceive as, the colours of the rainbow. Our eyes are sensitive to this small, section of the entire electromagnetic spectrum., Reflection and Refraction of Light at Spherical, Laws of Reflection, Angle of Reflection Angle of Incidence
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II.B.64, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, Reflected ray, , Normal, Incident ray, , Reflection, Law: Angle of incidence (i) angle of reflection ( r '), , , , , , Deviation produced in reflection, 180 2i , Plane Mirror, , Mirror, , Figure: 9.2, , Problem:, 90 – 65 25, 180 – 120 – 25 35, 90 – 35 55, , p, , , , 65, , Figure: 9.6, , 120, , M1, Figure: 9.3, , Plane Mirror Geometry: In plane mirror the image is at the, same distance behind the mirror as the object is in front of the, mirror. In plane mirror the dimensions of the image are the, same as the dimensions of the object. The ratio of the image, dimensions to the object dimensions is termed the, magnification. Plane mirrors produce images which have a, magnification of 1. Images formed by plane mirrors are virtual,, upright, left-right reversed, the same distance from the mirror, as the object's distance, and the same size as the object., Plane, , , , Virtual, image, , Object, , M2, , Eye, , p, , Eye, Apparent, path of light, , No light travels, along this path, , , , Object, , Object, , Virtual, , The focal length of a plane mirror is infinity., The image formed by plane mirror is virtual, erect, of the, same size as object, but laterally inverted., For incident ray fixed, if plane mirror is rotated through an, angle , the reflected ray rotates through an angle 2., If object approaches mirror with speed v, the relative, velocity of approach of image towards object is 2v., To see full image of himself in a plane mirror, its length of, mirror is just half of height of the man., A thick mirror forms a number of images, out of which the, second image is brightest., The minimum size of plane mirror to be fixed on the wall, of a room, so that an observer in the middle of the room can, see the full image of the wall behind him is one-third of the, height of wall., Number of images formed by two inclined, , 360 , , , , , , is even end object lies symmetrically between mirrors., Deviation produced by tow plane mirrors inclined at an, angle , 360 2 (independent of angle of incidence)., mirrors N , , 360, , if, , 360, , is odd , , 360, , 1 if , , Figure: 9.4, , Light from the castle appears to be coming from a point behind, the mirror., Left-Right Reversal, Left hand of, image, , Right hand, , Spherical Mirrors, If r is radius of curvature and f is focal length, then, r 2f., Mirror formula, , 1 1 1, , f u, , Lateral magnification, m , , f , 2, I, 2 , , 0, u, u f , A, 2, Area magnification m 1 2, A0, u, , Axial magnification m , Figure: 9.5, , I , f, , 0 u, u f, 2
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Optics: Reflection, , II.B.65, At the focus F, , Newton’s formula for real image x1 x2 f 2 ,, , where, x1 distance of object form focus,, x2 distance of image form focus, Magnification due to a Mirror, Transverse or linear magnification m is defined as, m, , size of image l , size of image O , , It can be proved that for both the concave and convex, f, f , , or, mirrors: m or m , f u, f, u, If m 1, the image is enlarged,, If m 1, the image is of same size., , Between, focus F and, pole P, , At infinity (in, front of mirror), Size of Image:, Bigger that the, size of the object, , Real and inverted, , Behind the mirror, Size of Image:, Bigger than the, object, , Virtual and erect, , P, C, , C, , F, , P, F, , Note: For a concave mirror, if object lies between pole and, focus, then only image is virtual, erect and enlarged., Image Formation from a Convex Mirror, For a convex mirror, m is +ve and less than one, i.e., the image, is virtual, erect and diminished in size, for all positions of the, object., , If m 1, the image is reduced,, If m 0, the image is erect,, If m 0, the image is inverted., If object lies along the principal axis, then its magnification, is called the longitudinal magnification. It is given by, m, , 2, , P, , u2, , Table: 9.1, Position of, Object, At infinity, , Between, infinity and, centre of, curvature C, , At the centre, of curvature, , Between the, centre of, curvature C, and focus F, , Position of Image, , Nature of Image, , At focus (in front, of mirror), Size of Image:, Point size (smaller, than object), , Real and inverted, , Between centre of, curvature C and, focus F (in front, of mirror), Size of Image:, Smaller than that, of object, At the centre of, curvature (in front, of mirror), Size of Image:, Of the same size, as that of the, object, Between infinity, and the centre of, curvature C (in, front of mirror), Size of Image:, Bigger than the, size of object, , Real and inverted, , F, , C, , Convex and Concave Mirrors, , P, , F, , P, , Figure: 9.8, , Images in convex mirrors are always smaller and in concave, mirrors are bigger., , F, , P, , C, , Real and inverted, F, , C, , Figure: 9.7, , Real and inverted, , C, , F, , P, , Example 1. What is an eclipse of the Moon? What causes, eclipses and why? How often do eclipses happen and when is, the next eclipse of the Moon?, Solution: The Moon is a cold, rocky body about 2,160 miles, (3,476 km) in diameter. It has no light of its own but shines by, sunlight reflected from its surface. The Moon orbits the Earth, about once every 29 and half days. During the five millennium, period from 2000 BC through 3000 AD, there are 7,718, eclipses1 of the Moon (including both partial and total). There, are anywhere from 0 to 3 lunar eclipses (not including, penumbral) each year.
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II.B.66, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Example 2. Did you realise that the word month is derived, from the Moon's 29.5 day period?, Solution: To many of us, Full Moon is the phase of love and, romance. When the Moon is full, it rises at sunset and is visible, all night long. At the end of the night, the Full Moon sets just, as the Sun rises. None of the Moon's other phases have this, unique characteristic. It happens because the Moon is directly, opposite the Sun in the sky when the Moon is full. Full Moon, also has special significance with regard to eclipses., , An eclipse of the Moon (or lunar eclipse) can only occur at Full, Moon and only if the Moon passes through some portion of the, Earth's shadow. The shadow is actually composed of two coneshaped components, one nested inside the other. The outer or, penumbral shadow is a zone where the Earth blocks part but, not all of the Sun's rays from reaching the Moon. In contrast,, the inner or umbral shadow is a region where the Earth blocks, all direct sunlight from reaching the Moon., , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , A ray of light is incidenting normally on a plane mirror., The angle of reflection will be, a. 0, b. 90, c. Will not be reflected, , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 9., , d. None of the above, , When light wave suffers reflection at the interface from, air to glass, the change in phase of the reflected wave is, equal to, , a. 0, b., c. , d. 2, 2, A ray is reflected in turn by three plain mirrors mutually, at right angles to each other. The angle between the, incident and the reflected rays is:, a. 90, b. 90, c. x180, d. None of these, Two plane mirrors are at right angles to each other. A, man stands between them and combs his hair with his, right hand. How many of the images will he be seen using, his right hand?, a. None, b. 1, c. 2, d. 3, When a plane mirror is rotated through an angle then, the reflected ray turns through the angle 2 then the size, of the image, a. is doubled, b. is halved, c. remains the same, d. becomes infinite, , A small object is placed 10 cm infront of a plane mirror., If you stand behind the object 30 cm from the mirror and, look at its image, the distance focused for your eye will be, a. 60 cm, c. 40 cm, , 10, , b. 20 cm, d. 80 cm, , An object is at a distance of 0.5 m in front of a plane, mirror. Distance between the object and image is, a. 0.5 m, b. 1 m, c. 0.25 m, d. 1.5 m, , 11. A man runs towards a mirror at a speed 15 m/s The speed, of the image relative to the man is:, a. 15 ms 1, , b. 30 ms 1, , c. 35 ms 1, , d. 20 ms 1, , 12. The light reflected by a plane mirror may form a real, image, a. If the rays incident on the mirror are diverging, b. If the rays incident on the mirror are converging, c. If the object is placed very close to the mirror, d. Under no circumstances, 13. A man of length h requires a mirror, to see his own, complete image of length at least equal to, h, h, h, a., b., c., d. h, 4, 3, 2, 14. Focal length of a plane mirror is:, a. Zero, b. Infinite, c. Very less d. Indefinite, , 6., , A plane mirror produces a magnification of, a. 1, b. 1, c. Zero, d. Between 0 and , , 15. A convex mirror of focal length f forms an image which, is 1/n times the object. The distance of the object from the, mirror is, , 7., , A plane mirror makes an angle of 30º with horizontal. If a, vertical ray strikes the mirror, find the angle between, mirror and reflected ray?, a. 30, b. 45, c. 60, d. 90, A watch shows time as 3 : 25 when seen through a mirror,, time appeared will be, a. 8 : 35, b. 9 : 35, c. 7 : 35, d. 8 : 25, , n 1 , n 1, b. , f c. , f d. ( n 1) f, n , n , 16. A diminished virtual image can be formed only in, a. Plane mirror, b. A concave mirror, c. A convex mirror, d. Concave-parabolic mirror, , 8, , a. ( n 1) f
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Optics: Reflection, , 17. Which of the following could not produce a virtual image, a. Plane mirror, b. Convex mirror, c. Concave mirror, d. All the above can produce a virtual image, 18. An object 5cm tall is placed 1 m from a concave spherical, mirror which has a radius of curvature of 20 cm. The size, of the image is :, a. 0.11 cm, b. 0.50 cm, c. 0.55 cm, d. 0.60 cm, , II.B.67, , 26. Which one of the following statements is true?, a. An object situated at the principal focus of a concave, lens will have its image formed at infinity, b. Concave mirror can give diminished virtual image, c. Given a point source of light, a convex mirror can, produce a parallel beam of light, d. The virtual image formed in a plane mirror can be, photographed, 27. The relation between the linear magnification m, the, , object distance u and the focal length f is:, , 19. The focal length of a concave mirror is 50 cm. Where an, object be placed so that its image is two times and, inverted, a. 75 cm, b. 72 cm, c. 63 cm, d. 50 cm, 20. The field of view is maximum for, a. Plane mirror, b. Concave mirror, c. Convex mirror, d. Cylindrical mirror, 21. A convex mirror is used to form the image of an object., Then which of the following statements is wrong?, a. The image lies between the pole and the focus, b. The image is diminished in size, c. The image is erect, d. The image is real, 22. Given a point source of light, which of the following can, produce a parallel beam of light, a. Convex mirror, b. Concave mirror, c. Concave lens, d. Two plane mirrors inclined at an angle of 90, 23. The image formed by a convex mirror of focal length 30, cm is a quarter of the size of the object. The distance of, the object from the mirror is:, a. 30 cm, b. 90 cm, c. 120 cm, d. 60 cm, 24. A boy stands straight in front of a mirror at a distance of, 30 cm away from it. He sees his erect image whose height, 1, is th of his real height. The mirror he is using is:, 5, a. Plane mirror, b. Convex mirror, c. Concave mirror, d. Plano-convex mirror, 25. A person sees his virtual image by holding a mirror very, close to the face. When he moves the mirror away from, his face, the image becomes inverted. What type of mirror, he is using, a. Plane mirror, b. Convex mirror, c. Concave mirror, d. None of these, , a. m , , f u, f, , b. m , , f, f u, , c. m , , f u, f, , d. m , , f, f u, , 28. While using an electric bulb, the reflection for street, lighting should be from, a. Concave mirror, b. Convex mirror, c. Cylindrical mirror, d. Parabolic mirror, 29. A concave mirror is used to focus the image of a flower, on a nearby well 120 cm from the flower. If a lateral, magnification of 16 is desired, the distance of the flower, from the mirror should be:, a. 8 cm, b. 12 cm, c. 80 cm, d. 120 cm, 30. Radius of curvature of concave mirror is 40 cm and the, size of image is twice as that of object, then the object, distance is:, a. 60 cm, b. 20 cm, c. 40 cm, d. 30 cm, 31, , Match Column I with Column II and select the correct, answer using the codes given below the lists:, Column - I (Position of the object), An object is placed at focus before a convex, (A), mirror, An object is placed at centre of curvature, (B), before a concave mirror, An object is placed at focus before a concave, (C), mirror, An object is placed at centre of curvature, (D), before a convex mirror, Column - II (Magnification), 1., Magnification is –, Magnification is 0.5, 2., Magnification is +1, 3., Magnification is – 1, 4., Magnification is 0.33, 5., a. A-2, B-4, C-1, D-5, b. A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2, c. A-3, B-2, C-1, D-5, d. A-2, B-5, C-4, D-3
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II.B.68, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 32. A concave mirror of focal length 15 cm forms an image, having twice the linear dimensions of the object. The, position of the object when the image is virtual will be, a. 22.5 cm, b. 7.5 cm, c. 30 cm, d. 45 cm, , A point object is placed at a distance of 30 cm from a convex, mirror of focal length 30 cm. The image will form at, a. Infinity, b. Focus, c. Pole, d. 15 cm behind the mirror, , 33, , 34. An object 2.5 cm high is placed at a distance of 10 cm, from a concave mirror of radius of curvature 30 cm The, size of the image is:, a. 9.2 cm, b. 10.5 cm c. 5.6 cm, d. 7.5 cm, 35. For a real object, which of the following can produced a, real image, a. Plane mirror, b. Concave lens, c. Convex mirror, d. Concave mirror, 36. An object of length 6 cm is placed on the principal axis of, a concave mirror of focal length f at a distance of 4f. The, length of the image will be:, , a. 2 cm, 37, , b. 12 cm, , c. 4 cm, , d. 1.2 cm, , Convergence of concave mirror can be decreased by, dipping in, a. Water, b. Oil, c. Both, d. None of these, , 38. What will be the height of image when an object of 2 mm, is placed on the axis of a convex mirror at a distance 20, cm of radius of curvature 40 cm, a. 20 mm, b. 10 mm, c. 6 mm, d. 1 mm, 39. Image formed by a concave mirror of focal length 6 cm, is, 3 times of the object, then the distance of object from, mirror is:, a. – 4 cm, b. 8 cm, c. 6 cm, d. 12 cm, 40, , A concave mirror of focal length f (in air) is immersed in, water ( = 4/3). The focal length of the mirror in water, will be:, a. f, , b., , 4, f, 3, , c., , 3, f, 4, , d., , 7, f, 3, , ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , a, , c, , c, , b, , c, , b, , c, , a, , c, , b, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , b, , b, , c, , b, , a, , c, , d, , c, , a, , c, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , d, , b, , b, , b, , c, , d, , b, , a, , d, , a, , 31., , 32., , 33., , 34., , 35., , 36., , 37., , 38., , 39., , 40., , b, , d, , d, , d, , a, , d, , d, , a, , a, , a, , (a) i r 0, , 2., , (c) When light is reflected from denser medium, a phase, difference of always occurs., (c) Ray after reflection from three mutually perpendicular, mirrors becomes anti-parallel., (b) In two images man will see himself using left hand., (c) In plane mirror, size of the image is independent of the, angle of incidence., (b) Size of image formed by a plane mirror is same as that, of the object. Hence its magnification will be 1., (c), Incident ray, , 6., 7., , 9., , (c) See following ray diagram, Image, , Object, , 10cm, 30 cm, , 10cm, , The distance focussed for eye 30 10 40 cm, , 30° 30°, , Reflected ray, , 0.5m, , Surface, , 0.5m, , 11. (b) Relative velocity of image w.r .t . man, , 15 ( 15) 30 m / s, Image, , Ma, , 15m/s, , 15m/s, , 12. (b), Real image, I, , 60°, 30°, , Image, , Object, , 1., , 4., 5., , min, , (a) Subtract the given time from 11: 60, , 10. (b) Distance between object and image 0.5 0.5 1 m, , SOLUTIONS, , 3., , hr, , 8., , O, Virtual object
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Optics: Reflection, , II.B.69, , R, , and R for plane mirror., 2, 1, , u, 15. (a) m , n, u, n, By using mirror formula, 1, 1, 1, , , f u / n u, , 14. (b) f , , , , u (n 1) f, , 18. (c), , , , u u, 1, f v, , , , , , So,, , m, , v, f, u, u, , 1 , u, f u, v, f, f, ., f u, , 28. (b) To make the light diverging as much as possible., 29. (a) Let distance u ., , I, f, , O ( f u), , Now, , , u, , 16 and u 120, , , , I, 10, , 5 10(100), , , , 20 u, 16, u, , , , I 0.55 cm, , , , 15u 120, , , , u 8 cm., , 19. (a) For real image m = – 2,, f, So, by using m , f u, 50, u 75 cm, 50 u, 21. (d) The image formed by a convex mirror is always, virtual., 22. (b) Object should be placed on focus of concave mirror., , , R, 20 cm, m 2, 2, For real image; m 2,, , 30. (d) f , , 2, , By using m , , , 20, u 10 cm, 20 u, 32. (b) f 15 cm, m 2 (Positive because image is virtual), , , 23. (b) m , , u 30 cm, , For virtual image; m 2, So,, , Point image, , f, ( f u), , 2 , , v, m v 2u ., u, By using mirror formula, 1, 1, 1, , , 15 ( 2u ) u, , , , ( 30), 1, , , 4, (, 30) u, , , , , , , , u 90 cm, , 33. (d), , 1, . It can’t be plane and concave mirror,, 5, because both conditions are not satisfied in plane or, concave mirror. Convex mirror can meet all the, requirements., 25. (c) Plane mirror and convex mirror always forms erect, images. Image formed by concave mirror may be erect or, inverted depending on position of object., 26. (d) Virtual image is seen on the photograph., v, 27. (b) m , u, 1 1 1, , also, f v u, , 20, f, , 2 , 20 u, f u, , u 7.5 cm, , u 30cm, f 30cm by using mirror formula, , 1 1 1, , f v u, , 24. (b) Size is, , O, , I, , 30cm, , 15cm, , , , 1, 1, 1, , 30 v (30), , , , v 15 cm, behind the mirror
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II.B.70, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 34. (d) R 30 cm, , , , f 15 cm, O 2.5 cm, u 10 cm, , By mirror formula, 1, 1, 1, , 15 v (10), , , v 30 cm., , 37. (d) Convergence (or power) is independent of medium for, mirror., I, f, , 38. (d), O f u, , , , , 39. (a) m 3 and f 6 cm, , I, v, Also, , O, u, , , , I, 30, , (2.5) (10), , I 7.5 cm., 36. (a), , I, f, , O f u, , , , I, f, , 6 f (u ), , , , I 2 cm, , I, 20, 1, , , 2 20 20 2, I 1mm, , Now,, , m, , f, 6, 3 , f u, 6 u, , For real image, 6, 3 , u 8 cm, 6 u, For virtual image, 6, u 4 cm, 3, 6 u, 40. (a) Focal length of the mirror remains unchanged., ,
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Optics: Refraction, , II.B.71, , 10, , Optics: Refraction, , Optics began with the development of lenses by the ancient, Egyptians and Mesopotamians. The earliest known lenses,, made from polished crystal, often quartz, date from as early as, 700 BC for Assyrian lenses such as the Layard/Nimrud lens., Refractive surgery is being well publicised as the modern way, to reduce your dependence on glasses or contacts. This type of, surgery includes several procedures for permanently lessening, or possibly even eliminating myopia. All are intended to, reduce the cornea's optical power to achieve normal or nearnormal focus. It’s easy to overlook your eyes. Most people, agree that sight is the sense they rely on most. Despite this,, taking care of our eye health is usually an afterthought, or, worse, something we take for granted., , photography, and medicine (particularly ophthalmology and, optometry). Practical applications of optics are found in a, variety of technologies and everyday objects, including, mirrors, lenses, telescopes, microscopes, lasers, and fibre, optics., The speed of the light ray changes upon changing mediums. In, almost every case the direction of the light ray changes also., We will often describe the light beam as bending toward the, normal or away from the normal. The following picture, much, like the one directly above, shown., Normal, , Have you ever noticed that objects seem to bend when they are, put into water? This is because as they travel from medium to, medium the speed of light actually changes. One side of wave, front slows down, and the entire train of fronts twists., , Angle of, refraction, , "Bending away from the normal.", , Figure: 10.2, Air, , Angle of, refraction, , Angle of, refraction, , "Bending toward the normal.", , Normal, , Angle of, incidence, , Normal, Angle of, incidence, , Angle of, incidence, , Water, , Light bending toward the normal: Again, this is the general, behaviour for light going from air into water or glass. Notice, that in these conditions the angle of refraction is smaller than, the angle of incidence., , Figure: 10.1, , The change in direction of a wave as it crosses the boundary, between two mediums in which waves travel at different, speeds. Refraction can occur when light travels through one, medium into another. Light travelling from air and going into, water would be an example., Note, Some phenomena depend on the fact that light has both wavelike and particle-like properties. Explanation of these effects, requires quantum mechanics. When considering light's particlelike properties, the light is modelled as a collection of particles, called "photons". Quantum optics deals with the application of, quantum mechanics to optical systems., , Optical science is relevant to and studied in many related, disciplines including astronomy, various engineering fields,, , Light bending away from the normal: This would be the, general behaviour for light going from water or glass into air., Notice that in these conditions the angle of refraction is larger, than the angle of incidence., Refraction, In refractions when light ray enters form one medium to, another, its frequency remains unchanged., sin i 2, , Snell’s law, sin r 1, , 1 2 , , 1 1, , 2 2, , Deviation caused by refraction i r , 2, , 1, , 1 , 2, , 1, , , 2 3 , , 3, 1 2, 1
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II.B.72, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Lateral shift, , 1, 1, 1 , 1 2 1 , f, R1 R2 , For a double concave lens, , Signs of R1 and R2 have been, used, , 1 1 , 1, 12 1 , f, R1 R2 , , Air, Water, , If media on two sides of lens are different then,, 3 2 1 3 2, , , f, R1, R2, , Apparent depth, Real depth, Image of point, , Formation of image by a lens, Point, Figure: 10.3, , Lateral magnification, m , , Lateral shift x t sin( i r ), cos r, , , , Axial magnification mx , , real depth, t, , apparent depth t x, , Power of lens P , , apparent shift x 1 1 t, , Refractive index , , c, , , , , , medium, , If a beaker contains various immiscible liquids as shown, then, , combination , , d1, , 1, , , , d2, , 2, , , , d3, , 3, , ...., , If, , d2, , 3, , d3, , f1 f 2, P P1 P2 dPP, 1 2, f1 f 2 d, , 2 1 2 1, , R, u, through, , a, , thin, , a, , g a 1, the nature of lens remains unchanged; but, , If, , a, , g a 1, the nature of lens changes., , If, , a, , g a 1, f1 and lens behaves as a plate., , The simplest kind of lens is actually a prism. A prism is a piece, of glass shaped like a triangle and bends light towards its, thickest part (the bottom of the “triangle”), which is called the, base. The thinnest part of a lens is called the apex. Not all, lenses are prisms, but any lens can be thought as two rounded, prisms joined together., , Figure: 10.4, , refraction, , 1 1 1, 1, , F f1 f 2 f1 f 2, , focal length changes., , d1, , 2, , for, , 2, , Special cases, , 2 12, (In case of two liquids if d1 d2 than , ), 1 2, , Formula, , f , , , u2 u f , , f1 f 2, or P P1 P2, f1 f 2, , F, , F, , 1 2, , Refraction at spherical surface:, , 2, , 1, Diopter, f (in meter), , Lenses at separation:, , d AC d1 d2 ....., , d App. d1 d2 ...., , 1, , I , f, , O u u f, , Equivalent focal length:, 1 1 1, , Lenses in contact, F f1 f 2, , ari, , Apparent depth of bottom , , 1 1 1, , f u, , lens, , 1, 1, 1 , 1 2 1 (Proper signs of R1 and R2 are to be, f, R1 R2 , , used), Special Cases, For a double convex lens,, , PlanoConvex lens, , DoubleConvex lens, , ConcavoConvex lens, , PlanoConvex lens, , Figure: 10.5, , DoubleConvex lens, , ConvexoConcave lens
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Optics: Refraction, , II.B.73, , Convex Lenses, , Object between F and 2F, Converging lens, (convex Lens), , Glass, , Focal point, Normal, , Normal, , Incident, light, , Parallel rays from distant object, , Figure: 10.6, , used, , as, , F1, , F, , F, , Object, , F2, , 0, , 2F1, , 2F2, , 0, , F1, , Image on the same side, behind object, , Object at 2F, , Object beyond 2F, , Object at infinity, , F1, , 2F2, , F2, , 0, , Table: 10.1, Position of, object, At infinity, , Virtual, , F1, , Image at infinity, , 2F1, , F1, , 2F2, , F2, , 0, 2F1, , 0, , Image between F and 2F, , Image at 2F, , Diverging lens, , 2F2, , F2, , 2F1, , Image beyond 2F, , 2F1, , Concave Lenses, , Object between F and 2F, , 2F2, , 0, , F2, , Convex Lenses used as Magnifiers, Convex Lenses, Magnifiers, , F2, , 2F1, , Object at F, , 2F2, , F1, , Image at F, , Position of, image, At focus, , Size of image, , Nature of image, , Point size, , Real and inverted, , Beyond 2F, , Between F and, 2F, , Smaller in size, , Real and inverted, , At 2F, , At 2F, , Same size, , Real and inverted, , Between F and, 2F, , Beyond 2F, , Bigger in size, , Real and inverted, , At F, , At infinity, , Bigger in size, , Real and inverted, , Between, optical centre, C and F, , On the same side, as is the object, , Bigger in size, , Virtual and erect, , F, , Formation of image by concave lens:, Converging lens, , Diverging lens, , Focal point, , Linear magnification: M , , Diverging lens, (concave lens), , i h, , 0 h, Common Gaussian form of, , Image size: h, , lens equation: 1 1 1, 0, , Object size: h, , i, , f, , Object inside, focal length, , i, , Second lens under what the first one did., , O, , Parallel rays from distant object, , f, , De-Magnifier: Concave Lens is Inverse of Convex Lens., Formation of image by convex lens:, , Object outside focal, length, , Figure: 10.8, , Object size, h, f, , f, , P 1/f (f in meters), Image, size, , i, , O, Common Gaussian form of, , h', , lens equation: 1 1 1, O, , i, , f, , Linear magnification: M , , Figure: 10.7, , i h, , O h, , Table: 10.2, Position of, object, Anywhere, , Position of image, , Size of image, , Nature of image, , One the same side, between optical, centre C and F, , Smaller in size, , Virtual and erect, , Ray Optics or Geometrical Optics, Snell’s law of refraction: n1 sin 1 n2 sin 2, , Critical angle of total reflection 1c , sin 1c , , n2, n1
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II.B.74, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, Fast medium (smaller, index of refraction), , Total Internal Reflection, , Show, medium, , The ray, normal to the, surface is not, bent., , 2, 1, n1, , Reflection and, transmission coefficients, for non-normal incidence, can be calculated form the, Fresnel equations., , Normal, reflection, coefficient, , n2, , Figure: 10.9, , n2, , c, , Minimum Deviation in Prism, Through not, bent, part of the, normal ray is, reflected., , Fabry-perot, Etalon, , R, G, B, , Prism, , Blue, , Green, , Red, , Figure: 10.10, , i1 i 2 1, m, 2, , n sin, , , 2, , Optical Instruments, Angular magnification of a magnifying glass, , , f, , Figure: 10.12, , For total internal reflection ray must pass from denser to, rarer medium and the angle of incidence in denser medium, must be grater than critical angle. The cirtical angle is given, , by sin C , , rarer, 1, denser d r, , A fish or diver in water at depth ‘h’ sees outside world in, horizontal circle (at surface or water) or radius, h, r h tan C , 2 1, , m 2i , , F, , Critical Angle c, , n1 High index, material, , Light, , Slit source, , sin, , Light striking a, medium with a lower, index of refraction, can be totally, reflected, Light incident at, any angle > c is, totally reflected, , distance of clear vision and, , Area of horizontal circle, A 2 , , h2, 2 1, , Refraction at Sunset, O, , O, , f focal length, Microscope:, , Angular magnification F , Limit of resolution: sr , , , f1 f 2, , Figure: 10.13, , 1.2, 2nsin, , n, , , , f1, , f2, , Figure: 10.11, , n refractive index of medium in front of objective, 2 aperture angle according to figure, , The sun actually falls below the horizon, i.e., it "sets", a few, seconds before we see it set. Flattening of the Sun at, Sunset: Rays from top of sun are also refracted, but not as, much because they enter the atmosphere at a less oblique, angle. Thus, the top of the sun is also flattened, but not as, much as the bottom. Light from the sun can reflect off the still, surface of a lake to produce a mirror-like reflection. At the, same time, the water can absorb light, transforming the light, energy into thermal energy. The water warms during the day, and cools off at night. If you are looking down into the water, form shore, you might be uncertain about the location of, objects on the bottom. This happens because light is refracted, as it travels from water into the air.
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Optics: Refraction, , II.B.75, , Refraction through a Prism:, P, , C, , 96, , i1, , Figure: 10.14, , E, , All rays reflect internally, but the top three rays reflect only a, small percentage internally; most energy leaves the prism. The, 4th and 5th rays are reflected 100% internally. Critical angle is, 48 degrees. Any ray, which strikes the surface from inside the, water at an angle greater than 48 degrees, will not escape the, water., Prism, , 3, , 2, , 3, , 4, , r2, , G, , i2 or e, H, , N, , R, , m, , Angle of incidence i, , Figure: 10.18, , r1 r2 A , A Angle of prism, i1 i2 A , , and deviation caused by a prism, , sin i1 sin i2, , sin r1 sin r2, , A m, i1, 2, index , A, sin, 2, For maximum deviation either i1 90 or i2 90 , , 3, 1, , , , At position of minimum deviation. the ray travelling in, prism is parallel to its base and refractive, , 2, , 4, 5, , r1, , N2, , i2 r2 , , Q, , 1, , 2, , F, , , , , , , , 1, , A, , i1 r1 , , N1, , Angle of deviation , , A, , B, , sin, , 5, , Figure: 10.15, , The View from Below the Water, , For thin prism: m ( 1) A, Angular dispersion: r ( 0 r ) A, , , , , , Mean deviation, y y 1 A, dark, , dark, , Dispersive power, , , , Fish sees outside world, inside 96 degree cone., , , Figure: 10.16, , Rays A, B, and C from the bottom of the pond are totally, internally reflected. Outside the 96 cone, the fish sees only, light reflected from the bottom., , angular dispersion, mean deviation, , r r, , y, y 1, , The prism is total reflecting if A > 2C, C critical angle, A hollow prism causes no dispersion., Film Projectors, , Entering, light, , Bulb, , Object (upside down), , Real image, Screen, , Internal Reflections in Diamond, The critical angle for diamond in air is 24.5; any ray, which, strikes the surface on the inside at an angle of greater than, 24.5, will not escape the diamond., Critical angle, , Only a real image (light energy) can be formed on a, projector screen, Figure: 10.19, Figure: 10.17
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II.B.76, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Camera Film Image, , Film, Real image, (inverted), , Object, , Myopia/Near sightedness, corrected by a negative lens, (concave) to reduce, refractive power, , Hyperopia/Farsightedness, corrected by a positive, lens (covex) to add, refractive power, , Astigmatism corrected by, an asymmetric lens to, compensate for the, asymmetry of the eye’s lens, , Figure: 10.20, , Figure: 10.22, , Aberration: aA departure from the expected or proper course., Spherical mirrors have an aberration. There is an intrinsic, defect with any mirror, which takes on the shape of a sphere., This defect prohibits the mirror from focusing the entire, , Distance of distinct vision D 25, In myopia, the corrective lens is concave lens of focal, length = far point of defective eye., In hypermetropia, the corrective lens is convex lens, whose, , Spherical, aberration, , Violet, Red, , F, Red, Violet, Spherical Aberration, , Chromatic Aberration, Figure: 10.21, , incident light from the same location on an object to a precise, point. The defect is most noticeable for light rays striking the, outer edges of the mirror. Light rays striking the edges of the, mirror fail to focus at that same point. The result is that the, images of objects as seen in spherical mirrors are often blurry., Spherical aberration is most commonly corrected by use of a, mirror with a different shape. Usually, a parabolic mirror is, substituted for a spherical mirror. In Chromatic Aberration, different colors refract by different amounts., Human Eye and Optical Instruments, , focal length is f , , u, u , , where u = – D = – 25 cm, v = near point of defective eye., In presbyopia, the corrective lens is bifocal lens., In astigmation, the corrective lens is cylindrical lens with, proper axis., Microscope, Simple microscope: It uses only one convex lens of small, , focal length. Magnification M / 1 D / f for final, image at D and M D/f for relaxed eye. If eye is placed at a, distance d then, final image will be at D., Compound microscope: It uses two convex lenses;, objective is of small focal length and eyepiece of large, focal length., L D, D, , Magnification, M m0 me 0 , or, for, f0 fe, u0 f e, relaxed eye , , D, L, D, 1 , 1 or, f0 , fe , u0 , Fe , , 0 , , for final image at D; where L tube-length of microscope., Objective, , Eyepiece, fe, , fo, , Fo, , Fe, , I 2 I1, , Objective, , Figure: 10.23, , fe, , Fe
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Optics: Refraction, , II.B.77, , Eyepiece, Interpupillary Adjustment, , Trinocular Head, , Eyepieces, , Arm, , Nosepiece Turret, Objectives, , Stage Stop, Adjustment, , Mechanical Stage, Slide Holder, , Condenser, , Coaxial Course &, Fine Focus, , Filter Holder, Iris Diaphragm, X-Y Coaxial Stage control, Illumination system, , Base, , Illumination Intensity Knob, Figure: 10.24, , Astronomical Telescope, Astronomical Telescope uses two convex lenses, objective is of, large focal length and eye-piece of small focal length., , Magnification, M , , f0, f , f , for relaxed eye 0 1 e for, fe, fe D , , final image at D., , If the telescope is in far point adjustment, magnifying power, M , , f0, fe, , Length of he telescope, L f 0 4 f f e f0 fe f .., The final image is virtual, erect and appears to be magnified., , Length of telescope L f0 fe for relaxed eye f 0 ue for, , fo, , final image at D., , Fo, , Fe, , f0 , f0 , 1 , fe , D, , Length of the telescope, L f 0 4 f ue . Where, f is the focal, length of the erecting lens., , 2f, , Objective, , Terrestrial telescope: If the telescope is in near point, , adjustment, magnifying power m , , Erect virtual image at, 2f, , Fe, , fe, Objective, , Inverting lens, Figure: 10.25, , fe, , Eyepiece
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II.B.78, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Telescope, Dew shield, Finderscope, , Main tube, Cradle, , Eyepiece, , Eyepiece holder, , Declination setting scale, , Star diagonal, , Azimuth clamp, , Focusing knob, , Altitude clamp, Right ascension setting scale, , Altitude fine adjustment, Azimuth fine adjustment, , Counterweight, , Tripod, , Tripod accessories shelf, , Figure: 10.26 Astronomical Telescope, , Optical Fibres, , Optical fiber, , Figure: 10.27, , On total internal reflection principle optical fibres works., Optical fibres are used in communication systems and microsurgeries. Since total internal reflection takes place within the, fibres, no incident energy is ever lost due to the transmission of, light across the boundary., The intensity of the signal remains constant. Using fibre optics,, physicians are able to look inside the body with very little, invasive effect. The fiber the doctors insert is surrounded by, additional fibres that carry light down to the end.
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Optics: Refraction, , II.B.79, , One consequence of the Moon's orbit about the Earth is that, the Moon can shadow the Sun's light as viewed from the Earth,, or the Moon can pass through the shadow cast by the Earth., The former is called a solar eclipse and the later is called a, lunar eclipse., , Optical Fibres in Medicine, , Solar Eclipse, The shadow cast by the Moon can be divided by geometry into, the completely/full shadowed umbra and the partially, shadowed penumbra., , Figure: 10.28, , Water Mirage, Solar eclipse, , Cool air, Observer, , Moon, , Moon, , Sun, Warm air, , Moon, Moon, Bent rays travelling, through cool and warm air, , Virtual image seen by eye, Figure: 10.29, , Internal Reflections in Prisms, , Figure: 10.32, , Lunar Eclipse, The Earth casts a shadow that the Moon can pass through., When this happens we say that a lunar eclipse occurs. Just as, for solar eclipses, lunar eclipses can be partial or total,, depending on whether the light of the Sun is partially or, completely blocked from reaching the Moon; the Moon lying, in the umbra of the Earth's shadow. Earth's two shadows are, the penumbra and the umbra., Moon, Lunar ecllpse, , 90 degrees, , 180 degrees, Figure: 10.30, , Earth, , Sun, , Full shadow, , Prisms in Binoculars, , Partial shadow, Figure: 10.33, , Figure: 10.31, , Arthroscopic Surgery Bronchoscope Colonoscope, Eclipses, Eclipses have long been a source of mystery and spectacle., These events were viewed with fear and dread in the past., Eclipses occur when the Sun, the Earth and the Moon line up., , Example 1. Why do stars twinkle but not the planets?, Solution: The density of the atmosphere is not uniform as it, goes on decreasing with the distance from the earth. The rays, coming from the distant stars have to pass through the various, mediums in which the light gets refracted due to the variation, of densities. Also the atmosphere in the earth is not stationary, due to which the position of the star changes much faster from, the earth. Hence, the change in the position of the star creates, the twinkling of the star. But the distance betweens the planet, and the earth is much more less than the distance between the, earth and the star. So, there is negligible change in the position, of the planet from the earth due to which it does not appear to, be twinkling at the sky.
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II.B.80, , Example 2. Why does a crack in glass plane appear shining, when viewed from a suitable direction?, Solution: In a crack glass, the air replaces the cracked, volume. When it is observed from the suitable direction, the, light of it has to pass from two medium from the glass to the, air i.e. from the denser to the rarer medium. During their, journey they make incidence angle greater than the critical, angle due to which the total internal reflection process occurs., Hence these rays appeared to be shining when viewed from, suitable directions. So, crack appears to shine., Example 3. If you see a fish in clear water, how should you, aim to shoot it? Explain., Solution: As the light rays coming from a fish passes through, two medium i.e. from denser to rarer medium. As the light, passes from denser to rarer medium, according to the law of, refraction, it goes away from the normal. Due to this the fish, appear to be nearer to the surface i.e. it appears in its apparent, position. In order to shoot it we should aim at a position below, than the apparent position which is the actual position of the, fish., Example 4. Why does a diamond sparkle with a great, brilliancy?, Solution: The refractive index of the diamond is very high and, the faces of the diamond are cut in such a way that when a, light enters into it, the angle of incident is always greater than, the critical angle, which results in the multiple total internal, reflection. So, due to this the diamond sparkles with great, brilliancy., Example 5. Why does a clear pool of water appear to be, shallower than it actually is?, Solution: Due to the refraction of light, the light rays coming, from the bottom of the pool bends away from the normal., Hence the light rays actually coming from the depth of the, pool appears as coming from the lower depth than actual, depth. So, the depth of the pond appears slightly raised due to, which a clear pool of water appear to be shallower than it, actually is., Example 6. How does the refraction affect the length of the, day?, Solution: If there is no atmosphere on the earth surface, the, length of the day decreases by 4 minutes i.e. 2 minutes in, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , morning and 2 minutes in evening. Hence, Due to refraction of, light through the atmosphere, the length of the day increases, by 4 minutes., Example 7. A coin placed at the bottom of a beaker containing, water seems to be raised. Explain why?, Solution: When light rays of a coin from the bottom of water, is observed by the observer in the air then the presence of the, two media results in the refraction of the light. When light rays, travel from the water (denser medium) to air (rarer medium),, bends away from the normal. So, the refracted rays coming, from a coin is observed at its apparent position rather than its, real position. Hence, a coin placed at the bottom of a beaker, containing water seems to be raised., Example 8. Why does the sun look a little oval when it is at, the horizon?, Solution: The refraction of the light due to the variation in the, density of the air in the atmosphere is the main cause for the, oval shape of the sun when it is at the horizon. The magnitude, of refraction increases with decreasing the altitude. As a result, of which the lower portion of the sun are raised much than the, upper position. So, the vertical diameter is shortened more than, its horizontal diameter. Hence the sun acquires the oval shape, at the horizon., Example 9. Swimming pools are always deeper than they, look. Why?, Solution: When the swimming pool is observed, the light rays, of the foot of the pool have to pass through the two medium, from water to air i.e. from denser to rarer medium. As they, passes from denser to rarer medium, it goes away from the, normal. Hence the original or real depth of the pool is, observed at its apparent position where it is raised. So,, swimming pools are always deeper than they look., , Example 10. The sun is visible a even before the actual, sunrise and after actual sunset. Explain., Solution: The density of air decreases as the distant is, increased from the earth in the atmosphere. The magnitude of, refraction increases with decrease in the height. Due to this,, the lower portion of the sun at the time of sunset and sunrise, are raised more than the upper portion. So, the vertical, diameter of the sun is shortened more than the horizontal, diameter. As a result, the sun is visible a even before the actual, sunrise and after actual sunset.
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Optics: Refraction, , II.B.81, , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , 2., , To an observer on the earth the stars appear to twinkle., This can be ascribed to, a. The fact that stars do not emit light continuously, b. Frequent absorption of star light by their own, atmosphere, c. Frequent absorption of star light by the earth's, atmosphere, d. The refractive index fluctuations in the earth's, atmosphere, The ratio of the refractive index of red light to blue light, in air is:, a. Less than unity, b. Equal to unity, c. Greater than unity, d. Less as well as greater than unity depending upon the, experimental arrangement, , 8, , A beam of light is converging towards a point I on a, screen. A plane glass plate whose thickness in the, direction of the beam t , refractive index , is, introduced in the path of the beam. The convergence, point is shifted by, , 9., , , 1, a. t 1 away, , , , , 1, b. t 1 away, , , , , 1, c. t 1 nearer, , , , , , 1, d. t 1 nearer, , , , , Light travels through a glass plate of thickness t and, having refractive index n. If c is the velocity of light in, vacuum, the time taken by the light to travel this thickness, of glass is:, a. t, , nc, , b. tn c, , c. nt, c, , d. tc, n, , 3., , The refractive index of a piece of transparent quartz is the, greatest for, a. Red light, b. Violet light, c. Green light, d. Yellow light, , 10. When a light wave goes from air into water, the quality, that remains unchanged is its, a. Speed, b. Amplitude, c. Frequency, d. Wavelength, , 4., , The refractive index of a certain glass is 1.5 for light, whose wavelength in vacuum is 6000 Å. The wavelength, of this light when it passes through glass is:, a. 4000 Å, b. 6000 Å, c. 9000 Å, d. 15000 Å, , 11. Light takes 8 min 20 sec to reach from sun on the earth. If, the whole atmosphere is filled with water, the light will, take the time ( a w 4 / 3)., , 5., , 6., , When light travels from one medium to the other of, which the refractive index is different, then which of the, following will change?, a. Frequency, wavelength and velocity, b. Frequency and wavelength, c. Frequency and velocity, d. Wavelength and velocity, A rectangular tank of depth 8 metre is full of water, ( 4 / 3), the bottom is seen at the depth, a. 6 m, , 7., , b. 8/3 m, , c. 8 cm, , a. 8 min 20 sec, c. 6 min 11 sec, , 12. If the speed of light in vacuum is C m / sec, then the, , velocity of light in a medium of refractive index 1.5, a. is 1 .5 C, b. is C, c. is C, , refractive index 1 . The apparent depth of the vessel, seen perpendicularly is:, , a. d 1 2 , 1 2 , , 1, 1 , b. d , , , , 2 , 1, , 1, 1 , c. 2d , , 1 2 , , 1 , d. 2d , , 1 2 , , d. can have any velocity, , 1.5, , 13. On a glass plate a light wave is incident at an angle of, 60°. If the reflected and the refracted waves are mutually, perpendicular, the refractive index of material is:, , d. 10 cm, , A vessel of depth 2d cm is half filled with a liquid of, refractive index 1 and the upper half with a liquid of, , b. 8 min, d. 11 min 6 sec, , a., , 3, 2, , b., , 3, , c. 3, 2, , d., , 1, 3, , 14. Refractive index of glass is 3 and refractive index of, 2, 4, water is . If the speed of light in glass is 2 .0 0 1 0 8, 3, , m/s, the speed in water will be, a. 2.67 108 m/ s, , b. 2.25108 m / s, , c. 1.78108 m / s, , d. 1.50108 m / s
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II.B.82, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 15. A mark at the bottom of a liquid appears to rise by 0.1 m., The depth of the liquid is 1 m. The refractive index of the, liquid is:, b. 9, , a. 1.33, , c. 10, , 10, , b. 1.5, , 9, , 16. A man standing in a swimming pool looks at a stone lying, at the bottom. The depth of the swimming pool is h. At, what distance from the surface of water is the image of, the stone formed (Line of vision is normal; Refractive, index of water is n), a. h, , b. n, , n, , c. h, , h, , d. hn, , 23. Finger prints on a piece of paper may be detected by, sprinkling fluorescent powder on the paper and then, looking it into, a. Mercury light, b. Sunlight, c. Infrared light, d. Ultraviolet light, 24. Critical angle of light passing from glass to air is, minimum for, a. Red, b. Green, c. Yellow, d. Violet, 25. A fish is a little away below the surface of a lake. If the, critical angle is 4 9 , then the fish could see things, , above the water surface within an angular range of °, where, , 17. On heating a liquid, the refractive index generally, a. Decreases, b. Increases or decreases depending on the rate of heating, c. Does not change, d. Increases, , Air, , Water, , 18. A ray of light passes through four transparent media with, refractive indices 1 , 2 , 3 and 4 as shown in the, , figure. The surfaces of all media are parallel. If the, emergent ray CD is parallel to the incident ray AB, we, must have, D, , 1, , 2, , 3, , 4, , B, , C, , b. 2 3, , c. 3 4, , A, , a. 1 2, , d. 4 1, , 19. Which of the following statement is true?, a. Velocity of light is constant in all media, b. Velocity of light in vacuum is maximum, c. Velocity of light is same in all reference frames, d. Laws of nature have identical form in all reference, frames, 20. A ray of light is incident on a transparent glass slab of, refractive index 1.62. The reflected and the refracted rays, are mutually perpendicular. The angle of incidence is :, a. 5 8 .3 , b. 5 0 , c. 5 3 , d. 3 0 , 21. The mean distance of sun from the earth is 1.5 108 Km, , (nearly). The time taken by the light to reach earth from, the sun is:, a. 0.12 min, b. 8.33 min c. 12.5 min d. 6.25 min, 22. Speed of light is maximum in, a. Water, b. Air, c. Glass, d. Diamond, , a. 49, , , , b. 90, , c. 98, , d. 24 1 , 2, , 26. A cut diamond sparkles because of its, a. Hardness, b. High refractive index, c. Emission of light by the diamond, d. Absorption of light by the diamond, 27. A diver in a swimming pool wants to signal his distress to, a person lying on the edge of the pool by flashing his, water proof flash light, a. He must direct the beam vertically upwards, b. He has to direct the beam horizontally, c. He has to direct the beam at an angle to the vertical, which is slightly less than the critical angle of incidence, for total internal reflection, d. He has to direct the beam at an angle to the vertical, which is slightly more than the critical angle of incidence, for the total internal reflection, 28. The phenomenon utilised in an optical fibre is :, a. Refraction, b. Interference, c. Polarisation, d. Total internal reflection, 29. The refractive index of water is 4 / 3 and that of glass is, 5/3. What will be the critical angle for the ray of light, entering water from the glass, a. sin 1 4, 5, , 30, , b. sin 1 5, , 4, , c. sin 1 1, , 2, , d. sin 1 2, 1, , Total internal reflection is possible when light rays travel, a. Air to water, b. Air to glass, c. Glass to water, d.Water to glass
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Optics: Refraction, , 31. A lens of power +2 diopters is placed in contact with a, lens of power –1 diopter. The combination will behave, like, a. A convergent lens of focal length 50 cm, b. A divergent lens of focal length 100 cm, c. A convergent lens of focal length 100 cm, d. A convergent lens of focal length 200 cm, 32. A convex lens of focal length 40 cm is in contact with a, concave lens of focal length 25 cm. The power of, combination is:, a. – 1.5 D, b. – 6.5 D, c. + 6.5 D, d. + 6.67 D, 33. A converging lens is used to form an image on a screen., When upper half of the lens is covered by an opaque, screen, a. Half the image will disappear, b. Complete image will be formed of same intensity, c. Half image will be formed of same intensity, d. Complete image will be formed of decreased intensity, 34. A thin convex lens of focal length 10 cm is placed in, contact with a concave lens of same material and of same, focal length. The focal length of combination will be:, a. Zero, b. Infinity, c. 10 cm, d. 20 cm, 35. A convex lens of crown glass ( n=1.525) will behave as a, divergent lens if immersed in, a. water (n =1.33), b. a medium of n = 1.525, c. carbon disulphide n =1.66, d. it cannot act as a divergent lens, 36. A divergent lens will produce, a. Always a virtual image, b. Always real image, c. Sometimes real and sometimes virtual, d. None of the above, 37. The minimum distance between an object and its real, image formed by a convex lens is:, a.1.5 f, b. 2 f, c. 2.5 f, d. 4 f, 38. An object is placed at a distance of 20 cm from a convex, lens of focal length 10 cm. The image is formed on the, other side of the lens at a distance of:, a. 20 cm, b. 10 cm, c. 40 cm, d. 30 cm, 39. A lens behaves as a converging lens in air and a diverging, lens in water. The refractive index of the material is:, a. Equal to unity, b. Equal to 1.33, c. Between unity and 1.33, d. Greater than 1.33, , II.B.83, , 40. The focal length of convex lens is 30 cm and the size of, image is quarter of the object, then the object distance is:, a. 150 cm, b. 60 cm, c. 30 cm, d. 40 cm, 41. Two thin lenses of focal lengths f1 and f 2 are in contact., , The focal length of this combination is:, f f, f f, 2 f1 f2, a. 1 2, b. 1 2, c., f1 f2, f1 f2, f1 f2, , d., , 2 f1 f2, f1 f2, , 42. At what distance from a convex lens of focal length 30, cm, an object should be placed so that the size of the, image be 1/2 of the object, a. 30 cm, b. 60 cm, c. 15 cm, d. 90 cm, 43. When light rays from the sun fall on a convex lens along, a direction parallel to its axis?, a. Focal length for all colours is the same, b. Focal length for violet colour is the shortest, c. Focal length for yellow colour is the longest, d. Focal length for red colour is the shortest, 44. A convex lens is in contact with concave lens. The, magnitude of the ratio of their focal length is 2/3. Their, equivalent focal length is 30 cm. What are their individual, focal lengths, a. – 75, 50, b. – 10, 15 c. 75, 50, d. – 15, 10, 45. The refractive index of a material of a prism of angles, 45°– 45° – 90° is 1.5. The path of the ray of light incident, normally on the hypotenuse side is shown in:, , a., , c., , B, , B, , A, , A, , 90°, , 90°, , 45°, , 45°, , 45°, , C, , b., , B, , 45°, , 45°, , A, , A, , 90°, , 90°, 45°, , C, , d., , B, , 45°, , 45°, , C, , C, , 46. A far sighted man who has lost his spectacles, reads a, book by looking through a small hole (3–4 mm) in a sheet, of paper. The reason will be, a. Because the hole produces an image of the letters at a, longer distance, b. Because in doing so, the focal length of the eye lens is, effectively increased, c. Because in doing so, the focal length of the eye lens is, effectively decreased, d. None of these, 47. For a normal eye, the least distance of distinct vision is:, a. 0.25 m, b. 0.50 m, c. 25 m, d. Infinite
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.B.84, , 48. For the myopic eye, the defect is cured by;, a. Convex lens, b. Concave lens, c. Cylindrical lens, d. Toric lens, 49. Lens used to remove long sightedness (hypermetropia) is:, or, A person suffering from hypermetropia requires which, type of spectacle lenses, a. Concave lens, b. Plano-concave lens, c. Convexo-concave lens, d. Convex lens, 50. Image is formed for the short sighted person at, a. Retina, b. Before retina, c. Behind the retina, d. Image is not formed at all, 51. A presbyopic patient has near point as 30 cm and far point, as 40 cm. The dioptric power for the corrective lens for, seeing distant objects is:, a. 40 D, b. 4 D, c. – 2.5 D, d. 0.25 D, 52. An imaginary line joining the optical centre of the eye, lens and the yellow point is called as, a. Principal axis, b. Vision axis, c. Neutral axis, d. Optical axis, 53. The light when enters the human eye experiences most of, the refraction while passing through, a. Cornea, b. Aqueous humour, c. Vitrous humour, d. Crystalline lens, The impact of an image on the retina remains for, a. 0.1 sec, b. 0.5 sec, c. 10 sec, d. 15 sec, , 54, , 55. A person is suffering from myopic defect. He is able to, see clear objects placed at 15 cm. What type and of what, focal length of lens he should use to see clearly the object, placed 60 cm away, a. Concave lens of 20 cm focal length, b. Convex lens of 20 cm focal length, c. Concave lens of 12 cm focal length, d. Convex lens of 12 cm focal length, 56. The sensation of vision in the retina is carried to the brain, by:, a. Ciliary muscles, b. Blind spot, c. Cylindrical lens, d. Optic nerve, 57. When the power of eye lens increases, the defect of vision, is produced. The defect is known as, a. Shortsightedness, b. Longsightedness, c. Colourblindness, d. None of these, 58. A man is suffering from colour blindness for green, colour. To remove this defect, he should use goggles of, a. Green colour glasses, b. Red colour glasses, c. Smoky colour glasses, d. None of these, 59. In human eye the focussing is done by, a. To and fro movement of eye lens, b. To and fro movement of the retina, c. Change in the convexity of the lens surface, d. Change in the refractive index of the eye fluids, 60. The human eye has a lens which has a, a. Soft portion at its centre, b. Hard surface, c. Varying refractive index, d. Constant refractive index, , ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , d, , a, , b, , a, , d, , a, , b, , a, , c, , c, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , d, , c, , b, , b, , c, , a, , a, , d, , b, , a, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , b, , b, , d, , d, , c, , b, , c, , d, , a, , c, , 31., , 32., , 33., , 34., , 35., , 36., , 37., , 38., , 39., , 40., , c, , a, , d, , b, , c, , a, , d, , a, , c, , a, , 41., , 42., , 43., , 44., , 45., , 46., , 47., , 48., , 49., , 50., , b, , d, , b, , d, , a, , c, , a, , b, , d, , b, , 51., , 52., , 53., , 54., , 55., , 56., , 57., , 58., , 59., , 60., , c, , b, , a, , a, , a, , d, , a, , d, , c, , c, , SOLUTIONS, 2., , (a) µ blue > µ red, , 3., , (b) µ ∝ , λr > λv, , 4., , (a) λmedium =, , 5., , (d) Velocity and wavelength change but frequency, remains same., , 6., , (a) µ =, , 1, , λ, , λair 6000, =, = 4000 Å, 1.5, µ, , h, 8, ⇒ h′ =, =6m, ′, h, 4/3
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Optics: Refraction, , 7., 8., , (b) h , , d1, , 1, , II.B.85, , , , 1, 1 , d , , 2, 1 2 , d2, , , 1, (a) Normal shift x 1 t and shift takes place in, , direction of ray., , 19. (b) Velocity of light is maximum in vacuum., 20. (a) tan i, , i tan 1 tan 1 1.62 58.3, 21. (b) t , , s, , , , 22. (b) v , I', , I, , , , x, , distance, t, nt, , , speed, c/ x c, 10. (c) Let and represents frequency and wavelength of, light in medium respectively., v c/ c, , So, , / , (c) time , , 11. (d) , , ca t w, , cw t a, , 25 4, 1, 11 11 min 6 sec, 3 9, 9, C, C, Cm , 12. (c) , 1.5, Cm, , tw , , 13. (b) From figure i 60o , r 30o, , So, , , sin60, 3, sin30, , 14. (b) , , , , 1, v, , g vw, , w vg, , 1.5 108 103, 500sec 8.33min., 3 108, , is smaller for air than water, glass and, , , , diamond., , sin C , , 1, sin C, , 1, a g, , As for violet colour is maximum, so sin C is minimum, and hence critical angle C is minimum for voilet colour., 25. (c) From figure given in question 2 c 9 8 ., 26. (b) Due to high refractive index its critical angle is very, small so that most of the light incident on the diamond is, total internally reflected repeatedly and diamond sparkles., 27. (c) When incident angle is greater than critical angle, then, total internal reflection takes place and will come back in, same medium., 29. (a) w g , , 1, sin C, , , , g 5 / 3, 1, , , w 4 / 3 sin C, , , , sin C , , 4, 4, C sin 1 , 5, 5, , 30. (c) Total internal reflection occurs when light ray travels, from denser medium to rarer medium., , vw, 3/ 2, , vw 2.25108 m/ s, 4 / 3 2 108, 15. (c) Real depth 1m, , , , Apparent depth 1 0 .1 0 .9 m, Refractive index , 16. (a) , , 1, , 24. (d) a g , , t, , 9., , , , 1 10, Real depth, , , 0.9, 9, Apparent depth, , h, h, h' , h', n, , 1, 17. (a) Refractive index , Termperature , , 18. (d) For successive refraction through different media, sin constant., , Here as is same in the two extreme media, 1 4 ., , 31. (c), , P, P, 1 1 1, 1, , 1 2 , f, f1 f 2 100 100 100, , f 100 cm, A convergent lens of focal length 100 cm., 32. (a) Focal length of the combination can be calculated as, 1 1 1, , F f1 f 2, , , , , , 1, 1, 1, , , F (40) (25), , 200, cm, 3, 100, 100, , 1.5 D, P, F 200/3, , F
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II.B.86, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 33. (d) Because to form the complete image only two rays are, to be passed through the lens and moreover, since the, total amount of light released by the object is not passing, through the lens, therefore image is faint (intensity is, decreased)., f f, 10(10), 100, , , 34. (b) f 1 2 , f1 f 2 10 (10) 10 10, , 45. (a) According to given conditions TIR must take place at, both the surfaces AB and AC. Hence, only option (a) is, correct., 46. (c) Man is suffering from hypermetropia. The hole works, like a convex lens., 48. (b) In myopia, u ,, v d distance of far point, , 35. (c) A lens shows opposite behaviour if medium lens, 36. (a) A concave lens always forms virtual image for real, objects., I, , By , , 2 N . A., R.P. N . A. we get f d, 1.22 , , Since f is negative, hence the lens used is concave., 49. (d) Hypermetropia is removed by convex lens., , O, , Convex lens, 2f, , Retina, , 2f, 4f, , 38. (a), , I, Near, point, , 1 1 1, , f v u, , (Given u 2 0 cm, f 10 cm, v ? ), , , , 1 1, 1, , v 20 cm, 10 v (20), , 39. (c) air lens water i.e., 1 lens 1.33, , 50. (b) In short sightedness, the focal length of eye lens, decreases, so image is formed before retina., 51. (c) In this case, for seeing distant objects the far point is, 40 cm. Hence, the required focal length is, , f d (distance of far point) 4 0 c m, , 1, 30, f, , 40. (a) m , u 150 cm, f u, 4 30 u, 42. (d) m , , , , m, , 1, 2, , 1, 30, f, , u 90 cm, u f, 2 u 30, , 43. (b) Focal length for voilet colour is minimum., f 2, 44. (d) 1 , . . . (i), f2 3, , 1 1 1, , f1 f2 30, Solving equation (i) and (ii), we get, , f 2 15 cm (Concave), , f1 10 cm (Convex), , . . . (ii), , Power P , , 100, 100, cm , 2.5 D, f, 40, , 55. (a) For viewing far objects, concave lenses are used and, for concave lens, , u = wants to see 60 cm;, v = can see 15cm, , So, from, , 1 1 1, f 20 cm ., f v u, , 57. (a) In short sightedness, the focal length of eye lens, decreases and so the power of eye lens increases., 58. (d) Colour blindness is a genetic disease and still cannot, be cured., 59. (c) Convexity to lens changes by the pressure applied by, ciliary muscles., ,
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II.B.87, , Electricity, , 11, What would your life be like without electricity? Electricity, supplies the energy needed to operate your household, appliances, calculator, and radio. You know that electrons at, rest produce static electricity. However in a wire move, or, flow. These moving electrons are called electric current. How, do you know to let go of a hot object? Your body uses electric, signals to communicate with your brain. Even though the net, charge of your body is neutral, some parts have positive or, negative Charges, For example, the outside of a nerve cell has, a positive charge, and the inside of the nerve cell has a negative, charge. These charges are separated by a membrane that covers, the nerve cell. If you touch a hot pan, negative charges on the, inside of the nerve cells pass through the membrane. The net, electric charge on each side of the membrane changes and a, continuous change of electric charge moves along the length of, the nerve, producing an electric signal, or impulse. This, impulse travels to your spinal cord. A reflex from your spinal, cord sends another impulse to your hand. Your muscles, respond, and you drop the hot pan., Electricity is the set of physical phenomena associated with the, presence and flow of electric charge. Electricity gives a wide, variety of well-known effects, such as lightning, static, electricity, electromagnetic induction and electrical current. In, addition, electricity permits the creation and reception of, electromagnetic radiation such as radio waves. Electricity's, extraordinary versatility means it can be put to an almost, limitless set of applications which include transport, heating,, lighting, communications, and computation. Electrical power is, now the backbone of modern industrial society., Note: In electrical engineering, electricity is used for:, Electric power where electric current is used to energise, equipment., Electronics which deals with electrical circuits that involve, active electrical components such as vacuum tubes,, transistors, diodes and integrated circuits, and associated, passive interconnection technologies., AC (Alternating Current): Direction of current flow changes, many times in a second. In the US, the frequency of change is, 60 Hz. Therefore, the current changes direction 120 times per, second., , Electricity, DC (Direct Current): A steady flow of current in one, direction., Electromotive Force (emf): Source of energy moving, electrons through the circuit. For a battery, the maximum, potential difference that exists between the terminals is referred, to as the emf (e) of the battery., Terminal Voltage (Vab): When using a battery, what is really, measured is the voltage delivered to the circuit, or the voltage, between the two terminals. When no current is drawn from the, battery, the terminal voltage is equal to the emf. When a, current is drawn, the voltage between the terminals is called the, terminal voltage, the actual voltage delivered to the circuit., Electrical Energy (symbol is EE; SI unit is Joule): The total, power in a series combination of light bulbs and in a parallel, combination of light bulbs is simply the sum of the individual, wattages. For example, two 60 W light bulbs have a dissipate, 120 W in a series combination as well as in a parallel, combination. Electric companies sell you in units of kW-hr., where P = I 2 R = V 2 / R = VI Electrical Energy, EE = Pt = VIt, Internal resistance (r) when a current is drawn from a battery,, over time, the voltage delivered to the circuit by the battery, drops below its listed emf. A battery itself has some internal, resistance due to the chemical reactions moving charges from, one terminal to another, Vab = E − Ir, Galvanometer measures small currents ammeter measures, current; ammeters and galvanometers are connected in a, circuit, positive to positive and negative to negative; they have, very low resistance so that the current flow through them is a, maximum; they are connected in series. Voltmeter measures, potential difference between two points in a circuit; voltmeters, are connected in a circuit, positive to negative and negative to, positive. They have very high resistance so that the current, flow through them is a minimum; they are connected in, parallel. Electric current or just current is defined as the total, charge that passes through a given cross-sectional area per unit, time. Formally we can describe the current, I, as:, , I = dQ / dt . Current due to rotatory motion of charge: If a point
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II.B.88, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , charge q is moving in a circle of radius r with speed v, , where An normal area, , (frequency v, angular speed and time period T) then, , Current I J A JAcos neA d, , corresponding current i qv , , q qv q, , , T 2 r 2, , , , where d is drift velocity., , Electronics Colour Code: The electronic colour code is used, to indicate the values or ratings of electronic components,, usually for resistors, but also for capacitors, inductors, and, others., , Drift velocity of electrons in a metal is of the order of 10–3, m/s and is directly proportional to electric field (or potential, difference applied). The current flows with speed of, light., d, e, Area, A, , vd, , Bbroygbvgw: (Mnemonic for resistor color code: B.B. Roy of, Great Britain Has a Very Good Wife), , Current measuring point, Figure: 11.3, , Brown 1, , 10, , 1%, , Red, , 100, , 2%, , 2, , Orange 3, , 1000, , Yellow 4, , 10000, , Green 5, , 100000, , Blue, , 1000000, , 6, , Violet 7, Grey, , 8, , Gold, , 0.1, , Gold, , 5%, , White 9, , Silver, , 0.01, , Silver, , 10 %, , cross-section, then its length also increase and then R, , Figure: 11.1, , R, , First figure, Second figure, Third figure (on, close tolerance, resistor), , Multiplier, , Figure: 11.2, , In metals charge carriers are only free electrons. In liquids, charge carriers are positive and negative ions. In gases, charge carries are positive ions and electrons. And in semiconductors charge carriers are electrons and holes., Current is a tensor quantity, while current density is a, vector. Conventionally direction of current is taken along, the direction of flow of positive charges., q dq, Electric Current I , (scalar quantity), t, dt, I, Current Density J , An, , l, r2, , Resistance R , , l, A, , , , 2m l, , ne2 A, , Where, specific resistance, , relaxation time,, n electron density in metre–3, Current flow = 1, electron drift, Source, , Temperature coefficient, (only on close tolerance, metal film resistor), Tolerance, , l, or, a, , Load = R, , Tolerance, 1, , p.d = IR = V, , Multiplier, , 0, , e.m.f. = E, , Digit, Black, , Mean velocity of electrons due to their thermal agitations, (or random motion) is zero; while mean speed depends on, temperature., Ohm’s Law: V = RI(under same physical conditions)., The resistance of a conductor is directly proportional to, length and inversely proportional to cross-sectional area., i.e. At a given temperature, the specific resistance of a, conductor is independent of dimensions but depends only, on material., If a given mass of a material is stretched to decreases its, , Figure: 11.4, , Stretching of Wire: If a conducting wire stretches, it’s length, increases, area of cross-section decreases so resistance, increases but volume remains constant.
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Electricity, , II.B.89, , Suppose for a conducting wire before stretching it’s length l1,, area of cross-section A1, radius r1, diameter d1 and, l, resistance R1 1, A1, , Effect of temperature on resistance: Generally metals offer, more electrical resistance if temperature is increased. On the, other hand the resistance offered by a non-metallic substance, normally decreases with increase of temperature., , After stretching length = l2, area of cross-section = A2, radius =, l, r2, diameter = d2 and resistance = R2 2 ., A2, , For linear variation or if t is not too large, , Ratio of resistances before and after stretching:, , For metals is positive and for semi-conductor is negative., , 2, , 2, , 4, , R1 l1 A2 l1 A2 r2 d2 , , R2 l2 A1 l2 A1 r1 d1 , 2, If length is given then R l , , R1 l1 , , R2 l2 , , Combination of Resistances, Resistance in series:, , 2, , Battery, , R r , 1, 1 2 ., 4, r, R2 r1 , , a, b, c, a, Length = a, , b , Resistance R , , ac , , Conductance K , , c, , b, Length b, , A filament lamp, Current, (in amp.), , (in, , R R1 + R2, Figure: 11.7, , Net resistance R R1 R2, Net potential difference, V V1 V2, Current i i1 i2 (same in all resistance), Key, , Battery, , Figure: 11.6, , (in, , R1, , i1, , R2, i2, , Pd, l ), , V, Figure: 11.8, , Net resistance R is given by, , 1 1, 1, , R R1 R2, , Net current, i i1 i2, Potential difference, V V1 V2 (same across all resistances), , A diode, Current, (in amp.), , Pd, l ), , i = i1 + i2, , i, , Ohm’s Law, J E (alternative form) or V Ri. For, Ohmic conductors (like iron, silver), V I graph is a, straight line. And for non-ohmic conductors (like junction, diode, torch bulb, thermistor), V I graph is non-linear, , Pd, l ), , R2, V2, , R1, V1, , 1, R, , ne 2, (for metals), 2m, 1, 2m, Conductivity 2 (for metals), ne , , Current, (in amp.), , i, , V, , Resistances in parallel:, , Figure: 11.5, , Specific resistance , , A resistor at, constant, , Key, , i, , Resistance of a conducting body is not unique but depends, on it’s length and area of cross-section i.e. how the, potential difference is applied. See the following figure, Area of cross-section b x c, Area of cross-section a x c, a , Resistance R , , bc , , Rt T0 1 t , , 4, , 4, , If radius is given then R , , Rt T0 1 t t 2 ; , , (in, , Decoration of lights in festivals is an example of series, grouping whereas all household appliances are connected in, parallel grouping., Using n conductors of equal resistance, the number of, possible combinations is 2n1., If the resistances of n conductors are totally different, then, , the number of possible combinations will be 2n.
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II.B.90, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , If n identical resistances are first connected in series and, then in parallel, the ratio of the equivalent resistance is, , given by, , 1 1 1 1, , P P1 P2 P3, , Time taken by heater to rasie the temperature by of m, , Rs n 2, ., Rp, 1, , If a wire of resistance R is cut in n equal parts and then, these parts are collected to form a bundle, then equivalent, , R, resistance of combination will be 2 ., n, Internal resistance, r: Potential difference across the, terminals of a cell V E ir where r = internal resistance,, E = emf of cell here V = iR, , Where, R external resistance., Electrical energy, , 4180m, p, , Jouls constant J 4.18 jouls /cal., If a heating coil of resistance R, (length l) consumes power, P, when voltage V is applied to it, then by keeping V, constant if it is cut in n equal parts then resistance of each, , part will be R/n and from P consumed , , 1, , power consumed, R, , i2, (Independent, 2 2r 3, length), resistivity, r radius of wire., h, , V2, t Joule, R, , Electrical power P Vi i 2 R , , kg (or m litre) water is given by t , , by each part P ' nP, In steady state, the heat radiated per unit area per second is:, , E , Internal resistance r 1 R, V, , , W Vit i 2 Rt , , then net power P is, , of, , Household Wiring, , V2, t Watt, R, , Heat produced by a current, , Q, , Vit i 2 Rt V 2, , , t kilocal, J, J, JR, , Where, J 4.2 103 Joule/kilocal., Resistance of a bulb of given power P and voltage V, , R, , V2, Ohm, P, , Maximum safe current in a bulb i , , Voltage:, Power:, , 220 V, 25 W, , P, V, 220 V, 100 W, , 220 V, 1000 W, , Figure: 11.9, Table: 11.1 Shock Physiological Effects, Electric, Physiological Effect, Current, (1 second, contact), , Resistance:, , R1000, , R100, , R25, , Brightness:, , R1000, , R100, , R25, , Filament Thickness:, , t1000, , t100, , t25, , In houses electrical appliances are connected in parallel. If, appliances of powers P1 , P2 , P3 are connected in parallel,, , across a given potential difference, then net power, P P1 P2 P3 , If electrical appliance designed to operate at V volt are, connected in series across a potential difference V volt,, , 1 mA, 5 mA, 10–20 mA, , 100–300 mA, , Threshold of feeling,, tingling sensation., Accepted as maximum, harmless current, Beginning of sustained, muscular contraction, ("Can't let go" current.), Ventricular fibrillation,, fatal if continued., Respiratory function, continues., , Voltage required to, produce the current with, assumed body resistance:, 100,000, 1,000, ohms, ohms, 100 V, 1V, 500 V, , 5V, , 1000 V, , 10 V, , 10000 V, , 100 V
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Electricity, 6A, , II.B.91, Sustained ventricular, contraction followed by, normal heart rhythm., (defibrillation)., Temporary respiratory, paralysis and possibly, burns., , 600000 V, , 6000 V, , so that when the fuse blows (opens) it will open the entire, circuit and stop current through the component(s). Normally,, the thin piece of fuse wire is contained within a safety sheath to, minimise hazards of arc blast if the wire burns open with, violent force, as can happen in the case of severe over currents., The electrical schematic drawing symbol for a fuse is an S-, , Example 1. Will the 120 volt common household voltage, produce a dangerous shock? It depends!, Solution: If your body resistance is 100,000 ohms, then the, current which would flow would be:, I, , shaped curve:, , Fuse, , 120 volts, 100,000 , , .0012 A 1.2mA, (This is just about a the threshold of perception, 30 would, produce only a tingle.), But if you have just played a couple of sets of tennis, are, sweaty and barefoot, then your resistance to ground might be, as low as 1000 ohms. Then the current would be:, , I, , 120 volts, 1000 , , 480 V drop, , Excessive, voltage, , Blow fuse, , arc!, Load, , Load, 480 V, , 480 V, When the fuse ‘blows,’ full supply, voltage will be dropped across it and, there will be no current in the circuit., , If the voltage across the blown fuse is, high enough, a spark may jump the gap,, allowing some current in the circuit., THIS WOULD NOT BE GOOD!!!, , Figure: 11.10, , .12 A 120 mA, (This is a lethal shock, capable of producing ventricular, , After a fuse blows: The melted ends of the once-continuous, , fibrillation and death!), , wire will be separated by an air gap, with full supply voltage, between the ends. If the fuse isn't made long enough on a high-, , The severity of shock from a given source will depend upon its, path through your body. Some of the telltale signs, which may, indicate a potential safety problem, are:, Overheating plugs and sockets, Cables heating, Sparking/Arcing signs on fittings, Fuses (or MCBs) blowing frequently, The colour code for cables is: Brown /D to the Live (L), terminal; Green/Yellow to the Earth (E or sign) terminal and, Blue /Black to the Neutral (N) terminal., , voltage circuit, a spark may be able to jump from one of the, melted wire ends to the other, completing the circuit again., Fuses are always supposed to be placed on the "hot" side of the, load in systems that are grounded. The intent of this is for the, load to be completely de-energised in all respects after the fuse, opens. To see the difference between fusing the "hot" side, versus the "neutral" side of a load, compare these two circuits:, “Hot”, , “Hot”, , Load, , Blown fuse, , Load, , Fuses: The ampacity rating of a conductor is a circuit design, , “Neutral”, , “Neutral”, , Number voltage between either, side of load and ground, , Voltage present between either, side of load and ground!, , Blown fuse, , limit never to be intentionally exceeded, a fuse is nothing more, than a short length of wire designed to melt and separate in the, event of excessive current. Fuses are always connected in, series with the component(s) to be protected from over current,, , Figure: 11.11
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II.B.92, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , The resistivity of iron is 1 10 7 ohm m. The resistance, of a iron wire of particular length and thickness is 1 ohm., If the length and the diameter of wire both are doubled,, then the resistivity in o h m m will be:, , 2., , a. 1107, , b. 2 10 7, , c. 4 10 7, , d. 8 10 7, , The temperature coefficient of resistance for a wire, is 0.00125 / C . At 300K its resistance is 1 ohm. The, temperature at which the resistance becomes 2 ohm is:, a. 1154 K, b. 1100 K, c. 1400 K, d. 1127 K, , 3., , When the length and area of cross-section both are, doubled, then its resistance, a. Will become half, b. Will be doubled, c. Will remain the same, d. Will become four times, , 4., , The resistance of a wire is 20 ohms. It is so stretched that, the length becomes three times, then the new resistance of, the wire will be, a. 6.67 ohms, b. 60.0 ohms, c. 120 ohms, d. 180.0 ohms, , 5., , 6., , The resistivity of a wire, a. Increases with the length of the wire, b. Decreases with the area of cross-section, c. Decreases with the length and increases with the crosssection of wire, d. None of the above statement is correct, Ohm's law is true, a. For metallic conductors at low temperature, b. For metallic conductors at high temperature, c. For electrolytes when current passes through them, d. For diode when current flows, , 10. A wire 100 cm long and 2.0 mm diameter has a resistance, of 0.7 ohm, the electrical resistivity of the material is:, a. 4.4 10 6 ohm m, b. 2.2 10 6 ohm m, c. 1.1 10 6 ohm m, , d. 0.22 106 ohm m, , 11. A certain wire has a resistance R. The resistance of, another wire identical with the first except having twice, its diameter is:, a. 2R, b. 0.25 R, c. 4R, d. 0.5 R, 12. A certain piece of silver of given mass is to be made like, a wire. Which of the following combination of length (L), and the area of cross-sectional (A) will lead to the, smallest resistance, a. L and A, b. 2L and A/2, c. L/2 and 2 A, d. Any of the above, because volume of silver remains, same, 13. The resistance of a wire is 10 . Its length is increased by, , 10% by stretching. The new resistance will now be:, a. 12, b. 1.2, c. 13, d. 11, 14. Masses of three wires of copper are in the ratio of 1 : 3 : 5, and their lengths are in the ratio of 5: 3:1. The ratio of, their electrical resistances are:, a. 1 : 3 : 5, b. 5 : 3 : 1, c. 1 : 15 : 125, d. 125 : 15 : 1, 15. Conductivity increases in the order of:, a. Al, Ag, Cu, b. Al, Cu, Ag, c. Cu, Al, Ag, d. Ag, Cu, Al, , 7., , The example for non-ohmic resistance is, a. Copper wire, b. Carbon resistance, c. Diode, d. Tungsten wire, , 16. A uniform wire of resistance R is uniformly compressed, along its length, until its radius becomes n times the, original radius. Now resistance of the wire becomes, R, R, R, a. 4, b. 2, c., d. nR, n, n, n, , 8., , A piece of wire of resistance 4 ohms is bent, through 180 at its mid point and the two halves are, twisted together, then the resistance is:, a. 8 ohm, b. 1 ohm, c. 2 ohm, d. 5 ohm, , 17. If a wire of resistance R is melted and recasted to half of, its length, then the new resistance of the wire will be:, a. R/4, b. R/2, c. R, d. 2R, , 9., , When a piece of aluminium wire of finite length is drawn, through a series of dies to reduce its diameter to half its, original value, its resistance will become, a. Two times, b. Four times, c. Eight times, d. Sixteen times, , 18. The resistance of an incandescent lamp is:, a. Greater when switched off, b. Smaller when switched on, c. Greater when switched on, d. The same whether it is switched off or switched on
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Electricity, , II.B.93, , 19. A wire of radius r has resistance R. If it is stretched to a, 3r, radius of , its resistance becomes, 4, 9R, 16 R, 81R, 256 R, a., b., c., d., 16, 9, 256, 81, 20. The resistance of a conductor increases with, a. Increase in length, b. Increase in temperature, c. Decrease in cross-sectional area, d. All of these, 21. The new resistance of wire of R , whose radius is, reduced half, is:, a. 16 R, b. 3 R, c. 2R, d. R, 22. A resistance R is stretched to four times its length. Its new, resistance will be:, a. 4 R, b. 64 R, c. R/4, d. 16 R, 23. The length of the resistance wire is increased by 10%., What is the corresponding change in the resistance of, wire?, a. 10%, b. 25%, c. 21%, d. 9%, , 28. The reading of the ammeter as per figure shown is:, 2, 2V, , 2, , A, 2, 2, , a., , 1, A, 8, , b., , 3, A, 4, , 1, A, 2, , c., , d. 2 A, , 29. Three resistors each of 2 ohm are connected together in a, triangular shape. The resistance between any two vertices, will be:, a. 4/3 ohm, b. 3/4 ohm c. 3 ohm, d. 6 ohm, 30. There are n similar conductors each of resistance R. The, resultant resistance comes out to be x when connected in, parallel. If they are connected in series, the resistance, comes out to be:, a. x / n 2, c. x / n, b. n 2 x, d. nx, 31. Equivalent resistance between A and B will be:, 3, , 3, , 3, , 3, , 24. The current in the adjoining circuit will be:, i, 2V, , 3, 30, , 30, 30, , 1, ampere, 45, 1, c., ampere, 10, , a., , 1, ampere, 15, 1, d. ampere, 5, , b., , 25. There are 8 equal resistances R. Two are connected in, parallel, such four groups are connected in series, the total, resistance of the system will be:, a. R / 2, b. 2 R, c. 4 R, d. 8 R, , A, , a. 2 ohm, , 27. The lowest resistance which can be obtained by, connecting 10 resistors each of 1/10 ohm is:, a. 1/ 250 , b. 1/ 200 , c. 1/100, , d. 1/10, , B, , 3, , b. 18 ohm, , c. 6 ohm, , d. 3.6 ohm, , 32. A wire has a resistance of 12 ohm. It is bent in the form of, equilateral triangle. The effective resistance between any, two corners of the triangle is:, a. 9 ohm, b. 12 ohm, c. 6 ohm, d. 8/3 ohm, 33. The effective resistance between the points A and B in, the figure is, D, 3, , 3, 6, , A, , 26. Three resistances of one ohm each are connected in, parallel. Such connection is again connected with 2 / 3, , resistor in series. The resultant resistance will be:, 5, 3, 2, a. , b. , c. 1, d. , 3, 2, 3, , 3, , 3, , C, 3, , 3, B, , a. 5, , b. 2, , c. 3, , d. 4, , 34. Three resistances of magnitude 2, 3 and 5 ohm are, connected in parallel to a battery of 10 volts and of, negligible resistance. The potential difference across 3 , , resistance will be:, a. 2 volts, b. 3 volts, , c. 5 volts, , d. 10 volts
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II.B.94, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 35. A current of 2 A flows in a system of conductors as, shown. The potential difference (VA VB ) will be:, A, 2, , 3, , 2A, D, , a. Equal, , b. One fourth, 1, c. One eight, d., th, 16, 40. In the network of resistors shown in the adjoining figure,, the equivalent resistance between A and B is:, , C, , 3, , c. 1V, , b. 1V, , d. 2V, , 36. Referring to the figure below, the effective resistance of, the network is:, r, , r, , r, , r, , r, , a. 2 r, , r, , b. 4 r, , 6, , Q, , 3 3, , 3, , c. 36 ohm, , d. 9 ohm, , 42. Four resistances are connected in a circuit in the given, figure. The electric current flowing through 4 ohm and 6, ohm resistance is respectively:, 4, , 6, , 4, , 6, , 20V, , a. 2 amp and 4 amp, c. 1 amp and 1 amp, , c. 3.0 V, , d. 7.2 V, , 39. The equivalent resistance of the arrangement of, resistances shown in adjoining figure between the points, A and B is:, 8, , R1, , 16, B, , 9, , R1, , R1, , R1, , R1, , A, R2, , R2, , R2, , R2, , B, , b. 1, , d. 1.5, , c. 2, , 44. A wire of resistance R is cut into ‘n’ equal parts. These, parts are then connected in parallel. The equivalent, resistance of the combination will be:, R, n, R, a. nR, b., c., d. 2, n, R, n, 45. The resistance between the terminal points A and B of the, given infinitely long circuit will be:, , 20, , A, , b. 1 amp and 2 amp, d. 2 amp and 2 amp, , 43. An infinite sequence of resistance is shown in the figure., The resultant resistance between A and B will be, when, R1 1ohm and R2 2ohm, , a. Infinity, , 6, , 6, , 16, , b. 18 ohm, , R2, , 6, , b. 6.0 V, , 3 3, , a. 54 ohm, , 6, , 0.5 A, , a. 3.6 V, , 3, , d. 5r / 2, , c. 10 r, , 38. Resistances of 6 ohm each are connected in the manner, shown in adjoining figure. With the current 0.5 ampere as, shown in figure, the potential difference VP VQ is:, , P, , 3, B, , r, , 37. Resistors of 1, 2, 3 ohm are connected in the form of a, triangle. If a 1.5 volt cell of negligible internal resistance, is connected across 3 ohm resistor, the current flowing, through this resistance will be:, a. 0.25 amp, b. 0.5 amp c. 1.0 amp d. 1.5 amp, , 6, , 3 3, , A, , 2, B, , a. 2V, , 3 3, , 3, , A, , 1, , 1, , 1, , 6, 18, , a. 6 ohm, , b. 8 ohm, , 1, , c. 16 ohm, , d. 24 ohm, , 41. A wire is broken in four equal parts. A packet is formed, by keeping the four wires together. The resistance of the, packet in comparison to the resistance of the wire will be:, , B, , a. ( 3 1), , 1, , 1, , b. (1 3), , Upto, infinity, , 1, , 1, , c. (1 3), , d. (2 3)
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Electricity, , II.B.95, , The current in the given circuit is:, , 46, , RA = 3, , 4.8V, , 48. n equal resistors are first connected in series and then, connected in parallel. What is the ratio of the maximum to, the minimum resistance?, 1, 1, a. n, b. 2, c. n 2, d., n, n, 49 A uniform wire of 16 is made into the form of a square., , RB = 6, RC = 6, , a. 8.31 A, c. 4.92 A, , b. 6.82 A, d. 2 A, , Two opposite corners of the square are connected by a, wire of resistance 16 . The effective resistance between, , 47. What is the current (i) in the circuit as shown in figure?, , the other two opposite corners is:, a. 32, b. 20, , 3V, , R3 = 2, , R2 = 2, , i, , R1 = 2, , c. 8, , 50. For what value of R the net resistance of the circuit will, be 18 ohms?, a. 8, b. 10, , R4 = 2, , a. 2 A, c. 1 A, , d. 4, , b. 1.2 A, d. 0.5 A, , c. 16, , d. 24, , ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , a, , d, , c, , d, , d, , a, , c, , b, , d, , b, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , b, , c, , a, , d, , b, , a, , a, , c, , d, , d, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , a, , d, , c, , c, , b, , c, , c, , b, , a, , b, , 31., , 32., , 33., , 34., , 35., , 36., , 37., , 38., , 39., , 40., , d, , d, , b, , d, , b, , d, , b, , c, , b, , d, , 41., , 42., , 43., , 44., , 45., , 46., , 47., , 48., , 49., , 50., , d, , d, , c, , d, , c, , d, , a, , c, , d, , c, , SOLUTIONS, 1., , (a) Resistivity of some material is its intrinsic property, and is constant at particular temperature. Resistivity does, not depend upon shape., , 2., , (d), , , , 1 (1 0.00125 27), , 2 (1 0.00125 t ), , 1 (1 t1 ), , 2 (1 t2 ), , (c) R1 , , R2 , 4., , (d) Resistivity is the property of the material. It does not, depend upon size and shape., , 6., , (a) Because with rise in temperature resistance of, conductor increase, so graph between V and i becomes, non linear., , 7., , (c) Because V-i graph of diode is non-linear., , (b) In twisted wire, two halves each of resistance 2 are, in parallel,, 2, So, equivalent resistance will be 1., 2, 1, 9. (d) In stretching of wire R 4, r, 8., , 0.7 , , R, , , R1 R2, , (d) In case of stretching of wire R l, , If length becomes 3 times., , L, A, , 1, 2.2 10 6 ohm-m., 22, 3 2, (1 10 ), 7, , 11. (b) R , , l, A, , l, 2l, i.e. R2 , 2A, A, , 5., , 10. (b) R , , t 854C T 1127 K, 3., , So, Resistance becomes 9 times i.e. R ' 9 20 180, , 1, A, , 1, 1, 2, 2, r, d, , [d diameter of wire], 2, , 12. (c) R , , l, A
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II.B.96, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 13. (a) Since R l, , 2, , If length is increased by 10%, resistance is increases by, almost 20% Hence new resistance R ' 10 20% of 10, 20, 10 , 10 12 ., 100, 14. (d) R , , l2, m, , l1 , , m1 , , 2, , l , : 2 , m2 , , 1, 25 9 1, , : : 25 : 3 :, 5, 1 3 5, , , , R1 r2 , , R2 r1 , , 2, , l , : 3 , m3 , , 2, , 125 :15 :1., , 24. (c) Requivalent , i, , 2, 1, V, , ampere, R 20 10, , 25. (b) Resistance of parallel group , , , Total equivalent resistance 4 , , 2, , R l , R, 4 R2 ., R2 l/2 , 4, , R1 r2 , , 19. (d), R2 r1 , , 4, , 4, , 22. (d) R ' n 2 R R ' 16 R, , R l , 23. (c) 1 1 , R2 l2 , , 2, , 2, resistor., 3, , 1, 10 1010 times, R, 1, 1, , 100 i.e. R , 100, R, 2, 28. (b) Resistance across XY , 3, 2V, , 2, X, , 4, , A, , 2, , Y, , 2, 2, , 2 8, , 3 3, Current through ammeter, , Total resistance 2 , , 2, 6 3, A, 8/3 8 4, 29. (a) Equivalent resistance of the combination, , , , , If l1 100 then l2 110, R1 100 , , , R2 110 , , R 1, , n 3, , 1, 1, 1, , , 10 times, R 0.1 0.1, , 4, , R2 2 , R2 16R, R 1, , R, 2R, 2, , Total resistance , , R 3r/4 , 81, 256, R, , R2 , , 256, 81, R2 r , , R r , 21. (a) In stretching, 2 1 , R1 r2 , , R, 2, , 2 1 3, 1, 3 3 3, 27. (c) Lowest resistance will be in the case when all the, resistors are connected in parallel., , , 1, 18. (c) R ; where Relaxation time. When lamp is, , switched on, temperature of filament increase, hence, decrease so R increases., , , , (30 30)30, 60 30, , 20, (30 30) 30, 90, , 4, , R nr , R, R2 4 ., R2 r , n, , 2, , , , R2 R1, 100 21%, R1, , This is in series with, , R1 l1 , , 17. (a) R l , R2 l2 , , , , , , 26. (c) Resistance of 1 ohm group , , 4, , 2, , , , R2 1.21 R1 % change, , , , R1 : R2 : R3 , , 16. (a), , , , (2 2) 2 8 4, , 222 6 3, , 2, , 2, , 2, , P, , 2, , Q
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Electricity, , II.B.97, , 6 12 6 , 38. (c) Vp Vq , (0.5) (2 4)(0.5) 3V, 3 12 6 , , R, R nx, n, , 30. (b) In parallel, x , , In series, R + R + R .... n times nR n (nx) n2x, 31. (d) The circuit reduces to, , 39. (b) RAB , , 24 12, 8, (24 12), , 3, , 4, 8, , 3, , 16, , 3, , A, , A, , B, , 32. (d) As resistance Length, 12, Resistance of each arm , 4, 3, Reffective 4 8 8 , 48 3, 33. (b) Given circuit is equivalent to, 3, , A, , 3, , C, , B, , VD VA 2 and VD VB 3, , VA VB 1V, , 37. (b) i1 i2 , , , , , , i2 0.5 A i1, , A, , R1 = 1, , B, , 2, , i1, i2, , 3, 1.5V, , B, , 4 4 6 6, , 5ohm, 44 66, , X, , R2 = 2, , 1, , i, , 3, , So, the current in the circuit, 20, , 4 ampere, 5, Hence the current flowing through each resistance =, 2 ampere., 43. (c) Let the resultant resistance be R. If we add one more, branch, then the resultant resistance would be the same, because this is an infinite sequence., , 1.5, 1 amp, 3/ 2, , i1 i2, , 3, , 42. (d) Equivalent resistance , , 3r 5r, r, , 2, 2, , i1 3, , i2 3, , 3, , Req 9, , 3, , So, the equivalent resistance between points A and B is equal, 63, to R , 2, 63, 34. (d) Potential difference across all resistors in parallel, combination is same., 35. (b) Current through each arm DAC and DBC 1A, , 36. (d) Reffective, , R, 16, 41. (d) The network can be redrawn as follows, A, , B, , 1 4, 4, R1 R , , R1 , , 3, , 3, , 3, , 12, , 18, , So, the effective resistance will be, , , , C, , 6, , 6, , 40. (d) Let the resistance of the wire be R, then we know that, resistance is proportional to the length of the wire., So, each of the four wires will have R/4 resistance and they, are connected in parallel., , A, , 6, , B, , 6, 6, , 20, , A, , , , 9, , 9 6 9 6 18, , , 3.6, 9 6 15, 5, , 6, , 4, , B, , 16, , 6, , RAB, , 24, , 20, , , , RR2, R1 R, R R2, , , , 2R R 2 R2 2R, , , , R2 R 2 0, , , , R 1 or R 2ohm, , R, , Y
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II.B.98, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , R, ;, n, Such n parts are joined in parallel so, R, Req 2 ., n, 45. (c) Let equivalent resistance between A and B be R, then, equivalent resistance between C and D will also be R., , 44. (d) Resistance of each part will be, , 1, , A, , R, , B, , R , , C, , 1, , 46. (d) 6 and 6 are in series, so effective resistance is 12, 1 1 1 15, which is in parallel with 3, So , R 3 12 36, 36, V 4.8 15, R, , 2A, I , 15, R, 36, 3, 47. (a) Equivalent resistance of the circuit R , 2, 3, V, Current through the circuit i , 2A, , R 3/ 2, 48. (c) Rmax nR and Rmin R / n , , R, , 1, D, , 49. (d) According to the principle of Wheatstone’s bridge, the, , effective resistance between the given points is 4., B, , R, 2 R, R 1, , or, , R2 2R 2 0, , , , R, , Rmax, n2, Rmin, , 4, A, , 2 48, 3 1, 2, , 4, C, , 16, , 4, , 4, D, ,
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Chemical, Heating and, Magnetic Effects of Current, , Chemical, Heating and Magnetic Effects of Current, , 12, , What would your life be like without electricity? Electricity, supplies the energy needed to operate your household, appliances, calculator, and radio. You know that electrons at, rest produce static electricity. However in a wire move, or, flow. These moving electrons are called electric current., How do you know to let go of a hot object? Your body uses, electric signals to communicate with your brain. Even though, the net charge of your body is neutral, some parts have positive, or negative charges, For example, the outside of a nerve cell, has a positive charge, and the inside of the nerve cell has a, negative charge. These charges are separated by a membrane, that covers the nerve cell., If you touch a hot pan, negative charges on the inside of the, nerve cells pass through the membrane. The net electric charge, on each side of the membrane changes and a continuous, change of electric charge moves along the length of the nerve,, producing an electric signal, or impulse. This impulse travels to, your spinal cord. A reflex from your spinal cord sends another, impulse to your hand. Your muscles respond, and you drop the, hot pan., Electricity is the set of physical phenomena associated with the, presence and flow of electric charge. Electricity gives a wide, variety of well-known effects, such as lightning, static, electricity, electromagnetic induction and electrical current. In, addition, electricity permits the creation and reception of, electromagnetic radiation such as radio waves. Electricity's, extraordinary versatility means it can be put to an almost, limitless set of applications which include transport, heating,, lighting, communications, and computation. Electrical power is, now the backbone of modern industrial society., Note, In electrical engineering, electricity is used for:, Electric power where electric current is used to energise, equipment;, Electronics which deals with electrical circuits that involve, active electrical components such as vacuum tubes,, transistors, diodes and integrated circuits, and associated, passive interconnection technologies., , II.B.99, , Chemical Effects of Electric Current, Electrolysis: It is a chemical process where a substance in its, molten state or in an aqueous solution is decomposed by the, passage of electric current., Electrolyte: A compound that allows electric current to pass, through itself, when either in a molten state or in an aqueous, solution, is called an electrolyte., Non-electrolyte: A compound which does not allow electric, current to pass through itself in any state, molten or aqueous, is, called a non-electrolyte e.g. sugar solution, glycerine, alcohol,, are non-electrolytes., Electrodes: The strips of metals inserted in the electrolytes for, conduction of electricity are called electrodes. The metal, electrode connected to the positive terminal of the battery is, called the anode (+). The metal electrode connected to the, negative terminal of the battery is called the cathode (–)., Electrolytic cell: The complete set-up for electrolysis is called, the electrolytic cell. This consists of the vessel containing the, electrolyte, anode, cathode, battery and wires. Electrolytic cell, is also known as a voltameter, since it generates voltage (or, current) at its two terminals., Electrolysis, Electrolysis is a process by which electrical currents can be, passed through solutions. Pure water is a non-conductor of, electricity. But if a salt such as NaCl is dissolved in it, the, solution will start conducting if two electrodes are placed in it, along with a battery that provides the initial current., When an electric current is passed through a chemical, compound, some compounds are able to conduct electricity., The compound dissociates into ions under the influence of the, electric current. The electrical current initiates a chemical, reaction or a break up., To see how electricity is conducted through a solid compound,, a molten compound and an aqueous solution of the compound,, do the following. Take two metal rods, a 6V battery, a bulb or, an ammeter, wires. Bulb or an ammeter will visually indicate, the passage of current.
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.B.100, Bulb does not, glow, Battery, , Solid sodium, chloride, Metal rods, , Solid sodium chloride does, not conduct electricity, , Mechanism of Electrolysis, In the example of NaCl above, we saw that NaCl does not, conduct electricity as it is. NaCl is an ionic compound and both, the Na+ and the Cl– ions are strongly attracted to each other by, electrostatic attraction. The strength of the electrical current is, unable to break the ionic bond. Not only breaking of the ionic, bond is needed, the flow of charges also has to take place. This, does not happen in solid NaCl. Thus solid NaCl is not an, electrolyte., On the other hand, in case of molten NaCl, the bond length, between the Na+ and the Cl– ions has loosened. The bond is, weakened. Hence the ions can become mobile and conduct, electricity., , Bulb glows, Battery, , Molten sodium, chloride, Metal rods, , Molten sodium conducts electricity, , Bulb, glows, , In an aqueous solution of NaCl, water molecules separate the, Na+ and the Cl– ions. This makes them very mobile. The, mobility is enhanced when two electrodes in the form of anode, (+) and cathode (–) are inserted in the salt solution. The Na+, ions get attracted toward the cathode and the Cl– ions get, attracted toward the anode. The aqueous solution of NaCl is, therefore a good electrolyte., We can conclude from the above discussions that the, movement of ions is responsible for the flow of current in an, electrolytic cell. Steps occurring during the passage of, electricity in an electrolytic cell with NaCl aqueous solution:, 1. Dissociation of NaCl:, NaCl, , , → Na + + Cl −, Anion, , Cation, , 2. Reaction at the cathode:, Aqueous, sodium, chloride, Bubbles of, gas evolved, , Na + + 1e − , → Na, , (Neutralisation), Reaction at the anode:, , Aqueous sodium chloride conducts, electricity, Figure: 12.1, , No current flows through the circuit when the sodium, chloride is in a solid form., When the salt is molten, current flows., When the salt is in an aqueous solution, the current flows, and the bulb glows brightly. Also bubbles are seen at the, electrodes, indicating that some chemical reaction (or, dissociation of the compound) is taking place., , Cl − , → 1e − + Cl, , (Neutralisation), Cl + Cl − , → Cl 2 ↑, , Na +, , Cl−, , In ionic compounds, the ions, are held together by strong, forces electrostatic attraction, , Na+, , In the molten or aqueous state,, the bond between the ions, weaken, , Na+, , Note: Current flows through dilute sulphuric acid and copper, sulphate solution. A weak current flows through acetic acid., No current flows through sugar solution, glycerine, alcohol., , Cl −, , Cl −, , The ions are set free and movement of ions, in an electrolyte carries an electric current, Figure: 12.2
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II.B.101, , Chemical, Heating and Magnetic Effects of Current, , Electrolysis of Copper Sulphate Solution, A, R, , K, , Copper, Anode (A), , Copper Cathode (C), Copper deposited, , Copper lost, , CuSO4 solution, (electrolyte), Figure: 12.3, , It is found that copper is removed from the anode and is, deposited on the cathode. Due to ionisation, the, , So, silver gets deposited at the cathode, while the anode loses, an equal amount of Ag. The concentration of AgNO3 in the, solution stays the same. In the electrode position of silver, one, electron circulated for depositing one silver atom on the, cathode; but in the case of copper, two electrons circulate for, the deposition of one copper atom., Electrolysis of Water, The apparatus or the electrolytic cell, required for performing, electrolysis of water is shown in the figure below. The cell is, called Hoffman’s voltameter., , Oxygen, , Hydrogen, , CuSO4 solution is dissociated., CuSO 4 , → Cu 2 + SO 24 −, , When the source of emf is connected, a steady current flows in, the circuit. Then, the following happen, Electrons flow from the negative terminal of the battery via, the wire to the cathode C., Electrode C is at a lower potential than electrode A., , Platinum foils, , Therefore, the Cu 2+ ions move towards C, while the, Aanode, , SO 24 − ions move towards A., , Figure: 12.4, , At the cathode C, the following reduction reaction occurs, Cu, , 2+, , Cathode, , −, , + 2e , → Cu, , These Cu atoms get deposited on the cathode., At the anode A, the following oxidation reaction takes, place. The Cu atoms are from the anode., Cu + SO 42 − , → Cu 2 + + SO 42 − + 2e −, , The Cu 2 + ions go into the solution. The released electrons, flow back to the positive terminal of the battery via the, wire., Thus, copper gets deposited at the cathode, while the anode, loses an equivalent amount of copper. The concentration of, , CuSO4 in the solution remains unchanged., Electrolysis of Silver Nitrate Solution, Here, the electrolyte is AgNO3 and the electrodes are silver, plates. The process of electrolysis is identical to that of, , CuSO4 solution, except for one important difference. Copper, has valency two, while silver has valency one. The reactions at, the electrodes are:, [at cathode], Ag + + e −1 , → Ag, Ag + NO 3+ , → AgNO 3 + e −1, , [at anode], , Since water is a covalent compound, pure or distilled water is a, non-electrolyte. A few drops of ionic compound like dilute, sulphuric acid are enough to make the water become an, electrolyte. The Hoffman voltameter consists of platinum, electrodes. The anode and cathode are connected to a battery., The anode collects oxygen and the cathode arm collects, hydrogen gas., The overall reaction that takes place is:, , H 2SO 4 , →←, 2H + + SO 4− (dissociation,, , reversible, , reaction), In the presence of these ions, water also becomes capable of, dissociation., H 2 O , → ←, H + + OH − (dissociation, reversible reaction), Reaction at the cathode, , H+ + e−1 , → H2 ↑, → H, H + H , , Reaction at the anode, , OH − , →, →, 4 OH , , OH + e −, H 2O + O 2 ↑, , At the anode OH − ions are released in preference to SO −4 ions., This is because it is easier for an OH − ion to give up an electron, quickly than for the SO −4 ion to do so. Since the sulphuric acid
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.B.102, , itself does not participate in the chemical reaction that is taking, place, it can be called as a catalyst of the reaction., Chemical effects of current: In electrolysis the total, charge flowing per second in external circuit and electrolyte, is the same., Faraday’s Laws:, Mass of element deposited at electrode, m W, (i) m = Zq = Zit (ii) 1 = 1, m2 W2, , Z = Electrochemical equivalent, W = Chemical equivalent, Where W =, , F=, , atomic weight, . Faraday number, valency, , W, = 96500 Coul/g-equivalent, Z, , Applications of Electrolysis, Electroplating, Electroplating of objects by nickel, silver and gold is very, common. The conducting material to be electroplated is made, the cathode of an electrolytic cell. A strip of metal whose, coating is required on the cathode material is used as the anode,, while a soluble salt of the same anode material is taken as the, electrolyte. When the current is passed through the circuit, a, thin film of the metal deposits on the cathode. If the current, strength is very high, the plating may become brittle. For gold, plating, we need a current from 1V to 3V batteries; and for, copper, current is drawn from a battery of 5V to 10V., Electro-refining of Metals, A process to purifying metals from the ores is known as, electro-refining of metals. The metals that are generally refined, by this process are Zn, Ag, Ni, Cu, Pb, Al, etc., , Purification of Metals, For this purpose, the impure metal is made the anode, and a, pure metallic strip is used as cathode. A soluble salt of pure, metal is taken as the electrolyte. On passing current, the impure, metal anode dissolves but only the pure metal deposits on the, cathode. Many metals like copper are purified up to 99.99%, using electrolysis., Electrolytic Capacitors, These capacitors consist of two aluminium electrodes placed in an, electrolytic mixture of ammonium borate for sodium phosphate in, glycerine. When a steady current is passed, a thin layer of, dielectric aluminium oxide (or hydroxide) is formed on the anode., Such very thin films can offer large values of capacitance. Modern, capacitors use electrolytes in the form of a paste or a solution, soaked in paper placed between two aluminium foils. Such, capacitors are very common in power circuits., Electrochemical Cells, Voltaic Cell, Electrodes: Copper (+ve) and Zinc (–ve), Electrolyte: dil. H2SO4 (dilute sulphuric acid), Chemical Action H 2SO 4 , → 2H + + SO 24 − (in solution), At cathode: Zn , → Zn 2+ + 2e− ( Zn 2 + goes into the solution), Zn 2 + + SO 42 − , → ZnSO 4 (in solution), , At anode: 2H + + 2e − , → H 2 (g), The Zn 2 + repel the H + in the solution towards the copper, electrode. They extract e- from the copper rod and become, neutral hydrogen atoms and finally escapes as gas. Due to this,, the copper rod becomes positively charged and the zinc rod, negatively charged. This process continues and a maximum, potential difference is reached between the two electrodes, dipped in the electrolyte. The emf is 1.08 volt., , Cathode: pure, copper, , Anode:, copper, , impure, Cu, , Zn, , Electro-refining of metals, , Glass vessel, , Figure: 12.5, Dilute H2SO4, , For example, aluminium is obtained by passing an electric, current through fused bauxite (Al2O3) and cryolite (Na3AlF6)., Active metals like sodium, calcium and magnesium are also, extracted from their ores using electrolysis., , Voltaic cell, Figure: 12.6
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II.B.103, , Chemical, Heating and Magnetic Effects of Current, , Defects of Voltaic Cell, Local Action: This arises due to the presence of impurities in the, zinc rod. These impurities form minute local cells all along the, zinc rod; small local currents are set up resulting in the wastage of, zinc even when the cell is not being used. This can be eliminated, by rubbing mercury on the zinc rod (i.e., amalgamation)., Polarisation: A layer of neutral hydrogen is formed near the, copper rod thus weakening the action of the cell by increasing, its internal resistance and also producing a back emf. This is, removed by using a depolariser like MnO2 or CuSO4, which, oxidises hydrogen into water., , Leclanche Cell, Electrodes: Carbon rod (+ve), Zinc rod (–ve), Electrolyte: Saturated, NH4Cl solution, Depolariser:, MnO2, Porous pot, Embedded, MNO2 and, powder, , Zinc rod, Glass vessel, , NH4Cl solution, , Daniel Cell, Electrodes: Copper vessel (+ve), Zinc rod (-ve) (amalgamated), , charcoal, , Leclanche cell, Figure: 12.8, , CuSO4, crystal, , Zinc rod, , Chemical Reactions, Porous pot, , Dilute H2SO4, , Zn , → Zn 2 + + 2e −, 2 NH 4 Cl , → 2NH 3 + 2H + + 2Cl −, , Cu vessel, , Zn 2 + + 2Cl − , → ZnCl 2, , Dilute CuSO4, , Zn + 2NH 4 Cl , → 2NH 3 + ZnCl 2 + 2H + + 2e −, , Daniel cell, Figure: 12.7, , Electrolyte: dil. H2SO4, Depolariser: CuSO4 solution, The porous pot (of fired clay or porcelain) allows ions to pass, between the two solutions, but prevents the solutions from, mixing. A perforated shelf containing CuSO 4 crystals is, placed near the top of the Cu vessel to maintain the, CuSO 4 solution concentration., Chemical Reactions, , The electrons thus released move to the zinc rod via the, external circuit. The ammonia gas so produced escapes. The, hydrogen ions diffuse through the porous pot and interact with, MnO2. (The charcoal powder makes MnO2 electrically, conducting.), Therefore, 2H + + MnO 2 , → Mn 2 O 3 + H 2 O + 2e +, The Leclanche cell is used when intermittent currents are needed., The emf of the cell is 1.45 V., , Dry Cell, This is a portable form of Leclanche Cell. A moist paste of, , NH4Cl and ZnCl2 is contained in a zinc vessel acting as the, , Zn , → Zn 2 + + 2e −, , negative electrode. ZnCl2 is added to the electrolyte NH4Cl. It, , H 2SO 4 , → 2H 2 + + SO 24 −, , keeps the paste moist because it is highly hygroscopic. The top, , Zn 2 + + SO 42 − , → ZnSO 4, , is sealed with shellac or pitch so that paste does not dry up., , Zn + H 2 SO 4 , → ZnSO 4 + 2H 2 + + 2e −, , The hydrogen ions so formed diffuse through the porous pot and, interact with copper sulphate forming H2SO4 and Cu 2+ ions., Therefore, 2H + + CuSO 4 , → H 2SO 4 + Cu 2 +, The copper ions are deposited on the vessel and there is no, depolarisation. The zinc rod, which is amalgamated, avoids, local action. The emf is 1.12 V., , The carbon rod covered with a brass cap is placed in the middle, of the vessel surrounded by a paste of charcoal and MnO2 in a, muslin bag acts as the positive electrode. A small hole is, provided in it to allow the gases formed by chemical action to, escape. The emf is ~ 1.5V. The dry cell is useful in circuits, requiring only intermittent current because it can provide only, 0.25 A continuously. If more than this is drawn continuously,, polarisation occurs.
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.B.104, Brass cap, , Pitch or, Shellac, Zinc vessel, NH4Cl and saw, dust and ZnCl2, , Carbon rod, Muslin bag, , Electrodes: Alternate parallel plates of lead dioxide (+ve, electrode) (oxidised from PbO). Spongy lead reduced from, PbO (–ve electrode). These are kept separate by porous, separators made of wood, plastic or glass fibre., Electrolytes: Dilute sulphuric acid, Container: Glass or bakelite, , Porous paper, , H+, Dry cell, , MnO2 and, charcoal, , Figure: 12.9, , Standard Cell, The electrodes used in the cells discussed so far, deteriorate, with the passage of current and cannot offer a constant emf, indefinitely. However, there was a few cells called standard, cells, which can maintain a fairly constant emf over very long, periods of time compared to the other cells. The commonly, used standard cell is the Weston Cell. This cell is usually in the, form of an H shaped tube. One leg of the tube contains, mercury in contact with a, paste, of, mercurous, sulphate (Hg2SO4) and is, Hg2SO4, the cathode. The other Solution, leg of the tube contains, CdSO4, an amalgam of cadmium Hg SO, 4, 2, with mercury, which acts, Hg, as the anode of the cell., CdSO4 Cd amalgam, The electrolyte is a, Figure: 12.10, saturated solution of, cadmium sulphate. The mercurous sulphate paste serves as, depolariser. Platinum wires are sealed at the bottom of each leg, to serve as terminals for connecting the cell to the external, circuit. The emf of cell is 1.0813 V at 20°C. This is, independent of temperature over a considerable range., , Lead Accumulator, This can be recharged by passing a current through it in the, reverse direction. Such cells are called secondary cells or, accumulators., Glass vessel, Lead peroxide, Lead, Separators, Dilute H2SO4, , Lead accumulator cell, Figure: 12.11, , Discharging Process, Here stored chemical energy is converted to electrical energy, or current is drawn from the cell., H 2SO 4 , → 2H + + SO 24 −, , The hydrogen ions go to the +ve electrode and SO 24 − to the –ve, electrode. After giving their charges they react with the, electrodes and reduce the active material to lead sulphate., Therefore, at the –ve electrode Pb + SO24− − 2e− , → PbSO2, At the +ve electrode,, PbO 2 + 2H + + 2e − , → PbO + H 2 O, PbO + H 2SO 4, +, , , → PbSO 4 + H 2 O, −, , PbO 2 + 2H + 2e + H 2SO 4 , → PbSO 4 + 2H 2 O, , Both plates (but only half of the active materials) are converted, into PbSO4 (whitish). Water is formed thus lowering the, specific gravity of H 2 SO 4 (electrolyte). The emf of the cell, falls and sulphuric acid is consumed., , Recharging Process, Current is passed through the two terminals in the reverse, direction to that in which the cell provided current. That is, the, anode is connected to the positive terminal of the DC source,, and the cathode to the negative terminal., H 2 SO 4 , → 2H + + SO 24 −, , The hydrogen ions move to the –ve electrode and sulphate, ions to the +ve electrode., At –ve electrode,, PbSO 4 + 2H + + 2e − , → Pb + H 2SO 4, , At the +ve electrode,, PbSO 4 + SO 24 − + 2H 2 O − 2e −1 , → PbO 2 + 2H 2SO 4, , Water is consumed and sulphuric acid is formed thus raising, the specific gravity of the electrolyte. In the charging process,, the +ve electrode is coated with dark brown lead peroxide and, the –ve electrode with grey spongy lead. The emf of the cell, rises, and the electrical energy supplied is converted into, chemical energy which is stored in the cell. The charging, process is mentioned by measuring the specific gravity of the, electrolyte. It varies from 1.28 when fully charged (sulphuric, acid and water) to 1.12 when discharged (mostly water).
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II.B.105, , Chemical, Heating and Magnetic Effects of Current, , The emf of a full charged cell is ~2.1V. It should not be, discharged below 1.8V. This secondary cell has a low internal, resistance that is, it can deliver a high current. It can be, recharged a very large number of times without any, deterioration., Heating Effects: Joule's Law, When a potential difference is applied across the ends of a, conductor, the free electrons are accelerated and acquire kinetic, energy. As the electrons move through, they collide with the, positive ions and atoms of the conductor and transfer their, kinetic energy to them. Between two collisions, the electrons, again pick up kinetic energy from the electric field. As a result,, the kinetic energy of vibration of these lattice ions or atoms, increases. This increases the thermal energy of the lattice,, which means that the temperature of the conductor increases., Since the source of emf (e.g., a battery) is maintaining current, in the conductor, the electric energy supplied by the battery is, converted into heat in the conductor., a, , R, , b, , I, K, , C, Figure: 12.12, , Let a battery maintain a steady current I through the circuit,, and a potential difference V between the two ends 'a' and 'b' of, the resistor. Let ∆t be the time taken by the charge to flow, from ‘a’ to ‘b’, and ∆q the amount of charge crossing point ‘a’, , Practical Applications of Joule's Law of Heating, This heating is inevitable in any electrical circuit. Since the, energy lost by the flowing charges ends up as disorderly, thermal motion, the phrase 'ohmic dissipation' is also used to, describe it. Often, this is an undesirable effect. For example, in, electric circuits, the heat produced in a small region, can, increase the temperature of the components so much that their, properties change. Also to decrease ohmic losses, power, transmission over long distances is effected at high voltage so, that the current is reduced., Common application is the fuse used in electric circuits. It is a, short piece of metal, inserted in a circuit, which melts when, excessive current flows through it and thus breaks the circuit. It, thus protects appliances. The material of a fuse generally has a, low melting point and high conductivity., Electric heating is also used in producing light, as in an, incandescent bulb. Here, the filament is made of a resistor that, retains as much of the heat generated as possible. Then it can, get very hot and emit light. It must not melt at the high, temperature. Usually, tungsten is used for the bulb filament, as, it has a high melting point (6116oF) and is a strong metal. A, small amount of the power used by the filament appears as, radiated light, but most of it appears as heat. Familiar domestic, applications are the electric iron, bread toaster, even electric, kettle, heater, etc., Electricity and Magnetism, In the early 1800's, Oersted began to make the connection, between electricity and magnetism. An electric current also, produces a magnetic field., , in time ∆ t ., , ∆q, ∆t, The loss in electrical potential energy in time ∆ t is given by:, , Then, , I=, , Magnetic, compass, , Magnetic, compass, , dw = ∆ q (Va − Vb ) = ∆q ⋅ V = VI ∆ t = I 2 R ∆ t, , This gets converted to heat in the resistor. So, for a steady, current I, the amount of heat produced in time t is:, 2, , V, t, R, It implies that the heat produced in a conductor is directly, proportional to, square of current flowing through it., resistance (for a given I) of the conductor., time for which current flows through the conductor;, And inversely proportional to:, Resistance for a given V., , N, , S, , H = I 2 Rt =, , Figure: 12.13, , Take a wire and connect it to a battery and a key. Keep a compass, needle in the centre. Note its initial position. As soon as you pass a, current through the wire, the compass needle will show a, deflection. As long as the current is passing through the wire, the, compass needle will stay deflected. This clearly demonstrates that, an electric current induces magnetic field around itself. Reverse, the current, the deflection of the needle will be in the opposite
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.B.106, , direction. Oersted observed that the lines one obtain when one, "follows the direction of the compass needle." Faraday called them, lines of force, but the term field lines is now in common use., Table: 12.1, Electricity, , Magnetism, , +ve and –ve charges, , N and S poles, , Like charges repel, , Like poles repel, , Unlike charges attract, , Unlike poles attract, , Electric monopole exists, , No magnetic monopole, , Electric field lines flow from +ve to –, ve, Density of lines equals strength of E, , Magnetic field lines flow from N, to S, Density of lines equals strength of, B, SI unit: Tesla, 1 T = 1 N/Amp, meter, Field exerts force on a moving, charge, or B = F/(qv sinθ), , SI unit: ampere, 1 A = 1 C/sec, E exerts force on a charge, or E = F/q, , Magnetic field lines: These lines represent the area around a, magnet; magnetic field lines outside of the magnet flow from, the North to the South Pole., Magnetic field (symbol is B and SI unit is the Tesla or T):, The environment around a magnet in which the magnetic, forces act. Another common unit for magnetic field strength is, the gauss (G); 1 G = 1 × 10-4 Tesla., Magnetic Moment: When an electric current flows in a closed, loop of wire placed in a magnetic field, the magnetic force on, the current can cause a torque. If the coil consists of N loops of, wire carrying current I with area A, the torque is given by: τ =, NIAB sinwt; where NIA is the vector quantity called the, magnetic dipole moment of the coil. Its direction is, perpendicular to the plane of the coil., Magnetic flux: A measurement of the number of magnetic, field lines passing through a particular area or surface., Faraday’s law: The voltage induced is directly proportional to, the number of loops and the change in the magnetic flux. It is, inversely proportional to the time that this change occurs, throughout., , Right hand rule, RHR: The fingers extend or curl in the, direction of the magnetic field. The outstretched thumb points, in the direction of conventional current., Generator: A machine that produces electricity by a rotating, coil of wire immersed in a stationary magnetic field. This, rotating motion could be obtained from a variety of sources., Magnetic flux describes the number of magnetic field lines, passing through a particular area. This idea is similar to rain, falling through a hula-hoop., Faraday’s law describes the induced electromotive force as, the change in flux per amount of time. Lenz’s law describes, the direction of that induced current. Again, the right hand rule, can be utilised. A conductor moving through a magnetic field, can also create an induced electromotive force., Magnetic Field due to a Solenoid, Roll a cardboard sheet and wind an electric wire around it., Make as many turns as possible. The cylindrical shaped wire, arrangement is called a solenoid. The axis of the cylinder XY is, the axis of the solenoid., A, X, , Y, Solenoid, Magnetic field due to a solenoid, Figure: 12.14, , When a current is passed through a solenoid, it functions as, what is known as an electromagnet. For studying the behaviour, of an electromagnet, connect the ends of the solenoid to a, battery via a key. Take a magnetic compass needle. Vary the, number of turns of the solenoid,s the current flowing through, it, the material on which the solenoid is wound and the, direction of the current., B, , Lenz’s law: The induced emf always gives rise to a current, whose magnetic flux opposed the original change in magnetic, flux. Thus, the induced current tries to maintain the level of, magnetic flux., Electromotive force: A voltage that gives rise to a current, flow. This voltage can be induced or created by a changing, magnetic field., , Greater the number of turns, the, greater the strength of the, electromagnet, , The greater the current flowing in, the coil of the electromagnet, the, greater it’s strength, , Figure: 12.15
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II.B.107, , Chemical, Heating and Magnetic Effects of Current, , You will observe the following:, The greater the number of turns, larger is the deflection;, that is larger is the induced magnetic field around the, solenoid., Greater the strength of the current, larger is the induced, magnetic field., The strength of the electric field also depends on the, material on which the solenoid is wound., The polarity of the induced field depends on the direction in, which the current is flowing., If you place iron filings on a cardboard and put it across the, solenoid, when the current is made to pass, the lines of force, will appear similar to a bar magnet. Thus the induced, magnetic field of a solenoid behaves similar to a bar, magnet., , Electric Current due to a Changing Magnetic Field, A moving magnet can also induce currents. In the diagram, below, a coil of conducting wire is connected to an ammeter. A, strong magnet is pulled in and out of the centre of the coil. You, will see deflection in the ammeter. When the magnet is being, pulled in, the deflection will be in one direction and when the, magnet is being pulled out, the deflection will be in another, direction., Magnet moving in, , Magnet stationary, no current, , Current flowing, Magnet moving out, , Current flows in opposite, direction, Figure: 12.16, , Application of Induced Electric and Magnetic Fields, The most important use of magnets in the home is with electric, motors. All electric motors use electromagnets. These motors, run refrigerators, vacuum cleaners, washing machines, compact, disc players, blenders, drills, cars etc. Audiotape and videotape, players have electromagnets called heads that record and read, , information on tapes covered with tiny magnetic particles., Magnets in speakers transform the signal into a sound by, making the speakers vibrate. An electromagnet called a, deflection yoke in TV picture tubes helps form images on a, screen. Huge electromagnets are used to lift heavy iron objects, such as cars; maglev trains run on electromagnets. Basic, electricity generation also depends on the induced electric and, magnetic fields., , Units for Measuring Magnetic Field and Magnetic Lines of, Force, The units of measuring magnetic field in the M.K.S. System, are Tesla (T). In C.G.S system it is Gauss (g), 1 tesla = 104, gauss., The density of magnetic lines of force or flux is measured in, M.K.S System is Weber (Wb). One Weber is the magnetic, flux obtained in a circuit of one turn that produces a voltage of, 1 volt, when the magnet is moved at a uniform rate in one, second., In the C.G.S system, the magnetic flux is measured in Maxwell, (Mx). 1 Wb = 108 Mx., Also by definition, 1 T = 1 Wb/m2., , Magnetic Field due to a Straight Conductor, As you pass a current through the wire, the iron filings will, arrange themselves in concentric, circles. These circles are the, magnetic lines of force., Magnetic field at a point, due to, an electric current:, Depends on the strength of, the current, Depends upon the distance, from the conductor carrying, current, The lines of force are, Figure: 12.17, concentric., The direction of the field depends on the direction of the, current., The, , magnetic, , field, , at, , any, , point, , R: B =, , µ0 I, Where, µ0 is a constant called the permeability of, 2π r, , free space and has a value of 4π × 10 −7 T mA−1, , a, , distance
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.B.108, , Right hand rule: If you take your right hand and point the, thumb in the direction of the current, then the direction of your, , magnetic field lines perpendicularly. It is memorised by the, right hand as follows:, , fingers curled around the conducting wire will show you the, direction of the induced magnetic field., , Forces due to Magnetic Fields, Ampere found that a force is exerted on a current-carrying wire, , Motion of, Magnetic field, , S, N, , in a magnetic field., , Induced current, Figure: 12.18, , F = BILsin θ; where B is the magnetic field in Tesla (T), I is, the current, L is the length of wire in metres, and θ is the angle., Only the perpendicular component of B exerts a force on the, wire. If the direction of the current is perpendicular to the field, , (θ = 90), then the force is given by F = BIL ; the direction of, this force is given by RHR-1, with the thumb in the direction of, the current I., , Point your thumb in the direction of the Motion., Rotate your hand so that your First finger points in the, direction of the magnetic field., Your second finger will now be pointing in the direction of, the induced Current flow., Fleming's left-hand rule is used to determine the direction of, , The force produced by a magnetic field on a single charge, , the force on a current carrying conductor inside a magnetic, , depends upon the speed of the charge, the strength of the field,, , field. It is memorised by the left hand as follows:, , and the magnitude of the charge. F = qv B sinθ ; where q is the, charge in Coulombs and v is the velocity of the charge. If, Wire move upwards, , θ = 90, then F = q v B., To a high current, power supply or, battery, , If a charged particle is moving perpendicular to a uniform, magnetic field, the path of the charged particle is an arc (or, circle). The magnetic force is the source of the centripetal, , force on the charged particle., , mv 2, = qvB, r, Force F, , Since, the magnetic force is perpendicular to the velocity of the, charged particle, the force does not cause the speed of the, Magnetic field B, , particle to change, only its direction. Thus, no work is done by, the magnetic force on the charged particle., At the centre of the loop, magnetic field is perpendicular to the, , Left hand, , plane of the loop. If there are N loops, the strength of the, magnetic field at the center of the loop is given by multiplying, the following by N., B=, , µ0 I, 2r, , Current I, Figure: 12.19, , Electric Motors, Electric motors involve rotating coils of wire, which are driven, by the magnetic force exerted by a magnetic field on an electric, , Fleming's Right-Hand Rule is used to determine the direction, , current; they transform electrical energy into mechanical, , of the induced current when a conductor cuts through the, , energy.
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II.B.109, , Chemical, Heating and Magnetic Effects of Current, , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , What is immaterial for an electric fuse wire, a. Its specific resistance, b. Its radius, c. Its length, d. Current flowing through it, , 2., , The electric bulbs have tungsten filaments of same length., If one of them gives 60 watt and other 100 watt, then, a. 100 watt bulb has thicker filament, b. 60 watt bulb has thicker filament, c. Both filaments are of same thickness, d. It is possible to get different wattage unless the lengths, are different, , 9., , 3., , Three equal resistors connected in series across a source, of e.m.f. together dissipate 10 watt. If the same resistors, are connected in parallel across the same e.m.f., then the, power dissipated will be:, a. 10 watt, b. 30 watt, c. 10/3 watt d. 90 watt, , 4., , How much energy in kilowatt hour is consumed in, operating ten 50 watt bulbs for 10 hours per day in a, month (30 days)?, a. 1500, b. 5,000, c. 15, d. 150, , 10. Two bulbs of equal wattage, one having carbon filament, and the other having a tungsten filament are connected in, series to the mains, then, a. Both bulbs glow equally, b. Carbon filament bulb glows more, c. Tungsten filament bulbs glows more, d. Carbon filament bulb glows less, , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , Two heating coils, one of fine wire and the other of thick, wire of the same material and of the same length are, connected in series and in parallel. Which of the, following statement is correct?, a. In series fine wire liberates more energy while in, parallel thick wire will liberate more energy, b. In series fine wire liberates less energy while in parallel, thick wire will liberate more energy, c. Both will liberate equally, d. In series the thick wire will liberate more while in, parallel it will liberate less energy, An electric bulb is rated 220 volt and 100 watt. Power, consumed by it when operated on 110 volt is:, a. 50 watt, b. 75 watt, c. 90 watt, d. 25 watt, A 25 watt, 220 volt bulb and a 100 watt, 220 volt bulb are, connected in series across a 220 volt lines. Which electric, bulb will glow more brightly, a. 25 watt bulb, b. 100 watt bulb, c. First 25 watt and then 100 watt, d. Both with same brightness, A resistor R1 dissipates the power P when connected to a, certain generator. If the resistor R2 is put in series with R1,, the power dissipated by R1, , a. Decreases, b. Increases, c. Remains the same, d. Any of the above depending upon the relative values of, R1 and R2, An electric fan and a heater are marked as 100 watt, 220, volt and 1000 watt, 220 volt respectively. The resistance, of the heater is:, a. Zero, b. Greater than that of the fan, c. Less than that of the fan, d. Equal to that of the fan, , 11. Two identical heaters rated 220 volt, 1000 watt are placed, in series with each other across 220 volt lines. If, resistance do not change with temperature, then the, combined power is:, a. 1000 watt b. 2000 watt c. 500 watt d. 4000 watt, 12. A 25 watt, 220 volt bulb and a 100 watt, 220 volt bulb are, connected in parallel across a 220 volt line. Which bulb, will glow more brightly?, a. 25 watt bulb, b. 100 watt bulb, c. Both will have same brightness, d. First 25 watt then 100 watt, 13. Two bulbs are in parallel and they together consume 48 W, from a battery of 6 V. The resistance of each bulb is:, a. 0.67 Ω, b. 3.0 Ω, c. 4.0 Ω, d. 1.5 Ω, 14. The heat developed in an electric wire of resistance R by a, current I for a time t is:, a., , I 2 Rt, cal, 4.2, , b., , I 2t, cal, 4.2 R, , c., , I 2R, cal, 4.2 t, , d., , Rt, cal, 4.2 I 2, , 15. Two bulbs, one of 50 watt and another of 25 watt are, connected in series to the mains. The ratio of the currents, through them is:, a. 2 : 1, b. 1 : 2, c. 1 : 1, d. Without voltage, cannot be calculated
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.B.110, , 16. The brightness of a bulb will be reduced, if a resistance is, connected in, a. Series with it, b. Parallel with it, c. Series or parallel with it, d. Brightness of the bulb cannot be reduced, 17. A 100 watt bulb working on 200 volt and a 200 watt bulb, working on 100 volt have, a. Resistances in the ratio of 4 : 1, b. Maximum current ratings in the ratio of 1 : 4, c. Resistances in the ratio of 2 : 1, d. Maximum current ratings in the ratio of 1 : 2, 18. A 60 watt bulb carries a current of 0.5 amp. The total, charge passing through it in 1 hour is:, a. 3600 coulomb, b. 3000 coulomb, c. 2400 coulomb, d. 1800 coulomb, 19. An electric heater of resistance 6 ohm is run for 10, minutes on a 120 volt line. The energy liberated in this, period of time is:, a. 7.2 × 10 3 J, , b. 14.4 × 105 J, , c. 43.2 × 10 J, , d. 28.8 ×10 J, 4, , 4, , 20. Two bulbs are working in parallel order. Bulb A is, brighter than bulb B. If RA and RB are their resistance, respectively then, , a. RA > RB, , b. RA < RB, , c. RA = RB, , d. None of these, , 21. Two wires with resistances R and 2R are connected in, parallel, the ratio of heat generated in 2R and R is:, a. 1 : 2, b. 2 : 1, c. 1 : 4, d. 4 : 1, 22. If a high power heater is connected to electric mains, then, the bulbs in the house become dim, because there is a, a. Current drop, b. Potential drop, c. No current drop, d. No potential drop, 23. If three bulbs 60 W, 100 W and 200 W are connected in, parallel, then, a. 200 W bulb will glow more, b. 60 W bulb will glow more, c. 100 W bulb will glow more, d. All the bulbs will glow equally, 24. An expression for rate of heat generated, if a current of I, ampere flows through a resistance of R Ω, is, a. I 2 Rt, , b. I 2 R, , c. V 2 R, , d. I R, , 25. A 60 watt bulb operates on 220 V supply. The current, flowing through the bulb is:, a. 11/3 amp, b. 3/11 amp c. 3 amp, d. 6 amp, 26. Two electric bulbs A and B are rated as 60 W and 100 W., They are connected in parallel to the same source. Then,, a. Both draw the same current, b. A draws more current than B, c. B draws more current than A, d. Current drawn are in the ratio of their resistances, 27. Three identical resistances A, B and C are connected as, shown in the given figure. The heat produced will be, maximum, A, B, a. In B, C, b. In B and C, c. In A, d. Same for A, B and, 28. Water can not be made conducting by adding small, amount of any of the following except, a. Sodium chloride, b. Copper sulphate, c. Ammonium chloride, d. Sugar, 29. The electrochemical equivalent Z of any element can be, obtained by multiplying the electrochemical equivalent of, hydrogen with, a. Atomic weight, b. Molecular weight, c. Chemical equivalent, d. A constant, 30. A silver and zinc voltameter are connected in series and a, current i is passed through them for a time t liberating W, gm of zinc. The weight of silver deposited is nearly, a. W, b. 1.7 W, c. 2.4 W, d. 3.5 W, 31. To deposit one gm equivalent of an element at an, electrode, the quantity of electricity needed is:, a. One ampere, b. 96000 amperes, c. 96500 faraday, d. 96500 coulombs, 32. The amount of substance liberated on electrodes during, electrolysis when 1 coulomb of electricity is passed, is, a. Chemical equivalent, b. Electrochemical equivalent, c. Equivalent weight, d. One mol, 33. For gold plating on a copper chain, the substance required, in the form of solution is;, a. Copper sulphate, b. Copper chloride, c. Potassium cyanide, d. Potassium aurocyanide, 34. On passing the current in water voltameter, the hydrogen, a. Liberated at anode, b. Liberated at cathode, c. Does not liberate, d. Remains in the solution
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II.B.111, , Chemical, Heating and Magnetic Effects of Current, , 35. A certain charge liberates 0.8 gm of O2. The same charge, will liberate how many gm of silver, a. 108 gm, b. 10.8 gm, 108, gm, c. 0.8 gm, d., 0.8, 36. In charging a battery of motor-car, the following effect of, electric current is used, a. Magnetic, b. Heating, c. Chemical, d. Induction, 37. The Avogadro's number is 6 × 10, electronic charge is 1.6 × 10, , −19, , 23, , per gm mole and, , C . The Faraday's number is, , a. 6 × 10 23 × 1.6 × 10 −19, , b., , 6 × 1023, 1.6 ×10−19, , 2, 6 × 1023 ×1.6 × 10−19, , d., , 1.6 ×10−19, 6 × 1023, , c., , 38. The atomic weight of silver and copper are 108 and 64. A, silver voltameter and a copper voltameter are connected, in series and when current is passed 10.8 gm of silver is, deposited. The mass of copper deposited will be:, a. 6.4 gm, b. 12.8 gm c. 3.2 gm, d. 10.8 gm, 39. Faraday's laws of electrolysis are related to, a. The atomic number of positive ion, b. The equivalent weight of electrolyte, c. The atomic number of negative ion, d. The velocity of positive ion, 40. In the process of electrolysis, the current is carried out, inside the electrolyte by:, a. Electrons, b. Atoms, c. Positive and negative ions d. All of the above, 41. The mass of ions deposited during a given interval of time, in the process of electrolysis depends on, a. The current, b. The resistance, c. The temperature, d. The electric power, 42. In electrolysis, if the duration of the passage of current is, doubled, the mass liberated is:, a. Doubled, b. Halved, c. Increased four times, d. Remains the same, 43. A current of 16 ampere flows through molten NaCl for 10, minute. The amount of metallic sodium that appears at the, negative electrode would be:, a. 0.23 gm, b. 1.15 gm c. 2.3 gm, d. 11.5 gm, , 44. The mass of a substance liberated when a charge ‘q’ flows, through an electrolyte is proportional to:, b. 1/ q, , a. q, , c. q 2, , d. 1/ q 2, , 45. Electroplating does not help in, a. Fine finish to the surface, b. Shining appearance, c. Metals to become hard, d. Protect metal against corrosion, 46. The value of current required to deposit 0.972 gm of, chromium in 3 hours if the E.C.E. of chromium is, 0.00018 gm per coulomb, is:, a. 1 amp, b. 1.5 amp c. 0.5 amp, d. 2 amp, 47. The current inside a copper voltameter, a. Is half the outside value, b. Is the same as the outside value, c. Is twice the outside value, d. Depends on the concentration of CuSO4, 48. The resistance of a cell does not depend on, a. Current drawn from the cell, b. Temperature of electrolyte, c. Concentration of electrolyte, d. The e.m.f. of the cell, 49. The relation between Faraday constant (F), chemical, equivalent (E) and electrochemical equivalent (Z) is:, Z, E, E, a. F = EZ, b. F =, c. F =, d. F = 2, E, Z, Z, 50. The electrochemical equivalent of a material in an, electrolyte depends on, a. The nature of the material, b. The current through the electrolyte, c. The amount of charge passed through electrolyte, d. The amount of material present in electrolyte, ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , c, , a, , d, , d, , a, , d, , a, , a, , c, , 10., c, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , c, , b, , d, , a, , c, , a, , b, , d, , b, , b, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , a, , b, , a, , b, , b, , c, , c, , d, , c, , d, , 31., , 32., , 33., , 34., , 35., , 36., , 37., , 38., , 39., , 40., , d, , b, , d, , b, , b, , c, , a, , c, , b, , c, , 41., , 42., , 43., , 44., , 45., , 46., , 47., , 48., , 49., , 50., , a, , a, , c, , a, , c, , c, , b, , d, , c, , a
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.B.112, , 13, , Sources of Energy, , We cannot put to use the energy available form every source., We can only put to use energy from specific sources, which we, , Nuclear, Ionisation, Elastic, , call sources of energy. A system possesses energy if it has the, ability to do work. Work shifts energy from one system to, another., Energy is a scalar quantity, abstract and cannot always be, perceived, given meaning through calculation, a central, concept in science., Energy can exist in many different forms. All forms of energy, are either kinetic or potential. The energy associated with, motion is called kinetic energy. The energy associated with, position is called potential energy. Potential energy is not, "stored energy". Energy can be stored in motion just as well as, , Gravitational, Rest, Thermal, Heat, Mechanical work, , That of binding nucleons to form the atomic nucleus, That of binding an electron to its atom or molecule, That of deformation of a material (or its container), exhibiting a restorative force, That from gravitational fields, ( ≥ 0), that equivalent to an object's rest mass, A microscopic, disordered equivalent of mechanical, energy, An amount of thermal energy being transferred (in a, given process) in the direction of decreasing temperature, An amount of energy being transferred in a given, process due to displacement in the direction of an, applied force, , Table: 13.2 Force field, Force field, Gravitational, , Quantity in field, Mass, , Electromagnetic, , Charge, , Strong nuclear, , colour charge, , Weak nuclear, , Lepton number, , it can be stored in position. Is kinetic energy "used up energy"?, , Note, What is a good source of energy? That depends on many things, such as the purpose for which it is needed, available resources,, etc. What is good for a village might not be suitable for a, factor. For choosing a source of energy for a particular, purpose, by evaluating:, Energy output per unit volume, Steady availability, Safe and easy to use, Easy to store and transport, Economical, Energy Units: Joule or J: The mechanical equivalent of heat., J=, , kg m 2 Nm, = 2, s2, s, , Table: 13.1 Forms of Energy, Type of energy, Description, Kinetic, ( ≥ 0), that of the motion of a body, Potential, Mechanical, Mechanical wave, , A category comprising many forms in this list, The sum of (usually macroscopic) kinetic and, potential energies, ( ≥ 0), a form of mechanical energy propagated by a, , Chemical, Electric, Magnetic, Radiant, , material's oscillations, That contained in molecules, That from electric fields, That from magnetic fields, ( ≥ 0), that of electromagnetic radiation including, light, , Examples and subtypes, Roller coaster, waterwheel,, hydroelectric reservoir,…, Electric, magnetic, chemical,, elastic,…, Nuclear reactors, nuclear, weapons,…, Radioactive decay,…, , Table: 13.3 Approximate energy of selected events, Energy, Type, Object, phenomena, process, or, event, 700, nJ, Kinetic, Falling snowflake, 85, µJ, Kinetic, Falling raindrop, 3-12, J, Gravitational, An apple in a tree, 60, kJ, Heat, Making a cup of coffee or tea, 270, kJ, Chemical, An apple in the digestive tract, 300, kJ, Kinetic, Car driving at freeway speed, 1.5, MJ, Electrical, Television running for four hours, 2, MJ, Chemical, Stick of dynamite, 3.8, MJ, Chemical, Food for one person for one year, 4.184, GJ, Chemical, Ton of TNT, 63, TJ, Nuclear, Hiroshima atomic bomb (Little Boy,, 1945), 1.8, PJ, Kinetic, Chelyabinsk meteor impact (2013), 42, PJ, Kinetic, Tunguska meteor impact (1908), 240, PJ, Nuclear, Largest nuclear bomb tested (Tsar, Bomba, 1961), , When we use energy in its usable form we convert the form of, energy and get our work done during the process. Since we, cannot reverse the change involved in this process so we, cannot get back the original usable form of energy. Due to this,, it becomes important to think about energy shortage and the, related energy crisis.
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Sources of Energy, , Characteristics of a good source of energy:, It should be able to do large amount of work for each unit, of mass or volume., It should be easily accessible., It should be easily transported., It should be economical., Conventional Sources of Energy: The sources of energy, which have been in use since a long time are called, conventional sources of energy. Coal, petroleum, natural gas,, hydel energy, wind energy and nuclear energy are considered, to be the conventional sources of energy. Additionally,, firewood is also a conventional source of energy but its usage, is now limited to kitchens in the rural parts of India., Fossil Fuels, Coal: Coal was formed millions of years ago. The plants, got buried under swamps and due to high pressure and high, temperature inside the earth; they were converted into coal., Coal is the highest used energy source in India. During the, days of steam engine, coal was used in steam engines., Moreover, coal was also used as kitchen fuel; before LPG, became popular. Nowadays, coal is mainly being used in, the industries., Petroleum: Petroleum was also formed millions of years, ago. The animals got buried under the ocean surface and, were converted into petroleum; in due course of time., Petroleum is the third major source of energy being used, today. Petroleum products are used as automobile fuel and, also in the industries. Natural gas mainly comes from the, oil wells and is also a major source of energy., Non-renewable Sources of Energy: It takes millions of, years for the formation of fossil fuels. Since they cannot be, replenished in the foreseeable future, they are known as, non-renewable sources of energy., Renewable Sources of Energy: Those sources of energy, which can be replenished quickly are called renewable, sources of energy. Hydel energy, wind energy and solar, energy are examples of renewable sources of energy., Hydel Energy: Hydel energy is produced by utilising the, kinetic energy of flowing water. Huge dams are built over a, source of water. Water is collected behind the dam and, released. When the water falls on the turbine; the turbine, moves; because of kinetic energy of water. Thus, electricity, is generated by the turbine. Electricity; thus generated is, called hydel energy or hydroelectricity. Water in the, reservoir is replenished with rainwater and so availability of, water is not a problem for hydroelectricity., , II.B.113, , Drawbacks of Hydel Plant: Building large dams is not, good for the ecosystem. When a large dam is built, a vast, tract of land in its vicinity gets submerged. This destroys a, large part of vegetation and wildlife which does immense, damage to the ecosystem. Moreover, when the submerged, vegetation decomposes; it produces a huge amount of, methane gas. Methane is a potential greenhouse gas and, thus is not good for the environment., Building large dam also affects a huge section of population, which lives in the surrounding areas. Many villages need to, be evacuated. Although the government comes with some, rehabilitation plan for them but the displacement of people, from their roots has its own costs involved., Thermal Power Plant: In a thermal power plant, coal or, petroleum is used for converting water into steam. The, steam is used to run the turbine; to generate electricity., Biomass: The plants and animals constitute the biomass., Firewood from plants is used as kitchen fuel. If large, number of trees can be planted, then a continuous supply of, firewood can be ensured. Farm waste; such as stalks of, harvested plants and dung of cattle; can be used to generate, methane. The decomposition of biomass produces methane;, which can be channelised for useful purposes., Biogas Plant: Biogas plant can be very useful in solving, the energy need of rural areas. A biogas plant is a domelike structure which is usually built from bricks and, concrete. In the mixing tank; the slurry is made from cowdung and water. The slurry then goes to the digester; which, is a closed chamber. Since oxygen is absent in the digester,, the anaerobes carry on their work of decomposition. The, process of decomposition produces biogas. Biogas has, about 70% of methane and the rest is composed of other, gases. The biogas is channelised through a pipe and can be, utilised as kitchen fuel and also as fuel for getting light. The, slurry; left behind; is removed. It is used as manure, once it, dries., Wind Energy: Wind energy has been in use since ages., The sail boats of the pre-industrialisation era used to run on, wind power. Windmills have been in use; especially in, Holland; since the medieval period. Nowadays, windmills, are being used to generate electricity. The kinetic energy of, wind is utilise to run the turbines; which generate, electricity., At present, Germany is the leading country in terms of wind, energy production and India comes at number five. In India,, Tamil Nadu is the largest wind energy producing state. The, largest wind farm in India is near Kanyakumari; in Tamil, Nadu; which generates 380 MW of electricity.
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II.B.114, , Energy from Sea, Tidal Energy: Due to the gravitational pull of the moon,, tides happen near seashores. Water rushes up near the, seashore during a high tide and goes down during a low, tide. Dams are built near seashores to collect the water, which comes during a high tide. When the water runs back, to the ocean, the flow of water can be utilised to generate, electricity., Wave Energy: Waves can also be a good source of energy., Many devices are being designed and tested to produce, wave energy. For example; a hollow tower is built near the, seashore. When water gushes in the tube because of wave,, it forces the air upwards. The kinetic energy of air in the, , tube is used to run a turbine. When the wave goes down; air, from up goes down the tube which is also used in running, the turbine., Ocean Thermal Energy: The water at sea surface is hot, during daytime, while the water at lower level is cold. The, temperature differential in water levels can be utilised to, generate energy. If the temperature differential is more than, 20°C, then ocean thermal energy can be utilised from that, place. For this, a volatile liquid; like ammonia; is boiled, using the heat from the hot water at the surface. The steam, of the volatile liquid is utilised to run the turbine to generate, electricity. Colder water from the surface below is utilised, to condense ammonia vapour which is then channelised to, the surface to repeat the cycle. Various methods of, harnessing energy from the sea are still at experimental, stages., Geothermal Energy: The molten rocks from the inside of, the earth are pushed in certain regions of the earth. Such, regions are called the hotspots of the earth. When, groundwater comes in contact with such hot spots, lot of, steam is generated. This steam can be harnessed to produce, energy. Many power plants in New Zealand and USA, operate on geothermal energy., Binding Energy of Nucleus, Fe, 8, Binding energy per nuclear, particle (nucleon) in meV, , Limitations of Wind Energy: Wind farms can only be, established at those places where the wind speed is high, enough and is more than 15 km/hr for most parts of the year., Wind farms need to be established on large tracts of land., The fan of the windmill has many moving parts; so cost of, maintenance and repair is quite high. The fact, that it has to, suffer the vagaries of the nature further compounds the, problem. Initial cost of establishing a wind farm is very high., Non-conventional Sources of Energy: Energy sources, which are relatively new are called non-conventional, sources of energy, e.g. nuclear power and solar energy., Solar Energy: The sun is the main source of energy for all, living beings on this earth. Even the energy in the fossil, fuels has come from the sun. The sun has an endless, reservoir of energy which would be available as long as the, solar system is in existence. Technologies for harnessing, the solar energy have been developed in recent times., Solar Cooker: Solar cooker is very simple in design and, mode of function. It is usually made from mirrors. Plain, mirrors are placed inside a rectangular box. The light, reflected from the plain mirrors concentrates the solar, energy inside the solar cooker which generates enough heat, to cook food., Solar Furnace: Solar furnace is made like a concave, mirror. Large solar furnace has many smaller mirrors to, compose a very large convex mirror. The thing to be heated, is place near the focus of the mirror., Solar Cells: Solar cells are made from silicon. The solar, panel converts solar energy into electrical energy which is, stored in a battery; for later use., Limitations of Solar Energy: The technologies for, harnessing solar energy are at a nascent stage. At present,, the cost benefit ratio for using solar energy is not, conducive., , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 6, , The “iron group ”, of isotopes are the, most tightly bound, 62, 28 Ni (most tightly, 58, Fe bound), 26, , 56, 26, , 4, , 2, , Fe, yield from Have 8.8, nuclear, MeV per, nucleon, fission, binding, energy, , yield, from, nuclear, fission, Elements heavier than, iron can yield energy, by nuclear fission, , Average mass, offission fragments is, about 118., 235, , 50, , 100, 150, Mass number, A, , U, , 200, , Figure: 13.1, , With increase of mass number the binding energy increases,, becomes maximum and then it decreases., B m in am u 931 MeV, , Binding energy per nucleon, m in amu 931, B , MeV, A, Order of binding energy per nucleon 8 MeV
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Sources of Energy, , II.B.115, , Nuclear Energy: Nuclear fission is the process during which, two nuclei fuse to form one nucleus. The process generates a, huge amount of energy., , Deuterium, , Helium, , Nuclear Fission:, Breaking of heavy nucleus in two nuclei:, 92, , U 235 0 n1 , X Y p 0 n1 200 (Slow neutron), Energy, , Where, X and Y are any two isotopes having mass number, about 40% to 60% of original nucleus and p is number of, neutron which may be 2 or 3. U 235 is fashioned by slow, , Tritium, , neutron., It may be pointed out that it is not necessary that in each, fission of uranium, the two fragments Ba141 and Kr 92 are, formed but they may be any, stable isotopes of middle, weight atoms. The most, probable division is into, two fragments containing, about 40% and 60% of the, original nucleus with the, emission of 2 or 3 neutrons, per fission., Most of energy released, appears in the form of kinetic, energy of fission fragments., , Figure: 13.3, , Proton-proton cycle:, 1, , H 1 1 H 1 , 1 H 2 1 0 v (Neutrino + Energy), , 1, , H 2 1 H 1 , 2 He3 Energy, , 2, , He3 2 He3 , 2 He4 1H 1 1 H 1 Energy result is, , 1, , H 1 1 H 1 1 H 1 1 H 1 , 2 He4 2 1 0 2v , Energy (26.7MeV), , Carbon cycle, , The fission of U 238 takes, , place by fast neutrons., , Neutron, , Figure: 13.2, , Nuclear Fusion, Synthesis of lighter nuclei into heavier ones. If takes at high, , temperature (2 10 K ) and high pressure. Source of energy of, 7, , sun and stars is nuclear fusion., For the fusion to take place, the component nuclei must be, brought to within a distance of 104 m. For this they must, be imparted high energies to overcome the repulsive force, between nuclei. This is possible when temperature is, enormously high., The principle of hydrogen bomb is also based on nuclear, fusion. To start a fusion bomb very high temperature is, required. This is achieved by bombarding an atom bomb., The source of energy of sun and other stars is nuclear, fusion of thermonuclear reactions. There are two possible, cycles:, , 1, , H 1 6C12 , 7 N 13 Energy, , 7, , N 13 , 6C13 1 0 v (neutrion), , 6, , C13 1 H 1 , 7 N 14 Energy, , 7, , N 14 1 H 1 , 8O15 Energy, , 8, , O15 , 7 N 15 1 0 Energy, , 7, , N 15 1 H 1 , 7C12 2 He 4, , Net result is, 1, , H 1 1 H 1 1 H 1 1 H 1 , 2 He4 2 1 0 2v , , Energy (26.7 MeV), The proton-proton cycle occurs at relatively lower, temperature as compared to carbon cycle which has greater, efficiency at higher temperature., At the sun whose interior temperature is about 2 106 K , the, , proton-proton cycle has more changes for occurrence., Nuclear Reactor, Nuclear reactor is based on the principle of nuclear fission., A moderator is used to slow down neutrons. Graphite and, heavy water are suitable moderators., Cadmium and boron-steel rods are used as controller in, nuclear reactor.
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II.B.116, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Schematic of a Nuclear Power Plant, , Containment, building, , Pump, , Electricity, Backup, cooling, water, , Pressurizing, system, Control, rods, Fuel, Rods, , Secondary loop, , Turbine, , Fuel, Elements, , Hot water, , Primary loop, , Heat, , Pump, , Cool water, Pump, , Reactor, vessel, , Generator, , Water, Steam, Generator, , Pump, , Condenser, , Heat, Figure: 13.4, , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , Which of the following is a nonrenewable energy resource?, a. solar, b. methane, c. hydroelectric, d. coal, The amount of oil that may become available for use is, called oil?, a. reserves, b. reservoirs c. resources d. traps, A coal deposit that is not economical to mine today would, be considered part of our?, a. coal reserves, b. coal resources, c. coal reservoirs, d. None of theses, Chemical reactions triggered by _______ transform, organic material into hydrocarbons., a. solar energy b. hydroelectric, c. elevated temperatures, d. decomposition, Energy resources derived from natural organic materials, are called?, a. geothermal energy sources, b. fossil fuels, c. biomass, d. all of these, , 6., , All oil traps contain?, a. an impermeable layer, c. a fault, , b. an anticline, d. all of these, , Which of the following is least likely to contain an oil trap?, a. an anticline, b. fault, c. natural stratigraphy, d. syncline, 8. Which of the following rock types would most likely be, the best oil reservoir?, a. granite, b. shale, c. sandstone, d. salt, 9. In an oil trap formed by an anticline, ___ accumlulates on, top, ___ in the middle, and ___at the bottom., a. natural gas .... oil .... groundwater, b. ground water .... oil .... natural gas, c. oil .... groundwater .... natural gas, d. oil .... natural gas .... ground water, 10. Two-thirds of the world's known oil reserves are located in?, a. Siberia, b. Gulf of Mexico and Caribbean, c. the middle East, d. Indonesia, 7.
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Sources of Energy, , 11. The world has the least amount of which of the following, fuel types., a. Oil, b. Coal, c. Uranium, d. There are roughly equal amounts of each of these, fuels., 12. At the current rate of world use, the remaining oil will be, depleted in approximately ______ years., a. 25, b. 100, c. 400, d. 2000, 13. Burning of which of the following fuels produces the least, amount of carbon dioxide per unit of energy?, a. Coal, b. Oil, c. natural gas, d. All of these produce the same amount of carbon, dioxide., 14. Which country contains about 50% of the world's coal, resources?, a. United States, b. China, c. Canada, d. The former Soviet Union, 15. Oil derived from coal, oil shales or tar sands is called?, a. natural gas, b. biomass, c. syncrude, d. none of these, 16. Nuclear energy is derived by?, a. combustion of atoms of U 235, b. fission of atoms of U 235, c. fusion of atoms of U 235, d. the breaking of U 235 bonds, 17. Which of the following energy sources does not produce, carbon dioxide?, a. Oil, b. Uranium, c. Coal, d. Natural gas, 18. Which of the following statements regarding the nuclear, accident at Chernobyl in the Ukraine in 1986 is false?, a. radioactive debris was blown into Scandinavia and, western Europe, b. hundreds of square miles of land surrounding, Chernobyl was contaminated and made uninhabitable, c. food supplies in many countries had to be purified in, order to be consumed, d. excess deaths from cancer may be in the thousands, over the next 40 years, 19. Solar energy stored in material such as wood, grain,, sugar, and municipal waste is called?, a. fossil fuels, b. biomass, c. geothermal energy, d. natural, , II.B.117, , 20. What type of energy is derived from heated groundwater?, a. solar energy, b. geothermal energy, c. hydroelectric energy, d. nuclear energy, 21. A steam engine converts the heat energy of steam into, a. electrical energy, b. nuclear energy, c. mechanical energy, d. none of these, 22. A motor converts electrical energy into, a. mechanical energy, b. chemical energy, c. nuclear energy, d. thermal energy, 23. A battery converts chemical energy into, a. mechanical energy, b. solar energy, c. electrical energy, d. none of these, 24. One erg is equal to:, a. 1g cm s -2, , b. 1 Nm, , c. 107 J, , d. 107 J, , 25. Which of the following is different from the others?, a. Joule, b. Kilowatt hour, c. Erg, d. Watt, 26. Which of the following is the biggest unit of energy?, a. Joule, b. Kilowatt hour, c. Erg, d. Electron volt, 27. One kWh is equal to, a. 3.6 106 J, , b. 106C, , c. 3.6 104 J, , d. 3.6 105 J, , 28. If the speed of a motor car becomes six times, then the, kinetic energy becomes:, a. 6 times, b. 36 times c. 12 times d. 24 times, 29. The spring of the winding knob of a watch has, a. mechanical energy, b. only kinetic energy, c. only potential energy, d. kinetic or potential energy, 30. A truck and a car are moving on a smooth, level road such, that the kinetic energy associated with them is same., Brakes are applied simultaneously in both of them such, that equal retarding forces are produced in them. Which, one will cover a greater distance before it stops?, a. car, b. truck, c. both will cover the same distance, d. nothing can be decided, 31. The unit kg m2s-2 is associated with, a. work only, b. kinetic energy only, c. potential energy only, d. all the above
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II.B.118, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 32. A body is dropped form a certain height to the ground., When it is halfway down, it possesses, a. only kinetic energy, b. only potential energy, c. both kinetic energy and potential energy, d. neither kinetic energy nor potential energy, 33. One kilowatt approximately equals, a. 1.34 hp, b. 2.50 hp, c. 1.56 hp, , d. 1.83 hp, , 34. The steam engine was invented by, a. James Watt, b. Joule, c. Newcommen, d. Newton, 35. The petrol engine was invented by, a. Nikolaus Otto, b. Jams Watt, c. Rudolph Otto, d. none of these, , 43. Which of the following is not used as a rocket fuel?, a. synthetic rubber, b. liquid hydrogen, c. paraffin, d. liquid nitrogen, 44. Which of the following compound has a least heating, value?, a. alcohol, b. electricity, c. nuclear energy, d. none of these, 45. Which of the following flames is produced by a candle?, a. blue flame, b. non-luminous flame, c. light giving flame, d. yellow luminous flame, 46. Unburnt carbon particles are present in the, a. blue-zone, b. dark inner zone, c. luminous zone, d. non-lumious zone, , 36. Joule’s experiment converts, a. work into heat, b. work into electricity, c. heat into work, d. electricity into work, , 47. Which of the following is a supporter of combustion?, a. Cooking gas, b. Nitrogen gas, c. Oxygen gas, d. Producer gas, , 37. A car engine is an example of, a. internal combustion engine, b. external combustion engine, c. neither internal nor external combustion engine, d. both internal and external combustion engine, , 48. Biogas is a mixture of, , 38. Most of the fuels are, a. carbon compounds with sulphur, b. nitrogen compounds with carbon, c. carbon compounds with hydrogen, d. none of these, 39. Destructive distillation of coal leads to the formation of, a. wood, c. kerosene, c. ammoniacal liquor, d. charcoal, 40. Producer gas is a mixture of, a. carbon monoxide and nitrogen gas, b. carbon monoxide and hydrogen gas, c. carbon monoxide and water vapour, d. carbon monoxide and nitrogen oxide, , a. CO H 2 CH 4, , b. CO2 CH 2 H 2 H 2 S, , c. CO H 2, , d. CO2 N 2, , 49. Which of the following is non-renewable source of, energy?, a. coal, b. gobar gas, c. solar energy, d. tidal energy, 50. Which of the following is non-renewable source of, energy?, a. wood, b. petroleum, c. natural gas, d. uranium, 51. Choose the source of energy which is different from others:, a. wood, b. falling water, c. wind, d. petroleum, 52. Choose the source of energy which is different from, others:, a. natural gas c. petroleum c. uranium, d. coal, , 41. The fractional distillation of coal tar yields, a. carbon disulphide, b. kerosene oil, c. carbon tetrachloride, d. benzene, , 53. The vast amount of sea weeds present in oceans may, provide an endless source of, a. nuclear energy, b. methane, c. thermal energy ocean, d. none of these, , 42. Which of the following is not obtained on fractional, distillation of petroleum?, a. paraffin wax, b. asphalt, c. coal gas, d. petroleum gas, , 54. India’s uranium supply comes mainly from the Jaduguda, mines in, a. Bihar, b. Madhya Pradesh, c. Maharashtra, d. None of these
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Sources of Energy, , II.B.119, , 55. The natural uranium ore is processed and enriched at the, Nuclear Fuel complex at, a. Kolkata, b. Mumbai, c. Hyderabad, d. None of these, 56. India’s first atomic power station is, a. BARC, b. Tarapur atomic power station, c. Narora atomic power station, c. None of these, , 59. Which of the following will produce lesser pollution, problem?, a. nuclear fission, b. nuclear fusion, c. both will produce same amount of pollution, d. nothing can be decided, 60. How many nuclear power stations does India have at, present?, a. 2, b. 3, c. 4, d. None of these, ANSWERS, , 57. A hydrogen bomb is a, a. controlled nuclear fission, b. uncontrolled nuclear fission, c. uncontrolled nuclear fusion, d. controlled unclear fusion, 58. Which of the following will produce more energy in a, short time?, a. nuclear fission, b. nuclear fusion, c. both will produce the same amount of energy, d. nothing can be decided, , 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , d, , c, , b, , c, , b, , a, , d, , c, , a, , 10., c, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , a, , b, , c, , d, , c, , b, , b, , c, , d, , b, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , c, , a, , c, , d, , d, , b, , a, , b, , c, , c, , 31., , 32., , 33., , 34., , 35., , 36., , 37., , 38., , 39., , 40., , d, , c, , a, , c, , a, , a, , a, , c, , c, , a, , 41., , 42., , 43., , 44., , 45., , 46., , 47., , 48., , 49., , 50., , d, , c, , d, , c, , d, , c, , c, , b, , a, , a, , 51., , 52., , 53., , 54., , 55., , 56., , 57., , 58., , 59., , 60., , d, , d, , b, , a, , c, , b, , c, , b, , b, , c, ,
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II.B.120, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 14, , The Universe, , To get an idea of the tremendous size of our solar system,, imagine for a moment that our Earth is just one inch across. At, this scale, the distance from the Earth to the Moon would be 30, inches, and the Moon itself, just a quarter of an inch across., The size of the Sun at this scale is enormous, a sphere 9.1 feet, across! We know that eight planets move around the sun. There, might be more that we can't see! Other things orbit the sun, too., Dwarf planets, comets and asteroids orbit the sun. Dust and, pieces of ice orbit, too! The sun is a star. It is the biggest thing, found in our solar system. All the light and warmth on the, planets come from the sun., Note, Ancient astronomers observed points of light that appeared to, move among the stars. They called these objects planets,, meaning wanderers, and named them after Roman deities –, Jupiter, king of the gods; Mars, the god of war; Mercury,, messenger of the gods; Venus, the god of love and beauty, and, Saturn, father of Jupiter and god of agriculture. The stargazers, also observed comets with sparkling tails, and meteors or, shooting stars apparently falling from the sky., Solar System, , Asteroid, Venus, Mars, Neptune, , Mercu, Jupiter, , Pluto, , Earth, , Saturn, Uranu, , Comet, , Figure: 14.1, , The United States has sent automated spacecraft, then humancrewed expeditions, to explore the Moon. Our automated, machines have orbited and landed on Venus and Mars,, explored the Sun's environment, observed comets, and, asteroids, and made close-range surveys while flying past, , Mercury, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune. You know that, our earth is one of the eight planets, all of which revolve, around a central star called the sun. The billions of stars, which, exist in the universe, are not distributed uniformly in space., These actually stars occur in the form of clusters (or group’s), of billions of stars called galaxies and the matter objects like, planets and satellites, meteors, etc., The Units of Measuring Distances in the Universe, The distances in the universe are so immense that kilometre is, an awfully small and inconvenient unit to even think of, measuring such great distances. The extremely large distance, between the various heavenly bodies like the stars and planets, can be expressed in terms of two units;, Light year, and, Parsec, , One light year is the distance traveled by light in one year, (which is equal to 9.46 1012 kilometre). The speed of light is, 300,000 kilometre per second (km/s). So, a light year is,, equivalent to 300,000 multiplied by the number of seconds in 1, year, which is 365 24 60 60(365 days, 24 hours, 60, minutes, 60 seconds)., 1 Light year= 300,000 365 24 60 60 km or 9.46 , 1012 kilometre., Apparently, light year is a unit of distance and not of time. The, nearest star to the earth (apart from the sun) is 'alpha centuari', which is about 4.3 light years away from the earth., Astronomers also use another unit for measuring large, distances, which is called Parsec. Parsec is an astronomical unit, of distance, which is equal to 3.26 light years,i.e., 1 parsec =, 3.26 light years, Difference between a Galaxy and a Constellation, A galaxy is a collection of billions and billions of stars, whereas a constellation is a collection of only a very few stars., A galaxy does not form a definite pattern, which resembles, a particular shape of an animal or a human being to, imagine, but a constellation appears to resemble an animal, or human being in its shape., There are billions of galaxies in this universe and there are, about 88 constellations known to us as of now.
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The Universe, , II.B.121, , Galaxy, A galaxy is a vast collection of billions of stars, dust and, hydrogen gas, isolated in space from similar systems. Actually,, galaxies are the building blocks of this universe. There are, about 100 billion galaxies in the universe, and each galaxy has, on an average 100 billion stars. So, the total number of stars in, the universe is 1022 stars., Milky way galaxy, Andromeda galaxy, Classification of Galaxies, Different shapes and sizes comprise in the galaxy. Their, classification can be made on the basis of their shapes., Spiral galaxies, , Elliptical galaxies, , Irregular galaxies, , Figure: 14.2, , The Milky Way – Our Own Galaxy (Spiral), , Front-view, , Orion, , Ursa Major, , Figure: 14.4, , Again our ancestors named these star groups or constellations, after the objects, which they seemed to resemble. The Indian, name for the constellations is 'Nakshatras'. About 88, constellations (star groups) are known. The constellations that, fall in the zodiac are called the 12 constellations of the zodiac., Some of the important constellations:, Ursa, Major, Constellation, (or, Great, Bear, Constellation):, The most familiar for you is the, `Saptarishi’– the Indian name of Ursa Major constellation, or great bear constellation. The arrangement of stars in ursa, major constellation shown in Figure 14.4 is a common site, in the night sky that you must have already seen! This great, bear constellation reminds us of a large ladle or a question, mark studded n the sky. The stars marked 1, 2, 3 and 4 are, supposed to form the body of the bear whereas the stars, marked 5, 6 and 7 form the tail of the big bare. The ursa, major constellation can be seen clearly in April in summer, season in the northern part of the sky at night., , Side-view of the milky, Figure: 14.3, , Figure: 14.5, , The Sun and its family of planets belong to the Milky Way galaxy., And in India we call it as the “Akash Ganga”, sounds so divine!, Constellations, Since the ancient times, man has gazed at the stars and singled, out identifiable shapes and patterns. One group of stars, suggested the outline of a bear; another group of stars reminded, them of a hunter, and so on and on. The stars, which appear in, the form or gathered groups and in identifiable silhouettes and, patterns, are known as constellations., , Ursa Major, , Polaris, , Ursa, Minor, Figure: 14.6
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.B.122, , Ursa Minor Constellation (or Little Bear Constellation):, The layout of stars in ursa minor 'Laghu Saptarishi' or 'Dhruva, Matsya' is similar to those in ursa major, the only difference, being that the stars in ursa minor are closer together and appear, to form the outline of a little bear! The Ursa Minor, constellation or the pole star constellation can be seen in the, northern part of the sky in July during the summer season., , Scorpio constellation is again believed to resemble the Scorpio,, complete with tail and pincers. The Scorpio constellation is, usually visible in the summer season is the time to watch out, for this constellation. The Indian name is `Vrishchika'., Pleiades Constellation, North, Ursa, Cepheu, , February, Cassiopeia, , Androme, Preseus, , Ursa, Auriga, Figure: 14.7, , Orion Constellation or Hunter Constellation: Orion, means Hunter. The display of stars in Orion constellation is, supposed to resemble a hunting man and visible during the, winter season. 'Vyadha' or 'Mirga' are the native titles for, this array of stars., , Wes, t, , Gemin, , Leo, , Aries, Taurus, , Cance, , East, Pisces, , Canis, Orion, Canis, , South, Figure: 14.10, , ORION, , No particular array or line up for this Pleiades constellation., The pleiades constellation seems like a cluster of twinkling, Betelgeuse, , Bellatrix, , gems in the night sky as globular star cluster. `Kruttika’ is the, native title and the right time to watch out for is during winter., Stars, The sparkling of star makes your eyes twinkle, as you, , M42 (Orion, Nebula), , immediately bring that picture of a divine shimmering and, celebrative light into your minds! Stars are indeed the, Saiph, Figure: 14.8, , Scorpio Constellation, , Rigel, , heavenly bodies like the sun, which are physically, extremely, hot (as against what we love to imagine their, cool glow in the dark-dark starry night sky!) and have light, of their own. Every star is a huge mass of hot gases of, hydrogen gas, some helium and dust emitting big flames! In, all the stars (including the sun), hydrogen atoms are, continuously being converted into helium atoms and a large, amount of nuclear energy in the form of heat, and light is, released during this process. As a consequence, a star is a, hydrogen nuclear energy furnace, so big that it holds, together by itself. There are billions and billions of stars in, the sky but only about 2000 stars can be seen with the naked, , Figure: 14.9, , eyes on a clear moonless night.
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The Universe, , II.B.123, , Did you note that all the stars are actually very huge in size?, However, they appear small, for they are very far and far off, from us. The stars twinkle at night, that is, the intensity of their, light appears to increase and decrease continuously when, passing through different layers. And the stars are classified, according to their physical characteristics like size, colour, its, brightness and temperature. Star that lie immediately above the, earth's North Pole and around which all other stars seem to, revolve is called pole star. The Indian name of pole star is, “Dhruva Tara”. The pole star appears to be stationary in the, sky and does not change its position at all. It has been found, that the earth itself rotates on its axis from West to East, direction due to which the stars appear to move in the opposite, direction from East to West. The star nearest to the earth is the, sun. The temperature at the surface of the sun is about 6000°C,, while the temperature at its centre is about 20 million degrees, Celsius., , Final Stages of a Star's Life, , After millions and millions of years this time does come for the, stars! In the first part of the final stage of its life, a star enters, the red-giant phase where it becomes a red-giant star. After, that, depending on its mass, the red-giant star can die out by, becoming a white dwarf star, or by exploding as a supernova, star, which ultimately ends in the formation of neutron star and, black holes., Red Giant Phase, , You know that the stars contain mainly hydrogen initially., Over the passage of time, hydrogen gets converted into helium, from the centre outwards. Now, when all the hydrogen present, in the core of the star gets converted into helium, and the core, would begin to shrink under its own gravity. In the outer shell, or envelope of the star, however, some hydrogen still remains;, the fusion reactions would continue to liberate energy but with, , Evolution of a Star, Even stars have birth, life and death!! The life cycle of a star, begins with the gathering of hydrogen gas and helium gas, present in the galaxies to form dense clouds of these gases. The, stars are then formed by the gravitational collapse of these, over-dense clouds of gases in the galaxy. The first step in the, formation of a star from gases is the protostar., , much reduced intensity., , Formation of a Protostar and Star, , becomes very big (it becomes a giant), and its colour changes, Outer shell, , All these changes and for the overall equilibrium in the star is, upset and in order to readjust it, the star has to expand, considerably in its exterior region (outer region), while its core, shrinks because of the dominance of gravitational forces and, because of this large expansion of the outer shell, the star, to red. At this stage the star enters the red giant phase and it is, said to become a red giant star., Outer shell, , Core shell, A huge cloud of contracting, hydrogen gas, , Protostar, , Core shrinks, , A star, , Outer shell, expands, , Figure: 14.11, , The gases in the galaxies in initially were mainly hydrogen, with some helium. But they were at a very low temperature of, about, –173°C. Since the gases were very cold, they formed, very dense clouds in the galaxies. Since the gas cloud was very, large, so the gravitational pull between the various gas, molecules was quite large. Due to large gravitational force, the, gas cloud started contracting as a whole. Ultimately, the gases, were compressed so much that they found a highly condensed, object called a protostar. The formation of protostar is only a, stage in the formation of complete star; protostar into a star that, emits light is the subsequent stage., , Core shell, A star in prime of life, , Red Giant Star, Figure: 14.12, , In the process or transformation of star from a normal star to, the red giant star, the core of star shrinks whereas the outer, shell or envelope expands greatly. A star spends a, comparatively short time in the red giant phase and is quite, unstable in this condition. Now when a star reaches this redgiant phase, then its future depends on its initial mass giving, rise to two means:
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II.B.124, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , If the initial mass of the star is comparable to that of the, sun, then the red-giant star loses its expanding outer, shell and its core shrinks to form a white dwarf star,, which ultimately dies out as dense lump of matter into, the space., If the initial mass of the star is much more than that of the, sun, then the red giant star formed from it explodes in the, form of a supernova star, and the core of this exploding, supernova star can shrink to form a neutron star or black, hole., , This helium core of the small red-giant star will gradually, shrink into an extremely dense ball of matter due to gravitation., Because of this enormous shrinking of helium core, the, temperature of core would rise greatly and start another set of, nuclear fusion reactions in which helium is converted into, heavier elements like carbon, and an extremely large amount of, energy will be released. For example, three helium nuclei will, fuse to form a carbon nucleus with the release of enormous, amount of energy:, , Formation of White Dwarf Star, , N, , N, , Helium nucleus, (alpha), , , , Mass < 1.4 solar masses, , Gravity, Mass > 1.4 solar masses, but mass < 3 solar, masses, Gravity, , N, , N, Mass > 3 solar, masses, , Gravity, , N, , N, N, , N, , , N, , N, , Beryllium-8, , , N, N, , White Dwarf, Electrons run out of room to, move around. Electrons, prevent further collapse., Protons & neutrons still free, to move around., Stronger gravity more, compact., , Neutron Star, Black Hole, Electrons + protons, Gravity wins!, combine to form, Nothing, neutrons. Neutrons run, prevents, out of room to move, collapse., around. Neutrons, prevent further collapse., Much smaller !, , 10, , Planetary, Nebula, , 5, , N, , Luminosity (Lo), , 103, 102, 10, , Central Star, of planetary, Nebula, , Horizontal, branch, Main, sequence, , Red, Giant, , Subgian, Sun, , 1, 0.1, , 10–2, 10, , White, , –3, , 100,000, , 10,000 6,000, 30,000, Effective Temperature (K), Figure: 14.14, , 3,000, , N, , Figure: 14.15, 12, 6, , ~ 0.3 MeV bridgeable, by thermal energy of, stellar interior, 8, 4, , Be He, 4, 2, , C*, , Hoyle, resonance, , 7.656 MeV, , Carbon, nucleosynthesis, , 7.367, MeV, , The nuclear resonance of carbon increases the rate of carbon, production in stellar interiors., 12, 6, , 104, , N, , Carbon-12, , Figure: 14.13, , The red giant star would lose its expanding outer shell or, envelope because then the comparatively smaller amount of, hydrogen fuel present in it will be used up rapidly, and only the, core of the red giant star will be left behind., , N, , C , , 4, 2, , He, , 7.1616 MeV, , 12, 6, , O*, , O nuclear, resonance, , Oxygen, nucleosynthesis, 7.1187 MeV, , A nuclear resonance of oxygen is near, but below the energy of, the carbon-helium combination, so it does not act to increase the, rate of oxygen production at the expense of carbon. The, enormous energy liberated by the fusion of helium into carbon,, would make the small core glow like a white dwarf star. The, white dwarf star is a star of highly dense matter in the form of, protons and electrons. The density of matter in the white dwarf, star is very high, being about 10,000 kg/cm3. That is, in a typical, white dwarf star 10,000 kilogram of matter is packed into just 1, cubic centimetre space. The white dwarf star will glow as long as, helium lasts in it (for nuclear fusion reaction to take place).
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The Universe, , Formation of Supernova Star and Neutron Star, A big explosion takes place here. Well the stars those are much, heavier than the sun end up in a more catastrophic way, resulting in huge discharge. This can also be explained., When a very big star is in the red giant phase, then being big,, its core contains much more helium. This big core made up of, helium continues to contract (shrink) under the action of, gravity producing higher and higher temperatures. At this, extremely high temperature, fusion of helium into carbon takes, place in the core and a lot of energy is produced. Since the star, was very big and contained enormous nuclear fuel helium, so a, tremendous amount of nuclear energy is produced very rapidly, which causes the outer shell (or envelope) of this red giant star, to explode with a brilliant flash like a nuclear bomb. This type, of exploding star is called supernova. When a supernova, explosion takes place, then clouds of gases in the envelope of, red giant star are liberated into the space and these gases act as, raw material for the formation of new stars. The heavy core left, behind after the supernova explosion continues to contract and, ultimately becomes a neutron star. The density of a neutron star, is about a million tonnes per cubic centimetre or even higher. A, neutron star contains matter in even denser form than found in, white dwarf stars. A spinning neutron star emits radiowaves, and is called pulsar. Do not assume that every star ends its life, as a spectacular supernova. But every star has a definite, beginning and a definite end!, Black Holes, As it sounds strange and in fact it is for it sucks in and in …. A, black hole is an object with such a strong gravitational field, that even light cannot escape from its surface! A black hole, may be formed when a massive object undergoes uncontrolled, contraction because of the inward pull of its own gravity. If the, neutron star were very heavy, then due to enormous, gravitational attraction, it would continue to contract, indefinitely!! The vast amount of matter present in a neutron, star would be ultimately packed into a mere point object. Such, an infinitely dense object is called a black hole., Big Bang, In the beginning there is only a super-massive gaseous point in, our empty universe. Instantaneously and randomly, enough, energy is created to break the gravitational bond holding this, massive body together, exploding the super-heated particles, throughout space. In less than 1 millionth of a second, protons,, neutrons, electrons, and their anti-particles begin to form. As, time moves on, particles begin to cool by giving off energy,, which allows them to combine to create the first and most, , II.B.125, , simple ion, hydrogen, as well as a few more massive atoms., Over time, these atoms collect and combine to create planets,, smaller stars, asteroids, and numerous other solid bodies., Formation of Solar System, As matter began to condense and stars began to form, one such, star appeared where the Sun now appears within the Milky, Way Galaxy. After igniting with fusion and burning its usable, hydrogen and other larger elements, the star exploded, sending, matter out in all directions. Once again, through gravitational, forces, this matter eventually cooled and collected in a few key, areas, forming the planets and the asteroid belt., , The asteroid belt is simply an early form of the collection of, matter that was not able to completely form a planet due to, Jupiter's gravity. Some early planets may have collided with, other early planets, creating larger planets, moons, or possibly, space rocks. In the meantime, a smaller star began to form at, the centre of the previous explosion and the sun started its, fusion process again., , Solar Nebula, , Formation of the giant planets and, those satellites, Primordial Heavy, bombardment, Migration of the, giant planets, Differentiation of, primordial planetesimals, Dispersal, of the nebular gas, , Giant impacts phase, Tilting, Uranus’s spin axis, Formation, of the terrestrial planets,, Differentiation of planets and, satellites, Mass depletion of, the asteroid belt, , Orbital rearrangement of the outer solar system, Late Heavy Bombardment, , Primordial, Solar system, , At < 10 Ma, , 4.568, Ga ago, , 4.0 – 3.8, Ga ago, , Modern Solar system, , Secular geophysical evolution of planets, and satellites, Secular collisional erosion, and contamination of planetary bodies, , Prese, , Figure: 14.16, , Formation of The Earth, The Earth was one of the planets formed from the collapse of, the first star. However, it is unique in many ways. It is the only, planet with visible surface water, which is explained by the, precise temperature and atmospheric pressure the Earth, maintains. Seasons, though mild near the equator, are caused, because the Earth's axis is tilted approximately 23 degrees., Earth's is unique, in that it contains oxygen, which is essential, for life. At one time, a large asteroid may have collided with, the planet, breaking off a large piece of it, which would, eventually become our Moon. However, many questions still, go unanswered about the formation of the Earth and how its, processes began.
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II.B.126, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Time lines:, , Birth cluster lifetime,, dispersed over approx,, 130 – 530 million years, 130, Million yr, , 530, Million yr, , Peak meteorite activity, time frame of the, population of the sun’s weak stability, boundary with planetary fragments (up to, approx, 700 million years), 700 Million yr, , Cooling of, 1st evidence of, Earth’s, microbiological, crust Evidence of liquid activity, Earth, , water on Earth’s, surface, , Moon, formation, , t=0, 44, solar Million, system yr, formation, , 60, Million, yr, , 164 – 288, Million yr, , 1st, Microfossils, 718, Million yr, , 1170, Million yr, , Window of opportunity, of lithopanspermia from, Earth, Figure: 14.17, , Formation of Earth, Conditions on Early Earth, Origins of, Life, , The theory put forth to explain the origins of the Universe, our, solar system, and our planet is called the Big Bang Theory,, which says that all matter in the Universe was, at one time,, concentrated in a giant mass (a black hole?) that blew apart, about 10 to 20 billion years ago (bya) and is still expanding. It, is thought that our solar system had its origins when, about 5, bya, triggered by some unknown cause, a cloud of interstellar, dust and gases collapsed and condensed. Some of the matter in, the central mass contracted under its own gravity, condensed,, and heated until forces were so strong that thermonuclear, reactions began, and this was the origin of our star, the Sun., Interestingly, one astronomy book I read pointed out that the, size of a star is related to the amount of fuel it has available to, burn for energy and how fast it burns up that fuel. A star, smaller than the sun would not contain enough fuel to last long, enough for evolution to have occurred here on earth. A larger, star would have burned its fuel too fast, and would have burned, itself out long ago, also not lasting long enough for life to, evolve on Earth., It is thought that Earth began as a cold world, and the very first, atmosphere may have been hydrogen gas, but since that is so, light weight and very chemically reactive, most of it would, have floated off into space or reacted with other substances,, thus would have been rapidly dissipated. The first atmosphere, is thought to be due to subsequent volcanic activity and other, chemical reactions taking place. It is thought that the inner, four, solid planets may have started out with H2O, CO2, CO,, and N2. According to current thinking, NH3 would have formed, H2, which would have floated off into space, and N2 which, , would have stayed in the early atmosphere. It is thought that, these chemicals made up the atmosphere of our planet for the, first 1 billion years, and initially, provided similar atmospheres, for the other three solid planets. However, the distance of each, of these planets from the sun has influenced what subsequently, took place there., Mercury is too close to the sun and too hot. Any water that, might have been there (and any other volatile chemicals), would, long ago, have evaporated into space., Venus also is too close to the sun to have any surface water., Venus probably has torrential rains from its heavy cloud, cover, the high heat almost immediately evaporates any, surface water., Mars, on the other hand, is too far away from the sun, and, so is too cold. Any water and carbon dioxide present on the, planet are frozen solid; the planet is too small to hold very, much atmosphere, and there is not enough of a greenhouse, effect to keep the planet warm. Thus, there is essentially no, atmosphere left., Once again, conditions happen to be just right here on, planet Earth. We are just the right distance from the sun!, On Earth, the heat and the size are such that the water is, neither all frozen nor all vaporised. Because liquid water is, present, this has enabled formation of the lakes and oceans, needed for life to evolve., Over the next 3.5 billion years, the amount of CO2 in our, atmosphere was reduced as it became incorporated into rocks, (limestone is CaCO3 and forms when H 2O CO2 , H 2CO3, and H 2 CO 3 Ca , CaCO 3 2H ). The liquid oceans, formed about 3.8 bya, and life has been present for nearly as long., Oceanic, Atmosphere Crust, Crust, Mantle, Outer, Cone, , Continental, Crust, , Lithosphere, Upper (part of mantle), Mantel, Mantel, Continues down, to outer cone, , Outer cone of molten metal, Solid metal inner cone, , Figure: 14.18
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The Universe, , The inner part of the earth is the core. This part of the earth is, about 1,800 miles (2,900 km) below the earth's surface. The, core is a dense ball of the elements iron and nickel. It is divided, into two layers, the inner core and the outer core. The inner, core – the center of earth is solid and about 780 miles (1,250, km) thick. The outer core is so hot that the metal is always, molten, but the inner core pressures are so great that it cannot, melt, even though temperatures there reach 6700ºF (3700ºC)., The outer core is about 1370 miles (2,200 km) thick. Because, the earth rotates, the outer core spins around the inner core and, that causes the earth's magnetism., Mantle, The layer above the core is the mantle. It begins about 6 miles, (10 km) below the oceanic crust and about 19 miles (30 km), below the continental crust (see The Crust). The mantle is to, divide into the inner mantle and the outer mantle. It is about, 1,800 miles (2,900 km) thick and makes up nearly 80 percent, of the Earth's total volume., Crust:, The crust lies above the mantle and is the earth's hard outer, shell, the surface on which we are living. In relation with the, other layers the crust is much thinner. It floats upon the softer,, denser mantle. The crust is made up of solid material but these, material is not everywhere the same. There is an Oceanic crust, and a Continental crust. The first one is about 4–7 miles (6–11, km) thick and consists of heavy rocks, like basalt. The, Continental crust is thicker than the Oceanic crust, about 19, miles (30 km) thick. It is mainly made up of light material, like, granite., Atmosphere, The atmosphere gives us air, water, warmth and is protecting, us against harmful rays of the sun and against meteorites. This, layer around the earth is a colorless, odourless, tasteless 'sea' of, gases, water and fine dust. The atmosphere is made up of, different layers with different qualities. It consists of 78%, nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 0,93% argon, 0,03% carbon dioxide and, 0,04% of other gases. The Troposphere is the layer where the, weather happens; above this layer is the Stratosphere. Within the, Stratosphere is the Ozone layer that absorbs the Sun's harmful, ultraviolet rays. Above the Stratosphere is the Mesosphere, the, Thermosphere in which the Ionosphere and the Exosphere. The, atmosphere is about 500 miles (800 km) thick. The sun and the, moon both have their influence on the earth. Sometimes they, cooperate and sometimes they counteract each other. Such, influences are: the gravity, the warmth of the sun, the sunlight, and the chronology. Through the gravitational force of the earth, the moon orbits the earth. The moon also gravitates the earth, but, , II.B.127, , less powerful. By the way gravity pulls the Earth and Moon, toward each other, tides are caused (high tide and low tide). The, sun also has some influence here. The sun brings light and is also, responsible for the warming up of the earth., Comet, A comet is made of dirty ice, dust, and gas. When a comet gets, close to the Sun, part of the ice starts to melt. The solar winds, then push the dust and gas released by the melting ice away, from the comet. This forms the comet's tail. Every time a, comet comes close to the Sun, a part of it melts. Over time, it, will completely disappear. A comet does not give off any light, of its own. What seems to be light from the comet is actually a, reflection of our Sun's light. Sunlight bounces off the comet's, ice particles in the same way light is reflected by a mirror. A, few comets come close enough to the Earth for us to see them, with our eyes. Halley's Comet, for example, can be seen from, Earth every 76 years., , Planets data:Table: 14.1, Planet, s, , Sidereal, period of, revolution, , Known, satellites, , Gravity, g, , Mercur, y, Venus, , 87.95 d, , 0, , 0.378, , 224.7 d, , 1, , Earth, , 365.26 d, , 1, , Mars, , 687.0 d, , Jupiter, , Escape, velocity, km/s, , Mean, orbital, velocity, km/s, , Surface, temp. K, , 4.25, , 47.87, , 90–700, , 0.905, , 10.36, , 35.02, , 730, , 1.000, , 11.18, , 29.79, , 287, , 2, , 0.379, , 5.02, , 24.13, , 218, , 11.862 yr, , 16*, , 2.529, , 59.56, , 13.06, , 120, , Saturn, , 29.458 yr, , ≥ 18, , 1.066, , 35.49, , 9.66, , 88, , Uranus, , 84.013 yr, , 15, , 0.903, , 21.30, , 6.80, , 59, , Neptune, , 164.79 yr, , 8, , 1.096, , 23.50, , 5.44, , 48, , Pluto, , 248.4 yr, , 1, , 0.069, , 1.22, , 4.74, , 37, , *, , The spacecraft Gallileo has found over 60 satellites, most of them very, small., , Astronomical Quantities, Time, 1 day = 24 hours = 1, 440 minutes = 86 400 seconds, Mean solar day = 24 hours of mean solar time = 24 h 03 m, 56.55536 s mean side real time, Mean sidereal day (“stellar day”) = 24 hours of mean, sidereal time = 23 h 56 m 4.09054 s mean solar time., Synodic month (the time between two successive new, moon) = 29.53059 mean solar days (29 d 12 h 44 m 03 s), Tropical month = 27.32158 mean solar days (27 d 07 h, 43 m 05 s), Sidereal month = 27.32166 mean solar days (27 d 07 h, 43 m 12 s)
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II.B.128, , Tropical year = 365.24220 mean solar days (365 d 05 h, 48 m 46 s), Sidereal year (“stellar year”) = 365.25636 mean solar days, (365 d 06 h 09 m 10 s), Anomalistic year = 365.25964 mean solar days (365 d 06 h, 13 m 53 s), Eclipse year = 346.62003 mean solar days (346 d 14 h 52 m, 51 s), Julian year = 365.25 mean solar days (365 d 06 h 00 m 00 s), Sun’s sidereal period of rotation (mean value) = 25.38, mean solar days, Time for one rotation of the Sun about the galactic centre =, 225 · 106 years = 225 Ma, Length, Earth’s radius, equatorial = 6 378.16 km = 6.37816 Mm, Earth’s radius, polar = 6 356.78 km = 6.35678 Mm, Moon’s radius = 1 738 km = 1.738 Mm, Sun’s radius = 696 000 km = 696 Mm, Semi-major axis of earth’s orbit = 1 astronomical unit (AU), = 149, 597, 870 km, Mean distance from the sun-to-earth = 149.600 Gm, Mean distance from the moon to the centre of earth = 384, 403 km = 384.403 Mm, 1 parcec (1 pc) = 3.262 light-years (1.y.) = 206 265 AU =, 3.0857 · 1013 km = 30.857 Pm, Distance to nearest known star = 1.3 pc = 40 Pm, Distance from the Sun to the galactic plane = 14 pc = 0.43 Em, Distance from the Sun to the centre of the Milky Way = 8.5, kpc = 0.26 Zm, Mass, Earth’s mass = 5.977 · 1024 kg, Moon’s mass = 7.349 · 1022 kg, Sun’s mass = 1.989 · 1030 kg, Mass of lightest observed stars = 0.01 – 0.04 solar mases, Mass of heaviest observed stars = approx. 100 solar masses, Speed, Earth’s rotational speed at equator = 0.465 km s–1, Moon’s orbital velocity = 1.023 km s–1, Earth’s orbital velocity = 29.8 km s–1, Sun’s movement relative to the local system of reference =, 19.4 km s–1 = 4.09 AU year–1, Rotation velocity of the Milky Way at position of the, Sun = 220 km s–1, Further Information about the Moon, Acceleration of gravity on the moon = 1.62 m/s2, Escape velocity of the moon = 2.38 km/s, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , A Brief History: Space Exploration, As often happens in science, the earliest practical work on, rocket engines designed for spaceflight occurred, simultaneously during the early 20th century in three countries, by three key scientists: in Russia, by Konstantin Tsiolkovsky;, in the United States, by Robert Goddard; and in Germany, by, Hermann Oberth. In the 1930s and 1940s Nazi Germany saw, the possibilities of using long-distance rockets as weapons., Late in World War II, London was attacked by 200-mile-range, “V-2” missiles, which arched 60 miles high over the English, Channel from Germany at more than 3,500 miles per hour., , After World War II, the, United States and the, Soviet Union created their, own missile programs. On, October 4, 1957, the, Soviets launched the first, artificial satellite, Sputnik, 1, into space. After a few, weeks of the launching of, Sputnik-I satellite, the, erstwhile Soviet Union, launched another satellite, named Sputnik-II. The, Sputnik-II satellite carried a, dog named "Laika" into the, Figure: 14.19, outer space for the first, time. The weight of this satellite was 500 kilograms. While the, Laika dog was revolving around the earth in Sputnik-1I, satellite, its blood pressure, heart-beat and temperature were, monitored for 8 days continuously. After this the Laika dog, was allowed to die in space because the technique to bring it, back to earth safely had not been developed at that time. Four, years later on April 12, 1961, Russian Lt. Yuri Gagarin became, the first human to orbit Earth in Vostok 1. His flight lasted 108, minutes, and Gagarin reached an altitude of 327 kilometers, (about 202 miles)., The first U.S. satellite, Explorer 1, went into orbit on January 31,, 1958. In 1961 Alan Shepard became the first American to fly, into space. On February 20, 1962, John Glenn’s historic flight, made him the first American to orbit Earth. “Landing a man on, the moon and returning him safely to Earth within a decade” was, a national goal set by President John F. Kennedy in 1961. On, July 20, 1969, Astronaut Neil Armstrong took “a giant step for, mankind” as he stepped onto the moon. Edwin Aldrin landed on, the moon after another 8 minutes. Six Apollo missions were, made to explore the moon between 1969 and 1972.
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The Universe, , During the 1960s unmanned spacecraft photographed and, probed the moon before astronauts ever landed. By the early, 1970s orbiting communications and navigation satellites were, in everyday use, and the Mariner spacecraft was orbiting and, mapping the surface of Mars. By the end of the decade, the, Voyager spacecraft had sent back detailed images of Jupiter, and Saturn, their rings, and their moons., Skylab, America’s first space station was a human-spaceflight, highlight of the 1970s, as was the Apollo–Soyuz Test Project,, the world’s first internationally crewed (American and, Russian) space mission., In the 1980s satellite communications expanded to carry, television programs, and people were able to pick up the, satellite signals on their home dish antennas. Satellites, discovered an ozone hole over Antarctica, pinpointed forest, fires, and gave us photographs of the nuclear power-plant, disaster at Chernobyl in 1986. Astronomical satellites found, new stars and gave us a new view of the centre of our galaxy., In April 1981 the launch of the space shuttle Columbia ushered, in a period of reliance on the reusable shuttle for most civilian, and military space missions. Twenty-four successful shuttle, launches fulfilled many scientific and military requirements until, January 1986, when the shuttle Challenger exploded after, launch, killing its crew of seven., The Challenger tragedy led to a re-evaluation of America’s space, program. The new goal was to make certain a suitable launch, system was available when satellites were scheduled to fly., Today this is accomplished by having more than one launch, method and launch facility available and by designing satellite, systems to be compatible with more than one launch system., The Gulf War proved the value of satellites in modern, conflicts. During this war allied forces were able to use their, control of the “high ground” of space to achieve a decisive, advantage. Satellites were used to provide information on, enemy troop formations and movements, early warning of, enemy missile attacks, and precise navigation in the featureless, desert terrain. The advantages of satellites allowed the coalition, forces to quickly bring the war to a conclusion, saving many, lives., Space systems will continue to become more and more integral, to homeland defense, weather surveillance, communication,, navigation, imaging, and remote sensing for chemicals, fires, and other disasters., , II.B.129, , Space shuttle carry out important space missions, particularly, supporting the International Space Station, the Columbia, disaster in 2003 signaled the need to step up the development, of its replacement. Future space launch systems will be, designed to reduce costs and improve dependability, safety,, and reliability., Satellite, In general, a satellite is anything that orbits something else, as,, for example, the moon orbits the earth. In a communications, context, a satellite is a specialised wireless receiver/transmitter, that is launched by a rocket and placed in orbit around the, earth. There are hundreds of satellites currently in operation., They are used for such diverse purposes as weather forecasting,, television broadcast, amateur radio communications, Internet, communications, and the Global Positioning System (GPS)., The first artificial satellite, launched by Russia (then known as, the Soviet Union) in the late 1950s, was about the size of a, basketball. It did nothing but transmit a simple Morse code, signal over and over. In contrast, modern satellites can receive, and re-transmit thousands of signals simultaneously, from, simple digital data to the most complex television, programming., The various characteristics which define the orbit of a, satellite around the earth are:, Apogee is the farthest point from the earth on the orbit, of a, satellite., Perigee is the nearest point from the earth on the orbit of a, satellite., The inclination of the orbit of a satellite is the angle by the, orbit of the satellite with the equator of the earth., Geostationary Satellite, A geostationary satellite orbits the earth directly over the, equator, approximately 35,800 kilometres (22,300 miles) up., At this altitude, revolves in the same direction the earth, rotates (West to East) and complete one trip around the earth, (relative to the sun) takes 24 hours. Thus, the satellite remains, over the same spot on the earth's surface at all times, and, stays fixed in the sky from any point on the surface from, which it can be "seen." So-called weather satellites are, usually of this type., Low Earth Orbit (LEO) Satellite, A low earth orbit (LEO) satellite system employs a large, fleet of "birds," each in a circular orbit at a constant altitude of, a few hundred miles. The orbits take the satellites over, or
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II.B.130, , nearly over, the geographic poles. Each revolution takes, approximately 90 minutes to a few hours. The fleet is arranged, in such a way that, from any point on the surface at any time, at, least one satellite is on a line of sight. The entire system, operates in a manner similar to the way a cellular telephone, functions. The main difference is that the transponders, or, wireless receiver/transmitters, are moving rather than fixed,, and are in space rather than on the earth. A well-designed LEO, system makes it possible for anyone to access the Internet via, wireless from any point on the planet, using an antenna no, more sophisticated than old-fashioned television "rabbit ears.", These facts are touted as advantages of LEO systems over, geostationary satellites., Remote Sensing, The technique of collecting information about an object from a, distance, without making a physical contact with that object, is, called remote sensing. Remote sensing is another area of, application of space science which is accomplished by the use, of remote-sensing satellites. The remote-sensing satellites are, placed in sun-synchronous orbits (SSOs) around the earth. The, orbits of remote sensing satellites are such that the satellite, always passes over a particular area of the earth at, approximately the same local time., , The photographs and other data collected by Indian remote, sensing satellites, IRS-IA and IRS-IB, have been used for, many practical purposes. The important applications (or uses), of remote sensing satellites are: groundwater surveys; forest, surveys; preparing wasteland maps; drought assessment;, estimation of crop yields; detection of crop diseases; survey for, detecting coal, oil and ores and detection of potential fishing, zones of the sea. The remote sensing satellites are also used for, doing "spying work" for military purposes., Space Science in India, Well India never lagged back! The foundation of space, research in India was laid in 1961 when the Government of, India entrusted the task of developing a programme on space, research to its Department of Atomic Energy. In order to boost, the technological efforts to make India self reliant in the field, of space technology, a space commission was set up in 1972, and a separate Department of Space was established. The, Department of Space executes its space programmes through, the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). ISRO various, tasks are:, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , To develop space technology and its application to various, national needs., To know—how (or expertise) to fabricate the rockets, (launch vehicles), its propellants, its control and guidance, systems., To design and fabricate the satellites., Salient Features of the Indian Space Research Programme, The launching of Indian satellite is carried out in collaboration, with one of the advanced nations by using their launch vehicle, (or rocket). The first Indian rocket RH-75 was launched in, 1967 from the Thumba Equatorial Rocket Launching Station, (TERLS) near Thiruvananthapuram. Though this rocket was, very small, having a diameter of only 75 mm, but it had all the, fundamental features of rocketry in it., Aryabhatta Satellite, This was the first satellite launched by India. This satellite was, named after the famous Indian mathematician " Aryabhatta." In, fact, India entered the space age on 19th April 1975 when the, first satellite called " Aryabhatta" designed and fabricated in, India was launched from the erstwhile Soviet Union (USSR)., This satellite was purely experimental in nature. Aryabhatta, satellite enabled Indian scientists to develop the skills and, facilities for fabricating satellites and monitoring their, performance in orbit around the earth. It also helped in, establishing the ground facilities for communicating with the, orbiting satellite, tracking its course and passing on commands, to it for carrying out various tasks. The launching of, Aryabhatta satellite also provided an opportunity to Indian, scientists to conduct some experiments in the field of X-ray, astronomy, solar physics and meteorology., Bhaskara Satellites, Then the second satellite ascends…Bhaskara-l satellite was, launched by India next on 7th June 1979 from the former, Soviet Union (USSR). The purpose of launching this satellite, was to develop expertise in collecting data on natural resources, through the remote sensing technique. In fact, ground water, surveys, forest surveys and geological surveys were conducted, through Bhaskara-l satellite and it provided valuable data about, these natural resources Of our country up to March 1981.The, second satellite of this series, Bhaskara-2, was launched from, the erstwhile Soviet Union on 20th November 1981. This, satellite functioned successfully for more than 2 years. This, satellite was similar to Bhaskara-1 but some improvements had, been made in it.
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The Universe, , Indian Remote Sensing Satellite (IRS-IA), The first Indian remote sensing satellite, IRS-IA, was launched, on 17th March 1988 whereas the second Indian remote sensing, satellite, IRS-IB, was launched on 29th August 1991. Both, these satellites were launched from the erstwhile Soviet Union, (or USSR). The second remote sensing satellite, IRS-IB, is still, working and it is providing valuable data about the various, natural resources of our country (Please note that IRS = Indian, Remote Sensing Satellite)., Ariane Passenger PayLoad Experiment (APPLE), APPLE is a communication satellite launched by India on 19th, June 1981. APPLE was an experimental satellite which was, fabricated by Indian Scientists to gain experience in the use of, satellites for communication purposes (APPLE = Ariane, Passenger PayLoad Experiment). The APPLE satellite was, launched with the help of European space agency from the, Kourou launching facility in French Guiana area of South, America. APPLE was the first Indian satellite put in, geostationary orbit., Indian National Satellite (INSAT), In 1977, the Indian Space Research Organisation thought of, using satellites for commercial purposes. The satellites to be, fabricated and launched under this scheme were named, "INSAT' which means "Indian National Satellite". The, satellites to be launched in the INSAT series were supposed to, carry out three independent tasks:, Tele-communications (like long distance telephone calls), Television and Radio broadcasting, and, Meteorological observations (Weather-related observations), The construction, testing and launching of the first satellite of, the INSAT series was given to an American firm "Ford, Aerospace Corporation". But the entire ground support, facilities and systems required by these satellites were, developed and fabricated in India. Four satellites have been, launched so far under the INSAT series. These are INSAT-IA;, INSAT- IB; INSAT-IC and INSAT-ID. The first satellite of, this series INSAT-IA was launched on 4th September 1982 but, it failed in its mission. The second satellite of this series called, INSAT-IB was launched successfully on 30th August 1983, with the help of US space-shuttle. This satellite functioned, extremely well for more than 5 years and it is still functioning., The successful launchmg of INSAT-IB satellite has paved the, way for revolutionisin, telecommunications, television and, radio broadcasting and weather forecasting in India., , II.B.131, , The INSAT-IC satellite was launched to replace INSAT-IB, but, it was unsuccessful. The fourth satellite of this series, INSAT-ID, was put into a geostationary orbit around the earth in June 1990, and it is functioning normally. The first Indian built satellite of, the INSAT series called INSAT-2A was launched successfully, on 23- July 1992. This satellite was launched from Kourou in, French Guiana with the help of Ariane Rocket, The lNSAT-2B, satellite was launched on 23rd July 1993 and INSAT-2C satellite, was launched on 7th December 1995. Both these satellites have, been successful in their mission., The First Indian Satellite Launch Vehicle (SLV-3), All the satellites disused so far were launched in collaboration, with some of the advanced countries by utilising their launch, vehicles (or rockets). But the work on developing India's own, satellite launch vehicle was also going on simultaneously. The, first Indian satellite launch vehicle was SLV-3 which was, launched in August 1979 but it was unsuccessful (SLV =, Satellite Launch Vehicle). The first success in the launching of, an indigenously developed Indian satellite was achieved on, 18th July 1980. The launch vehicle for carrying this satellite, was a four-stage rocket SLV-3 which put a 35 kg satellite, named Rohini into an orbit around the earth. The orbit of, Rohini satellite had an apogee of 900 km and a perigee of 300, km. The main purpose of launching this Rohini satellite was to, test the working of the fourth stage of the SLV-3 launch, vehicle (or rocket). A total of four satellites were launched in, Rohini series. The launching of third Rohini satellite was, however unsuccessful but the fourth Rohini satellite was, launched successfully on 17th April l9., Augmented Satellite Launch Vehicle (ASLV), After launching the Rohini series `Stretched Rohini Satellites, (SROSS)’ were developed in a series. The historic event of, launching an Indian satellite in an Indian launch vehicle took, place on 10th July 1992 when SROSS-3 satellite was launched, into space with the help of ASLV-D3 launch vehicle. And then, followed Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle and Geostationary, Satellite Launch Vehicle., The year 2013 has witnessed landmark achievements in the, Indian Space programme with the launch of India’s first, interplanetary Mars Orbiter Mission and successful flight, testing of indigenous Cryogenic Upper Stage onboard GSLVD5. Besides this, launch of IRNSS-1A – the first satellite of the, Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System; launch of GSAT7 – a communication satellite under the contract with Antrix, Corporation; and the launch of INSAT-3D – an advanced, weather satellite, were also achieved during the year.
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.B.132, , IRNSS-1A, the first of the 7 satellites of the Indian, , Mars Orbiter Mission, which is India’s first interplanetary, spacecraft mission, was successfully launched by PSLVC25 into an elliptical earth parking orbit on November 05,, 2013. It was the 25th launch of PSLV as well as its 24th, successively successful mission. Trans-Mars Injection, manoeuvre was successfully carried out on December 01,, 2013 setting the voyage of the spacecraft towards Mars,, escaping the earth’s sphere of influence. The spacecraft is, planned to be inserted into Mars Orbit on September 24,, 2014., GSLV-D5, with indigenous Cryogenic Upper Stage,, launched GSAT-14 Communications spacecraft into, Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO) very precisely on, January 05, 2014. With this, India has joined the exclusive, club of selected five nations as sixth member, having the, capability to launch satellites to GTO., , Regional, , Navigation, , Satellite, , System, , (IRNSS), , Constellation, was successfully launched on board PSLVC22 on July 01, 2013 into a sub Geosynchronous Transfer, Orbit (sub GTO). IRNSS constellation will enable, introduction of satellite based position, timing and velocity, services to a spectrum of users in the country and to the, neighbouring regions., GSAT-7, a multi–band communication satellite realised, under, , the, , contract, , with, , Antrix, , Corporation,, , was, , successfully launched on August 30, 2013 by the Ariane-5, launch vehicle from Kourou, French Guiana., INSAT-3D was launched on July 26, 2013 onboard Ariane5., , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , 2., , Which of the following is a star?, a. Sun, b. Mercury, c. Pluto, d. Venus, The planet having the largest number of satellites amongst, the following is:, a. Jupiter, b. Saturn, c. Uranus, d. Mars, , 9., , Velocity of light is, a. 3 ×104 Km/s, , b. 3 × 10 6 Km/s, , c. 3 × 105 km / s, , d. 3 × 10 3 Km/s, , 10. The ratio of earth’s gravity to sun’s gravity is:, a. 6, b. 1/6, c. 28, d. 1/28, 11. The plant farthest from the sun is:, a. Mercury, b. Venus, c. Pluto, d. Earth, , 3., , Which of the following planets has the least number of, satellites?, a. Earth, b. Neptune, c. Uranus, d. Mars, , 4., , Which of the following is a natural satellite of our planet?, a. Moon, b. Sun, c. Jupiter, d. Saturn, , 5., , Which of the following is the smallest planet?, a. Jupiter, b. Venus, c. Mercury, d. Pluto, , 6., , Any heavenly body having light of its own is called a, a. nebulae, b. star, c. comet, d. meteorite, , 7., , Any heavenly body which revolves round a planet is, called a, a. comet, b. star, c. satellite, d. nebulae, , 15. The star nearest to the sun is, a. Sirius, b. Proxima centauri, c. Alpha centauri, d. Cygni, , 8., , How much time does light from the sun approx. take to, reach the surface of the earth?, a. 400 s, b. 500 s, c. 450 s, d. 555 s, , 16. The colour of a star depends upon its, a. density, b. distance from the sun, c. surface temperature, d. radius, , 12. Shooting star is another name for, a. comet, b. meteor, c. solar flare, d. nebulae, 13. The part of a meteor which reaches the earth’s surface is, called a, a. comet, b. meteorite, c. shooting star, d. nebulae, 14. The tail of a comet always points, a. towards the sun, b. away from the sun, c. towards north-east, d. towards south-east
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The Universe, , II.B.133, , 17. How many constellations comprise the signs of the, zodiac?, a. 6, b. 9, c. 11, d. 12, 18. A family of stars is called a, a. galaxy, c. universe, , b. solar system, d. whirling havens, , 19. Great Bear is commonly known as, a. Saptarshi, b. Dhruv tara, c. Pole star, d. Orion, 20. Which of the following belongs to the class of inferior, planets?, a. Mercury, c. Venus, c. Pluto, d. Saturn, 21. Which of the following belongs to the class of superior, planets?, a. Venus, b. Neptune, c. Uranus, d. Mars, 22. The ratio of the gravitational pull of the Moon to that of, the Earth is, a. 6, b. 4, c. 1/6, d. 1/4, 23. The difference between the equatorial diameter and polar, diameter of the Earth is about, a. 43 km, b. 82 km, c. 56 km, d. 101 km, 24. Days and nights are caused by, a. rotation of the Earth, b. revolution of the Earth, c. both rotation and revolution of the Earth, d. neither rotation nor revolution of the Earth, 25. Halley’s comet was first seen by, a. Galileo, b. Copernicus, c. Halley, d. Newton, 26. One light year is equal to, a. 3.26 parsec, b. 3.26 km, c. 3.26 A.U., , 1, d., parsec, 3.26, , 27. Which of the following is different from others?, a. light year, b. parsec, c. astronomical unit, d. micron, , 28. Which of the following is the largest astronomical unit?, a. light year, b. parsec, c. km, d. astronomical unit, 29. Which of the following is the smallest unit of distance?, a. light year, b. parsec, c. astronomical unit, d. km, 30. The nearest star to the Earth (apart from the sun) is ‘alpha, centauri’ which is about, a. 4.3 light years, b. 3.26 light years, c. 4.3 1012 KM, , d. 3.26 1015 m, , 31. A vast collection of billions of stars is called a, a. universe, b. galaxy, c. constellation, d. none of these, 32. The Indian name of Andromeda galaxy is, a. Akash Ganga, b. Milky way, c. Saptarishi, d. None of these, 33. The Milky Way Galaxy has a/an, a. elliptical shape, b. spiral shape, c. irregular shape, d. none of these, 34. Which of the following constellations resembles a big kite, with a tail?, a. Ursa Major, b. Ursa Minor, c. Scorpio, d. Orion, 35. The Indian name of Scorpio constellation is:, a. Mangal, b. Shani, c. Dhruva matsya, d. Vrishchika, 36. Which of the following constellation contains the Pole Star?, a. Ursa Major, b. Ursa Minor, c. Pleides, d. Orion, 37. The Indian name of the Little Bear constellation is:, a. Dhrav Tara, b. Bichchhu, c. Laghu saptarishi, c. Krittika, 38. The Indian name of the Orion constellation is:, a. Krittika, b. Vyadha, c. Bichchhu, d. None of these, 39. The Earth rotates on its axis from, a. west to east, b. east to west, c. north to south, d. south to north, 40. All the stars appear to move from, a. west to east, b. east to west, c. north to south, d. south to north
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II.B.134, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 41. The exploding stop is called, a. supernova, b. black hole, c. pulsar, d. none of these, , a. mantle, c. core, , b. crust, d. none of these, , 42. Mangal is the Indian name of the, a. Earth, b. Mars, c. Uranus, d. Pluto, , 51. Which of the following planets is coldest in the solar, system?, a. Mercury, b. Pluto, c. Venus, d. Earth, , 43. Varun is the Indian name of the, a. Pluto, b. Jupiter, c. Uranus, d. Neptune, , 52. The planet farthest from the Earth is, a. Pluto, b. Mercury, c. Neptune, d. Saturn, , 44. Pluto is Vama, as Venus is to, a. Shukra, b. Mangal, c. Shani, d. Indra, , 53. The planet Uranus rotates on its axis from, a. east to west, b. west to east, c. north to south, d. south to north, 54. The planet having the largest diameter is:, a. Jupiter, b. Saturn, c. Pluto, d. Mars, , 45. How many planets can be seen with the naked eye?, a. 3, b. 4, c. 5, d. none of these, 46. Indra is the Indian name of, a. Uranus, c. Earth, , 55. The smallest planet of the solar system is, a. Mercury, b. Jupiter, c. Mars, d. Pluto, , b. Saturn, d. Pluto, , 47. The outermost layer of the Earth is called, a. crust, b. mantle, c. core, d. none of these, , ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , a, , b, , a, , a, , d, , d, , c, , b, , c, , d, , 48. The core of the Earth is made up of mainly, a. lead, b. mercury, c. iron, d. all of the above, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , c, , b, , b, , b, , b, , c, , d, , a, , a, , a, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , a, , c, , a, , a, , c, , d, , d, , b, , d, , a, , 49. The temperature of the centre of the Earth is about:, , 31., , 32., , 33., , 34., , 35., , 36., , 37., , 38., , 39., , 40., , a. 4000C, , b. 6000C, , c. 104C, , d. 106C, , 50. The central region between the crust of earth and core of, earth is called, , 10., , b, , d, , b, , a, , d, , b, , b, , b, , a, , b, , 41., , 42., , 43., , 44., , 45., , 46., , 47., , 48., , 49., , 50., , a, , b, , d, , a, , c, , a, , a, , c, , a, , a, , 51., , 52., , 53., , 54., , 55., , b, , a, , a, , a, , a, ,
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Section, , C, , chemistry, Chapter in this sECTION, 1., , Matter, , 2., , Acid, Base and Salts, , II.C.14, , 3., , Atomic Structure, , II.C.21, , 4., , Periodic Properties, , II.C.28, , 5., , Chemical Bonding, , II.C.37, , 6., , Chemical Reaction, , II.C.44, , 7., , Carbon and its Compounds, , II.C.50, , 8., , Metals and Non-metals, , II.C.57, , II.C.3
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Matter, , II.C.3, , 1, , Matter, , The concept of the element is an ancient one which developed, in many different civilisations in an attempt to rationalise the, variety of the world and to understand the nature of change,, such as that which occurs when a piece of wood rots, or is, burnt to produce charcoal or ash., Most well-known to us are the four elements "earth, air, fire and, water" that were popularised by Greek philosophers (principally, Empedocles and Aristotle) in the period 500–400 BCE., Matter is made up of particles; everything around us is made, up of many tiny pieces or particles. Particles which make up, the matter are constantly moving. Particles which make up, matter are atoms or molecules. Matter is anything that occupies, space, possesses mass and offers resistance. On the basis of, chemical constitution, matter can be classified as:, Matter, , Pure substances (only one, type of substance in, present, no impurities), , Element, , Compounds, , Gases. A pure substance, which cannot be subdivided into two, or more simpler substances by any chemical means, is called, an element. e.g.: Hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, copper, zinc, tin,, lead, mercury, etc. are all elements as they cannot be, subdivided into simpler parts by any chemical means., Physical state, Increasing energy, , Solid, The molecules that make up a, solid are arranged in regular,, repeating patterns. They are, held firmly in place but can, vibrate within a limited area., , Liquid, The molecules that make up a liquid, flow easily around one another. They, are kept from flying apart by attractive, forces between them. Liquids assume, the shape of their containers., , Gas, The molecules that make up a, gas fly in all directions at great, speeds. They are so far apart, that the attractive forces between, them are insignificant., , Plasma, At the very high temperatures of, stars, atoms lose their electrons., The mixture of electrons and, nuclei that results is the plasma, state of matter., , Mixture (more than one, substance are present), , Homogenous, mixture, (solutions), , Heterogeneous, Mixture, (Suspensions &, colloids), , Element: A substance made up of the atoms with same atomic, number is called an element. On the basis of physical states, all, matter can be classified into three groups: Solids, Liquids and, Table: 1.1 Difference between states of matter: solid, liquid and gas., Solid, , Liquid, , Gas, , Solid is that state of matter which has definite, shape, mass and volume. e.g. Ice, wood, coal,, iron, etc., , Liquid is a state of matter which has definite, mass and volume but no definite shape. e.g., Water, alcohol, milk, mercury, etc., , Gas is a state of matter, which has definite mass, but, no definite shape and no definite volume, e.g., O 2 , N 2 , H 2 etc., , , , , , , , Liquid have a definite mass and volume., Liquid do not have a definite shape., Liquids are slightly more compressible than, that of solids., Density of liquids is lesser than that of solids., The force of attraction between the molecules, of liquids is less than that of solids., Liquids expand far more than solids on heating., The particles of two different liquids can, diffuse is one another easily., , A gas contained in a vessel has a definite mass., Gases do not have definite shape and volume., Gases are highly compressible because, intermolecular spaces between them are veryvery large as compared to solids and liquids., Density of gases is extremely small as compared, to solids and liquids., Intermolecular forces are negligible., Gases expand to large extent when heated., The gases diffuse in one another rapidly to form, homogeneous mixture., Gases are highly compressible ., , Solids have a definite mass and definite volume., Solids have a definite shape., Solids have negligible compressibility., Solids have high densities., The intermolecular forces in solids are very, strong., The dimensions of solid do not increase in, large proportion on heating or cooling., Solids diffuse into one another very slowly.
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II.C.4, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Note:, LPG (Liquefied Petroleum Gas) is used in our home for cooking., Oxygen cylinders supplied to hospitals contain liquid oxygen., C.N.G. (Compressed Natural Gas) is used a fuel these days in vehicles., , Table: 1.2 Comparison of the three states of matter, S., No., 1., , 2., , 3., , Property, , Solid state, , Liquid state, , Gaseous state, , Interparticle, spaces, Interparticles, forces, Nature, , Very small, spaces, , Comparatively, large spaces, , Very large, spaces, , Very strong, , Weak, , Very weak, , Very hard and, rigid, Negligible, , Fluid, , Highly fluid, , Very small, , Highly, compressible., , 4., , Compressi, bility, , 5., , Shape and, volume, , Definite, shape and, volume, , Indefinite, shape, but, definite, volume, , Indefinite shape, as well as, volume, , 6., , Density, , High, , Less than the, density in, solid state, , Very low, density, , 7., , Kinetic, energy, , Low, , Comparativel, y high, , Very high, , 8., , Diffusion, , Negligible, , Slow, , Very fast, , A substance is a kind of matter that cannot be separated into, other kinds of matter by any physical process. For example,, sugar dissolved in water can be separated from water by simply, evaporating the water. Here sugar is a substance which cannot, be broken into its components by any physical process., , Where do the elements come from?, The present belief is that helium and a few other very light, elements were formed within about three minutes of the "big, bang", and that the next 23 elements (up through iron) are formed, mostly by nuclear fusion processes within stars, in which lighter, nuclei combine into successively heavier elements., Elements heavier than iron cannot be formed in this way are, produced only during the catastrophic collapse of massive stars, (supernovae explosions)., The processes by which elements (or more properly, their, nuclei) are formed is known as nucleosynthesis., The very first (primordial) nuclei formed shortly after the, "big bang"., Elements can be classified as metals and non-metals. There are, 22 non-metals and 93 metals. Amongst the metals, only, mercury is liquid metal. All other metals are solids., Amongst the 22 non -metals: 10 non-metals are solids. They, are boron, carbon, silicon, phosphorus, sulphur, selenium,, arsenic, tellurium, iodine and astatine. 1 non-metal, bromine, is, a liquid. Find non-metals, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen, fluorine, and chlorine are chemically active gases. Six non-metals,, helium, neon, argon, krypton, xenon and radon are chemically, inactive gases. These are also called noble gases or rare gases., , Table: 1.3 Difference mixture and compound between, Mixtures, , Compounds, , Nature, , In a mixture, two or more elements or compounds are mixed, such, that they do not combine chemically., Homogeneous Mixture: A mixture in which different constituents, are mixed uniformly is called a homogeneous mixture., e.g.: All solutions, such as solutions of common salt, copper, sulphate, sugar, etc. are examples of homogeneous mixtures., Similarly, alloys such as brass, bronze, etc. are homogeneous solid, solutions of metals., Heterogeneous Mixture: A mixture in which different constituents, are not mixed uniformly is called a heterogeneous mixture., e.g.: A mixture of sand and salt, iron powder and sulphur powder,, soil, etc. are examples of heterogeneous mixtures., , In a compound, two or more elements, combined chemically in a, definite ratio, such that it can be broken into elements only by, chemical means is called compound., The two or more elements present in a compound are called, constituents or components of the compound. For example,, water is a compound of hydrogen and oxygen, combined, together in the ratio of 1: 8 by weight., The water can be broken into its constituents only by electrochemical method, i.e., by passing electric current through it., The compounds can be further classified as acids, bases and, salts. Sulphuric acid, nitric acid, hydrochloric acid, formic acid,, etc. are the compounds which can be classified as acids., , Structure, , Mixture does not have a definite structure., , Compounds have a definite structure., , Composition, , In case of mixture, their constituents can be present in any ratio,, i.e., they have variable composition., , In case of a compound the constituents are present in a fixed, ratio by weight.
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Matter, Properties, Separation of, constituents, Energy, changes, , II.C.5, The constituents of a mixture retain their individual physical and, chemical properties., The constituents of a mixture can be separated by physical, means., During the formation of mixtures, no energy changes take place,, i.e., it is a result of physical change., , Solution: A homogeneous mixtures of two or more substance, is called a solution. Usually we think of a solution as a liquid, that contains either a solid or a liquid or a gas dissolved in it., However, this is not true. We can also have a solid have a, solid solution as in the case of alloys. Components of a, Solution are:, Solvent: The component of a solution which is present in, large proportion is called solvent., Example: In the solution of copper sulphate in water,, water is the solvent. Similarly, in paints, turpentine oil is, the solvent., Solute: The component of the solution which is present is, small proportion is called solute., Example: In the solution of common salt in water, the, common salt is solute. Similarly, in carbonated drinks, (soda water), carbon dioxide gas in the solute., A true solution is always clear and transparent, i.e., light, can easily pass through it without scattering., The particles of a solute break down to almost molecular, size and their diameter is of the order of 1 nm 10 -9 m , , , , , , , or less., A true solution can completely pass through a filter paper, as particle size of solute is far smaller than the size of pores, of filter paper., A true solution is homogeneous in nature., In a true solution, the particles of solute do not settle down,, provided temperature is constant., From a true solution, the solute can easily be recovered by, evaporation or crystallisation., , Table: 1.4 Types of Solution, Saturated solution, , Unsaturated solution, , A solution, which at a, given temperature, dissolves as much, solute as it is capable, of dissolving, is said, to be a saturated, solution., , When the amount of, solute contained in a, solution is less than the, saturation level, the, solution is said to be an, unsaturated solution., , Super saturated, solution, A solution, which, contains more of the, solute than required, to make a saturated, solution, is called a, super saturated, solution., , A solution in which particles of the solute are broken down to, such a fine state, that they cannot be seen under a powerful, microscope is called a true solution., , The properties of a compound are entirely different from the, properties of its constituents., The constituents of a compound cannot be separated by, physical means., During the formation of a compound energy is either absorbed, or released, i.e., compound is the result of a chemical change., , Concentration of a Solution: It is defined as the amount of, solute present in a given quantity of the solution. If a solution, is formed by dissolving a solid solute in a liquid solvent then, the concentration of solution is expressed in terms of mass, percentage of solute and is defined as under: The, concentration of solution is the mass of the solute is grams,, which is present in 100 g of a solution., Concentration of solution, =, , Mass of solute ( in grams), ×100, Mass of solution (in grams), , =, , Mass of solute (in grams), ×100, [Mass of solute + Mass of solvent](in grms), , Note: The percentage concentration of a solution refers to mass, of solute in 100 g of solution and not 100g of solvent, i.e.,, water., Concentration of a Solution in Terms of Volume, Percentage of Solute, The concentration of a solution is the volume of the solute in, milliners, which is present in 100 millilitres of a solution., Concentration of Solution, =, , Volume of solute (in ml), ×100, Volume of solution (in ml), , =, , Volume of solute (in ml), × 100, [Volume of solute + Volume of solvent](in ml), , (The concentration of a solution is a pure percentage number, and has no units.), Note, It is very important to keep in mind that the percentage, concentration of solution refers to volume of solute in 100 ml, of solution and not 100 ml of solvent, i.e., water., Suspension: A heterogeneous mixture of insoluble particles of, solute, spread throughout a solvent, is called a suspension. The, particle size (diameter) in a suspension is more than 10-5 cm., The particles have a tendency to settle down at the bottom of, the vessel and can be filtered out, because their size is bigger, than the size of the pores of the filter paper.
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II.C.6, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Example:, Muddy water, in which particles of sand and clay are, suspended in water., Slaked lime suspensions used for white-washing has, particles of slaked lime suspended in water., Paints in which the particles of dyes are suspended in, turpentine oil., Colloidal Solution:, A heterogeneous solution in which the particle size is in, between 10–7 cm to 10–5 cm, such that the solute particles, neither dissolve nor settle down in a solvent is called colloidal, solution. In a colloidal solution, relatively large suspended, particles are called dispersed phase and the solvent in which, the colloidal particles are suspended in called continuous phase, or dispersing medium., Table: 1.4 Differences between True solutions and Colloidal solutions, True Solutions, , Colloidal Solutions, , The particle size is less than, , The particle size is in between 10 -7, , 10 cm., , cm to 10 -5 cm., , The particles are not visible under, powerful optical microscope., , The particles are visible under a, microscope., , The particles of a true solution can, be recovered by evaporation and, crystalliSation., , The particles of a colloidal solution, cannot be recovered by evaporation, and crystallisation., , The particles of a true solution do, not scatter light., , The particles of a colloidal solution, scatter light., , True solutions are clear and, transparent., , Colloidal solutions are translucent., , True solutions are homogeneous in, nature., , Colloidal solutions are, heterogeneous in nature., , -9, , Chromatography provides an important method of separating, and identifying components in a mixture. Different types of, chromatography are used depending on the composition of, mixture to be separated. Chromatography involves a mixture, being dissolved in a mobile phase (which could be a liquid or a, gas), that is then passed through an immobile stationary phase, (which is usually a solid). The phases are chosen so that, components in the mixture have differing interactions in each, phase; the balance of these two factors determines the rate of, movement of a component which is recorded as either an Rf, value or a retention time and used in a component’s, identification. Examples of types of chromatography include:, Thin-layer chromatography, Column chromatography, Gas chromatography, , Dalton’s Atomic Theory, Dalton’s atomic theory provides a simple explanation for the, laws of chemical combination and was the first modern attempt, to describe the behaviour of matter in terms of atoms., All the matter is made up of very small particles called, “atoms”, those cannot be divided. Atoms can neither be, created nor be destroyed. All the atoms of given element are, identical in every respect, having the same mass, size and, chemical properties. Atoms of different elements differ in, mass, size and chemical properties., Chemical combination between two (or more) elements consist, of the joining together of atoms of chemical elements to form, molecules of compounds. The number and kind of atoms in a, given compound is fixed and different elements combine in, small whole numbers to form compounds. Atoms of the same, elements can combine in more than one ratio to form more than, one compound., Law of Constant Proportions, A chemical compound always contains the same elements, combined together in the same proportion by mass." For, example, pure water obtained from different sources such as a, river, a well, a spring, the sea, etc., always contains hydrogen, and oxygen together in the ratio of 1:8 by mass. Similarly,, carbon dioxide C O 2 can be obtained by different methods, such as,, Burning of carbon, Heating of limestone, Applying dilute HCl to marble pieces, Each sample of CO2 contains carbon and oxygen in a 3:8 ratio., Example: When 1.375 g of cupric oxide is reduced on heating in, a current of hydrogen, the weight of copper remaining 1.098 g. In, another experiment, 1.179 g of copper is dissolved in nitric acid, and resulting copper nitrate converted into cupric oxide by, ignition. The weight of cupric oxide formed is 1.476 g. Show that, these results illustrate the law of constant proportion., Solution: First experiment, Copper oxide 1.375 g, Copper left 1.098 g, Oxygen present 1.375 – 1.098 0.277 g, Percentage of oxygen in CuO =, , 0.277×100, = 20.14%, 1.375
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Matter, , Second Experiment, Copper taken = 1.179 g, Copper oxide formed = 1.476 g, Oxygen present = 1.476 – 1.179 = 0.297 g, Percentage of oxygen in, , 0.297×100, = 20.12%, 1.476, Percentage of oxygen is approximately the same in both the, above cases. So the law of constant composition is illustrated., CuO =, , Note, The atoms of only a few elements called noble gases (such as, helium, neon, argon and krypton etc.) are chemically, uncreative and exist in the free state (as single atoms). Atoms, of most of the elements are chemically very reactive and do, not exist in the free state (as single atoms)., Atomic Mass: Atomic mass express as to how many time an, 1, th mass of the carbonatom of a substance is heavier than, 12, 12 atom. Atomic Mass Unit (u) = One-twelfth the mass of a, Carbon-12 atom or 1 u 1.6605 10 24 g . The atomic mass of, an element is the relative mass of its atom as compared with, the mass of a Carbon-12 atom taken as 12 units., Molecules: A molecule is the smallest particle of a substance, (element or compound) which has the properties of that, substance and can exist in the free state. Molecules can be, formed either by the combination of atoms of the “same, element” or of “different elements”/every compound is a, molecule, but every molecule is not a compound. There are two, types of molecules:, Molecules of Elements: The molecule of an element, contains two (or more) similar atoms chemically bonded, together. For example, a molecule of hydrogen element, contains two hydrogen atoms combined together and it is, written as H2 representing hydrogen gas. Similarly, Ozone, gas has three oxygen atoms combined together, so ozone, exists in the form of O3. The noble gases like helium, neon,, argon and krypton etc., exist as single atoms He, Ne, Ar and, Kr respectively. So, their atoms and molecules are just the, same., Molecules of Compounds: The molecule of compound, contains two (or more) different types of atoms chemically, bonded together. For example, the molecule of hydrogen, chloride (HCI) contains one atom of hydrogen (H), chemically bonded with one atom of chlorine (Cl). Some, , II.C.7, , more examples of the molecules of compounds are: sulphur, dioxide SO 2 , methane, C H 4 and ammonia N H 3 ., Molecular formula represents the actual number of atoms of, various elements present in a molecule of the compound., Molecular formula (empirical formula)n. Where, n is an, integer., n=, , molecular mass, empirical formula mass, , Where, molecular mass expresses as to how many times a, molecular of a substance is heavier than 1/12th of the mass of, an atom of carbon (carbon-12)., Example: A molecule of water is 18 times heaver than 1/12th, of the mass of carbon atom. Therefore, the molecular mass of, water is 18 u. Similarly, the molecular mass of CO 2 is 44 u., Calculation: The molecular mass is equal to sum of the atomic, masses of all the atoms present in one molecule of the, substance., Example: The molecular mass of Sulphuric Acid H 2SO 4 , can be calculated as follows:, Molecular mass of H2SO4 Mass of 2 H atoms + Mass of 1 S, atom + Mass of 4 O atoms, = (2×1) + (1×32) + (4×16) = 2 + 32 + 64 = 98 u., Thus, the molecular mass of Sulphuric acid is 98u., Atoms are the components of molecules and the molecules are, the components of elements or compounds., Inter-conversion of Matter: The phenomenon of change of, matter from one state to another state and back to original state,, by altering the conditions of temperature and pressure, is called, inter-conversion of matter. The various states of matter can be, interchanged into one another by altering the conditions of –, Temperature and Pressure., Sublimation, , Melting, , Vaporisation, Liquid, , Solid, Freezing, , Gas, Condensation, , Reverse sublimation
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II.C.8, , Note, On increasing the temperature of solids, the kinetic energy, (K.E.) of particles increases. Due to increases in K.E., the, particles start vibrating with greater speed. The energy, supplied by heart overcomes the force of attraction between, the particles. Then, the particles leave their fixed positions, and start moving freely and thus solid melts., When heat is supplied to water, particles start moving, faster. At a certain temperature, a point is reached when the, particles have enough energy to break the forces of, attraction between the particles. At this temperature the, liquid starts changing into gas., Particles in steam that is water vapour at 373 K have more, energy than water at the same temperature. Because steam, have absorbed extra energy in the form of latent heat of, vaporisation., Inter-conversion of solid into liquid and vice versa: The, solids can be converted into liquids by heating them. Similarly, liquids can be cooled to form solids., Example: Ice at 0°C changes into water at 0°C, when heat, energy is supplied to it. The water at 0°C changes into ice at, 0°C on freezing., Melting or Fusion: The process due to which a solid, changes into liquid state by absorbing heat energy is, called melting or fusion., Freezing or Solidification: The process due to which a, liquid changes into solid state by giving out heat energy is, called freezing or solidification., Melting Point: The constant temperature at which a solid, change into liquid state by absorbing heat energy is called it, melting point., Freezing Point: The constant temperature at which a liquid, changes into solid state by giving out heat energy is called, freezing point., The numerical value of freezing point and melting point is, same. Melting point of ice = Freezing point of water = 0°C, (273.16 K)., Latent Heat of Fusion: The amount of heat energy that is, required to change 1 kg of solid into liquid at atmospheric, pressure and its melting point is known as the latent heat of, fusion. (In Greek, latent means hidden), , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Latent heat of fusion of ice = 3.34×105 J/kg., Particles of water at 0°C (273 K) have more energy as, compared to particles in ice at the same temperature., Inter-conversion of Liquid into gaseous State and Viceversa: Liquids can be converted into gases by heating them., Similarly, gases can be converted into liquids by cooling them., Example: Water at normal pressure changes into gas (steam), at 100°C by absorbing heat. Steam at 100°C changes into water, by giving out energy., Boiling or Vaporisation: The process due to which a, liquid changes into gaseous state by absorbing heat energy, is called boiling., Condensation or Liquefaction: The process due to which, a gas changes into liquid state by giving out heat energy is, called condensation., Boiling Point: The constant temperature at which a liquid, rapidly changes into gaseous state by absorbing heat energy, at atmospheric pressure is called boiling point., Condensation Point: The constant temperature at which a, gas changes into liquid state by giving out heat energy at, atmospheric pressure is called condensation point., The numerical value of condensation point and boiling point is, same. Condensation point of vapour (water) = Boiling point of, water = 100°C (373 K)., Latent Heat of Vaporisation: The amount of heat which is, required to convert 1 kg of the liquid (at its boiling point) to, vapour or gas without any change in temperature., Latent heat of vaporisation of water = 22.5×105 J/kg., Direct inter-conversion of Solid into Gaseous State and, Vice-versa: The changing of solid directly into vapours on, heating and of vapours directly into solid on cooling is known, as sublimation., The solid which undergoes sublimation is called ‘sublime’. The, solid obtained by cooling the vapours of a solid is called, ‘sublimate’., e.g.: Ammonium Chloride, , N H 4C l ,, , naphthalene (moth balls) and anthracene., , iodine, camphor,
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Matter, , II.C.9, , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , The quantity of matter present in an object is called its, a. Weight, b. Volume c. Mass, d. Density, , 2., , Which of the following is/are rigid(s)?, a. Solids, b. Liquids, c. Gases, d. Both b. and c., , 3., , Which of the following statements is/are correct?, a. Intermolecular forces of attraction in solids are, maximum, b. Intermolecular forces of attraction in gases are, minimum, c. Intermolecular spaces in solids are minimum, d. All of the above, , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , What happens to the volume of the solution when small, amount of sugar is dissolved in it?, a. Volume will increase, b. Volume will decrease, c. Volume first increases then decreases, d. No change in volume, Which of the following is not correct for gases?, a. Gases have definite mass., b. Gases have definite shape., c. Gases have definite volume, d. Both (b.) and (c.), Which of the following is not an example of matter?, a. Air, b. Feeling of cold, c. Dust, d. None of these, Which of the following statements is correct?, a. Inter particle spaces are maximum in the gaseous state, of a substance., b. Particles which constitute the matter follow a zig-zag, path., c. Solid state is the most compact state of substance., d. All are correct, , 10. Which of the following statements does not go with the, liquid state?, a. Particles are loosely packed in the liquid state, b. Fluidity is the maximum in the liquid state., c. Liquids can be compressed., d. Liquids take up the shape of any container in which, these are placed., 11. On changing which of the following, the states of matter, can be changed?, a. Temperature, b. Pressure, c. (a.) and (b.) both, d. None of these, 12. Melting and freezing point of water, a. are same, b. have large difference between them., c. have close difference between them., d. None of these, 13. The boiling point of alcohol is 78°C. What will be the, temperature in Kelvin scale?, a. 373 K, b. 351 K, c. 375 K, d. 78 K, 14. Latent heat of vaporisation of water is;, a. 2.25 ×10 2 /kg, b. 22.5 ×10 5 J/kg, c. 3.34 ×10 5 J/kg, 15. S.I. unit of temperature is, a. Kelvin, c. Both, , d. 33.3 ×10 2 J/kg, b. Celsius, d. None, , 16. In sublimation process, a. solid changes into liquid, b. liquid changes into gas, c. solid changes directly into gas, d. None of these, , 8., , Which of the following does not make sense?, a. Solids have fixed shape and fixed volume., b. Liquids can be compressed easily, but not gases., c. The particles of solids have negligible kinetic energy., d. Property of diffusion is maximum in the gaseous state., , 17. When a liquid starts boiling, the further heat energy, which is supplied, a. is lost to the surrounding as such, b. increasing the temperature of the liquid, c. increases the kinetic energy of the liquid, d. is absorbed as latent heat of vaporisation by the liquid, , 9., , Which of the following is/are application(s) of high, compressibility of gases?, a. L.P.G. is used as fuel in homes for cooking food., b. Oxygen cylinders are supplied to hospitals., c. C.N.G. is used as fuel in vehicles., d. All of these, , 18. 10°C temperature is equal to, a. 163 K, b. 10 K, c. 183 K, d. 283 K, 19. Which of the following will respond to sublimation?, a. Common salt, b. Sugar, c. Camphor, d. Potassium nitrate
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II.C.10, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 20. Solids cannot be compressed because, a. constituent particles are very closely packed., b. Inter particle attractive forces are weak., c. movement of constituent particles is restricted., d. constituent particles diffuse very slowly., 21. Dry ice means, a. solid ammonia, c. solid sulphur dioxide, , b. solid carbon dioxide, d. normal ice, , 22. On a hot humid day rate of evaporation, a. is more, b. is less, c. Initially more, later on less, d. remains same, 23. During evaporation, particles of a liquid change into, vapours only, a. form the surface., b. from the bulk., c. from both surface and bulk., d. neither from surface nor from bulk., 24. Rate of evaporation depends upon, a. temperature, b. surface area, c. humidity, d. All of these, 25. Pressure of air at sea level is, a. One atmosphere, b. 76 cm of Hg, c. 760 mm of Hg, d. All of these, 26. One atmosphere is equal to, a. 1.01×105 Pa, c. 1 Pa, , b. 3.46×104 Pa, d. 10 Pa, , 27. During evaporation of liquid, a. the temperature of the liquid falls., b. the temperature of the liquid rises., c. the temperature of the liquid remains unchanged., d. all statements are wrong., 28. As temperature increases rate of evaporation, a. increases, b. decreases, c. first increases, then decreases, d. remains same, 29. A gas can be best liquefied, a. by increasing the temperature., b. by lowering the pressure., c. by increasing the pressure and reducing the, temperature., d. None of these is correct., , 30. In which phenomenon water changes into water vapour, below its boiling point?, a. Evaporation, b. Condensation, c. Boiling, d. No such phenomena exists, 31. The energy of gas molecules increases, a. The energy of gas molecules increases, b. The rate of collision increases, c. Pressure of a gas increases, d. The number of moles of gas increase, 32. The S.I unit of pressure is:, a. Nm2, c. 8.5 pounds, , b. mm Hg, d. Torr, , 33. The three states of matter are solid, liquid and gas. Which, of the following statement is true about them?, a. Gases and liquid have viscosity as a common property, b. The molecules in all the three states possess random, translation motion, c. Gases cannot be converted in to solids without passing, through the liquid phase, d. Solids and liquids have pressure as a common property., 34. A closed flask contains water in all its three states solid, liquids and vapors at 0 C . In this situation the average, kinetic energy of water molecules will be:, a. the greatest in all the three state, b. the greatest in vapour state, c. the greatest in the liquid state, d. the greatest in the solid state, 35. Which of the following has hcp crystal structure?, a. NaCl, b. CaCl, c. Zn, d. RbCl, 36. On doping Ge metal with a little of In, one gets, a. p-type semi-conductor, b. n-type semi-conductor, c. insulator, d. rectifier, 37. In graphite electrons are, a. localised on each carbon atom, b. spread out between the sheets, c. localised on ever third carbon atom, d. present in anti-bonding orbital., 38. If one end of a piece of metal is heated the other end, becomes hot after some time, this is due to
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Matter, , a. Energised electron moving to the other part of the metal, b. resistance of the metal, c. mobility of atoms in the metal, d. minor perturbation in the energy of atoms., 39. Which of the following is not a crystal line solid?, a. KCl, b. CsCl, c. Glass, d. Rhombic S, 40. The critical temperature of water is higher than that of O2, because the H2O molecule has, a. fewer electrons than O2, b. Two covalent bonds, c. v-shape, d. dipole moment, 41. In the crystal of which of the following ionic compound, would you expect maximum distance between the centre, of the cations and anions?, a. LiF, b. CsF, c. Csl, d. Lil, 42. How many kinds of space lattices are possible in a, crystal?, a. 23, b. 7, c. 230, d. 14, 43. The freezing point of 1 molal NaCl solution assuming, NaCl to be 100% dissociated in water is:, a. –1.86°C, b. –3.72°C, c. +1.86°C, d. +3.72°C, 44. Maximum freezing point falls in, a. Camphor, b. Naphthalene, c. Benzene, d. Water, 45. The osmotic pressure of a solution increases if, a. temperature is decreased, b. solution constant is increased, c. number of solute particles is increases, d. volume is increased, 46. What would happen if a thin slice of sugar beet is placed, in a concentrated solution of NaCl?, a. Sugar beet will lose water from its cells, b. Sugar beet will absorb water form solution, c. Sugar beet will neither absorb nor lose water, d. Sugar beet will dissolve in solution, 47. A plant cell shrinks when it kept in, a. Hypotonic solution, b. A hypertonic solution, c. A solution isotonic with cell sap, d. Water, , II.C.11, , 48. n moles of a solute are dissolved in w g of water if K, is, the molal depression constant of water, the freezing point, of the solution will be:, 1000kf n, 1000k f n, a., b. , w, w, 1000k f w, 1000k f w, c., d. , n, n, 49. On freezing an aqueous solution of sugar, the solid that, starts separating out is:, a. sugar, b. ice, c. solution with the same composition, d. solution with a different composition, 50. Molal elevation constant and molal depression constant, for water respectively (in °C/m) are:, a. 0.52, 1.86, b. 1.86, 0.52, c. 1.52, 0.86, d. 0.86, 1.52, 51. Tap water is, a. compound, c. an element, , b. a mixture, d. none of these, , 52. Scattering of light by colloidal particles is known as, a. Tyndall effect, b. Brownian motion, c. Reflection, d. Rectilinear propagation, 53. Which of the following is not a noble gas?, a. helium, b. neon, c. argon, d. hydrogen, 54. Which of the following is not a compound?, a. sulphur dioxide, b. chalk, c. lead, d. sulphuric acid, 55. The mass of sodium in 11.7 g of sodium chloride is:, a. 2.3g, b. 4.6g, c. 6.9g, d. 7.1g, 56. Which of the following provides an example of a true, solution?, a. Blood, b. Milk, c. Starch solution, d. Sugar solution, 57. Which of the following can be classified as a pure, substance?, a. Milk, b. Sea water, c. Ice, d. Cast iron, 58. Which of the following is a compound?, a. Air, b. Milk, c. Iodine, d. Water
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II.C.12, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 59. The particle size of solute in true solution is of the order, of:, –6, , b. 10 m, , –8, , d. 10–9 m, , a. 10 m, c. 10 m, , –7, , 60. The concentration of solution is the mass of the solute in, grams, which is present in:, a. 10 gm of solvent, b. 10 gm of solution, c. 100 gm of solvent, d. 100 gm of solution, 61. Which of the following statement is not true about true, solution?, a. It can pass through filter paper., b. It is homogeneous in nature., c. At constant temperature, particles of solute settle down., d. From a true solution, the solute can easily be recovered, by evaporation or crystallisation., 62. A solution, which at a given temperature dissolves as, much solute as it is capable of dissolving, is said to be a, a. saturated solution, b. semi saturated solution, c. unsaturated solution, d. super saturated solution, 63. Which of the following is not a compound?, a. Marble, b. Washing soda, c. Quick lime, d. Brass, 64. The elements which given out harmful radiation are called, a. normal elements, b. representative elements, c. radioactive elements, d. none of these, 65. Air is regarded as a, a. compound, c. element, , b. mixture, d. electrolyte, , 66. Which of the following is/are example of suspension?, a. Muddy water, b. Slaked lime, c. Paints, d. All, 67. Which of the following statement is not true about, suspension?, a. The particles of suspension can be separated from, solvent by the process of filtration., b. When the suspension is kept undisturbed the particles, of suspension settle down., c. A suspension is homogeneous in nature., d. Scattering of light take place in suspension., , 68. Fog is an example of, a. foam, c. aerosol, , b. emulsion, d. gel, , 69. Which of the following statement is not true about, colloidal solution?, a. These are visible under powerful microscope., b. Their particles do not settle down with passage of time, c. Their particles are electrically charged., d. These are homogeneous in nature., 70. Which of the following is an example of emulsion?, a. Face cream, b. Shaving cream, c. Honey, d. Smoke, 71. Soap solution is an example of, a. true solution, b. suspension, c. colloidal solution, d. none of these, 72. When a beam of light is passed through a colloidal, solution, it gets, a. reflected, b. absorbed, c. scattered, d. refracted, 73. Which of the following is an example of gel?, a. Coloured gem, b. Jelly, c. Smoke, d. Shaving cream, 74. Which of the following will show Tyndall effect?, a. Starch solution, b. Sodium chloride solution, c. Copper sulphate solution, d. Sugar solution, 75. Colloidal particles can be normally seen by, a. naked eye, b. optical microscope, c. electron microscope, d. telescope, 76. Which postulate of Dalton’s Atomic theory suggests the, law of conservation of mass?, a. Atoms cannot be divided., b. The entire meter is made up of very small particles, called atoms., c. Elements consist of atoms combined in a fixed ratio., d. Atoms can neither be created nor be destroyed., 77. The elements present in baking soda are, a. sodium, carbon and oxygen, b. sodium, carbon and hydrogen, c. sodium, carbon, hydrogen and oxygen, d. potassium, carbon and oxygen.
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Matter, , II.C.13, , 78. All samples of carbon dioxide contain carbon and oxygen, in the mass ratio 3 : 8. This is in agreement with the law of, a. Conservation of mass, b. constant proportions, c. (1) and (2) both, d. none of these, 79. When 5 g of Calcium is burnt in 2 g of Oxygen then 7 g, of Calcium oxide is produced. What mass of calcium, oxide will be produced when 5 g of calcium reacts with, 20 g of oxygen?, a. 7 g, b. 2 g, c. 25 g, d. 4 g, 80. The law of conservation of mass was given by, a. John Dalton, b. Proust, c. Lavoisier, d. None of these, 81. If the mass of reactants is equal to the mass of products, then which of the following statements are true?, a. Law of conservation of mass holds good., b. Mass can neither be created nor be destroyed., c. There is no change in mass during a chemical reaction., d. All the above, 82. Hydrogen and Oxygen combine in the ratio of 1 : 8 by, mass to form water. What mass of oxygen gas would be, required to react completely with 3 g of hydrogen gas?, a. 24 g, b. 27 g, c. 21 g, d. 3 g, 83. The term ‘Paramanu’ for the smallest particles of matter, (padarth) was given by, , a. Dalton, c. Proust, , b. Maharshi Kanada, d. Lavoisier, , 84. Which postulate of Dalton’s atomic theory explains the, law of constant proportion?, a. Atoms cannot be divided., b. All the matter is made up of very small particles called, atoms., c. Elements consist of atoms combined in a fixed ratio., d. Atoms can neither be created nor be destroyed., ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , c, , a, , a, , d, , d, , b, , d, , b, , d, , b, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , c, , a, , b, , b, , a, , c, , d, , d, , c, , a, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , b, , b, , a, , d, , d, , a, , a, , a, , c, , a, , 31., , 32., , 33., , 34., , 35., , 36., , 37., , 38., , 39., , 40., , d, , a, , a, , b, , c, , a, , b, , a, , c, , d, , 41., , 42., , 43., , 44., , 45., , 46., , 47., , 48., , 49., , 50., , c, , d, , b, , a, , c, , a, , b, , b, , b, , A, , 51., , 52., , 53., , 54., , 55., , 56., , 57., , 58., , 59., , 60., , b, , a, , d, , c, , b, , d, , c, , d, , d, , d, , 61., , 62., , 63., , 64., , 65., , 66., , 67., , 68., , 69., , 70., , c, , a, , d, , c, , b, , d, , c, , c, , d, , a, , 71., , 72., , 73., , 74., , 75., , 76., , 77., , 78., , 79., , 80., , b, , d, , c, , b, , a, , C, , c, , c, , b, , a, , 81., , 82., , 83., , 84., , d, , a, , b, , c, ,
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II.C.14, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 2, , Acid, Base and Salts, , 0, , 1, , 2, , 3, , 4, , 5, , 6, , More Acidic, , 7, , 8, , Neutral, , Acidic solutions have, pH values less than 7, , 9, , 10, , Household, ammonia, bleach, , detergents, , Sea water, , milk, pure water, blood, , coffee, , wine, , gastric juice, , orange juice, , The acidity of an aqueous solution depends on the, concentration of hydrogen ions. The pH of pure water at 25ºC, is 7 pH < 7.00 is an acidic solution pH = 7.00 is a neutral, solution pH > 7.00 is a basic solution the smaller the pH value,, the more acidic the solution., , 11, , 12, , 13, , 14, , More Basic, Basic solutions have, pH value greater than 7, , Table: 2.1 Colour of indicators in acidic and basic medium, Indicator, , Colour in Acid, , Colour in Base, , Blue Litmus, , Red, , Blue, , Red Litms, , Red, , Blue, , Turmeric, , Yellow, , Reddish-brown, , China Rose, , Dark Pink, , Green, , Methyl Orange, , Orange, , Yellow, , Phenolphthalein, , Colourless, , Pink, , Acid derived from Latin acidus (meaning sour or tart) related, to Latin acetum (meaning vinegar)., Characteristic properties associated with acid:, Sour taste, Change the colour of litmus from blue to red, React with metal (such as Zn, Mg) to produce H 2 gas., Hydroxide base to produce H2O and salt, Carbonate to produce, , CO2 H released by acids in water solution., Types of Acids: Acids are divided into two types on the basis, of their occurrence– Natural acids and Mineral acids., Natural Acid: Acids which are obtained from natural sources, are called natural acid or organic acid., Mineral Acids: Acids that prepare from mineral are known as, mineral acids, inorganic acids, man-made acids or synthetic, acid, such as hydrochloric acid, sulphuric acid, nitric acid, etc., , Base capable of liberating OH– in water solution LiOH, NaOH,, KOH, Ca OH2 , Ba OH2 ., Characteristic properties associated with base:, Bitter or caustic taste., A slippery, soapy feeling., The ability to change litmus from red to blue., The ability to interact with acids., Arrhenius Theory: An acid is a hydrogen-containing, substance that dissociates to produce hydrogen ion, and a base, is a hydroxide-containing substance that dissociates to produce, hydroxide ion in aqueous solution., , HA , H aq +A aq acid, MOH , M aq +OH aq base, Note: Arrhenius acid solution contains an excess of H ions,, an Arrhenius base solution contains an excess of OH– ions., Brønsted–Lowry Theory: A Brønsted–Lowry acid is a proton, (H+) donor a and base is a proton (H+) acceptor., HCl(g) H 2 O( ) , H 3O (aq) Cl (aq), , HCl: acid, H2O : base, : H , Hydronium ion: H 3 O H : O, , , H, , , , Conjugated Acid and Base:, Conjugated acid-base pair, gains proton, , HCl (aq) H 2 O (), Acid, , H 3O (aq) , , Base, , Conjugate acid, , Cl (aq), Conjugate base, , Conjugated acid-base pair, loses proton, , NH 4 H 2 O, acid, , base, , , , , NH 3, base, , H 3O , acid, , Example: The conjugated base of H2O and of HNO3, , OH, , NO3, , The conjugated acid of SO 24 and C 2 H 3 O 2, HSO 4, , HC 2 H 3O 2
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Acid, Base and Salts, , II.C.15, Table: 2.3 Reactions of bases, , Lewis Acid-base Theory, , 1. Reaction with acids, 2. Amphoteric, hydroxides, hydroxide of certain metals, – Zn, Al, Cr are, amphoteric, they are, capable of reacting with, either an acid or a base., Reaction of NaOH and, KOH with certain metals, base + metal + water, , salt + hydrogen, , Lewis:, Acid: electron-pair acceptor, Base: electron-pair donor, Bronsted – Lowry:, Acid: H+ donor, Base: H+ acceptor, Arrhenius:, Acid: H+ donor, Base: OH– donor, , Zn(OH) 2 2HCl , ZnCl 2 2H 2 O, Zn(OH) 2 2NaOH , Na 2 Zn(OH) 4, , 2NaOH Zn H2O , Na 2 Zn(OH)4 H2, 2KOH 2Al 6H2O , 2KAl(OH)4 3H2, , Indicators: Indicators are substances which indicate the acidic, or basic nature of the solution by their colour change., A base is any substance that has an unshared pair of electrons,, an electron-pair donor and an acid is any substance that will, attach itself to or a pair of electrons, an electron-pair acceptor., , Natural indicators – Litmus solution, turmeric., Synthetic indicators – Methyl Orange, Phenolphthalein,, Methylene blue, etc., Olfactory Indicators: Those substances whose smell changes, in acidic or basic solution are called olfactory indicators e.g., onion and vanilla extract. The colour of some acid– base, indicators in acidic and basic medium are given below:, Table: 2.4, , , , H :C, , , Acid, , , , H O, |, H, Base, , H, , , |, , H O:, , |, , H, , , , , , , , : C :, , , , , , Hydronium, , Chloride ion, , Colour in acidic, medium, , Colour in basic, medium, , Sr. No, , Indicators, , 1., , Litmus solution, , Red, , Blue, , 2., , Methyl Orange, , Pink, , Orange, , 3., , Phenolphthalein, , Colourless, , Pink, , 4., , Methyl red, , Yellow, , Red, , Table: 2.2 Reactions of acids, Reaction with metals, acid + metal , , hydrogen + ionic compound, nitric acid HNO3 is, oxidising agent, react with, metals to produce water, instead of H2, Reaction with base, acid + base , , salt + water, , 2HCl Ca , H2 CaCl2, H 2SO 4 Mg , H 2 MgSo 4, 6HC2 H3O2 2Al , 3H 2 Al(C2 H3O2 )3, 3Zn 8HNO3 , #Zn(NO3 )2 2NO 4H2O, , HBr KOH , KBr H 2O, 2HNO3 Ca(OH)2 , Ca(NO3 ) 2 _ 2H 2O, 2H3PO4 3Ba(OH)2 , Ba(PO4 )2 6H2O, , Reaction with metal, oxides, acid + metal oxide , , , 2HCl Na 2O , 2NaCl H2O, , salt + water, , 6HCl Fe 2O3 , 2FeCl3 _ 3H 2 O, , Reaction with, carbonates, acid + carbonate, , 2HCl _ Na 2CO3 , 2NaCl H 2 O CO 2, , salt + water + CO 2, , , , , H 2SO4 MgO , MgSO4 H 2O, , H 2SO4 MgCO3 , MgSO4 H 2 O CO2, HCl NaHCO3 , NaCl H2 O CO2, , Salts: Most of the rocks and minerals of Earth’s mantle are, salts of one kind or another huge quantity of dissolved salts, exist in the ocean salts can be considered compounds derived, from acids and bases., N aO H (base) H C I (acid) , N aC I (salt), , Salts are usually crystalline and have high melting point and, boiling point., Neutral Salts: Strong Acid + Strong base pH value is 7,, e.g. NaCl,CaSO 4 , KNO3 ., Acidic Salts: Strong Acid + weak base pH value is less, than 7, e.g. NH 4Cl, NH 4 , NO 3 ., Basic Salts: Strong base + weak acid pH value is more than, 7, e.g. CaCO3 , CH 3COONa., Electrolytes: Substances whose aqueous solutions are, conductors of electricity; all electrolytes divided into two, groups; Strong and Weak electrolytes. Strong electrolytes are
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II.C.16, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Example: 1 M HCl and 1 M HC2 H 3O 2 . Strong base NaOH, and weak base NH3 can be distinguished in a similar fashion., Strong Base and Weak Base, The strength of a base is determined by the amount of, , , hydroxide ions (OH ) that the base provides when dissolved in, water. Some of the bases, when dissolved in water, get almost, completely dissociated to provide hydroxide ions. These, bases are called strong bases. (Bases soluble in water are also, called alkalis.) For example, sodium hydroxide and potassium, hydroxide are strong bases. But there are bases which, when, dissolved in water get only partially dissociated to give, hydroxide ions. These are weak bases. For example,, magnesium hydroxide and ammonium hydroxide are weak, bases., Strong acids: H2SO4 ,HNO3 ,HCl,HClO4 ,, Strong base: KOH, NaOH,Ba OH2, Weak acids: CH3COOH,HCOOH,HF ,, Weak base: NH4OH,Ca OH2 ., , , ) is used in the ionisation equation of, A double arrow ( , , soluble weak electrolyte to indicate that the solution contains a, considerable amount of the un-ionised compound in, , At 25ºC, the concentration of H+ and OH is 1.0 × 10–7 M, , [H ] 1.0 10 7M, [OH ] 1.0 10 7M, Introduction to pH: The acidity of an aqueous solution, depends on the concentration of hydrogen ions. The pH of, pure water at 25ºC is 7 pH < 7.00 is an acidic solution pH =, 7.00 is a neutral solution pH > 7.00 is a basic solution the, smaller the pH value, the more acidic the solution. The pH, scale of acidity (–) negative logarithm of the H , concentration in moles per litre., , pH log H , pH Scale for Expressing Acidity, , [H+], (mol/L), 1 x 10-14, 1 x 10-13, 1 x 10-12, 1 x 10-11, 1 x 10-10, 1 x 10-9, 1 x 10-8, 1 x 10-7, 1 x 10-6, 1 x 10-5, 1 x 10-4, 1 x 10-3, 1 x 10-2, 1 x 10-1, 1 x 10-0, , Base, (Alkaline), , pH, 14, 13, 12, 11, 10, 9, 8, 7, 6, 5, 4, 3, 2, 1, 0, , Increasing, Basicity, , Neutral, , 1, 1, , Lime (CaOH), , 1, 8.3, , Ammonia, Milk of, Magnesia, Baking soda, , 7.4, , Human blood, , 7, , Acid, , Pure water, , 6.6, , Milk, , 4.5, 3.0, , Tomatoes, Wine and, beer, Apples, , 2.2, , Vinegar, , 2.0, , Lemon Juice, , 1.0, , Battery acid, Hydrochloric, acid – HCl, , 4.0, Increasing, Acidity, , Sodium, Hydroxide, – NaOH, Lye, , 12.4, 10.5, , Neutral, , essentially 100% ionised in solution, weak electrolytes are, much less ionised most salts are strong electrolytes acids and, bases that are strong electrolytes are called strong acids and, strong bases acids and bases that are weak electrolytes are, called weak acids and weak bases for equivalent, concentrations, solutions of strong electrolytes contain many, more ions than do solutions of weak electrolytes., , 0, , equilibrium with its ions in the solution a single arrow ( , ), is used to indicate that the electrolyte is essentially all in the, ionic form in the solution., Example: nitric acid a strong acid nitrous acid a weak acid, , HNO3 (aq) , H (aq) NO3 (aq), , H (aq) NO2 (aq), HNO2 (aq) , , Pure water is a very weak electrolyte; ionization of water, , H2 O H2 O, acid, , base, , , , , , , H3O OH, acid, , , H OH, H2O , , , base, , Some Important Chemical Compounds:, Common Salt (NaCl): Sodium chloride is known as, common salt. Its main source is sea water. It is also exists in, the form of rocks and is called rock salt. Common salt is an, important component of our food. It is also used for, preparing sodium hydroxide, baking soda, washing soda, etc., Sodium Hydroxide or Caustic Soda (NaOH) is prepared, by passing electricity through an aqueous solution of, sodium chloride also known as brine., 2 N aC l aq 2H 2 O l , 2 N aO H aq C l 2 g H 2 g , , This process is known as chlor-alkali process because of the, product formed (Chlor; chlorine and Alkali; NaOH)
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Acid, Base and Salts, , II.C.17, , Properties:, It is white translucent solid., Crystals of sodium hydroxide are deliquescent., It is readily soluble in water and gives strong alkaline, solution., Bleaching Powder C aOC l 2 : Its chemical name is, , calcium oxychloride. It is prepared by passing chlorine gas, through dry slaked lime., C a O H 2 C l 2 , C aO C l 2 H 2 O, , Uses:, For bleaching cotton and linen in textile industry and wood, pulp in paper industry. Using for disinfecting drinking water., Baking Soda NaHCO3 : Chemical name is sodium, , hydrogen carbonate. It is prepared by passing CO 2 gas, through brine solution saturated with ammonia., NaCl H 2 O CO 2 NH 3 , NH 3Cl NaHCO 3, , Properties:, It is white crystalline solid and sparingly soluble in water at, room temperature., On heating it decomposes to give sodium carbonate and, carbon dioxide., It reacts with acids to give carbon dioxide gas., It aqueous solution is weak alkaline due to hydrolysis., Uses:, It is used in soda–acid fire extinguisher., It acts as mild antiseptic and antacid., , Washing Soda Na2CO3.10H2O :, , Its chemical name is sodium carbonate decahydrate. It is, prepared by heating baking soda. Re-crystallisation of sodium, carbonate gives washing soda., 2NaHCO 3 , Na 2 CO 3 H 2 O CO 2, Na 2 CO 3 10H 2 O , Na 2 CO 3 10H 2 O, , Uses:, It is used for removing permanent hardness of water and, used in glass, soap and paper industries., It can be used as a cleaning agent for domestic purposes., Plaster of Paris CaSO 4 1 H 2 O :, , , 2, , , , Its chemical name is calcium sulphate hemihydrates. It is, obtained by heating gypsum up to 373 K., , 1, 1, CaSO4 H2O 1 H2O, CaSO4 2H2O , 2, 2, On treatment with water it is again converted into gypsum and, sets as a hard mass., , 1, 1, CaSO4 2H2O, CaSO4 H2O 1 H2O , 2, 2, Uses:, It is used by doctors for setting fractured bones., It is used for making statues, models and other decorative, materials., , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , 2., , Acids react with metals to liberate ______ gas, a. Carbon dioxide, b. Carbon monoxide, c. Hydrogen, d. Water, , 5., , Which of following is a dibasic acid?, , 6., , Acidity of aluminum hydroxide is, a. 1, b. 2, c. 3, d. 4, , Lime water turns milky when carbon dioxide is passed, due to the formation of _________, a. CaCO 3, b. CaO, c. CO2, d. CaSO4, , 7., , Basicity of acetic acid is, a. 4, c. 2, , The milkiness (on passing excess carbon dioxide gas, through lime water) disappears due to the formation of, a. Calcium carbonate (CaCO3), b. Calcium hydrogen carbonate (CaHCO3), c. Calcium oxide (CaO), , 8., , A compound formed by the reaction of an acid with base is, a. Indicator, b. Vitamins, c. Salt, d. All of these, , 9., , Partial neutralisation of a polybasic acid gives, a. Acid salt, b. Basic salt, c. Normal salt, d. Double salt, , a. HCl, 3., , 4., , b. H3PO4, , c. HNO3, , d. Calcium Nitrate (Ca(NO3 )2 ), , d. H2SO4, , Milk of magnesia is an, a. Acid, c. Rock salt, , b. Antacid, d. Alkali, , b. 3, d. 1
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II.C.18, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 10. A salt that contains a hydroxyl group is, a. Acid salt, b. Basic salt, c. Normal salt, d. Double salt, 11. The salt which contains two different negative and/or, positive ion is, a. Basic salt, b. Normal salt, c. Acid salt, d. Double salt, 12. Acids react with bases to form salt and water. This, reaction is known as, a. Combination, b. Decomposition, c. Neutralisation, d. Reduction, 13. Potash alum is a, a. Simple salt, c. Double salt, , b. Complex salt, d. Acid salt, , 14. Which type of salts are stored in air tight containers?, a. Anhydrous, b. Hydrated, c. Dehydrated, d. Deliquescence, 15. Why does dry HCl gas not change the colour of the dry, litmus paper?, a. Blue litmus becomes dry in presence of dry HCl gas, b. NaH 3 O ions will be present, litmus changes colour only, , in the presence of H 3 O ions, c. HCl gas acts as a dehydrating agent, d. None of the above, 16. Epsom salt is, a. CuSO 4, , b. CaSO4, , b. Na 2SO 4, , d. MgSO4, , 17. When a bee stings, immediately a paste of lime is put on, the sting. Why?, a. Bee sting is made of a base, b. Bee sting contains an acid called formic acid. It gets, neutralised with CaO, c. Bee sting is acidic due to hydrochloric acid and this is, neutralised, d. All of the above, 18. Which of the following ions is furnished by acids in, aqueous solution?, a. O H ions, , , c. H 3 O ions, , b. H ions, d. None of these, , 19. Which of the following is acidic in nature?, a. Apple juice, b. Soap solution, c. Slaked lime, d. Lime, , 20. Which of following acids is called the king of the acids?, a. Acetic acid, b. Phosphoric acid, c. Oxalic acid, d. Sulphuric acid, 21. Vitamin C is an organic acid known as, a. Ascorbic acid, b. Citrus acid, c. Glycolic acid, d. Acetic acid, 22. Sodium bi-carbonate is used as, a. Baking soda, b. Fire extinguisher, c. Antacid, d. All of these, 23. Which of the following is an organic acid?, a. Sulphurous acid, b. Nitric acid, c. Hydrochloric acid, d. Formic acid, 24. When bitten by ant, the sting causes irritation due to the, presence of:, a. A base in the sting, b. Formic acid in the sting, c. Poisonous chemicals, d. Both (a.) and (b.), 25. The substance which indicates the presence of acid or, base by change of its smell is known as, a. Household indicator, b. Acid-base indicator, c. Olfactory indicator, d. None of these, 26. When marble chips are treated with HCl, which of the, following gas is liberated, a. C O, b. NO2, c. CO2, , d. O2, , 27. Which of following are made up of bases?, a. Antacid tablet, b. Soap, c. Toothpaste, d. All of these, 28. Which base is soluble in water is:, a. Oxides, b. Hydroxides, c. Alkalis, d. All of these, 29. Which of the following is a strong base?, a. Ammonium hydroxide, b. Sodium hydroxide, c. Magnesium hydroxide, d. Copper hydroxide, 30. The base which do not contain metal is, a. Ammonium hydroxide, b. Caustic soda, c. Caustic pattern, d. Dolomite, 31. Which of the following method is not used in preparing a, base?, a. Burning of metal in air, b. Heating metal carbonates, c. Adding water to a metal oxide, d. Reaction between an acid and base
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Acid, Base and Salts, , II.C.19, , 32. Which of the following methods is not used for preparing, salt?, a. Reaction between an acid and a base, b. Action of acid on metals, c. Action of acid on metal oxide, d. Dissolution of acids in water, , 43. The pH of three solutions A, B, C is 6, 4, 8 receptivity, which of the following is the correct option?, a. A > B > C decreasing acidic strength, b. C > B > A increasing acidic strength, c. B > A > C is decreasing acidic strength, d. C > B > A decreasing acidic strength, , 33. Electrorefining which is based on phenomenon of, Electrolysis where, a. Impure metal is made anode and pure metal is cathode, b. Impure metal is cathode and pure metal is anode, c. Pure metal is cathode and pure metal is anode, d. None of the above, , 44., , 34. Which of the following may be regarded as weak, electrolytes?, a. NaCl, b. CH3COONa, c. HCl, d. CH3COOH, , 45. Which of following compound is an acid?, a. KOH, b. ZnO, , 35. Which of the following is an example of strong, electrolyte?, a. NaOH, b. NH4OH solution, c. CH3COONa, d. H C N, 36. The acidity and alkalinity of a compound is represented on a, scale known as, a. pH Scale, b. Hess scale, c. Kelvin scale, d. None of these, 37. The term ‘pH’ comes from, a. Hydrogen purity, c. Hydrogen power, , b. Pure hydrogen, d. None of these, , 38. – log [H+] __________, a. Concentration of H+, c. pOH, , b. pH, d. None of these, , 39. The pH value of blood is, a. 7.4, c. 6.5, , b. 7, d. 6, , Fe2 (SO4 )3 solution will, a. turn blue litmus red, b. turn red litmus blue, c. turn phenolphthalein solution pink, d. none of these, , c. Al(OH)3, , d. NaCl, , 46. The compound formed during electrolysis of brine is, a. Cl 2, , b. H 2, , c. NaOH, , d. None of these, , 47. Brine is aqueous solution of, a. KCl, b. NaCl, c. LiCl, , d. MgCl2, , 48. Which one of the following types of medicines is used for, treating indigestion?, a. Antibiotic, b. Analgesic, c. Antacid, d. Antiseptic, 49. An acid used in lead storage batteries is, a. H2SO4, , b. HNO3, , c. HCl, , d. CH 3COOH, , 50. Which of the following acid is used by goldsmiths for, cleaning gold and silver ornaments?, a. HCl, , b. H2SO4, , c. HNO3, , d. H3PO4, , 40. The hydroxyl ion concentration of a solution is 0.00001, M, its pH is:, a. 8, b. 5, c. 9, d. 10, , 51. The acid used in the manufacture of glass is, a. Ascorbic acid, b. Tartaric acid, c. Phosphoric acid, d. Boric acid, , 41. The pH value of 0.0001 molar acid is, a. 4, b. 6, c. 2, d. 0, , 52. Which of the following acid is present in vinegar?, a. Acetic acid, b. Lactic acid, c. Malic acid, d. None of these, , 42. An aqueous solution with pH valve zero is, a. Acidic, b. Basic, c. Neutral, d. Either acidic or basic, , 53. Soft drink contain, a. Acetic acid, c. Tartaric acid, , b. Carbonic acid, d. Nitric acid
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II.C.20, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 54. Which of the following acid is used in fire extinguishers?, a. Oxalic acid, b. Nitric acid, c. Sulphuric acid, d. Hydrochloric acid, , 63. Baking powder is a mixture of NaHCO3 and ________, , 55. Alkalis turn methyl orange, a. Red, b. Pink, c. Yellow, d. Colourless, 56. A solution of sodium chloride will turn, a. Red litmus blue, b. Blue litmus red, c. Red litmus orange, d. Not change the colour of either red, blue litmus, , 64. The acid used to produce explosives is, , 57. The incorrect statement about acids is:, a. They give H+ ion in water, b. They turn blue litmus red, c. They are sour in taste, d. They give pink colour with phenolphthalein, , 66. The substance which on treating with chlorine, yields, bleaching powder is, a. Quick lime, b. Limestone, c. Slaked lime, d. Gypsum, , a. Tartaric acid, c. Citric acid, , b. Ascorbic acid, d. Formic acid, , a. HNO3, , b. H2SO4, , c. HCl, , d. H3PO4, , 65. Acids are always stored in containers made of, a. Plastic, b. Glass, c. Metals, d. Clay, , 58. When a little sulphur in a spoon is heated, it burns with a, blue flame which slowly disappears after some time and, we can feel a pungent odour, this pungent odour is due to, a. Carbon dioxide, b. Sulphur dioxide, c. Sulphur gas, d. Sulphuric acid, 59. Fixed number of water molecules chemically attached to, each formula unit of salt in its crystalline form is known as, a. Water of crystallisation, b. Heat of hydration, c. Hydrated crystal, d. None of these, 60. Which of the following is spread on icy roads to melt ice, cold countries?, a. Sodium bicarbonate, b. Sodium hydroxide, c. Rock salt, d. None of these, 61. Many salts absorb water from the atmosphere, this, property is called, a. Hydration, b. Dehydration, c. Deliquescence, d. Efflorescence, 62. The loss of water of crystallis/ation to the atmosphere by, a compound is termed, a. Hydrolysis, b. Dehydration, c. Deliquescence, d. Efflorescence, , 67. When a gas is passed through dry slaked lime, an, oxidising agent is produced, then the gas is, a. H 2, , b. O 2, , c. N 2, , d. Cl 2, , _________ + Glycerol, one of the, 68. Fats + NaOH , product formed in this reaction is, a. Cloth, b. Paper, c. Wood, d. Soap, ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , c, , d, , a, , b, , d, , c, , d, , c, , a, , 10., b, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , d, , c, , c, , d, , b, , d, , b, , c, , a, , d, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , a, , d, , d, , b, , c, , c, , d, , c, , b, , a, , 31., , 32., , 33., , 34., , 35., , 36., , 37., , 38., , 39., , 40., , c, , d, , a, , d, , a, , a, , c, , b, , a, , c, , 41., , 42., , 43., , 44., , 45., , 46., , 47., , 48., , 49., , 50., , a, , a, , c, , a, , d, , c, , b, , c, , a, , c, , 51., , 52., , 53., , 54., , 55., , 56., , 57., , 58., , 59., , 60., , d, , a, , b, , c, , a, , d, , d, , b, , a, , c, , 61., , 62., , 63., , 64., , 65., , 66., , 67., , 68., , c, , d, , a, , a, , a, , c, , d, , d, ,
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Atomic Structure, , II.C.21, , 3, , Atomic Structure, , How are electrons organised around the nucleus?, All atoms would like to attain electron configurations like, noble gases to form stable electron configurations by:, Losing electrons, sharing electrons, Gaining electrons., For a stable configuration each atom must fill its outer energy, level. In the case of noble gases that means eight electrons in, the last shell (with the exception of He which has two, electrons)., , Atom Core, –, Proton, , +, +, , Neutron, Electron, , –, , Figure: 3.1, , The idea of tiniest unit of matter (Anu and Parmanu) was, propounded by maharishi Kanada in Vedic period in our, country. The word “ATOM” is given by “John Dalton”. An, element is a pure substance which cannot be subdivided into, two or more new substances by any means. “The smallest, indivisible particle or unit of an element is called an atom,, which can take part in a chemical reaction and may or may not, exist independently”., Later the works of William Crookes (1878), J J Thomson, (1897) and Goldstein proved that atom of any element, contains smaller particles which are either positively charged, or negatively charged. Work of Rutherford and Neil’s Bohr, confirmed that an atom consists of three subatomic particles,, which are electrons, protons and neutrons. It has been, established that the central core of an atom consists of protons, and neutrons and is commonly called nucleus. The electrons, revolve around the nucleus., , The works of J J Thomson and Ernst Rutherford actually laid, the foundation of the modern picture of the atom. It is now, believed that the atom consists of several sub-atomic particles, like electron, proton, neutron, positron, neutrino, meson, etc., Out of these particles, the electron, proton and the neutron are, called fundamental subatomic particles and others are nonfundamental particles., The atom as a whole is electrically neutral as the number of, protons in it, is equal to the number of electrons., Table: 3.1, Nucleus, The nucleus is the centre of mass, (1), but does not significantly, contribute to volume., It is made up of:, Protons: Mass 1 amu, charge , +1, Neutrons: 1amu, charge 0, , Electrons, The electronic cloud determines the, size, or volume of the atom, but does, not significantly contribute to mass., Electron; mass 0.005 amu, charge, –1, Electrons are found outside the, nucleus. They occupy orbitals. They, are the unit of negative charge;, determine the atomic number (Z)., , Property, , Electron, , Proton, , 1. Discovery, , J J Thomson, , E. Goldstein, , 2. Symbol, , e, Negatively, charged, , p, , Neutron, James, Chadwick, n, , Positively charged, , Neutral, , –1, , +1, , 0, , 1.602 10 1 9 C, , 1.602 10 19 C, , 0, , 1/1837, , 1, , 1, , 9.109 1028 g, , 1.6725 1024 g, , 1.6748 1024 g, , 3. Nature, 4. Relative, charge, 5. Absolute, charge, 6. Relative, mass, 7. Absolute, mass, , Discovery of Electrons, Faraday contributed significantly. He discovered that the, amount of substance produced at the poles during electrolysis, (the chemical change when electric current is passed through a, solution of electrolytes) was proportional to the amount of, electric current. He also found in 1833 that the amount of, electricity required to produce 1 mole of substance at the, electric poles is constant (96,500 C). These relations were, summarised as Faraday’s law of electrolysis.
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II.C.22, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Faraday himself had no intention to combine his law with the, atomic theory. However, the Irish chemist George Johnstone, Stoney (1826–1911) had the insight to notice the significance, of Faraday’s law for the structure of matter; he concluded that, a fundamental unit of electricity exists, in other words, an atom, of electricity., , Millikan’s Oil Drop: The American physicist Robert Andrew, Millikan (1868–1953) successfully proved by an ingenious, experiment the particulate nature of electricity. The experiment, is called Millikan’s oil drop experiment., Oil bath, , He dared to give the name electron to that hypothetical unit., Then another interesting finding emerged due to vacuum, discharge experiments., , Oil spray, , X-ray source, Microscope, , When cations hit the anode upon application of high voltage at, low pressure (lower than 10–12 to 10–14 Torr), the gas in the, tube, although it was an insulator, became conductive and, emitted light. When the vacuum was increased, the wall began, to glitter, emitting fluorescent light., The German physicist Julius Plücker (1801-1868) took interest, in this phenomenon and interpreted it as follows: some, particles are being emitted from the cathode. He gave the name, cathode ray to these unidentified particles (1859)., Joseph John Thomson, The British physicist Joseph John Thomson (1856–1940), showed that the particle possessed negative charge. He further, sought to determine the mass and the charge of the particle by, estimating the effect of electric and magnetic fields on the, motion of the particle. He obtained the ratio of the mass to the, charge. To obtain their absolute values, one of the two had to, be determined. The cathode ray generated in a vacuum tube, when a high vacuum was applied provided very significant, information on the structure of the atom., , A, , C, , L.T., , , , Figure: 3.3, , Droplets of oil atomised in a chamber fall under the influence, of gravity. If the oil droplet has an electric charge, its motion, may be controlled by countering gravity with an electric, attraction applied by an electric field., The combined motion can be analyzed by classical, physics. Millikan demonstrated by these experiments that, the charge of an oil drop is always an integral multiple of, , 1.6 1019 C., This fact led to a neat explanation by attributing the charge, of 1.6 1019 C to the electron. The charge/mass ratio of the, charged particle so far known was 1/1000 (C/g)., The ratio Thomson obtained was much larger than that (the, accurate value now accepted is as large as 1.76 × 108 C/g),, and that finding was not in the framework of the knowledge, at that time. The particle should not be a kind of ion or, molecule, but should be regarded as a part or fragment of, an atom., , B, P, , Anode, , Cathode, Filament, , Charged, , X, , +, , Y, , –, , P, , P, Magnetic, ZnS, field, coated screen, , V, (H.T.), Figure: 3.2, , This unidentified particle would, after being emitted from the, cathode, fly straight toward the wall of the tube or to the, anode. It was found that the particle was charged since its, course of flight was curved when a magnetic field was applied., Furthermore, the properties of the ray did not depend on the, type of metal used in the cathode tube, nor on the type of gas in, the discharge tube. These facts suggested the possibility that, the particle could be a fundamental constituent of matter., , Aston Dark, Space (AD), , Negative, Glow, (NG), , Faraday, Space, (FS), , Positive, Column, (PC), , Cathod, , Anode, Glow, (AG), , Anode, Dark, Space (AD), Anode, , –, , +, Cathode, Glow, , Cathode, Dark Space, Figure: 3.4, , In 1886, Goldstein using the discharge tube with perforated, cathode discovered that in a discharge tube not only cathode, rays, but also a stream of anode rays called canal rays or, positive rays are present. The canal rays were found to be, attracted towards the negative electrode showing that these are, made up of positively charged particles.
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Atomic Structure, , II.C.23, , X-rays: Wilhelm Röentgen (1845–1923) in 1895 showed that, when electrons strike a material in the cathode ray tubes,, produce rays which can cause fluorescence in the fluorescent, materials placed outside the cathode ray tubes. Since Röentgen, did not know the nature of the radiation, he named them X-rays, and the name is still carried on. It was noticed that X-rays are, produced effectively when electrons strike the dense metal, anode, called targets. These are not deflected by the electric, and magnetic fields and have a very high penetrating power, through the matter and that is the reason that these rays are, used to study the interior of the objects. These rays are of very, short wavelengths (∼0.1 nm) and possess electromagnetic, character., Incident electrons, X-ray, , Bremsstrahlung, , Crystal, , Elastically, Scattered, Electrons, , X-ray, tube, Collimater, , Photographic Film Inelastically Scattered Electron, Figure: 3.5, , Energy of X-ray photon h v , , hc, , , , hv h, , Momentum of X-ray photon , c , Duane–Hunt Rule: Minimum wavelength of continuous, , X-ray spectrum min , , (gamma), , (beta), , Radioactive Source, Figure: 3.6, , Atomic Models, Observations obtained from the experiments mentioned in the, previous sections have suggested that Dalton’s indivisible atom, is composed of sub-atomic particles carrying positive and, negative charges. Different atomic models were proposed to, explain the distributions of these charged particles in an atom., Although some of these models were not able to explain the, stability of atoms, two of these models, proposed by J J, Thomson and Ernest Rutherford are discussed below., Thomson Model of Atom, J J Thomson, in 1898, proposed that an atom possesses a, spherical shape (radius approximately 10–10 m) in which the, positive charge is uniformly distributed. “He proposed that an, atom consists of a sphere of positive electricity in which, electrons are embedded like plum in pudding or seeds evenly, distributed in red spongy mass in watermelon.” Although, Thomson’s model could explain the electrical neutrality of an, atom but this model could not satisfy experimental facts, proposed by Rutherford and hence was discarded., , hc, eV, , Radioactivity: Henri Becquerel (1852–1908) observed that, there are certain elements which emit radiation on their own, and named this phenomenon as radioactivity and the elements, known as radioactive elements., This field was developed by Marie Curie, Rutherford and, Frederick Soddy. It was observed that three kinds of rays i.e.,, , and -rays are emitted. Rutherford found that rays, , consist of high energy particles carrying two units of positive, charge and four unit of atomic mass. He concluded that αparticles are helium nuclei as when particles combined, with two electrons yielded helium gas. rays are negatively, charged particles similar to electrons. The rays are high, energy radiations like X-rays, are neutral in nature and do not, consist of particles. As regards penetrating power, particles, are the least, followed by rays (100 times that of α–, particles) and rays (1000 times of that particles)., , (alpha), , – + –, –, , + –, – +, , +, –, , Figure: 3.7, , Rutherford’s Model of Atom, Ernest Rutherford and his co-workers performed numerous, experiments in which particles emitted from a radioactive, element such as polonium were allowed to strike thin sheets of, metals such as gold and platinum. About 99% of the , particles passed un-deflected through the gold foil and caused, illumination of zinc sulphide screen. Very few particles, underwent small and large deflections after passing through the, gold foil. A very few (about 1 in 20,000) were deflected, backward on their path at an angle of 180º as a result of their, direct collisions with the heavy mass.
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II.C.24, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, Beam of, Deflected alpha, Radioactive, alpha, particles, source, , Figure: 3.8, , Example: Na has 1 valence electron, thus, its valency is 1. Cl, has 7 valence electrons, thus, its valency is 8 – 7 = 1., Atoms that have 1, 2 or 3 electrons in their outer levels will, tend to lose them in interactions with atoms that have 5, 6, or 7 electrons in their outer levels., Atoms that have 5, 6 or 7 electrons in their outer levels will, tend to gain electrons from atoms with 1, 2 or 3 electrons in, their outer levels., Atoms that have 4 electrons in the outer most energy level, will tend neither totally lose nor totally gain electrons, during interactions., , Rutherford proposed the atom of an element consists of a small, positively charged “Nucleus” which is situated at the centre of the, atom and which carries almost the entire mss of the atom. The, electrons are distributed in the empty space of the atom around the, nucleus in different concentric circular paths (orbits)., , Bohr– Sommerfeld model, It is an extension of Bohr’s model. The electrons in an atom, revolve around the nuclei in elliptical orbit. The circular path, is a special case of ellipse. Association of elliptical orbits, with circular orbit explains the fine line spectrum of atoms., , Lead-lined, box with, hole, , Circular, fluorescent, screen, , Gold foil, , Scattered, alpha, i l, , Most particles pass, straight through, undeflected, , The stability of such a system in which negatively charged, electrons surround a positively charged nucleus was explained, by proposing that the electrons revolve around the nucleus at, very high speed in circular orbits. This arrangement is just like, our solar system. The high sped of the moving electrons given, them a centrifugal force acting away from the nucleus. The, centrifugal force balances the electrostatic force of attraction, acting between the nucleus and the electrons., Defects in Rutherford’s Model, Rutherford did not specify the number of electrons in each orbit., According to electromagnetic theory, if a charged particle, (electron) is accelerated around another charged particle (nucleus), then there would be continuous radiation of energy. This loss of, energy would slow down the speed of electron and eventually the, electron would fall into the nucleus. But such a collapse does not, occur. Rutherford’s model of the atom was unable to explain, certain observations with regard to the atom i.e. stability of the, atom and the occurrence of the atomic spectra., Valency of an element is the combining capacity of the atoms, of the element with atoms of the same or different elements., The combining capacity of the atoms of other elements was, explained in terms of their tendency to attain a fully-filled, outermost shell (stable octet or duplet). Valency of an element, is determined by the number of valence electrons in an atom of, the element., The valency of an element = number of valence electrons, (when number of valence electrons are from 1 to 4), The valency of an element = 8 – number of valence, electrons., (when number of valence electrons are more than 4), , Niels Bohr model: Bohr accepted Rutherford’s idea that the, positive charge and most of the mass of the atom is, concentrated in its nucleus with the electrons present at some, distance away. Electrons revolve around the nucleus in well, defined orbits or shells, each shell having a definite amount of, energy associated with the electrons in it. Therefore, these, shells are also called energy levels., The energy associated with the electrons in an orbit, increases as the radius of the orbit increases. These shells, are known as K, L, M, N, etc. starting from the one closest, to the nucleus., An electron in a shell can more to a higher or lower energy, shell by absorbing or releasing a fixed amount of energy., The amount of energy absorbed or emitted is given by the, difference of energies associated with the two energy levels., Energy absorbed, E E E1 hv, 2, , Energy emitted, E E E1 hv, 2, , Where, h is Plank’s constant h 6.62 1034 Js and is the, frequency of the radiation., , First energy, Second energy, Third energy, Fourth energy, , +, , K L MN, , Electron, shells, , Nucleus 2 8 1 3, , Maximum number of, electrons which can, be accommodated in, the various shells, , Figure: 3.9, , The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated, in a shell is given by the formula 2n2 (where, n number of, shell i.e. 1, 2, 3.....)
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Atomic Structure, Table: 3.2, Shell, K, L, M, N, , II.C.25, n, 1, 2, 3, 4, , 2n2, 2(1)2, 2(2)2, 2(3)2, 2(4)2, , Max. no. of e2, 8, 18, 32, , Each energy level is further divided into sub-shells designated, as s, p, d, f., 1st shell (K) contains 1 sub-shell (s), 2nd shell (L) contains 2 sub-shells (s,p), 3rd shell (M) contains 3 sub-shells (s,p,d), 4th shell (N) contains 4 sub-shells (s,p,d,f)., Orbitals: Like shells are divided into sub-shells, subs-hells, further contain orbitals. An orbital may be defined as a, “Region in the three-dimensional space around the nucleus, where the probability of finding an electron is maximum. The, maximum capacity of each orbital is that of two electrons.”, Table: 3.3, Atomic species, Isotopes, (Soddy), , Isobars, , Isotones, , Isodiaphers, , Isoelectronic, species, , Similarities, (i) Atomic no. (Z), (ii) No. of protons, (iii) No. of electrons, (iv) Electronic configuration, (v) Chemical properties, (vi) Position in the periodic table, (i) Mass no. (1), (ii) No. of nucleons, , No. of neutrons, , Isotopic no., (N – Z) or (A – 2Z), , (i) No. of electrons, (ii) Electronic configuration, , Sub-shell, , s, , p, , d, , f, , Orbital (s), , 1, , 3, , 5, , 7, , Max. no of electrons, , 2, , 6, , 10, , 14, , The total number of nucleons is equal to the mass number (1), of the atom. Atomic number is the number of protons present, in the atom of an element. It is denoted by “Z”, (In a Neutral atom): Atomic number Number of protons , Number of electrons, (In an Ion): Atomic number Number of protons e.g. 11Na, Different Types of Atomic Species, Mass number: Mass number (1) Number of protons or Atomic, number (Z) + Number of neutrons or Number of neutrons A – Z., The atom of an element X having mass number (1) and atomic, number (Z) may be represented by a symbol, Z XA ., , Differences, (i) Mass no. (1), (ii) No. of neutrons, (iii) Physical properties, , (i) Atomic no. (Z), (ii) No. of protons, electrons and neutrons, (iii) Electronic configuration, (iv) Chemical properties, (v) Position in the periodic table, (i) Atomic No., (ii) Mass No., protons and electrons., (iii) Electronic configuration, (iv) Physical and chemical properties, (v) Position in the periodic table, (i) At no., mass no., electrons, protons, neutrons, (ii) Physical and chemical properties, , At. no., mass no., , Examples, (i), , 1, 1, , H, 12 H, 13 H, , (ii), , 16, 8, , 18, O, 17, 8 O, 8 O, , (iii), , 35, 17, , 37, Cl, 17, Cl, , (i), , 40, 18, , 40, Ar, 19, K, 40, 20 Ca, , (ii), , 130, 52, , (i), , 30, 14, , 31, 32, Si, 15, P, 16, S, , (ii), , 39, 19, , 40, K, 20, Ca, , (iii), , 3, 1, , (iv), , 13, 6, , C, 14, 7 N, , (i), , 92, , U 235 , 90 Th 231, , (ii), , 19, , K 39 , 9 F19, , (iii), , 29, , Cu 65 , 24 Cr 55, , (i), , N2O,CO2 ,CNO (22e ), , 130, Te, 130, 54 Xe, 56 Ba, , H, 42 He, , , , (ii) CO,CN , N 2 (14e ), , , , , , 2, , , , (iii) H ,He,Li ,Be (2e ), 3, , 2, , , , and, , CO, , , , 2, , , , (iv) P ,S ,Cl ,Ar,K and Ca (18e ), Isosters, , (i) No. of atoms, (ii) No. of electrons, (iii) Physical and chemical properties., , (i), , N2, , (ii) CO 2 and N2O, , HCl and F2, (iv) CaO and MgS, (v) C6 H 6 and B3 N3H6, (iii)
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II.C.26, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , Where are protons located in an atom?, a. Around the nucleus, b. Inside the nucleus, b. Both (a.) & (b.), d. None of these, , 2., , Which of the following statements is true?, a. A proton is 1837 times heavier than an electron, b. A proton is 1/1837 times heavier than an electron, c. A proton is 1/1837 times lighter than an electron, d. Proton has the same mass as an electron, , 3., , When alpha particles are sent through a thin metal foil,, most of them go straight through the foil because, a. alpha particles are much heavier than electrons, b. alpha particles are positively charged, c. most part of the atom is empty, d. alpha particles move with high velocity, , 4., , Rutherford’s scattering experiment is related to the size of, a. nucleus, b. atom, c. electron d. neutron, , 5., , The mass of a proton is, b. 1.673 10, , a. 1.00728 amu, c. 1.673 10, , 27, , kg, , 24, , gm, , d. All of these, , 6., , Rutherford performed his alpha scattering experiment, using, a. silver, b. gold, c. mercury d. diamond, , 7., , A proton is usually represented as, , 8., 9., , b. 11 H, , c. 42 He, , d. both (a.) & (b.), , The protons and neutrons are collectively called, a. deuterons b. positrons c. mesons, d. nucleons, Contains, , Na, , , , a. 22 protons, c. 12 neutrons, , b. 22 neutrons, d. None of these, , 11. The formula that gives the maximum number of electrons, in a particular shell is:, b. 2 n 2, , c. 2n, , d. n 2 / 2, , 12. The radius of an atomic nucleus is of the order of, a. 1010 cm, , b. 1013 cm, , c. 1015 cm, , 15. Energy levels are designated as, a. K, L, M, N and so on, b. k, l , m, n and so on, c. I, II, III, IV and so on, d. All of these, 16. A neutron is represented as, a. 00 n, , b. 11 n, , c. 10 n, , d., , 1, 1, , n, , 17. The different sub-shells in an atom are represented as, a. s,p,d,f, b. S,P,D,F, c. 1,2,3,4, d. All of these, 18. The maximum number of electrons is N shell is, a. 2, b. 8, c. 18, d. 32, 19. The maximum number of electrons is f–sub-shell is, a. 5, b. 6, c. 14, d. 10, 20. The maximum number of electrons that can be, accommodated in the valence shell of an atom is:, a. 5, b. 6, c. 7, d. 8, , 22. The number of valence electrons in Na is:, a. 1, b. 2, c. 3, d. 4, 23. The valency of, , d. 108 cm, , 10, , Ne 2,8 is, , a. 10, b. 8, c. 2, d. 0, 24. Which of the following has the same number of protons,, electrons and neutrons?, a., , 10. The credit of discovering neutron goes to, a. Rutherford, b. Thomson, c. Goldstein, d. Chadwick, , a. n 2, , 14. A p-orbital can accommodate up to, a. 4 electrons, b. 2 electrons, c. 6 electron, d. 3 electrons, , 21. The maximum number of orbitals in f sub-shell are, a. 1, b. 3, c. 5, d. 7, , a. 11 P, , 23, 11, , 13. The oil drop experiment by R.A. Mullikan was performed, to find, a. Charge on the neutron, b. Charge on the electron, c. Charge on the proton, d. None of these, , 54, 27, , X, , b., , 55, 27, , X 1, , c., , 54, 26, , X, , d., , 55, 28, , X, , 25. In an atom there are four orbits, the maximum number of, electrons in this atom will be:, a. 30, b. 36, c. 32, d. 62, 26. Isotones of an element have, a. same number of electrons, b. same number of protons, c. same number of neutrons, d. same number of neutrons and protons
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Atomic Structure, , 27. An isotone of, a., , 77, 32, , II.C.27, 76, 32, , Ge, , 37. How many electrons, protons and neutrons are present in, X+, if atomic number of X is 19 and its mass number is 39?, a. E 19, P 19, N 20, b. E 18, P 19, N 20, c. E 18, P 19, N 19, d. E 19, P 20, N 20, , Ge is:, , b., , 77, 33, , As, , 28. A deuteron contains, a. a neutron and a positron., c. a neutron and 2 protons, , c., , 77, 34, , Se, , d., , 79, 34, , Se, , b. a neutron and a proton., d. 2 neutrons and a proton., , 29. Many elements have non-integral masses because, a. they have isobars, b. their isotopes have non - integral masses, c. they have isotopes, d. the constituents neutrons, protons and electrons, combine to give fractional masses, 30. The triad of nuclei that is isotonic is, a., , 14, 6, , 17, C, 15, 7 N, 19 F `, , b., , c., , 14, 6, , 17, C, 14, 7 N, 9 F, , d., , 12, 6, 14, 6, , 39. Which of the following does not have one electron in its, valance shell?, a. Na, b. Li, c. H, d. Ca, 40. The electronic configuration of Cl– ion is:, a. 2,8,7, b. 2,8,8, c. 2,8,6, d. 2,8,8,1, 41. Which of the following are isotopes?, , 19, C, 14, 7 N, 9 F, , 11 H,12 D,13 T,11 H , , 19, C, 14, 7 N, 9 F, , 31. Pick out the isoelectronic structures from the following, (II) H 3 O (III) NH 3, (IV) CH 3 , (I) CH 3 , a. I and II, c. I and III, , 38. Which of the following does not have 8 valence, electrons?, a. He, b. Ne, c. Ar, d. Cl–, , b. III and IV, d. II, III, IV, , a. 11 H,12 D,13, , b. 11 H,12 D,11 H , , c. 11 H,11 H, , d. 11 H,13 T,11 H , , 42. Which of the following are isobars?, 18Ar 40 ,19 K 39 , 20 Ca 40 , 19 [K ]39, , 32. Two atoms of the same element are found to have, different number of neutrons in their nuclei. These two, atoms are, a. isomers, b. isotopes, c. isobars, d. allotropes, 33. Which of the following members have similar chemical, properties?, a. Isotopes, b. Isobars, c. Allotropes, d. Both isotopes and allotropes, 34. An atom which as a mass number of 14 and 8 neutrons, is an, a. isotope of oxygen, b. isobar of oxygen, c. isotope of carbon, d. isobar of carbon, 35. The electronic configuration of Mn+2 is:, a. 2, 8, 13, b. 2, 8, 11, 2, c. 2, 8, 13, 2, d. None of these, 36. The number of electrons in the L-shell of phosphorus is, not equal to that in the, a. L-shell of neon, b. M-shell of potassium, c. M-shell of chromium, d. M-shell of argon, , a., , 19, , K 39 , 19 [K ]39, , b., , 18, , Ar 40 , 19 K 39, , c., , 18, , Ar 40 , 20 Ca 40, , d., , 18, , Ar 40 , 19 K 39 , Ca 40, , 43. Cathode rays have, a. Charge only, c. Charge as well as mass, , b. Mass only, d. Neither charge nor mass, , 44. The number of valence electrons determines, a. Physical properties of elements, b. Chemical properties of elements, c. Both physical and chemical properties of elements, d. Neither physical nor chemical properties of elements, 45. C-14 has a half life of, a. 11520 yrs b. 2880 yrs, , c. 5760 yrs, , d. 17280 yrs, , ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , b, , a, , c, , a, , d, , b, , d, , d, , c, , 10., d, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , b, , b, , b, , b, , a, , c, , a, , d, , c, , d, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , d, , a, , d, , a, , b, , c, , b, , b, , c, , a, , 31., , 32., , 33., , 34., , 35., , 36., , 37., , 38., , 39., , 40., , d, , b, , d, , c, , a, , c, , a, , a, , d, , b, , 41., , 42., , 43., , 44., , 45., , a, , c, , a, , b, , c, ,
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II.C.28, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 4, , Periodic Properties, , One of the greatest intellectual achievements in chemistry is, the periodic table of the elements. The periodic table can be, printed on a single sheet of paper, but what it contains and can, teach us is enormous and beyond measure. The periodic table, is the outcome of continuous effort, beginning in ancient, Greece, to understand the true nature of matter. It can rightly, be called the Bible of chemistry., There are about 118 elements known at present and it is very, difficult to study the properties of all these elements separately., So, all the elements have been divided into a few groups in, such a way that elements in the same group have similar, properties., The value of the periodic table is not only in its organisation of, known information, but also in its ability to predict unknown, properties. The true greatness of the periodic table lies in that, ability., Dobereiner’s Triads: According to Dobereiner’s law of triads, (1829). When elements are arranged in the order of increasing, atomic masses, groups of three elements (known as triads), having similar chemical properties are obtained., , The atomic mass of the middle elements is triad being equal to, the arithmetic mean of the atomic masses of the other two, elements., Example: The alkali metal group, Element, , Atomic mass, , Lithium, , -, , Li, , -, , 7, , 7 39 , , , 2 , , Sodium, , -, , Na, , -, , 23, , , , Potassium, , -, , K, , -, , 39, , The Alkali Earth Metal Group, Calcium, Ca, 40, Strontium, Sr, 88, Barium, Ba, 137, , 46, 23, 2, , The Limitation of Dobereiner's Classification: It failed to, arrange all the then known elements in the form of triads of, elements having similar chemical properties. Dobereiner could, identify only three triads from the elements known at that time., Newland’s Law of Octaves (1864), When elements are arranged in the order of increasing atomic, masses, the properties of the eighth element (starting from a, given element) are a repetition of the properties of the first, element. This repetition in the properties of elements is just, like the repetition of eight notes in an octave of music. This, classification gave a very important conclusion that there is, some systematic relationship between the order of atomic, masses and repetition of properties of elements., Limitations, This law was applicable to the classification of elements up, to calcium only., New lands assumed that only 56 elements exist in nature, and no more elements would be discovered in the future., Fe (iron) element which resembles cobalt and nickel elements, in properties was placed far away from their elements., Mendeleev’s Periodic Table, , I, H, 1.01, , II, , III, , IV, , V, , VI, , VII, , Li, 6.94, , Be, 9.01, , B, 10.8, , C, 12.0, , N, 14.0, , O, 16.0, , F, 19.0, , Na, 23.0, , Mg, 24.3, , Al, 27.0, , Si, 28.1, , P, 31.0, , S, 32.1, , Cl, 35.5, , K, 39.1, Cu, 63.5, , Ca, 40.1, Zn, 65.4, , Tl, 47.9, , V, 50.9, As, 74.9, , Cr, 52.0, Se, 79.0, , Mn, 54.9, Br, 79.9, , Rb, 85.5, Ag, 108, Ce, 133, Au, 197, , Sr, 87.6, Cd, 112, Ba, 137, Hg, 201, , Zr, 91.2, Sn, 119, , Nb, 92.9, Sb, 122, Ta, 181, Bl, 209, , Mo, 95.9, Te, 128, W, 184, , Y, 88.9, ln, 115, La, 139, Ti, 204, , Pb, 207, Th, 232, , U, 238, , VIII, Fe, 55.9, , Co, 58.9, , Ni, 58.7, , Ru, 101, , Rh, 103, , Pd, 106, , Os, 194, , Ir, 192, , Pt, 195, , I, 127
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Periodic Properties, , “The properties of elements are a periodic function of their, atomic masses”. Sixty three elements were there at that time, Mendeleev concentrated on the compounds formed by, elements with oxygen and hydrogen he selected hydrogen, and oxygen as they are very reactive and formed compounds, with most elements., Mendeleev’s periodic table contains vertical columns called, groups and horizontal rows called periods. There were 7, periods and 8 groups in periodic table. Noble gases were not, known at that time. So, there was no group of noble gases., The elements in each group of the periodic table are similar to, one another in many properties. The similar properties of the, elements are repeated periodically., Merits of Mendeleev’s Classification, Mendeleev’s periodic law predicated the existence of some, elements that has not been discovered at that time., Could predict the properties of several elements on the, basis of their position in the periodic table., Could accommodate noble gases when they were, discovered., Limitations of Mendeleev’s Classification, The position of isotopes could not be explained., Wrong order of atomic masses of some elements could not, be explained., A correct position could not be assigned to hydrogen in the, periodic table., Advantages of the Modern Periodic Table over, Mendeleev’s Periodic Table, The modern periodic table is based on the most, fundamental property, the atomic number of elements,, while Mendeleev’s periodic table is based upon the atomic, mass of elements., In the modern periodic table, elements are arranged in, accordance with their electronic configuration. Elements, with the similar electronic configuration are placed in the, same group. Therefore, elements in a given group show, similar properties. Elements with different electronic, configurations are grouped separately, hence they show, different properties., Mendeleev’s periodic table does not provide any basis, for the similarity and the difference in properties of, elements., , II.C.29, , The modern periodic table gives a satisfactory explanation, about the chemical periodicity in the properties of, elements. The periodicity in properties arises due to, periodicity in electronic configurations of elements. Since, the electronic configuration of elements are repeated at, regular intervals, the properties of elements are bound to, do so., Mendeleev’s periodic table does not assign any reason for, the periodicity in properties of elements., In Mendeleev’s periodic table there are several anomalies,, e.g., the position of isotopes, wrong order of atomic masses, of some elements, etc. In the long form of the periodic, table, these anomalies have been removed., In the long form of the periodic table, elements have been, clearly separated as normal elements, transition elements, and noble gases. Metals and non-metals are also separated., But in Mendeleev’s periodic table there is no such, separation of different types of elements., In the modern periodic table the subgroups A and B of, Mendeleev’s periodic table are clearly separate but the, numbering of groups has been as 1, 2, 3, up to 18., Learn Tedious Modern Periodic Table Just in 10 Minutes., By Learning Following Seven Sentences:, H Headline, Little Best B C NOF Needs, Natural Magnetism Alarms Sin People Should Clear Arms, King CaSc TiV Cry Mnemonically Feel Country Nine, Cubic Zone “GaGe” As Seen Brave Kremlin, Rb Sri Yama Zero Number Mobike-Tc Run Right Pride, Against Cadmium; In Snow Sb Tea Insure Xenophobia, Cs Ban X Hf TaW Refused Oscar Irrelevant Platinum Gold;, Mercury, Telecasts Publicly Big Port At Rn, Front Radar # Reflects Double Segment Behind House, Master; DSO Registration Can Neither File Mercy Living, Test Orgy., , Modern periodic table has also been divided into four blocks; s,, p, d and f on the basis of the sub-shell in which the s-block, dblock and f-block contain metals, while p-block contains, metals, non-metals and semi-metals. In the periodic table, metals have been separated from non-metals by some elements, called metalloids. Elements having one valance electron are, placed in group 1 and having 2 valence electrons are placed in, group 2 and so on elements having 8 valence electrons are, placed in group 18.
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.C.32, , Modern Periodic Law: “Properties of elements are a periodic, function of their atomic number.”, , Trends in the Modern Periodic Table, Valency: No. of valence electrons present in the outermost, shells., , VALENCES (OXIDATION NUMBERS) OF A-GROUP ELEMENTS, , +1, H, , Atomic Size: Atomic size refers to radius of an atom., Atomic size or radius decreases in moving from left to right, along a period due to increase in nuclear charge, Atomic size increases down the group because new shells, are being added as we go down the group., The valance shells of all the noble gases are completely, filled with elements., Characteristics of Periods and groups, Valance Electrons: On moving from left to right in a period,, the number of valance electrons in elements increases from 1 to, 8 (in first period it increases from 1 to 2). All the elements of a, group of the periodic table have the same number of valance, electrons., , +2, Variable valancies, Can’t tell by looking at the table, Transition Metals, , 0, He, , +3, , ±4, , –3, , –2, , –1, , B, , C, , N, , O, , F, , Ne, , Al, , Si, , P, , S, , Cl, , Ar, , Li, , Be, , Na, , Mg, , K, , Ca, , Ga, , Ge, , As, , Se, , Br, , Kr, , Rb, , Sr, , In, , Sn, , Sb, , Te, , l, , Xe, , Cs, , Ba, , Tl, , Pb, , Bi, , Po, , At, , Rn, , Fr, , Ra, , gain, 2e–, , gain, 1e–, , lose, 1e–, , lose, 2e–, , Table: 4.1 Period, 11, 12, Na, Mg, 2, 8, 1, 2, 8, 2, , gain, lose, –, 3e– Lose or 3e, gain 4e–, Third Period, , 13, Al, 2, 8, 3, , Group Group –1, , 14, Si, 2, 8, 4, , Li, Na, K, , 15, P, 2, 8, 5, , 16, S, 2, 8, 6, , 17, Cl, 2, 8, 7, , Valency, , Na, , Mg, , Al, , Si, , P, , S, , Cl, , Ar, , 1, , 2, , 3, , 4, , 3, , 2, , 1, , 0, , - 2, 1, - 2, 8, 1, - 2, 8, 8, 1, , Table: 4.2 The valency increases from 1 to 4 and then decreases to 0 (zero), , Groups: All elements in a group have the same valency., 1A, H+, , 7A 8A, 2A, , 3A, , 4A, , Li+, , H–, , 5A, , 6A, , N3–, , O2–, , F–, , P3–, , S2–, , Cl–, , Se2–, , Br–, , Te2–, , I–, , Transition metals, Al3+, , Na+ Mg2+, +, , K+, , Ca2+, , Cr3+ Mn2+, +, , Rb+, , Cu+, Fe2+, 2+, Co2+ Ni2+, 2+ Zn, 3+, Cu, Fe, , Sr2+, , Cs+ Ba2+, , nada!, , Hg2+, , Ag+ Cd2+, , Sn2+, , Au+ Hg2+, Au3+ Hg2+, , Pb2+ Bi3+, , N, O, B, L, E, , G, A, S, E, S
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II.C.33, , Periodic Properties, Table: 4.3 Ions of Periodic Groups, Group/Name, , Characteristics of Ion, , Noble gas' electron configuration: Loses one electron to, Group, 1/Alkali Metals have a charge of +1., *Also applies to Hydrogen ( H+ ) even though it's not an, alkali metal., Group, 2/Alkaline, Earth Metals, , Noble gas' electron configuration: Loses two electrons to, have a charge of +2, , Oxides of metals are basic in nature while oxides of nonmetals are acidic in nature., Period: Metallic character decreases but non-metallic, increases, , Na Mg Al, Si, Metals, Metalloid, Gradation in Periodic Properties, Property, , Groups, Electron configuration with half-full or full d-orbital, 3-12/Transition A few transition metals form two ions, and it's best to just, Metals, know them: Copper ( C u + & Cu 2 + ) Iron ( F e 2 + & F e 3 + ),, Mercury ( H g + &, , H g 2+, , ), and Tin ( Sn, , 2+, , & Sn, , 4+, , Atomic size, , Variation, across, period, Decreases, , ), , A few transition metals have a specific ion despite the, number of valence electrons: Chromium, , ( Cr ) ,, 3+, , Nickel, , ( Ni ) , Silver (Ag ) , Zinc ( Zn ), 2+, , Group 13, , +, , 2+, , Increases, , Electron, affinity (Cl;, highest EA ), Electron, negativity, , Increases, , These elements often choose between losing and gaining, electrons to get to noble gas' electron configuration (they, can go either way), * Aluminum is an exception: Al 3 +, , Group 14, , Ionization, energy, (He; highest, IE), , These elements can lose a different number of electrons to, achieve stability, e.g.: Sn can lose 2 electrons to get a full s-orbital or 4, electrons to get to noble gas' electron configuration, * Lead can only be Pb 2 +, , Group 15, , Noble gas' electron configuration: Gains 3 electrons to, have a charge of –3, , Group 16, , Noble gas' electron configuration: Gains 2 electrons to, have a charge of –2, , Group, 17/Halogens, , Noble gas' electron configuration: Gains 1 electron to have, a charge of –1, , Metallic, character, , No ion due to existing stable electron configuration of 8, Group, 18/Noble gases valence-shell electron, , Metallic Character:, Metallic character means the tendency of an atom to lose, electrons;, Metallic character decreases across a period because the, effective nuclear charge increases that means the tendency, to lose electrons decreases., Metals are electropositive as they tend to lose electrons, while forming bonds., Metallic character increases as we go down a group as the, effective nuclear charge is decreasing. Non-metals are, electronegative. They tend to form bonds by gaining electrons., Metals are found on the left side of the period table while nonmetals are towards the right hand side of the periodic table., In the middle we have semi-metals or metalloid because, they exhibit some properties of both metals and non metals., , Non-metallic, character, , Chemical, reactivity, Nature, of oxides, , Reason, , Due to, increase in, nuclear, charge, With, increase in, atomic, number or, decrease in, atomic size., , Due to, atomic size, decreases., Increases, Increases, from left to, right along, with the, period., Decreases Due to, increase in, effective, nuclear, charge, tendency to, lose, valence, electron, decreases., Increases, Due to, increase in, effective, nuclear, charge, tendency to, gain, electrons, increases., From left to right first, decreases and then, increases., Left to right the basic, nature of oxides, decreases and the acidic, nature of oxides, increases., , PS Cl, Non - metal, Variation, along, group, Increases, , Reason, , Decreases, , Because the size, increases and, distance between, nucleus and, outer most, electron, increases., Due to atomic, radii increases., , Decreases, , Due to addition, of new shells, , Decreases, , From top to, bottom in a, given group., , Increases, , Due to, decreases in, effective, nuclear charge, tendency to, lose valence, electron, increases., , Decreases, , Due to decrease, in effective, nuclear charge, tendency to, gain electron, decreases., , In metals increases on going, down and in non-metals, decreases on going down., On going down in a group, there is no change in the, nature of oxides of elements., Metals are elector positive;, Non-metals are, electronegative.
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II.C.34, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , 2., , Law of Triad was proposed by, a. Newland, b. Gay Lussac, c. Mendeleev, d. Dobereiner, The period that contains only gaseous elements are, a. 1, b. 2, c. 3, d. 4, , 3., , The longest and the shortest periods are, a. 1 and 6, b. 2 and 6, c. 6 and 1, d. 1 and 7, , 4., , The numbers of elements present in the 2nd, 3rd, 4th and, 5th periods of the modern periodic table are, a. 2 ,8,8,18, b. 8,8,18,32, c. 8,8,18, 18, d. 8,18,18,32, , 5., , The pairs of elements with the following atomic numbers, have the same chemical properties, a. 13 and 12, b. 3 and 11, c. 4 and 24, d. 2 and 1, , 6., , Which amongst the following are called magic numbers?, a. 2,8,8,18, b. 2,8,8,32, c. 2,8,18,32, d. None of these, , 7., , Elements with atomic number 15 and mass number 31 is, present in, a. Group 5 and period 4, b. Group5 and period 3, c. Group15 and period 3, d. Group15 and period 4, , 8., , Element ‘X’ has 12 protons in its nucleus. To which, group of the periodic table it will belong, a. 1, b. 2, c. 6, d. 8, , 9., , An element has 12 neutrons in its nucleus. To which, group of the periodic table it will belong?, a. 1, b. 2, c. 6, d. Impossible to predict, , 10. Which of the following will form acidic oxide? An, element with atomic number, a. 7, b. 11, c. 21, d. 19, 11. Which amongst the following represents the correct order, of decreasing metallic character of elements Na, Si, Cl,, Mg, Al?, , a. Cl Si Al Mg Na, b. Na Mg Al Si Cl, c. Na Si Mg Al Cl, d. Al > Na > Si > Cl > Mg, 13. Where would you locate an element with electronic, configuration 2, 8, 7 in the modern periodic table?, a. Group 7 and period 2, b. Group7 and period 3, c. Group 17 and period 3, d. Group17 and period 3, 12. Which of the following are characteristics of isotopes of, an element?, (i) Isotopes of an element have same atomic masses, (ii) Isotopes of an element have same atomic number, (iii) Isotopes of an element show same physical properties, (iv) Isotopes of an element have same chemical properties, a. i, iii, iv, b. ii, iii, iv, c. ii and iii, d. ii and iv, 14. Which of the given elements A, B, C, D and E with, atomic numbers 2, 4, 8, 10 and 18 respectively belong to, the same period?, a. A, B, C, b. B, C, D, c. A, D, E, d. B, D, E, 15. Which of the following hydroxides are most basic?, a. Be OH 2, b. Mg OH 2, c. Ca OH 2, , d. Ba OH 2, , 16. Which of the following is the correct order of size?, a. I I I, b. I I I , c. I I I , d. I I I , 17. Which of the following is the correct order of size?, a. Cl F Br I, b. F C l Br I, c. I Br Cl F, 18. The lightest metal is, a. Li, c. K, , d. Br I Cl F, b. Na, d. Mg, , 19. Which of the following has most non metallic character?, a. N, b. C, c. O, d. F, 20. The most metallic element in the fourth period is:, a. Ca, b. K, c. S, d. P
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Periodic Properties, , 21. An element has 13 protons. The group and period to, which it belongs, a. 3rd period and 13th group, b. 2nd period and 13th group, c. 3rd period and 3rd group, d. 2nd period and 3rd group, 22. On moving horizontally across a period, the number of, electrons in the outermost shell increases from ___ to ___, a. 2, 8, b. 2, 18, c. 1, 8, d. 1, 18, 23. A liquid non-metal is ___________, a. Phosphorous, b. Mercury, c. Bromine, d. Nitrogen, 24. Lanthanides and actinides are also called ______, a. normal elements, b. transition elements, c. noble gases, d. inner transition elements, 25. Which of the following elements would lose an electron, easily?, a. K, b. Na, c. Ca, d. Mg, 26. The modern periodic table is given by _______, a. Mendeleev, b. Einstein, c. Bohr, d. Mosley, 27. Which of the following is not noble gas?, a. Helium, b. Xenon, c. Radium, d. Radon, 28. At the end of each period the valence shell is _______, a. incomplete, b. half filled, c. singly occupied, d. completely filled, 29. Which of the following elements would accept an electron, readily?, a. F, b. C, c. Br, d. I, 30. Element ‘A’ has electronic configuration 2, 7 ‘B’ has, configuration 2, 8, 6 ‘C’ has configuration 2, 8, 8 while, ‘D’ has 2, 8, 7. Which element will show similar chemical, properties?, a. A and D, b. A and C, c. B and D, d. B and C, 31. An element has configuration 2, 8, 1. It belongs to, _______, a. 1 group and 3rd period, b. 3 group and 1st period, c. 1 group and 8th period, d. 17 group and 3rd period, , II.C.35, , 32. Six elements A, B, C, D, E and F have the following, atomic numbers (A 12, B 17, C 18, D 7, E 9 and, , F 11). Among these elements, the element, which, belongs to the 3rd period and has the highest ionisation, potential, is, a. A, b. B, c. C, d. F, 33. The element with electronic configuration 2, 8, 6 is, a. Metallic with valency 2, b. Non-metallic with valency 2, c. Metalloid with valency 2, d. None of these, 34. Elements belonging to the same group have similar, properties because, a. They have similar electronic configuration of the, outermost shell, b. Their atomic numbers go on increasing as we move, down the group, c. All of them are metallic elements, d. None of the above, 35. Elements in a period have same, a. Number of valence electrons, b. Valency, c. Number of shells, d. Volume, 36. Most electropositive element is, a. H, b. Mg, c. Ca, d. Si, 37. Most electronegative element belongs to, a. Group 17, b. Group 18, c. Group 15, d. None of these, 38. Which one of the following has the smallest size?, a. Al, b. A l , 2, c. Al, d. Al 3, 39. The elements belongs to which group, representative elements, a. group 1 and 2, b. group 3 and 12, c. group 13 and 18, d. element lying at the bottom of periodic table, 40. The element with lowest IE1 is:, a. Sodium, b. Barium, c. Cesium, d. Magnesium, , called
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II.C.36, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 41. Which amongst the following element can from, amphoteric oxide?, a. Mg, b. N, c. C, d. Al, , 47. The element with highest electron affinity in the periodic, table is, a. Iodine, b. Chlorine, c. Fluorine, d. None of these, , 42. The elements of the group 16 are also called, a. Chalcogens, b. Halogens, c. Noble gases, d. Alkaline earth metals, 43. The element with atomic number 9 resembles with the, element having atomic number., a. 8, b. 36, c. 27, d. 17, , 48. The statement that is not true about electron affinity is, a. It causes energy to be released, b. It causes energy to be absorbed, c. It is expressed in electron volts, d. It involves formation of an anion, , 44., , The elements in the middle of the periodic table are, called, a. Metalloids, b. Rare earth elements, c. Transition elements, d. Noble gases, , 49. A factor that affects the ionisation potential of an, element is, a. atomic size, b. electron affinity, c. electronegativity, d. neutrons, 50. Which of the following properties generally decrease, along a period?, a. Ionisation energyb. Electron affinity, c. Metallic character, d. Valency, ANSWERS, 1., , 45. The general name of the elements of 17th group, a. Hydrides, b. Halogens, c. Noble gases, d. None of these, 46. Halogen is belongs to which group of the modern periodic, table?, a. s-block, b. p-block, c. d-block, d. f-block, , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , d, , a, , c, , b, , b, , c, , c, , b, , d, , a, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , b, , c, , b, , b, , d, , b, , b, , a, , d, , b, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , a, , c, , c, , d, , a, , d, , c, , d, , b, , a, , 31., , 32., , 33., , 34., , 35., , 36., , 37., , 38., , 39., , 40., , a, , c, , b, , a, , c, , c, , a, , d, , a, , c, , 41., , 42., , 43., , 44., , 45., , 46., , 47., , 48., , 49., , 50., , d, , a, , d, , c, , b, , b, , b, , b, , a, , c, ,
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Chemical Bonding, , II.C.37, , 5, , Chemical Bonding, , Chemical bonding occurs when one or more electrons are, simultaneously attracted to two nuclei., It is more useful to regard a chemical bond as an effect that, causes certain atoms to join together to form enduring, structures that have unique physical and chemical properties., So although the "chemical bond" is no more than a convenient, fiction, chemical bonding, which leads to the near-infinity of, substances (31 million in mid-2007), lies at the very core of, chemistry., The forces that hold bonded atoms together are basically just, the same kinds of electrostatic attractions that bind the, electrons of an atom to its positively-charged nucleus., Some atoms are very reluctant to combine with other atoms, and exist in the air around us as single atoms. These are the, Noble Gases and have very stable electron arrangements e.g. 2,, 2, 8 and 2, 8, 8 because their outer shells are full., , By the transfer of electron(s) from one atom to another., By the sharing of valence electrons between the two, combining atoms., There must be some kind of force which binds the atoms, together in a molecule. The attractive force which holds, together two atoms, two molecules, two ions or a combination, of these is known as a chemical bond., Electrovalent Bond, The chemical bond formed between two atoms by the transfer, of one or more valence electrons form one atom to the other is, known as an electrovalent or ionic bond. It is also called a, polar bond., , The phrase Chemical Bond refers to the strong electrical force, of attraction between the atoms or ions in the structure. The, combining power of an atom is sometimes referred to as its, valency and its value is linked to the number of outer electrons, of the original uncombined atom., Atomic Number (Electron Arrangement), Excitation can move, valence electron into, Empty shells, , He, , Ne, , Ar, , Helium (2) 2, , Neon (10) 2.8, , Ar (18) 2, 8, 8, , Figure: 5.1, , All other atoms therefore, bond together to become, electronically more stable, that is to become like Noble Gases, in electron arrangement. Bonding produces new substances and, usually involves only the 'outer shell' or 'valency' electrons and, atoms can bond in two ways., We know that an atom tends to attain stability by acquiring the, electronic configuration of its nearest noble gas. This can be, achieved in any one of the following manners during chemical, combination:, , Partially filled outer shell, (valence shell), Electron, Filled, K shell (max 2 electrons), L shell (max 8 electrons), M shell (max 18 electrons), , N shell, O shell, Nucleus, , Figure: 5.2 Simplified Orbital Model of a Many Electron Atom, , When different elements (different types of atom) react and, , combine to form a compound (new substance) chemical bonds, must be formed to keep the atoms together. Once these atoms, are joined together it’s usually difficult to separate them. The, atoms can join together by sharing electrons in what is known, as a covalent bond. Or, they can transfer or accept electrons to, form positive and negative ions and form an ionic bond.
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II.C.38, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Metals form another kind of bond in sharing electrons called a, , Negatively charged ions = Anions., , metallic bond., Types of Chemical Bonds, Ionic bond, , Covalent bond, , Figure: 5.4, , An element tends to gain or lose electrons, so they will have, the same number of electrons as a Noble gas to become more, stable. Ions formed by main-group elements are usually isoelectronic with, i.e., have the same number of electrons as—one of, the noble gases!, , Transfer of electron, Free electrons form outer, shell of metal atoms, , Sodium atom + chlorine atom react to form sodium chloride, (sodium ion + chloride ion), Slice through a NaCl, Cl, , Metal ions, , Cl, , Cl, , Cl, , .Ionic bonds form, Covalent bonds form, of atoms, electrons, when one atom takes Sharing, when, share, an electron from, electrons. Really, the, another atom., main difference is the, e.g.: NaCl is formed, electrons in ionic bonds, by an ionic bond, are more closely, where sodium donates, associated with one, its valence electron to, atomic nucleus or the, chlorine. Chlorine is a, other, which electrons, halogen. All halogens, in covalent bonds are, have 7 valence, about equally likely to, electrons and need one, orbit one nucleus as the, more to gain a stable, other. If the electron is, octet. Sodium is an, more closely associated, alkali metal. All alkali, with one atom than the, metals have 1 valence, other, a polar covalent, electron, which they, bond may form., readily donate to form, e.g.: Covalent bonds, a bond., form between, hydrogen and oxygen, in water, H 2 O., , –, , Ionic Bonding and Structures of Ionic Compounds:, Metals lose electrons from their valence shell, Positively charged ions = Cations., Non-metals gain electrons, adding electrons to their valence, shell., , +, , Cl, Na, , Cl, Na, , Metallic Bond, When the two atoms, both are metals, a, metallic bond forms., The difference in a, metal is that the, electrons could be, around any metal, atom, not just two, atoms in a compound., e.g.: Metallic bonds, are seen in samples of, pure elemental metals,, such as gold or, aluminum, or alloys,, such as brass or, bronze., , Cl, +, , –, , Cl, Na, , +, , Na, , Cl, Na, , Na, , Cl, Na, , +, , +, , –, , +, , -, , +, , –, , +, , –, , +, , Na, , Cl, Na, , –, , +, , –, , +, , –, , Cl, Na, , Cl, Na, , –, , +, , –, , +, , –, , Cl, Na, , Cl, , Na, , –, , +, , –, Na, , The two main types of chemical bonds are ionic and covalent, bonds, but you should be aware of several forms of bonding:, Covalent Bonds, , Cl, Na, , Figure: 5.3, , Table: 5.1, Ionic Bonds, , –, , +, , –, Na, , +, , Figure: 5.5, , Ionic Bond: An ionic bond is formed by one atom transferring, electrons to another atom to form oppositely charged particles, called ions which attract each other., An ion is an atom or group of atoms carrying an overall, positive or negative electric charge, The electric charge is shown as a superscript , , 2 , 2 or, , 3 etc., 2, , e.g.: Na ,Cl , Cu H2O ,SO42 etc., If a particle, as in a neutral atom, has equal numbers of, protons (+) and electrons (–) the overall particle charge is, zero i.e. no overall electric charge., The proton/atomic number in an atom do not change but the, number of associated electrons can., If negative electrons are lost the excess charge from the, protons produces an overall positive ion., If negative electrons are gained there is an excess of, negative charge, so a negative ion is formed., The charge on the ion is numerically related to the number, of electrons transferred i.e. electrons lost or gained.
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II.C.39, , Chemical Bonding, , For any atom or group of atoms, for every electron gained, you get a one unit increase in negative charge on the ion;, for every electron lost you get a one unit increase in the, positive charge on the ion., The atom losing electrons forms a positive ion (cation) and is, usually a metallic element., The atom gaining electrons forms a negative ion (anion), and is usually a non-metallic element., The ionic bond then consists of the attractive force between, the positive and negative ions in the structure. The ionic, bonding forces act in all directions around a particular ion,, it is not directional, as in the case of covalent bonding., The bonds between the ions is very strong and they club, together to form a giant ionic lattice with a very high, melting point because it takes a lot of energy to overcome, the attractive forces between the ions – the ionic bonds., When molten, or dissolved in water, ionic compounds will, conduct electricity because the charged particles (ions) are, free to move and carry the electric current., Covalent Bond, A covalent bond is formed by two atoms sharing electrons so, that the atoms combine to form molecules. The bond is usually, formed between two non-metallic elements in a molecule. The, two positive nuclei (due to the positive protons in them) of, both atoms are mutually attracted to the shared negative, electrons between them forming the covalent bond. They share, the electrons in a way that gives a stable Noble Gas electron, arrangement like helium (2) or neon (2.8) etc., This kind of bond or, electronic linkage does, No bonding, act in a particular, electron pairs, direction i.e. along the, δ−, O, 'line' between the two, 104.5, H, nuclei of the atoms, +, bonded together; this is δ, Bonding, why molecules have a, δ+, electron pair, particular shape., Figure: 5.6, Hydrogen and oxygen, atoms share electrons to give covalent O–H bonds to form, molecules of the covalent compound water which has a, 'bent' shape, Coordinate Covalent Bond: When one atom donates both, electrons to make the bond, , ⋅⋅, ⋅⋅, H+ + : F :− , →, H: F:, ⋅⋅, ⋅⋅, coordinate covalent bond, , Multiple Bonds: Single Bonds, Double Bonds, and Triple, Bonds – Covalent bonds can also be shown as a line to, represent the pair of electrons, ⋅⋅, ⋅⋅, :N ≡ N:, H−H, O=C=O, ⋅⋅, ⋅⋅, Single bond, bond, Triplebond, bond, single, triple, Double bond, double, bond, H −−H, , O == O N ≡≡ N, , Single bond, , Double bond, , Triple bond, , Figure: 5.7, , Single bond: The sharing of one pair of electrons by two, atoms ( H − H in H2 ), , Double bond: The sharing of two pairs of electrons by two, atoms ( O = O in O2 ), , Triple bond: The sharing of three pairs of electrons by two, atoms ( N ≡ N in N2 ), , Single bonds are the longest and weakest,, Double bonds are shorter and stronger than single bonds,, and, Triple bonds are the shortest and strongest., , Electronegativity (EN): Ability of an atom in a bond to attract, shared electrons to itself. F is the most electronegative element., Elements are less electronegative the farther away they are, from F. Except for H which has an EN between B and C. This, trend mainly applies to elements within the same group or, period., (a) Non-polar Covalent Bond: In some covalent bonds, both, atoms have equal electronegativity values. The two atoms, share the bonding electrons equally. Most common example is, between two identical atoms:, , H2 ,O2 , N2 ,Cl2 ,F2 ,I2 and, , Br2 . H −−H, Non-polar covalent bonds can also occur between different, atoms which have identical electro-negativity values. In some, covalent bonds, one of the two atoms attracts the bonding, electrons more strongly., A polar covalent bond results between the two atoms. The, bond is polar because it has two poles, a positive (+) end and a, negative (–) end., , (b) Polar Covalent Bond: Because the electrons spend more, time around F, they spend less time around H, F gets a partial
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II.C.40, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , negative charge (indicated with a ), and H gets partial, , , positive charge (indicated with a ):, , C F, , N O, , H B, , O C, , , , , , The shape of some of the most important covalent molecules:, Carbon dioxide CO2 is a Linear molecule, , , , , H F :, , , Ammonia NH3 is a trigonal pyramidal molecule, , Polar molecules will have an overall dipole which can be, represented with a dipole arrow (pointing to the more, electronegative end of the molecule). The quantitative measure, of a molecule’s polarity is called its dipole moment., Delta (δ) Notation for polar bonds:, Electrons concentrate around the more EN atom in a molecule, → Atom gains a partial negative charge, indicated with ., Since electrons spend less time around the other atom, → Other atom gains a partial positive charge, indicated with , , Methane CH4 is a tetrahedral molecule, , , , , :O: C :O:, , , : O : : C :: O :, , , H, , , , 109.5, , N, , , ., , O C O, 1163 pm, , Example:, Use delta notation to indicate which atom in each bond is more, electronegative, and then use a dipole arrow that points towards, the negative pole., , Planer, , H, H, , 107, , H, , Trigonal, , C, H, , H, , H, , Tetrahedral, , Figure: 5.8, , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , Which one of the following is not a strong bond?, a. van der Waals bond, b. Covalent bond, c. Metallic bond, d. Ionic bond, , 8., , 2., , Bond strength of secondary bonds is in the range of, a. 1 kJ/mol, b. 10 kJ/mol, c. 100 kJ/mol, d. 1000 kJ/mol, , 9., , 3., , Electron sea exists in, a. Polar bonds, c. Covalent bond, , b. Ionic bond, d. Metallic bond, , 4., , Noble gases exist as individual, a. Atoms, b. Molecules, c. Ions, d. Compounds, , 5., , Electrovalent compounds are usually, a. Solids with low melting points, b. Solids with high melting points, c. Volatile liquids, d. Organic compounds, , 6., , 7., , Which of the following can lose two electrons attain the, configuration of argon?, a. Mg, b. Br, c. S, d. Ca, Which of the following is non-polar molecule?, a. NH 3, b. H C l, c. CCl4, d. H 2 O, , Which amongst the following is a non-directional bond?, a. Covalent, b. Electro-covalent, c. Coordinate-covalent, d. None of these, , Which amongst the following has smallest size?, a. Na, b. Al, c. Na+, d. Al3+, 10. Which amongst the following has largest size?, a. C l –, b. Al, c. N a +, d. None, 11. Coordinate covalent compounds are formed by, a. Transfer of electrons, b. Sharing of electrons, c. Donation of electrons, d. None of these processes, 12. In the coordinate valency, a. Electrons are equally shared by the atoms, b. Electrons of one atom are shared with two atoms, c. Hydrogen bond is formed, d. None of the above, 13. Which of the following contains a coordinate covalent, bond?, a. N 2 O5, b. BaCl2, c. H C l, d. H 2 O, 14. A coordinate bond is formed when an atom in a molecule, has, a. Electric charge on it, b. All its valency electrons shared, c. A single unshared electron, d. One or more unshared electron pair
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Chemical Bonding, , 15. Which has a coordinate bond?, a. SO 32b. CH 4, c. CO 2, , II.C.41, , d. NH 3, , 16. The compound containing co-ordinate bond is, a. O3, b. SO3, c. H2SO4, d. All of these, 17. Which forms a crystal of NaCl ?, a. NaCl molecules, b. Na+ and C l – ions, c. Na and Cl atoms, d. None of the above, 18. When sodium and chlorine reacts then, a. Energy is released and ionic bond is formed, b. Energy is released and a covalent bond is formed, c. Energy is absorbed and ionic bond is formed, d. Energy is absorbed and covalent bond is formed, 19. Which one is least ionic in the following compounds?, a. AgCl, b. K C l, c. BaCl2, d. CaCl 2, 20. The electronic configuration of four elements L, P, Q and, R are given in brackets, L (1s 2 , 2s 2 2p 4 ), Q (1s 2 , 2s 2 2p 6 , 3s 2 3p 5 ) ,, P (1s 2 , 2s 2 2p 6 , 3s1 ),, R (1s 2 , 2s 2 2p 6 , 3s 2 )., , The formulae of ionic compounds that can be formed, between these elements are, a. L 2 P, RL, PQ and R 2 Q, b. LP, RL, PQ and RQ, c. P2 L, RL, PQ and RQ 2, d. LP, R 2 L, P2Q and RQ, 21. Electrovalent compound's, a. Melting points are low, b. Boiling points are low, c. Conduct current in fused state, d. Insoluble in polar solvent, 22. An electrovalent compound is made up of, a. Electrically charged molecules, b. Neutral molecules, c. Neutral atoms, d. Electrically charged atoms or group of atoms, 23. Electrovalent bond formation depends on, a. Ionisation energyb. Electron affinity, c. Lattice energy, d. All of these, 24. In the following which substance will have highest, boiling point, a. He, b. CsF, c. NH 3, d. CHCl3, , 25. An atom of sodium loses one electron and chlorine atom, accepts one electron. This results the formation of sodium, chloride molecule. This type of molecule will be, a. Coordinate, b. Covalent, c. Electrovalent, d. Metallic bond, 26. Formula of a metallic oxide is MO. The formula of its, phosphate will be:, a. M 2 (PO 4 ) 2, , b. M(PO 4 ), , c. M 2 PO 4, , d. M 3 (PO 4 ) 2, , 27. From the following which group of elements easily forms, cation?, a. F, Cl, Br, , b. Li, Na, K, , c. O, S, Se, , d. N, P, As, , 28. Which type of compounds show high melting and boiling, points?, a. Electrovalent compounds, b. Covalent compounds, c. Coordinate compounds, d. All the three types of compounds have equal melting, and boiling points, 29. Lattice energy of an ionic compound depends upon, a. Charge on the ion only, b. Size of the ion only, c. Packing of ions only, d. Charge on the ion and size of the ion, 30. The values of electronegativity of atoms A and B are 1.20, and 4.0 respectively. The percentage of ionic character of, A – B bond is:, a. 50 %, b. 43 %, c. 55.3 %, d. 72.24%, 31., , O 22 is the symbol of ________ ion, , a. Oxide, c. Peroxide, , b. Superoxide, d. Monoxide, , 32. The number of electrons that are paired in oxygen, molecule is:, a. 7, b. 8, c. 14, d. 16, 33. When N2 goes to N 2 , the N N bond distance _______, , and when O 2 goes to O 2 , the O O bond distance, _______, a. Decrease, increase, c. Increase, increase, , b. Increase, decrease, d. None of these
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II.C.42, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 34. Which of the following contains a coordinate covalent, bond?, a. N 2 H 5, b. BaCl2, c. HCl, , d. H 2 O, , 35. Which combination is best explained by the coordinate, covalent bond?, a. H + + H 2 O, b. Cl + Cl, , 1, c. Mg + O2, 2, , d. H2 + I2, , 36. Arrange the following compounds in order of increasing, dipole moment., (I) Toluene, (II) m-dichlorobenzene, (III) o-dichlorobenzene, (IV) p-dichlorobenzene, a. I IV II III, , c. IV I III II, , b. IV I II III, d. IV II I III, , 37. The correct order of dipole moment is, a. CH4 < NF3 < NH3 < H2O, b. NF3 < CH4 < NH3 < H2O, c. NH3 < NF3 < CH4 < H2O, d. H2O < NH3 < NF3 < CH4, 38. Which of the following has the highest dipole moment?, H CH3, H, |, |, C == O, b. C == C, a., H, |, |, CH3 H, , CH 3 H, |, |, c. C == C, |, |, CH 3 H, , Cl CH 3, |, |, d. C == C, |, |, CH 3 Cl, , 39. Which of the following arrangement of molecules is, correct on the basis of their dipole moments?, a. BF3 > NF3 > NH3, b. NF3 > BF3 > NH3, c. NH3 > BF3 > NF3, , d. NH3 > NF3 > BF3, , 40. The type of hybrid orbitals used by the chlorine atom in, ClO 2 is, a. sp, c. sp, , 3, , b. sp, , 2, , d. None of these, , 41. Among the following species, identify the iso-structural, pairs, NF3 , NO 3 , BF3 , H 3O , HN 3, , , 3, , a. [NF3 , NO ] and [BF3 , H 3 O ], b. [NF3 ,HN3 ] and [NO 3 , BF3 ], c. [NF3 , H 3O ] and [NO 3 , BF3 ], d. [NF3 , H 3O ] and [HN3 ,BF3 ], 42. In the compound CH 2 CH CH 2 CH 2 C CH, the, , C 2 C3 bond is of the type:, 2, , b. sp sp, , 3, , d. sp sp, , a. sp sp, c. sp sp, , 3, , 3, , 2, , 3, , 43. The correct order of increasing C O bond length of, CO, CO 23 , CO 2 is:, , a. CO 32 CO 2 CO, , b. CO 2 CO 32 CO, , c. CO CO 32 CO 2, , d. CO CO 2 CO 32 , , 44. In the dichromate dianion, a. 4Cr O bonds are equivalent, b. 6Cr O bonds are equivalent, c. All Cr O bonds are equivalent, d. All Cr O bonds are non-equivalent, 45. Bond length of ethane (I), ethene (II), acetylene (III) and, benzene (IV) follows the order, a. I > II > III > IV, b. I > II > IV > III, c. I > IV > II > III, d. III > IV > II > I, 46. Hybridisation state of chlorine in ClF3 is, a. sp3, , b. sp 3 d, , c. sp3d 2, , d. sp3d3, , 47. Molecular shapes of SF4 ,CF4 and XeF4 are, a. The same with 2, 0 and 1, respectively, b. The same, with 1, 1 and 1, respectively, c. Different, with 0, 1 and 2, respectively, d. Different, with 1, 0 and 2, respectively, , lone pairs of electrons, lone pairs of electrons, lone pairs of electrons, lone pairs of electrons, , 48. Structure of IF4 and hybridisation of iodine in this, , structure are, a. sp 3 d , Linear, b. sp3d 2 , T-shaped, c. sp 3 d , Irregular tetrahedral, d. sp3d 2 , Octahedral
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Chemical Bonding, , II.C.43, , 49. In which of the following the central atom does not use, , 54. A compound contains atoms X, Y, Z. The oxidation, , sp3 hybrid orbitals in its bonding, , number of X is +2, Y is + 5 and Z is 2 . Therefore, a, , a. BeF3, , b. OH 3, , possible formula of the compound is, , d. NF3, , a. XYZ2, , b. X 2 YZ3 2, , c. X3 YZ4 2, , d. X3 Y4Z2, , c. NH, , , 2, , 50. The magnetic moment of K 3 [Fe(CN) 6 ] is found to be 1.7, B.M. How many unpaired electron (s) is/are present per, molecule, a. 1, b. 2, c. 3, d. 4, , 55. Bonds present in CuSO4 .5H 2O is, a. Electrovalent and covalent, b. Electrovalent and coordinate, c. Electrovalent, covalent and coordinate, d. Covalent and coordinate, , 51. N2 and O2 are converted into monocations N 2 and O +2, , respectively. Which is wrong?, a. In N2, the N – N bond weakens, b. In O2, the O – O bond order increases, c. In O2, paramagnetism decreases, d. N 2 becomes diamagnetic, , ANSWERS, , –, , 52. The common features among the species CN ,CO and, , NO+ are, a. Bond order three and isoelectronic, b. Bond order three and weak field ligands, c. Bond order two and -acceptors, d. Isoelectronic and weak field ligands, 53. The number of S–S bonds in sulphur trioxide trimer S3O 9 is, a. Three, , b. Two, , c. One, , d. Zero, , 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , a, , b, , d, , a, , b, , d, , c, , b, , d, , 10., a, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , d, , a, , c, , a, , d, , a, , b, , a, , a, , c, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , c, , d, , c, , b, , c, , d, , b, , a, , d, , d, , 31., , 32., , 33., , 34., , 35., , 36., , 37., , 38., , 39., , 40., , c, , c, , c, , d, , a, , b, , a, , b, , d, , a, , 41., , 42., , 43., , 44., , 45., , 46., , 47., , 48., , 49., , 50., , b, , d, , c, , a, , a, , c, , d, , d, , b, , c, , 51., , 52., , 53., , 54., , 55., , d, , a, , d, , c, , c, ,
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II.C.44, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 6, , Chemical Reaction, , In chemical reaction new substance is formed which is, completely different in properties from the original substance,, so in a chemical reaction chemical change takes place., Following are the Signs of Chemical Reaction:, Change of state of substance, Change of colour of substance, Evolution of heat, Absorption of heat, Evolution of gas, Evolution of light, Evolution of sound, etc., , In the language of science a chemical reaction is a process, which transforms one or more substances into new substances., During chemical reactions, new substances with new properties, are formed., A chemical equation is a statement used in chemistry to, represent a chemical reaction., The substances which take part in a chemical reaction are, called reactants. The substances which are formed as a result, of chemical reactions are called products. For example,, the word equations for the reactions of activities 1 and 2, would be, Lead, nitrate + Potassium iodide Lead, iodide + Potassium nitrate, , , Reactants, , Products, , Magnesium + Oxygen , Magnesium oxide, , , , , , , Reactants, , Products, , The substances that undergo chemical change in the above, word equations are reactants. The new substances formed, during the reaction are the products., Characteristics of Chemical Reactions, As learnt above, the chemical reactions are indicated by the, following observations:, The chemical reactions take place by the change of state., The chemical reactions occur by change of colour., The chemical reactions occur with the evolution of gas and, The chemical reactions occur with evolution or absorption, of heat energy., Chemical Reaction: Whenever a chemical change occurs we, can say that a chemical reaction has taken place., , Example: Food gets digested in our body; Rusting of iron., A chemical reaction involves a chemical change in which certain, substances known as reactants interact to form some other, substances called products. A chemical reaction is generally, accompanied by absorption or evolution of heart energy., Slow Reactions, Those reactions which take place very slowly and come to, completion in a very long time are known as slow reactions., Rusting of iron is a typical example of slow reaction as it takes, place in several days. During rusting, iron is converted into its, hydrated oxide (Fe2O3. xH2O) and it is an oxidation process., Fermentation of cow-dung to form biogas requires about 2, weeks while fermentation of fruit juice is completed in 3–4, weeks and these are examples of slow reactions. Conversion of, graphite into diamond, wood into coal and also weathering of, rocks take place very slowly (thousands of years) and are, typical examples of slow reactions., Fast Reactions, Those reactions which take place very fast and come to, completion in a very small span of time are called fast, reactions. For example, when a clean magnesium wire is, heated in a Bunsen flame, it burns instantaneously with a flash., In this reaction, magnesium is oxidised in air to form, magnesium oxide., 2Mg(s)+ O 2 (g) , 2MgO(s), Magnesium, , Oxygen, , Magnesium Oxide, , Similarly, mixing of aqueous solutions of sodium hydroxide, and hydrochloric acid results in formation of sodium chloride, in microseconds., NaOH(aq)+ HCl(aq) , NaCl(aq)+ H 2 O(l), , Sodium hydroxide, , Hydrocloric acid, , Sodium chloride, , Water, , Besides precipitation and acid-base neutralisation reactions (i.e,, ionic reactions), detonation of explosive and nuclear reactions, (both nuclear fission and nuclear fusion) are also examples of, fast reactions, as these reactions take place within a millionth, of a second. The reactions that transmit nervous impulses and, those leading to contraction of muscles take place very rapidly., All these reactions are classified as fast reactions., Moderately Fast Reactions, The speed of very fast reactions as well as slow reactions, (mentioned above) cannot be determined. However, there are a
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Chemical Reaction, , II.C.45, , +, , H, C12 H 22 O11 +H 2 O , C 6 H 12 O 6 + C 6 H 12 O 6, Sucrose, , Glocose, , Fructose, , Endothermic and Exothermic Reactions:, Endothermic Reaction, , Let us learn as to how we can represent chemical reactions, Chemical equations use chemical formulas and other symbols, instead of wards to summarise a reaction., Reactant, , Energy of, products, Energy, absorted, , Activation, energy, Energy, , number of reactions which take place at moderate speed. These, reactions proceed at a speed in between fast and slow reactions., The speed of such reactions can be measured conveniently., These of reactions are known as moderately fast reactions., Conversion of sucrose into glucose and fructose represents a, moderately fast reaction, , Energy of, reactions, Direction of reaction, Exothermic Reaction, , Products, , CH 4 + 2O 2 CO 2 + 2H 2 O, "yields", , Formula, , Subscript, , Energy, , Symbol, , Reaction, , Product, , (What you start out with ), , (What you end with), , Energy released, Energy of, products, Direction of reaction, , Compare to reading a book L , pervious and post-relationship., , R on, , the story of the, , Chemical Equation: Representation of a chemical change, with the help of symbols and formulas., Example: Magnesium is burnt into air to form magnesium, oxide can be represented as, Mg + O 2 , MgO, , Figure: 6.1, , Exothermic Reactions: Reaction in which heat is released, along with the formation of products., For example; Respiration, Burning of fuel, De composition of, vegetable matter into compost and neutralising acid with base., , CH4 (g) +2O2 (g) , CO2 +2H2O(g), N2 + 3H2 , 2NH3 + Heat, , We can observe or recognise a chemical reaction by observing, change in state, colour, by evolution of gas or by change in, temperature., Physical state of the reactant and products are mentioned to, make chemical reaction more informative., Example: we use (g) for gas, (l) for liquid, (s) for solid and, (aq) for aqueous., , Endothermic Reactions: The reactions which require, energy in the form of heat, light or electricity are called, Endothermic Reactions, which is accompanied by, absorption of head energy., , Balancing Equation: We balance the chemical equation so, that no. of atoms of each element involved in the reaction, remains same at the reactant and product side., Example:, 2H 2 + O 2 ® 2H 2 O, , Decomposition Reactions: The reaction in which a single, substance decomposes to give two or more substances. De, composition reactions can be of three types. These reactions, may be represented as:, , Fe+H2O , Fe2O3 +H2, , Fe2O3(s) + 4H2(g), Can be written as: 3Fe(s) + 4H2O(g) , Combination Reaction: When two or more substances, (elements of compounds) combine to form a new single, substance., Example:, C + O 2 , CO 2, , O + H2O , Ca OH2 (aq) Milk of lime, , 2Ba(OH) 2 + NH 4 Cl , 2BaCl 2 + NH 4 OH, N2 + O2, , Heat, Heat + , 2 NO, , XY , X + Y, , When calcium carbonate is heated, it decomposes to give, calcium oxide and carbon dioxide., CaCO 3, , 2H 2 O, , Heat, , , , Electricity, , , , CaO + CO 2, , 2H 2 O 2, , Thermal Decomposition: When a decomposition reaction, is carried out by heating,, Heat, 2FeSO4(s) , Fe2O3(s) + SO2(g) + SO3(g), , Reddish brown colour, Green colour
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II.C.46, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Electrolytic Decomposition: When, reaction is carried out by electric current,, Electrical Current, H 2 O (l) , 2H 2(g) + O 2(g), , decomposition, , Oxidation Reduction Reaction: Process of addition of, oxygen or removal of hydrogen is oxidation while removal, of oxygen or addition of hydrogen is reduction., , ZnO + C , Zn + CO, Cl2 + H 2S , 2HCI + S, Reduction: Reduction is the loss of oxygen or gain of, hydrogen., , Hydrogen gas, Oxygen gas, , Oxygen, bubbles, , Hydrogen, bubbles, , Water, with, soluble, l, , External, source emf, , Reduction, Electron, , Oxidised donor, , e–, , e–, , Battery, Electron acceptor, , Reduced, acceptor, , Oxidation, Anode, , Cathode, , Figure: 6.3, , Figure: 6.2, , Photolytic Decomposition: When a decomposition reaction is, carried out by light, , Redox Reaction: The reaction in which one reactant gets, oxidised while other gets reduced., Oxidation, , Sunlight, 2AgCl (s) , 2Ag (s) Cl 2(g ), , Heat, CuO H2 , Cu H2 O, , Grey colour, White colour , , Reduction, , Displacement Reaction: The chemical reaction in which, an element displaces another element from its solution, in, which more reactive element displaces the less reactive, element from a compound., Example: Fe(s) + Cu SO 4 (aq) , FeSO 4 + Cu(s), , Corrosion: When a metal is attacked by substances around it, such as moisture, acids, etc. A process of deterioration of a, metal due to its reaction with most air is called corrosion;, Corrosion of iron is called rusting., 4Fe + 3O 2 + 2H 2 O , 2Fe 2 O 3 × H 2 O, Iron, , Double Displacement Reaction: The reaction in which, two different compounds react by mutual exchange of, metal atoms/ions is called double displacement reaction., Example:, , Ag NO 3 +, , Nacl , Agcl + NaNO 3, , Ag NO 3 + KI , AgI + KNO 3, , Na 2SO4 (aq) + BaCl2 (aq) , BaSO4 (s) + 2NaCl(aq), Sodium, Barium, Barium, Sodium, Sulphate, Chloride, Sulphate, Chloride, A white substance is formed due to above reaction. The, insoluble substance is called precipitate., Precipitation Reaction: Any reaction that produces a, precipitate is called a precipitation reaction., Example:, Pb NO 3 2 (aq) + 2KI(aq) , PbI 2 (aq) + 2KNO 3, , Lead, Nitrate, , Potassium, Iodide, , Lead, Iodide, , Potassium, Nitrate, , Oxygen, , Water, , Hydratedr ion (III) oxide (Rust), , Rust is oxide and hydroxide of iron., , Fe 2 O 3 × H 2 O - brown coloured , Prevention of Rusting, By painting its surface, By coating its surface by oil or grease, By galvanisation, Reddish brown coating on iron; black coating on silver., Rancidity: Unpleasant change in odour and taste of oily and, fatty foods by oxidation is called rancidity. Antioxidants are, added to foods containing fats and oil., Methods of Preventing Rancidity:, By the addition of antioxidants., By keeping food in air tight containers., By flushing bags of potato chips with an inert gas such as, nitrogen to prevent the chips from getting oxidised.
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II.C.47, , Chemical Reaction, , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , CuSO 4 + Zn , → Cu + ZnSO 4 . This reaction is an, , example of a, a. Combination reaction, b. Double displacement reaction, c. Decomposition reaction, d. Displacement reaction, 2., , 3., , What happens when dilute Sulphuric acid is added to Zn, granules?, a. Hydrogen gas and Zinc chloride are produced, b. Chlorine gas and Zinc hydroxide are produced., c. No reaction takes place., d. Zinc salt and water are produced., Translate the following statements into chemical, equations and then balance it. “Barium chloride reacts, with aluminium sulphate to give aluminium chloride and, a precipitate of barium sulphate.”, a. BaCl 2 + Al 2 ( SO 4 )3 , → AlCl3 + BaSO 4, , Which of the following equation is balanced?, , → CaO + CO 2, a. CaCO3 , , → NaNO2 + O2, b. NaNO3 , → H2O + O2, c. H 2 O 2 , d. None of these, 10. In the given equation “X” stands for:, 2Al + ( X ) H 2 SO 4 , → Al 2 ( SO 4 )3 + 3H 2, , a. 2, b. 1, c. 3, d. 5, 11. The reaction in which two compounds exchange their, ions to form two new compounds is called, a. a displacement reaction, b. a decomposition reaction, c. an isomerisation reaction, d. a metathesis reaction, 12. Which of the statements about the reaction below are, incorrect?, , b. 3BaCl 2 + Al 2 ( SO 4 )3 , → 2AlCl3 + 3BaSO 4, , Fe2 O3 (s) + 3CO(g) , → 2Fe(s) + 3CO2 (g), , c. BaCl2 + AlSO4 , → AlCl 2 + BaSO4, , (i) Iron is getting reduced, (ii) Carbon dioxide is getting oxidised, (iii) Carbon monoxide is getting oxidised, (iv) Iron oxide is getting reduced, a. (i) and (ii), b. (i) and (iii), c. (iii) and (iv), d. All of these, , d. BaCl 2 + Al ( SO 4 )3 , → AlCl3 + Ba ( SO 4 )3, 4., , 9., , A precipitate formed in a reaction is shown by, a. Downward arrow (↓), , b. Upward arrow (↑), , c. Sideways arrow (→ ), , d. None of these, , Identify the type of reaction in each case., Zinc carbonate(s) → Zinc oxide(s) + Carbon dioxide (g), , 13. What type of reaction is respiration?, a. Exothermic, b. Endothermic, c. Reduction reaction, d. Combination reaction, , → Hydrogen chloride(g), Hydrogen(g) + Chlorine(g) , a. Combination, Decomposition, b. Double displacement, Combination, c. Decomposition, Combination, d. Displacement, Decomposition, , 14. Which of the following reactions are exothermic in, nature?, a. Combustion of carbon, b. Bond breaking, c. Bond formation, d. Both (a.) and (c.), , 6., , The balancing of chemical equations is in accordance, with:, a. Law of combining volumes, b. Law of constant proportions, c. Law of conservation of mass, d. Both (b) and (c), , 15. Which of the following changes is not a physical change?, a. Glowing of filament in bulb, b. Combustion, c. Boiling of water, d. Sublimation, 16. Identify the substances that are oxidised and the, substances that are reduced in the following reaction, , 7., , Decomposing a substance by using electricity is, a. Electrolysis, b. Hydrolysis, c. Decomposition, d. None of these, Decomposing reactions are used to, a. Prepare oxide, b. Extract metals, c. Both (a) and (b), d. None of these, , 5., , 8., , CuO(s) + H 2 (g) , → Cu(s) + H 2 O(ℓ), a. Cu is oxidised, H2O is reduced, b. CuO is oxidised, H2O is reduced, c. H2 is oxidised, CuO is reduced, d. H2 is oxidised, H2O is reduced
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II.C.48, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 17. A solution of a substance ‘X’ is used for white washing., Name the substance ‘X’ and write its formula, a. Lime stone, CaCO 3, b. Lime, CaCO 3, c. Calcium oxide, CaO, d. Calcium carbonate, CaCO 3, 18. Write the balanced reaction of Calcium oxide with water, and state what type of reaction is this, a. CaO + H 2 O CaOH + H 2 , displacement, b. CaO H 2 O Ca OH 2 , combination, c. CaO H 2 O Ca OH 2 , decomposition, , 26. Which of the following metals can prevent the corrosion, of tin?, a. Zn, b. Cu, c. Pb, d. Ag, 27. The equation, Cu XHNO 3 , Cu NO 3 2 YNO 2 2H 2 O, the, , value of X and Y are, a. 3 and 1 respectively, c. 4 and 2 respectively, , 28. When magnesium is burnt in air, a white ash remains as, left over. What is this?, a. MgO 2, b. MgO, , d. CaO H 2 O CaOH, combination, 19. Which of the following is not a decomposition reaction?, , CaO CO2, a. CaCO3 , , c. Mg, , d. Mg 3O, , 29. When the gases sulphur dioxide and hydrogen sulphide, mix in the presence of water, the reaction, , 2HCl, b. H2 Cl2 , , SO2 2H 2S , 2H 2O 3S occurs. Here hydrogen, , H 2 O CO2, c. H 2 CO3 , , sulphide is acting as, a. An oxidising agent, c. a dehydrating agent, , 2KCl 3O2, d. 2KClO3 , 20. Which of the following is not an oxidising agent?, a. Oxygen, b. Conc. sulphuric acid, c. Chlorine, d. Hydrogen, 21. The oxidation reaction which produces heat and light is, a. endothermic, b. photochemical, c. combustion, d. exothermic, 22. The valency of a phosphate ion is, a. –1, b. –2, c. +3, d. –3, 23., , b. 8 and 6 respectively, d. 7 and 1 respectively, , 2Pb NO 3 2 , 2PbO nA O 2 What is nA in the, , given reaction?, a. 4 N O, , b. 2NO 2, , c. 2PbNO 2, , d. NO 2, , 24. A slow combustion in which glucose present in the body, cells combine with oxygen to provide energy is, a. digestion, b. excretion, c. respiration, d. None of the above, 25. Which of the following statement is incorrect?, a. Metals like Cu, Ag, Au cannot displace H from acids, b. In reactivity series metals are arranged in order of, increasing reactivity, c. Silver cannot displace Cu form Cu NO 3 2, d. Zinc displaces Cu from CuSO 4, , 30., , b. a reducing agent, d. a catalyst, , alkalineKMnO 4 Heat, CH 3 CH 2 OH , CH3 COOH,, , In the above reaction, alkaline KMnO4 acts as, a. Reducing agent, b. Oxidising agent, c. Catalyst, d. Dehydrating agent, 31. What is the chemical name of quick lime?, a. Calcium oxide, b. Calcium carbonate, c. Calcium hydroxide, d. Carbon dioxide, 32. The formula of silver phosphate is, a. AgPO 4, b. Ag 2 PO 4, c. Ag2 PO4 3, , d. Ag 3 PO 4, , 33. Which of the following reaction will not take place?, , ZnSO4 Fe, a. Zn FeSO4 , 2KCl I 2, b. 2Kl Cl2 , ZnSO4 Mg, c. Zn MgSO4 , MgSO4 Cu, d. Mg CuSO4 , 2FeCl3 ,, 34. In the reaction, 2FeCl2 Cl2 , Chlorine may be regarded as, a. an oxidising agent, b. a reducing agent, c. a catalyst, d. providing an inert medium
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Chemical Reaction, , II.C.49, , 35. The conversion of K 2 Cr2 O 7 into Cr2 SO 4 3 is a process of, a. Oxidation, c. Decomposition, , 42. Select Redox reaction from the following:, , ZnSO4 Cu, a. Zn+CuSO4 , , b. Reduction, d. Substitution, , CaCl2 H2 O, b. CaO 2HCl , NaCl2 H 2 O, c. NaOH 2HCl , , 36. The process of reduction involves, a. Removal of hydrogen, b. Gain of electrons, c. Addition of oxygen, d. Loss of electrons, , CaO CO2, d. CaCO3 , , 37. An element, which never has a positive oxidation state in, any of its compounds, is:, a. Boron, b. Oxygen, c. Chlorine, d. Fluorine, , 43. The reaction in which addition and removal of oxygen, takes place simultaneously, then the reaction is:, a. Oxidation, b. Reduction, c. Redox, d. None of these, 44. Consider the reactions, , CuSO4 Fe , FeSO4 Cu, , 38. Amino acid is formed by decomposition of which, component of our diet?, a. Carbohydrate, b. Starch, c. Protein, d. Fat, 39. Which of the following statement is correct about the, given reaction?, , AB C , AC B, a. B is more reactive than C, b. C is more reactive than B, c. B and A are non-metals, inert gases, d. A is a metallic ion, 40. When Zn changes to Zn 2 it, a. Loses 2 electrons, b. Loses 1 electron, c. Gains 1 electron, d. Gains 2 electrons, 41. Loss of electrons is called _________, a. reduction, b. oxidation, c. can be oxidation or reduction, d. None of these, , FeSO4 Zn , ZnSO4 Fe, a. Zn is most reactive, Fe is least reactive, b. Fe is most reactive and Cu is least reactive, c. Zn is most reactive and Cu is least reactive, d. Cu is most reactive, Fe is least reactive, 45. Pick the odd one out, a. Digestion of food, b. Formation of HCl from its component, c. Burning a piece of carbon in oxygen, d. Combustion of sulphur, ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , d, , a, , b, , a, , c, , d, , a, , b, , a, , c, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , d, , c, , a, , d, , b, , c, , c, , b, , b, , d, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , c, , b, , b, , c, , b, , a, , c, , b, , b, , c, , 31., , 32., , 33., , 34., , 35., , 36., , 37., , 38., , 39., , 40., , b, , d, , c, , b, , a, , a, , d, , c, , a, , b, , 41., , 42., , 43., , 44., , 45., , b, , a, , c, , c, , a, , , , 10.
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.C.50, , 7, , Carbon and its Compounds, , Carbon is an element which is of immense significance to us in, both its elemental form and in the combined form, Importance, of carbon compounds in our daily life is:, Foods, [starch, sugar, fats, vitamins, proteins], [wood, coal, alcohol, petrol], , Fuels, , The different fraction of the petroleum are; Petrol/gasoline, , (C7 − C12 ) used in motor fuel; kerosene (C12 − C15 ) used as fuel, in jet engines, for domestic purpose and diesel oil, , (C15 − C18 ) used in diesel engine. Atmosphere has 0.03% of, Carbon dioxide. All living structures are carbon based., , Household and commercial articles [paper, soap, cosmetics,, oils, paints], Textile fabrics [cotton, wool, silk, linen, rayon, nylon], Drugs and disinfectants [penicillin, quinine, aspirin, sulpha, drugs], Poisons, , [opium, strychnine], , Perfumes, , [vanillin, camphor], , Explosives [nitroglycerine, dynamite, picric acid, TNT], Dyes [indigo, congo red, malachite green], , 6 electron, Single, , Carbon atom, 6, neutron, All bond angles 109.5, Figure : 7.1, , Carbon is the 4th most abundant substance in universe and 15th, most abundant substance in the earth’s crust. Compounds, having carbon atoms among the components are known as, carbon compounds. Previously, carbon compounds could only, be obtained from a living source; hence they are also known as, organic compounds. Carbon is a versatile element. In earth’s, crust, carbon is 0.02% and found in form of minerals (like, limestone, coal and petroleum). Petroleum in its crude form, cannot be used as such. Therefore it is separated into its, constituent fractions for their proper utilisation by the process, known as fractional distillation., , Covalent Bond in Carbon, The atomic number of carbon is 6 and its electronic, configuration is 2, 4 to attain a noble gas configuration it can, gain 4 electrons but it would be difficult for nucleus to hold 4, extra electrons or lose 4 electrons. But it would require a large, amount of energy to remove 4 electrons., It is difficult thus for an atom of carbon to either gain or, lose electrons., Carbon attains the noble gas configuration by sharing its, valence electrons with other atoms. Atoms of other, elements like hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, chlorine also, show sharing of valence electrons., It is evident that the number of shared pair of electrons can, be one, two or three. Try making the structures of H 2 O and, , CH 4 ., Bond formed by the sharing of an electron pair between, two atoms is called covalent bond., Covalent compound can exist as solid, liquid or gases., They are generally soluble in benzene, petrol, etc and, insoluble in water., Covalently bonded molecules have low melting and boiling, points because of comparatively weaker intermolecular, forces, unlike ionic compounds., These molecules are generally poor conductor of electricity, since no charged particles are formed., Allotropy is a phenomenon in which the element exists in two, or more different physical states having similar chemical, properties., Diamond, , Graphite, , Buckminsterfuller, ene
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Carbon and its Compounds, , II.C.51, , Allotropic forms of carbon, , Saturated Carbon Compounds: The carbon compounds,, which all carbon atoms are bonded with other atoms through, single covalent bond only are called saturated carbon, , Crystalline, Diamond, , Non-crystalline/amorphous, , Grap, -hite, , Buckminister, fullerene, , DiamondColourless,, transparent; hardest, , Regular tetrahedral, arrangement, due to, the bonding of each, atom of carbon with 4, other carbon atoms,, forming a single unit, of crystal., , Good conductor of, heat and bad, conductor of, electricity, High refractive index, of 2.5, Insoluble in common, solvents, 3, , Charco, al, , Coke, , Lampblack, , Gas, carbon, , Graphite, Dark grey; soft, solid, , Fullerene (C60), Brown or black; powder, , Each carbon, atom is bonded, covalently to 3, other carbon, atoms resulting, in the, arrangement of, hexagonal rings, in a single plane., Good conductor, of heat and, electricity., , Large spherical carbon, cage molecules, it is, originated from the, structure that resembled, the geodesic dome, structures designed by, the American architect, Robert Buckminster, Fuller., Super conductor when it, forms compounds with, noble gases., , It is opaque, , Refractive index is 2.2, , Insoluble in, common solvents, , Soluble in common, solvents; benzene, toluene, or chloroform, Density is 1.65 g/cm3, , Density is 3.5 g/cm, , Density is 2.25, g/cm3, , Melting point =, 3700oC, Used in making, jewellery, cutting, glass, deep boring, drills., , Melting point =, 3600oC, Used as lubricant,, leads of pencils,, nuclear reactors as, moderator., , Melting point = 527oC, Used as insulators, industrial, catalysts and radioactive, fullerenes used in cancer and, AIDS therapy., , Versatile Nature of Carbon Atoms: Two important, properties of carbon atom enable carbon to form enormously, large number of compounds., Catenation: Property of carbon atom to form bond with other, atoms of carbon is called catenation. Like carbon, silicon forms, compounds with hydrogen up to seven or eight atoms of silicon., H, C, H, 1, , R, , R, , These compounds are also called as Alkane., Unsaturated Carbon Compounds: The carbon compounds in, which any two carbon atoms are bonded with double or triple, bond are called saturated carbon compounds., They may be of two type (1) Alkenes and (2) Alkynes:, The compounds of carbon having double bond between, carbon atoms are called Alkenes., , CH 2 = CH 2 ,CH3 − CH 2 − CH = CH 2, The carbon compounds having triple bond between carbon, atoms are called Alkynes., General Molecular Formula of:, Alkane, –, Cn H2n +2, Alkene, , –, , C n H 2n, , Alkyne, , –, , Cn H2n −2, , Homologous Series, It is defined as the series of similar types of compounds in which, the members shows similar chemical characters and two, constructive members are differ by one –CH2 group in their, molecular formula. All members of Homologous series have some, functional group and may be represented by same general formula., Example: Homologues series of Alkane and Alkene, Alkane, Alkene, , CH 4, , C2H 4, , C2H 6, , C3H 6, , C3H 8, , C4H8, , C 4 H10, , C5 H10, , C5 H12, , 2, , C === C, R2, Cn H 2n +2, , H, H, , compound. CH3 − CH3 ,C3H8 , etc, , H −− C ≡≡ C −− H, , R3, Cn H 2n, , Cn H 2n −2, , Tetravalency: Having a valency of 4, carbon atom is capable, of bonding with atoms of oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen, sulphur,, chlorine and other elements. The smaller size of carbon atom, enables nucleus to hold the shared pair of electrons strongly,, thus carbon compounds are very stable in general., , Nomenclature of organic compounds:, Common Names/Trivial names, IUPAC Names: IUPAC name of an organic compound, may be divided into following parts:, Prefix + Word Root + Suffix, Word root tells us about no. of carbon atoms., Prefix shows about position and name of substituent., Primary suffix shows type of bonding between carbon atoms., Secondary suffix shows about the functional group.
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.C.52, , Heteroatom and Functional Group: In hydrocarbon chain,, one or more hydrogen atoms can be replaced by other atoms in, accordance with their valencies. The element that replaces, hydrogen is called a heteroatom., These heteroatoms and the group containing them impart, chemical properties to the organic compound and hence are, called functional groups., Table 7.1, Functional Group, , Oxidation, During combustion of carbon compounds, they are oxidised, into CO 2 , and water, Carbon compounds also oxidised in, presence of oxidising agent., AlKaline K MnO4, CH2 = CH2 + H2O + O , → CH2OH − CH2OH, Heat, , Addition Reactions: Unsaturated hydrocarbon shows addition, reaction in presence of catalysts:, Example: CH 2 = CH2 + H2, Ethene, , Suffix, , Alkene, , ene, , Alkyne, , yne, , Alcohol, , ol, , Aldehyde, , al, , Ketone, , one, , Carboxylic acid, , oic acid, , Halogen, , CH3−, , Ni / pt , → CH3, , Prefix, , Ethane, , CH ≡ CH + H 2 Catalyst → CH 2 = CH 2 + H 2 → CH 3 − CH 3, Catalyst, , Substitution Reaction: Most of the saturated hydrocarbon, reacts with chlorine or bromine in presence of light to form, substituted products:, Cl → chloro; Br → bromo, , Polymerisation is a process in which low molecular compounds, (monomers) combine with one another by means of covalent, bonds to form a new substance (polymer) with high molecular, mass. Ethene on polymerisation at 200oC and 2000 atmosphere, forms polythene., Table 7.2 Polymers and name of monomers., Polythene, Poly, Teflon, Polymers, vinyl, chloride, PVC, Ethene, Vinyl, Tetraflu, Name, chloride, oro, of, ethane, the, monomer, , Nylon, , Terylene, , Straight chain isomer, , Adipic, acid and, hexamet, hylenedi, amine, , H, |, H −−C −−C, |, |, H H, , Terephth, alic acid, and, ethylene, glycol, , C, C, , H, H, H, H, H, H, , Branched isomer of butane, , Some Chemical Properties of Carbon Compounds, Combustion:, Carbon in its all allotropic forms burns in air or oxygen to give, , CO 2 gas with heat and light., C + O 2 , → CO 2 + Heat and light, , Alcohol: Methanol – CH3OH, Ethanol, Propanol, C2 H5 OH, 1 , → C2 H7 OH, , Properties of Ethanol (Ethyl alcohol), C2 H 5OH, It is colourless liquid with burning taste., Lighter than water, miscible with water., Ethanol react with sodium (active metals) to form hydrogen, gas:, , 2C2 H5OH, , Structural Isomers: These are the compounds having, identical molecular formula but different structures. For, example isomers of butane., , H H H H H, |, |, |, |, |, H −−C −−C −−C −−C −−C −−H, |, |, |, |, |, H H H H H, , Sun Light, CH 4 + Cl2 , → CH3Cl + HCl, , Ethanol, Hydrogen, , +, , 2Na, Sodium, , →, , 2C2 H5ONa, , +, , H2, , Sodium ethoxide, , Alcohols burns in air to give CO 2 and water with heat, C 2 H 5 OH + 3O 2 , → 2CO 2 + 3H 2 O + Heat, , With con. H2SO2 : On heating with sulphuric acid it gives, ethene., C 2 H 5 OH {Con.H 2SO 4 } , → CH 2 = CH 2 + H 2 O, , Carboxylic acids (---COOH):, Methanoic acid, H—COOH, also called formic acid;, Ethanoic acid, CH---COOH, also called acetic acid., Esterification:, Carboxylic acids react with alcohols in presence of few, drops of concentrated sulphuric acid as catalyst and form, sweet smelling compounds called ester., With ethanoic acid in presence of con. H2SO4 it gives an, ester (ethyl ethanoate), Con. H 2SO4, C2 H5OH + CH3COOH →, CH3COOC2 H5 + H 2O
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II.C.53, , Carbon and its Compounds, , Ethanoic Acid/Acetic Acid (– CH3COOH) :, Properties:, It is colourless liquid with vinegar odour and sour in taste., It turns blue litmus to red., It gives hydrogen with active metals., With carbonates and bicarbonates they produce CO 2 gas, , Detergents: Synthetic detergent is the sodium salt of long, chain benzene sulphonic acid or the sodium salt of a long chain, alkyl hydrogen sulphate. Detergent molecule has long tail of, hydrocarbon (non ionic) and an ionic head., −, , +, , SO 3 N a, , 2CH 3COOH + Na 2 CO 3 , → 2CH 3 COONa + CO 2 + H 2 O, , It reacts with alcohol in presence of con. H2SO4 to give, ester., , Hydrolysis: On heating with an acid or a base the ester forms, back the original alcohol and carboxylic acid., , Advantages of Synthetic Detergents Over Soap:, Detergent can be used with hard water., They can be used in acidic medium., They have strong cleaning action., More soluble in water., , CH3COO CH2CH3 + NaOH , → CH3COONa + CH3 -CH2OH, Diluted H 2SO 4, CH 3COO CH 2 CH 3 , → CH 3COOH + CH 3 − CH 2 OH, Heat, , Alkaline hydrolysis of ester is also called Saponification., , Soap: Soap are sodium or potassium salt of long chain fatty acids., e.g. Sodium stearate, sodium oleate, A soap molecule has a large, non-ionic hydrocarbon chain (tail) and an ionic head., − +, , CO O N a, Soap Molecule:, Preparation of Soap: Soap can be prepared by heating oil or, fat with concentrated caustic soda solution. In this process, glycerol is also formed., , Cleansing Action of Soap and Detergents:, Mainly the dirt is held on the cloth by the oil or grease, which is not soluble in water., The hydrophobic end attaches itself with dirt, while the, ionic end is surrounded with molecules of water. This result, in formation of a radial structure called micelles., When soap is applied on the dirt, the non polar part of soap, dissolves in oil droplets where as polar part remains in, water., Each droplet is surrounded by negative charges. During, washing the dirt with oil is washed away with water and cloth, become clean., , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , Which of the following is not obtained on fractional, distillation of petroleum?, a. Paraffin wax, b. Asphalt, c. Coal gas, d. Petroleum gas, , 6., , An allotropic form of carbon used for cutting and, drilling is, a. Charcoal, b. Bone charcoal, c. Graphite, d. Diamond, , 2., , The fractional distillation of coal tar yields, a. Carbon disulphide, b. Carbon tetrachloride, c. Kerosene oil, d. Benzene, , 7., , The allotrope of carbon which is a good conductor of heat, and electricity is, a. Sugar charcoal, b. Wood charcoal, c. Diamond, d. Graphite, , 3., , When steam is passed over hot coke, it produces, a. Producer gas, b. Synthesis gas, c. Tear gas, d. Coal gas, , 8., , The allotrope of carbon used in nuclear reactor is, a. Diamond, b. Graphite, c. Coke, d. None of these, , 4., , Which of the following contains methane, hydrogen and, carbon dioxide?, a. Producer gas, b. Water gas, c. Coal gas, d. Biogas, Buckminster fullerene is an example of _______ carbon, a. an isomer, b. an isotope, c. an allotrope, d. a functional group, , 9., , Crystalline form of carbon having 60 carbon atoms joined, together, a. Polymer, b. Buckminster fullerene, c. Coal, d. Diamond, , 5., , 10. The carbon atoms in diamond are bonded to each other by, a. Ionic bond, b. Coordinate bond, c. Hydrogen bonds, d. Covalent bonds
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.C.54, , 11. In the hydrocarbon H C ≡ C − H , the covalency of carbon, is:, a. One, , b. Two, , c. Three, , d. Four, , 12. A hydrocarbon is:, a. A compound containing carbon, hydrogen and oxygen, b. Sodium hydrogen carbonate, c. A compound containing carbon and hydrogen only, d. A derivative of benzene, 13. A hydrocarbon contains carbon and hydrogen in the molar, ratio of 1:15, the correct molecular formula of the, compound is:, a. C 2 HO 3, , b. Methanol, d. Rectified spirit, , 22. When ethanol is heated with conc. H2SO4, a gas is, produced. Which of the following compound is formed, when this gas treated with bromine in C C l 4 ? [Hint: The, reddish brown colour of the bromine is discharged in the, above reaction to form the products], a. Bromomethane, b. 1,2-dibromoethane, c. Bromoethane, d. 1, 1, 2, 2- tetrabromoethane, , 23. Lower member of alcohols are, a. Weakly acid, b. Fairly soluble in water, c. Having alcoholic smell, d. All of these, , b. C 4 H 6, c. CH 3, d. Impossible to predict from the given data, 14. Unsaturated hydrocarbon, a. Contains six carbon atoms, b. Contains excess hydrogen, c. Contains fewer hydrogen atoms than is needed for, carbon to have its usual valency of four, d. Contains a chain of carbon atom, 15. Breaking of higher hydrocarbon into lower one by heat is, called, a. Neutralisation, b. Polymerisation, c. Cracking, d. Acetylating, 16. Given: Propane, Acetylene, Butane, Butanol, Propene,, Ethane, and Ethene. How many of these compounds are, unsaturated?, a. 4, b. 5, c. 6, d. 7, 17. The first organic substance ever prepared in the laboratory, from inorganic compound is:, a. Urea, b. Ethyl alcohol, c. Methane, d. Ethane, 18. A functional group mainly determines the, a. Physical properties, b. Chemical properties, c. Both, d. None of these, 19. 100% pure ethanol is called, a. Rectified spirit, b. Absolute alcohol, c. Denatured alcohol, d. Power alcohol, 20. Rectified spirit is, a. 100% ethanol, c. 100% methanol, , 21. Tonics in general contain, a. Ether, c. Ethanol, , b. 90% ethanol, d. 95% ethanol, , 24. Carboxylic acid containing one carbon atom is, a. Formic acid, b. Acetic acid, c. Citric acid, d. Vinegar, 25. When carboxylic acid is treated with NaHCO3 brisk, effervescence is seen due to the evolution of, a. C O, , b. CO 3 −2, , c. HCO 3 −, , d. CO 2, , 26. The odour of acetic acid resembles that of, a. Tomato, b. Kerosene, c. Vinegar, d. Lemon juice, 27. Lucas test is used to determine the following functional, group, a. Alcohols, b. Acids, c. Amines, d. Carbohydrates, 28. Towards litmus solution alcohols are, a. Acidic, b. Basic, c. Neutral, d. Amphoteric, 29. Sodium carbonate solution is added to dilute ethanoic, acid. It is observed that, a. A gas evolves, b. A solid settles at the bottom, c. The mixture becomes warm, d. The colour of the mixture, 30. 2 ml of acetic acid is added to 5 ml of water and was, shaken up for 1 minute, it was noticed that, a. The acid formed a separate layer on the top of water, b. Water formed a separate layer on the top of the acid, c. A clear and homogeneous solution is formed, d. A pink and clear solution is formed
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II.C.55, , Carbon and its Compounds, , 31. On adding NaHCO3 to acetic acid, a gas is evolved which, turns lime water milky due to the formation of, a. Calcium carbonate, b. Calcium hydroxide, c. Calcium bicarbonate, d. Calcium acetate, 32. Which among the following contains triple bond?, a. C 2 H 4, , b. C 2 H 2, , c. C 3 H 4, , d. C 2 H 6, , 33. The maximum number of covalent bonds is, a. Ethane, b. Methane c. Ethyne, d. Ethene, 34. The number of covalent bonds in C5H12 is:, a. 15, b. 16, c. 17, d. 18, , 43. The reaction of one mole of bromine with ethyne yields, a. BrCH2 − CH 2 Br, , b. BrCH 2 − CHBr, , c. Br2CH − CHBr2, , d. CH 3 − CH 2 Br, , 44. What type of reaction occurs between ethane and, hydrogen?, a. Addition, b. Oxidation, c. Dehydration, d. Substitution, 45. The number of isomers of C6H14 are:, a. 4, b. 5, c. 6, , d. 7, , a. Nine σ bonds and one π bond, , 46. Isomerism explains the difference in, a. Molecular formulae, b. Molecular weights, c. Molecular composition, d. Chemical properties, , b. Ten σ bonds, , 47. Which of the following represents cyclohexane?, , 35. Acetone contains, , c. Eight σ bonds and two π bond, , a. C6 H14, , b. C6 H12, , c. C6 H10, , d. C 6 H 6, , d. Nine π bonds and one σ bond, 36. Which amongst, electricity?, , the, , following, , does, , a. CH 3COOH, , b. C3 H 7 OH, , c. HCOOH, , d. NaCl ( aq ), , not, , conduct, , 37. Methane reacts with one mole of chlorine in presence of, sunlight to give ______. The reaction is called_______, a. Chloromethane, substitution, b. Dichloromethane, addition, c. Trichloromethane, elimination, d. Tetrachloro methane, combustion, 38. Catenation is maximum in, a. Carbon, c. Sulphur, , b. Oxygen, d. Phosphorous, , 39. The most poisonous form of phosphorus is:, a. White, b. Red, c. Black, d. Violet, 40. The property of an atom to form a bond with itself is, known as, a. Isomerism, b. Allotropy, c. Catenation, d. None of these, 41. Ethane and ethene can be distinguished by using:, a. Bromine water, b. Chlorine water, c. I 2, , d. HCl, , 42. Which substance is also known as marsh gas?, a. Methane, b. Solid carbon dioxide, c. Carbon monoxide, d. Ammonia, , 48. The IUPAC name of the following: CH3CH 2COCH 2CH3, a. 1-pentanone, c. 2-carboxybutane, , b. 2-pentanone, d. 3-pentanone, , 49. Which of the following are members of the same, homologous series?, a. CH 4 and C 2 H 4, , b. CH 3 OH and CH 3 Cl, , c. C 2 H 5OH and C3 H 7 OH, , d. CH 3OCH3 and C 2 H 5OH, , 50. The difference in the molecular formula and molecular, mass of CH 4 and C 2 H 6 is:, , a. CH 3 and 12u, , b. CH 2 and 12u, , c. CH 3 and 14u, , d. CH 2 and 14u, , 51. Which of the following statements about diamond and, graphite is true?, a. They have same crystal structure, b. They have same degree of hardness, c. They have same electrical conductivity, d. They have same chemical properties., 52. Which of the following is an odd compound?, a. Ethene, b. Ethane, c. Propene d. Acetylene, 53. Which of the following gas is known as illuminating, gas?, a. Ethane, b. Ethene, c. Ethyne, d. Propane, 54. The gas used in the welding and cutting of metals is, a. Ethane, b. Ethene, c. Ethyne, d. None of these
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.C.56, , 55. Which one of the following is an unsaturated hydrocarbon?, a. Acetylene b. Butane, c. Propane d. Decane, 56. Two neighbours of homologous series differ by:, b. CH 2, c. CH 3, d. CH 4, a. C H, 57. General formula of alkyne is:, a. Cn H2n +2, b. C n H 2n, c. Cn H2n −2, , d. C n H n, , 58. Which of the following represents alkynes?, a. — C — C —, b. —C == C —, c. —C ≡≡ C —, d. None of these, 59. Which of the following represents ketones?, a. − C = O, b. OH, c. CHO, d. COOH, 60. The aldehyde functional group is:, a. — C— H, b. — O—, |, |, O, O, c. — C— OH, |, O, , d. None of these, , d. CO2 + H 2, , 63. Which one is not applicable for combustion and, respiration processes?, a. Both are chemical processes, b. Energy change take place in both, c. Oxygen gas is consumed, d. Both processes are fast, 64. Which of the following have lowest calorific value?, a. C 3 H 6, b. C 3 H 4, c. C2 H5OH, , 69. Butanone is a four carbon compound with the functional, group, a. Carboxylic acid, b. aldehyde, c. ketone, d. alcohol, 70. n-Butane and iso-butane are the, a. Same compound, b. Allotropes, c. Isomers, d. Structural isomers, 71. Which of the following does not give a positive test with, alkaline solution of potassium permanganate?, a. C10 H 22, , b. C6 H12, , c. C10 H18, , d. C10 H 20, , 72. Which of the following compounds has a double bond?, a. C15 H32, , 61. Which of the following is not an aliphatic hydrocarbon?, a. ethane, b. ethane, c. propyne d. benzene, 62. Complete combustion of a hydrocarbon gives, a. CO + H 2 O, b. CO2 + H2O, c. CO + H 2, , 68. Who prepared urea the first time by heating ammonium, cyanate?, a. Wöhler, b. Lavoisier c. Fuller, d. Habër, , d. H 2, , 65. Alkaline hydrolysis of an ester is known as, a. Esterification, b. Saponification, c. Hydration, d. None of these, 66. The order of esterification of primary, secondary and, tertiary alcohols is, a. Primary < Tertiary < Secondary, b. Primary > Secondary > Tertiary, c. Tertiary < Primary < Secondary, d. All react equally, 67. Which is not correct for isomers of a compound?, a. They differ in physical properties, b. They differ in chemical properties, c. They have same molecular formula, d. They have same structural formula, , b. C16 H34, , c. C14 H 28, , d. C12 H 22, , 73. Which one of the following is used as “clean fuel”?, a. Petrol, b. LPG, c. Mineral oil, d. Methane, 74. Major constituent of LPG is _________, a. ethane, b. butane, c. propane, d. pentane, 75. The strong smelling substance added to LPG is, a. Ethyl mercaptan, b. Ethanol, c. Ethyl butane, d. None of these, ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , c, , d, , b, , c, , c, , d, , d, , b, , b, , 10., d, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , d, , c, , d, , c, , c, , a, , a, , b, , b, , d, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , c, , b, , d, , a, , d, , c, , a, , c, , a, , c, , 31., , 32., , 33., , 34., , 35., , 36., , 37., , 38., , 39., , 40., , a, , b, , a, , b, , a, , b, , a, , a, , a, , c, , 41., , 42., , 43., , 44., , 45., , 46., , 47., , 48., , 49., , 50., , a, , a, , b, , a, , c, , d, , b, , d, , c, , d, , 51., , 52., , 53., , 54., , 55., , 56., , 57., , 58., , 59., , 60., , d, , b, , c, , c, , a, , b, , c, , c, , a, , a, , 61., , 62., , 63., , 64., , 65., , 66., , 67., , 68., , 69., , 70., , b, , d, , a, , c, , d, , d, , b, , d, , c, , b, , 71., , 72., , 73., , 74., , 75., , a, , c, , d, , b, , a
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Metals and Non-Metals, , 8, , II.C.57, , Metals and Non-metals, , There are about 115 chemical elements known at present,, (22 non-metals, 8 metalloids and the remaining metals). On, the basis of their properties all the elements can be divided, into three main groups (1) Metals, (2) Non-metals and, (3) Metalloids., , Metals, 1. Have luster, 2. Are malleable and ductile, 3. Conduct heat and electricity, , 4. Tend to lose electrons, Elements that border on the amphoteric line (shown in, green) are metalloids. They have characteristics of both, metals and non-metals. Aluminium (Al), however, definitely, has mostly metallic characteristics, and boron (B) is mostly, non-metallic., , Nonmetals, 1. Are dull, 2. Are brittle, 3. Do not conduct heat or, electricity very well, 4. Tend to gain electrons, , 1. Metals: Elements that conduct heat and electricity, and are, malleable and ductile. They are also lustrous, hard, strong,, heavy and sonorous, e.g.: Fe, Al, Cu, Ag, Au, Zn, Su, Pb, Hg, etc. Mercury is a liquid metal., During Chemical Reactions:, Metal can from positive ions by loosing electrons;, They form basic oxides., Most abundant metal – Aluminium., 2. Non-metals: Elements that do not conduct electricity and, heat and are neither malleable nor ductile. They are brittle, dull, appearance and non-sonorous, e.g. C, S, P, Si, H2, O2., , Subgroup, Metals, Alkali Metals, Alkaline, Earth Metals, Transition, Metals, , Definition/Location, Series of very reactive metals group 1 on periodic table (with, the exception of gydrogen), Series of reactive metals (less reactive than alkali metals)., Group 2 on periodic table, Series of elements that exhibit characteristics of metals,, though less reactive and less metallic than the first two, groups of metals., Groups 3–12 on periodic table, , Metalloids, Elements that exhibit metallic characteristics as well as some non-metallic, characteristics, such as reactivity (whether as metal or nonmetal) depending, on which element it's reacting with groups 13–16, but only the highlighted, ones next to stair steps on periodic table., Subgroup, , Definition/Location, Non-metals, , Halogens, , Series of elements that are most reactive for nonmetals due to, their near-stable electron configuration (a valence shell of 7, electrons), Group 17 on periodic table, Series of elements that are inert (nonreactive) due to stable, electron configuration (a full valence shell of 8 electrons), Group 18 on periodic table, , Noble, Gases, , During Chemical Reactions:, Non-metals from negative ions by gaining electrons;, They form acidic oxides., Most abundant non-metal – Oxygen., 3. Metalloids share characteristics of both metals and nonmetals and are also called semimetals. Metalloids are typically, semi-conductors, which mean that they both insulate and, conduct electricity. This semi-conducting property makes, metalloids very useful as a computer chip material. Examples, of metalloid elements are Silicon and Boron., Table: 8.1 Physical Properties of Metals and Non-metals, Physical Property, State, , Melting and, Boiling point, , Hardness, , Metals, Solid at room temp., Exceptions; Hg and Ga, are liquid, Very high., Exceptions; Na, K, Hg, (low melting & boiling, point), Ga, Cs (low, melting point but high, boiling point), Generally hard., Exception; Na and K are, soft., , Non-metals, Mostly gases., Exceptions; C, S, P, I2, (solid) and Br2 (liquid), Very low., Exceptions; C, Si, B, (high boiling point), , Solid non-metals are, brittle. Exception;, Diamond (hardest)
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.C.58, Density, , Conductivity, , High density., Exceptions; Li, Na, K, (lower than water, 1, g/cm3), Good conductor of heat, and electricity., Exceptions; Bi and W, are poor conductors of, electricity., , Lustre (shining, property), , lustrous, , Tensile strength, , High. Exception; Zn, , Malleability(which, they can be beaten, into thin sheets), Ductility (which, they can be drawn, into thin wires), Sonorousness, (which they produce, a ringing sound), Occurrence, , Generally malleable and, ductile, , Give sonorous sound, when struck., , Low density., Exception; Diamond, , Bad conductors of heat, and electricity., Exception; Graphite and, gas carbon allotropic, form of carbon are good, conductor of electricity., Not lustrous, Exceptions: I2 and, graphite., Do not have tensile, strength, Neither malleable nor, ductile., , Non-sonorous, , Found in combined state. Found in free state as, Exception; Noble metals, well as in the, (free state), combined state., Table: 8.2 Chemical Properties of Metals and Non-metals, Chemical, Metals, Non-metals, properties, Electropositive, Electronegative, Nature, , [M → M+ + e− ];, , X + e − → X;[X − , X 2− , X 3− ], , (M+ M2+ M3+ ), Reaction with O 2, O + 2e → O, -, , 2-, , [Element + Oxygen, → Oxide], Reaction with, water, , Reaction with, diluted acids, , Metal oxides;, Basic ( Na 2 O, MgO, , Reaction with, Hydrogen, , (CO 2 ,SO 2 , NO 2 etc), , etc.),, Amphoteric, , Neutral, , (Al 2 O 3 , ZnO) Ionic, , (H 2 O , CO etc) Covalent, , Metal + H 2 O → Metal, , Non-metals + H 2 O →, , oxide/ hydroxide + H2, ↑ Al and Fe reacts with, steam to form metal, oxide e.g., Al2O3 ,Fe3O4, , No reaction, , Metal + Acid→ Metal, salt + H 2 with, , No reaction, [S reacts with conc., acids], , H2SO4 → sulphates, HCl → Chlorides, HNO3 →Nitrates, , Reaction with, Chlorine, , Non-metal oxides;, Acidic, , Properties of Ionic Compounds, Physical nature: solid and hard due to strong force of, attraction (generally brittle)., Melting point (MP) and boiling point (BP): Have high, MP and BP, as large amount of heat energy is required to, break strong ionic attraction., Solubility: Soluble in water and insoluble in kerosene and, petrol., Conduction of electricity: Ionic compounds in solid state;, does not conduct electricity., Reason: Ions cannot move due to rigid solid structure. Ionic, compounds conduct electricity in molten state., Reason: Ions can move freely since the electrostatic forces of, attraction between the oppositely charged ions are overcome, due to heat., Reactivity Series: The arrangement of metals in a vertical, column in the order of decreasing reactivities is called, reactivity series of metals., K – is most reactive;, Gold – is least reactive, Metals which are more reactive than hydrogen are:, K, Na, Ca, Mg, Al, Zn, Fe, Sn, Pb, Metals which are less reactive than hydrogen are:, Cu, Hg, Ag, Au, Occurrences of metals: Major source; earth crust and, sea-water minerals, elements or compounds which occur, naturally in the earth’s crust are minerals., Extraction of Metals:, , S+ 2H2SO4 →2H2O+ 2SO2, S+HNO3 →HSO, 2 4 +6NO2 +2HO, 2, , Metal + Chlorine →, Metal chloride [ionic], (NaCl, KCl), , Non-metals + Chlorine, → Non-metal chloride, , Na, K, Ca with, hydrogen → Hydrides, , Non-metals +, H 2 → Hydrides, , ( NaH,KH,CaH2 ), , [covalent] ( NH3,H2S), , [covalent (CCl3 ,PCl3 ), , Metallurgy: It is a branch of chemistry which deals with the, extraction of metals from their ores and refining of metals., Major steps involved in the extraction of a metal:, Concentration of Ore (Enrichment), Conversion of concentrated ore into metal, Refining of impure metal., Concentration – (Removal of gangue from the ore), Processes used for concentration are based on the differences, between the physical or chemical properties of the gangue and, the ore.
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II.C.59, , Metals and Non-metals, , Extracting metals low in the activity series:, They are very uncreative oxides of these metals can be reduced, to metals by heating alone., Heat, 2HgS + 3O 2 , → 2HgO + 2SO 2, , for better fuel efficiency and performance., Al-Li alloys are lightest among all Al alloys and find wide, applications in the aerospace industry., , (Cinnabar ), Heat, 2HgO , → 2Hg + O 2, , Extracting metals in the middle of the activity series:, These metals are moderately reactive Present as sulphides or, carbonates prior to reduction, the metal sulphides and, carbonates must be converted into metal oxides., Sulphide Ore, Carbonate Ore, , ↓, , ↓, , ZnS+3O2 , → 2ZnO + 2SO2, , Zn+CO3 , → ZnO+CO2, , Calci, , Roastin, Limited air, , Excess of air, , Such materials are widely used in aerospace and, automotive applications where weight savings are needed, , Iron, It is the second most abundant metal in the earth crust. Iron, is quite reactive., It, , exist, , in, , combined, , state, , as, , Carbonate,, , FeCO 3 (Siderite), Sulphide, FeS2 (iron pyrite), Oxide,, Fe 2 O 3 (Haematite), Fe 3 O 4 (Magnetite)., , Metal oxides are then reduced to the corresponding metals by, using suitable reducing agent such as carbon., ZnO + C → Zn + CO, , Sometimes displacement reactions can also be used in, extracting metals towards the top of the activity series. They, are very reactive, have more affinity for oxygen than carbon., Minerals that contain very high percentage of a particular metal, and these metals can be extracted economically on a large, scale., E.g.: Bauxite ore → Aluminium;, Haematite → Iron, , Haematite is the chief ore of iron., The ore is first washed, dried and ground to powder then, treated with stream of water to remove gangue; hydraulic, washing., After this, ore is mixed with coke and lime-stone to form a, mixture known as charge, which is introduced in a big, furnace called blast furnace., The molten iron obtained from blast furnace is allowed to, solidify in moulds or casts, it is called pig iron. It can be, converted into in a bessemer converter after this the carbon, is added to make steel., Metallurgical Process:, Dressing of ore, , Aluminum:, Aluminum is a light metal, , the, , Hand picking, , Crushing & Grinding, , ( ρ = 2,7g/cc) ;, , is easily, , machinable; has wide variety of surface finishes; good, electrical and thermal conductivities; highly reflective to, heat and light., Versatile metal; can be cast, rolled, stamped, drawn, spun,, roll-formed, hammered, extruded and forged into many, shapes., Aluminum can be riveted, welded, brazed, or resin bonded., Al is the second most widely used metal after iron., Important ores of alumininum ore is Bauxite, ( Al2O3.2H2O) and Cryolite ( Na3AlF6 ) ., Corrosion resistant; no protective coating needed, however, it is often anodised to improve surface finish, appearance., Al and its alloys; high strength to weight ratio (high, specific strength) owing to low density., , Pulverisation, Gravity separation, Magnetic separation, Concentration of ore, Chemical separation, Fourth Floatation, , Oxide formation, , Roasting, Calcination, , Reduction of ore, , Purification
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.C.60, Table: 8.3 Refining of Metals, Process of, Metal to be, purification, refined, Iron, zinc,, Distillation, mercury, Liquation, , Polling, , Oxidation, , Process, , Lead, tin (metal, with low, melting point), Copper with, cuprous oxide, as impurity, , Heated above its boiling point in the, absence of air. The metal vaporises,, leaving behind the impurities., Heated above its melting point and the, metal melts, flows down the hearth, and is collected at the bottom., Molten copper is stirred with wooden, poles which emit wood gas (CO and, H 2 ) which reduces copper oxide to, , Iron with, oxidisable, impurities, , copper., Oxygen blown through molten metal, where the impurities get converted to, gaseous oxide and removed., , Table: 8.4, Major, components, Copper, (Cu), , Aluminium,, copper, , Uses, , Brass, , Cu(60–80%), Zn (20–40%), , Bronze, , Cu; 80%, Zn;, 10%, Sn; 10%, , Gun metal, , Cu;88%,, Sn;10%,, Zn;1%, Pb;1%, Cu (30–60%), Zn (20–30%), Ni (15–20%), Cu; 80%,, Sn; 20%, Fe; 83%,, C; 1%,, Cr; 15%;, Ni; 1%, Fe; 84%,, Mn; 15%,, C; 1%, Fe (79–84%), W (15–20%), C (1%), Fe; 50%, Al;, 20%, Ni; 20%;, Co; 10%, Al; 95%, Cu;, 4%, Mn;0.5%,, Mg; 0.5%, Al; 95%,, Mg; 5%, , For making shells of, ammunition utensils,, electrical switches,, statues, cooling pipe, etc., For making shells,, staues, coins and, utensils., For making barrels of, guns, gears and bearings., , Bell metal, , A block of impure is taken as the, anode and a thin strip of pure metal is, taken as the cathode. On the passing, current, the metal ions from the anode, dissolve in the electrolyte, go towards, the cathode and get discharged there., At Anode, , Composition, , German, silver, , → CO 2 ↑, C + O 2 , Electrolytic, refining, , Alloy, , Iron (Fe), , Stainless, steel, , Mangnese, steel, , Cu ( impure ) → Cu 2+ ( aq ) + 2e −, , Tungsten, steel, , At Cathode Cu ( aq) + 2e →Cu( S)Pure, 2+, , −, , The impurities settle down at the bottom of the anode are, called anode mud. Van Arkel method is used for the, purification of titanium and zirconium by converting them, into their volatile iodides which decomposes to give pure, metal. Corrosion is a slow oxidation of metal to its oxide or, hydrated oxide, corrosion in case of iron is called rusting, ( Fe2O3 × H2O) . For rusting two necessary conditions are, presence of water and oxygen. The rusting of iron speeds up in, the presence of acidc oxides in air or salts in water. Rusting can, be prevented by using:, Paints and polish, Greasing/oiling, Coating with plastics, Galvanisation (coating iron with zinc), Alloy formation, Alloy is a homogenous mixture of two or more metals or nonmetals. It is prepared by dissolving a metal or non-metal in the, molten metal. Alloying of metal changes its physical properties, and decreases its chemical reactivity. Alloy of any metal with, mercury is called an amalgam., Pure iron is soft and streches on heating. It becomes hard, and strong when it is mixed with carbon., Pure gold (24 carat) is very soft and hence, it is not suitable, for making jewellery. It is mixed with silver or copper to, increase its tensile strength., , Alnico, , Aluminium, (Al), , Duralumin, , Magnalium, , Tin (Sn), , Monel, metal, Solder, , Lead (Pb), , Type metal, , Nickel (Ni), , Cu; 28%, Ni;, 67%, Fe; 5%, Sn (50–60%), Pb (50–40%), Pb; 75%,, Sn; 5%,, Sb; 20%, , For making imitation, silver jewellery, utensils, etc., For making bells., For making utensils and, surgical instruments., , For making safes, armours, and rock cutters., For making high speed, tools., For making powerful, magnets., For making aircraft, frames, rockets, speed, boats, automobiles., For making aeroplane, parts, home appliances,, mirrors and scientific, instruments., For making sinks, doors, and window screws., Soldering purpose., For making moulds., , Steels: Alloys of iron-carbon; May contain other alloying, elements. Several grades are available., Low Alloy (< 10 wt%), Low Carbon (< 0.25 wt% C), Medium Carbon (0.25 to 0.60 wt%), High Carbon (0.6 to 1.4 wt%), High Alloy, Stainless Steel (> 11 wt% Cr), Tool Steel, Quenching is the process hard steel can be further, hardened by heating it to red hot and then cooling by, pluning it into the cold water.
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II.C.61, , Metals and Non-metals, , Tempering is the process quenched steel is reheated and, allowed to cool slowly, it becomes elastic and much less, brittle., Annealing is the process steel is heated to bright red hot,, and is then cooled slowly. Annealed steel is soft., , –, , Sources, cap rock, , (calcium oxide), , –, , limestone, , CaO, , Al2O3 (aluminum oxide) –, , clay, , Fe 2 O 3 (ferric oxide), Oxides used to calculate theoretical cementitious compounds:, C3S,C2S,C3 A and C 4 AF, Compounds, Tricalcium silicate (Ca 3SiO5 ) hardens rapidly and is, largely responsible for initial set and early strength. In, general, the early strength of portland cement concrete is, higher with increased percentages of C3S., Dicalcium, , silicate, , (Ca 2SiO 4 ), , hardens, , Aluminoferrite, , (C 4 AF) contributes, , very, , slightly to strength gain. However, acts as a flux during, manufacturing. Contributes to the colour effects that makes, cement gray., When steel, rods, bars or other hard material embedded in the, wet concrete. As the concrete sets, it sticks to those materials to, form RCC (reinforced concrete cement)., , Cement (CaOFe 2O3SiO2 Al 2O 3 ), Oxides, SiO 2 (silicon dioxide), , Tetracalcium, , slowly, , and, , contributes largely to strength increases at ages beyond 7, days., Tricalcium Aluminate (Ca 3 Al2 O6 ) liberates a large amount, of heat during the first few days of hardening and, together, with C3S and C2S may somewhat increase the early, strength of the hardening cement (this effect being due to, the considerable heat of hydration that this compound, evolves). It does affect set times., Table: 8.5 Compositions and Characteristics of Some Common Glasses, Glass type, Composition (wt%), SiO2, Na2O, CaO, Al2O3, > 99.5, –, –, –, Fused silica, , Glass:, Glass: inorganic, non-crystalline (amorphous) material., Range: soda-lime silicate glass for soda bottles to the, extremely high purity silica glass for optical fibers., Widely used for windows, bottles, glasses for drinking,, transfer piping and receptacles for highly corrosive liquids,, optical glasses, windows for nuclear applications., The main constituent of glass is silica (SiO 2 ). The most, common form of silica used in glass is sand., Sand fusion temp to produce glass 1700°C. Adding other, chemicals to sand can considerably reduce the fusion, temperature., Sodium, , carbonate, , ( 75% SiO 2 + 25% Na 2 O ), , ( Na 2 CO 3 ), will, , or, , soda, , reduce, , the, , ash,, fusion, , temperature to 800°C., Other chemicals like Calcia (CaO) and magnesia (MgO) are, used for stability. Limestone, , ( MgCO 3 ) are, , ( CaCO 3 ), , and dolomite, , used for this purpose as source of CaO and, , MgO., , Characteristics, B2O3, –, , Other, –, , High MP, thermal shock resistant, , 96% Silica, , 96, , –, , –, , –, , 4, , –, , Thermal shock and chemicaly resistant laboratory ware, , Borosilicate, , 81, , 3.5, , –, , 2.5, , 13, , –, , Thermal shock and chemical oven ware, , Container, , 74, , 16, , 5, , 1, , –, , 4MgO, , Low MP, formable and durable, , Fiberglass, , 55, , –, , 16, , 15, , 10, , 4MgO, , Ease of drawing used in FRP, , Optical flint, , 54, , 1, , –, , –, , –, , 37PbO,, 8K 2O, , High density, high refractive index-optical lenses, , Glass ceramic, , 43.5, , 14, , –, , 30, , 5.5, , 6.5TiO2 ,, , Strong, thermal shock resistant oven ware, , 0.5As2O3
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.C.62, , Polymers: Chain of H-C molecules. Each repeat unit of HC is a monomer, e.g., ethylene, , ( C2H4 ) ,, , Polyethylene, , ( −CH2 − CH2 )n, Thermosets: Thermoset plastics always remain in a, permanent solid state., Thermoplasts: It is a type of material, which becomes soft, when heated and hard when cooled. Thermoplastics can be, remelted., Plastics: Moldable into many shape and have sufficient, structural rigidity. Plastics are one of the most commonly, used class of materials. They are used in clothing, housing,, automobiles, aircraft, packaging, electronics, signs,, recreation items, and medical implants., Natural plastics: Hellac, rubber, asphalt, and cellulose., Table: 8.5 Characteristics and Applications of Some Common Thermoplastics, Material, Characteristics, Applications, Chemically resistant,, Flexible bottles, toys,, Polyethylene, tough, low friction, battery parts, ice trays, film, coeff., low strength, wrapping materials, , Polyamide, (Nylon), , Good strength and, toughness, abrasion, resistant, liquid absorber,, low friction coefficient, , Bearings, gears, cams,, bushings and jacketing for, wires and cables, , Fluorocarbon, (Teflon), , Chemically inert,, excellent electrical, properties, relatively, weak, , Anticorrosive seals,, chemical pipes and valves,, bearings, anti-adhesive, coatings, high temp, electronic parts, , Polyester, (PET), , Tough plastic film,, excellent fatigue and tear, strength, corrosion, resistant, , Recording tapes, clothing,, automotive tyrecords,, beverage containers, , Vinyl, , Low-cost general, purpose material, rigid,, can be made flexible, , Floor coverings, pipe,, electrical wire insulation,, garden hose, phonograph, records, , Polystyrene, , Excellent electrical prop, and optical clarity, good, thermal and dimensional, stability, , Wall tile, battery cases,, toys, lighting panels,, housing appliances, , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , 2., , Metals generally form, a. Basic oxides, b. Acidic oxides, c. Neutral oxides, d. None, Which of the following is a basic oxide?, , a. N 2 O, 3., 4., , 5., 6., , 8., 9., , c. CO2, , d. CaO, , The most abundant element in the universe is, a. Helium, b. Oxygen c. Hydrogen d. Silicon, The most abundant metal on the earth is, a. Iron, b. Gold, c. Copper, d. Aluminium, The most abundant elemet in the sun’s atmosphere is, a. Xenon, b. Argon, c. Oxygen, d. Hydrogen, The most abundant acidic gas present in the atmosphere is:, , a. CO2, 7., , b. H 2 O, , b. SO2, , c. NO, , d. NO 2, , An example of a metal which is a liquid at room, temperature, a. Zinc, b. Copper, c. Mercury d. Bromine, A metal, which melts on the palm, a. Potassium b. Sodium, c. Zinc, d. Gallium, Which of the following metals exist in their native state in, nature?, a. Cu and Au, b. Au and Zu, c. Au and Ag, d. Ag and Cu, , 10. Sodium is a, a. Silvery white and very soft metal, b. Colourless and hard metal, c. Silvery white and very hard metal, d. Colourless and very soft metal, 11. Gold is used in making ornaments because it is, a. Lusturous, b. Unreactive, c. Malleable, d. All of the above, 12. Hydrogen is not found in free in the nature because, hydrogen is a, a. Reactive element, b. Non-reactive element, c. Electropositive element, d. None of these, 13. Hydrogen loses its electron to form H+, in this respect, it, resembles, a. Halogens, b. Alkali metals, c. Transition element, d. Alkaline earth metal, 14. You are given two statements (i) and (ii), select the, correct inference from this:, Statements (i) Metals conduct heat., Statements (ii) Diamond is the best conductor of heat., a. Hence diamond is a metal, b. Statement (i) is correct, c. Statements (i) and (ii) is correct, d. None of the above
Page 564 : II.C.63, , Metals and Non-metals, , 15. Metals are, a. Malleable and ductile, b. Non-malleable and ductile, c. Brittle and ductile, d. Non-malleable and non-ductile, 16. A metal which is poor conduction of heat, a. Lead, b. Zinc, c. Gold, d. Iron, 17. Which element is an important component of transistors?, a. Sodium, b. Copper, c. Germanium, d. Radium, 18. Non-metals form, a. Ionic halides, b. Covalent halides, c. Coordinate halides, d. None of these, 19. The bond between two identical non-metal atoms has a, pair of elecrons, a. Unequally shared between the two, b. Transferred freely from are atom to another, c. With identical spins, d. Equally shared between these, 20. A lustrous non-metals is:, a. Diamond, b. Sulphur, c. Phosphorus, d. Iodine, , 27. Sodium metal should be stored in, a. Alcohol, b. Water, c. Kerosene oil, d. HCl, , 21. The correct order of decreasing metallic character is, a. Cl > Si > Al > Mg > Na b. Na > Mg > Al > Si > Cl, c. Al > Na > Si > Ca > Mg d. Na > Al > Mg > Cl > Si, , 33. Iron burns in air to form, , 22. The correct order of increasing non-metallic order is, a. F < O < C < Be < Li, b. F < C < O < Be < Li, c. F < O < Be < C < Li, d. Li < Be < C < O < F, 23. Arrange the following metal in the increasing order of their, reactivity towards water: Zinc; Iron; Magnesium; Sodium, a. Iron < magnesium < sodium < zinc, b. Iron < zinc < magnesium < sodium, c. Magnesium < iron < sodium < zinc, d. Sodium < iron < magnesium < zinc, 24. Which of the following set of elements is written in order, of their increasing metallic character?, a. Be, Mg, Ca, b. Na, Li, K, c. Mg, Al, Si, d. C, O, N, 25. Which of the following metals do not react with cold as, well as hot water?, a. Na, b. Ca, c. Mg, d. Fe, 26. A list of metals arranged in the order of their decreasing, activities is known as, a. Periodic table, b. Reactivity series, c. Newland’s law of octaves d. All of these, , 28. Sodium is kept immersed in kerosene oil because, a. It reacts with moisture in the air, b. Immersing in kerosene cuts off the supply of air, c. The reaction of sodium with air is very violent, d. All of the above., 29. Metalloids include the elements, a. Boron, silicon, b. Arsenic, antimony, c. Germanium, tellurium, d. All of the above, 30. Lunar caustic is, a. AgS, , b. AgBr, , c. AgCl, , d. AgNO 3, , c. ZnCO 3, , d. Hg 2 Cl 2, , 31. Philosopher’s wool is, a. ZnO, , b. HgCl 2, , 32. Water gas is a mixture of, a. CO and N 2, , b. CO2 and H 2, , c. CO and H 2, , d. CO2 and N 2, , a. FeO, , b. Fe3O4, , c. Fe2O3, , d. FeO 2, , 34. What should be added to pure iron to make stainless, steel?, a. Nickel and cobalt, b. Cadmium and chromium, c. Nickel and cadmium, d. Chromium and nickel, 35. Substance used in glazing pottery is, a. ZnO, , b. ZnCl2, , c. Alum, , d. Calomel, , 36. The process of protecting iron by coating with zinc is:, a. Smelting, b. Rusting, c. Galvanising, d. None of these, 37. Ordinary glass is a mixture of, a. Sodium silicate, calcium silicate, b. Sodium silicate, calcium silicate and silica, c. Sodium silicate and silica, d. None of these, 38. In the above table arrange the metals A, B, C and D in, increasing order of reactivity, a. D < A < C < B, b. D < C < B <A, c. D < C < A < B, d. C < D < A < B
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.C.64, , 39. What are the ions present in Na2O?, a. Na + , O, , b. Na 2+ , O 2, , c. Na 2+ ,O, , d. Na + ,O 2, , 40. Among the following select the metal found free in nature., a. Au, b. Cu, c. Na, d. Mg, 41. The metal refined-electrolytically is, a. Al, b. Na, c. Fe, d. Cu, 42. Which of the following metals on reacting with sodium, hydroxide solution produce hydrogen gas?, (A) Cu, (B) Al, (C) Fe, (D) Zn, a. (B) and (C), b. (B) and (D), c. (A) and (D), d. (B) only, 43. Match the following., (i) Sodium, , (a) On burning produces an acidic, gas., , (ii) Phosphorus, , (iii) Copper, , (iv) Charcoal, , (b) Reacts neither with acids nor, bases., (c) It is so soft that it can be cut, with a knife., (d), , Burns spontaneously, exposure to air., , on, , (e) Acquires a dull green coating, on exposure to air., Which of the following shows the correct matching?, , a. (i) – (c), (ii) – (e), (iii) – (b), (iv) – (a), b. (i) – (d), (ii) – (a), (iii) – (c), (iv) – (b), c. (i) – (d), (ii) – (e), (iii) – (c), (iv) – (b), , 49. The colourless gas liberated in the purification of bauxite, by Hall’s process is:, a. H2, b. NH3, c. CO2, d. SO2, 50. Metallurgy is the process of, a. Extracting metals from the ore, b. Roasting the ore, c. Liquefaction of nitrogen, d. Adding carbon to the ore in blast furnace, 51. In the metallurgy of iron using blast furnace the slag is, a. FeSiO 3, , b. CaSiO3, , c. CaCO 3, , d. CaSO 3, , 52. In the blast furnace/the flux is:, a. Acidic, b. Basic, c. Amphoteric, d. Not matter, 53. The iron obtained from blast furnace is, a. Steel, b. Cast iron, c. Pig iron, d. Wrought iron, 54. Iron is tougher than sodium because, a. Iron atom is smaller, b. Iron atom are more tightly packed, c. Metallic bands are stronger in iron, d. None of these, 55. What is the chemical name of the slag coming out of blast, furnace?, a. Calcium carbonate, b. Calcium formate, c. Calcium silicate, d. Calcium acetate, 56. Smelting is done in, a. Electric furnace, c. Blast furnace, , b. Muffle furnace, d. Open-hearth furnace, , 57. The concentration of chromite is done by, a. Gravity separation, b. Magnetic separation, c. Froth floatation, d. Handpicking, , d. (i) – (c), (ii) – (d), (iii) – (e), (iv) – (a), 44. Oil of vitriol is, a. H 2SO3, , b. H 2SO 4, , c. H 2S2 O7, , d. H 2S2 O8, , b. H 2S2 O7, , P2 O5 is mainly used as, a. Oxidising agent, c. Dehydrating agent, , 45. The formula of Oleum is, a. H 2SO 4, , 58., , c. H 2S2 O3, , d. H 2S2 O6, , 46. Which of these metals cannot be obtained by reduction, using C as reducing agent?, a. Copper, b. Zinc, c. Lead, d. Potassium, 47. The reaction used to join railway tracks involves reducing, agent, a. Al, b. Mg, c. C, d. CO, 48. Aluminium is extracted from, a. Hematite, b. Bauxite, c. Calamine d. Magnetite, , b. Reducing agent, d. Hydrating agent, , 59. The molecular formula of rhombic sulphur is:, a. S, , b. S2, , c. S4, , d. S8, , 60. Hypo is, a. Na 2S2 O3 .5H 2 O, , b. NaHSO4, , c. Na 2 CO3, , d. 2CaSO4 H2O, , 61. Hypo is used in photography for, a. Developing negatives, b. Picture printing, c. The colouring of picture d. The fixation of negative
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II.C.65, , Metals and Non-metals, , 62. Sapphire and ruby are minerals of, a. Cu, b. Al, c. Zn, , d. Hg, , Layer of oil, , 63. Purest form of iron is, a. Cast iron, c. Steel, , b. Pig iron, d. Wrought iron, , 64. Cinnabar is an ore of, a. Pb, b. Zn, , c. Hg, , 65. Chile saltpeter is an ore of, a. Iodine, c. Magnesium, , b. Sodium, d. Gold, , c. AgCl, , d. None of them, , 68. Van Arkel method of purification of metals involves, converting the metal into, a. Volatile stable compound, b. Volatile unstable compound, c. Non-volatile stable compound, d. None of these, , d. Gold, , 70. The slag formed in the extraction of copper from copper, pyrites is:, , 71. Copper is purified by, a. Distillation, c. Carbon-reduction, , c. FeS, , (3), , (4), , b. 1, 2 and 3, d. 2, 3 and 4, , Column I, (A) Electric Fuse, (B) Relay, (C) CFL, (D) Button Cell, , Column II, 1. Chemical Effect, 2. Electric Discharge, 3. Magnetic Effect, 4. Heating Effect, , a. A→ 3; B→ 2; C→ 1; D→ 4, , b. AgNO 3, , b. FeSiO 3, , a. 1 and 2, c. 2 and 3, , Iron nail, , Which of the following shows the correct matching?, , a. Ag 2S, , a. CaSiO3, , (2), , Tap, water, , 76. Match the items in Column-I with those in Column–II, , 67. Which of them is not an ore of silver?, , c. Tin, , Boiled, water, , Iron nail, , (1), , d. Cu, , 66. Ores mined from the earth are usually contaminated with, large amounts of impurities such as soil, sand, etc, called_____________, a. Gravel, b. Gangue, c. Sand, d. Granite, , 69. Liquation is used to refine, a. Iron, b. Copper, , 75. In which test tubes, the rusting of iron nail will take, place?, , d. Ca3 (PO4 )2, , b. Liquation, d. Electrolytic refining, , 72. An amalgam of metal has which other element?, a. C, b. Ag, c. Mg, d. Hg, 73. Blister copper is, a. Pure copper, b. Ore copper, c. Alloy copper, d. Copper having 2% impurities, 74. Gold as alloyed with which metal to make it harder?, a. Cu, b. Hg, c. Ag, d. C, , b. A→ 2; B→ 1; C→ 3; D→ 4, c. A→ 4; B→ 3; C→ 2; D→ 1, d. A→ 4; B→ 2; C→ 3; D→ 1, 77. ‘Kajal’ is the form of, a. Coke, b. Charcoal, c. Carbon black, d. Asphalt, 78. The substance used to reduce iron ore to iron in the lower, part of the blast furnace is:, a. Coke, b. Charcoal, c. Carbon monoxide, d. Carbon black, 79. Pick the correct statement:, a. All ore are minerals, b. All minerals are ore, c. A mineral cannot be an ore, d. An ore cannot be a mineral, 80. The materials listed below:, A. Water (distilled), B. Solution of common salt, C. Mercury, D. Caustic soda solution, E. Glycerine, A set of materials consisting of good conductor of, electricity is, a. A, B, C, b. A, D, E, c. C, A, E, d. B, C, D, 81. Which of the following alloys contains Tin?, a. Brass, b. Solder, c. Duralumin, d. Steel
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.C.66, , 82. Name an alloy that used in powerful magnets, a. Magnalium, b. Bronze, c. Duralumin, d. Alnico, 83. Permanent magnets can be made from, a. Ni steel, b. Cobalt steel, c. Stainless steel, d. Wrought iron, 84. VA group elements are known as, a. Halogens, b. Normal elements, c. Chalcogens, d. Pnictogen, 85. The carbon content in steel is, a. 0.1–5.0%, b. 2.0–2.5%, c. 0.1–1.5%, d. Less than 0.1, 86. The red or orange coating that forms on the surface of iron, when exposed to air and moisture for some time is called, a. Galvanisation, b. Electroplating, c. Rust, d. Reduction, 87. Rust is a mixture of, a. FeO & Fe ( OH )2, c. Fe2O3 & Fe ( OH )3, , b. FeO & Fe ( OH )3, d. Fe3O4 & Fe ( OH )3, , 88. Galvanisation is a method of protecting iron from rusting, by coating with a thin layer of, a. Aluminium, b. Zinc, c. Copper, d. Nickel, 89. The metal which is more hard and corrosion resistant is, a. Nickel, b. Iron, c. Platinum d. Tungsten, 90. The composition of gun metal is, a. Cu; 30% – Ni; 67% – Fe+, Mn; 3%, b. Cu; 80% – Sn; 20%, c. Cu; 88% – Sn; 10% – Zn; 1% – Pb; 1%, d. Cu; 50% – Zn; 25% – Ni; 25%, 91. The international standards of weight and measures are, made of, a. Gold–silver alloys, b. Platinum–iridium alloys, c. Copper–gold alloys, d. Platinum–iron alloys, 92. Which of the following compounds is used as drying agent?, a. Gypsum, b. Calcium oxide, c. Calcium chloride, d. None of these, , 93. Plaster of Paris is obtained by heating, a. Gypsum, b. Limestone, c. Sodium carbonate, d. Calcium carbonate, 94. Gypsum is added to cement because, a. It makes the cement very hard, b. It increases the pace of setting of cement, c. It slow down the initial setting of cement when water is, added, d. None of these, 95. RCC is, a. The crushed cement in which more gravel is added, b. The concrete having an iron framework inside it as a, support, c. Prepared by adding calcium chloride to the limestone, and calcium silicate, d. None of the above, ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , a, , d, , b, , d, , d, , a, , c, , b, , c, , 10., a, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , d, , a, , b, , b, , a, , c, , c, , b, , d, , d, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , b, , d, , b, , a, , d, , b, , c, , d, , a, , d, , 31., , 32., , 33., , 34., , 35., , 36., , 37., , 38., , 39., , 40., , a, , c, , c, , d, , a, , c, , a, , b, , d, , a, , 41., , 42., , 43., , 44., , 45., , 46., , 47., , 48., , 49., , 50., , d, , b, , d, , b, , b, , d, , a, , b, , c, , a, , 51., , 52., , 53., , 54., , 55., , 56., , 57., , 58., , 59., , 60., , b, , b, , c, , c, , c, , c, , b, , c, , d, , a, , 61., , 62., , 63., , 64., , 65., , 66., , 67., , 68., , 69., , 70., , d, , b, , d, , c, , b, , b, , d, , a, , c, , b, , 71., , 72., , 73., , 74., , 75., , 76., , 77., , 78., , 79., , 80., , d, , d, , d, , a, , a, , c, , a, , a, , a, , d, , 81., , 82., , 83., , 84., , 85., , 86., , 87., , 88., , 89., , 90., , c, , c, , b, , d, , c, , b, , d, , d, , d, , c, , 91., , 92., , 93., , 94., , 95., , b, , b, , a, , c, , b
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Section, , D, , bIOLOGY, Chapter in this sECTION, 1. Nutrition, , II.D.3, , 2. Respiration and Transportation, , II.D.11, , 3. Excretion and Locomotion, , II.D.20, , 4. Control and Coordination, , II.D.27, , 5. Reproduction and Growth, , II.D.36, , 6. Heredity and Evolution, , II.D.46, , 7. Structure of a Cell, , II.D.58, , 8. Diversity in Living Organisms, , II.D.66, , 9. Health and Diseases, , II.D.77, , 10. Natural Resources and Management, , II.D.88
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Nutrition, , II.D.3, , 1, , Nutrition, , All organisms need energy to perform various processes of, their lives. Nutrition provides nutrients to the body so that it, can obtain energy to carry out the activities required to stay, alive. Nutrition is the process of nourishing or being nourished,, especially the process by which a living organisms assimilates, food and uses it for growth and replacement of tissues. The, food taken by the organism is complex, but nutrients are much, simpler molecules. The digestive system of an organism breaks, down complex food into simpler molecules, so that the cells, can take them in and use them for survival, growth and, reproduction. Nutrition promotes growth of the body, which, involves the formation of new protoplasm. It also helps, synthesise a variety of substances like, proteins, carbohydrates,, and lipids etc. which in turn perform a variety of functions., NUTRIENTS: Chemical substance present in our food which provide, energy and materials needed by the body to live and grow., Carbohydrates, , Fats, , Proteins, , Minerals, , Vitamin, , Water, , Table 1.1 Nutrition/Mode of Nutrition, Autotrophic: can, Heterotrophic: food obtain from plants or from, prepare their own, animals or both, food, “The word ‘heterotroph’ is derived from two Greek, “The term, words: heteros (other) and trophe (nutrition).”, ‘autotroph’ is, derived from two, Greek words:, autos (self) and, trophe, (nutrition).”, Photoautotrop, hic, nutrition, (Solar, energy is, used and, takes, place in, green, plants), , Chemoautotrop, hic, nutrition, (Chemica, l energy, is used, and takes, place in, sulphur, bacteria), , Parasiti, c, Nutriti, on, (obtaini, ng food, synthesi, s by, other, , Saprophy, tic, Nutrition, (obtain, nutrients, from dead, and, decaying, organic, matter for, example;, fungi and, bacteria), , Holozoic Nutrition, (feed exclusively on the solid organic, food material), Herbivor, Carnivor, Omnivor, es: Plant, es: meat, es: eat, eaters, eaters, both, plants &, animals, , Fibre, , Photosynthesis, Food, Energy foods, Carbohydrates, , Fats, , Body building foods, , Regulating foods, , Proteins, , Vitamin, , Minerals, , Minerals, , (photo = light; synthesis = to combine): the process in which, plats synthesise food using water, carbon dioxide in the, presence of sunlight and chlorophyll. The significance of, photosynthesis is formation of food, oxygen and fuel., Light, 6CO 2 + 12H 2 O , → C 6 H12 O 6 + 6H 2 O + 6O 2, Chlorophyll, , Note, Nutrition is the science that interprets the interaction of, Midrib, , nutrients and other substances in food (e.g. phytonutrients,, anthocyanins, tannins, etc.) in relation to maintenance, growth,, reproduction, health and disease of an organism. It includes, food intake, absorption, assimilation, biosynthesis, catabolism, , Lamina or, leaf blade, Vein, , Phloem Xylem Vascular, bundle, , and excretion., The diet of an organism is what it eats, which is largely, determined by the availability, processing and deliciousness, of foods. A healthy diet includes preparation of food and, storage methods that preserve nutrients from oxidation, heat, or leaching, and that reduce risk of food-borne illnesses., Nutrition is defined as a process by which living beings, obtain food, change food into simple absorbable forms and, use it to make substances needed by the body., , Waxy, cuticle, Upper, epidermis, , Chloroplast, Air Spaces, Guard cell, Lower, epidermis, Figure 1.1 Cross-section of Leaf
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II.D.4, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Mechanism of Photosynthesis, There are two main stages in the entire process of, photosynthesis. The first stage is dependent on light (Light, reactions) hence also called photochemical reaction. The, other stage does not require light (dark reactions) and purely, chemical reactions., , Pseudopodium, Food particle, (ingestion), , Food vacuole, , Table 1.2, Characters, , Light Reactions (Presence, of light), , Dark Reactions, require light), , Pigments, , Required, , Not required, , Site of, action, , Grana lamellae of, chloroplast, , Stroma of chloroplast, , Products, , ATP, NADPH2 and O2, , Carbohydrates, , Oxygen, , Released as by-product of, photosynthesis, , Not released, , Enzymes, , Not required, , Required (Rubisco), , (not, Egested waste, Figure 1.3 Egestion, , Sunligh, Chlorophyll, Enzyme RuBP, , ADP, , Water, ATP, O2 NADPH, , CO2, , Glucose, NAD, , Light Reaction, , Dark Reaction, , Nutrition in Lower Organisms, Amoeba is holozoic and omnivorous. It feeds upon, microscopic organisms like bacteria, Paramecia, diatoms, algae, and dead organic matter. The process of obtaining food is, termed as phagocytosis., Mechanism of nutrition in, Digestion, Amoeba, shows intracellular and, vacuolar, digestion., , Ingestion, It occurs by the, help of pseudopodia and, circum-vallation, , Nucleus, , Nucleus, , Absorption, Digested food, passes from the, food vacuole, into the, cytoplasm., , Assimilation, Diffusible nutrients, distributed to all the, body parts by, streaming movements, of cytoplasm, called, cyclosis., , Egestion, Egestion may, occur at any, part of body, surface., , Lysosome, , Digestion, Although nutrients are contained in the food ingested by, animals, many of those nutrients are not in a form that can be, used directly by cells in the body. The process of digestion, breaks large macromolecules into smaller organic molecules, that are more easily absorbed by the digestive tract and then, transferred to body fluids., The digestive tract is the main component of the human, digestive system. It consists of a passageway that begins at the, mouths and ends at the other opening, the anus. Associated, with the digestive system are glands and organs that secrete, digestive juices., Digestive system of man includes the alimentary canal and, the digestive glands., Alimentary canal includes the mouth, pharynx, oesophagus,, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, rectum and anus., Digestive glands include salivary glands, liver, pancreas,, gastric glands and intestinal glands., The digestive system is responsible for the processing and, uptake of nutrition. Every cell in an organism needs energy, and an array of nutrients to remain alive., Humans ingest a variety of foods; these can be classified by, their nutrition content as carbohydrates (sugars), lipids, (fats), and proteins., , Tongue, Salivary Parotid gland, glands Sublingual gland, Submandibular gland, Ascending, Portion of, Large intestine, , (1) Amoeba, , (2) Food, , (3) Pseudopodia, , Phagolysosome, , (4) Phagosome, , Figure 1.2 Stages of phagocytosis in Amoeba, , Rectum, , Cardia, c, ifi, , Pyloric, sphincter, , Lleum of, Gall, Small, bladde, intestine Pancrea, , Cecum, , (5), , Esophagu, , Liver, , Appendix, , (6) Waste Products, , Oral cavity, Pharynx, , Stomach, Small, intestine, Duodenum of, Large, Small intestine, intestine, Anus, , Figure 1.4 Digestive System in Human Beings
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Nutrition, , II.D.5, , Table 1.3 Digestive System in Human Beings, Alimentary canal, , Alimentary canal is in the form of a hollow tube of about 9 metres long with two openings, an anterior, mouth and posterior anus., , Mouth: The first part of the digestive system is, the mouth, the entry point of food., , Teeth: It consists: root, neck and crown., Types: Incisors, Canine, Molar and Premolars, Tongue: Tongue is a thick muscular organ is composed of skeletal muscles covered with mucous, membrane., , Salivary glands: Three pairs of large,, multicellular salivary glands, these secrete saliva, which contains a digestive enzyme called ptyalin, and salivary amylase., , Parotid glands, Sub-mandibular glands, Sublingual glands, , Pharynx: It is funneled shaped structure, where, , Nasopharynx: Superior to soft palate; communicates with nasal cavity and provides a passageway for air, , the food and air passages cross each other., , during breathing; provides connections for auditory tubes., Oropharynx: Posterior to mouth; is a passageway for food moving downward from the mouth and for air, moving to and from the nasal cavity., Laryngopharynx: Below the oropharynx; extends from the epiglottis to the lower border of the cricoid, cartilage of the larynx; is a passage way for food to the oesophagus., , Oesophagus: Straight, collapsible tube about 25, , Oesophageal hiatus: Passes through penetrates the diaphragm through an opening called the oesophageal hiatus., , cm long and it provides a passageway for food, from the pharynx to the stomach., , Lower oesophageal sphincter: circular muscle fibers that help prevent the regurgitation of stomach, , Stomach: food is mixed with a liquid (gastric, , Cardiac: Small area near the oesophageal opening., , juice) and stomach initiates the digestion of, proteins, , Fundic: Superior and balloons out; sometimes contains swallowed air., , contents back into the esophagus, serves as a valve between the oesophagus and the stomach., , Body: Main part of the stomach., Pyloric: Funnel-shaped portion which becomes the pyloric canal, pyloric sphincter – serves as a valve, between the stomach and the small intestine., , Small Intestine: The small intestine is, responsible for the complete digestion of all, macromolecules and the absorption of their, , Duodenum is c-shaped organ, enzymes are secreted into the duodenum form the pancreas and the gall bladder., , component molecules (glucose, glycerol, fatty, acids, amino acids and nucleotides)., , Ileum: It is responsible for pushing the waste materials into the large intestine., , Large Intestine: Large intestine has an, approximate length of 1.5 metres (5 feet) and a, diameter of 6.5 centimetres (2.5 inches)., , Mechanical stimulation &and parasympathetic impulses control the rate of mucus secretion., , Accessory Organs: The accessory organs that, support the digestive system but are not part of, , Liver: The liver performs a vast number of functions including production of bile from cholesterol,, recycling of red blood cells, glycogen storage, storage of fat-soluble vitamins, deamination of amino acids,, , the digestive tract., , and detoxification of poisons., , Jejunum: Its role is absorption of nutrients., , Absorbs water and electrolytes and synthesise certain vitamins., , Gallbladder: Concentrates bile produced by the liver and stores this concentrate until it is needed for, digestion., Pancreas: It exhibits both endocrine and exocrine functions., Pancreatic Juice, , It contains salts and enzymes for breaking down of carbohydrates, proteins and fats. It has trypsin for, digestion of protein, pancreatic amylase for digestion of starch and lipase for digestion of fats., , Action of Intestinal Juice, , Enterokinase: Activates trypsinogen of the pancreatic juice into trypsin., Aminopeptidease: Acts on terminal amino acids at the amino end of peptides and break them into amino, acids., Sucrase: They convert sucrose (cane sugar) into glucose and fructose., Maltase: It converts maltose (Malt sugar) into glucose., Lactase: They act on lactose (milk sugar) to convert it into glucose and galactose., , Absorption, , Absorption is the process by which the end products of digestion pass through the intestinal mucosa into, the blood or lymph. It occurs through the wall of ileum of small intestine., , Assimilation, , Utilisation of absorbed food by the body cells is called assimilation., , Defaecation or Egestion, , The faecal material is stored in the rectum. The elimination of faeces from the rectum is called defaecation or, egestion. It is a reflex action aided by the voluntary contractions of the diaphragm and abdominal muscles.
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II.D.6, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Table 1.4 Summary of Digestive Enzymes, Organs, Mouth, , Stomach, , Digestive juice, Salivary juice, , Digestive enzyme, , Acts on, , Product formed, , Salivary amylase, , Starch, , Maltose, , Pepsin, , Proteins, , Gastric lipase, Trypsin, , Fats, , Fatty acids and glycerol, , Protein, , Smaller chains of Amino acids, , Smaller chains of Amino acids, , Gastric juice, , Pancreatic juice, , Pancreatic amylase, Pancreatic lipase, , Maltose, Starch, Fatty acids and Glycerol, Fats, , Small intestine, , Fatty acids and Glycerol, , Intestinal lipase, Fats, , Intestinal juice, , Free Amino acids, , Amino peptidases, &, Di-peptidase, , Smaller chains of Amino acids, , Maltose, , Maltose, , Definitions, Alimentary canal: A long tube extending from the mouth, to the anus that has regions specialised for ingestion,, digestion, absorption, and egestion., Autotrophic nutrition: Nutrition characterised by the, ability to use simple inorganic substances for the synthesis, of more complex organic compounds, as in green plants, and some bacteria, Autotrophs: An organism capable of synthesising its own, food from simple inorganic substances, using light or, chemical energy., Bile: A digestive juice secreted by the liver, stored in the, gallbladder and aids in the digestion of fats., Chyme: It is a thick liquid produced in the stomach and, made of digested food combined with gastric juice., Egestion: The elimination of the waste and undigested, matter from the digestive tract through the anus., Emulsification of fat: A process in which bile salts, emulsifies fat globules, i.e. increases the surface area of the, oil–water interface, which promotes the breakdown of fats, by pancreatic lipase., Enzymes: The biological catalysts which speed up the rate, of biochemical reactions in the body., Gastric glands: The glands present in the wall of the, stomach that release HCl, pepsin and mucus., Heterotrophic nutrition: A type of nutrition in which, energy is derived from the intake and digestion of organic, substances, normally plant or animal tissues., , Glucose, , Heterotrophs: An organism that cannot synthesise its own, food and is dependent on complex organic substances for, nutrition., Intestinal juice: The digestive fluid secreted by the glands, lining the walls of the small intestine., Lipase: An enzyme that catalyse the breakdown of fats into, fatty acids and glycerol., Nutrition: The process of obtaining and utilising the, nutrients necessary to sustain life., Pancreatic juice: A clear alkaline secretion of the pancreas, containing enzymes that aid in the digestion of proteins,, carbohydrates, and fats., Pepsin: A digestive enzyme found in gastric juice that, catalyzes the breakdown of proteins to peptides., Peristalsis: The process of wave-like contractions and, relaxations of the alimentary tract that propels the food, forward through the tract., Photosynthesis: The process by which plants and other, organisms generate carbohydrates and oxygen from carbon, dioxide and water using light energy, with the help of, chlorophyll., Stomata: The minute pores present in the epidermis of a, leaf or stem through which gaseous exchange and, transpiration occur., Trypsin: A pancreatic enzyme that catalyses the, breakdown of proteins into smaller units., Villi: The numerous projections arising from the inner, lining of the small intestine, which increase the surface area, for absorption.
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Nutrition, , II.D.7, , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , Carbon dioxide is taken in from the atmosphere by the, plants through, a. roots, b. stems, c. leaves, d. all of these, , 2., , Which of the following is/are raw materials for, photosynthesis?, a. Water, b. Water and carbon dioxide, c. Sunlight, water and carbon dioxide, d. Sunlight, chlorophyll, water and carbon dioxide, , 3., , Stomatal opening is surrounded by, a. guard cells, b. stomata, c. epidermal cells, d. chloroplast, , 4., , Which of the following is a saprophyte?, a. Amarbel, b. Lichen, c. Mushroom, d. None of these, , 5., , Which of the following is a symbiotic plant?, a. Amarbel, b. Lichen, c. Yeast, d. Pitcher plant, , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , During photosynthesis, food is synthesised in the form of, a. proteins, b. fats, c. carbohydrates, d. vitamins, The end products of photosynthesis are, a. carbohydrate and hydrogen, b. carbohydrate and oxygen, c. water and carbon dioxide, d. carbohydrate, water and oxygen., b. mitochondria, d. ribosomes, , following, , are, , b. O18, d. P32, , 17. The primary acceptor during CO2 fixation in C3 plants is, a. ribulose biphosphate, b. glycolate, c. Phosphoenolpyruvate, d. triose phosphate, 18. First stable compound in C3 cycle is, a. phosphoglyceric acid, b. phosphoglyceraldehyde, c. fructose-1-6 diphosphate d. glucose-6- phosphate, 19. Synthesis of an intermediate takes place in ……… phase, of photosynthesis., a. Light phase, b. Dark phase, c. Glycolysis, d. All of these, , The energy is stored during photosynthesis is in the form of, a. ADP, b. ATP, c. DNA, d. Nucleotides, , 12. Which of the, photosynthesis?, , 14. ATP formation during photosynthesis is known as, a. phosphorylation, b. photophosphorylation, c. oxidative phosphorylation, d. substrate level phosphorylation, , 16. Dark reaction raced by, a. X-rays, c. 14CO2, , 10. The process in which water is split during photosynthesis, is, a. hydrolysis, b. plasmolysis, c. photolysis, d. None of these, 11, , 13. The assimilatory power in photosynthesis is, a. ATP, b. NADPH, c. ATP and NADPH 2, d. ATP, NADPH and CO2, , 15. Dark reaction of photosynthesis occurs in the, a. space between the two membranes of the chloroplast, b. stroma of the chloroplast outside the lamellae, c. membranes of the stroma lamellae, d. thylakoid membrane of the grana, , The green coloured pigment in plants is, a. haemoglobin, b. chlorophyll, c. chloroplast, d. xanthophyll, , Chlorophyll is present, a. chloroplast, c. stroma, , a. production of carbohydrates, b. production of oxygen, c. conversion of light energy into chemical energy, d. All of the above, , the, , features, , of, , 20. Which would do maximum harm to a tree?, a. the loss of all of its leaves, b. the loss of half of its branches, c. the loss of its bark, d. the loss of half of its leaves, 21. If the rate of translocation of food is slow then the rate of, photosynthesis will, a. remains the same, b. becomes double, c. decrease, d. increase, 22. Which pigment is present universally in all green plants?, a. chlorophyll a, b. chlorophyll b, c. chlorophyll c, d. chlorophyll d
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II.D.8, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 35. Main function of prolonged chewing is to rupture:, a. membranes, b. cell wall, c. connective, d. muscle bundle, , 23. The first step in photosynthesis is, a. joining of three carbon atoms to form of glucose, b. formation of ATP, c. ionisation of water, d. absorption of light energy, 24. Where do the energy-capturing reactions, photosynthesis occur?, a. plasma membrane, b. cytoplasm, c. storma, d. thylakoids, , of, , 25. Which enzyme is most abundantly found on earth?, a. rubisco, b. nitrogenase, c. invertase, d. catalase, 26. Which gland is not associated with human alimentary canal?, a. salivary glands, b. adrenal gland, c. liver, d. pancreas, 27. In human, bile juice is secreted by:, a. pancreas, b. small intestine, c. oesophagus, d. liver, 28. An enzyme which can only act in acidic medium is:, a. trypsin, b. pepsin, c. rennin, d. amylase, 29. Which is the first part of the small intestine in humans?, a. duodenum, b. oesophagus, c. stomach, d. mouth, 30. Large intestine is mainly carries out:, a. absorption, b. adsorption, c. assimilation, d. acidification, 31. Which of the following are chiefly digested in the, stomach?, a. carbohydrates, b. protein, c. lipids, d. fats, 32. Digestion is:, a. conversion of large food particles into small food, particles, b. conversion of small food particles into large food, particle, c. conversion of non-diffusible food particles into, diffusible food, d. conversion of food into protoplasm, , 36. According to natural eating habits, a human is:, a. an herbivore, b. a carnivore, c. an omnivore, d. agranivore, 37. Which of the following regions of the alimentary canal of, man does not secrete a digestive enzyme?, a. stomach, b. oesophagus, c. duodenum, d. mouth, 38. Which teeth are different in shape, size and function the, these are called, a. acrodont, b. pleurodont, c. homodont, d. heterodont, 39. Number of teeth, which are replaced in man, a. 20, b. 28, c. 32, d. 12, 40. Bulk of the tooth in mammals is made up of, a. enamel, b. dentine, c. pulp cavity, d. root, 41. The layer of cells that secretes enamel of tooth is, a. dentoblast, b. osteoblast, c. ameloblasts, d. odontoblast, 42. The hardest part of tooth is the, a. dentine, b. enamel, c. pulp, d. dental tubules, 43. Diastema is associated with, a. presence of certain teeth b. absence of certain teeth, c. absence of tongue, d. presence of tongue, 44. Incisor tooth is meant for, a. Biting and cutting, c. Munching and chewing, , b. Chewing, d. Munching, , 45. A dental disease characterised by mottling of teeth is, due to the presence of an ingredient in drinking water,, namely, a. mercury, b. fluorine, c. boron, d. chlorine, , 33. Digestion within a digestive tract is:, a. incomplete, b. extracellular, c. the same as absorption, d. an irreversible process, , 46. A digestive enzyme, salivary amylase, in the saliva begin, digestion of:, a. protein, b. carbohydrates, c. nucleic acids, d. fats, , 34. Muscular contractions of alimentary canal are:, a. circulation, b. deglutition, c. peristalsis, d. churning, , 47. A lubricant, mucin in saliva is made up of:, a. poly unsaturated fats, b. actin and myosin, c. glycoproteins, d. phospholipids
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Nutrition, , II.D.9, , 48. A bolus is, a. the semisolid material resulting from partial digestion, in the stomach, b. a mass of crushed food moistened with saliva, c. the milky emulsified fat absorbed from small intestine, d. indigestible materials that helps in movement and, absorption, 49. In the presence of lactase, lactose breaks down into, molecules of, a. glucose and galactose, b. glucose and fructose, c. galactose only, d. glucose only, 50. Saliva has the enzyme, a. pepsin, c. ptyalin, , b. trypsin, d. rennin, , 51. Pepsin digests, a. proteins in duodenum, b. protein in stomach, c. carbohydrates in duodenum, d. fats in ileum, 52. Which of the following enzyme acts efficiently at pH, two?, a. pepsin, b. trypsin, c. ptyalin, d. All of these, 53. Trypsin enzyme in mammals is formed from the, a. trypsinogen by the action of protein, b. trypsinogen by the action of enterokinase, c. trypsinogen by the action of fat, d. none of these, 54. Inactive enzyme precursors, such as pepsinogen for, pepsin, are called, a. holoenzymes, b. actinases, c. zymogens, d. mucopolysaccharides, 55. Pepsinogen secreted by, a. intestinal glands, b. chief cells, c. gastric glands, d. parietal cells, 56. Gastric juice has a pH about, a. 1, b. 2, c. 16, d. 10, 57. Gastric digestion takes place efficiently in, a. acidic medium, b. alkaline medium, c. neutral medium, d. highly alkaline medium, 58. If stomach did not produce any hydrochloric acid HCl,, which enzyme will not function, a. pepsin, b. trypsin, c. ptyalin, d. collagenase, , 59. Curdling of milk in the stomach is due to the action, a. pepsin, b. rennin, c. HCl, d. trypsin, 60. Where is bile produced?, a. in gall bladder, c. in spleen, , b. in blood, d. in liver, , 61. Chief function of bile is:, a. to digest fats by enzymatic action, b. to eliminate waste product, c. to emulsify fat for digestion, d. to regulate process of digestion, 62. Peyer’s patches produce, a. lymphocytes, c. mucos, , b. enterokinase, d. trypsin, , 63. Which of the following plays a key role in absorption and, distribution of fats?, a. villi, b. lacteals, c. secretin, d. segmentation movements, 64. Vermiform appendix is made up of, a. respiratory tissue, b. excretory tissue, c. lymphatic tissue, d. digestive tissue, 65., , Pancreas has, a. only endocrine cells, b. only one type of cell, the same functioning both in an, exocrine and endocrine, c. only exocrine cells, d. two types of cells-exocrine and endocrine, , 66. Which of the following are produced from the pancreas?, a. three digestive enzymes and three hormones, b. three digestive enzymes and two hormones, c. three digestive enzymes and one hormones, d. two digestive enzymes and one hormones, 67. The specific function of liver is:, a. excretion, b. digestion, c. histolysis, d. glycogenesis and glycogenolysis, 68. Glisson’s capsules are found in, a. heart of frog, b. kidney of frog, c. cerebellum of rabbit, d. liver of mammals, 69. Largest gland in human body is:, a. Pancreas, b. liver, c. pituitary, , d. thyroid, , 70. Toxic substances in the diet are detoxicated in the human, body by, a. kidney, b. liver, c. lungs, d. stomach
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II.D.10, , 71., , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , The digestive glands of mammalian digestive system are, a. salivary glands, liver, pancreas, gastric glands,, intestinal glands, b. salivary glands, hepatopancreas, gastric gland,, intestinal glands, c. salivary glands, mesenteric cells, gastric gland,, intestinal glands, d. zymogen cells, liver, pancreas, gastric glands, , 72. Chyme is:, a. an undigested food, c. absorbed food, , b. partially digested food, d. solid food, , 73. All enzymes are chemically, a. carbohydrates, b. lipids, c. proteins, d. lipoproteins, 74. The enzyme renin is present only in, a. adults, b. infants, c. both, 75. Cystic duct originates from, a. liver, b. spleen, , c. pancreas, , ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , c, , d, , a, , c, , b, , b, , c, , d, , a, , c, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , c, , d, , c, , b, , b, , c, , a, , b, , a, , a, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , c, , a, , d, , d, , a, , b, , d, , b, , b, , a, , 31., , 32., , 33., , 34., , 35., , 36., , 37., , 38., , 39., , 40., , b, , c, , b, , c, , b, , c, , b, , d, , c, , b, , 41., , 42., , 43., , 44., , 45., , 46., , 47., , 48., , 49., , 50., , d, , b, , b, , a, , b, , b, , c, , b, , a, , c, , 51., , 52., , 53., , 54., , 55., , 56., , 57., , 58., , 59., , 60, , b, , a, , b, , c, , b, , b, , a, , a, , b, , d, , 61., , 62., , 63., , 64., , 65., , 66., , 67., , 68., , 69., , 70., , b, , d, , d, , b, , B, , c, , a, , b, , c, , d, , 71., , 72., , 73., , 74., , 75., , a, , b, , c, , b, , d, , d. None, d. gall bladder, ,
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II.D.11, , Respiration and Transportation, , 002, , Respiration and Transportation, 00, , Respiration is an essential physiological activity of all, organisms. It is a biochemical process which involves intake of, oxygen from outside environment for oxidation of food for the, release of energy and removal of carbon dioxide. It is a, catabolic process during which the energy stored in the organic, substances such as carbohydrates, proteins and fats is liberated, by a controlled oxidative process in each and every cell of the, body. Therefore it is process of cellular oxidation., Note, Why respiration?, The lungs are necessary to get oxygen into the body. In the, lungs there are millions of little air sacs called alveoli that are, surrounded by capillaries. Here the blood drops off carbon, dioxide and picks up oxygen. This oxygen will be taken, directly to the cells. When the oxygen gets to the cell, the, mitochondria take it and begin the process of cellular, respiration., Plants, algae, many bacteria, (Autotrophs), , Table 2.1 Living organisms exhibit two types of respiration: Anaerobic and, Aerobic., Types of Respiration, Anaerobic: (Partial oxidation of, glucose in the absence of oxygen), , Aerobic: (Complete oxidation of, glucose using oxygen), , No water is produce but CO2 is may, or may not be produce., , CO2 and water is always produced, , It occurs in cytoplasm. And it is, found in few organisms like, anaerobic bacteria, yeast and some, endoparasitic worms., , It occurs in both cytoplasm, (glycolysis) and in mitochondria., (Kreb’s cycle and electron transport, chain). It is found in majority of, organisms., , Anaerobic respiration, Glycolysis, Glucose , , 2 ATP Gain, , Fermentation, Pyruvate , , Lactic acid + Energy, (In muscle), , Ethyl alcohol + Energy, (In Yeast), , Aerobic respiration, Glycolysis, Glocose , , In Cytoplasm, , Kreb's cycle and ECT, Pyruvic acid , CO2 H2 Energy, In Mitochondria, , Table 2.2, Glycolysis, , Carbon dioxide, Organic, compounds, Water, , Oxygen, , Animals, fungi, many, bacteria (Heterotrophs), , Figure: 2.1 Cellular oxidation, , In Cellular respiration complete oxidation of glucose. Glucose, is oxidised in two ways to provide energy., , Kreb’s Cycle, , The glucose, molecule must, break in half., , Pyruvate can enter, mitochondria only if oxygen, is present., , New molecule, called pyruvate., , Intermediary step before, many ATP can be made., , Energy measured, in ATP, 2 ATP used at, the beginning,, but 4 gained at, the end, profit of, 2 ATP, , Produces important electron, carriers (2) called NADP(H), Pyruvate, + O2, Kreb’s, NADPH, , Cycle, , Electron Transport, Chain, NADPH enters a, chain reaction called, the electron transport, chain., The “H” breaks off,, and jumps around on, certain proteins., In doing so each “H”, produces 17 ATP, Profit of 34 ATP (2, NADPH were made, in the Kreb’s Cycle), , ADPH, , Respiration in Plants, All part of plant respires: Leaves, stem, roots and the flowers., The parts above the soil get their oxygen directly from the air, through stomata and also through the pores in the stems or, branches of trees called lenticels. Oxygen enters through, stomata and diffuses into the air spaces of spongy mesophyll, cells. The lenticels are large pores which open into thin walled
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II.D.12, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , loosely arranged cells. These loose cells are called, complimentary cells. Intercellular space present among them is, the site for gaseous exchange., During photosynthesis O2 produced by plants is quite high in, amount. Only a part of it is used up in their respiration. The, remaining oxygen which is in excess is released to atmosphere, through stomata. Stomata in angiosperms open and closed due, to turgour pressure of guard cells., Main function of stomata is allowed to exchange of CO2 and, O2 between the inside of leaf and surrounding atmosphere., Guard Cells, , Stomatal Aperture, Outer Wall, , Inner Wall, , Due to this water moves into sieve tubes from supply end, (leaves) to the storage organs. In the storage organs the, dissolved sugars are removed from the sieve tubes., Water & Sugars, (Phloem-Sieve tubes), (to storage organs), Leaf, Cells, , Storage, Organs, Water, (Back to leaf cells), , (Xylem), , As a result the sieve tubes also lose water by exosmosis. The, water is carried up back to the leaf cells through the xylem., Respiration is Animals, Respiration is the overall exchange of gases between the, atmosphere, the blood and the body cells. Respiratory organs in, different animals are:, Table 2.4, , Epidermal Cells, , Respiratory Organ, Gaseous exchange through general, surface, Gaseous exchange through skin, (Cutaneous respiration), Gaseous exchange through gills, , Chloroplasts, Figure: 2.2 Stomata Opening, , Transport System in Plants, They have vascular tissues (complex tissue) for transport of, materials. These tissues are like continuous tubes that conduct, materials in dissolved form in water medium rapidly through, the plant body. These tissues are:, , Gaseous exchange through trachea, (air tube), (Tracheal respiration), Gaseous exchange through lungs, (Pulmonary respiration), , Animals, Amoeba, Paramecium, Annelids (Earthworms, Nereis,, Lecches), Amphibians (frog, toad), Aquatic animals; fish, prawns,, mussels, tadpoles of frog, Insects (Grasshopper, housefly,, cockroach), centipedes and, millipeds., Amphibians (frog), reptiles (lizard),, birds and mammals., , Respiration in Human, , Table 2.3 Xylem and Phloem, Xylem, It carries water and dissolved, minerals from the plants roots to the, leaves and other parts., , It helps in translocation of food from, leaves to other part of plant body and, storage organs., , It has vessels and tracheids as the, conducting elements to carry water, and minerals., , It has sieve tubes as the conducting, elements., Nasal passage, Sieve Plate, , Xylem vessels, Tracheids, , Xylem, parenchyma, , Sieve-tube, Cell, Companion, Cell, , Xylem, , Bronchi, , Nostril, Nasal Chamber Glottis Trachea, (wind pipe), (for inhalation) (filter, air conditioner, and smelling), , Plasmodesmata, , Xylem, fibres, , Respiratory Organ, (Lungs), , Respiratory, , Phloem, , Sieve-tube, Phloem, Member Sieve Plate Parenchyma Cells, (Cell), Phloem Structure, , Mouth cavity, Pharynx, Larynx, , Trachea, Rings of cartilage, , Respiratory, bronchioles, , Lung, , Alveoli, , Bronchi, Bronchioles, Alveolar sac, , Ribs, Diaphragm, , Figure: 2.3 Xylem and Phloem Structure, , Figure: 2.4 Respiratory System in Human Beings, , Mechanism of Transport in Plants, Water-soluble carbohydrates like sucrose are transported, actively to the sieve tubes of phloem using energy from ATP., , Lungs lie in the thoracic cavity (chest) one on either side of, the heart, which is separated from the abdominal cavity, by, a muscular partition called diaphragm. They are covered by
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II.D.13, , Respiration and Transportation, , two thin protective membranes (outer: parietal pleuron), and (inner: visceral pleuron) called pleura, which protect, the lungs from mechanical injuries., Inside the lungs finest branches of bronchial intercom, network are bronchioles and alveolar ducts. An alveolar, duct opens into sacs called alveoli, which is main site of, respiration., Mechanism of Respiration, Breathing is brought by alternate expansion and contraction of, the thoracic cavity. These movements leads to intake of fresh, air into the lungs called inspiration and removal of foul air, from the lungs called expiration., Table 2.5 Inspiration and Expiration, Inspiration (Inhalation), Inhaling of fresh air in the lung, alveoli., Contract, so is active process., , Expiration (Exhalation), Exhaling of foul air out of lung, alveoli., Relax, so is passive process., , Diaphragm: lowered and flattened., Ribs moves upwards and outwards., , Raised and becomes process., Ribs moves downward and inward., , Atmospheric, pressure, , Atmospheric, pressure, , There two types of circulatory system:, , 1. Open circulatory system: (Blood called haemolymph, bathes the tissue) e.g. arthropods and molluscs., 2. Closed circulatory system: (Blood moves through a, system of tubes or vessels.) e.g. Annelids and all, vertebrates., Table 2.6 Closed circulatory system, Closed, circulatory, system, Blood, (transport, medium), , Alveolar Pressure, 762 mm Hg, Intrapleural pressure, 756 mm Hg, , Alveolar pressure, 758 mm Hg, Intrapleural pressure, 754 mm Hg, , (a), , vigorous exercise, (20-25 times per minutes), because the, demand of oxygen increases., Transportation in Animals, In lower organisms no need of circulatory system because,, every cell of body is in direct contact with surrounding, water and there is direct exchange of materials between the, cell and water., In higher organisms, there is no direct supply of the useful, materials and no removal of wastes. So there is a need of, internal transport system, called circulatory system., , Blood Plasma, (55%), Blood, Corpuscles, (45%), , Fluidy matrix of, blood, Erythrocytes, (RBC), Leucocytes, (WBC), Blood platelets, , Blood Vessels, , Arteries, (Oxygenated, Blood), Veins, (Deoxygenated, Blood), Capillaries, , Heart, (Four, Chambered), , Auricles, , They carry, blood away, from the heart., They bring, blood to the, heart., Exchange of, food material,, gases and waste, products., Receiving, Chambers, Distributing, Chambers, , (b), Figure: 2.5 Inhalation and Exhalation, Inspired air, , Expired air, Alveolar spaces, , O2 CO2, Alveolar, epithelial cells, Blood entering, alveolar capillaries, O2 CO2, , O2 CO2, , Alveolar, Capillaries, Of lung, , O2 CO2, External respiration, Blood leaving, Alveolar capillaries, O2 CO2, , Heart, Blood leaving, Tissue capillaries, , Tissue, capillaries, , Ventricles, , Blood Clotting, In blood clotting mechanism involves many substances like, blood platelets, prothrombin, thrombin, thromboplastin, Ca++,, fibrinogen and vitamin K is essential for formation of, prothrombin in liver., , Blood entering, Tissue capillaries, , Injury, Injured tissue & disintegrated platelets, , O2 CO2, , O2 CO2, Tissue cells, , Thromboplastin, Ca2+, , Internal respiration, , O2 CO2, , Figure: 2.6 Overall process of respiration., , Breathing is an involuntary process, but its rate is controlled by, the respiratory centres located in brain. Rate of breathing:, under normal condition (15-18 times per minutes) and during, , Prothrombin, , Thrombin, Ca2+, , Fibrinogen, Fibrin, Blood Groups, (soluble), (insoluble), Karl Landsteiner discovered mismatching of blood was, Clot due to, a reaction between antigen present on the membrane of RBC
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II.D.14, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , of the donor and antibodies present in the plasma of the, recipient. Two antigens named ‘A’ and ‘B’ and their two, corresponding antibodies ‘a’ and ‘b’ in the blood. On this basis, he gave ABO system of blood grouping., , A, B, , Superior vena cava, , Carotid artery, , Lungs, , Carbon dioxide, , Oxygen, Pulmonary vein, , Serum Antigen, , Cell Antigen, , Head and Arms, , Pulmonary artery, , Table 2.7 ABO system of blood grouping, ABO Blood Groups, Blood Group, , Jugular vein, , Donor, , Inferior vein cava, , Aorta, Heart, , A, , B, , A or O, , B, , A, , B or O, , AB, , None, , All, , None, , A and B, , O, , Liver, Mesenteric arteries, , Hepatic portal vein, , Digestive tract, , Renal vein, , AB, O, , Aorta, Pulmonary arteries, Pulmonary veins, , Right atrium, , Pulmonary artery, to lungs, , Lung, capillaries, , Pulmonary vein, From lungs, , Aorta to body, , Vena cava, from body, Capillaries in body, Organs apart from, the lungs, , Figure: 2.9 Transport and Exchange of O2 and CO2, , Right ventricle, , Left ventricle, , Septum (dividing wall), , Figure: 2.7 Working Heart in Human Being, , Blood Circulation, Circulatory system in which blood flows through two separate, circuits is called double circulation. They are pulmonary and, systematic circulation., Double Circulation, Pulmonar, y, , Lung, , Oxygenated, Pulmonary, Blood, veins, , Pulmonary Circulation, , Vanae cavae, , Body tissues, Deoxygenated, (Except Lungs), Blood, , Left, Auricle, Oxygenated, Blood, , Systematic Circulation, Right, Ventricle, , Oxygen, , Figure: 2.8 Circulation system, , Left atrium, , Vena Cava, from lower body, , Right Deoxygenate, Ventricle, Blood, , Iliac artery, , Carbon dioxide, , Working of Heart: Function of the heart is to maintain the, blood circulation in the body by pumping the blood. Pumping, of the blood is accomplished by the contraction (systole) and, relaxation (diastole) of the heart chambers. Systole and, diastole together constitute a heart beat or cardiac cycle., Heart beats or contracts 72 times per minute. Activity of, heart can be recorded by ECG. The electrocardiogram (also, known as an EKG or ECG) is a non-invasive device that, measures and monitors the electrical activity of the heart, through the skin. The ECG produces a distinctive waveform in, response to the electrical changes taking place within the heart., , Vena Cava, from upper body, , Renal artery, Kidneys, , Iliac vein, , Systematic, aorta, , Left, Auricle, , Lymphatic system drains and filters fluid that helps to form, tissue and produce lymphocytes, which play essential roles in, the body’s defence mechanisms and its resistance to disease., Blood Pressure, Blood pressure (BP) is defined as the force or pressure which is, exerted by the blood on the wall of blood vessels in which it, flows. It is higher in arteries than that of veins. It is important, because it is required for maintaining proper circulation of, blood., Arterial blood pressure is the result of the discharge of blood, from the left ventricle into the already full aorta. When heart, contracts the pressure produced is known as systolic blood, pressure which is found in an adult man to be about 120 mm
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II.D.15, , Respiration and Transportation, , Hg. When the heart relaxes the pressure produced is known as, diastolic pressure. It is about 80 mm Hg in a normal adult., Blood, pressure, is, expressed, in, the, following, 120, manner: BP =, mm Hg., 80, Venous, system, , Arterial, system, , Venule, , Loose connective, tissue around capillaries Arteriole, , Lymph duct, Lymph trunk, Lymph, Lymphatic, system, Lymphatic, Collecting, Vessels,, With valves, Lymphatic, capillary, , Blood, capillaries, , Tissue fluid, Tissue cell, (a), Filaments, anchored to, connective, tissue, Endothelial, cell, , Lymphatic, Blood, capillaries capillary, , Flap like, minivalve, Fibroblast in loose, Connective tissue, (b), , Figure: 2.10 Lymphatic System, Note, Lymphatic Fluid: Fights infection via lymphocytes., Lymphatic Vessels: Transport lymph, Lymphatic Structure: Lymph nodes; spleen, thymus, tonsils., Lymph nodes; Filters lymph fluid of bacteria and foreign material and, produces lymphocytes (neck, armpits)., , Definitions, Root pressure: Pressure exerted in the roots of plants as the, result of osmosis that causes sap to rise through a plant stem to, the leaves., Transpiration: The loss of water vapour from the aerial parts, of the plant., Translocation: The transport of soluble products of, photosynthesis from leaves or storage organs to other parts of, the plant through phloem., , Trachea: A thin walled tube of the respiratory system with, cartilaginous rings that conveys inhaled air from the larynx to, the bronchi., Osmosis: It is a movement of solute particles from higher to, lower concentration., Bronchus: Either of the two main branches of the trachea,, which delivers air to the lungs from trachea., Haemoglobin: The respiratory pigment present in the red, blood cells of vertebrates, which transports oxygen from lungs, to the tissues., Blood plasma: The fluid portion of the blood in which the, blood cells are normally suspended., Atria: The two upper chambers in the heart, which receive, blood from the veins and push it into the ventricles., Ventricles: The two lower chambers of the heart, which, receive blood from the atria and pump it into the arteries., Arteries: The blood vessels which carry blood away from the, heart to various organs of the body., Veins: The blood vessels which collect blood from different, organs of the body and bring it back to the heart., Blood clotting: The process by which the blood coagulates to, form solid masses, or clots so as to prevent blood loss during, injury., Blood clot: A semisolid gelatinous mass of coagulated blood, that consists of red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets, entrapped in a fibrin network., Red blood cells: Also called erythrocytes, these cells contain a, red compound called haemoglobin, which helps in the, transport of oxygen and CO2 in the blood., White blood cells: These are smaller in number but play an, important role in the immune system by killing invading, microorganisms like bacteria, viruses, etc., Blood platelets: These help in clotting of the blood to prevent, blood loss when a blood vessel is broken., Blood pressure: Exerted by the blood on the wall of blood, vessel in which it is present. (Normal B.P. is 120/80 mm of, Hg), 120 mm of Hg is represent systolic pressure and 80 mm, of Hg represents diastolic pressure., , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , Anaerobic respiration is also termed as, a. Fermentation, b. Inhibition, c. Transportation, d. All of these, , 2., , Gaseous exchange in plants takes place through _______, and ______., a. Stomata, lenticels, b. Guard cells, grana, c. Stroma, grana, d. None of these, , 3., , 4., , The stomata in angiosperms open and close due to, a. Presence of gases inside the leaves, b. Their genetic constitution, c. Turgour pressure of guard cells, d. Turgour pressure of subsidiary cells, The common phase between aerobic and anaerobic, respiration is called
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II.D.16, , a. Glycolysis, c. Tricarboxylic acid cycle, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , b. Kreb’s Cycle, d. None of these, , 5., , Energy rich compound produced in respiration is, a. ADP, b. ATP, c. AMP, d. ACP, , 6., , The principal pathways by which water is translocated in, angiosperms is, a. Xylem vessel system, b. Xylem and phloem, c. Sieve tubes membrane of phloem, d. Sieve cells of phloem, , 7., , Which of following statement is false?, a. Water and inorganic salts are taken simultaneously by root, b. Plants absorb only one thing at a time, water or inorganic, salts, c. Plants take in small quantity of mineral salts through soil, water, d. Roots are main absorbing organs of plants, , 8., , In soil, water available to plants roots is, a. Capillary water, b. Hygroscopic water, c. Gravitation water, d. Colloid water, , 9., , The initial stage of water absorption by root cells is:, a. Absorption b. Osmosis c. Inhibition d. Respiration, , 10. The ultimate cause for movement of water against gravity in, a tree is, a. Osmosis, b. Transpiration, c. Inhibition, d. Photosynthesis, 11. Osmosis is the movement of, a. Water passing from xylem vessel element to xylem vessel, element above it, b. Water passing from a root hair to adjacent cells, c. Water entering a mesophyll cell from the xylem vessel, element, d. Water from soil entering a root hair, 12. Which of the following is not an example of a selectively, permeable membrane?, a. Mitochondrial membrane b. Chloroplast membrane, c. Plasma lemma, d. Cell wall, 13. Plasmolysis is just begins and the plasma lemma starts, receding the cells walls, this state called as, a. Deplasmolysis, b. Plasmolysis, c. Incipient plasmolysis, d. All of the above, 14. The vacuolar membrane is called, a. Tonoplast, b. Plasmalemma, c. Chromoplast, d. Tonotaxis, , 15. The tissue respiration refers to, a. Inspiration, b. Expiration, c. Internal respiration, d. External respiration, 16. Which of the following has no blood but respires, a. Hydra, b. Earthworm, c. Cockroach, d. Fish, 17. Which type of respiratory organs are present in spiders and, scorpions?, a. Book lungs b. Gill lungs c. Gills, d. Lungs, 18. Common feature of human and insect tracheae is, a. Ectodermal origin, b. Endodermal origin, c. Supporting rings, d. Non-collapsible wall, 19. The gas exchange surface of larger aquatic animals are:, a. Air bladder b. Skin, c. Lungs, d. Gills, 20. In frog, cutaneous respiration takes place, a. Only in water, when pulmonary respiration does not take, place, b. Only in water, but along with pulmonary respiration, c. Only on land, d. Always, 21. During hibernation, the frog respires by, a. Lungs only, b. Skin only, c. Partly by lungs and partly by skin, d. Both lungs and skin, 22. The actual site of gaseous exchange in respiratory system is, a. Trachea, b. Alveoli, c. Bronchioles, d. All of these, 23. The narrowest and most numerous tubes of lungs are termed, as, a. Bronchus, b. Bronchioles, c. Alveoli, d. None of these, 24. Larynx is, a. A part of lungs, b. Lower part of trachea, c. A part of pharynx, d. Upper part of trachea, 25. Which of the following part acts like a natural air, conditioner?, a. Nasal chamber, b. Larynx, c. Trachea, d. Lungs, 26. The bronchi is kept in open condition by:, a. cilia, b. mucous gland cells, c. incomplete cartilage rings d. complete cartilage rings, 27. Respiratory mechanism is controlled by:, a. Central nervous system, b. Parasympathetic nervous system, c. Sympathetic nervous system, d. Autonomic nervous system
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II.D.17, , Respiration and Transportation, , 28. When diaphragm of man is completely dome shaped, it, shows:, a. Beginning of expiration and end of inspiration, b. End of expiration and beginning of inspiration, c. Increased rate of breathing, d. Decreased rate of breathing, 29. During inspiration, as a result of contraction of muscles, attached to it, the diaphragm, a. Flatten, b. Rotates, c. Flattens and rotates, d. Becomes dome-shaped, 30. Volume of air inspired and expired with each normal breath, is called, a. Inspiratory capacity, b.Total lung capacity, c. Tidal volume, d. Residual volume, 31. Tidal volume of air in a normal healthy man during, inspiration is about, a. 300–400 ml, b. 500–700 ml, c. 900–1000 ml, d. 100–250 ml, 32. The maximum possible volume of air, which can be, inspiration is called as:, a. Tidal air volume, b. Total lung capacity, c. Vital lung capacity, d. Complemental air volume, 33. In human, expired air contains oxygen about, a. 4%, b. 10%, c. 16%, d. 20%, 34 Oxygen is transported in blood mainly by, a. Erythrocytes, b. Leucocytes, c. Thromobocytes, d. Blood plasma, 35. The function of haemoglobin is to carry, a. O2, b. CO2, c. O2 and CO2, d. CO, 36. In human percentage of CO2 transported as bicarbonates is:, a. 5–10%, b. 50–65%, c. 70–75%, d. 90–95%, 37. If a respiratory surface dries out, gas exchange will, a. Increase, b. Decrease, c. Stop, d. Not be affected, 38. The function of vitamin K is: a. Regulation of calcium and, phosphorus metabolism, b. Respiration, c. Blood clotting, d. Carbohydrates metabolism, 39. If the CO2 concentration in blood increases, the breathing, shall, a. Increase, b. Decrease c. Affected d. Stop, 40. Gas exchange in the gills of fish is enhanced by having the, blood flow in a direction opposite to the direction of water, flow, a process known as, a. Ventilation, b. Counter current exchange, c. Facilitated diffusion, d. Active respiration, , 41. Chloride shift is essential for transport of:, a. CO2 and O2 b. N2, c. CO2, , d. O2, , 42. If a tissue is having inadequate supply of oxygen, the, condition is called as, a. Hypoxia, b. Asphyxia c. Anoxia, d. Pleurisy, 43. Root pressure is maximum when, a. Transpiration is high and absorption is very low, b. Transpiration is very low and absorption is high, c. Transpiration is very high and absorption is also high, d. Transpiration and absorption both are low, 44. Which one of the following is connected with transport of, water in plants?, a. Xylem, b. Phloem, c. Epidermis d. Cambium, 45. Rate of transpiration increases with, a. Increase in the velocity of wind, b. Increase in the light intensity, c. Decrease in the atmospheric humidity, d. All of the above, 46. The carbohydrates synthesised in the leaves are transported, through sieve tubes most commonly in the form of, a. Glucose, b. Triose sugar, c. Sucrose, d. Soluble starch, 47. Which of the following is not a function of transpiration?, a. Cooling of leaves, b. Excretion of minerals, c. Uptake of water, d. Uptake of minerals, 48. Which one of the following processes keeps plant cool?, a. Photosynthesis, b. Translocation, c. Transpiration, d. Guttation, 49. Which one of the following is responsible for guttation?, a. Transpiration, b. Root pressure, c. Photosynthesis, d. Osmosis, 50. The process of the escape of liquid from the tip of uninjured, leaf or through hydathodes is called, a. Transpiration, b. Guttation, c. Evapo-transpiration, d. Evaporation, 51. Which of the following is used for determining the rate of, transpiration in plants?, a. Tensiometer, b. Auxanometer, c. Potometer, d. Porometer, 52. In a closed circulatory system, blood is completely enclosed, within, a. Skeleton, b. Sinuses, c. Heart, d. Vessels, 53. Which of the following has no muscular walls?, a. Artery, b. Capillary c. Arteriole, , d. Vein
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II.D.18, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 54. In which of the following group of animals the heart pumps, only deoxygenated blood, a. Reptiles, b. Fishes, c. Birds, d. Amphibians, 55. Haemoglobin is found in, a. All invertebrates, c. Earthworm and cockroach, , b. Only in vertebrates, d. Earthworm and rabbit, , 56. Normal haemoglobin content of an adult man is:, a. 10.5 gm/100 ml of blood, b. 12.5 gm/100 ml of blood, c. 13.5 gm/100 ml of blood, d. 14.5 gm/100 ml of blood, 57 . Iron in haemoglobin exists as, a. Ferrous ions only, b. Ferric ions only, c. Unionized iron atom, d. Ferric or ferrous ions depending upon the oxygenated, state, 58, , Correct statement for man is:, a. Arteries always carry oxygenated blood while veins, always carry deoxygenated blood, b. Arteries always carry blood away from the heart, while, veins always carry blood towards the heart, c. Arteries are provided with valves while veins are devoid, of valves, d. Venous blood is returned to left auricle, , 65. The advantages of RBC’s being biconcave is that, a. To increase surface area, b. They can be packed up like coins, c. They can fit into capillaries, d. None of these, 66. Which of blood constituent makes up more of the volume of, blood?, a. Red blood cells, b. White blood cells, c. Plasma, d. Blood protein, 67, , The abnormal increases in the total RBC count is, a. Pneumonia, b. Leucopenia, c. Polycythemia, d. Anaemia, , 68. The life span of human WBC is normally, a. 12–13 days, b. 20–30 days, c. 80–90 days, d. 100–120 days, 69. The largest corpuscles in mammalian blood are, a. Erythrocytes, b. Lymphocytes, c. Monocytes, d. Basophils, 70. Leukaemia is a cancer due to, a. Excessive production of RBCs, b. Excessive production of WBCs, c. Excessive production of platelets, d. All of the above, , 59. The exchange of materials blood and interstitial fluid occurs, only at the, a. Veins, b. Arteries, c. Arterioles, d. Capillary, , 71. What is diapedesis?, a. A process of coming out WBC through the capillary wall, to fight against foreign microorganism, b. A kind of a amoeboid movement, c. A type of locomotion found in hydra, d. Process of filtration of urea in kidney, , 60. The cells constituting walls of the blood capillaries known as, a. Endothelial cells, b. Parietal cells, c. Haemocytes, d. Oxyntic cells, , 72. Thromoboplastin required in blood clotting is secreted by, a. Monocytes, b. Lymphocytes, c. Erythrocytes, d. Platelets, , 61. About how much blood is in the circulatory system of an, average person, a. 1 litre, b. 2 litre, c. 5 litre, d. 10 litre, , 73. Blood clot inside a blood vessel is known as, a. Thrombosis, b. Thrombus, c. Agglutinin, d. Clot, , 62. Both erythrocytes and leucocytes are formed in the, a. Thymus, b. Bone marrow, c. Arterial walls, d. Lymph nodes, , 74 . In human, the prothrombin required for blood clotting is, produced in, a. Liver, b. Stomach, c. Spleen, d. Pancreas, , 63. An erythrocytes lives for approximately, a. One week, b. One month, c. Four months, d. One year, 64. One of the factors required for the maturation of erythrocytes, is, a. Vitamin D, b. Vitamin A, c. Vitamin C, d. Vitamin B12, , 75. The substance released at the site of injury is, a. Thrombin, b. Prothrombin, c. Thromboplastin, d. Fibrinogen, 76. A clot of blood contains, a. Prothrombin, c. Fibrin, , b. Thrombin, d. Fibrinogen
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II.D.19, , Respiration and Transportation, , 77. An anticoagulant used for preventing clotting in vitro is, sodium oxalate. It prevents clot formation by, a. Inhibiting clotting factor VIII activity, b. Combining with cations in the blood, c. Getting itself deposited over the surface of RBC, d. Blocking the fibrinogen activity, , 89. Systole causes, a. Entry of blood into lungs, b. Entry of blood into heart, c. Exit of blood from heart, d. Exit of blood from ventricle, , 78. Which of the metallic ions is essential for blood clotting?, a. Na++, b. Ca++, c. K+, d. Fe++, , 90. Normal diastolic pressure is, a. 60 mm Hg, c. 100 mm Hg, , 79. Blood group is discovered by, a. Mendel, b. Francis Nelson, c. Landsteiner, d. S. Miller, , 91. Heartbeat of an average human lasts, a. 1 minute, b. 0.8 second, c. 0.2 second, d. 0.5 second, , 80. Rh factor may be responsible for, a. Turner’s syndrome, b. AIDS, c. Sickle cell anaemia, d. Erythroblastosis foetalis, , 92. Pulse beat is measured from, a. Vein, b. Artery, , 81. Heparin in blood is released from, a. Clumped platelets, b. Granulocytes, c. Mast-cell granules, d. Non-granulocytes, 82. Oxygenated blood is carried by, a. Pulmonary artery, b. Pulmonary vein, c. Hepatic portal vein, d. Renal vein, 83. In mammals, oxygenated blood enters the heart at the, a. Right atrium, b. Left atrium, c. Right ventricle, d. Left ventricle, 84. Which chamber of a bird heart does oxygenated blood enter, first?, a. Right atrium, b. Right ventricle, c. Left ventricle, d. Left atrium, 85. When the right ventricle of heart contracts, the blood goes to, a. Lungs, b. Aorta, c. Pulmonary arteries, d. All part of the body, 86. Blood bank of the body is:, a. Heart, c. Spleen, , b. Liver, d. Bone marrow, , 87. Chordae tendineae are found in, a. Atria of heart, b. Ventricle of brain, c. Ventricle of heart, d. Truncus of heart, 88. Mammals have double circulation, it means, a. Heart chambers receive both oxygenated and, deoxygenated blood, which are completely separated from, each other, b. The blood circulates with double speed than other, vertebrates, c. There are two types of blood vessels associated to, every organ, d. The blood vessels are paired, , b. 80 mm Hg, d. 120 mm Hg, , c. Capillary, , d. Nerve, , ________ is the pace maker of heart, a. AV node, b. SA node, c. Purkinje’s fibre, d. AV septum, , 93, , 94. Lymph node act as _______ for the microorganisms, a. Messengers, b. Filters, c. Scavengers, d. None of these, 95. The chief function of lymph nodes in mammalian body is to, a. Destroy the old and worn out red blood cells, b. Produce WBCs, c. Produce a hormone, d. Collect and destroy pathogens, ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , a, , a, , c, , a, , b, , a, , b, , a, , c, , b, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , a, , d, , c, , a, , c, , b, , a, , c, , d, , d, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , b, , b, , b, , d, , a, , c, , a, , b, , a, , c, , 31, , 32., , 33., , 34., , 35., , 36., , 37., , 38., , 39., , 40, , b, , c, , b, , a, , a, , c, , c, , b, , a, , b, , 41., , 42., , 43., , 44., , 45., , 46., , 47., , 48., , 49., , 50., , c, , a, , b, , b, , d, , c, , b, , c, , b, , b, , 51, , 52, , 53, , 54, , 55, , 56, , 57., , 58., , 59., , 60., , c, , d, , b, , b, , d, , d, , a, , b, , d, , a, , 61., , 62., , 63., , 64., , 65., , 66., , 67., , 68., , 69., , 70., , c, , b, , c, , d, , a, , c, , c, , a, , c, , b, , 71., , 72., , 73., , 74., , 75., , 76., , 77., , 78., , 79., , 80., , a, , d, , b, , a, , c, , c, , b, , b, , c, , d, , 81., , 82., , 83., , 84., , 85., , 86., , 87., , 88., , 89., , 90., , c, , c, , a, , d, , d, , c, , b, , b, , d, , a, , 91., , 92., , 93., , 94., , 95., , b, , b, , b, , b, , d
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.D.20, , 3, , Excretion and Locomotion, , Expelling of non-gaseous nitrogenous wastes like ammonia,, urea, uric acid, etc along with excess of water, salts, pigments, or toxic wastes out of body, is called excretion. The process of, maintaining the right amount of water and proper ionic balance, in the body in termed as osmoregulation. Simply we can, define osmoregulation as the process of maintenance of water, and ionic contents of the body fluid (both intercellular and, intracellular). Both excretion and osmoregulation help in, maintaining internal environment of the body. Main target of, excretion is to keep balance internal chemical composition of, the body fluids, called homeostasis., Note, Excretory System Functions, Collect water and filter body fluids., Remove and concentrate waste products from body fluids and, return other substances to body fluids as necessary for, homeostasis., Eliminate excretory products from the body., Table: 3.1 Mode of Excretory in different animal groups, Animal group, , Excretory organs, , Main nitrogenous, wastes, , Platyhelminthes:, (planarians, flukes and tape, worms), , Protonephridia or, flame cells, , Ammonia and fatty, acids, , Nephridia, , Ammonia or Urea, , Coxal glands, Coxal glands and, Malpighian, tubules, , Ammonia, Guanine and Uric, acid, , Annelids: (Earthworm,, Nereis and Leeches), King crabs, Scorpion, & spiders, , Arthropods, , Insects, (cockroach), , Malpighian, tubules, , Uric acid, , Centipedes, and, millipedes, , Malpighian, tubules, , Uric acid, , Crustacean, s, , Antennary, Green glands, , or, , Amino acids, , Nitrogenous bases, Amino groups, , Birds, insects, many, reptiles, land snails, , Most aquatic animals, including many fish, , Ammonia, , Mammals, most amphibians,, sharks, some bony fish, , Kidneys, , Ammonia or uric acid, , Echinoderms (starfish), , Dermal papulae, , Ammonia, , Urochordates (Herdmania), , Neural gland, , Ammonia, , Cephalochordates, (Amphioxus), , Protonephridia, , Ammonia, , One pair of, kidney, , Ammonia, urea, uric, acid, , Uric Acid, , Urea, , Figure: 3.1, Table: 3.2 Excretory system in human beings, Kidney, , Bean shaped, located, Concavity called hilum., , Ureters, , Extend from kidney to urinary bladder,, conducted urine., Temporarily stores the urine., , Urinary bladder, , Nephron, (Excretory, or, functional, unit of the, kidney), , in, , the, , abdomen., , Extend from urinary bladder to outside, carries, urine to the outside., , Urethra, , Bowman’s, capsule, , Bowman’s capsule and glomerulus (group of, blood capillaries) are collectively called, Malpighian body or Renal corpuscle. Harmful, wastes are filtered out in it., , Nephric, tubule, , Proximal convoluted, tubule (Convoluted, part of nephron, it lies, in renal cortex.), , It is main site of, selective, reabsorption., , Loop of Henle, (present in renal, medulla), , Descending limb, (permeable to water, but impermeable to, minerals),, Ascending limb, (permeable to NaCl2, but impermeable to, water), , Distal convoluted, tubule (Convoluted, part and lies in the, renal cortex), , Most of water from, nephric filtrate is, reabsorbed through, the wall of DCT and, collecting tubule., , Ammonia, , Molluscs (snail), , Vertebrates (fishes,, amphibians, reptiles, birds,, mammals), , Nucleic Acid, , Proteins
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Excretion and Locomotion, Inferior vena cava, , II.D.21, Aorta, Adrenal gland, , Renal artery, Right kidney, , Left kidney, , Renal vein, , Ureter, , Urinary bladder, Opening of ureter, Sphincter muscle, , Urethra, , Figure: 3.2 Excretory (urinary) system in human beings, , Bowmans capsule, , Excretion in plants is by following methods, Oxygen produced as a waste during photosynthesis,, diffuses out of the leaf stomata., During the day carbon dioxide produced in respiration is, used up in photosynthesis., Water in excess is removed by transpiration through the, leaves., Resins and gums are stored in old xylem., Latex (white fluid) is stored in stems and leaves of some, plants., Zimikand tubers contain calcium oxalate crystals., Plants also excrete some waste materials from roots into the, soil., , Glomerulus, Tubular part of nephron, , Branch of renal, artery, , Movement and Locomotion, Locomotion is the movement of an animal as a whole from one, place to another. Movement of body parts is that where an, animal can move parts of its body. Movement involves three, basic mechanisms. They are amoeboid, ciliary and muscular., Table: 3.3 Three types of movement, , Renal artery, Branch of renal vein, Collecting duct, , Amoeboid Movement, , Ciliary Movement, , Muscular Movement, , Some specialised cells, in our body like, macrophages and, leucocytes in blood, exhibit amoeboid, movement., , Ciliary movement, occurs in most of our, internal tubular organs, which are lined by, ciliated epithelium., , Movement of our, limbs, jaws, tongue,, etc, requires muscular, movement., , The coordinated, movements of cilia in, the trachea help us in, removing dust, particles and some of, the foreign substances, inhaled along with the, atmospheric air., Passage of ova through, the female, reproductive tract is, also facilitated by the, ciliary movement., , The contractile, properties of muscles, are effectively used, for locomotion and, other movements by, human beings and, majority of multicellular organisms., Locomotion requires, a perfect coordinated, activity of muscular,, skeletal and neural, systems., , It is affected by, pseudopodia formed by, the streaming of, protoplasm (as in, Amoeba)., , Figure: 3.3 Structure of nephron, , Osmoregulation: Balancing of osmotic pressure between, extracellular fluid (blood) and intracellular fluid. Kidney plays, , Cytoskeletal elements, like microfilaments are, also involved in, amoeboid movement., , an important role in regulating the composition of blood by, maintaining mineral balance, exact proportion of water and, acid-alkali balance., , Movement of cell, Endocytosis, , Exocytosis, , Psedopodium, , Haemodialysis (Artificial Kidney): In case of kidney failure,, an artificial kidney is used to remove nitrogenous waste and, toxic substance from the blood through dialysis (machine acts, as a kidney). Artificial kidney differs from the functioning of, normal kidney in fact that no reabsorption occurs during, haemodialysis., , Surrounding tissue, , Receptor binding, , Figure 3.4 Amoeboid Movement
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.D.22, Movement of liquid, , Tendon, , Biceps (contracted), , 3, , 2, , 1, , 7, , Cilium, , Biceps (relaxed), , 4, , 6, , Origin, , Humerus, , 5, , 8, , Triceps (relaxed), , Cell, , Power stroke, Recovery stroke, , Radius, , Insertion, , Triceps (contracted), Ulna, , Figure 3.5 Ciliary Movement, , Figure: 3.6 Muscular Movement, , Human skeleton consists of bones and cartilage, which is, provide mechanical support to the body and protect the soft, vital organs., Skull, vertebral column, ribs and sternum form the axis of, the skeleton. Limbs are attached to the axial skeleton with, the help of girdles., , Tendon is a very dense, strong and fidrous connective, tissue with thick parallel bundle of collagen fibres. It is, connect skeletal muscles with bones., Ligament is dense fibrous connective tissue. It connect, bones at the joints and hold them in position. Its ground, substance is densely crowded with collagen fibres running, in different directions and some elastic fibres., , Table: 3.4, Bones, It is a solid, rigid and strong connective, tissue. Matrix of bone is rich in phosphate,, sulphate, carbonate and fluoride salts of, calcium and magnesium., Both organic matrix and mineral salts are, produced by cells called osteoblasts., Compact bones, represent the shaft, of long bones and, have lamellae, arranged in, haversian system, without gaps., , Spongy bones are, found in vertebrae,, ribs, skull and, epiphysis of long, bones., , Cartilage, It is a firm elastic tissue. Its matrix is rich in chonrin which consists of proteoglycans (protein chain bonded to, long chains of disaccaride hyaluronic acid units)., , Cartilage is avascular (contains no blood vessels) and nutreints are diffused through the matrix., Hyaline, is present, in sternum, hyiod, and ribs., , Its matrix clear,, homogeneous,, translucent and, bluish colour, lacking fibres., , Fibrous, this can be seen, in inter-vertebral disc., , Elastic, this can be seen, in pinna, tip of nose and, epiglottis., , Calcified, at first it is like, hyaline cartilage but later, on it gets hardened like, bone due to deposition of, calcium salts., , It contains matrix rich in, bundles of collagen fibres, along with chondrocytes., , Its matrix contains a, network of yellow elastic, fibres between scattered, chondrocytes., , E.g: Supra scapula of, frog’s pectoral girdle,, pubis of pevic girdle of, frog etc., , Muscle tissue is derived from embryonic mesoderm. Muscles, constitute nearly 40–50% of the total human body weight., Muscles have the unique properties of: excitability,, contractibility, extensibility and elasticity., Each organised skeletal muscle is made of a number of muscle, bundles or fascicles held together by a common collagenous, connective tissue layer called fascia. Each muscle bundle, contains a number of muscle fibres. Muscle fibre is a, syncytium as the sarcoplasm contains many nuclei. The, endoplasmic reticulum, i.e., sarcoplasmic reticulum of the, muscle fibres is the store house of calcium ions. A, characteristic feature of the muscle fibre is the presence of a, , large number of parallelly arranged filaments in the sarcoplasm, called myofilaments or myofibrils. Each myofibril has alternate, dark and light bands on it. Each muscle fibre is lined by the, plasma membrane called sarcolemma enclosing the, sarcoplasm. In human, muscles are classified into three, categories:, Table: 3.5 Three types of muscles, Skeletal muscles, , Smooth muscles, , Cardiac muscles, , These muscles (striated, muscles) are under the, control of the will of an, individual. Therefore, called as voluntary, muscles., , These are not under the, direct control of one's, will. Hence called as, involuntary muscles, and are innervated by, autonomic nervous, system., , As the name suggests,, cardiac muscles are the, muscles of heart.
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Excretion and Locomotion, These muscles are, found in arms, legs,, body wall, face, neck,, etc. They are attached, to the bones by tendons, and help in the, movement of the parts, of skeleton., These muscles are, responsible for, movement and, locomotion., , II.D.23, , These muscles are, composed of stender,, tapering muscle fibres, which are non-striated., These are found in the, wall of internal organs, like alimentary canal,, reproductive tract,, blood vessels, etc., Smooth muscles help in, the movement of, materials through, tubular internal organs., For example, movements of passage, of food in the intestine., , Many cardiac muscle, cells assemble in a, branching pattern to, form a cardiac muscle., Based on appearance,, cardiac muscles are, striated., , They are involuntary in, nature as the nervous, system does not, control their activities, directly., , In the centre of each ‘I’ band is an elastic fibre called ‘Z’, line which bisects it. The thin filaments are firmly attached, to the ‘Z’ line. The thick filaments in the ‘A’ band are also, held together in the middle of this band by a thin fibrous, membrane called ‘M’ line., The ‘A’ and ‘I’ bands are arranged alternately throughout, the length of the myofibrils. The portion of the myofibril, between two successive ‘Z’ lines is considered as the, functional unit of contraction and is called a sarcomere., In a resting state, the edges of thin filaments on either side, of the thick filaments partially overlap the free ends of the, thick filaments leaving the central part of the thick, filaments. This central part of thick filament, not, overlapped by thin filaments is called the ‘H’ zone., , Cardiac muscle cell, , Skeletal muscle cell, , Smooth muscle cell, Figure: 3.7 Categories of muscles in human being, , A detailed study of the myofibril has established that the, striated appearance is due to the distribution pattern of two, important proteins – Actin and Myosin., The light bands contain actin and is called I-band or, Isotropic band, whereas the dark band called ‘A’ or, Anisotropic band contains myosin. Both the proteins are, arranged as rod-like structures, parallel to each other and, also to the longitudinal axis of the myofibrils., , Definitions, 1. Excretion: The biological process by which the harmful, metabolic wastes are removed from the body., 2. Kidney: Either of the two bean-shaped excretory organs, that filter wastes (especially urea) from the blood and, excrete them and water in urine., 3. Nephron: The basic filtration unit in the kidneys, which, removes waste products from the blood and forms urine., 4. Osmoregulation: Process of maintaining the right amount, of water and proper ionic balance in the body., 5. Homeostasis: Constancy of internal chemical composition, of body fluid., , 6. Urochrome: Human urine contains water and urea. Yellow, colour of urine is due to urochrome., , 7. Dialysis: In case of kidney failure, an artificial kidney is, employed, this works on the principle of dialysis., , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , 2., , 3., , In lower animals like amoeba, excretion is mainly by, a. inhibition, , b. diffusion, , c. surface tension, , d. osmosis, , A mammal excretes nitrogen in the form of, a. ammonium ions, , b. amino acids, , c. uric acid, , d. urea, , Osmoregulation is the control over, a. removal of nitrogen from the body, b. concentrations of salt and water in the body, c. pH of the blood, d. osmotic properties of cell membranes, , 4., , 5., , 6., , Ureotelic animals are those which eliminate the nitrogenous, wastes predominantly in the form of, a. uric acid, b. amino acid, c. ammonia, d. urea, Excretory product of cockroach, a. ammonia, b. urea, c. amino acid, d. uric acid, Which one of the following sets of animals produces the, same substances as their chief excretory products?, a. cockroach, camel and lizard, b. amoeba, ant and antelope, c. man, dog and camel, d. fowl, fish and frog
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.D.24, , 7., , 8., , 9., , Excretion of nitrogenous wastes mainly as uric acid by birds, is helpful for, a. conserving body water, b. conserving body heat, c. eliminating excess body water, d. eliminating excess body heat, A marine bony fish continuously, a. acquire water and get rid of salt, b. get rid of both salt and water, c. get rid of water and acquire salt, d. acquire both water and salt, A freshwater fish must continuously, a. acquire water and get rid of salt, b. get rid of both salt and water, c. get rid of water and acquire salt, d. acquire both water and salt, , 10. Main function of Henle loop is the reabsorption of water, from the contents of renal tubules. In which of the following, loop of henle by poorly developed or absent?, a. freshwater fish, b. carvivorous birds, c. desert mouse, d. garden bladder, 11. A nephridium of an earthworm drains materials directly, from the, a. blood, b. lymph, c. gut, d. coelom, 12. A malpighian tubule empties urine into the, a. ureters, b. lymph, c. gut, d. coelom, 13. The conversion of protein waste and ammonia into urea, occurs mainly in, a. liver, b. kidney, c. lungs, d. intestine, 14. The vessel which leads blood into the Bowman’s capsule is, a. Afferent arteriole, b. Efferent arteriole, c. Renal vein, d. Renal artery, 15. Long loops of Henle correlate with, a. more concentrated urine, b. more dilute urine, c. urine hypotonic to the blood, d. urine isotonic to the blood, 16. Urine is, a. hypotonic, c. isotonic, , b. hypertonic, d. all of the above, , 17. The function of kidney in mammals is to excrete, a. extra urea, extra water and extra amino acids, b. extra urea, extra water and carbohydrates, c. extra salts, urea and excess water, d. extra urea, salts and excess water, 18. Which of the following is the part of kidney?, a. pelvis, b. ileum, c. seminiferous tubules, d. cystic duct, 19. The basic unit of a vertebrate kidney is the, a. ureter, b. nephron, c. malpighian tubuled. islets of langerhans, 20. The fluid found in the glomerular capsule is, a. glomerular filtrate, b. glomerular suspension, c. water, d. none of these, 21. The mechanism of uric acid excretion in nephron is:, a. diffusion, b. osmosis, c. secretion, d. ultrafiltration, 22. The reabsorption of glucose in a nephron occurs in, a. Loop of Henle, b. First half of proximal tubule, c. Distal convoluted tubule, d. Proximal part of collecting ducts, 23. Anti-diuretic hormone is secreted by, a. anterior lobe of pituitary, b. posterior lobe of pituitary, c. pituitary glands, d. none of these, 24. Surgical removal of both kidneys would result in death, because, a. urea will not be excreted, b. water will accumulate in blood, c. immune response will be suppressed, d. glucose response will be lost from the body, 25. Excess of urea in blood resulting from kidney failure is, known as, a. ureotelic, b. uricotelic, c. urochrome, d. uraemia, 26. The concentration of renal fluid reaches maximum in, a. hair pin bend, b. proximal convoluted tubule, c. ascending limb, d. distal convoluted tubule, 27. Renal fluid becomes more and more dilute in, a. ascending limb, b. descending limb, c. proximal convoluted tubule, d. distal convoluted tubule
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Excretion and Locomotion, , II.D.25, , 28. Micturition takes place, a. When the brain transmits motor impulses, b. Contraction of urinary bladder and relaxation of sphincter, c. When stretch receptors of urinary bladder are stimulated, d. All of the above, 29. Which of the following are removed from blood in the, kidneys?, a. Urea, b. Water, c. Sodium, d. Ammonia, 30. Resin occurs mostly in, a. phloem, b. new xylem, c. parenchyma, d. old xylem, 31. Which one of the following excretory organ is under nervous, control?, a. kidney, b. urinary bladder, c. ureter, d. urethra, 32. Which of the following devices is used artificially to remove, nitrogenous waste products from the blood?, a. Ventilator, b.Transfusion, c. Hemodialysis, d. Angiogram, 33. Which of the following regulates the percentage of water and, salts?, a. Skin, b. Kidney, c. Lungs, d. Bladder, 34. The chief inorganic substance present in the urine is:, a. potassium, b. calcium, c. sodium chloride, d. magnesium, 35. The function of kidneys is:, a. conversion of carbohydrates, b. conversion of bile wastes, c. conversion of protein wastes, d. none of these, , 40. The major constituent of vertebrate bone is, a. potassium hydroxide, b. calcium carbonate, c. calcium phosphate, d. sodium chloride, 41. Besides calcium phosphate the bones contain, a. calcium chloride, b. sodium chloride, c. magnesium phosphate, d. magnesium carbonate, 42. Haversian system is typically found in bones of, a. fishes, b. aves, c. reptiles, d. mammals, 43. A bone is distinguished from cartilage by the presence of, a. Collagen, b. Lymph vessels, c. Blood vessels d. Haversian canals, 44. During muscle contraction, a. chemical energy is changed into mechanical, b. chemical energy is changed into electrical, c. mechanical energy is changed into electrical, d. mechanical energy is changed into chemical, 45. Striated muscles are found in, a. gallbladder, b. wall of bladder, c. leg muscles, d. lungs, 46. Striped muscles fibre has, a. no nuclei, c. two nuclei, , b. one nuclei, d. many nuclei, , 47. Sarcolemma is found over, a. skeletal muscle fibre, c. heart, , b. nerve fibre, d. heart muscle, , 48., , 36. Tendon is made up of, a. mainly collagen fibres, b. inelastic connective tissue fibres, c. elastic connective fibre tissue, d. inelastic and elastic connective tissue fibre, 37. Tendons connects, a. cartilage with muscles, c. bone with muscles, , b. ligament with muscles, d. bone with bone, , 38. Strongest cartilage is, a. Hyline cartilage, c. Elastic cartilage, 39. Bone forming cells are, a. Osteoblasts, c. Chondroblasts, , Muscle which are immune to fatigue are:, a. unstriped muscles, b. cardiac muscles, c. jaw muscles, d. skeletal muscles, , 49. Muscle develop from, a. ectoderm, c. mesoderm, , b. endoderm, d. all the above, , 50. The total number of bones in human body is, a. 206, b. 205, c. 216, d. 636, 51. Axial skeleton in human is made up of, a. 126 bones, b. 103 bones, c. 100 bones, d. 80 bones, 52. Skull of human is made up of, a. 10 bones, b. 22 bones c. 30 bones, , d. 24 bones, , b. Fibrous cartilage, d. None of these, , 53. Cranium in human is made up, a. 10 bones, b. 12 bones c. 16 bones, , d. 8 bones, , b. Osteoclasts, d. Chondroclasts, , 54. Total number of bones present in forelimb of human is, a. 25 bones, b. 26 bones, c. 24 bones, d. 30 bones
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.D.26, , 55. Patella is a kind of, a. sesamoid bone, c. cartilage bone, , 65. Osteoblasts are found in, b. membrane bone, d. cartilage, , 56. Which of the following is likely to have the strongest leg, bone?, a. golfer, b. weight lifter, c. swimmer, d. jockey, 57. Longest bone is, a. humerus, c. steps, , d. 6 pair, , suggest, a. inability to fly, , b. fast running adaptation, , c. strong flying ability, , d. fast swimming adaptation, , 62. Ilium is a term applied to structure like, a. part of small intestine, , b. part of pelvic girdle, , c. pectoral girdle, , d. pulmonary tract, , 63. The smallest bone in mammals is, , 64., , d. stapes, , 66. Knee joint is, a. pivot joint, , b. hinge joint, , c. ball and socket joint, , d. gliding joint, , 67. Hensen’s disc is the other name of, b. A-band, , c. I-band, , d. Z-line, , Extremities of long bones have, a. elastic cartilage, , b. calcified cartilage, , c. hyline cartilage, , d. fibrous cartilage, , a. adductors, , b. abductors, , c. complementary muscles, , d. antagonistic muscles, b. white fibres, d. cardiac muscles only, , 70. The word ‘anisotropic band’ of skeletal muscle fibre refers to, a. ‘Z’ line, b. Light, c. Dark, d. Both (a.) and (c.), , 61. Large and well-developed sternum with keel, in a bird, , c. femur, , d. cartilage, , 69. Myoglobin are found in, a. red fibres, c. can be traced in both, , 60. Which part of pectoral girdle?, a. sternum, b. ilium, c. acetabulum d. glenoid cavity, , b. dentary, , c. muscle, , 68. Biceps branchii and triceps branchii are, , 58. Joint between sternum and ribs in human is, a. gliding joint, b. cartilaginous joint, c. angular joint, d. fibrous joint, , a. septomaxillary, , b. blood, , a. H-zone, , b. femur, d. radio-ulna, , 59. Number of floating ribs in human, a. 2 pair, b. 3 pair, c. 5 pair, , a. bone, , ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , b, , d, , b, , c, , b, , c, , a, , a, , c, , 10., a, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , d, , c, , a, , a, , a, , b, , d, , a, , b, , a, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , d, , b, , b, , a, , d, , a, , a, , c, , a, , d, , 31., , 32., , 33., , 34, , 35., , 36., , 37., , 38., , 39., , 40., , b, , c, , b, , c, , c, , a, , c, , b, , a, , c, , 41., , 42., , 43., , 44., , 45., , 46., , 47, , 48., , 49., , 50., , c, , d, , d, , a, , c, , d, , a, , d, , c, , a, , 51., , 52., , 53., , 54., , 55., , 56., , 57., , 58., , 59., , 60, , d, , b, , d, , d, , a, , b, , b, , b, , a, , d, , 61, , 62., , 63., , 64., , 65., , 66., , 67., , 68., , 69., , 70, , c, , b, , d, , c, , a, , b, , a, , d, , a, , c, ,
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II.D.27, , Control and Coordination, , 4, , Control and Coordination, , Coordination is the working together of the various organs in a, systematic manner so as to produce a proper reaction to the, stimulus. A change to which an organism interacts is called a, ‘stimulus’ while interaction is called its ‘’response’., All living organisms show sensitivity to change in the, environment., There are two types of controls in organisms: nervous control, (occurs by sending electrical signals called nerve impulse) and, endocrine control (by sending chemical messengers called, hormones)., Note, A living being does not live in isolation. It has to constantly, interact with its external environment and has to respond, properly for its survival., For example; when a hungry lion spots a deer, the lion has to, quickly make a move so that it can have its food. On the other, hand, the deer needs to quickly make a move to run for its life., The responses which a living being makes in relation to, external stimuli are controlled and coordinated by a system;, especially in complex animals., , Internal environment, , Nervous System, , Emergency response, reaction, Interaction, , Interaction, Homeostasis of the, internal environment, , Short-term effects, Long-term effects, Endocrine, system, , Biological defence, , Interaction, , Immune, system, , Control System in Plants, Plants lack nervous and muscular system. Plants respond to, stimuli by showing two types of movements – growth, independent and growth dependent., , Growth independent movements are usually quicker than, growth dependent ones, and involve the use of electrochemical, signals by the plant. To achieve this movement, the plant cells, change shape by altering their water content., Growth dependent movements or tropic movements are slow,, occurring either towards or away from the stimulus., Table: 4.1 Chemical substances called plant hormones regulate plants, response:, Plant hormone, , Function, , Auxin, , Cell elongation, , Cytokinin, , Cell division, , Gibberellin, , Growth of stem, , Abscisic acid, , Inhibits growth, , Ethylene, , Ripening of fruits, , Table: 4.2 Various types of movements in plants, Types, , Sub-types, , Turgor, movement, (Due to, changes in, turgidity of, cells), , I., Autonomic, turgor, movements, (turgor, changes by, intrinsic, factors), , II. Nastic movements, (Non-directional turgor changes induced by, external factors), Photon, Seismonastic, Nyctinasti, (response to, astic, c, (respon, mechanical, (response, se to, stimuli i.e., to diurnal, light, shock, touch,, turgor, intensit, injury etc.), changes), y), , Growth, movements, (Due to, differential, growth of, body parts), , I., Autonomic, growth, movements, (differential, growth due, to internal, factors), , II. Paratonic growth movements, (differential growth due to external factors) called, tropic movements or tropism, Photo, tropic, , Geotrop, ic, , Hydro, tropic, , (in, respo, nse to, direct, ion of, sourc, e of, light), , (in, response, to, gravitati, onal, pull of, earth), , (in, respo, nse to, water, availa, bilit), , Chemo, tropic, (in, respons, e to, specific, chemic, a), , Hydr, onasti, c, (respo, nse to, water, availa, bility), , Thig, motro, pic, (in, respon, se to, stimul, us of, touch, or, contac, t), , Photoperiodism and Flowering:, The response of plant to the relative lengths and alternations of, light and dark periods with regard to initiation of flowering is, called photoperiodism. On the basis of length of photoperiod,, plants have been classified into:, Short day plant (Tobacco, rice cosmos, dahlia, soyabean etc),, Long day plants (Wheat, oat, radish, lettuce),, Day neutral plants (Tomato, sunflower, etc.).
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.D.28, , Table: 4.4 Neuron: (nerve cell) consists of the following parts:, Cyton, , Dendrites, , Axon, , Figure 4.1 Plant showing phototropism, , Negatively, geotropic, , Positively, geotroic, , Figure 4.2 Plant showing geotropism, , Coordination in Animals: A system of control and, coordination is essential in living organisms so that the, different body parts can function as a single unit to maintain, homeostasis as well as respond to various stimuli. In animals,, the nervous system and hormonal system are responsible for, control and coordination., Table: 4.3 Nervous Coordination in Lower Organism, Diffused nervous system (There is no central organ, Coelenterates, (Hydra), such as brain), Ladder type nervous system (A ganglion is a mass of, Flatworms, (Planaria, liver, neurons and the nerve cord), fluke, tape worm,, etc.), Central nervous system (comprises circumAnnelids, (Earthworm), pharyngeal nerve ring and nerve cord), Insects (Cockroach, Central nervous system (nerve ring is circumGrasshopper), oesophageal and nerve cord), , Nerve, ending, , A cell body containing different cell organelles and the, nucleus and the cytoplasm in the cyton also contains Nissl’s, granules., These are small processes of the neuron and work to collect, the signal and send it towards the cell body., It is the long process of neuron. It conducts impulse away, from the cell body., It is the ending of axon in knob like structure, is release, chemical called neurotransmitters into the synapse to, transfer the impulse to the next neuron., , Nervous Coordination in Higher Organisms, Animal possess specialised called sense organ (receptors) for, receiving a variety of external information., Receptors are:, Photoreceptors (for light e.g., eyes), Phonoreceptors (for sound e.g., ears), Gustatory receptors (for taste, e.g., tongue), Olfactory recpetors (for smell, e.g., nose), Tangoreceptors (for touch, e.g., skin), Thermoreceptors (for changes in temperature, e.g., skin), Nerve impulses travel in the following manner from one, neuron to the next: Dendrites → Cell body → Axon →, Nerve Endings at the Tip of Axon → Synapse → Dendrite of, next Neuron., Table: 4.5 Human Nervous System, Central nervous, Peripheral nervous, system, system, (dorsal, hollow and, (formed of thread-like, non-ganglionated), nerves), Brain, Spinal, Cranial, Spinal, (upper,, cord, nerves, nerves, broader), (lower,, (between, (between, long,, brain and, spinal, narrow, body, cord and, and, parts), body, extends, parts), from neck, to trunk), Table: 4.6 Central Nervous System: Brain, Part of Brain, , Neurons are specialised cells of the nervous system. They use, electrical and chemical signals for transferring information., , Fore Brain, , Function, Cerebrum, , Hypothalamus, Nucleus, Dendrite, , Axon, , Mid Brain, , Governs intelligence, thinking, memory, and other mental abilities, voluntary, actions, sensations, emotions and, speech, Coordinates messages from the, autonomous nervous system, controls, certain involuntary actions, as well as, the sexual and emotional behaviour and, forms an axis with the pituitary., , Thalamus, , Functions as major coordinating centre, for sensory and motor signalling., , Optic lobes, , Acts as the coordinating centre between, forebrain and hindbrain; also controls, certain involuntary movements., , Nerve ending, , Cell body, Figure 4.3 Structure of Neuron, , Autonomic nervous, system (controls, involuntary function, of visceral organs), Sympathe Parasym, tic, pathetic, nervous, nervous, system, system, (They have opposite, effects on the organs, if one is stimulatory,, the other is inhibitory), , Cerebral, peduncles
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II.D.29, , Control and Coordination, Hind Brain, , Cerebellum, , Pons, , Medulla, , Responsible for precision and fine, control of voluntary movements as well, as maintaining posture and equilibrium, of the body., Relays impulses between the lower, cerebellum and spinal cord, and higher, parts of the brain like the cerebrum and, mid-brain; also regulates respiration., Contains vital centres for controlling, blood pressure, respiration, swallowing,, salivation, vomiting, sneezing and, coughing., , Cerebrum, Cranium (skull), , Mid-brain, Fore-brain, , Hypothalamus, Pituitary gland, , Pons, Hind-brain Medulla, Spinal cord, , Cerebellum, , Hypothalamus, Anterior pituitary, Posterior pituitary, , Motor nerves, Spinal Cord , , → Muscleor gland impulse(action), Electric, , An instrument called electroencephalograph can record electrical, activity of brain. The activity of brain is recorded as electric, potentials, such record is called electroencephalogram (EEG)., , Endocrine System, Endocrine system is a collection of glands that secretes, chemical messages called hormones. Hormones are, chemical messengers or informational molecules which, help in control and coordination of activities of the body., Hormones discovered by William M. Bayliss and Ernest, H. Starling., Hormones are chemical substances secreted in trace, amounts by specialised tissue; called endocrine glands are, located in different parts of human body. It is also called, ductless glands because these lack a duct, so secrete, hormones generally in blood, e.g., thyroid, parathyroid,, pituitary, etc., Exocrine glands have ducts and release their secretion in, their ducts to carry them on the body surface or some, specific body parts inside the body, e.g., sweat gland,, salivary gland, liver etc., Heterocrine glands are partly endocrine and partly, exocrine so are dual in function, e.g., pancreas., , Hypothalamus, Figure 4.4 Structure of human brain, Pineal gland, , Reflex action is an automatic, rapid, involuntary and, immediate reaction to a stimulus. Reflex arc is the neural, pathway that mediates a reflex action., Spinal cord (CNS), , Message of brain, , Pituitary gland, , Thyroid gland, Trachea, Skin, Lung, , Thymus, Heart, , Sensory neuron, , Liver, , Motor neuron, Receptors in skin, , Relay neuron, Effector = Muscle in arm, , Pancreas, Small intestine, , Figure 4.5 Reflex arc, , Kidney, Uterus, , Ovary, Scrotum, , Reflex arc can also be shown as follows:, Sensory nerves, →, .Stimulus → Receptor , (E.g. Skin) Electric impulse, , Stomach, , Adrenal glands, , Figure 4.6 Endocrine System in Human, , Testes
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.D.30, Table: 4.7 Endocrine glands, their position, structure, hormones and functions, Endocrine, Position, Structure, Hormones, gland, Ventral and lateral sides, Brown-coloured, shieldThyroid gland, Thyroxine, of upper part of windpipe, like and bilobed, Thyrocalcitonin, Parathyroids, , Adrenals, or Suprarenals, , 4 in number; two, embedded in each lobe of, thyroid, 2 in number, lie on upper, borders of kidney, , Parathormone (PTH), , Regulates calcium and phosphorus balance in blood., , Yellow-coloured, small, sized and conical shaped, , Glucocorticoids, e.g. cortisol, , Regulates metabolism of carbohydrates, , Mineralocorticoids, e.g.,, aldosterone, Sexcorticoids, , Regulates salt and water metabolism, , Adrenaline (epinephrine), , Regulates blood pressure, heart beat and respiratory, rate during emergency, , Non-adrenaline, , Controls blood pressure, heart beat and respiratory, rate during normal condition, , Releasing factors, , Regulates the secretion of hormones from anterior, lobe of pituitary gland., , Thyroid stimulating, hormones (TSH), , Stimulates thyroid for production of thyroxine, hormone., , Growth hormone (GH) or, Somatotropic hormone, (STH), Adrenocorticotropic, hormones (ACTH), , Stimulates growth and development of tissue (bone, and muscles), , Prolactin hormone (PH), , Stimulates growth of mammary gland and formation, of milk after childbirth, Stimulates gonads to produce gametes, , Lower side of, diencephalons, , With neuro-secretory cells, in masses of neurons, , Pituitary gland, , Below hypothalamus, , Small-sized, pinkish and, pea seed shaped. It is, formed in 3 lobes., Anterior lobe (secretes 7, hormones), , Follicular stimulating, hormone (FSH), Luteinising hormone (LH), Interstitial cells stimulating, hormones (ICSH), , Regulates secondary sex characters, , Stimulates adrenal cortex to release more corticoid, (cortisol), , In female control ovulation and development of, corpus lutem and secretion of progesterone., Stimulates in male secretion of testosterone., , Intermediate lobe, (1 hormone), , Melanocyte-stimulating, hormone (MSH), , Controls synthesis and dispersal of melanin pigment, cells (darken skin), , Posterior lobe, (2 hormones), , Oxytocin, , Relaxin, , Stimulates contraction of smooth muscles of uterus, so helps in childbirth., Regulates water and electrolyte balance (control, reabsorption of water in kidneys), Lower blood sugar level., Increase blood sugar level., Control development of male reproductive system, and secondary sexual characters like; facial hair,, voice, increasing height and broadening of shoulders., Growth and functioning of secondary sexual organs, like fallopian tubes, uterus, etc. and enlarged, mammary glands., Stops ovulation and stimulates implantation,, placentation and development of foetus so maintains, pregnancy., Widens the pelvis and helps in easy childbirth., , Thymosin, , Differentiation of T-lymphocytes of immune system., , Pancreas, , In loop of duodenum of, small intestine, , Elongated and yellow, coloured, , Testes, , Lie in scrotal sacs, between the legs in male, , Oval shaped and pinkish, coloured, , Ovaries, , In abdomen just behind, and outer to the kidneys in, female, , Small sized whitish and, oval shaped, , Vasopressin or Anti-diuretic, hormone (ADH), Insulin, Glucagon, Testosterone, , Oestrogens, , Progestrone, , Just above the heart, , Regulates metabolism of carbohydrates, fat and, protein. Controls basal metabolic rate (BMR)., Regulates calcium and phosphorus balance in blood, , Oval shaped. Small sized, and yellow coloured, , Hypothalamus, , Thymus, , Functions, , Soft, pinkish and bilobed, mass, , Increase the rate of cell division so controls growth, of body.
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II.D.31, , Control and Coordination, Table: 4.8 Difference between Nervous system and Endocrine system, Nervous system, Endocrine system, Mode of, Electrical impulses, Chemical compounds, communication, Speed of, Very quick, Slow, communication, Can reach, All cells of the body, Only cells connected by, nervous system, Continuity, , Cannot continuously, transmit impulses, , Motor neuron: A neuron that conducts impulses from the, central nervous system to muscle or gland., Relay neuron: A neuron which connects sensory neurons, with motor neurons in neural pathways., Reflex action: An automatic, rapid, involuntary and, immediate reaction to a stimulus., Reflex arc: The neural pathway that mediates a reflex action., Cranial nerves: Nerves arising from the brain, Spinal nerves: Nerves arising from the spinal cord., Tropic movements: The directional movements shown by, plants in response to environmental factors., Hormone: The secretion of an endocrine gland that is, transmitted by blood to specific tissues in the body., Phototropism: The movement of a plant towards or away, from light., Hydrotropism: The movement of a plant either towards or, away from water., Geotropism: The directional movements shown by plants, in response to gravity., Chemotropism: Movement or growth of an organism or, part of an organism in response to a chemical stimulus., Endocrine gland: A ductless gland that secretes hormones, directly into the bloodstream., Feedback mechanism: A type of self-regulating, mechanism in which the level of one substance in body, influences the level of another., , Can act steadily and, persistently, , Definitions:, Receptors: Specialised structures at the ends of the nerve, fibres that collect the information to be conducted by the, nerves, and are located in the sense organs., Gustatory receptors: Receptors present in tongue and, capable of detecting taste., Olfactory receptors: Receptors present in nose and, capable of detecting smell., Synapse: A specialised junction between two neurons,, across which nerve impulse passes., Neuromuscular junction: The junction between a nerve, fibre and the muscle cell it supplies., Nerve impulse: An electrochemical signal that travels, through a neuron in response to a stimulus., Effectors: A muscle, gland, or organ capable of responding, to a stimulus, especially a nerve impulse., Sensory neuron: A neuron that conducts impulses from a, receptor organ to the central nervous system., Multiple Choice Questions, 1, , 2., , 3., , Phytohormones are, a. Hormones regulating growth from seed to adulthood, b. Growth regulators synthesised by plants and, influencing physiological processes, c. Hormones regulating flowering, d. Hormones regulating secondary growth, Who demonstrated that cut tip of canary grass seedling, resume phototropic sensitiveness when pasted back in its, position?, a. F.W. Went, b. Boysen Jensen, c. Charles Darwin, d. Paal, If the tip of a seedling is cut off, growth as well as, bending ceases because it hampers, a. Perception of light stimulus, b. Respiration, c. Transpiration, d. Photorespiration, , 4., , Auxin inhibits the growth of, a. Apical buds, b. Roots of cutting, c. Lateral axillary buds, d. Parthenocarpic development of fruits, , 5., , Which one of the following nutrients is concerned with, the growth of the plants in view of their role in synthesis, of auxin?, a. S, b. K, c. Mn, d. Zn, , 6., , Which of following is a weed killer?, , a. 2,4-D, 7., , 8., , b. NAA, , c. ABA, , d. GA 3, , Storage sprouting of potato can be prevented by, a. IAA, b. Cytokinins, c. Gibberellins, d. Malic hydrazide, Gibberellins were first isolated from, a. Algae, b. Fungus, c. Bacteria, d. Roots of higher plants
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II.D.32, , 9., , Gibberellins stimulates, a. Elongation of internodes, c. Initiation of lateral roots, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , b. Curvature of coleoptiles, d. Cell division, , 10. Which of the following is responsible for apical, dominance?, a. GA3, b. IAA, c. ABA, d. Florigen, 11. Which of the hormone can replace vernalisation?, a. Auxin, b. Ethylene, c. Gibberellins, d. Cytokinins, 12. Which of the following is primarily concerned with cell, division?, a. Cytokinin b. GA3, c. IAA, d. NAA, 13. Cut leaves remain green for longer time when dipped in, a. Ethylene, b. Auxin, c. Cytokinin, d. Gibberellins, 14. Growth regulator that retards ageing of plant organ is, a. Auxin, b. Cytokinin, c. Gibberellins, d. Abscisic acid, 15. Naturally occurring growth inhibitor is, a. IAA, b. ABA, c. NAA, , d. GA, , 16. Abscisic acid controls, a. Shoot elongation, b. Cell division, c. Cell elongation and cell wall formation, d. Leaf fall an dormancy, 17. Which of the following triggers the ripening of fruits?, a. Ethylene, b. Indoleacetic acid, c. Gibberellic acid, d. Kinetin, 18. Ethylene is a, a. Gaseous enzyme, c. Solid hormone, , b. Gaseous hormone, d. Liquid gas mixture, , 19. Photoperiodism is, a. Flowering plant, b. Recurrence of day and night, c. Effect of day length on flowering of a plant, d. Growth curvature in response to light, 20. The pigment that absorbs red and far red light in plants is, a. Cytochrome, b. Phytochrome, c. Xanthophylls, d. Carotene, 21. Phytochrome is used for, a. Flowering only, c. Transpiration only, , b. Seed germination only, d. Both (a.) and (b.), , 22. Apical dominance in higher plants is due to, a. Balance between auxin and cytokinis, b. Enzyme activity, c. Supply of carbohydrates, d. Photoperiodism, , 23. Phototropic and geotropic movements in plants have been, traced to be linked with, a. Enzymes, b. Starch, c. Gibberellins, d. Auxin, 24. Bending of growing shoot towards sunlight is called, a. Heliotropism, b. Hydrotropism, c. Photonasty, d. Phototropism, 25. Growth of the plant or plant part towards the earth is, called, a. Hydrotropism, b. Phototropism, c. Geotropism, d. Thigmotropism, 26. Thigmotropism is best exhibited by, a. Leaf apex, b. Stem apex, c. Root apex, d. Tendrils, 27. Pneumatophores are, a. Thigmotropic, c. Positive geotropic, , b. Ageotropic, d. Negative phototropic, , 28. Auxanometer is meant for, a. Growth activity, c. Respiratory activity, , b. Photosynthetic activity, d. Amount of auxins, , 29. Movements of leaves of the sensitive plant Mimosa, pudica is due to, a. Thermonasty, b. Photonasty, c. Seismonasty, d. Nyctinasty, 30. Opening and closing of flowers represents a kind of, a. Nastic movement, b. Tropic movement, c. Nutation, d. Autonomic movement, 31. The first animals to have nervous system were probably, similar to modern, a. Sponges, b. Flatworms, c. Annelids, d. Cnidarians, 32. The longest cell in the body of an animal is, a. Osteocytes, b. Neuron, c. Chromatophores, d. Lymph corpuscles, 33 . Which cell stops dividing after birth?, a. Glial cells, b. Epithelium, c. Liver, d. Neuron, 34. Which of the following is not a function of neuron?, a. Receive information, b. Conduct a signal, c. Form the myelin sheath, d. Coordinate metabolic activities, 35. Largest part of the human brain is:, a. Olfactory lobe, b. Cerebral hemisphere, c. Corpus callosum, d. Optic nerve
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Control and Coordination, , II.D.33, , 36. Axon is characterised by, a. Transformation of energy, b. Receiving the impulse, c. Providing energy for impulse, d. Conduction of impulse, 37. Hearing is controlled by, a. Temporal lobes, c. Optic lobes, , b. Cerebrum, d. Medulla oblongata, , 38. Appetite and satiety centre in the brain are located in the, region of, a. Cerebellum, b. Hypothalamus, c. Cerebral hemispheres, d. Medulla oblongata, 39. Which part of mammalian brain controls the muscular coordination?, a. Cerebrum, b. Cerebellum, c. Corpus callosum, d. Medulla oblongata, 40. Spinal cord passes through, a. Obturator foramen, c. Sphenopalatine foramen, , b. Condylar canal, d. Foramen magnum, , 41. How many pairs of spinal nerves in human?, a. 8, b. 12, c. 25, d. 31, 42. How many pairs of cranial nerves in human?, a. 8, b. 12, c. 25, d. 10, 43. The second cranial nerve is:, a. Optic, b. Olfactory, c. Oculomotor, d. Ophthalmic, 44. The vagus nerve is the cranial nerve numbering, a. 5, b. 7, c. 9, d. 10, 45. Which one of the following cranial nerves plays an, important role in regulating heart beat?, a. VII, b. VIII, c. IX, d. X, 46. A reflex arc does not involve, a. The brain, b. A receptor, c. A sensory pathway, d. A motor pathway, 47. The organ, which give response to external and internal, stimuli, are known as, a. Chemoreceptors, b. Photoreceptors, c. Receptors, d. Tactile receptors, 48. Receptors of pressure present in deep layers of skin are, a. Krause’s end bulb, b. Meissner’s corpuscles, c. Corpuscles of ruffini, d. Pacinian corpuscles, 49. In mammals Meissner’s corpuscles found in, a. Skin and are tactile receptors, b. Skin and are thermoreceptors, c. Spleen and manufacture lymphocytes, d. Thymus and secrete thymosin hormone, , 50. The inhibitory effect of vagus nerve on the heart is due to, the secretion of, a. Glycine, b. Dopamine, c. Acetylcholine, d. Norepinephrine, 51. Which is not true of a synapse?, a. Neurotransmitters are released from dendrites, b. Neurotranmitters affect post-synaptic neurons, c. A synaptic cleft separates the neurons of the synapse, d. Many neurons may be involved, 52. Refles arc is formed by, a. Receptor-brain-muscles, b. Muscles-spinal cord-receptor, c. Receptor-spinal cord-muscles, d. Muscle-brain-receptor, 53. If a man could learn to stop his heart beat at will, he must, have control over his, a. Central nervous system, b. Peripheral nervous system, c. Autonomic nervous system, d. Cranial nerves, 54. Autonomic system is composed of, a. Sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves, b. Cranial and spinal nerves, b. Brain and spinal cord, d. Medullated and non-medullated nerves, 55. Which of the following if not a characteristic of human, sympathetic nervous system, a. Increase heart beat, b. Has ganglia near the spinal cord, c. Prepares the persons for “fight or flight”, d. A craniosacral division of the autonomic nervous, system, 56. Part of the eye, which is devoid of blood vessel, a. Retina, b. Choroids c. Cornea, d. Sclera, 57. The cornea and lens of mammalian eye, both are, a. Transparent and they diverge the light rays to form an, image on retina, b. Transparent and they contribute in the formation of, image on retina, c. Richly supplied by blood vessels, d. Richly supplied by nerve, 58. Which part of the donor’s eye is used for grafting in order, to cure certain cases of blindness?, a. The entire eye, b. Retina, c. Lens, d. Cornea
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II.D.34, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 59. In human eye, at the blind spot, a. Only rods are present, b. Only cones are present, c. Both rods and cones are present, d. Neither rods nor cones are present, , 70. If you are riding a bicycle and take a sudden turn around a, sharp corner, the organs involved in the maintenance of, balance is:, a. Semicircular canals, b. Medulla oblongata, c. Cerebrum, d. Optic chiasma, , 60. Concave lens is used to correct, a. Myopia, b. Presbyopia, c. Hypermetropia, d. Cataract, , 71. Endocrine glands put their secretion directly into, a. Duct, b. Blood, c. Both, d. None of these, , 61. The amount of light falling on the eye lens is controlled by, a. Lens capsule, b. Ciliary body, c. Iris, d. Cornea, , 72. The first hormone to be isolated was, a. Thyroxine, b. Testosterone, c. Epinephrine, d. Secretin, , 62. Reduction is the elasticity of eye lens with age may, results in, a. Cataract, b. Myopia, c. Hypermetropia, d. Presbyopia, , 73. Hormones of hypothalamus are called, a. Angiotensins, b. Tropic hormones, c. Growth hormones, d. Regulatory hormones, , 63. If a person wears convex glasses for proper vision. Where, you think the image of the object is formed in his eyes, when he is not using the glasses?, a. Behind the retina, b. On the yellow spot, c. In front of the retina, d. On the blind spot, 64. A person uses concave lenses, if he sees after removing its, spectacles, then in his eyes mage of the object will be formed, a. Behind the retina, b. On fovea centralis, c. In front of retina, d. Far from retina, 65. The compound eye of an insect, a. Forms coloured images, b. Forms only black and white images, c. Detects only the intensity and direction of light, d. Detects only infrared light, , 74. Pituitary gland is found in, a. Around trachea, c. Pancreas, , b. Gonad, d. Brain, , 75. Which one is not secreted by pituitary gland?, a. FSH, b. Thyroxine, c. GH, d. ACTH, 76. Anterior lobe of pituitary secretes, a. TSH, ADH and prolactine, b. ACTH, TSH and oxytocin, c. LH, FSH and growth hormones, d. STH, GH and antidiuretic hormones, 77. Gonadotropins are secreted from, a. Gonads, b. Hypothalamus, c. Anterior pituitary, d. Posterior pituitary, , 66. The structure in a human that provide balance are located in, the, a. Outer ear, b. Middle ear, c. Inner ear, d. Eustachian tubes, , 78. Gorillas like man with huge hand and legs. This is due to, the abnormal secretion of, a. Pituitary FSH, b. Pituitary GH, c. Pituitary LH, d. Thyroid, , 67. The site from where the nerve impulse for hearing, originates in mammals is:, a. Semicircular canals, b. Cochlea, c. Hammer, d. Eustachian tube, , 79. Hypersecretion of growth hormones by pituitary results, a. Dwarfism, b. Cretinism, c. Myxedema, d. Gigantism, , 68. Cochlea of mammalian internal ear is concerned with, a. Balance of body posture, b. Hearing, c. Both balance and hearing, d. Perception of atmospheric pressure, 69. Suppose you felt an earthquake, which of the following, sense organ would you think was involved in this feeling?, a. Eyes, b. Skin of your soles, c. Proprioceptors, d. Ears, , 80. The synthesis and release of thyroxine from the thyroid, gland is stimulated by:, a. LH, b. FSH, c. TSH, d. ACTH, 81. LH and FSH are, a. Anti-stress hormones, c. Emergency hormones, , b. Neurohormones, d. Gonadotropic hormones, , 82. FSH is to oestrogen as LH is to, a. Progesterone, b. Testosterone, c. Vasopressin, d. LTH
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II.D.35, , Control and Coordination, , 83. LH is responsible for, a. Controlling activity of corpus luteum, b. Development of mammary glands, c. Ovulation and formation of corpus luteum, d. Growth of female reproductive organs, 84. A woman whose pituitary was damaged by disease can, have a baby if she is given, a. Small quantities of FSH and LH each day, b. Small quantities of FSH and LH each day and one, large dose of LH on 15th day, c. Small quantity of oestrogen every day for 28 days after, birth, d. 20 microgram each day of oestrogen and progesterone, each day for 14 days, 85. Continued secretion of milk is maintained by, a. Prolactine, b. Progesterone, c. Oestrogen, d. Aldosterone, 86. MSH produced by the pars inter media of pituitary causes, in lower vertebrates, a. Light colouration of skin b. Darkening of skin, c. Both (a.) and (b.), d. None of these, 87. Hormone oxytocin at the time to birth acts on uterus by, a. Reducing the lumen of uterus, b. Increasing the movement of foetus, c. Producing rhythmic movement in uterus, d. Stimulating the smooth muscles to contract, 88. If there is deficiency of ADH its effect would be, a. The volume of urine will increase, b. The volume of urine will decrease, c. Secretion of urochrome takes place, d. The pH of urine will change from 4.8–8.00, 2+, , 89. Ca level is controlled by, a. FSH, c. Pancreas, , b. Thyroxine, d. Thyroid and parathyroid, , 90. Cretinism in young children is due to lack of, a. Vitamin D, b. Growth hormones, c. Calcitonin, d. Thyroxine, 91. Master gland in the body, a. Thyroid, c. Pituitary, , b. Adrenal, d. Islets of langerhans, , 92. Androgens are secreted from, a. Ovary and placenta, b. Testis and adrenal, c. Ovary and testis, d. Thymus and parathyroid, 93. Treatment with alloxan destroys the, a. Sertoli cells, , b. Leydig cells, c. β–cells of the pancreatic islets, d. STH cells, 94. Failure of insulin production results, a. Addison’s disease, b. Cushing’s disease, c. Diabetes insipidus, d. Diabetes mellitus, Function of relaxin hormones is, a. Relax public symphysis b. Relax ovaries, c. Relax uterus, d. Relax fallopian tubule, , 95, , 96. A male moth finds a mate by means of her, a. Thyroxine, b. Pheromone, c. Ecdysone, d. Brain hormones, 97. The hormones that helps in reabsorption of sodium and, water in the body is, a. Testosterone, b. Progesterone, c. Aldosterone, d. All of these, 98. The hormone that helps in the implantation of embryo, a. Testosterone, b. Insulin, c. Prolactine, d. Progesterone, 99. Excess production of parathormones results in, a. Tetany, b. Acromegaly, c. Goitre, d. None of these, 100. Which one of the following does not secrete any, hormones?, a. Thyroid, b. Ovary, c. Testes, d. Spleen, ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , b, , c, , a, , c, , d, , a, , d, , b, , a, , b, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , c, , a, , c, , b, , b, , d, , a, , b, , c, , b, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , d, , a, , d, , a, , c, , d, , b, , a, , c, , a, , 31., , 32., , 33., , 34., , 35., , 36., , 37., , 38., , 39., , 40., , 10., , d, , b, , a, , d, , d, , a, , c, , d, , a, , c, , 41., , 42., , 43., , 44., , 45., , 46., , 47., , 48., , 49., , 50., , a, , c, , c, , a, , d, , c, , b, , d, , d, , a, , 51., , 52., , 53., , 54., , 55., , 56., , 57., , 58., , 59., , 60., , a, , c, , c, , a, , d, , c, , b, , d, , d, , a, , 61., , 62., , 63., , 64., , 65., , 66., , 67., , 68., , 69., , 70., , c, , d, , a, , c, , a, , c, , a, , b, , d, , a, , 71., , 72., , 73., , 74., , 75., , 76., , 77., , 78., , 79., , 80., , b, , d, , b, , d, , b, , c, , c, , b, , d, , c, , 81., , 82., , 83., , 84., , 85., , 86., , 87., , 88., , 89., , 90., , d, , a, , c, , b, , a, , b, , d, , a, , d, , d, , 91, , 92., , 93., , 94., , 95., , 96., , 97., , 98., , 99., , 100., , c, , b, , c, , d, , a, , b, , c, , d, , a, , d
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.D.36, , 5, , Reproduction and Growth, , Reproduction is the biological process by which new, individuals of the same kind are produced. Reproduction is not, essential for the survival of an organism, but is vital for the, survival of a species. Reproduction produces identical copies, of the body design. DNA is the informational macromolecule, of our body. It provides information for protein synthesis., During cellular reproduction, DNA duplication occurs, followed by creation of an additional cellular apparatus. The, process of DNA copying is not accurate, resulting in variations, arising during reproduction, which is the basis for evolution., Variations may or may not be beneficial for the individual, but, help in the survival of the species during adverse conditions., Depending on their body design, the modes of reproduction, differ in different organisms., , Reproduction is broadly divided into two types, i.e., asexual, reproduction (genetically identical offspring are produced, from a single parent and without fusion of gametes) and sexual, reproduction (A new offspring is produced by combining the, genetic information from two individuals of different sexes)., Table: 5.1 Mode of asexual reproduction, Fission, , A parent cell divides into two (binary fission e.g., Amoeba, yeast and bacteria.) or more (multiple fission, e.g. Plasmodium) similar daughter cells., , Budding, , An outgrowth develops on parent body and get detach, when fully mature, e.g. Hydra., , Fragmentation, , In this process, the body of an individual breaks up into, two or more parts and each part can produce an offspring,, e.g. Spirogyra., , Regeneration, , Any part of animal when cut can give rise to new, individual, e.g. Planaria., , Sporulation, , During spore formation, one of the cells enlarges and, forms the sporangium. The nucleus divides many times, within the sporangium, and each nucleus, with a bit of, cytoplasm, develop into a spore., Stems, the, Roots,, Leaves,, Natural, tuberous, common, Bryophyllum, roots of, grass and, leaves, Sweet, mint grow, produce buds, potato and, their stems, in the notches, mint bear, horizontally in the margin., adventitiou parallel to, s buds., the ground., Cutting,, Layering,, Grafting,, Artificial, from a, it is the, joining of, piece of, developme, parts of two, stem, root,, nt of roots, different, leaf or, on a stem, plants such, even a, while it is, that they, bulb scale,, still, grow as a one, e.g. Rose, attached to, plant., and Phalsa. the parent, (Especially, plant, e.g., dicotyledonou, jasmine,, s plants, e.g., magnolia., rubber, apple,, pear, citrus,, mango and, guava., , Vegetative, propagation, +, Further, mitotic cell, divisions,, maturation, and, developmen, t, , 2N, , 2N, , meiosis, , meiosis, , N, , Further, mitotic cell, divisions,, maturation, and, development, , N, , egg, , sperm, 2 N zygote, , Many mitotic, divisions, +, , Figure 5.1, , Note, Reproduction is important for each species, because this is the, only way for a living being to continue its lineage., Apart from being important for a particular individual,, reproduction is also important for the whole ecosystem., Reproduction helps in maintaining a proper balance among, various biotic constituents of the ecosystem. Moreover,, reproduction also facilitates evolution because variations come, through reproduction; over several generations., , Micropropagation or, Tissue culture, , In this technique, a small piece of tissue is cut from a, plant and is transferred to a nutrient medium under aseptic, conditions., The tissue divides and re-divides and forms a callus., Small part of this callus, transferred to another medium, which induces formation of plantlets. These plantlets, transplanted in soil to form an adult plant, e.g., Chrysanthemum.
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II.D.37, , Reproduction and Growth, Spores, , Figure 5.2 Binary fission in Amoeba, , Figure 5.7 Spore formation in Rhizopus, , Vegetative propagation is the reproductive method in which, new plants are produced asexually from roots, stems or leaves, of the parent plant. Flower contains both stamen and pistil is, termed as bisexual or hermaphrodite. Transfer of pollen grains, from the anther of one flower to the stigma of another flower is, known as pollination., , Figure 5.3 Multiple fission in Plasmodium, , Sexual Reproduction in Plants, Sexual reproduction involves fusion of two gametes, to form a, new individual. In angiosperms, flower is the reproductive, organ of the plant. Stamen, the male reproductive part of, flower, is made up of anther and filament. Carpel is the female, reproductive part and is composed of stigma, style and ovary., Ovary is the swollen basal part of carpel that bears one or, several ovules., Stigma, , Pollen grain, Anther, Pistil, Style, Ovary, , Pollen tubes, , Stamen, Stigma, , Filament, , Figure 5.4 Regeneration in Planaria, , Embryo, Sperm, Seed, nuclei, Zygote, Egg, Seed coat, nucleus, Endosperm, , Tentacles, , Sepal, , Petal, Ovule, , Endosperm nucleus, Polar nuclei, , Figure 5.8 How flowering plant reproduce, , Bud, , Figure 5.5 Budding in Hydra, , Buds, , Figure 5.6 Buds on B ryophyllum, , Note, To remember the roles of reproductive organs in flowers:, Stamen are male;, Stigma (as in mother) are female., , Pollination: The transfer of pollen grains from anther to, stigma is called pollination. There are two types of pollination:, Self pollination take place in same flower or between two, flowers on the same plant., Cross pollination takes place between two flowers of, different plants of the same species., Agents of Pollination: The transfer of pollen grains in, cross pollination is accomplished by:
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.D.38, Abiotic Pollination, without the, involvement of other organisms., , Anemophily (by wind), , Biotic Pollination, organisms carry or move, the pollen grains., , Entomophily (by insects), , Hydrophily (by water), , Ornithophily (by birds), Chiropterophily (by bats), , Plumule, (future shoot), Cotyledon, (food store), , Radicle, (future root), , Malacophily (by snails), Figure 5.9 Seed germination, , Myrmecophily (by ants), Zoophily (by any type of, animal), , Fertilisation: Pollination is followed by fertilisation. It is the, fusion of male and female gametes. It is also known as, syngamy., Formation of male gametes: After transfer of pollen grains, from the anther to the stigma, mature pollen consists of two, cells, larger one is vegetative and smaller one is generative cell., Vegetative cell starts growing and emerge out through the, germ pore. The generative cell gets into the pollen tube and, divides into two male gametes., Germination of Pollen on Stigma, The pollen tube enters into the embryo sac through, micropyle., This time pollen tube bursts open and gametes released, from the pollen tube into the embryo sac., One of the gametes fuses with egg and the other fuses with, the secondary nucleus., The fertilised egg is known as zygote which develops into, embryo., The secondary nucleus is diploid in nature. So, fusion of this, nucleus with the second male gamete is known as triple fusion., Endosperm is a nutritive tissue meant for the development, of the embryo. Triple fusion nucleus is called endosperm, nucleus because it develops into endosperm., One of the male gamete fuses with the egg cell and the other, male gamete fuses with the definitive nucleus is known as, Double Fertilisation. Following fertilisation, the ovule, develops into seed whereas the ovary forms the fruit. On, germination, the seed develops into a seedling., , Sexual Reproduction in Human: Human beings are unisexual, or dioceous (separate sexes)., Table: 5.2 Male Reproductive System, Situated outside the abdominal cavity., Testes, Germ cells of seminiferous tubules form sperms by, spermatogenesis and Leydig (interstitial) cells secrete, testosterone., Epididymis, , It is involved in storage (stores sperm 18 hrs. to a few, days), nutrition and functionally maturation of the, sperms., Vas deferens, (sperm duct), , It is a long, narrow and tubular structure which starts, from epididymis, enters the abdomen, passes over, urinary bladder and joins the duct of seminal vesicle to, form ejaculatory duct., It is conducts the sperms by peristalsis., , Urethra, , It is extends from the urinary bladder to the distal end, of the penis, so carries both sperm and urine and is, commonly called urinogenital canal., , Penis, , It is a cylindrical, erectile and copulatory organ that, helps in transfer of semen from male to female., , Table: 5.3 Male Reproductive Glands, , Seminal vesicle, one, pair of sacculated, glands present in, between the rectum, and urinary bladder., , Body cavity, Urinary, Bladder, , Prostate gland, single,, large-sized and, lobulated gland present, just below the urinary, bladder., , Cowper’s gland, a, pair of white, pea-seed, sized glands present at, base of penis., , Ureter, Rectum, Seminal Vesicle, , Erectile, Tissue, , Urethra, , Germination of Seed: The process, by which the dormant, embryo of the seed becomes active, grows and forms a, seedling or a young plant capable of independent existence is, called germination., , It is a tightly coiled series of thread-like tubules that, form a comma shaped structure on the posterior side of, the testes., , Prostate Gland, , Vas Deferens, Epididymis, , Glans Penis, Scrotum, , Testis, , Figure 5.10 Male Reproductive System in Human
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II.D.39, , Reproduction and Growth, Spematic cord, Vein, Artery, Nerve, Ductus (vas), deferens, , Developing, follicles, , Mature graafian, follicle, , Antrum filed with, liquar follicule, Expulsion of secondary cocute, , Primary, cocyte, , Corpus luteum of, menstruation, , Ovary, , Head of epididymis, Testis, ovulation, , Lobule, , Venous lacunae, , Uterine gland, , Body of, epididymis, , Endometrial, vein, , Spiral artery, , Septum, Capsule, Seminiferous tubule, , Basal artery, Arcuate artery, Uterus, , Figure 5.11 Structure of Testis, , Female reproductive system is concerned with formation of, ova, fertilisation, foetal development and child birth., , 0, , 4, , Menstrual, phase, , 14, , organs which suspend near the kidney in pelvic cavity by a, ligament. Ovaries consist of thousands of mature eggs or, Theca, Follicle cells, , Formation of ova by oogenesis by the germ cells of ovary and, , Secretory, phase, , 28, , Premenstrual, phase, , Figure 5.12 Female reproductive system in human, , Table: 5.4 Female Reproductive System, A pair of almond-shaped female gonads or the primary sex, Ovaries, , follicles., , 26, , Proliferative, phase, , Growing ovarian follicles, Zona pellucida, Germinal epithelium, Ovum, Peritoneum, Mesovarlum, , Cortical stroma, , secretion of female hormones; oestrogens and progesterone., , General epithelium, , Membrana granulosa, , Fallopian, , It is extends from the area of the ovaries to the uterus. The, , tubes, , outer part of each fallopian tube lying close to ovary, has a, , (oviducts), , wide aperture called ostium, and number of finger like, , Medullary stroma, Corona radiata, , Corpus albicans, , Discus proligerus, , Corpus luteum, , Follicular cavity, , processes, called fimbriae, to receive the ovum released from, , Fibrous connective, tissue, , the ovary., , Lutein cells, Blood clot, , Ruptured Follicle with, Clotted Blood, , It is site of fertilisation so also called fertilisation canal and, conduction of zygote or ovum towards uterus by ciliary action, and peristalsis., Uterus, , Figure 5.13 Structure of Ovary, , It is pyriform, muscular thick walled but distensible bag like, organ, present in the pelvis between the urinary bladder and, rectum. Its internal lining called endometrium and lower and, narrow part is called cervix which is opens into vagina., It is the seat of implantation, placentaion and foetal, development and it muscular wall, myometrium helps in, expelling of baby during childbirth., , Vagina, , It is the female copulatory organ, birth canal as well as, passage way for menstrual flow. Vaginal opening is covered, , Menstrual Cycle: The human reproductive cycle is basically, concerned with the sexual cycle of a woman, which begins at, the age of puberty. It involves the series of cyclic changes, occurring in the ovaries and female reproductive tract during, the reproductive period of females. Each cycle last about 28, days. The first menstruation is called menarche (at the age of, 10–13 years), Stoppage of menstruation permanently is called, menopause (at the age of 45–50 years). The cycle also stops, temporarily during pregnancy., , by a thin mucous membrane called hymen., Vulva, , It is external genitalia has a depression, called vestibule, two, pairs of labia (lips) and pubic hair., , Table: 5.5 Female reproductive glands, , Bartholin’s glands are one pair,, small-sized present on the sides of, vagina and secrete mucus to, lubricate the vagina during, copulation, , Mammary glands are one pair of, rounded structure present on ventral, thoracic wall. It has number of, opening milk ducts., , Table 5.6 Menstrual cycle consists four phases, Menstrual phase, The drop of oestrogen and progesterone that triggers, (day 1–5), results is an increase in GH and subsequent increase in, FSH late in phase., Proliferative, phase, (day 6–13), , Level of FSH and LH increases causing release of, estrogen from secondary follicles which is becomes, Graafian follicle., , Ovulation, (day 14), , Increase level of LH which is turn results in ovulation, (release of secondary oocyte & surrounding cells from, the ovarian follicle)
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.D.40, Decreased level of LH cause the corpus luteum to, become a corpus albicans. This stops the production of, oestrogen and progesterone level fall, corpus albicans, degenerate and menstruation begins., , Post ovulatory, phase, (day 15–28), , Permanent, method of, sterilisation, , Castration, Vasectomy, Ovariectomy, , Fundus of uterus, Ovarian artery and vein, Isthmus, Body of uterus, Ampulla, Perimetrium, Uterine tube, Suspensory, ligament of ovary, , Surgical, methods, , Tubectomy, Mesovarium, , Ovary, , Infundibulum, , Round ligament, of uterus, , Tubal ligation, , Fimbriae, Broad, ligament, , Myometrium, , Abortions, Ovarian ligament, , Uterine artery, and vein, , Uterine cavity, Endometrium, , Isthmus of uterus, , Internal of (internal orifice), Cervical canal, , Vaginal artery, , Cervix, Cervical of, (external orifice), , Vagina, , Vaginal rugae, , Figure 5.14 Menstrual Cycle, , Fertilisation: It involves fusion of haploid male gamete, (sperm) and female gamete (ovum) to form diploid zygote., In human female, fertilisation is internal and occurs in, fallopian tube. Penetration of sperm into ovum is a, chemical process and is aided by the sperm lysine, (hyaluronidases enzyme) secrete by the acrosome., Embryonic development: It starts from zygote is formed, in the fallopian tube and pregnancy begins. Embryo moves, down to reach the uterus, and gets attached to its thickened, inner wall. This close attachment embryo with the uterine, wall is called implantation., After implantation, a special tissue called placenta, develops between uterine wall and foetus. Thus, placenta is, a connection of between mother and foetus. Development, of foetus inside the uterus till the birth is called gestation, (gestation period is about 28 days or 40 week). At the time, of birth, the uterine muscles contract under the influence of, oxytocin hormone., It is also aided by relaxin hormone of the ovary which, causes widening of pelvis and vagina for easy childbirth., The birth of fully developed foetus is called parturition., Engaging in unprotected sexual intercourse can cause, pregnancy as well as spreading of sexually transmitted, diseases like gonorrhea, syphilis and AIDS., Table: 5.7 Method of Population Control, Mechanical, methods, Chemical, methods, , Removal of testes, in male., Cutting the vas, deferens of male, Removal of, ovaries, Cutting the, fallopian tubes of, female., Blocking of, fallopian tubes., Remove, termination of, pregnancy before, foetus become, viable., , Use of condom, IUDs (intra-uterine devices, e.g. copper-T),, Diaphragm and cervical caps, Oral pills and Vaginal pills, , Definitions, Reproduction: The biological process by which new, individuals of the same parental kind are produced., Variation: The differences found among individuals of a, group or species, caused either by genetic differences or by, the effect of environment on genes., Fission: A type of asexual reproduction in which the, unicellular parent organism divides into two or more parts,, each developing into genetically identical individuals., Fragmentation: The reproductive method in which certain, multi-cellular organisms, on maturation, break up into, smaller fragments, each of which develops into new, individual., Budding: The reproductive method in which an organism, produces an outgrowth on its body surface, which then, matures and develops into a new individual., Spore: A small, usually single-celled reproductive body, produced by certain fungi, bacteria, algae, and nonflowering plants, which is highly resistant to desiccation, and heat and is capable of growing into a new organism., Parthenogenesis: Virgin birth, development of egg without, fertilisation., Fertilisation: Fusion of male and female gametes to form, zygote, which eventually develops into an embryo., Germination: The process in which a seed develops into a, seedling under appropriate conditions., Puberty: The period during adolescence when a child's, body becomes sexually mature and develops into adult, form., Ovulation: The periodic release of an ovum from the, ovary., Contraception: The prevention of conception by the use of, birth control devices or pills or surgery.
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II.D.41, , Reproduction and Growth, , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , Which of the following is propagated means of cuttings?, a. Sugarcane, b. Coffee, c. Citrus, d. All of these, , 11. Pollination is a characterised of, a. Angiosperm, b. Bryophytes, c. Pteridophytes, d. Thallophyta, , 2., , Reproduction in Bryophyllum takes place by, a. Root, b. Leaf, c. Stem, d. None of these, , 3., , In which plant vegetative reproduction takes place with, the help of bulbils, a. Agave, b. Colocasia, c. Zingiber, d. Vallisneria, , 12. When pollen of a flower is transferred to the stigma of, another flower of the same plant the pollination is referred, to as, a. Autogamy, b. Allogamy, c. Xenogamy, d. Geitonogamy, , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , Scio is term in relation to, a. Layering, c. Grafting, , b. Cutting, d. Micropropagation, , Parthenogenesis is, a. Development of fruit without hormones, b. Development of egg without fertilisation, c. Development of fruit without fertilisation, d. Development of embryo without fertilisation, Natural parthenogenesis occurs in, a. Honey bee, b. Frog, c. Man, d. None of these, Micropropagation is, a. A technique to obtain new plants by cultivating the, cells or tissue in culture medium, b. Germination of seed with cotyledons above the soil, c. Mature stage of endosperm, d. None of these, Totipotent cells is, a. An undifferentiated cell capable of developing into an, organ, b. An undifferentiated cell capable of developing into a, system or entire plant, c. Cells that lack capability of differentiating into an, organ, d. An undifferentiated cell capable of developing into, complete embryo, Haploid cells are, a. Many sets of chromosomes, b. Three sets of chromosomes, c. Two sets of chromosomes, d. One set of chromosomes, , 10. After culturing the anther of a plant, a few diploid plants, were got along with haploid plants. Which of the, following parts might have given rise to diploid plants?, a. Vegetative cell of pollen b. Cells of anther wall, c. Generative cell of pollen d. Intine of pollen wall, , 13. Embryo sac is found in, a. Endosperm, c. Embryo, , b. Ovule, d. Seed, , 14. Synergids are, a. Haploid, c. Triploid, , b. Diploid, d. Tetraploid, , 15. The allogamy is best favoured by, a. Chasmogamy, b. Cleistogamy, c. Homogamy, d. Dicliny, 16. Pollination by bats is called, a. Entomophily, b. Cheiropterophily, c. Malacophily, d. Ornithophily, 17. Hydrophily is best demonstrated by, a. Nelumbium, b. Vallisneria, c. Nymphaea, d. Ranunculus, 18. Entomophily is pollination by, a. Water, b. Animals, c. Air, d. Insects, 19. Study of pollen grains is called, a. Pomology, b. Palynology, c. Olericulture, d. Cytology, 20. The study of fruits is called, a. Polynology, c. Silviculture, , b. Horticulture, d. Pomology, , 21. Pollination by ants is called, a. Entomophily, b. Cheiropterophily, c. Myrmecophily, d. Ornithophily, 22. How many pollen mother cells will produce 1000 pollen, grains?, a. 100, b. 200, c. 300, d. 250, 23. The chief pollinators of our agri-horticultural crops are, a. Moths, b. Bees, c. Beetles, d. Butterflies, 24. In Ficus religiosa (peepal) the pollination is affected by, a. Water, b. Insects, c. Birds, d. Air
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II.D.42, , 25. Lever mechanism for pollination is characteristic feature of, a. Salvia, b. Fiscus, c. Ocimum, d. Ranunculus, 26. The insect Blastophaga grossorum is associated with the, pollination of:, a. Mango, b. Ficus, c. Paddy, d. Nelumbium, 27. Chromosome number is constant in all body cells except, a. Nucellus, b. Integuments, c. Root tip, d. Endosperm, 28. Emasculation is, a. Pollination between flowers of different plants, b. Pollination between flowers of same plant, c. Removal of the stamens of a plant to prevent self, pollination, d. Artificial pollination, 29. In angiosperm meiosis occurs when, a. Flowers are formed, b. Pollen grains are formed, c. Seeds are formed, d. Seeds are germinated, 30. In angiosperm how many microspore mother cells are, required to produce 100 pollen grains?, a. 25, b. 50, c. 75, d. 100, 31. Process of embryo formation without fertilisation, a. Apogamy, b. Parthenogenesis, c. Apospory, d. Polyembryony, 32. Zygote always is, a. Haploid, b. Diploid, c. Both (a.) and (b.), d. Triploid, 33. Which one of the following events is not directly affected, by light in a vegetable garden?, a. Flowering, b. Food manufacture, c. Fertilisation d. Seed germination, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 37. Syngamy refers to, a. Fusion of one of the sperms with secondary nucleus, b. Fusion of one of the sperms with the egg, c. Fusion of one of the sperms with synergids, d. Fusion of the one of the sperms with the egg and other, with secondary nucleus, 38. The correct sequence of reproductive stages seen in, flowering plants is, a. Gametes, embryo, zygote, seedling, b. Zygote, gametes, embryo, seedling, c. Embryo, gametes, zygote, seedling, d. Gametes, embryo, zygote, seedling, 39. In coconut black covering adherent to the kernel around, the endosperm is, a. Mesocarp, b. Seed coat, c. Pericarp, d. Epicarp, 40. Seeds are called products of sexual reproduction because, they, a. Give rise to new plants, b. Are formed by fusion of pollen tubes, c. Are formed by fusion of gametes, d. Can survive for longer periods, 41. Milky water of green coconut is, a. Liquid chalaza, b. Liquid nucellus, c. Liquid endosperm, d. Liquid of female gametophyte, 42. Morphologically the white fluffy edible mass in maize is, a. Seed coat, b. Endosperm, c. Perisperm, d. Seed, 43. The testes are abdominal in, a. Elephant, c. Rabbit, , b. Goat, d. Kangaroo, , 34. External water is not essential for fertilisation in, a. Thallophyta, b. Bryophyta, c. Tracheophyta, d. Sprematophyta, , 44. Testes are masses of coiled, a. Uriniferous tubules, c. Vasa efferentia, , b. Malpighian tubules, d. Seminiferous tubules, , 35. Double fertilisation is characteristic of, a. Angiosperms, b. Gymnosperms, c. Algae, d. Bryophytes, , 45. Failure of descending testis into the scrotum in known as, a. Paedogenesis, b. Cryptorchidism, c. Castration, d. Impotency, , 36. Double fertilisation means, a. Fusion of eggs and pollen nucleus of two pollen nuclei, b. Fusion of one male gamete with the egg and other with, the secondary nucleus, c. Fusion of one male gamete with the egg and other with, synergids, d. Fusion of two eggs, , 46. Which of the following is an accessory reproductive, gland in male mammals?, a. Prostate gland, b. Gastric gland, c. Mushroom shaped gland d. Inguinal gland, 47. Each ejaculate of a man contains about how many sperm?, a. 200, b. 2000, c. 200,000, d. 200,000,000
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II.D.43, , Reproduction and Growth, , 48. Testosterone is secreted by which endocrine part of testis, a. Sertoli cells, b. Leydig cells, c. Tunica albugenia, d. Seminiferous tubules, 49. Acrosome of spermatozoa helps in, a. Digestion, b. Locomotion, c. Excretion, d. Fertilisation, 50. Graafian follicle are characteristically found in the, a. Ovary of mammal, b. Ovary of frog, c. Testis of mammal, d. Thyroid of mammal, 51. Graafian follicle contains, a. Many oocytes, c. A single oocyte, , b. Many sperms, d. Site for egg fertilisation, , 52. The correct sequence of organs in the male reproductive, system for transport of sperms is, a. Testis → vas deferens → urethra, b. Testis → ureter → urethra, c. Testis → urethra → ureter, d. Testis → vas deferens → ureter, 53. Fertilisation takes place in the, a. Follicle, b. Oviduct, c. Uterus, d. Vestibule, 54. Fertilzins are the substances secreted from, a. Mature egg, b. Sperms, c. Immature egg, d. Polar body, 55. The hormone responsible for inducing spermatogenesis, and oogenesis is, a. Estrogen, b. Androgen, c. LH, d. FSH, 56. Spermatozoa are nourished during their development by, a. Sertoli cells, b. Intestinal cells, c. Connective tissue cells, d. Mast cells, 57. The sperm produces substances of enzymatic nature of, sperm lysins, in mammals it is called, a. Androgamone, b. Cryanogamone, c. Hyaluronidase, d. Hyaluronic acid, 58. The region where sperm enters the egg is called, a. Equator, b. Receptive cone, c. Animal pole, d. Vegetative pole, 59. Number of ova released at a time in female human beings, is, a. 4, b. 3, c. 2, d. 1, 60. Rupturing of follicle and discharge of ova is known as, a. Ovulation, b. Copulation, c. Conjugation, d. Oviposition, , 61. The hormone that is present in greatest concentration, during the time of ovulation, a. Progesterone, b. LH, c. FSH, d. Estrogen, 62. Number of mature eggs do each ovary of a non-pregnant, woman typically produces each year, a. 12, b. 6, c. 24, d. 52, 63. The menstrual cycle begins with a breaking down of the, womb wall. The ovum or egg is released, a. About half way through the cycle, b. About 20 days through the cycle, c. At the beginning of the cycle, d. At the end of the cycle, 64. In 28 days human ovarian cycle, ovulation occurs on, a. Day 1, b. Day 10, c. Day 14, d. Day 28, 65. Menstruation is triggered by an abrupt decline in the, amount of, a. LH, b. FSH, c. Oestrogen, d. Progesterone, 66. Menopause is the stage in human female when, a. Menstruation starts, b. Puberty starts, c. Menstruation stops and reproductive capacity is, arrested, d. None of these, 67. The limited period of sexual receptive that occurs around, the time of ovulation in all female mammals except, humans called, a. Menstruation, b. Luteinisation, c. Oogenesis, d. Estrous, 68. Which of the following hormones maintains the integrity of, the uterine wall during pregnancy?, a. Oestrogen, b. Progesterone, c. Relaxin, d. Prolactin, 69. In human female the fertilised eggs gets implantation in, uterus, a. After 2 months of fertilisation, b. After 1 month of fertilisation, c. After 3 weeks of fertilisation, d. After about 7 days of fertilisation, 70. Monoestrous animals have, a. One ovulation each month, b. One breeding season in a year, c. One menses each month, d. One egg
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II.D.44, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 71. Gestation period is the duration, a. of fertilization, b. between egg growth and ovulation, c. between fertilisation and parturition, d. none of these, , 81. What would happen if vasa efferentia of man were cut?, a. Sperms become non-nucleate, b. Semen is without sperms, c. Sperms are non-motile, d. Spermatogenesis does not occur, , 72. Gestation period in human is about, a. 200, b. 250, c. 280, d. 300, , 82. Copper-T is a device that prevents, a. Implantation of blastocyst b. Fertilisation, c. Ovulation, d. Egg maturation, , 73. Which of the following is capable of self reproduction in, cell division?, a. Protein molecule, b. DNA molecule, c. Fat molecule, d. Carbohydrate molecule, , 83. Which of the following diseases is not sexually, transmitted?, a. Syphilis, b. Hepatitis, c. HIV-AIDS, d. Gonorrhoea, , 74. Mammalian egg contains negligible yolk so the survival, of such embryo is made possible by the fact that they are, a. Nourished through placenta, b. Milk fed, c. Too small and need not much food, d. None of these, , 84. External fertilisation occurs almost exclusively in habitat, that is, a. warm, b. tropical, c. aquatic, d. crowded, , 75. Placenta is the region, where, a. Foetus is supplied by maternal blood, b. Foetus receives maternal blood and nutrition, c. Embryo is attached to mother by umbilical cord, d. Embryo enclosed by membrane, 76. Placenta in man, a. Yolk sac, c. Haemochorial, , b. Primitive, d. Syndesmochorial, , 77. In pregnant woman having prolonged labour pains, if the, childbirth has to be hastened, it is advisable to administer, a hormone that can, a. Active the smooth muscles, b. Stimulate the ovary, c. Increase the metabolic rate, d. Release glucose into the blood, 78. For a few days after delivery, the mammary glands of, human females secrete a highly nutritive fluid, which is, known as, a. Secretin, b. Colostrum, c. Serotonin, d. Rennin, 79. Blocking of fallopian tubes by using an instrument called, laparoscope is termed as, a. Ligation, b. Tubal ligation, c. Castration, d. Copulation, 80. Contraceptive oral pills help in birth control by, a. Killing the ova, b. Killing the sperm, c. Forming barriers between sperms and ova, d. Preventing ovulation, , 85. Birds are, a. oviparous with internal fertilisation, b. oviparous with external fertilisation, c. ovoviviparous, d. viviparous, 86. Mosquito is, a. Oviparous, c. Viviparous, , b. Ovoviviparous, d. Parthenogenetic, , 87. Viviparity is found in, a. Earthworm, c. Frog, , b. Rabbit, d. Pigeon, , 88. Animals which give rise to more of less developed young, ones are called, a. Oviparous, b. Ovoviviparous, c. Viviparous, d. Parthenogenetic, 89. Human beings are:, a. Ovoviviparous, c. Parthenogenetic, , b. Oviparous, d. Viviparous, , 90. Animals which show viviparity include, a. whales, b. bony fishes, c. running birds, d. turtles, 91. Which one is an oviparous animal?, a. Whale, b. Amoeba, c. Penguin, d. Bat, 92. Larva of frog is called, a. Maggot, c. Nymph, 93, , b. Tadpole, d. Miracidium, , The extra structure that provide nutrition to the embryo is, a. chorion, b. placenta, c. umbilicus, d. amnion
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II.D.45, , Reproduction and Growth, , 100. Which one of the following is the most widely accepted, method of contraception in India, as at present?, a. IUDs, b. Cervical caps, c. Tubectomy, d. Diaphragms, , 94. Structure connecting the foetus to placenta is, a. chorion, b. amnion, c. yolk sac, d. umbilical cord, 95. In the human zygote, the male sex is determined by:, a. Whether mother gets good nourishment, b. Whether father is stronger than the mother, c. Strength of the male chromosome, d. Required composition of chromosomes, , ANSWERS, , 96. Test tube baby means a baby born when:, a. The ovum is fertilised externally and thereafter, implanted in the uterus, b. It develops from a non-fertilised egg, c. It is developed in a test tube, d. It is developed through tissue culture method, 97. The early stage human embryo distinctly possesses:, a. Gills, b. Gill slits, c. External ear (pinna), d. Eye brows, , 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , d, , b, , a, , c, , b, , a, , a, , b, , d, , b, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , a, , d, , b, , a, , d, , b, , b, , d, , b, , d, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , c, , d, , b, , b, , a, , b, , d, , c, , b, , a, , 31., , 32., , 33., , 34., , 35., , 36., , 37., , 38., , 39., , 40., , b, , b, , c, , d, , a, , b, , b, , d, , b, , c, , 41., , 42., , 43., , 44., , 45., , 46., , 47., , 48., , 49., , 50., , c, , b, , a, , d, , b, , a, , d, , b, , d, , a, , 98. Which one of the following events is correctly matched, with the time period in a normal menstrual cycle?, a. Release of egg: 5th day., b. Endometrium regenerates: 5–10 days, c. Endometrium secretes nutrients for implantation: 11–18, days, d. Rise in progesterone level: 1–15 days., , 51., , 52., , 53., , 54., , 55., , 56., , 57., , 58., , 59., , 60., , c, , a, , b, , a, , d, , a, , c, , b, , d, , a, , 61., , 62., , 63., , 64., , 65., , 66., , 67., , 68., , 69., , 70., , b, , b, , a, , c, , d, , c, , d, , b, , b, , d, , 71., , 72., , 73., , 74., , 75., , 76., , 77., , 78., , 79., , 80., , b, , c, , b, , a, , b, , c, , a, , b, , b, , d, , 81., , 82., , 83., , 84., , 85., , 86., , 87., , 88., , 89., , 90., , 99. The phase of menstrual cycle in humans that lasts for 7–8, days is:, a. Follicular phase, b. Ovulatory phase, c. Luteal phase, d. Menstruation, , b, , a, , d, , c, , a, , a, , b, , c, , d, , a, , 91., , 92., , 93., , 94., , 95., , 96., , 97., , 98., , 99., , 100., , c, , b, , b, , d, , d, , a, , b, , b, , b, , a, ,
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.D.46, , 6, , Heredity and Evolution, , Reproduction produces offspring’s with similar body design of, the parents. However the offspring are not identical, but show a, great deal of variation from the parents. Variations arise during, the process of reproduction. They may be few in asexual, reproduction, but many in case of sexual reproduction. The, minor variations arising during asexual reproduction are caused, by slight inaccuracies in DNA copying. In sexual reproduction,, variations are also caused by crossing over process of meiosis., Beneficial variations help the species to survive better in the, environment. Nature selects the beneficial variations thereby, leading to evolution., , The laws of heredity were discovered by Gregor Johann, Mendel in about 1856–1863. Mendel conducted experiments, in plant hybridisation, collecting the results of cross-fertilising, hundreds of edible pea plants (Pisum sativum)., , Note, If a single individual reproduces, as happens in asexual, reproduction. If one bacterium divides, and then the resultant, two bacteria divide again, the four individual bacteria, generated would be very similar. There would be only very, minor differences between them, generated due to small, inaccuracies in DNA copying., , Note, Heredity: The passing of traits from the parents to offspring is, called heredity. This is heredity which is responsible for many, commonly observable facts; like siblings looking similar in, overall appearance., , However, if sexual reproduction is involved, even greater, diversity will be generated, as we will see when we discuss the, rules of inheritance., Heredity: It means the transmission of features/, characters/traits from one generation to the next generation., Variation: The differences among the individuals of a, species/population are called variations. These are of two, types: Somatic variations (occur in the somatic cell) and, Germinal variations (present in germ cells). Sexually, reproducing organisms like humans have two (or more), versions of genes for each trait, called alleles., , The results from Mendel's experiments confirmed his ideas, about heredity: The law of segregation, which has become, known as Mendel's First Law, and The law of independent, assortment, also known as Mendel's Second Law. The portrait, opposite is of Gregor Mendel (1822–1884). Mendel was, known as “Father of Genetics”., , Concept of Dominance: In a cross involving a pair of, contrasting traits, only one of the traits appears in the F1, generation. This trait is called a dominant trait. The other trait, which does not appear is known as a recessive trait., Homozygous: Having the same allele at the same locus on, both members of a chromosome pair., Heterozygous: Having different alleles at the same locus on, members of a chromosome pair., Genotype: The complete set of genes in an organism’s genome, is called genotype., Phenotype: The observable characters in an organism make, the phenotype. Phenotype is a result of genotype’s interaction, with the environment. Due to this reason, many phenotypes are, not inheritable., , Table: 6.1 Chronology, , Variation, , Inheritance, Selection, , Time, , Darwin, 1859, Unknown, , Vertical, Natural, Artificial,, Sexual, 500 million, years, , Modern, Synthesis 1942, Changes in, “genes”, Random, mutations due to, copy errors and, damage, Vertical, Natural, Artificial,, Sexual, Drift, 2 billion years, , Integral Model 2012, Changes in DNA, Mobile DNA, Changes, in, regulation, Dynamic Genome, Hybridisation, Random mutations, Vertical, Horizontal, Natural, Artificial,, Sexual, Drift, Kin., Group, 3.7 billion years, , Mendel’s Experiments: Mendel conducted a series of, experiments in which he crossed the pollinated plants to study, one character (at a time)., Table: 6.2 Contrasting characters, (seven parts), Characters, , Dominant Trait, , Recessive Trait, , Flower Colour, , Purple, , White, , Flower position, , Axial, , Terminal, , Seed colour, , Yellow, , Green, , Seed shape, , Round, , Wrinkled, , Pod shape, , Inflated, , Constricted, , Pod colour, , Green, , Yellow, , Height of plant, , Tall, , Dwarf
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II.D.47, , Heredity and Evolution, , segregate or separate during the formation of gametes., , Back Cross is between the F1 hybrid with one of its parents or, with an individual genetically identical to one of its parents., Test Cross is a back cross if the F1 offspring is crossed to, either of the parent., , Monohybrid Cross: Cross between two pea plants with one, pair (monohybrid cross) contrasting characters, e.g. Tall / Short, , Parent, Generation, Gametes, , Plants., , F1, , Law of Segregation: This law states that in a cross, involving, a single character, the factors responsible for the two, contrasting traits stay together in the F1 generation but, , Parent, Generation, , Tall plant, TT, , Dwarf plant, tt, , T, , t, , Gametes, F1 Generation, , Rr, , Tt (F1), , T, , Gametes, , (Second final generation), , Self-fertilised F1, , Tt, , Self Pollination, , TT, Tall, , Tt (F1), , t, , Tt, Tall, , t, , T, , Tt, Tall, , tt, Short, , Observation:, All F1 progeny were tall (no medium height plant (half way, , Wrinkled, Yellow Seeds, rryy, , RY, , All tall plants, , (First final generation), , F2 Generation, , Round, Green Seeds, RRYY, , ry, , RrYy, (Round, yellow), F1, F1, RY, RY, Ry, Rr, Ry, rY, rY, ry, ry, , Table: 6.3 F2 Generation, , RY, , Ry, , rY, , ry, , RY, , RRYY, , RRYy, , RrYy, , RrYy, , Ry, , RRYy, , RRyy, , RrYy, , Rryy, , rY, , RrYY, , RrYy, , rrYy, , rrYy, , Ry, , RrYy, , Rryy, , rrYy, , rryy, , characteristic), F2 progeny ¼ were short, , Phenotypic Ratio:, , Phenotypic ratio F2 – 3:1, , Round, yellow : 9, , Genotypic ratio F2 – 1:2:1, , Wrinkled, yellow : 3 ; Wrinkled, green : 1, , Conclusion, TT and Tt both are tall plants while tt is a short plant., A single copy of T is enough to make the plant tall, while, both copies have to be ‘t’ for the plant to be short., Characters/Traits like 'T' are called dominant trait (because, it express itself) ’t’ are recessive trait (because it remains, suppressed)., , G, A, M, E, T, E, S, , ; Round, green : 3, , Genotypic Ratio: 1: 2: 2: 1: 4: 2: 1: 2: 1, RRYY :1, RRYy :2, RrYY :2, RRyy :1, RrYy :4, Rryy :2,, rrYY:1, rrYy :2, rryy:1, Observation:, When RRYY was crossed with rryy in F1 generation all, were RrYy round and yellow seeds., Self pollination of F plants gave parental phenotype + two, , Law of Independent: This states that ‘in a dihybrid cross,, , mixtures (recombinants) Round wrinkled, green yellow:, , where two contrasting characters are brought together, the, , seeds plants appeared in the ratio of 9:3:3:1, , factors responsible for the contrasting characters stay together, in the F1 generation, but assort independently during the, formation of gametes’., Dihybrid Cross: A cross make between two plants having two, pairs of contrasting characters is called dihybrid cross., , Conclusion:, Round and yellow seeds are dominant characters., Occurrence of new phenotypic combinations shows that, genes for round and, , yellow seeds are inherited, , independently of each other.
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.D.48, , Deviation from Mendelian Inheritance:, The concept of dominance is not universal. In some cases;, , •, , Chromosomes are found in pairs in diploid organisms;, so are the Mendelian factors., , expression of the dominant gene is incomplete or partial., , •, , The chromosomes segregate at meiosis., , Therefore, in a heterozygous condition, it shows partial, expression, so cross of such genes are called incomplete, , •, , The union of sperm and egg (fertilisation), each with, single set of chromosomes, re-establishes the whole, , dominance., , number (two set) of chromosomes previously seen in, , Chromosomes, Genes and DNA:, A segment of DNA which provides information for, synthesis of one protein is called gene for that protein., Genes are made up of DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid); it, contains information for formation of proteins., 20 A°, , body cells of parent organism., Chromosomes,, consists of two units,, called chromatids,, attached at a point, called primary, constriction or, , Metacentric, Centromere near the middle, point., Sub-metacentric, Centromere little away the, middle point., Acrocentric, Centromere near the end, , centromere., Shallow, groove, , Telomere, , Secondary, constrictio, , 34 A°, , One spiral, , 3.4 A°, , Satellite, Matrix, (Trabant) Chromonema, Nucleolar organiser, (secondary constriction), , Deep groove, 10A°, , Pellicle, Primary, constriction, Major axis, Shallow, groove, Centromere, Figure: 6.2 Double helical structure of DNA, , Kinetochore, , Figure: 6.1 Structure of chromosome, , Genes are, however located on chromosomes at fixed, , Karyotype is the chromosome constitution of cell of an organism., , positions. The experiment performed by Griffith (1928),, Avery, McLeod and Mc Carty (1944) proved that DNA is the, , It includes various features like number, shape and size of, , carrier of genetic information from one generation to the next., , chromosomes in order of their lengths and position of their, , In some viruses RNA (ribonucleic acid) acts as genetic, material. A virus containing RNA as genetic material is, , centromeres., , known as retrovirus, e.g. AIDS virus, HIV (human immuno, deficiency virus)., , abnormalities in an organism., , W.S. Suttan and T. Boveri (1902) proposed the, chromosome theory of inheritance. They studied the, , smaller molecules called nucleotides. A nucleotide, in turn, is, , behaviour of chromosomes during meiosis and gamete, formation. The theory stated that:, •, , Hereditary characters are transmitted form parent to, offspring through chromosomes present on nucleus., , chromosomal set, which is prepared by arranging metaphase, , Karyotype studies are helpful in detecting the chromosomal, DNA: The DNA molecule is composed of two chains of even, made up of three components: a sugar molecule (deoxyribose),, a phosphate unit, and one of four bases., The double helix comprises of two polynucleotide chains. The, two strands (polynucleotide chains) of double helix are antiparallel due to phosphodiester bond. Each polynucleotide chain
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II.D.49, , Heredity and Evolution, , has a sugar-phosphate ‘backbone’ with nitrogeneous bases, directed inside the helix. The nitrogenous bases of two, antiparallel polynucleotide strands are linked through hydrogen, bonds. There are two hydrogen bonds between A and T, and, three between G and C. The hydrogen bonds are the only, attractive forces between the two polynucleotides of double, helix. These serve to hold the structure together. The two, polynucleotides in a double helix are complementary. The, sequence of nitrogenous bases in one determines the sequence, of the nitrogenous bases in the other. Complementary base, pairing is of fundamental importance in molecular genetics., In DNA, nucleotides are stacked on top of one another to, form a chain that is bonded along its bases to another, nucleotide chain. Together the two twist to form a spiral, or, helical, shape., The resulting DNA molecule, then, is two-stranded and is, described as forming a double helix that resembles a twisted, ladder. If we follow the twisted ladder analogy, the sugars and, phosphates represent the two sides, while the bases and the, bonds that join them form the rungs., The four bases are the key to how DNA works. These bases are, named adenine, guanine, thymine, and cytosine, but they’re, usually referred to by their initial letters: A, G, T, and C., Original strands, , DNA double helix, , Original strands, , New strands, New, , Genes: The factors or genes controlling a particular trait, separate from each other during gamete formation. Hence, gamete is always pure as far as contrasting characters are, considered. Each gamete will possess only one gene set. In, crossing if two or more traits are involved, their genes assort, independently, irrespective of the combinations present in the, parents. Genes carry information for producing proteins, which, in turn control the various body characteristics. For a particular, trait, the offspring receives one allele from the father and one, allele from the mother. The combination of the male and, female germ cells gives a diploid zygote. Different, mechanisms are used for sex determination in different species., The sex of human offspring is genetically determined., , Under, , Unattached nucleotides are, attracted to their, complementary nucleotides, and thereby form a new, strand, , Humans have 22 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of sex, chromosomes. The sex of the child depends on whether the egg, fuses with the sperm carrying X chromosome (resulting in a girl), or with the sperm carrying Y chromosome (resulting in a boy)., , Replication, completed, , Two identical, double-stranded, DNA molecules, , Original, strands, , Genetic Codes: Stored on one of the two strands of a DNA, molecules as a linear, non-overlapping sequence of the, nitrogenous bases: Adenine (A), Guanine (G), Cytosine (C), and Thymine (T). These are the "alphabet" of letters that are, used to write the "code words". The genetic code consists of a, sequence of three letter "words" (sometimes called 'triplets',, sometimes called 'codons'), written one after another along the, length of the DNA strand., , Table: 6.4 Factors Responsible of Sex determination, Environmental, In some animals the Genetic, In some animals like, temperature at which the fertilised humans gender or individual is, eggs are kept decides the gender,, determined by a pair of, e.g. Turtle, chromosomes, called, sex, chromosome., Female: XX,, Male: XY, , Original, double-stranded, DNA molecule, , Replication, way, , DNA molecule are separated, and each strand serves as a, template for the formation of a new strand. When replication is, complete, there are two DNA molecules. Each molecule, consists of one new and one original DNA strand., , New, strands, , Figure: 6.3 DNA replication, , Cells multiply by dividing to make exact copies of them. The, cells divide in a way that ensures that each new cell receives a, full set of genetic material, there are two double-stranded DNA, molecules exactly like the original, and each new molecule, consists of one original nucleotide chain joined to a newly, formed chain. During DNA replication, the two strands of the, , 22 + X, Gyno, sperm, , Male, , Female, , 44 + XY, , 44 + XX, , 22 + Y, Andro sperm, , 22 + X, Egg, , Parents, , 22 + X, Egg, Gametes, , Offspring, Baby Girl, 44 +XX, , Baby boy, 44 +XY, , Baby Girl, 44 +XX, , Figure: 6.5 Sex determination in human, , Baby boy, 44 +XY
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.D.50, Aneuploidy, , Hypoploidy, absence of 1 or 2 chromosomes, Hyperploidy, presence of 1 or 2 extra chromosomes in, a normal set, , Monosomy, , 2n-1 (46 –1 = 45), , Trisomy, , 2n+1 (46 + 1 = 47), , Nullisomy, , 2n-2 (46 – 2 = 44), , Tetrasomy, , 2n+2 (46 + 2 = 48), Down’s Syndrome or 21st trisomy, , Aneuploidy in, autosomes, Aneuploidy in, allosomes, , Cri-Du-chat Syndrome: Due to deletion of the short, arm of 5th chromosomes., Klinefelter syndrome (XxY complex): Presence of 2, ‘X’ and 1 ‘Y’ chromosome, Turner’s syndrome (XO complex): Presence of 1 ‘X’, chromosome, other sex chromosome is absent., , Gene Disorders, Sickle Cell Anaemia is an inborn, error where the normal biconcave, erythrocytes, (RBC), of, an, individual are transformed into, cresent of sickle shape., , Mutation is a change in DNA. The, term can refer to changes in DNA, bases as well as changes in, chromosome number or structure., , Table: 6.6 Theories of Evolution: Lamarckism (1744-–1829), Internal forces of life tend to New structure appears because of an ‘inner, want’ of the organism, i.e., internal forces, increase the size of organism, of life tend to increase continuously the, size of an organism and its component, parts., Direct environmental effect The organs of an organism became, modified in appropriate fashion in direct, over living organisms, response to a changing environment., Use and disuse, , The various organs became greatly, improved through use or reduced to, vestiges through disuse., , Inheritance of acquired, characteristics, , Such acquired bodily modifications, in, some manner, could be inherited to future, generations., , He tried to explain the origin of long neck and high shoulders, of giraffe. Lamarckism was strongly criticised by August, Weismann and he showed that even after cutting the tails of, mice continuously for 21 generations, a tail less mouse will, never born., Darwin’s theory of evolution tells us how life evolved from, simple to more complex forms and Mendel’s experiments give, us the mechanism for the inheritance of traits from one, generation to the next. But neither tells us anything about how, life began on earth in the first place., It is due to struggle between members of same species and, different species for food, space and mate. The struggle, eliminates the unfit individuals. In other words, the fit, organisms possess some variations, which are favourable and, , they can leave the progeny to continue the favourable, variations. These variations, when accumulated for a long time,, leads to origin of a new species., Organic Evolution: Descent with modification or change., Evolution is defined as the formation of more and more, complex organism from the pre-existing simpler ones a period, of time. The basic idea of organic evolution means that, generation after generation the offspring modify in accordance, with the environmental requirements. Earlier organisms have, gradually changed into the existing complex organism. All, organisms are interrelated because of common origin., Diversity of organisms and their features like homologous,, analogous, vestigial organs and fossils provide evidences in, support of organic evolution., Table: 6.7 Evidences in support of organic evolution, e.g., Forelimb of Horse (Running), Homologous Organs:, (Morphological and anatomical, Wings of bat (flying),, evidences), Paw of a cat (walk/scratch/attack)., These are the organs that have same, basic structural plan and origin but, different functions, Analogous Organs: These are the e.g., Wings of bat: elongated fingers, organs that have different origin and with skin folds, structural plan but same function., Wings of bird: Feathery covering, along the arm., Vestigial Organ: These are non- e.g., Vermiform appendix of the, functional and useless in present day large intestine, Nictitating membrane, forms but were functional and useful of eye, wisdom teeth, auricular, in their ancestors., muscles of ear., , Fossils: (Palaeontological, evidences), The remains and relics of dead, organisms of the past., , e.g., Fossil of wooly mammoth, Archaeopteryx (fossil bird),, Dead insect caught in hot mud., , Speciation: Speciation takes place when variation is combined, with geographical isolation. Gene flow occurs between, population that are partly but not completely separated., Micro Evolution: It is the evolution which is on a small, scale, e.g. change in body colour of beetles., Speciation: It is the process of formation of new species. It, may occur by gradual drifting apart of two or more species, which later on cease to interbreed. Species formed may be, allopatric or sympatric. Rapid speciation occurs by, polyploidy., Species: A group of similar individuals that along to a, population that can interbreed and produce ferrite offspring., Gene Flow: It is exchange of genetic material by, interbreeding between populations of same species or, individuals.
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II.D.51, , Heredity and Evolution, Sub Population X1, , Interbreeding, Gene flow, , Sub Population X1, (migrant), , Reproduction, , cabbage, the dissimilar looking structures have evolved from a, common ancestral design. (ii) Wheat (many varieties obtained, due to artificial selection), , Mutation, , Reproductive solation, Geographical Isolation, , Variation, in local, population, , Recombinatio, SPECIATION, , Polyploidy, , Human Evolution: The scientific study of tracing human, evolution is called anthropology. Studies have revealed that, human evolution started in Africa and earliest human type was, Australopithecus africanus., , Natural selection, Genetic, , Hybridisation, , Human Evolution, , Genetic Drift: It is the random change in the frequency of, alleles (gene pair) in a population over successive generations., Artificial Selection: Humans have been a powerful agent in, modifying wild species to suit their own requirement, throughout ages by using artificial selection, e.g. (i) Wild, Kohlrabi, , Wild cabbage, , Excavating, , Time dating, , Fossils, , Determining DNA, , Genetic Footprints of Humans (Hundreds/thousands of years, ago), , Kale, , Earliest members arose in Africa, , East Asia, South Africa, , Africa, Philippines, Cauliflower, Cabbage, Red cabbage, Broccoli, Figure: 6.5 Evolution of wild cabbage, Table: 6.8 Human Evolution, Homo habilis (Small), Species, Height (m), , Homo habilis, (large), , West, Asia, Island, of Indonesia, , Central Australia, Asia, Eurasia, , Figure: 6.5 Evolution of wild cabbage, , Homo erectus, , Archaic Homo, sapiens, , Neanderthals, , Homo sapiens, (early modern), , 1, , c.1.5, , 1.3–1.5, , -, , 1.5–1.7, , 1.6–1.85, , Physique, , Relatively long arms, , Brain size, (ml), Skull form, , 500–650, , Robust but human, skeleton, 600–800, , Robust but human, skeleton, 750–1250, , Robust but human, skeleton, 1100–1400, , As archaic H spp., but, adapted for cold, 1200–1750, , Modern skeleton/, adapted for warmth, 1200–1700, , Relatively small face;, nose developed, , Larger, flatter face, , Flat, thick skull with, large occipital and, brow ridge, , Higher skull; face, less protruding, , Small or no brow, ridge; shorter high, skull, , Jaws/teeth, , Thinner jaw; smaller,, narrow molars, , Robust jaw; large, narrow molars, , Robust jaw in larger, individuals; smaller, teeth than H. habilis, , Similar to H. erectus, but teeth may be, smaller, , Reduced brow ridge;, thinner skull; large, nose, midface, projection, Similar to archaic H., spp.; teeth smaller, except for incisors;, chin development in, some, , 2–1.6 million, , 2.4–1.6 million, , 1.8–0.3 million, , 400000–100000, , Distribution, known date, , Definitions, F1 generation: The generation resulting immediately from, a cross of the first set of parents (parental generation)., Homozygous: Having two identical alleles of the same, gene., Heterozygous: Having dissimilar alleles at corresponding, chromosomal loci., , 150000–30000, , Shorter jaws the, Neanderthals; chin, developed, teeth, may be smaller, 130000–60000, , Monohybrid Cross: A type of crossing in which only one, pair of contrasting characters is considered., Somatic Cells: All cells forming the body of an organism,, except the reproductive cells., Haploid Cell: Cell having only one complete set of, chromosomes., Diploid Cell: Cell having two sets of chromosomes, one of, paternal origin, the other maternal.
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.D.52, , Multiple Choice Questions, 1, , A cell divides to form two cells during a process called, a. Chemiosmosis, b. Mitosis, c. Protein synthesis, d. Photosynthesis, , 2., , Mendal was born in, a. Australia, c. Germany, , 3., , 4., , b. Britain, d. Czechoslovakia, , Mendal was lucky in the choice of the material of his, experiments, among the following which contributed, to, his success, a. he observed distinct inherited traits, b. he qualitatively analysed his date, c. he liked pea plant, d. he considered only one character at one time, Mendal’s law apply only when, a. F1 in monohybrid cross shows two types of individual, b. Parents are pure breeding, c. The characters are linked, d. First pair of contrasting character is dependent upon, other pairs, , 5., , Alleles are, a. Homologous chromosome, b. Chromosome that have crossed over, c. Alternate forms of gene, d. Linked genes, , 6., , Genotype means, a. Genetic composition of the individual, b. Genetic composition of the germ cell, c. Genetic composition of plastids, d. Genetic composition of an organ, , 7., , 8., , 9., , The physical manifestation of an organism’s gene is its, a. Environment, b. Genetic code, c. Phenotype, d. Genotype, An organism with two identical alleles of a gene in a cell, is called, a. Homozygous, b. Heterozygous, c. Dominant, d. Hybrid, An individual is having both the alleles of contrasting, characters it is said to be, a. Monoecious, b. Dioecious, c. Linked gene, d. Heterozygous, , 10. If a plant is heterozygous for tallness, the F2 generation, has both tall and dwarf plants. This proves the principle, of, a. Dominance, b. Incomplete dominance, c. Segretion, d. Independent assortment, , 11. Which correctly describes sex-determining chromosomes, in humans?, a. Females: two Y chromosomes; males: one X, chromosome and one Y chromosome, b. Females: two X chromosomes; males: one X, chromosome and one Y chromosome, c. Females: one X chromosome and one Y chromosome;, males: two X chromosomes, d. Females: one X chromosome and one Y chromosome;, males: two Y chromosomes, 12. The female reproductive system in humans differs from, the human male reproductive system in that it is solely, responsible for, a. producing gametes, b. creating offspring, c. nourishing a developing zygote, d. producing sex hormones, 13. Human body cells contain _________ pair(s) of, autosomes and _________ pair(s) of sex chromosomes., a. 22; 1, b. 2; 44, c. 44; 2, d. 1; 22, 14. The elephant has 56 chromosomes in its body cells. When, the elephant's body cells divide by mitosis, how many, chromosomes will each daughter cell have?, a. 112, b. 168, c. 56, d. 28, 15. If a couple has three daughters, what are the chances that, fourth child will be a son, a. 0%, b. 50%, c. 75%, d. 100%, 16, , If a heterozygous tall plant is crossed with a homozygous, dwarf plant, the proportion of dwarf progeny will, a. 50%, b. 75%, c. 25%, d. 100%, , 17. Which genotype represents a true dihybrid condition?, a. TtRr, b. Ttrr, c. ttrr, d. TtRR, 18. When a true breeding tall plant is crossed with a true, breeding short plant and the F1 produced is self pollinated, to produce F2 ratio of true breeding tall and true breeding, short plant in F2 will be:, a. 1:2, b. 1:3, c. 1:1, d. 2:1, 19. Blue eye colour in human is recessive to brown eye, colour. The expected children of a marriage between, blue-eyed female and brown-eyed male who had a blueeyed mother are likely to be:, a. One blue-eyed and one brown-eyed, b. All brown-eyed, c. Three blue-eyed and one brown-eyed, d. All blue-eyed
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Heredity and Evolution, , II.D.53, , 20. Which chromosome set is found in male grasshopper?, a. XY, b. XX, c. YY, d. X, 21. The ratio of phenotypes in F2 of a monohybrid cross is:, a. 3 : 1, b. 1 : 2 : 1, c. 9 : 3 : 3 : 1, d. 2 : 1, 22. How many types of gametes are expected from the plants, with genotype AA, BB, aa, bb, a. 7, b. 4, c. 8, d. 16, , 32. The contrasting pairs of factors in Mendelian crosses are, called, a. Allelomorphs, b. Alloloci, c. Multiple alleles, d. Paramorphs, , 23. The term genetics was coined by, a. Mendal, b. Muller, c. Morgan, , 34. A cross between hybrid and its parents is, a. Back cross, b. Reciprocal cross, c. Monohybrid cross, d. Dihybrid cross, 35. Multiple alleles control inheritance of, a. Phenlketonuria, b. Colour blindness, c. Sickle cell anaemia, d. Blood groups, , d. Bateson, , 24. At which stage is the fate of genetic constitution of, gametes finally decided, a. Metaphase-I, b. Anaphase-I, c. Anaphase-II, d. Interkinesis, 25. Mendal’s law rediscovered by, a. Lamarck, de Vries and Correns, b. Hugo de Vries, Correns and Tschermak, c. Morgan, Beadle and Tatum, d. Hugo de Vries, Morgan and Correns, 26. In a dihybrid cross, F2 phenotype ratio is 13 : 3, it is case of, a. Complementary genes, b. Epistatic genes, c. Multigenic inheritance, d. Incomplete dominance, 27. Female AaBb is crossed to male AAbb. The gametes shall be, a. Female AB and ab, male AA and bb, b. Female Aa and Bb, male AA and bb, c. Female AB, Ab, aB and ab, male Ab, d. Female AA, bb, AB and ab, male Ab, 28. Alleles of a gene are found on, a. Same chromosomes, b. Homologous chromosomes, c. Non-homologous chromosomes, d. Any chromosomes, 29. Pleiotropic gene has, a. Multiple genotype, c. Single phenotype, , b. Single genotype, d. Multiple phenotype, , 33. Inheritence of skin colour in human beings is an example, of, a. Mendelian inheritance, b. Monogenic inheritance, c. Complementary genes, d. Polygenic inheritance, , 36. In a dihybrid cross, F2 ratio of 15:1 is due to, a. Supplementary genes, b. Dominant epistasis, c. Duplicate genes, d. Recessive epistasis, 37. Mendal’s second law of independent assortment can be, demonstrated by:, a. Test cross, b. Back cross, c. Monohybrid cross, d. Dihybrid cross, 38. In a cross 45 tall and 14 dwarf plants were obtained,, genotype of parents was, a. TT × TT, b. TT × Tt c. Tt × Tt, d. TT × tt, 39. RrYy yield gamete of types, a. One, b. Two, c. Three, , d. Four, , 40. Heterozygous organism for two genes shall be:, a. RRYY, b. RrYY, c. RrYy, d. RRYy, 41. An example of polygenic inheritance in human beings is:, a. Skin colour, b. Phenlketonuria, c. Colour blindness, d. Sickle cell anaemia, 42. In DNA when AGCT occur, their association is as per the, following pairs, a. AG-CT, b. AC-GT, c. AT-GC, d. All are possible, , 30. Sexually reproducing organisms contribute in their, offspring, a. All of the gene, b. One half of their genes, c. One fourth of their genes, d. Double the number of genes, , 43. Mutation is:, a. A change that is inherited, b. A change, which affects the parents only but never, inherited, c. A change, which affects the offspring of F2 generation, only, d. A factor responsible for plant growth, , 31. In a genetic cross having recessive epistasis, F2 phenotype, ratio would be:, a. 9 : 6 : 1, b. 15 : 1, c. 9 : 3 : 4, d. 12 : 3 : 1, , 44. Which of the following mutations is not hereditary?, a. Gametic, b. Zygotic c. Genetic, d. Somatic
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II.D.54, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 45. Mutation is generally, a. Dominant, b. Codominant, c. Recessive, d. Incompletely dominant, 46. Mutation is generally induced by, a. Gamma rays, b. Alpha rays, c. Beta rays, d. Visible light, 47. Gene mutation is caused by, a. Due to reproduction, b. Due to changes in the sequence of nitrogen bases, c. Due to linkage, d. Due to changes in the sequence of genes in DNA, , 57. Who coined the term gene?, a. Mc Clintock, c. Johannsen, , 48. Point mutation is, a. Loss of gene, b. Addition of gene, c. Change in a base of gene, d. Deletion of a segment of gene, , 60. Autosomes in human are, a. 22 pairs, b. 23 pairs, , 49. Which of the following is an example of a point, mutation?, a. Thalassemia, b. Night blindness, c. Down’s syndrome, d. Sickle cell anaemia, 50. Down’s syndrome is due to, a. Non-disjunction of chromosomes, b. Crossing over between genes, c. Linkage of genes, d. Sex linked inheritance, 51. Sex chromosomes may be found in, a. Intersexual plant, b. Unisexual flower, c. Unisexual plant, d. Monocarpic plant, 52. Inheritance of total colour-blindness is, a. X-linked, b. XY-linked, c. Y-linked, d. None of these, 53. “Like begets like” is due to, a. Euthenics, c. Inheritance, , b. Dominance, d. Eugenics, , 54. Which one of the following is the sex linked character in, human inheritance?, a. Diabetes insipidus, b. Colour-blindness, c. Breast in females, d. Beard in males, 55. A man is haemophiliac, this indicates that, a. Inherited the condition from his father, b. Is afraid of sight of blood, c. Inherited the condition from his mother, d. Carrying parasite in his blood, 56. Gene located on Y-chromosome are:, a. Mutant genes, b. Sex-linked genes, c. Autosomal genes, d. Holoandric genes, , b. Waldeyer, d. Mendel, , 58. A functional unit of a gene is:, a. Muton, b. Recon, c. Cistron, , d. Gene, , 59. The term genome is used for, a. Diploid set of chromosomes, b. Polyploid set of chromosomes, c. Triploid set of chromosomes, d. Haploid set of chromosomes, c. 43 pairs, , d. 11 pairs, , 61. If a parent cell has 30 chromosomes then after mitosis the, daughter cells each will have:, a. 60 chromosomes, b. 15 chromosomes, c. 30 chromosomes, d. 120 chromosomes, 62. “Barr body” is derived from, a. X-chromosome in male, b. X-chromosome in female, c. Autosomes in male, d. Autosomes in female, 63. Barr body represents, a. Heterochromatin in male and female cells, b. One of the two X-chromosome in somatic cells of, female, c. Y-chromosome in somatic cells, d. All heterochromatin in female cells, 64. The identical twins are born when, a. One ovum is fertilised by one sperm, b. One ovum is fertilised by two sperm, c. Two ova are fertilised by two sperm, d. Two ova are fertilised by one sperm, 65. Which of the following have equal number of, chromosomes?, a. Klinefelter’s and Down’s syndrome, b. Klinefelter’s and Turner’s syndrome, c. Turner’s and Down syndrome, d. Turner’s and Klinefelter’s syndrome, 66. Genetic information in a DNA is coded in the, a. Base pairing, b. Proportion of each base, c. Coding sequence, d. Sequence of nucleotides, 67. DNA strands are anti-parallel because of, a. h-bonds, b. phosphate diester bonds, c. disulphide bonds, d. peptide bonds
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Heredity and Evolution, , II.D.55, , 68. Jumping genes are known as, a. Transduction, b. Transformation, c. Transversion, d. Transposons, 69. DNA polymerase enzyme is required for the synthesis of, a. RNA from DNA, b. DNA from DNA, c. RNA from RNA, d. DNA from RNA, 70. There are 64 codons in genetic code dictionary because, a. There are 64 types of tRNA’s found in the cell, b. There are 44 meaningless and 20 codons for amino, acids, c. Genetic code is triplet, d. There are 64 amino acids to be coded, 71. Genetic code discovered by, a. Holley and Nirenberg, b. Nirenberg and Matthei, c. Holley Nirenberg and Khorana, d. W. Fleming and Matthei, 72. Gene controls, a. Protein synthesis but not heredity, b. Biochemical reaction of some enzymes, c. Heredity but not protein synthesis, d. Protein synthesis and heredity, 73. In protein synthesis the codon used as a start signal is, a. AUG, b. UAA, c. CCA, d. GCA, 74. UAA, UAG and UGA are, a. Non overlapping codons, c. Degenerate codons, , b. Non sense codons, d. Chain initiation codons, , 75. Termination of chain growth in protein synthesis is, brought about by the codons, a. UGA, UAG and AUG, b. UUG, UAG and UGA, c. UCG, ACC and GCG, d. UAA, UAG and UGA, 76. Anticodon is associated with, a. mRNA, b. DNA, c. tRNA, d. rRNA, 77. The process “Translation” means, a. Protein synthesis, b. DNA synthesis, c. RNA synthesis, d. Ribosome assembly, 78. Retrovirus has the following as its genetic material, a. Single standard DNA, b. Double standard duplex DNA, c. DNA-RNA hybrid, d. RNA, , 79. The information carried by RNA in retroviruses is put in, the DNA code by, a. DNA polymerase, b. DNA ligase, c. RNA synthetase, d. Reverse transcription, 80. Who developed the process of DNA fingerprinting?, a. Alec Jeffreys, b. Kary B. Mullis, c. T.H. Morgan, d. H.O. Smith, 81. The recent technique used for separating fragments of, DNA is, a. Eastern blotting, b. Western blotting, c. Northern blotting, d. Southern blotting, 82. The first step of genetic engineering as, a. Isolation of protein, b. Isolation of genetic material, c. Isolation of RNA, d. Purification of protein, 83. Which one of the following is related with genetic, engineering?, a. Plasmids, b. Mitochondria, c. Mutations, d. Ribosomes, 84. Restriction enzymes are isolated chiefly from, a. Algae, b. Fungi, c. Protozoans, d. Prokaryotes, 85. The first hormone artificially produced by culturing, bacteria is, a. Insulin, b. Thyroxine, c. Testosterone, d. Adrenalin, 86. Hybridisation through protoplast fusion is known as, a. Parthenogenesis, b. Parasexual hybridisation, c. Sexual hybridisationd. Asexual hybridization, 87. The first successfully cloned mammal that gained, worldwide publicity was, a. Dolly, a sheep, b. Chance, a bull, c. Polly, a sheep, d. Molly, a sheep, 88. The transgenic animals are those that have, a. Foreign DNA in some of its cells, b. Foreign RNA in all its cells, c. Foreign DNA in all its cell, d. Both (a.) and (b.), 89. Human genome contains about, a. 10,000 nucleotides, b. 10,000 genes, c. 6 billion genes, d. 6 billion nucleotides
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II.D.56, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 90. Producing a ‘giant mouse’ in the laboratory was possible, through, a. Gene manipulation, b. Gene mutation, c. Gene duplication, d. Gene synthesis, 91. The basis raw material for organic evolution is, a. Mutations, b. Variations, c. Struggle for existence, d. Use or disuse of organs, 92. Evolution means, a. History of the race, b. History and development of the race, c. Development of the race, d. Progressive development of the race, 93. Earth originated in the past, a. 4.6 billion years, b. 1.6 billion years, c. 7.6 billion years, d. 86 million years, 94. The ultimately source of organic variation, a. Natural selection, b. Sexual reproduction, c. Hormonal action, d. Mutation, 95, , The Big bang occurred approximately ______ years ago., a. 100 million, b. 100 thousand, c. 1 billion, d. 15 billion, , 96. The first organism were, a. Primitive eukaryotes, c. Prokaryotic heterotrophs, , b. Aerobic bacteria, d. Photosynthetic, , 97. Who said that organisms develop from pre-existing, organisms?, a. Louis Pasteur, b. Aristotle, c. Morgan, d. Darwin, 98. Study of fossils is known as, a. Palaeobotany, b. Palaeontology, c. Anatomy, d. Ornithology, 99. The richest source of fossils is, a. Basalt, b. Granite, c. Lava, d. Sedimentary rock, 100. Biologist who studies the sequences of organisms in the, fossil record are:, a. Taxonomists, b. Palaeobiologist, c. Misologists, d. Systematists, , 103. The ‘Golden age of reptiles’ was, a. Late Paleozoic, b. Cenozoic, c. Mesozoic, d. Proterozoic, 104. Which were dominant in Mesozoic?, a. Dinosaurs, b. Gymnosperms, c. Fishes, d. Mammals, 105. Dinosaurs were abundant in, a. Devonian, b. Permian, c. Jurassic, d. Pleistocene, 106. The fossil remains of Archaeopteryx is a connecting link, between, a. Amphibians, b. Reptiles and birds, c. Fishes and amphibians, d. Reptiles and mammals, 107. Which one of the following animals exhibits connecting, link evolution?, a. Limilus, b. Sphenodon, c. Peripatus, d. Pheretima, 108. Which one of the following set is the evidence of, evolution?, a. Homologous and vestigial organs, b. Analogous and vestigial organs, c. Homologous and analogous organs, d. All of the above, 109 Homologous structure have, a. Dissimilar origin and dissimilar functions, b. Dissimilar origin but similar functions, c. Similar origin but similar or dissimilar functions, d. Dissimilar origin and dissimilar structure, 110. Analogous organs have a, a. Common embryonic, functions, b. Different embryonic, functions, c. Common embryonic, functions, d. Different embryonic, functions, , origin but perform different, origin and perform different, origin and perform similar, origin but perform similar, , 101. The first genetic material was most likely, a. a DNA polymer, b. a DNA oligonucleotide, c. a protein, d. an RNA polymer, , 111. Which of the following is a vestigial organ in the human, body?, a. Eyelid, b. Eyelash, c. Caecum, d. Appendix, , 102. Fossils are now date by, a. Radioactive carbon content, b. Stratigraphic period, c. Studying their association with other mammals, d. Amount of calcium present as residue, , 112. The essence of Haeckel’s Recapitulation theory is, a. Ontogeny repeats phylogeny, b. Alternation of generations, c. Inheritance of acquired characters, d. Prodigality of reproduction
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II.D.57, , Heredity and Evolution, , 113. Presence of gill slits in the embryo of all vertebrates, supports the theory of:, a. Organic evolution, b. Metamorphosis, c. Recapitulation, d. Biogenesis, 114. Biogenetic law was propounded by, a. Von Bier and Haeckel, b. Von Bier and Aristotle, c. Haeckel and Mendal, d. Mendel and Griffith, 115. Appearance of ancestral characters in the new borne, such, as tail, multiple mammae, etc are known as, a. Homologous, b. Analogous, c. Atavistic, d. Vestigial, 116. The book named “Philosophie Zoologique” was published, in 1809 was written by, a. Mendel, b. Darwin, c. De Vries, d. Lamarck, 117. Penguin is bird that lost the use of its wings by not flying,, such a statement would express the views of, a. Darwin, b. Wallace c. Lamarck d. Huxley, 118. Germplasm theory was given by, a. Weismann b. Lamarck c. Darwin, , d. De Vries, , 119. What did Charles Darwin publish in 1859?, a. Philosophie Zoologique, b. Origin of species by natural selection, c. Species plantarum, d. De Naturien Familien, 120. The book ‘Descent of man and selection in relation to, sex’ was written by, a. Charles Darwin, b. Lamarck and C. Darwin, c. F.B. Sumner and E. Darwin, d. Robert Brown, 121. Darwin worked on Galapagos finches, the number of, species of these finches is:, a. 10, b. 11, c. 12, d. 14, 122. ‘Survival of the fittest’ was used by, a. Charles Darwin, b. Jean Baptiste Lamarck, c. Hugo de Vries, d. Herbert spencer, , 123. Father of modern genetics is, a. Mendel, b. Galton, c. Morgan, d. Haeckel, 124. Which animal has become extinct recently?, a. Draco, b. Dinosaur, c. Pteridospems, d. Mammoth, 125. Biological concept of species is mainly based on:, a. Morphological features, b. Physiological features, c. Reproductive isolation, d. Methods of reproduction, ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , b, , d, , d, , b, , c, , a, , c, , a, , d, , c, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , b, , c, , a, , c, , b, , a, , a, , c, , a, , d, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , a, , b, , d, , c, , b, , b, , c, , b, , d, , b, , 31., , 32., , 33., , 34., , 35., , 36., , 37., , 38., , 39., , 40., , c, , a, , d, , a, , d, , c, , d, , c, , d, , c, , 41., , 42., , 43., , 44., , 45., , 46., , 47., , 48., , 49., , 50., , a, , c, , a, , d, , c, , a, , b, , c, , d, , a, , 51., , 52., , 53., , 54., , 55., , 56., , 57., , 58., , 59., , 60., , c, , a, , c, , b, , c, , d, , c, , c, , d, , a, , 61., , 62., , 63., , 64., , 65., , 66., , 67., , 68., , 69., , 70., , c, , b, , b, , a, , a, , d, , a, , d, , b, , c, , 71., , 72., , 73., , 74., , 75., , 76., , 77., , 78., , 79., , 80., , b, , d, , a, , b, , d, , c, , a, , d, , d, , a, , 81., , 82., , 83., , 84., , 85., , 86., , 87., , 88., , 89., , 90., , c, , b, , a, , d, , a, , b, , a, , c, , d, , a, , 91., , 92., , 93., , 94., , 95., , 96., , 97., , 98., , 99., , 100., , b, , c, , a, , d, , d, , c, , a, , b, , d, , b, , 101., , 102., , 103., , 104., , 105., , 106., , 107., , 108., , 109., , 110., , d, , a, , c, , a, , c, , a, , c, , a, , c, , d, , 111., , 112., , 113., , 114., , 115., , 116., , 117., , 118., , 119., , 120., , d, , a, , c, , a, , c, , d, , c, , a, , b, , a, , 121., , 122., , 123., , 124., , 125., , d, , d, , c, , d, , c
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II.D.58, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 7, , Structure of a Cell, , The cell is defines as “A unit of biological activity, delimited, by a differentially permeable membrane and capable of selfreproduction in medium free of other living system.” Robert, Hooke (1665) looks at cork under a microscope. The cell is the, fundamental unit of structure and function in all living, organisms. All living organisms are made up of one or more, , Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cells: Based upon the cellular, organisation, the organisms have been divided into two groups,, prokaryotes and eukaryotes. Prokaryotes were the only form of, life on Earth for millions of years until more complicated, eukaryotic cells came into being through the process of, evolution., , cells. Cell theory can be summed up as:, Generalised Plant Cell, , All cells are basically the same in chemical composition in, organisms of similar species., All living cells arise from pre-existing cells by division and, the continuity is maintained through the genetic material., The activity of an organism depends on the total activity, (metabolism, energy generation, reproduction and, movement) of independent cells., , Generalised Animal Cell, Cytoplasm, Smooth Endoplasmic, Reticulum, Nuclear envelope, Nucleus, Nucleolus, Mitochondrion, Golgi Bodies, Rough, Endoplasmic, eticulum, Ribosomes, Cell Membrane, , Note, Cell structure is studied under a branch of biology, called, Cytology. The first instrument used in studying cell structure, was the light microscope, which remains an important tool, today., The transmission electron microscope and the scanning, electron microscope have vastly increased our knowledge., , Lysosome, Vacuole, Chloroplast, , Character, , Animal Cell, , Plant Cell, , 1, , Cell wall, , Absent, , Present (composed of, cellulose), , 2, , Shape, , Round, (irregular, shape), , Rectangular (fixed shape), , 3, , Vacuole, , Absent, , One, large central vacuole, taking up 90% of cell volume., , 4, , Centrioles, , Present in all, animal cells, , Absent, present only in lower, plant forms., , S., No., 1., , 3., , 4., 5., , Reserved, food, material, , Generally, starch and fat, , Usually glycogen and fat., , 6, , Chloroplast, , Animal cells, don't have, chloroplasts., , Plant cells have chloroplasts, because they make their own, food by photosynthesis., , Character, Nucleus, Number of, chromosomes, Cell type, , True membrane, bound nucleus, Example, , 6., , Genetic, recombination, , 7., , Lysosomes and, peroxisomes, Microtubules, , 8., , 5, , Leucoplast, , Table: 7.2 Difference between Eukaryotic and Prokaryotic Cells, , Table: 7.1 Difference between Animal and Plant Cell, , S. No., , Centriole, , Figure: 7.1 Generalised Plant and animal cell, , 2., , Animal and Plant Cells, The basic structure of cells is similar in plants and animals,, although there are some differences. Those are as follows:, , Cell wall, , 9., , Eukaryotic, Cell, Present, More than one, Usually, multicellular, Present, , Prokaryotic Cell, Absent, One-but not true, chromosome: Plasmids, Usually unicellular, (some cyanobacteria, may be multicellular), Absent, , Animals and, Plants, Meiosis and, fusion of, gametes, Present, , Bacteria and Archaea, , Absent, , Present, , Absent or rare, , Partial, unidirectional, transfer of DNA, , Present, , Absent, , 10., , Endoplasmic, reticulum, Mitochondria, , Present, , Absent, , 11., , Cytoskeleton, , Present, , Absent, , 12., , DNA wrapping on, proteins, , Eukaryotes, wrap their DNA, around proteins, called histones., , Multiple proteins act, together to fold and, condense prokaryotic, DNA. Folded DNA is, then organised into a, variety of conformations, that are supercoiled and, wound around tetramers, of the HU protein.
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Structure of a Cell, , II.D.59, , 13., , Ribosomes, , 80, , 70, , 14., , Vesicles, , Present, , Present, , 15., , Golgi apparatus, , Present, , Absent, , 16., , Chloroplasts, , Present (in, plants), , 17., , Flagella, , 18., , Permeability of, nuclear membrane, Plasma membrane, with steroid, Cell wall, , Microscopic in, size; membrane, bound; usually, arranged as nine, doublets, surrounding, two singlets, Selective, , Absent; chlorophyll if, present scattered in the, cytoplasm, Submicroscopic in size,, composed of only one, fiber, , 19., 20., , 21., , Cell size, , Not present, , Yes, , Usually not, , Only in plant, cells and fungi, (chemically, simpler), 10–100 um, , Usually chemically, complex, (peptidoglycan in, bacteria ), 1–10 um, , Cytoplasm, , Cell membrane, Ribosome, , Nucleoid, , Flagettum, Glycocalyx, (capsule), Cell wall, Metachromatic granules, Pili, Figure: 7.2 Prokaryotic cell, Cytoplasm, , Nucleus containing, chromosomes, , Smooth endoplasmic, reticulum, , Lysosomes, , Mitochondria (Gk. Mito thread ; chondrion granule), Found in all eukaryotic cells (even in plant cells)., Site of aerobic respiration:, Sugars O 2 , ATP CO 2 H 2 O, Contain DNA which codes for mitochondrial proteins,, ribosomes, etc., Divide by a process similar to binary fission when cell, divide.s, Enclosed in a double membrane system., Inner membrane forms the Cristae (invaginations into, interior region)., Site of energy generation., Protoplasms and Tissues, The word ‘protoplasm’ comes from the Greek word protos, for first, and plasma for thing formed. It was first used in, 1846 by Hugo von Mohl to describe the ‘slimy, granular,, semi-fluid" substance present within plant cells, to, distinguish this from the cell wall, cell nucleus and the cell, sap within the vacuole., Protoplasm is the most important living contents of a cell, that is surrounded by a plasma membrane., Thomas Huxley (1863) referred to it as the ‘physical basis, of life’ and considered that the property of life resulted, from the distribution of molecules within this substance., Protoplasm is composed of a mixture of small molecules, such as ions, amino acids, monosaccharides and water, and, macromolecules such as nucleic acids, proteins, lipids and, polysaccharides., In eukaryotes the protoplasm surrounding the cell nucleus, is known as the cytoplasm and that inside the nucleus as the, nucleoplasm. In prokaryotes the material inside the plasma, membrane is the bacterial cytoplasm., Cell, , Cell membrane, , Mitochondria, , Cell wall, , Golgi complex, Nucleolus, , Rough endoplasmic, reticulum, Ribosomes, , Figure: 7.3 Eukaryotic cell, , F1 Particles or Tubuli, Oxysomes, , Ribosome, , DNA, , Actual Cytoplasm, (Present between two membranes), , Cytoplasmic, Membranes, , Inner, Cytoplasmic matrix and, cell organelles, , Outer membrane, Matrix, , Vacuole, Vacuole Sap, Nucleus, , Cytoplasm, , Nuclear Memberane, , Intermembranous space, , Protoplasm, , Inclusion, , Figure: 7.4 Mitochondria of plant cell, , Plasmalemma, , Nucleoplasm, , Tonoplast, , Genetic Material, or Chromatin network, , Nucleolus, , Cell Wall, The cell wall forms the outermost covering of the plant cell, and is absent in animal cells. It is present outside the, plasma membrane.
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II.D.60, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , The cell wall is rigid and mainly protective in nature and, provides shape and a definite form to the plant cells., In comparison to cell membrane the cell wall is dead,, permeable and made up of cellulose in case of algae and, higher plants., However, in case of true bacteria and cyanobacteria (blue, green algae) it is composed of peptidoglycan, while in case, of fungi it is composed of chitin., The cell wall of young plant cell, primary wall is capable of, growth, which gradually diminishes as the cell matures and, the secondary wall is formed on the inner (towards, membrane) side of the cell., , Cytoplasm, The region between the plasma membrane and nucleus is, called cytoplasm., The cytoplasm in all eukaryotic cells contains an elaborated, vacuolar system of membrane bound spaces in the form of, cell organelles, also called the system of cytomembranes., The ground substance of the cytoplasm that lies between, these organelles is called hyaloplasm or cytoplasmic matrix, or cytosol, which is a colloidal system of several organic, substances including lipids, carbohydrates, proteins and other, inorganic compounds. The cytoplasm helps in the intracellular, distribution of metabolites, nutrients, enzymes, etc., , Plasma Membrane, The cell membrane (also known as the plasma membrane or, cytoplasmic membrane) is a biological membrane that, separates the interior of all cells from the outside, environment., The fundamental structure of all the membranes is the, phospholipid bilayer, which forms a stable barrier between, two aqueous compartments., Danielli and Davson (1935) proposed a sandwich model, that states plasma membrane is a trilaminar membrane,, composed of outer and inner denser protein monolayer and, a middle phospholipid bilayer, thus forming a protein –, lipid – protein sandwich., J D Robertson (1959) proposed Unit membrane model,, according to that all biomembranes are similar in their ultra, structure except in their thickness, and are formed of one, (e.g. plasma membrane, lysosomal membrane) or more unit, membranes (e.g. mitochondrial, nuclear, or plastidial, membranes)., Singer and Nicolson (1972) proposed Fluid mosaic model,, that states that membranes are formed of protein icebergs in, a sea of lipids., The most important function of plasma membrane is the, transport of molecules across it. The membrane is selectively, , Plastids, Found in plant cells only, these can be classified into, several types, depending upon the nature of pigments they, contain., Chloroplast contains chlorophyll (green coloured) pigment,, whereas chromoplast contains other than chlorophyll., Leucoplasts (colourless plastids) devoid any pigment,, although they have the capacity to develop pigments also as, and when required., , permeable to some molecules present on either side of it., Small non-charged, molecules, , Large, charged molecules, Carrier Protein, Phospholipids, , Figure: 7.5 Structure of plasma membrane, , Chloroplasts, Found only in plant cells., Site of photosynthesis: Conversion of solar energy to, chemical energy in the form of ATP and sugars., Contain DNA which codes for chloroplast proteins,, ribosomes, etc., Divide when plant cell divides., Enclosed in a double membrane envelope that does not, invaginate into the chloroplast., Thylakoid is a third internal membrane system., Contains membrane-bound photosynthetic pigments., Site of photochemistry (the conversion of light energy to, ATP)., Site of O2 generation., Nucleus (Robert Brown, 1831), Double membrane with pores, Outer membrane continuous, with endoplasmic reticulum (ER)., Nuclear matrix – protein-containing fibrilar network, Nucleoplasm – the fluid substance in which the solutes of, the nucleus are dissolved, Chromosomes: Protein and DNA complexes, during the cell, division, these thread like structures of chromatin reticulum, become visible as small independent structures. Those were, called chromosomes by Waldeyer in 1888. On the basis of the, presence or absence and position of centromere chromosomes, are of the following five types:
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Structure of a Cell, , Acentric: Centromere is absent,., Telocentric: Centromere situated at one end of the, chromosomes., Acrocentric: Chromosome divided into a very small segment, at one end and very large segment on the other end., Submetacentric: Chromosomes is divided into two, unequal segments, one of which larger than the other, forming “L” or “J” shaped., Metacentric: When two segments are equal or almost, equal forming “V” shaped structure because the centromere, is situated in the centre., Nucleolus: It is involved in the synthesis and assembly of, ribosomes., The most prominent substructure within the nucleus is the, nucleolus, which is the site of rRNA transcription and, processing, and of ribosome assembly., Actively growing mammalian cells, e.g., contain 5–10, million ribosomes that must be synthesised each time the, cell divides., The nucleolus is a ribosome production factory, designed to, fulfill the need for large-scale production of rRNAs and, assembly of the ribosomal subunits., Centrosome, It is located in the cytoplasm usually close to the nucleus., It consists of two centrioles—oriented at right angles to, each other; embedded in a mass of amorphous material, containing more than 100 different proteins., It is duplicated during S-phase of the cell cycle., Just before mitosis, the two centrosomes move apart until, they are on opposite sides of the nucleus., As mitosis proceeds, microtubules grow out from each, centrosome with their plus ends growing towards the, metaphase plate. These clusters of microtubules are called, spindle fibers., Centrioles, Each centrosome contains a pair of centrioles. Centrioles, are built from a cylindrical array of nine microtubules,, each of which has attached to it two partial microtubules., When a cell enters the cell cycle and passes through S, phase, each centriole is duplicated. A "daughter" centriole, grows out of the side of each parent ("mother") centriole., Thus centriole replication; like DNA replication (which is, occurring at the same time) — is semi conservative., Centrioles in Animal Cell: Centrosomes of the animal cells, contain two barrel shaped structures that are called centrioles., Centrioles help in the organisation of the mitotic spindle, and in the completion of cytokinesis., , II.D.61, , These centrioles are important part of the centrosomes, they, are involved in organising the microtubules in the, cytoplasm., Its position determines the position of the nucleus and it also, plays are crucial role in the spatial arrangement of the cell., Functions of Centrioles, Centrioles appear to be needed to organise the centrosome, in which they are embedded., In non-dividing cells, the mother centriole can attach to the, inner side of the plasma membrane forming a basal body., In almost all types of cell, the basal body forms a nonmotile primary cilium., In cells with a flagellum, e.g. sperm, the flagellum develops, from a single basal body., While sperm cells have a basal body; eggs have none. So, the sperm's basal body is absolutely essential for forming a, centrosome which will form a spindle enabling the first, division of the zygote to take place., Microtubules and Microfilaments, Microtubules are hollow, cylindrical aggregates of tube like, structure that help give the cell shape and form; they are, also involved in other cell processes., Made up of 13 rows of globular proteins arranged to form a, hollow tube serve in moving materials within the cell, cell, movement, cytoskeleton structure., Microfilaments are long, thin, contractile rods that appear, to be responsible for the movement of cells (both external, and internal movement)., Made up of double filaments arranged in a helical pattern,, with each filament consisting of numerous globular proteins, joined together., Serve in anchoring organelles and moving them within the, cell, cell movement, cytoskeleton structure., Cilia, Short, hair like projections that function in cell movement, (e.g. Paramecium, cells of human respiratory tract), It consists of a membrane-bound cylinder, with 9 + 2, arrangement of microtubules., Shorter than flagella and beat stiffly, like oars., Flagella, Longer than cilia, but with same basic anatomy as cilia, (membrane-bound cylinder, with 9 + 2 arrangement of, microtubules)., Beat in undulating whip-like fashion., Function in cell movement (e.g. sperm cells, Euglena).
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II.D.62, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Table: 7.3 Comparative study, Structure, Prokaryotic, Cell Membrane, Cell Wall, Nucleus, Mitochondria, Chloroplasts, Endoplasmic, Reticulum, , Yes, Yes, No, No, No, , Eukaryotic, Animal, Yes, No, Yes, Yes, No, , No, , Yes, , Ribosomes, , Yes (small), , Yes (large), , Vacuoles, Lysosomes, Cytoskeleton, Centrioles, , No, No, No, No, , Yes (small), Yes, Yes, Yes, , Plant, Yes, Yes, Yes, Yes, Yes, Yes, Yes, (large), Yes, No, Yes, No, , Definitions, Cell Membrane: The thin layer which separates the cell, contents from it's environment. Plant cells also have a cell, wall surrounding the cell membrane., Nucleus: Specialised structure within the cell which, contains DNA and controls cell functioning and, reproduction., Organelles: Small bodies with specific structures and, functions within the cell., Cytoplasm: The liquid substance between the nucleus and, the cell membrane, in which the organelles are located., , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , The cell theory state that, a. All cells have nuclei, b. All cells are living, c. Cells reproduce by mitosis and meiosis both, d. Cells are the functional and structural unit of plants and, animals, , 2., , Who is known as the father of microscopy?, a. Leeuwenhoek, b. T. Schwann, c. H.G. Khorana, d. M.J. Schlieden, , 3., , The Gram’s stain bacteria used to stain bacteria is:, a. Coccus, helix, spiral, b. Coccus, spiral, spindle, c. Coccus, bacillus, spiral, d. Spiral, helix, bacillus, , 4., , Bacteria cell wall is composed mainly of, a. Cellulose, b. Chitin, c. Pectin, d. Pepitodoglycan, , 5., , Prokaryotic genes contain, a. DNA and histones, b. DNA but no histone, c. Neither DNA nor histone d. Either DNA or histone, , 10. Basic unit of plasma membrane is, a. Cellulose and carbohydrates, b. Protein and phospholipids, c. Protein and cellulose, d. Protein and carbohydrates, 11. According to fluid-mosaic model the correct sequence of, plasmalemma is, a. L-P-P-L, b. L-P-L-P, c. P-L-L-P, d. P-P-L-L, 12. In fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane, a. Upper layer is non-polar and hydrophilic, b. Upper layer is polar and hydrophobic, c. Proteins form the middle layer, d. Phospholipids form a bimolecular layer in middle part, 13. The most abundant lipid in a cell membrane is, a. Phospholipid, b. Steroids, c. Cholesterol, d. Cutin, , 6., , Site of respiration in bacteria is, a. Episome, b. Mesosome, c. Ribosome, d. Mitochondria, , 14. Main function of plasma membrane is, a. Maintain cell shape and size, b. Control of all cellular activity, c. Regulate the flow of material into and out of the cell, d. Store cell nuclei, , 7., , Bacteria lack, a. Mitochondria, c. Cell membrane, , 15. Liquid food drinking is called, a. Phagocytosis, b. Imbition, c. Pinocytosis, d. Exocytosis, , 8., , 9., , b. Cell wall, d. Cytoplasm, , Cell wall is, a. Permeable, b. Selectively permeable, c. Impermeable, d. Differentially permeable, What is the innermost portion of a mature plant cell wall, called?, a. Lamella, b. Tonoplast, c. Primary cell wall, d. Secondary cell wall, , 16. Which of the following is a type of intercellular junction, between animal cells?, a. Desmosome, b. Plasmodesma, c. Middle lamella, d. Glycocalyx, 17. Chemical nature of ribosmes is, a. Protein and RNA, b. Protein and lipids, c. Beta galactodase, d. Glucose and mannans
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Structure of a Cell, , 18. Ribosomes of bacteria, mitochondria and chloroplasts are, a. 50S, b. 80S, c. 30S, d. 70S, 19. Eukaryotic 80S ribosomes are composed of two subunits of, a. 40S and 40S, b. 50S and 30S, c. 60S and 40S, d. 50S and 50S, 20. The suffix ‘S’ used with the description of ribosomal, units stands for, a. Solubility, b. Surface area, c. Size, d. Sedimentation Coefficient, 21. Which of the following does not have DNA?, a. Ribosomes, b. Lysosomes, c. Chloroplast, d. Mitochondria, 22. Which one of the following are membrane bound, organelles except?, a. Mitochondria, b. Lysosomes, c. Sphaerosomes, d. Ribosomes, 23. The fine network of membranes distributed throughout, the cytoplasm in a cell is, a. Golgi body, b. ER, c. Chromatin, d. Lysosome, 24. Smooth ER is well developed in cells that synthesise, a. Steroids and lipids, b. Protein, c. Carbohydrates, d. None of these, 25. Granular ER is involved in, a. Proteolysis, b. Peptide bond formation, c. Glycosidic bond formation, d. Fatty acid and cholesterol synthesis, 26. Golgi apparatus is absent in, a. Liver cells, b. Higher plants, c. Blue green algae, d. Yeast, 27. Mitochondria was first observed by, a. Altman, b. Swanson, c. Robert Hook, d. Robert Brown, 28. Golgi complex plays a major role in, a. Digesting protein and crabs, b. In trapping light and transforming it into chemical energy, c. In glycosidation of lipids and proteins to produce, glycolipids and glycoprotein, d. As energy transferring organelles, 29. In living cells mitochondria can be stained with, a. Neutral red, b. Crystal violet, c. Aceto-orcein, d. Janus green, , II.D.63, , 30. In mitochondria, cristae acts as sites for, a. Protein synthesis, b. Oxidation-reduction reactions, c. Flavoprotein phosphorylation, d. Breakdown of macromolecules, 31. Cell organelles, which has electron transport system is, a. Mitochondria, b. Centriole, c. ER, d. Nucleolus, 32. What do mitochondria and chloroplast have in common?, a. DNA is present, b. ATP is produced, c. Ribosomes are present, d. All of the above, 33. Thylakoid are found commonly in plastids of, a. Blue green algae, b. Bacteria, c. Higher plants, d. None of these, 34. Green pigments that are capable of trapping sunlight, energy are located, a. Chloroplasts, b. Cell wall, c. Ribosome, d. ER, 35. Chloroplasts are considered as self replicating units as, they contain, a. DNA, b. RNA, c. Both DNA & RNA, d. None of these, 36. When green tomatoes are turned red then, a. Chloroplast are changed into chormoplasts, b. Chromoplasts are changed into chloroplasts, c. New chromoplast are made, d. All of these, 37. Plastids that give fruits and flowers their orange and, yellow colours are:, a. Anthoplasts, b. Cyanoplasts, c. Chloroplasts, d. Chromoplasts, 38. Lysosome are generally found in, a. Plant cells, b. Animal cells, c. Both plant & animal cells, d. Bacterial cells, 39. Lysosomes are also known as “suicide bags” because of, a. Hydrolytic activity, b. Catalytic activity, c. Parasitic activity, d. None of these, 40. Which of the following organelles are cellular garbage, disposal system?, a. ER, b. Golgi complex, c. Lysosomes, d. Mitochondria
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II.D.64, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 41. Lysosomes are surrounded by, a. One membrane, b. Two membrane, c. Three membrane, d. None of these, , 53. Ultimately all cellular membranes come from, a. ER & Golgi, b. Cell wall, c. Cell membrane, d. Vesicles, , 42. Function of centriole is, a. Formation of spindle fibers, b. Formation of nucleolus, c. Initiation of cell division, d. Formation of cell plate, , 54. Disulphide bonds acting as polypeptide staples are formed, in, a. ER, b. Lysosomes, c. Cytosol, d. Golgi complex, 55. Balbini rings occur in, a. Lampbrush chromosomes, b. Heterosomes, c. Allosomes, d. Polytene chromosomes, , 43, , Functional activities of a cell are controlled by, a. Nucleus, b. Nucleolus, c. Cytoplasm, d. Ribosomes, , 44. Nucleus was first identified by, a. Singer, b. Altmann, c. Singleton, d. Robert Brown, 45. Ribosome was discovered by, a. Palade, b. Schleiden, c. Muller, d. Ochoa, 46. Which ion holds ribosomal units together?, a. Ca2+, b. Mn2+, c. Na, d. Mg2+, 47. The chief role of the nucleolus is, a. DNA replication, b. Chromatid separation, c. Ribosome synthesis, d. Organisation of chromosomes, , 56. Lampbrush chromosomes are found in, a. Brain cell of cats, b. Germ cells of mammalian, c. Ovarian cells of amphibians, d. Salivary glands of dipteral, 57. Main function of dictyosome is, a. Storage, b. Secretion, c. Respiration, d. Fat breakdown, 58. The leucoplasts are, a. Colourless, c. Green, , b. Coloured, d. Red, , 59. Phagosomes and pinosomes are collectively called, a. Residual bodies, b. Autophagic bodies, c. Digestive vacuoles, d. Endosomes, , 48. Chromosomes are made up of, a. DNA, b. RNA, c. DNA & RNA, d. DNA & proteins, , 60. Flagella and pili are made of, a. Proteins, b. Lipids, c. Nucleic acids, d. Carbohydrates, , 49. Chromosomes are concerned with, a. Transmission of hereditary characters, b. Respiration, c. Assimilation, d. Nutrition, , 61. Cheek cells are, a. Epithelial cells, c. Vascular cells, , b. epidermal cells, d. guard cells, , 62. Blood is a type of, a. Epithelial tissue, c. Nervous tissue, , b. Connective tissue, d. Muscular tissue, , 50. Chromosome having arms equal lengths are called, a. Telocentric, b. Acrocentric, c. Metacentric, d. Concentric, 51. A chromatids represents, a. Complete chromosome, b. Haploid chromosome, c. A genome, d. One half of a chromosome, 52. Which one of the following can be used to look for, congenital defects in unborn babies?, a. Karyotyping, b. X-rays, c. Cell cultures, d. Blood testing, , 63. The brain and spinal cord are made up of, a. Nervous tissue, b. Epithelial tissue, c. Muscular tissue, d. Connective tissue, 64. Red blood cells, a. have two nuclei, b. have a cell wall, c. have pigment-containing plastids, d. do not have a nucleus, 65. The covering of an animal cell is:, a. Cell wall, b. Cell membrane, c. Nuclear membrane, d. Cytoplasm
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Structure of a Cell, , II.D.65, , 66. Organisms lacking a nucleus and membrane-bound, organelles are called:, a. Diploid, b. Haploid, c. Prokaryotes, d. Eukaryotes, , 76. The network of tube-like structure running through the, cytoplasm is called, a. Golgi complex, b. mitochondria, c. endoplasmic reticulum, d. ribosomes, , 67. Relatively large vacuoles are present in:, a. All prokaryotes, b. All eukaryotes, c. Plant cells, d. Animal cells, , 77. The semi-permeable membrane in the plant cell allows, the diffusion of:, a. solute molecules, b. solvent molecules, c. solute and solvent molecules, d. none of these, , 68. The growth of cells is regulated by, a. mitochondrion, b. vacuole, c. nucleus, d. Golgi complex, , 78. Entry of water into root hairs is an example of, a. diffusion, b. imbibition, c. osmosis, d. plasmolysis, , 69. The centriole is associated with:, a. DNA synthesis, b. cell division, c. Circulation, d. respiration, 70. Proteins are formed in the:, a. Golgi complex, c. plastids, , 79. When a cell is placed in strong salt solution, it shrinks, because, a. salt solution enters the cell, b. cytoplasm of the cell begins to decompose, c. water comes out of the cell to develop equilibrium, d. all of these, , b. mitochondria, d. ribsosomes, , 71. The name suicide bag has been given to:, a. Centroiles, b. Ribosome, c. Mitochondrion, d. Lysosome, 72. Genes are located on the:, a. Nuclear membrane, c. Lysosomes, , 80. Tissue is defined as, a. group of similar cells having a common function, b. different types of cells performing the same functions, c. different types of cells performing different functions, d. organised group of cells performing many functions, , b. Chromosomes, d. Cell membrane, , 73. Biological membrane includes, a. only nuclear membrane, b. only membranes of Golgi complex, c. only mitochondrial membrane, d. all the intracellular membranes along with plasma, membrane, 74. Which of the following is the main difference between, onion peel cells and human cheek cells?, a. Presence of mitochondria in onion peel cells only, b. Presence of cell wall in onion peel cells only, c. Absence of plasma membrane in cheek cells, d. Absence of endoplasmic reticulum in cheek cells, 75. Centrioles are found in, a. onion peel cells, c. all plant cells, , b. human cheek cells, d. none of these, , ANSWERS, 1., d, 11., c, 21., a, 31., a, 41., a, 51., d, 61., a, 71., d, , , , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , a, 12., d, 22., d, 32., d, 42., a, 52., a, 62., b, 72., b, , c, 13., a, 23., b, 33., c, 43., a, 53., d, 63., a, 73., d, , d, 14., c, 24., a, 34., a, 44., d, 54., a, 64., d, 74., b, , b, 15., c, 25., b, 35., c, 45., a, 55., a, 65., b, 75., b, , b, 16., a, 26., c, 36., a, 46., d, 56., d, 66., c, 76., c, , a, 17., a, 27., a, 37., d, 47., c, 57., b, 67., c, 77., b, , a, 18., d, 28., c, 38., c, 48., d, 58., a, 68., c, 78., c, , d, 19., c, 29., d, 39., a, 49., a, 59., d, 69., b, 79., c, , b, 20., d, 30., b, 40., c, 50., b, 60., a, 70., d, 80., A
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.D.66, , 8, , Diversity in Living Organisms, , Biology is a branch of science that deals with the living beings, and their functions. There is a great diversity of living beings, on this planet. The difference between living beings and nonliving matter was perceived by early man. Diverse form of, living organisms are found in different types of habitats like, ocean, fresh water bodies, forests, cold mountains, deserts, hot, water springs, etc. It is estimated that more than 5 million, species are present on earth. Of these about 1.7 million species, are known and described. Every year several new species are, described and added to the list. Since study of all organisms is, nearly impossible, they are classified into groups for the, convenient study., , Rules of Nomenclature, Each biological name has two words: The first word, represents genus and the second represents the specific, epithet., The words of the name should be separately underlined, when hand written and should be in italics when printed., The generic name should start with a capital letter and, specific epithet should start with a small letter., The names should be either Latin or Latinised., Name of the author appears at the end of the scientific name, in an abbreviated form. e.g.: Homo sapiens Linn., It indicates that this species is first described by Linnaeus., , Invertebrates, , Earth, , Geology, , Reptiles, , Weather, , Fis, h, Plant, s, , Amphibians, , Life, , Animal, s, , Note, Living organisms are different from non-living things in the, way that all living things share seven characteristics., The seven characteristics are:, Organisms reproduce, Organisms grow, Organisms feed, Organisms respire, Organisms excrete, Organisms move, Organisms are sensitive, , Mammals, , Consciousness, , Humans, , Birds, , Figure: 8.1, , Every organism whether plant or animals are unique in itself., There is a wide diversity in the flora (plants) and fauna, (animals) in the world. The diversity we see today is the result, of 3.5 billion years of organic evolution. During the course of, this evolution several species vanished from the surface of the, Earth and became extinct. It is estimated that more than fifty, times the existing species have become extinct. With such a, vast number of organisms – both living and extinct, it becomes, impossible to study every one of them at individual level. This, task of studying the diversity of living organisms can be made, easier and more effective if the various organisms are arranged, in an orderly manner., , Table: 8.1 Terminology used in Classification, Scientists have formulated certain procedures to, Nomenclature, assign scientific name to each organism., International Code for Botanical Nomenclature, (ICBN) and International code for Zoological, Nomenclature (ICZN) were evolved to assign, scientific names for plants and animals respectively., The scientific name has two components- Generic, name and the specific epithet. This system of, naming is called binomial nomenclature., , Classification, , It was given by Carolus Linnaeus and is used by, biologists all over the world., It is the arrangement of organisms in specific groups or, categories based on certain characters. These categories, are called taxa (sing. taxon)., , Taxonomy, , It is the study of identification, nomenclature and, classification of organisms based on external and, internal structure with cell structure, development, process and ecological information., , Systematic, , It is the study of organisms with reference to, identification, nomenclature, classification and, evolutionary relationship.
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Diversity in Living Organisms, , Importance of Classification, It makes the study of such a wide variety of organisms, easy., It projects before us a good picture of all life forms at a, glance., It helps us understand the interrelationship among different, groups of organisms., It serves as a base for the development of other biological, sciences such as biogeography, etc., Classification can be Done on the Following Basis, Cells are prokaryotic or eukaryotic. Organisms may be, grouped into two broad categories on the basis whether they, possess prokaryotic cells or eukaryotic cells. In case of, prokaryotic cells the nuclei and other organelles are not, clearly demarcated. The eukaryotic cells, on the other hand,, have membrane-bound organelles, including a nucleus., Cells occur singly or in clusters. Many organisms are, unicellular, i.e. made up of only one cell, e.g. Amoeba. Others, are multi-cellular, i.e., cells group together to form single, organism (e.g., insect). In case of multi-cellular organisms the, different groups of cells carry out specialised functions., , II.D.67, , Order: Principes, Family: Arecaceae, Genus: Cocos, Species: nucifera, Taxonomic Hierarchy, Kingdom: Kingdom comprises of various phyla of animals, and various divisions of plants., Phylum/Division: Phylum in animals and Division in, plants includes related classes., Class: Several related orders are included in a class., Order: The order includes several related families., Family: Family is a group of related genera., Genus: Genus is a group of related species which have corelated characters., Species: It is the basic unit in classification. The members of a, species are closely related, derived from a common ancestor, and can interbreed to produce fertile offsprings., , Kingdom, , Organism is photosynthetic or takes food from outside., Green plants perform photosynthesis and synthesis their, own food. Animals cannot perform photosynthesis. They, get food from outside., Organisation of different body parts. Grouping of, organisms may be done on the basis of body organisation., For example, plants possess stem, root and leaves., Similarly, the animals possess specialised organs to, perform different function. The characteristic based on, body design used for classification of plants is quite, different when used for classifying animals, Examples for taxonomic categories, Human (Homo sapiens), Kingdom: Animalia, Phylum: Chordata, Class: Mammalia, Order: Primates, Family: Hominidae, Genus: Homo, Species: sapiens, Coconut (Cocos nucifera), Kingdom: Plantae, Phylum: Angiospermae, Class: Monocotyledonae, , Phylum, , Sub-class, , Class, , Order, , Family, , Genus, , Species, , Figure: 8.2 Sequence of Taxonomic Hierarchy, , Systems of Classification: R. H. Whittaker in 1969 suggested five, kingdom classifications on the basis of presence or absence of a, nucleus, unicellular or multi-cellular and mode of nutrition., He proposed five kingdoms: Monera, Protista, Fungi,, Plantae and Animalia., , Plantae, Multicellular, eukaryotic, , Animalia, Multicellular, eukaryotic, , Fungi, Multicellular, eukaryotic, , Protista, Eukaryotic, unicellular and, multicellular, Archaebacteria, Eubacteria, Unicellular, prokaryotic, Unicellular, prokaryotic, , Figure: 8.3 Classification of Kingdom, , Characteristics Features of Kingdom Plantae, They made of eukaryotic cells., They are multicellular., The cells have wall made of cellulose.
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II.D.68, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , They store carbohydrates such as starch., Some cells (except in some parasites) contain chloroplast., The organisms feed by photosynthesis., PLANT KINGDOM, Cryptogams, (seedless), , Phanerogams, (seed bearing), , Pteridophytes, Bryophytes, Thallophytes, oldest vascular, simple, not, plants this, differentiated terrestrial plant, includes the, into stem, root e.g. mosses and, forms e.g. ferns, liverworts, and leaves, , Fungi, Algae, Lichens, (seedless) (seedless) (seedless) Conifers, , Gymnosperm, naked seeds, , Cycads, , Angiosperm, covered seeds, , Monocotyledons Dicotyledons, (seedless), (seedless), , Algae: They generally include aquatic plants. Some, 20,000species of algae are known. Study of algae is called, phycology. The main characteristics are as under:, They are generally chorophyllous thallophytes in which, vascular tissues are absent., The plant body is thalloid i.e., cannot be differentiated into, root, stem and leaves., They are found in fresh water resources as well as in sea, water., They are autotrophic because of the presence of chlorophyll, in leaves. The reserve food is generally a carbohydrate., The cell wall is double layered. The outer layer is made of, pectin and inner layer is made cellulose., They may be unicellular as well as multicellular., A few members such as chlamydomonas are motile., They reproduce by vegetative, asexual as well as sexual, methods. The sex organs are unisexual and lack a sterile, covering around them., Example: Oedogonium, Chara, Sargassum, Ectocarpus,, Chlamydomonas, Ulothrix, etc., Fungi: It is a large group of over 90,000 species. They show, the following characteristics:, They are achlorophyllous and nonvascular plants., The plant body may be unicelled or vthalloid, made of, branched or unbranched filamentous structures, the hyphae., The network of hypae is called mycelium., The hyphae may be aseptate or sepate and each cell may be, uni or multinucleate., The cell wall is made of chitin or fungal cellulose., They show heterotrophic mode of nutrition., , The reserved food is in the form of glycogen and oil globules., They reproduce by asexual or sexual methods., The sex organs are unicelled and lack a sterile covering, around them. The higher forms lack distinct sex organs., Example: Rhizopus, Yeast, Agaricus (Mushroom), etc., Lichens, They represent a symbiotic association of a fungus and alga, in which two organisms are so closely associated with each, other as to form a single plant., They are show growing long lived plants. The commonly, grow on leaves, tree trunks, old logs, soils and rocks., Some lichens occur in extreme conditions of cold, humidity, and drought., In these plants the algal part prepares the food and the, fungal part shows reproduction. Thus, their association is, mutualistic., Bryophyta: They have over 25,000 species., They live in damp and sandy habitats hence they are called, amphibians of the plant kingdom. They are often found to, grow during rainy season forming green carpets or mats on, damp soil, rocks, walls, tree trunks, etc., The vascular tissues are absent. The roots are absent and, instead rhizoids are present. They may be unicellular or, multicellular., The reproduction takes place by vegetative or sexual, methods., The vegetative reproduction is quite common through, fragmentation tubes, buds, adventitious branches, etc., They show distinct alternation of generation., Example: Riccia, Marchantia, Funaria (Moss)., Pteridophyta: These are the oldest vascular plants this, includes the forms. The important characteristics are., The plant body is differentiated into roots, stem, and leaves., The dominant phase or plant body is a sporophyte., They are seedless vascular plants and hence called vascular, cryptogams., The gametophyte is small or unconscious., The sex organs are multicellular., The fertilisation requires water medium results in the, formation of zygote., They show distinct alternation of generation., Example: Selaginella, Adiantum, Dryopteris., Gymnosperms, They have well developed vascular tissues but lack vessels.
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Diversity in Living Organisms, , The ‘flowers’ compose two types of sporophylls i.e.,, microsporophylls and megasporohylls., The pollination is anemophilous and the fertilization does, not require water medium. There is formation of pollen, tube. (Siphonogamous), The zygote develops into an embryo., Since the ovules are not covered by cattel there is no fruit, formation. They are naked., Example: Cycas, Pinus and Ephedra, etc., , II.D.69, , They do not perform photosynthesis but have heterotrophic, nutrition., They have the power of locomotion., They show increased sensitivity through the nervous system., Basis of animal classification: There are many features, used for distinguishing broad categories of animals. These, features include organisation, symmetry, body cavity,, number of embryonic cell layers and presence of absence of, notochord., ANIMAL KINGDOM, , Angiosperm: The word is made from two Greek words:, , angeion means vessel, covered and sperma means seed. The, seeds develop inside an organ which is modified to become a, fruit. These are also called flowering plants. They are most, abundant and conspicuous plants with about 2,00,000 species., The general characteristics are:, They are usually terrestrial plants. The plant body is, sporophytic., The plants may be herbaceous or woody. They may be, annual, biennial or perennial., A well developed vascular system is present in them. The, xylem has vessels., The angiosperms are characterised by the presence of the, double fertilisation forming a zygote and the primary, endosperm, the nutritive tissue., During fertilisation the non-flagellate male gametes are, carried by a pollen tube (siphonogamous)., Fertilised ovules ripen into seed thus the ovary is converted, into a fruit., Example: Brassica campestris (Mustard), Pisum sativum, (pea), etc., Angiosperms are divided into:, Monocot, bear seeds which have a single cotyledon or seed, leaf. The veins on their leave are parallel to each other. Their, vascular bundles are arranged in a complex manner, e.g.,, palms, bamboos, sugarcane, rice, etc., Dicot, the seeds of dicot have two cotyledons. The veins on, their leaves are like a network. Their vascular bundles are, arranged in a ring. Their root system consists of a man tap root, with smaller branches., Characteristics Features of Kingdom Animalae:, The organisms are made up of eukaryotic cells., The body of animals is multicellular., The cells do not contain cell wall, but contain only cell, membrane., , Metazoa (multicellular), , Protozoa (unicellular), , Eumetazoa, , Parazoa (Porifera), , Radiata/Diploblastic, (Coelenterate, Ctenophore), , Acoelomate, (Platyhelminthes), , Annelida, , Arthropoda, , Urochordata, , Pisces, , Amphibia, , Bilateria/Triploblasts, , Eucoelomate, , Pseudocoelomate, (Aschelminthes, Porifera), , Mollusca, , Echinodermata, , Cephalochordata, , Reptilia, , Chordata, , Vertebrata, , Aves, , Mammalia, , Porifera: Porous = pore, ferre = to bear, They are commonly called sponges and are mainly found in, marine habitats. These are non-motile animals attached to some, solid support. They have holes all over the body. These animals, are covered with a hard outside layer or skeleton. Example:, Euplectella; Sycon etc., The body of sponge is organised in such a manner as to form a, complex system of pores and canals. Several pores connected, the outside to a central chamber (spongocoel)., Numerous minute pores (ostia; sing ostium) present on the, body lead into canals lined by flagellated coller cells, (choanocytes). Terminal point of the body is called osculum., Coelenterata: koilos = hollow, enteron = intestine, These are aquatic animals. The body is made of two layers of, cell (diploblastic); one makes up cells on the outside, ectoderm and the other makes the inner living body of the, body, endoderm. They have a gut cavity with a single opening, for food and waste material. Digestion is extracellular as well
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.D.70, , as multicellular. No respiratory, circulatory or excretory organs, are found. They have two forms polyp, reproduce asexually by, budding and medusa, liberate gametes into water during sexual, reproduction., Example: Hydra, Jellyfish., Plathelminthes: platy = flat, helminth = worm, These are generally called flatworms they do not have a body, cavity. The body is bilaterally symmetrical. Some of them are, free, living in water and soil, but most are parasites. There are, three layers of cells in them and thus are called triploblastic., They range from a few millimeters to a few centimetres in size., Reproduction is mostly sexual. Flatworms have specialised, cells called flame cells, for excretion and osmoregulation., Example: Planarians, Liver flukes., Aschelminthes: nema = thread, aska = cavity, helmith =, worm, They are mostly parasites having bilaterally symmetrical,, triploblastic, unsegmented, elongated bodies. Excretory system, includes glandular organs or canals or both. Flame cells are, absent. These cause diseases such as elephantiasis. Example:, Ascarislumbricoides, Ancylostoma., Annelida: annellus = little ring, eidos = form, Annnelids are eucoelomates, triploblastic animals. There is, extensive organ differentiation. Segmented internally,, separated by septa. Each segment possesses a similar pattern of, organs. The coelome is filled with coelomic fluid, which acts, as hydraulic skeleton and help in locomotion. Closed vascular, system, respiration through gills or body surface and excretion, is by metamerically repeated, special coiled, ectodermal tubes, called nephridia., Example: Earthworms, Leeches., Arthropoda: Artho = jointed, pod = foot., These are triploblastic coelomates, metamerically segmented., They have an open circulatory system., Respiration through gills (Crustaceans), tracheal system, (insects) and book lungs (spiders). The coelomic cavity is, blood-filled., They possess a hard exoskeleton. Sexes are usually separate., Malpighian tubules for excretion in insect and green glands in, crustaceans. Many changes form or undergo metamorphosis, during growth., Example: Prawns, Butterflies, Mites, Crabs., Mollusca: mollis or mollusk = soft, The mollusca are animals with a coelomate triploblastic body,, , bilateral symmetry. They have an open circulatory system and, kidney like organs for excretion. The body is often protected, by a shell. They have a muscular foot to move. Sexes are, separate or united. Rasping, tongue-like radula for feeding,, digestive organ called hepatopancreas., Example: Snails, Mussels., Echinodermata: Echinos = spines and derma = skin., They are exclusively free-living marine animals. They are, triploblastic and have a coelomic cavity. They have water, vascular system consisting of fluid-containing canals, bladder, and tube feet for locomotion. Peculiar features of regeneration, of lost parts. Sexes are separate the development includes a, free swimming dipleurula larva. This larva undergoes a very, complex metamorphosis into a young radial adult., Example: Starfish and Sea urchin., Chordata: These are bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic, coelomate. They have notochord, nerve cord, gill slits or, pharyngeal clefts. They possess a post anal tail and closed, blood vascular system., Vertebrata: These animals have a true vertebral column and, internal skeleton vertebrates are bilaterally symmetrical,, triploblastic, coelomic and segmented, with complex, differentiated of body tissues and organs. Notochord is present, during the embryonic period and replaced by vertebral column, in adult. Nervous system includes brain enclosed in cranium., Phylum Vertebrates, Fish, Amphibians, , Reptiles, , Birds, , Mammals, , Table: 8.2, Pisces, , Chondrichthyes (cartilaginous fishes); placoid scales,, fleshy fins gills without operculum, 2 chambered heart cold, blooded, unisexual and internal fertilisation., Osteichthyes (bony fishes); ctenoid scales, membranous, fins, gills covered with operculum, 2 chambered heart, cold, blooded and fertilisation external.
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Diversity in Living Organisms, Amphibians, , Reptiles, , Aves, , Mammalia, , II.D.71, , ‘Amphi’ ‘double’ and ‘bios’ ‘life’. They are partly adapted, to live on land, and partly in water. Most amphibians lay, their eggs in water. Amphibians have three-chambered, hearts. Example: Frogs, Toads and Salamanders etc., These animals can lively solely on land and are very less, dependent on water. These are cold blooded, have scales, and breathe through lungs. These have three-chambered, heart (except crocodiles). They lay eggs covered with, waterproof shells. Their skin is waterproof and is covered, with waterproof horny scales. Example: Lizards, Snakes,, Crocodiles, and Dinosaurs., ‘AVES’ means birds evolved from reptiles and have many, similarities with them. These are warm-blooded and have a, four-chambered heart. They lay eggs. Birds are, distinguished because their bodies are covered with feathers,, and two forelimbs modified for flight. They breathe through, lungs. Examples: Cuckoo, Crow, Sparrow, etc., Mammals are warm-blooded animals with four-chambered, hearts. They have mammary glands for the production of, milk to nourish their young. Their skin has hairs as well as, sweet and oil glands. Most mammals give birth to their, young their ones. Sexes are separate. Example: Man, Tiger,, Cows, etc., , Definitions, Species: It is the basic unit in classification. The members, of a species are closely related, derived from a common, ancestor and can interbreed to produce fertile offsprings., Genus: Genus is a group of related species which have corelated characters., , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , , Family: Family is a group of related genera., Order: The order includes several related families., Class: Several related orders are included in a class., Phylum/Division: Phylum in animals and Division in, plants includes related classes., Kingdom: Kingdom comprises of various phyla of animals, and various divisions of plants., Coelom: Body cavity of triploblastic animals lying within, the mesoderm and lined by it., Ctenoid Scale: Hard dermal exoskeletal structures of fishes, having rough or comb like edge., Placoid Scale: Minute plate-like dermal exoskeletal, structures of cartilaginous fishes., Cold-blooded (exothermic): Condition in which the, internal temperature of an animal is dependent upon the, temperature of its environment., Warm blooded (endothermic): Condition in which the, internal temperature of an animal is dependent upon its, metabolic processes and is held at a relatively high and, constant level., Detritus: Dead organic material in solid or particulate, form., Oviparous: Egg-laying animals., Viviparous: Female animal whose gives birth to young., , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , The two super kingdoms created on the basis of cell, structure are, a. Monera and Protista, b. Plantae and Animalia, c. Prokaryota and Eukaryota, d. Protista and Non-protista, Which one of the following is vascular plant?, a. Mosses, b. Ferns, c. Hornworts, d. Liverworts, Liverworts are closely, a. Thallophytes, c. Conifers, , b. Ferns, d. Mosses, , Which one of the following is known as Hornwort?, a. Riccia, b. Anthoceros, c. Funaria, d. Pteris, Gymnosperms are, a. Naked seed, , b. Non-vascular plants, , c. Flowering plants, , d. Seedless plants, , 6., , 7., , 8., , Algae belongs to, a. Bryophytes, , b. Pteridophytes, , c. Thallophytes, , d. None of these, , Algae are characterised by, a. Pyrenoids, , b. Aquatic habit, , c. Unicellular sex organ, , d. All of the above, , Pyrenoid is found in one of the following organs on, Spirogyra, , 9., , a. Nucleolus, , b. Cytoplasm, , c. Vacuole, , d. Chloroplast, , Study of algae is called, a. Phycology, c. Dendrology, , b. Mycology, d. Ecology, , 10. Bacteria lack, a. ER, c. Cell wall, , b. DNA, d. Cytoplasm
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.D.72, , 11. The basal cell of Ulothrix is devoid of, a. Chloroplasts, b. Pyrenoid, c. Chlorophyll, d. Nucleus, , 23. Main body of bryophyte plant is always, a. Sporophytic, b. Hormogonium, c. Autoecious, d. Gametophytic, , 12. Eye spot or stigma is present in, a. Spirogyra, b. Ulothrix, c. Chlamydomonas, d. Nostoc, , 24. Conducting tissue in Funaria, a. Parenchyma, b. Collenchyma, c. Sclerenchyma, d. Xylem and Phloem, , 13. Which of the following is the principal pigment of, Phaeophyceae?, a. Fucoxanthin, b. Phycocyanin, c. Phycoerythrin, d. Chlorophyll, 14. Which group of algae store polysaccharide laminarian, their cells?, a. Green algae, b. Blue-green algae, c. Red algae, d. Brown algae, 15. Phycoerythrin is present in, a. Polysiphonia, c. Fucus, , b. Chlamydomonas, d. Euglena, , 16. Red algae is differ from green algae and brown algae in, having, a. No flagellated stages in their life cycles, b. Leghemoglobin within their cells, c. No chlorophyll ‘a’, d. No differentiated cells, 17. Which of the following algae is being used in space, research?, a. Cladophora, b. Hydrodictyon, c. Chlorella, d. Chlamydomonas, 18. Which one of the following is a parasitic algae?, a. Cephaleuros, b. Ulothrix, c. Oedogonium, d. Sargassum, 19. Which one of the following is a flagellated algae?, a. Chlamydomonas, b. Ulothrix, c. Spirogyra, d. Acetabularia, 20. Alginic acid is a product of, a. Red algae, c. Blue-green algae, , b. Green algae, d. Brown algae, , 21. First land inhabiting organisms are, a. Bryophytes, b. Pteridophytes, c. Gymnosperms, d. Angiosperms, 22. Bryophytes do not have, a. Gametophytes, c. Sporophytes, , b. Xylem, Phloem, d. Cuticle, , 25. Moss capsule represents, a. Gametophyte, c. Sporophyte, , b. Gametophores, d. Part of sorus, , 26. Which one of the following plant group is the most, abundant on earth?, a. Mosses, b. Ferns, c. Hornworts, d. Liverworts, 27. Pteridophytes are also called, a. Cryptogams, b. Vascular cryptogams, c. Phanerogams, d. Embryophytes, 28. Pteridophytes differ from bryophytes in possessing, a. Archegonia, b. Spores, c. Tracheids, d. Vascular tissue, 29. Which one of the following also called Horsetail?, a. Equisetum, b. Lycopodium, c. Marsilea, d. Selaginella, 30. Which one of the following also called Club moss?, a. Pteris, b. Equisetum, c. Lycopodium, d. Marsilea, 31. The fern usually found, a. Near marshy places, c. Dry climate, , b. Shady, cool, moist places, d. None of these, , 32. Fern rhizome is, a. Stem, c. Rhizoid, , b. Rhizophore, d. Root, , 33. In fern rhizome, a. Sieve tubes are absent, c. Tracheids are absent, , b. Vessels are absent, d. None of these, , 34. Which of the following plants contributed to supply of coal?, a. Bryophytes, b. Angiosperms, c. Conifers, d. Seedless vascular plants, 35. The largest group of Gymnosperms is, a. Conifers, b. Cycads, c. Gnetinae, d. Cycadofilicales, 36. Most of gymnosperms have, a. Only antheridia, b. Only archegonia, c. Both antheridia and archegonia, d. None of these
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Diversity in Living Organisms, , II.D.73, , 37. Largest tree in plant kingdom is, a. Sequoia, b. Pinus, c. Metasequoia, d. Cedrus, , 51. Choanocytes are unique to, a. Protozoa, c. Mollusca, , 38. Fruits are not formed in gymnosperms because of, a. They are not pollinated, b. They are seedless, c. No fertilisation occurs, d. They have no ovaries, , 52. Molluscs are, a. Unsegmented, b. Annulated, c. Metamerically segmented, d. None of these, , 39. Which of the following does not require external water, for fertilisation?, a. Cycads, b. Ferns, c. Algae, d. Bryophytes, 40. Sulphar shower is related to, a. Pinus, b. Cycus, c. Both, d. None of these, , b. Porifera, d. Echinodermata, , 53. All mollusces share the following except, a. Muscular foot, b. Visceral mass, c. Mantle, d. Open circulatory system, , 41. Simple polyembryony is found in, a. Cycus only, b. Pinus only, c. Both (a.) and (b.), d. None, , 54. Molluscs are, a. Diploblastic and coelomate, b. Triploblastic and acoelomate, c. Triploblastic and pseudocoelomate, d. Triploblastic and coelomate, , 42. Red wood tree is, a. Sequoia, c. Gnetum, , 55. Which molluscs is the largest invertebrate, a. Giant clam, b. Giant squid, c. Giant snail, d. Giant octopus, , b. Pinus, d. Equisetum, , 43. Which one of the following is used as Christmas tree?, a. Pinus sp., b. Abies sp., c. Araucaria sp., d. All of the above, , 56. Pearl oyster belongs to class, a. Mollusca, b. Bivalvia, c. Scaphopoda, d. Gastropoda, , 44. Cedrus deodara is mainly used for making, a. Railway sleeper, b. Match sticks, c. Pencils, d. Furniture, , 57. Foot is modified into arms or tentacles attached to the, head in, a. Cephalopoda, b. Gastropoda, c. Pelecypoda, d. None of these, , 45. Which of the following is not monocot?, a. Rose, b. Orchids, c. Palms, d. Banana, 46. The aquatic birds have, a. Webbed feet, b. Long legs, c. Sharp claws, d. Oily feathers, 47. Birds have, a. One left aortic arch, b. One right aortic arch, c. One is fully developed and other is poorly developed, d. Both are fully developed, 48. The wishbone of birds is derived from, a. Hind limbs, b. Pelvic gridle, c. Pectoral girdle, d. Skull, 49. Which of these birds cannot fly?, a. Peacock, b. Duck, c. Stork, , d. Emu, , 50. The zoological name of Indian peacock is, a. Pavo cristatus, b. Passer domesticus, c. Psittacula eupatria, d. Columba livia, , 58. Mesoglea is characteristics of, a. Platyhelminthes, b. Aschelminthes, c. Cnidaria, d. Mollusca, 59. The biggest phylum in regard to the number of species, a. Protozoa, b. Platyhelminthes, c. Chordate, d. Arthropoda, 60. The presence or absence of mandibles can be used to, distinguish between, a. Insect and spiders, b. Insects and millipedes, c. Insects and centipedes, d. Insects and crustaceans, 61. Mouthparts of mosquitoes are of, a. Siphoning type, b. Sponging type, c. Piercing and sucking type, d. Cutting and chewing type, 62. A distinct thorax does not occur in, a. Cockroach, b. Whale, c. Silkworm, d. Centipede
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.D.74, , 63. Common character of spider, cockroach and centipede is, a. Compound eyes, b. Book lungs, c. Jointed legs, d. Green glands, 64. The insect, which lays egg in water, a. Dragonfly, b. Butterfly, c. Housefly, d. Sandfly, 65. Complete metamorphosis occurs in, a. Bug, b. Silverfish, c. Butterfly, d. Grasshopper, , 77. Filariasis is caused by a type of, a. Earthworm, b. Round worm, c. Tape worm, d. Insect, 78. Earthworm belongs to the class, a. Oligochaeta, b. Polychaeta, c. Archiannelida, d. Nematoda, 79. Excretory organs of Annelida are, a. Archeocytes, b. Nephridia, c. Statocysts, d. None of these, , 66. Mature larva of housefly is, a. Maggot, c. Caterpillar, , b. Grub, d. Wriggler, , 67. Green glands are found in, a. Scorpion, c. Spider, , 80. In locomotion earthworm is helped by, a. Setae, b. Coelomic fluid, c. Body wall musculature, d. All of the above, , b. Moth, d. Cray fish, , 68. Silk is produce by, a. Cocoon, c. Larva, , 81. Blood vascular system if earthworm is, a. Open type, b. Closed type, c. Portal type, d. None of these, , b. Adult moth, d. Both (b.) and (c.), , 82. Excretory organs in platyhelminthes are, a. Green glands, b. Flame cell, c. Nephridia, d. Malpighian tubules, , 69. The worker honey bee normally lives for about, a. 30 days, b. 90 days, c. 10 days, d. 20 days, 70. Bladder worm is a stage in, a. Liver fluke, c. Roundworm, , b. Planaria, d. Tapeworm, , 71. Schistosoma is known as, a. Blood fluke, c. Dog tapeworm, , b. Chinese liver fluke, d. Lung fluke, , 72. The first phylum with complete digestive system was, a. Cnidaria, b. Nematode, c. Arthropoda, d. Echinodermata, 73. Sexual diamorphism is found in, a. Hydra, b. Earthworm, c. Ascaris, d. Fasciola, 74. Male Ascaris is, a. Smaller than female, c. Equal in size, , b. Larger than female, d. Too small than female, , 75. Female Ascaris can be distinguished from male Ascaris, by, a. Pineal setae, b. Cloaca, c. Both (a.) and (b.), d. Straight posterior part, 76. Excretory organs of Ascaris are, a. Single excretory cell, b. Flame cell, c. Nephridia, d. Kidney, , 83. An organ in earthworm analogous to our kidney is, a. Nephridium, b. Testis, c. Clitellum, d. Ovary, 84. Echinoderms are, a. Smooth skin and radial symmetry, b. Spiny skin and bilateral symmetry, c. Spiny skin and radial symmetry, d. Spiny skin and asymmetry, 85. Which of these phyla is found only in seawater?, a. Protozoa, b. Porifera, c. Coelenterate, d. Echinodermata, 86. Starfish belongs to, a. Asteroidea, c. Teleostomi, , b. Elasmobranchii, d. None of these, , 87. Benign malaria is caused by, a. Plasmodium ovale, b. Plasmodium falciparum, c. Plasmodium vivax, d. Plasmodium malariae, 88. Which class of protozoa is totally parasitic?, a. Sporozoa, b. Flagellate, c. Rhizopoda, d. Ciliate, 89. In which of the following organelle of Amoeba systole, and diastole take place, a. Pseudopodia, b. Plasmalemma, c. Contractile vacuole, d. Food vacuole
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Diversity in Living Organisms, , II.D.75, , 90. Trypanosoma is transmitted by, a. Inoculation, b. Contamination, c. Kissing, d. Contact, , 103. In which of the following does not have a poison, apparatus?, a. Scorpion, b. Centipede c. Spider, d. Crab, , 91. Nerve cell are not found in, a. Sponges, c. Coelenterates, , 104. Arthropods use different organs for respiration. Which of, the following correctly lists the organs with the organism, which use them?, a. Gills (insects), tracheal system (spiders), lungs, (centipedes), b. Gills (scorpions), book lungs (prawns), tracheal system, (spinders), c. Gills (crustaceans), tracheal system (insects), book, lungs (spiders), d. Gills (crustaceans), tracheal system (millipedes), book, lungs (insects), , b. Nematodes, d. Platyhelminthes, , 92. Zoological name of common bath sponge is, a. Hyalonema, b. Euspongia, c. Euplectella, d. Spongilla, 93. Venus’ flower basket is the dried skeleton of, a. Euspongia, b. Euplectella, c. Spongia, d. Leucosolenia, 94. Nematocytes occurs in, a. Cnidocytes, c. Ectosarc, , b. Endosarc, d. Epitheliomuscular cells, , 95. Nutritional hydra is, a. Saprophytic, c. Herbivorous, , b. Insectivorous, d. Carnivorous, , 96. Which of these class of phylum Chordata to which, bat, belongs?, a. Mammalian, b. Prototheria, c. Chiroptera, d. Aves, 97. To which of the taxonomic group does whale belongs?, a. Fishes, b. Reptilian, c. Mammalian, d. Arthropoda, 98. Which of the following is an egg-laying mammal?, a. Kangaroo, b. Spiny anteater, c. Bat, d. Hedgehog, 99. Egg burying mammals are found in, a. Australia, b. India, c. Africa, , d. None, , 100. The similar between giraffe, rabbit, camel, bat and whale, is that all of them have, a. Nucleated RBC, b. Four chambered stomach, c. Seven cervical vertebrae, d. Enucleated RBC, 101. A plant body which is not stem, roots, etc, is called, a. Thallus, b. mycelium, c. Frond, d. substratum, 102. In which of the following, the cells are not organised into, tissues?, a. Cnidarians, b. Sponges, c. Flatworms, d. Roundworms, , 105. Which of the following are diploblastic?, a. Cnidarians, b. Flatworms, c. Roundworms, d. Earthworms, 106. The excretory system in annelids consists of coiled tubes, called:, a. Flame cells, b. Metanepridia, c. Nephridia, d. Protonephridia, 107. Annelids are:, a. Flatworms, c. 6-legged invertebrates, 108. Common India bull frog is:, a. Rana tigrina, c. Rana silva, , b. Roundworms, d. Segmented worms, b. Rana esculenta, d. Rana cyanophlyctis, , 109. Heart of crocodile is:, a. three-chambered, b. two-chambered, c. single-chambered, d. four-chambered, 110. Which one is an oviparous animal a. Pigeon, b. Whale, c. Bat, d. Amoeba, 111. The branch of science dealing with the study of birds is:, a. Herpetology, b. Ornithology, c. Oncology, d. Anthropology, 112. Heart of mammal is:, a. 1-chambered, c. 2-chambered, , b. 3-chambered, d. 4-chambered, , 113. Representative of hemichordate is:, a. Scoliodon, b. Myxine, c. Balanoglossus, d. Petromyzon, 114. Which of the following is a true fish?, a. Silverfish b. Jellyfish c. Starfish, , d. Dogfish
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II.D.76, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 115. Characters of which group are present in all chordates in, some stage or the other of their life cycle?, a. Gill clefts, vertebral column and notochord, b. Mammary glands, hairs and gill clefts, c. Notochord, scales and dorsal tubular nervous system, d. Notochord, gill clefts and dorsal tubular central, nervous system, ANSWERS, , 31., b, , 32., d, , 33., a, , 34., d, , 35., a, , 36., b, , 37., a, , 38., d, , 39., a, , 40., a, , 41., c, , 42., a, , 43., d, , 44., a, , 45., a, , 46., a, , 47., b, , 48., c, , 49., d, , 50., a, , 51., b, , 52., a, , 53., d, , 54., d, , 55., b, , 56., b, , 57., a, , 58., c, , 59., d, , 60., a, , 61., c, , 62., d, , 63., c, , 64., a, , 65., c, , 66., a, , 67., d, , 68., a, , 69., a, , 70., d, , 71., a, , 72., b, , 73., c, , 74., a, , 75., d, , 76., a, , 77., b, , 78., a, , 79., b, , 80., d, , 81., a, , 82., b, , 83., a, , 84., c, , 85., d, , 86., a, , 87., d, , 88., a, , 89., c, , 90., a, , 1., c, , 2., b, , 3., d, , 4., b, , 5., a, , 6., c, , 7., d, , 8., d, , 9., a, , 10., a, , 91., a, , 92., c, , 93., b, , 94., a, , 95., d, , 96., a, , 97., c, , 98., b, , 99., a, , 100., c, , 11., d, , 12., c, , 13., a, , 14., d, , 15., a, , 16., b, , 17., c, , 18., a, , 19., a, , 20., d, , 101., a, , 102., b, , 103., d, , 104., c, , 105., a, , 106., c, , 107., d, , 108., a, , 109., d, , 110., A, , 21., a, , 22., b, , 23., d, , 24., a, , 25., c, , 26., a, , 27., b, , 28., d, , 29., a, , 30., c, , 111., b, , 112., d, , 113., c, , 114., d, , 115., a, ,
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Health and Diseases, , 9, Health does not simply mean ‘absence of disease’ or ‘physical, fitness’. It could be defined as a state of complete physical,, mental and social well-being. When people are healthy, they, are more efficient at work. This increases productivity and, brings economic prosperity. Health also increases longevity of, people and reduces infant and maternal mortality. Basic, conditions required for good health include balanced diet,, physical hygiene, clean food, water and air, exercise, no, addictions and good economic conditions. Food provides, energy for all life processes. The actual amount of energy, liberated in the human body due to combustion of 1 gm of food, is physiologic value of food., “Health is state of complete physical, mental and social well, being, and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity.”, - WHO, Note, Balanced diet, personal hygiene and regular exercise are very, important to maintain good health. Yoga has been practiced, since time immemorial to achieve physical and mental health., Awareness about diseases and their effect on different bodily, functions, vaccination (immunisation) against infectious, diseases, proper disposal of wastes, control of vectors and, maintenance of hygienic food and water resources are, necessary for achieving good health., Balanced Diet, The components of diet, try to analyse our own food intake., For healthy growth and development, we need to eat foods that, provide all the essential nutrients in the correct proportion., Eating a variety of foods in proper quantity every day, constitutes a balanced diet. A balanced diet contains adequate, amounts of essential nutrients such as carbohydrates, fats,, proteins, vitamins, minerals and water. The proportion may, depend on age, sex, pregnancy, etc., Carbohydrates: Carbohydrates are the main source of energy, in our diet; in the form of sugars, starch or cellulose. One gram, of carbohydrate yields 4.2 kilocalories of energy on respiration, (controlled oxidation)., Fats: Keep the body warm, help in the transport of fat-soluble, vitamins. Some common sources of fats are edible oil, ghee,, , II.D.77, , Health and Diseases, butter, meat and nuts like groundnuts. One gram of fat on, oxidation gives about 37 kilojoules (9 kilocalorie) of energy,, e.g., Edible oil, ghee, butter, meat and nuts like groundnuts., Proteins: Growth of body tissues is the main function of, proteins. Having a glass of milk or a bowl of cooked pulses, (dals) or an egg all these are rich in proteins. Body required 1, gm of protein for every kilogram of body weight (means 60 kg, man need 60 gm of protein every day). Proteins are formed, from amino acids., Essential amino acids are which cannot be synthesised by, the animal body, e.g., methionine, isoleucine, lysine and, phenylalanine., Nonessential amino acids are which synthesised by animal, body, particular from carbohydrate metabolise., Vitamins: They are necessary for normal growth, and, maintenance of the body, and are required in relatively small, amounts. Deficiency of a particular vitamin causes disease., Overdose of certain vitamins, such as vitamins A and D is, harmful. Vitamins may be water-soluble: Vitamins B—complex, (B1, B2, B4, B12) and C. Fat-soluble: Vitamins A, D, E and K., Table: 9.1 Types of Vitamins, their sources, functions and deficiency, diseases, Vitamin, , Sources, , Functions, , Deficiency Disease, , A, , Milk, carrots,, tomatoes, egg, , Keeps eyes and, skin health, , Night blindness (poor, vision in dim light), , B1, , Milk, peas,, cereals. Green, vegetable, meat, Liver, egg,, milk, fish, , Growth and, development, Form red blood, corpuscles, , Beriberi (a disease, which affect the, nervous system), Anaemia, (deficiency of RBCs), , C, , Amla, tomatoes,, citrus fruits,, water, , Healthy growth,, strong blood, vessels, , Scurvy (a disease in, which gums swell up, and bleed), , D, , Sunlight, milk,, whole grains, and vegetables, , Form strong, bones and teeth, , Rickets (a disease, which affects bones in, children making them, soft and deformed),, Osteomalacia, (softening of the bones), , E, , Vegetable oils,, milk, butter,, whole grains,, vegetable, , Protect cell, membrane, , Affect fertility, , K, , Green vegetable, like spinach and, cabbage, , Helps in the, blood clotting, , Excessive bleeding, from wounds, , B12
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.D.78, , Minerals: Minerals such as iron, calcium, sodium, potassium,, iodine, etc. are required by the body in small quantities., Following table indicates the sources and functions of some, important minerals., Table: 9.2 Minerals and their Sources, Minerals, Sources, Green leafy vegetable,, Iron, sprouts, yeasts liver,, eggs meat, Calcium, , Milk and milk products, , Potassium, , Green and yellow, vegetables, , Iodine, , Sea food, iodised salt, , Functions, Forms haemoglobin, Forms strong bones, teeth and, needed for muscle movement and, blood clotting, For growth and keeping osmotic, balance of cells and blood, Body metabolism, development of, brain, , Water: It is an important part of our diet. It makes 65–70% of, our body weight. Water regulates the body temperature, and, provides is a medium for biochemical reactions taking place in, the body., Raw Vegetables: They help in bowel movement. They form, the ‘roughage’ needed to prevent constipation., Human Diseases, An abnormal condition of the body which does not let the body, functions properly. It caused by the malfunctioning of an organ, or due to improper or incomplete signals from other organs., Influenza (flu), hepatitis, typhoid, cholera, diarrhea,, tuberculosis, common cold and malaria are some diseases., , Different species of Plasmodium (P. vivax, P. malaria and, P. falciparum) are responsible for different types of, malaria. Of these, malignant malaria caused by Plasmodium, falciparum is the most serious one and can even be fatal., Plasmodium enters the human body as sporozoites, (infectious form) through the bite of infected female, Anopheles mosquito., The parasites initially multiply within the liver cells and, then attack the red blood cells (RBCs) resulting in their, rupture., The rupture of RBCs is associated with release of a toxic, substance, haemozoin, which is responsible for the chill and, high fever recurring every 3–4 days., When a female Anopheles mosquito bites an infected, person, these parasites enter the mosquito’s body and, undergo further development. The parasites multiply within, them to form sporozoites that are stored in their salivary, glands., It is interesting to note that the malaria parasite requires two, hosts – human and mosquitoes – to complete its life cycle;, the female Anopheles mosquito is the vector (transmitting, agent) too., , Mature infective stages, (sporozoites) escape, form intestine and, migrate to the, , When the mosquito bites, another human,, sporozoites are injected, with bite, , Table: 9.3 Types of Diseases, Acute diseases, Chronic, diseases, Congenital, diseases, Acquired, diseases, , Occurs suddenly and lasts for a short time, e.g. influenza,, fever, aches., A disease that lasts for a long time, e.g. asthma, arthritis,, TB and diabetes, Genetic abnormalities or due to metabolic disorder., Communicable or, infectious diseases, , Non-communicable, or non-infectious, , It can be spread from one, infected individual to another, it, caused by microorganisms., It is organic or metabolic, diseases, not spread from, infected person to another, person., , Some of Diseases caused due to Infection by, Microorganisms, Disease caused by Protozoa:, Malaria: A tiny protozoan is responsible for this disease., Charles Laveran (1880) discovered that malaria is caused, by a protozoan’s parasite, Plasmodium., , Sporozoites, , Salivary glands, , Parasites, (sporozoites) reach, the liver through, blood, , Fertilisation and, development take Mosquito Host, place in the, mosquito’s intestine, Human Host, Female mosquito, takes up, gametocytes with, blood meal, , Gametocytes, Female, Male, Sexual stages, (gametocytes) develop in, red blood cells, , The parasites, reproduces, asexually in liver, cells, bursting the, cell and releasing, into the blood, Parasites, reproduce asexually, in red blood cells,, bursting the red blood, cells and causing, cycles of fever and, other symptoms., Released parasites, infect new red blood, cells, , Figure: 9.1 Life Cycle of Plasmodium., , Control, Mosquitoes can be killed by spraying insecticides (e.g.,, BHC, malathion).
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Health and Diseases, , II.D.79, , Mosquito larvae should be killed by some larvivorous, fishes such as Gambusia, minnows or trouts., A drug named quinine, which is extracted from the bark of, Cinchona tree, is used for treatment of malaria., Table: 9.4 Some Common Protozoan Diseases, Disease, , Pathogen, , Transmission, , Amoebiasis, , Entamoeba histolytica, , Giardiasis, , Giardia lamblia, , Water and food, contamination, Water and contact, , Trichomoniasis, , Trichomonas, , Sexual contact, , Sleeping, , Trypanosoma, , Bite of tsetse fly, , Sickness, , Tryponosoma, , Bite of sandfly, , Kala-azar, , Leishmania, , Malaria, , Plasmodium, , Bite of sandfly, Bite of female Anopheles, mosquito, , Pathogen, s, Any agent causing disease., Usually a living microorganism., Capable of producing infection., Poisons like Arsenic would be excluded., , Viruses, , Bacteria, , Multicelled but can only reproduce, inside a plant, animal, or person., , Tiny one-celled creatures, Can live inside or outside the body., , SARS, AIDS, HIV, Influenza, Cold Sores, Cold Germs, Measles, Tetanus, Typhoid, , Tuberculosis, Anthrax, Staph, E. coli, Typhoid, Salmonella, Morgellons, , Hepatitis, Herpes, Mono, Warts, Chicken Pox, Small Pox, Bird Flu H5N1, Norovirus, Yellow Fever, Ebola Hemmorhagic, Fever, , Pneumonia, Urinary, Tract, infection, Peritonitis, Strep Throat, Stomach Ulcers, Tularemia, Lyme disease, , and B type of influenza are responsible for epidemics of, disease throughout the world., The inhaled virus attacks the epithelial cells in the mucous, membrane of nose, throat and upper respiratory tract., Common symptoms are sudden onset chills, coughing,, sneezing, fever, headache, muscular pain inflammation of, respiratory mucosa., Control: There is no effective control for influenza; we should, try to keep away from flu patients. Amantadines, Aspirin are, recommended for the relief., Hepatitis/Jaundice, It is the disease of liver which is spread mostly by food and, water contaminated with hepatitis virus., Types of hepatitis are A, B, C, D, E or G, except for type B, which is DNA virus, all the other are RNA viruses., Hepatitis A virus (HAV) takes place by faecal-oral route,, i.e. infection of HAV by ingestion of contaminated water,, food or milk. Symptoms are headache, fever, fatigue and, joint pain, loss of appetite (anorexia), yellowing skin and, urine., Hepatitis B virus (HBV) known as serum or transfusion, hepatitis. Its main symptoms include progressive liver, disease, chronic active hepatitis and hepatocellular, carcinoma., Control:, Use chlorinated, boiled and ozonised water. Good, sanitation prevents the spread this disease., , Fungi, , Parasites, , Multicelled but plant-like similar to tree, Actual complex living organism,, fungus, takes nutrition form a plant,, Can live in intestinal tract or blood stream,, tree, or animal., Ringworm, Adv Pneumonia, Candidiasis, , Yeast infection, Histoplasmosis, Cryptococcosis, , Roundworm, Morgellons, , Tapeworm, Trichinosis, , Application of interferon injection on the doctor’s advice,, hepatitis vaccine provides immunity against hepatitis B., Patient should take high calorie diet and consumption of, protein and fat should be limited., Rabies: (Caused by Rhabdovirus), , Protozoa, , Protein, , Single-celled creatures., Usually spread through water., , Multi-celled but can only reproduce, inside a plant, animal, or person,, , Malaria, Giardiasis, Chagas Disease cryptosporidiosis, , Mad cow disease, or bovine spongiform, encephalopathy (BSE), variant CreutzfeldtJakob disease (vCJD), , Rabies virus which is present in the saliva of the infected, animals., The bite of rabid dog or other rabid mammals (monkeys,, cats, rabbits), which is fatal. Viruses are injected into, human blood by the bite of the rabid animal., The wound should be washed immediately with carbolic, , Disease Caused by Viruses, Influenza:, It is commonly called flu, is caused by Myxovirus, influenza. There are three types of influenza A, B and C. A, , soap and water., Control: A doctor should be immediately consulted for antirabies vaccine. It is treated with Pasteur’s treatment (14
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.D.80, , vaccines). Currently five anti-rabies vaccines are prescribed at, an interval of 0–3–7–14–30 days of dog bite., AIDS: (Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome), AIDS is caused by the Human Immunodeficiency Virus, (HIV), a member of a group of viruses called retrovirus,, which have an envelope enclosing the RNA genome., Caused by the HIV human immunodeficiency virus which, attacks WBC or lymphocytes (T4 helper cells) of human, beings and weakens the immunity power and destroy the, ability to fight with diseases., It is spread through unprotected sexual contact with, infected person, the transfusion of blood contaminated, use, of infected needles for injection and infected mother to, child during pregnancy., Retrovirus, Viral RNA core, Virus infects normal cell, , Viral protein coat, , Plasma membrane, Animal cell, Viral RNA is introduced into cell, , Viral DNA is produced, by reverse transcriptase, , Cytoplasm, Viral DNA incorporates, Into host genome, New viral RNA is produced by the infected, cell, Nucleus, , DNA, , New viruses are produced, , New viruses can infect, other cells, , Figure: 9.2 Replication of Retrovirus., , Control, No medicine has yet been developed to cure AIDS. A, patient is usually given a combination of drugs that manage, to slow down the progress of the disease., Infection with HIV or having AIDS is something that, should not be hidden – since then; the infection may spread, too many more people. HIV/AIDS-infected people need, help and sympathy instead of being shunned by society., Unless society recognises it as a problem to be dealt with in, a collective manner – the chances of wider spread of the, disease increase manifold., It is a malady that can only be tackled, by the society and, medical fraternity acting together, to prevent the spread of, the disease., , Table: 9.5 Some Common Viral Diseases, Disease, , Group, , Transmission, , Chickenpox, , Herpesvirus, , Contact and droplet, , Poliomyelitis, , Picornavirus, , Food and water, , Common cold, , Rhinovirus, , Droplets, , Influenza, , Orthomyxovirus, , Droplets, , Rabies, , Rhabdovirus, , Contact with body, fluids, , Mumps, , Paramyxovirus, , Droplets, , Measles, , Paramyxovirus, , Contact and droplets, , Dengue fever, , Flavivirus, , Mosquito bite, , Yellow fever, , Arbovirus, , Mosquito bite, , AIDS, , Retrovirus, , Contact with body, fluids, , Diseases Caused by Bacteria, Tuberculosis (TB) [Discovered by Robert Koch (1882)], It is cause by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. It can be affect, all parts of body such as lungs, lymph gland, bones,, intestine etc. TB spreads by inhaling infected droplets, released through coughing, sneezing, talking and spitting by, patient., In Pulmonary TB has continuous fever, persistent cough, and produces blood stained sputum. The chest-pain and, breathless are common features of lung TB., Lymph glands TB include swelling and tenderness of, lymph glands, particularly lower part of body., Control: Treatment involves diet, rest, drugs (cured by six, essential drugs ATT), surgery or immunisation with BCG, (Bacillus Calmette–Guerin)., Cholera: Vibrio cholerae, the bacterium that causes cholera, is, usually found in food or water contaminated by faeces from a, person with the infection. Common sources include:, Municipal water supplies, ice made from municipal water,, foods and drinks sold by street vendors, vegetables grown, with water containing human wastes, raw or undercooked, fish and seafood caught in waters polluted with sewage., Symptoms of cholera can begin as soon as a few hours or as, long as 5 days after infection. Often, symptoms are mild., But sometimes they are very serious. About 1 in 20 people, infected have severe watery diarrhea accompanied by, vomiting, which can quickly lead to dehydration., Although many infected people may have minimal or no, symptoms, they can still contribute to spread of the, infection., Control: For preventing dehydration therapy with ORD solution., Vaccines are available but they immunise only for 6 months.
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Health and Diseases, , Typhoid, It is caused by Salmonella typhi which is commonly found, in the intestine of human beings., Symptoms are headache, fever which rises maximum in the, afternoon. It is more affected group of 1–15 years children., Typhoid fever can be brought under control by antibodies., TAB-vaccination provides immunity for 3 years., Typhoral oral vaccines also prevent typhoid., Chloromycetin drug which cure typhoid., , Diarrhoea, Diarrhoea is the condition of having at least three loose or, liquid bowel movements each day., It caused by bacteria E. coli., Shigella spp. It often lasts for, a few days and can result in dehydration due to fluid loss., Signs of dehydration often begin with loss of the normal, stretchiness of the skin and changes in personality. This can, progress to decreased urination, loss of skin, weight loss,, and weak pulse., Control: Anti-microbial and anti-diarrhoel agents should be, used, liberal amount of fluids with electrolytes, pulp of unripe, banana and husk of isabgol seed, Plantago ovata with water or, curd should be used., Anthrax: It is caused by a rod-shaped non-motile bacterium, called Bacillus anthracis. It is occurs in wild and domestic, animals such as cattle, sheep, goat, horses and pigs. It can, affect humans when they are exposed to infected animals., Cutaneous anthrax, also known as Hide-porter's disease,, is the cutaneous (on the skin) manifestation of anthrax, infection in humans. It presents as a boil-like skin lesion, that eventually forms an ulcer with a black centre (eschar)., The black eschar often shows up as a large, painless necrotic, ulcer (beginning as an irritating and itchy skin lesion or blister, that is dark and usually concentrated as a black dot, somewhat, resembling bread mold) at the site of infection., Anthrax cannot be spread directly from person to person,, but a person's clothing and body may be contaminated with, anthrax spores. Effective decontamination of people can be, accomplished by a thorough wash-down with antimicrobial, soap and water., Waste water should be treated with bleach or other, antimicrobial agent. Effective decontamination of articles, can be accomplished by boiling them in water for 30, minutes or longer., Chlorine bleach is ineffective in destroying spores and, vegetative cells on surfaces, though formaldehyde is, , II.D.81, , effective. Burning clothing is very effective in destroying, spores. After decontamination, there is no need to, immunise, treat, or isolate contacts of person’s ill with, anthrax unless they were also exposed to the same source of, infection., Kwashiorkor, It is a form of malnutrition that occurs when there is not, enough protein in the diet., Symptoms of this disease include swollen abdomen and, reddish discoloration of the hair and skin., Allergies: Allergy is the hypersensitiveness of a person to, some foreign substance coming in contact with or entering the, body. The substances that cause allergic reaction are called, allergens. The common allergens are dust, pollen mould,, spores, fabrics, lipsticks, nail paints, feathers, fur, plants,, bacteria, foods, heat, cold, sunlight. The symptoms that result, from an allergy may be of different kinds but mostly it affects, the skin and mucous membrane. Hay fever affects the mucous, membranes of the nose, eyes and upper respiratory tracts. In, asthma, the lower portions of the respiratory system are, severely affected. In eczema the skin becomes red, followed by, the appearance of minute blisters. Eczema may affect any part, of the body and is one of the most severe of all allergic, symptoms., Immunology: The resistance of the body to occurrence of any, disease is known as immunity. Study of the ability of an, organism to resist a disease is called immunology. Nature has, provided certain ways in the body to defend ourselves from the, invention of pathogens and therefore, from the disease. The, ability of a host’s body to prevent or overcome the effects, caused due to the invention by pathogenic organisms and its, toxins is known as resistance and immunity. Resistance is, considered as an inherent factor and those acquired during life, to overcome the disease, while the immunity is accepted to be, due to the acquired factors that help in resistance. The host, body has two lines of defence that must be overcome by a, pathogen before establishing an infection. A person may, develop immunity in three ways., (i) Vaccination: It is a technique to develop immunity without, infection. Weakened or dead pathogens (attenuated) or parts of, pathogens are injected into a person who is required to be made, immune. The pathogens given in a vaccine are unable to cause, the disease but are sufficient to stimulate the formation of, antibodies by the host’s immune system. Often 2 or 3 additional
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II.D.82, , doses are needed to generate adequate immunity. These doses, are called booster doses., (ii) Antitoxins: Antibodies that neutralise toxins produced in, the body or introduced from outside are, called antitoxins., Bacterial toxins are produced in the body, however antitoxins, produced from outside are prepared from snake venom and is, used as a remedy for snake bits., (iii) Immunity through Diseases: Some diseases such as, mumps, measles, smallpox produce a life long immunity., Hence these diseases do not appear again., Vaccination: It is the possible way to induce active acquired, immunity against the germs of various diseases such as polio,, diphtheria, whooping cough, tetanus and smallpox. The, immune system is thus induced to produce antibodies against, these antigens. The artificial introduction of disease factors in, the body is known as vaccination. Usually 2–3 injections are, given to achieve full immunity against a specific pathogen and, the further dose is called as booster doses., Vaccines are also available for diphtheria, tetanus, whooping, cough, tuberculosis, measles, polio, mumps, plague., Alcoholism: It has been proved that the intake of alcohol, affects individual health, family life and ultimately creates, several community and social problems., (1) Effects on Individual Health, Effect on Nervous System: Many people drink alcohol for, some “stimulation”, but in reality it depresses the nervous, system, thus acting as a sedative, analgesic and anaesthetic, agent. It reduces the efficiency of every tissue of the body. In a, chronic alcoholic the axons of the nerve are inflamed, thus, causing neuritis. The prolonged effect of alcohol on the, nervous system causes various mental and physical symptoms., Effect on Heart: Alcohol no doubt provides more energy and, produces heat in the body, but, at the same time, it dilates the, blood vessels. Thus, the heat generated is quickly lost. Due to, constant dilation, the arterial walls soon become brittle and, rigid. Such a change in the property of blood vessels and, deposition of alcoholic fat affect the working of the heart., Effect on Stomach: A small quantity with low concentration, of alcohol stimulates the secretion of gastric juice. But an, increased quantity with higher concentration has the opposite, effects. Alcohol affects the lining of the stomach and causes, inflammation. In most cases, the drinkers (especially those who, drink on an empty/stomach) become the victims of gastritis., Effect on Liver: The most important organ which is damaged, by alcohol is the liver. The liver is the storehouse of glycogen, but alcohol causes the storage of fat in the liver. It causes fatty, liver syndrome. Gradually, the liver hardens and dries up as its, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , cells are replaced by a fibrous tissue. This kind of liver, degeneration is called cirrhosis. Once the liver is damaged, it, affects the other organs of the body also., Effect on Kidneys: Kidneys are overworked in eliminating the, excess water often taken with alcohol., Effect on Immunity: The users of alcohol neglect their health, and soon the body loses its resistance to infections. The, alcoholics are in most cases victims of malnutrition and are, easily susceptible to disease like pneumonia., Effect on Level of Sugar in Blood: Lowering of blood sugar, level (Hypoglycemia)., (2) Effect on the Family: The consumption of alcohol not only, creates problems to the drinker but directly or indirectly affects, the family and community life. Alcoholic drinks are costly and, most drinkers, because of their selfish habit, deprive their, children and other members of the family of the basic needs., Thus, they create health and other problems., (3) Effect on Society (Community): The drinking of alcohol, is invariably associated with social crimes and dissolution of, moral and cultural inhibitions. Violence and other corrupt, practices in the community are often directly or indirectly due, to the consumption of alcohol. The intake of alcohol increases, the rate of industrial accidents and decreases production., Traffic accidents are often due to drunken drivers. Illegal, activities like production and selling of illicit liquor increases, antisocial activities., Drug Addiction: The compounds used for the cure of the, diseases are known as drugs. Certain drugs of specific category, are nerve stimulants and depressants. Some of the drugs, function as sedative and others act as hallucinogens., The regular use of such drugs causes the drug addiction in, human and they become habitual of these drugs. Drugs such as, aspirin and antihistamines when taken with alcohol may have, dangerous effects including death., Types of Drugs: There are a large number of drugs on which, people become dependent. On the basis of their mode of action, on the brain, these drugs are of four types: Sedatives and, Tranquilizers,, Opioid,, Narcotics,, Stimulants, and, Hallucinogens., Definitions, Congenital diseases: These are inborn diseases which are, present by birth and inheritable., Communicable or infectious diseases: They can be, transmitted from infected person to healthy person.
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Health and Diseases, , Non-communicable or non infectious diseases: which, cannot be transmitted, Contagious diseases: These are communicable diseases, that can be spread from actual contact., Non-contagious diseases: These are communicable, diseases that can spread with the help of any agency., Transplacental transmission: virus of germen measles, and AIDS and bacteria of Syphilis can be transmitted, through placenta., Vector-borne diseases: Malaria—Anopheles mosquitoes;, , , , , , , , , , , , dengue—Aedes aegypti mosquitoes and cholera—housefly, Vehicle-borne diseases: Cholera, dysentery, typhoid are, transmitted by agencies like food, water, etc., Epidemiology: Means of spread of disease or mode of, transmission., Manifestation: Disease symptoms., Prophylaxis: Prevention of disease., Analgesics: Drugs that reduces pain., Antipyretics: Drugs that quickly bring down the, temperature., Antiretroviral drugs: That prevent the replication of, viruses or block the process of reverse transcription, e.g.,, Azidothymidine, Nevirapine, Lamivudine, Etiology: Cause of disease., Schizogony: Phase of asexual multiplication occur in liver, and RBCs repeatedly., , II.D.83, , NMEP: National Malaria EradicationProgramme, Haemozoin: Toxic substance formed from haemoglobin of, RBCs when RBCs are destroyed by developing stages, (merozoites) of the Plasmodium., Passive or artificial immunity: The readymade antibodies, obtained from human and animal serum, who had already, recovered from an infectious disease, are injected into, human body to develop immunity., Immunoglobulin G (IgG) is selectively transported, through the placenta to provide passive immunity., Second generation vaccines: The vaccines produced by, DNA technology e.g. Hepatitis-B vaccine., Interferon: Certain animal cells infected by viruses, produced polypeptides called cytokines. One type of, cytokine is interferon, diffuse to neighbouring cells and, stimulates them to produce biochemical’s that blocks viral, replication., Diapedesis: Neutrophils have the ability to come out of, blood capillaries by amoeboid movement., Macrophages: Large amoeboid phagocytic cells which are, found in most of connective tissues (called histiocytes) e.g., Microglia of CNS, Kupffer cells of liver etc., Inflammatory response: The damaged cells release, histamine which causes the inflammation. Leucocytes and, macrophases always operate through inflammatory, response and form second line of defence., , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , Which one of the following is an infectious disease?, a. diphtheria, b. diabetes, c. hypertension, d. cancer, , 7., , An organism which carries pathogens is termed as, a. host, b. vector, c. parasite, d. predator, , 2., , Elephantiasis disease can have, a. short-term affect on our health, b. no effect on our health, c. long term affect on our health, d. sometimes bad effect on our health, , 8., , Diseases which are always present in certain location are, called?, a. epidemic diseases, b. endemic diseases, c. acute diseases, d. chronic diseases, , 3., , Ascaris worm lives in which part of human body?, a. kidneys, b. liver, c. small intestine, d. large intestine, , 9., , DPT vaccines are administered to develop immunity against, a. Tetanus, b. Diptheria, c. Pertussis, d. All of these, , 4., , Microbes which enter the body through nose most likely, affect, a. liver, b. heart, c. brain, d. lungs, , 5., , Which of the following is a viral infection?, a. Dipteria, b. Influenza c. Cholera, d. Typhoid, , 6., , HIV virus when active in body mainly attacks on, a. lungs, b. liver, c. immunity, d. nerves, , 10. Antiviral drugs are difficult to make because, viruses, a. live outside the host cells, b. live inside the host cells, c. live in consumed food particles, d. live in blood stream, 11. BCG vaccine is used to develop immunity against, a. jaundice, b. polio, c. influenza, d. tuberculosis
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.D.84, , 12. Which of the following is a communicable disease?, a. Rickets, b. Scurvy, c. Marasmus d. Cholera, 13. The causative organism for malaria is a:, a. bacteria, b. protozoa c. virus, , d. fungi, , 14. Vaccination helps in controlling diseases because, a. it develops resistance against the pathogen attack, b. it kills the pathogens causing disease, c. it blocks the food supplied to pathogens, d. it does not allow pathogens to multiply in hosts, 15. ORS is given in, a. diarrhea, b. measles, , c. typhoid, , d. tetanus, , 16. Which of the following is an example of nutritional, deficiency disease?, a. Hypertension, b. Rickets, c. Diabetes, d. Gastroenteritis, 17. Which one of the following is not a viral disease?, a. Dengue, b. AIDS, c. Typhoid d. Influenza, 18. Which one of the following is not a bacterial disease?, a. Cholera, b. Tuberculosis, c. Anthrax, d. Influenza, 19. Which one of the following disease is not transmitted by, mosquito?, a. Brain fever b. Malaria c. Typhoid d. Dengue, 20. Which one of the following disease is caused by bacteria?, a. Typhoid, b. Anthrax, c. Tuberculosis, d. Malaria, 21. Which one of the following diseases is caused by, protozoans?, a. Malaria, b. Influenza c. AIDS, d. Cholera, 22. Which one of the following has a long term effect on the, health of an individual?, a. Common cold, b. Chicken pox, c. Chewing tobacco, d. Stress, 23. Which of the following can make you ill if you come in, contact with an infected person?, a. High blood pressure, b. Genetic abnormalities, c. Sneezing, d. Blood cancer, 24. AIDS cannot be transmitted by, a. sexual contact, b. hugs, c. breastfeeding d. blood transfusion, 25. Making antiviral drugs is more difficult than making, antibacterial medicines because, a. viruses make use of host machinery, b. viruses are on the border line of living and non-living, c. viruses have very few biochemical mechanisms of their own, d. viruses have a protein coat, , 26. Which one of the following causes Kala-azar?, a. Ascaris, b. Trypanosoma, c. Leishmania, d. Bacteria, 27. If you live in an overcrowded and poorly ventilated, house, it is possible that you may suffer from which of the, following diseases, a. Cancer, b. AIDS, c. Air borne diseases, d. Cholera, 28. Which disease is not transmitted by mosquitoes?, a. Dengue, b. Malaria, c. Brain fever or encephalitis d. Pneumonia, 29. Which one of the following is not important for individual, health?, a. Living in clean space, b. Good economic condition, c. Social equality and harmony, d. Living in a large and well-furnished house, 30. Choose the wrong statement., a. High blood pressure is caused by excessive weight and, lack of exercise., b. Cancers can be caused by genetic abnormalities., c. Peptic ulcers are caused by eating acidic food., d. Acne in not caused by staphylococci., 31. We should not allow mosquitoes to breed in our, surroundings because they, a. multiply very fast and cause pollution, b. are vectors for many diseases, c. bite and cause skin diseases, d. are not important insects, 32. You are aware of Polio Eradication Programming in your, city. Children are vaccinated because, a. vaccination kills the polio causing microorganisms, b. prevents the entry of polio causing organism, c. it creates immunity in the body, d. all the above, 33. Viruses, which cause hepatitis, are transmitted through, a. air, b. water, c. food, d. personal contact, 34. Vectors can be defined as, a. animals carry the infecting agents from sick person to, another healthy person, b. microorganisms which cause many diseases, c. infected person, d. diseased plants
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Health and Diseases, , II.D.85, , 35. Pellagra is caused due to the deficiency of:, a. B1, b. B5, c. B12, d. B2, 36. Haemodialysis help in the case of patient having:, a. Anaemia, b. Goitre, c. Diabetes, d. Uremia, 37. X-ray is used in, a. CT-scan, c. ECG, 38. Leprosy is due to, a. Monocytes, c. Salmonella, , b. EEG, d. Endoscopy, b. TMV, d. Mycobacterium, , 39. Motile zygote of Plasmodium occurs in, a. Human RBCs, b. Human liver, c. Gut of female Anopheles, d. Salivary glands of Anopheles, 40. In which one of the following options the two examples, are correctly matched with their particular type of, immunity?, Examples, Type of, immunity, (1) Saliva in mouth and tears in Physical barriers, eyes, (2) Mucus coating of epithelium Physiological, lining the urogenital tract and barriers, the HCl in stomach, (3) Polymorphonuclear leukocytes Cellular barriers, and monocytes, (4) Anti-tetanus and anti-snake Active immunity, bite injections, a. Example 1, b. Example 2, c. Example 3, d. Example 4, 41. Match the disease in Column I with the appropriate items, (pathogen/prevention/ treatment) in Column II., Column I, Column II, (A) Amoebiasis, , (i) Treponema pallidum, , (B) Diphtheria, , (ii) Use only sterilised food and, water, , (C) Cholera, , (iii) DPT vaccine, , (D) Syphilis, , (iv) Use oval rehydration therapy, , a. A - (ii), B - (iii), C - (iv), D - (i), b. A - (i), B - (ii), C - (iii), d - (iv), c. A - (ii), B - (iv), C - (i), D - (iii), d. A - (ii), B - (i), C - (iii), D - (iv), , 42. The disease marasmus in children is caused due to the, deficiency of, a. carbohydrates, b. proteins, c. fats, d. vitamins, 43. Viruses that cause jaundice survive in, a. Lungs, b. Liver, c. Kidneys, d. Stomach, 44. Vaccine is not available for, a. Dengue, c. Tetanus, , b. Measles, d. All of these, , 45. What fraction of our body is water?, a. 1/4, b. 1/2, c. 2/3, , d. 1/3, , 46. Anti-scurvy vitamin is, a. A, b. B12, , d. C, , c. D, , 47. Vitamin with some enzymes act as, a. Coenzyme, b. Apoenzyme, c. Holoenzyme, d. Cofactor, 48. Cod liver oil is source of, a. Vitamin B, c. Vitamin A, , b. Vitamin C, d. Iodine, , 49. The vitamin, which is generally excreted in urine, a. Vitamin C, b. Vitamin K, c. Vitamin A, d. Vitamin E, 50. BCG vaccine is used for prevention of which disease in, children?, a. Poliomyelitis, b. Tuberculosis, c. Cholera, d. None, 51. The normal temperature of a human body is:, a. 98.4ºC, b. 98.4ºF, c. 99.0ºC, d. 99.0ºF, 52. Which of the following saves the children from, Diphtheria and Whooping Cough?, a. Triple Antigen, b. Anti-Rabbis Vaccine, c. Penicillin, d. Bacteria, 53. AIDS (Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome) Day is, a. May 1, b. December 1, c. December 20, d. June 1, 54. AIDS is caused by, a. Blood cancer, b. Human T-cell leukaemia virus, c. Bacterium, d. TMV, 55. AZT ( 3’azido 2’, 3’ dideoxy thymine) is used in the, treatment of, a. AIDS, b. Malaria, c. Kala-azar d. None
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.D.86, , 56. HIV virus has a protein coat and a genetic material which is, a. Double stranded DNA, b. Single stranded RNA, c. Double stranded RNA, d. Single stranded DNA, 57. Which of the following could be called immune disorder?, a. AIDS and cholera, b. SCID and AIDS, c. AIDS and cholera, d. Hepatitis and leukaemia, 58. The confirmatory test used to diagnose AIDS is, a. ELISA, b. Western blot, c. ESR, d. PCR, 59. AIDS is:, a. Endemic, c. Pandemic, , b. Epidemic, d. Sporadic, , 60. HIV belongs to which of the following families of virus?, a. Reovirus, b. Lentivirus, c. Togavirus, d. Adenovirus, 61. Development of vaccine is difficult for AIDS because, envgene, a. undergoes mutation at rapid rate, b. undergoes reverse transcription, c. integrates into large number of host genes, d. integrates its genome into that of helper T cells, 62. The causative agent for AIDS was first of all identified in, 1984 and was named as, a. HIV1, b. HIV2, c. LAV, d. HTLV III, 63. How many of the 20 amino acids are essential amino, acids for an adult human?, a. 6, b. 8, c. 11, d. 14, 64. Rickets and Kwashiokor are, a. Deficiency diseases, b. Heredity diseases, c. Infection diseases, d. Communicable diseases, 65. Kwashiokor is likely in children who get, a. Low-iron diet, b. Low-fat diet, c. Low-vitamin diet, d. Low-protein diet, 66. Cholesterol is synthesised in, a. Brunner’s b. Pancreas c. Liver, , d. Spleen, , 67. ‘Salk’ vaccine is used for vaccination against, a. Small pox, b. Polio, c. Rabies, d. Measles, 68. The name vitamin was used for the first time by, a. Funk, b. Aristotle, c. Hopkins, d. None of these, 69. Chronic alcoholics are always short of vitamin, a. B, b. C, c. D, d. E, , 70. Male mosquito does not carry malaria parasite because, a. It is too small to bite a man, b. It lacks the modified mouth parts, c. Malaria parasites cannot reproduce in them, d. Female mosquito is more deadly, 71. Entamoeba gingivalis lives in the, a. Intestine, b. Colon, c. Intestine and colon, d. Pus pocket of pyorrhea, 72. Trypanosomiasis is disease transmitted by, a. Louse, b. Tsetse fly, c. Sandfly, d. Mayfly, 73. Escherichia coli in human intestine help to synthesises, a. Vitamin B & D, b. Vitamin B & C, c. Vitamin A & K, d. Vitamin B & K, 74. Which protozoa is responsible for causing the disease, Leucorrhoea, a. Trichomonas vaginalis, b. Leishmania, c. Trypanosoma, d. Giardia, 75. Who established that anthrax-disease transmitted of sheep, is caused by Bacillus anthracis?, a. Paul Vuillemin, b. Alexander Flemming, c. Funk, d. Louis Pasteur, 76. Small pox vaccine discovered by, a. Louis Pasteur, b. Edward Jenner, c. Alexander Flemming, d. None of these, 77. Vitamin B2 is related with, a. FMN/FAD, c. NADH, , b. NAD, d. ATP, , 78. Chicken pox can be easily identified from measles due to, a. High fever, b. Irritation all over the skin, c. Sneezing and watery discharge from nose, d. Dew drop like rashes, 79. Which one of the following is not an air-borne disease?, a. Black stem rust of wheat b. Coffee rust, c. Blast of rice, d. Potato mosaic disease, 80. An animal with a diet deficiency in at least one essential, nutrient is said to be, a. Starving, b. Undernourished, c. Malnourished, d. Suffering from Kwashiorkor disease, 81. A healthy person is one who is free from, a. diseases, b. mental tension, c. diseases and mental tension d. bacteria
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Health and Diseases, , II.D.87, , 85. What kind of a disease is arthritis?, a. An acute disease, b. A chronic disease, c. An infectious disease, d. A communicable disease, , 92. Leprosy is also famous as, a. Koch's disease, b. Hensen's disease, c. Pertussis, d. Cholera, 93. Typhoid fever is caused by, a. Giardia, b. Salmonella, c. Shigella, d. Escherichia, 94. Genus Aedes is a vector of, a. Filaria, b. Dengue, c. Malaria, d. Elephantiasis, 95. One of the following is the correct match for diseases and, causative agents, a. AIDS—Bacillus, b. Syphilis —Treponema pallidum, c. Malaria—Trypanosoma, d. Gonorrhoea—Virus, , 86. Which of the following is due to external causes?, a. Jaundice, b. Diabetes c. Arthritis d. Cataract, , ANSWERS, , 82. Fruit and vegetables bought from the market, a. may be coated with pesticides, b. may carry germs, c. may carry eggs of worms, d. all the above, 83. Breathing polluted air causes diseases of the, a. nervous system, b. circulatory system, c. respiratory system, d. digestive system, 84. Which disease is likely to occur in crowded areas?, a. Non-infectious, b. Infectious, c. Genetic, d. Deficiency disease, , 87. Houseflies are the vectors of, a. cholera, b. malaria, c. dengue, 88. Tuberculosis is caused by, a. a bacterium, c. a protozoan, , 1., , d. cataract, , b. a virus, d. AIDS, , 89. A type of rhabdovirus causes, a. AIDS, b. TB, c. influenza, , d. rabies, , 90. The infectious agents responsible for which diseases can, be spread when the patient coughs?, a. AIDS, TB and hepatitis, b. TB, influenza and cholera, c. TB and influenza, d. TB and hepatitis, 91. The diseases that can be transmitted through body fluids, are:, a. AIDS and hepatitis B, b. TB and typhoid, c. influenza and cholera, d. cholera and rabies, , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , a, , c, , c, , d, , b, , c, , b, , a, , d, , a, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , d, , d, , b, , a, , a, , b, , c, , d, , c, , d, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , a, , c, , c, , b, , c, , c, , c, , d, , d, , c, , 31., , 32., , 33., , 34., , 35., , 36., , 37., , 38., , 39., , 40., , b, , c, , b, , a, , b, , d, , a, , d, , c, , c, , 41., , 42., , 43., , 44., , 45., , 46., , 47., , 48., , 49., , 50., , a, , b, , b, , a, , c, , d, , a, , c, , c, , d, , 51., , 52., , 53., , 54., , 55., , 56., , 57., , 58., , 59., , 60., , b, , a, , b, , b, , a, , b, , b, , b, , c, , b, , 61., , 62., , 63., , 64., , 65., , 66., , 67., , 68., , 69., , 70., , a, , a, , b, , a, , d, , c, , b, , a, , a, , b, , 71., , 72., , 73., , 74., , 75., , 76., , 77., , 78., , 79., , 80., , d, , b, , d, , a, , b, , b, , a, , d, , d, , c, , 81., , 82., , 83., , 84., , 85., , 86., , 87., , 88., , 89., , 90., , a, , a, , a, , d, , c, , c, , d, , c, , b, , b, , 91., , 92., , 93., , 94., , 95., , a, , b, , b, , b, , b
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Natural Resources and, Management, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.D.88, , 10, , Life on planet Earth is dependent on many factors like, resources available on Earth, energy from the Sun, etc. The, different resources available on the Earth are land, water and, air. All of these three things are required for the existence of, life forms., Conservation is the management for the benefits of all life, forms including human kind of the biosphere, so that it may, yield sustainable benefits to the present generation while, maintaining its potential to meet the needs and aspiration of the, future generations., Note, Terrestrial: Relating to or composed of land., Fossil fuels: A hydrocarbon deposit that is made from organic, matter over a long period of time and is used for fuel., Hydrocarbon: Compound that contains only hydrogen and, carbon., Organic: Natural, living or used to be living., Legumes: Pea or bean plants., Synthetic: Not natural, prepared or made artificially., , Biogeochemical cycles are the cyclic pathways through which, chemical substances move through biotic environment, (biosphere) and abiotic environment (lithosphere, atmosphere, and hydrosphere) component of the earth. Air is a mixture of, many gases like nitrogen, oxygen, carbon dioxide and water, vapour. On Venus and Mars there is no life because carbon, dioxide constitutes 95–97% of the atmosphere. Carbon dioxide, is produced in the atmosphere by following activities:, Breakdown of glucose in presence of oxygen by organisms., Combustion of fuels., Carbon dioxide is fixed in two ways:, Green plants convert carbon dioxide into glucose by, photosynthesis., Marine animals use carbonates dissolved in sea-water to, make, their, shells., A few examples of biogeochemical cycles are:, Water Cycle, Nitrogen Cycle, Carbon Cycle and, Oxygen Cycle, Consumers, (animals), , Death and decay, , Table: 10.1, Lithosphere, , The outer crust of the Earth., , Hydrosphere, , 75% of the Earth’s surface is covered with water. This, water along with underground water comprises the, hydrosphere., , Atmosphere, , The air covering of earth is called atmosphere., , Biosphere, , The life-supporting zone of the Earth where the, atmosphere, hydrosphere and the lithosphere interact and, make life possible is known as the biosphere., , Safe disposal of, waste when extracted, or used, , Use resource, carefully because they, limited, Sustainable, Natural, Resource, , Address, environmental issues, while extracting natural, resources, , Equitable, distribution of, resources not limited, to rich and powerful, , Resources should, last for generations, (long term perspective), , Producers, (plants), , Death and decay, , Decomposers, , Nutrient in, environment, , Cycling of Nutrients, , Table: 10.2 Differences between gaseous and sedimentary cycles, Characters, , Gaseous cycles, , Sedimentary cycles, , Reservoir pool, , Air or water, , Rocks, , Speed, , Faster, , Slower, , Examples, , Carbon, nitrogen and, oxygen cycles., , Calcium, phosphorous and, sulphur cycles., , Water Cycle: Water molecules are made of hydrogen and, oxygen atoms. Hydrogen and oxygen are nutrients that, organisms need. Clearly there is no problem obtaining these
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Natural Resources and Management, , nutrients in aquatic ecosystems. However, they are sometimes, in short supply in terrestrial ecosystems. The cycling of water, in nature involves both aquatic and terrestrial ecosystems and, the air above them., Evaporation: The process of changing water into vapour., Condensation: The process of changing vapour into water., Precipitation: Any form of water that falls to the earth’s, surface., Run-off: Water that moves along the earth’s surface, it is, not absorbed., Percolation: Draining or seeping of water into the earth., Capillarity: When water is moved towards the surface., Absorption: When plants take water from the ground., Transpiration: Water leaving the pores from leaves on plants., Decomposition: Breaking down of organic matter, releases, water to the environment., Carbon Cycle: Carbon is another nutrient that all organisms, need. In fact, it is the basic building block of all living things., Like water, carbon moves through an ecosystem in a cycle., Here is how the cycle works. Carbon is present in the, atmosphere as carbon dioxide. Water also contains carbon, dioxide as it can dissolve in water., Producers (plants and algae) use CO2 to perform, photosynthesis and make food. Now the carbon is in the, producers. Herbivores eat the plants and carnivores eat the, herbivores. Now the carbon is in animals., Both plants and animals respire. Their respiration returns, carbon dioxide to the atmosphere. Decomposers break, down dead plants and animals as well as animal waste., This too returns carbon dioxide to the atmosphere or soil., Some organic matter does not decompose easily. Instead it, builds up in the earth’s crust. Oil and coal were formed, from the build-up of plant matter millions of years ago., At one time, the carbon cycle was almost a perfect cycle., That is, carbon was returned to the atmosphere as quickly, as it was removed. Lately, however, the increased burning, of fossil fuels has added carbon to the atmosphere faster, than producers can remove it., Also, deforestation reduces the amount of carbon dioxide, being used in photosynthesis., Further, the use of land for agriculture releases carbon, dioxide into the environment. Plants in water need carbon, dioxide to perform photosynthesis and release oxygen. Fish, use the oxygen to breathe and the plants for food. Thus,, fish depend on the carbon dioxide cycle., , II.D.89, Photosynthesis, , Cellular, respiration, , CO2, Deforestation, Emissions, , Absorption, , Decomposition, , CO2, , Oil, gas, , CO2, , Figure: 10.1 Carbon Cycle, , Nitrogen Cycle: Nitrogen is an essential component of amino, acids, proteins, enzymes and nucleic acids of the protoplasm., Reservoir pool of nitrogen is atmosphere which contains about, 78.08% of nitrogen in gaseous state. But it cannot be used directly, and is changed into nitrites and nitrates and then utilised., Steps of nitrogen cycle are:, Nitrogen fixation: It involves the conversion of free, diatomic nitrogen (N2) into nitrites and nitrates. It occurs in, three ways:, • Atmospheric nitrogen fixation in the presence of, photochemical and electrochemical reactions induced by, thundering and lightening., • Industrial nitrogen fixation in the industries at night, temperature and high pressure., • Biological nitrogen fixation in the presence of certain, living organisms as:, o Rhizobium bacterium in the root nodules of legumes., o Azotobacter bacterium in the soil., o Anabaena (blue green algae) in water in the paddy, fields., o Azospirillum bacterium in loose association with the, roots of maize, sorghum, etc., Ammonification: It involves the decomposition of proteins, of dead plants and animals to ammonia in the presence of, ammonifying bacteria like Bacillus ramosus., Nitrification: It involves the oxidation of ammonia to, nitrites (NO2) and nitrates (NO3) in the presence of, nitrifying bacteria like Nitrosomonas (Ammonia to nitrite),, Nitrobacter (Nitrite to nitrate), etc. plants absorb the nitrites, and nitrates from the soil through their roots and convert, them into organic compounds (e.g. proteins) of protoplasm, by the process called nitrogen assimilation., Denitrification: It involves reduction of ammonium, compounds, nitrites and nitrates to molecular nitrogen in, the presence of denitrifying bacteria like Thiobacillus, denitrificans.
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.D.90, Photosynthesis, , N, Cellular, respiration, , Nitrogen fixation, , O2, , O3 (ozone), , CO2, , H 2O, Absorption, , Decomposition, , Nitrate nitrite, , O2, Absorption, , Figure: 10.3 Oxygen Cycle, Nitrogen, fixation, , N, Decomposition, , Ammonification, , Figure: 10.2 Nitrogen Cycle, , Note, Nitrogen fixation in atmosphere, , Absorption, Decomposition, Nitrogen fixation, Ammonification, , Nitrogen fixation: Microbacteria and lighting causes oxygen, and nitrogen to join., Absorption: Plants absorb nitrogen., Decomposition: Releases nitrogen., Ammonification: Bacteria convert nitrogen to ammonia., Oxygen Cycle, Oxygen is another nutrient which is important to all living, things. Note that the carbon and oxygen cycles are, independent but very closely related., , Water as a Resource, Water is a basic necessity for all terrestrial forms of life., Regions of water scarcity are closely correlated to the regions, of acute poverty. Failure to sustain water availability has, resulted in loss of vegetation cover, diversion for high water, demanding crops and pollution from industries and urban, wastes and less rain. Irrigation methods like dams, tanks and, coals have been used in various part of India., Ganga Action Plan was introduced in 1985 to improve the, poor water quality of Ganga River. The quality of water has to, be assessed scientifically before utilising it for various, purposes., Dams:, Advantages of Dams: Ensures of adequate water for, irrigation, generate electricity and continuous supply of water, in regions., Disadvantages of Dams:, No equitable distribution of water., Large number of people displaced without compensation., Involves huge amount of public money without giving, proper benefits., Causes deforestation and loss of biological diversity., , Oxygen is present in our atmosphere in the form of ozone,, water vapour, pure oxygen and carbon dioxide., Plants and algae perform photosynthesis which removes, carbon dioxide and adds oxygen to the atmosphere., Animals perform cellular respiration which removes, oxygen from the atmosphere and adds carbon dioxide., When plants and animals die, decomposers uses oxygen to, breakdown organic material and release carbon dioxide., Also, water dissolves oxygen in it and the aquatic life use, , Water Harvesting: Aim is to develop primary resources of, land and water and to produce secondary resources of plants, and animals for use in a manner which will not cause, ecological imbalance., Table: 10.3 Various, , ancient methods of water harvesting., , Method, , State, , Khadin, tanks, nadis, , Rajasthan, , Bandharas, tals, , Maharashtra, , Bundhis, , Madhya Pradesh and U P, , this oxygen for photosynthesis and cellular respiration. Fish, , Pyhes, , Bihar, , need oxygen in the water to perform cellular respiration., , Kulhs, , Himachal Pradesh
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Natural Resources and Management, Ponds, , Jammu Region, , Eris (tanks), , Tamil Nadu, , Bawlis, , Old method of water harvesting in Delhi and, nearby region., , The Role of Atmosphere in Climate Control:, Atmosphere keeps the average temperature of the earth, steady during the day and whole year., Atmosphere prevents sudden increase in temperature during, daytime and fall of temperature during night., Pollution Occurs in Different Forms: Air, water, soil,, radioactive, noise, heat/thermal and light. Every form of, pollution has two sources of occurrence; the point and the nonpoint sources. The point sources are easy to identify, monitor, and control, whereas the non-point sources are hard to control., Let us discuss the different types of pollutions, their causes and, effects on mankind and the environment as a whole., Water Pollution: The addition of undesirable substances to, water and removal of desirable substances from water is called, water pollution. The Main Causes of Water Pollution are as, Follows:, Addition of harmful substances to water., Removal of desirable substances from water., Change in water temperature., Mineral Riches in the Soil: Soil is the most important natural, resource which supplies nutrients to the life forms. Soil is, formed by weathering of rocks in thousands of years., Following factors are responsible for making soil from rocks., Sun, Water, Wind, Some organisms like lichen and mosses grow on the surface of, rocks and they release certain substances that cause weathering, of rocks and a thin layer of soil is formed., Humus: The decayed living organisms present in soil is called, humus. Humus makes the soil porous and allows water and air, to penetrate deep underground., Soil Pollution: Removal of useful components from the soil, and additions of other substances which adversely affects the, fertility of the soil and kill microorganisms living in it, is called, soil pollution. Fertilisers and pesticides destroy the soil, structure. Mosses or Bryophytes are indicator of soil pollution., Soil Erosion: Removal of topmost layer of soil by wind, water, or other activities is called soil erosion. Roots of plants prevent, soil erosion by firmly holding the soil particles., , II.D.91, , Environment Degradation: Environment is the first casualty, for increase in pollution weather in air or water. The increase in, the amount of CO2 in the atmosphere leads to smog which can, restrict sunlight from reaching the earth. Gases like sulphur, dioxide and nitrogen oxide can cause acid rain. Water pollution, in terms of oil spill may lead to death of several wildlife species., Human Health: The decrease in quality of air leads to several, respiratory problems including asthma or lung cancer. Chest, pain, congestion, throat inflammation, cardiovascular disease,, respiratory diseases are some of diseases that can be causes by, air pollution. Water pollution occurs due to contamination of, water and may pose skin related problems including skin, irritations and rashes. Similarly, noise pollution leads to, hearing loss, stress and sleep disturbance., Green House Effect: Greenhouse gases such as carbon, dioxide, methane, nitrogen oxide and Chlorofluorocarbons, present in atmosphere prevents the escape of heat falling on, Earth’s surface rather than absorbing it. This keeps the Earth, warm and the phenomenon is known greenhouse effect. An, increase in these greenhouse gases such as carbon dioxide in, the atmosphere would cause more heat to be retained by the, atmosphere and leads to global warming. Green house effect, will rise to global warming due to which the average, temperature will increase by 1°C or 2°C worldwide. Due to, increased temperature the ice-caps would melt, there is rise in, the sea-level and it is feared that coastal areas would be, destroyed by floods. Uncertain climatic conditions are also the, effect of global warming., Ozone Layer: Three molecules of oxygen combine to form, ozone. Ozone layer is found in stratosphere. It acts as an ozone, shield and protects Earth from harmful effect of ultraviolet, radiation. However many man-made components like CFCs, (Chlorofluorocarbons) reacts with ozone releasing molecular, oxygen, causing ozone depletion. Ozone depletion has been, marked in Antarctic region where ozone layer thickness has, dropped to 94 DU in 1994 from 285 DU. This depletion of, ozone layer thickness is called ozone hole., Ozone Depletion: Between 320 and 26 km above the sea, level it pccurs ozone layer and the part of atmosphere, containing it is called ozonosphere (stratosphere). This, layer is established due to equilibrium between photodissociaiation of ozone by UV-radiation and regeneration of, ozone. The thickness of this ozonosphere average 5 km. the, ozone layer acts as a shield and absorbs the harmful UVradiations of the sunlight so protects the earth’s biota from
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.D.92, , the harmful effects of strong UV-radiations. So this layer is, very important for the survival and existence of life on, earth., Causes of Thinning of Ozone Layer: The decline in, spring-layer thickness is called ozone hole is largest over, Antarctica and was just short of 27 million sq. km. during, September 2003. Main chemicals responsible for, destruction of ozone-layer are: CFCs, halogens (used in fire, extinguishers) methane and nitrous oxide., Out of these, most damaging is the effect of CFCs which, are a group of synthetic chemicals and are used as coolants, is refrigerators and air conditions; as cleaning solvents,, propellants and sterilants etc. these CFCs produce “active, chlorine” (CI and CIO radicals) in the presence of UVradiations., These active chlorine radicals catalytically destroy ozone and, convert it into oxygen. Nitrous oxide is produced by industrial, processes, forest fires, slid waste disposal, spraying of, insecticides and pesticides, etc. methane and nitrous oxide also, cause ozone destruction., Effects of Ozone Depletion: The thinning of ozone layer, results in an increase in the UV radiation (in the range of 290–, 320 nm) reaching the earth’s surface. It is estimated that a 5, percent loss of ozone results in a 10 percent increase in UVradiations. These UV-radiations:, Increased incidences of cataract and skin cancer., Decrease the functioning of immune system: Due to, killing of melanin-producing cells of the skin., Inhibit photosynthesis in most of phyto-planktons, so, adversely affecting the food chains of aquatic ecosystems., Damage nucleic of the living organisms., Montreal Protocol was convention signed in 1987 by 27, industrialised countries, an agreement to protect the, stratospheric ozone by agreeing to limit the production and use, of ozone-depleting substance, and helping the developing, countries to implement use of alternatives to CFCs., , Kyoto-protocol in December 1997, 84 countries agreed on the, need for an average 5% reduction in industrialised countries’, 1990 emissions by the year 2012 to slow global warming due, to the greenhouse effect., Chipko Movement: Movement originated in Garhwal in early, 1970s that was the result of a grass root level effort to end the, alienation of people from their forest. Protection of Sal forest, in West Bengal in 1972. National Award for wildlife, conservation – In the memory Amrita Devi Bishnoi who lost, her life in the protection of Khejri trees in Rajasthan along with, 363 other people., In 1948, the International Union for conservation of Natural, Resources (IUCN) was set. Forest and wild life conservation –, Forests are biodiversity hotspots biodiversity of an area is the, number of species of different life forms like bacteria, fungi,, powering plants insects, birds etc. Hotspot means an area full, of biological diversity. Loss of diversity may lead to a loss of, ecological stability/ecological imbalance., Definitions, Biological diversity: It means the variability among living, organisms from all sources including, inter alia, terrestrial,, marine and other aquatic ecosystems and the ecological, complexes of which they are part; this includes diversity, within species, between species and of ecosystems., Biological resources: It includes genetic resources,, organisms or parts thereof, populations, or any other biotic, component of ecosystems with actual or potential use or, value for humanity., Strip-cropping: It means the planting of crops in rows or, strips to check flow of water., Sustainable development: A pattern of resource use for, obtaining economic and social growth of the present, generation while preserving the resources for the needs of, future generations., , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , 2., , The source of energy in an ecosystem is, a. Heat from the soil, b. Heat reflected by leaves, c. Burning of sugar, d. Sunlight received by leaves, Solar energy can be trapped to the maximum capacity by, a. Planting trees, b. Grasses, c. Crops, d. Algae, , 3., , Driving force of ecosystem is, a. Biomass, b. Carbohydrates in plants, c. Solar energy, d. All of the above, , 4., , Which one of the following components of ecosystem, comes from outside?, a. Energy, b. Temperature, c. Oxygen, d. Insects
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Natural Resources and Management, , 5., , 6., , Energy flow in an ecosystem is, a. Multidirectional, b. Bidirectional, c. Unidirectional, d. Circular, Natural gas is a mixture of, a. Methane and Oxygen, b. Methane and Ethane, c. Methane, Ethane and Propane, d. Methane, Ammonia and Oxygen, , 7., , Study of physical, chemical and biological aspects of, fresh water is called, a. Limnology, b. Hydrology, c. Oceanography, d. Genetics, , 8., , Which of the following are to be managed for sustainable, development?, a. Crops, b. Forests, c. Industries, d. Resources, , 9., , Which of the following canals brought about greenery in, Rajasthan?, a. Indira Gandhi Canal, b. Rajiv Gandhi Canal, c. Jawaraharlal Canal, d. None of these, , 10. Ganga in the West Bangal is being turned to drain due to, a. Industrial wastes, b. Dumping of garbage, c. Untreated sewage, d. All of the above, 11. Which of the following leaves is used to make bidis?, a. Begonia, b. Raavi, c. Tendu, d. Banyan, 12. Which of the following implies changes in all aspects of, life?, a. Industrial development, b. Sustainable development, c. Economic development, d. Social development, 13. Which of the following is the age old concept in India?, a. Conservation, b. Protection, c. Irrigation, d. Water harvesting, 14. Water for civil supplies is commonly purified by, a. Chlorination, b. Distillation, c. Filtration, d. Decantation, 15. pH of water can be tested by using, a. Reagents, b. Detergents, c. Indicators, d. Inhibitors, 16. Which of the following is age old concept of water, harvesting system in Madhya Pradesh?, a. Nadis, b. Bandharas, c. Bundhis, d. Ponds, , II.D.93, , 17. What is the shape of the check dams?, a. Cresent, b. Circle, c. Square, , d. Rectangle, , 18. Surangams are the age old concept of water harvesting in, a. Tamil Nadu, b. Andhra Pradesh, c. Karnataka, d. Kerala, 19. Some bacteria have the ability to ‘fix’ nitrogen. It means, a. they convert ammonia into nitrites and nitrates, b. they break down useful nitrogen rich compounds and, release ammonium ions, c. they convert nitrates into nitrogen gas, d. they convert atmospheric nitrogen gas into biologically, useful forms of nitrogen, 20. The conversion of nitrogen gas to nitrates by bacteria is, called, a. Nitrification, b. Denitrification, c. Nitrogen fixation, d. Decay, 21. Which of the following fuels are formed by the, degradation of biomass?, a. Biomass, b. CNG, c. Coal and Petroleum, d. None of these, 22. Maximum petrol is consumed in, a. Industries, b. Shipping, c. Agriculture, d. Transport, 23. Disease that affects workers of coal mines is, a. Pneumoconiosis, b. Asbestosis, c. Taeniasis, d. None of these, Climate change may impact, a. Agriculture natural terrestrial ecosystem and water, resources, b. Air quality oceans and coastal zones, c. Energy and human health, d. All of the above, 25. Hydrological cycle occurs between, a. Land and Air, b. Air and Sea, c. Land and Sea, d. Land, Sea and Atmosphere, 24, , 26. BOD is stand for, a. Biotic community, b. Biochemical oxygen demand, c. Chemical oxygen demand, d. None of these, 27. Biogeochemical cycle occurs in, a. Ecosystem, b. Land, c. Sea, d. Air
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.D.94, , 28. The following is a logical sequence in carbon cycle or, food chain, a. Producer-decomposer-consumer, b. Decomposer-consumer-producer, c. Producer-consumer-decomposer, d. Consumer-producer-decomposer, 29. Plant decomposers are, a. Monera and Fungi, c. Protista and Animalia, , b. Fungi and Plants, d. Animalia and Monera, , 30. Which of the following contribute to the carbon cycle?, a. Photosynthesis, b. Respiration, c. Fossil fuel combustion, d. All of the above, 31. Water cycle is made up of two overlapping cycles, a. Global and smaller cycles, b. Ground water and atmospheric cycles, c. Oceanic and fresh water cycles, d. Surface water and atmospheric cycles, 32. Biogeochemical cycles are also known as, a. Cycles of matter, b. Sedimentary cycles, c. Material cycling, d. Gaseous cycles, 33. Nepenthes is, a. Primary producer, b. Consumer, c. Primary producer and consumer, d. Saprophyte, 34. PAN (Peroxy acetyl nitrate) is reported to suppress, a. Transpiration in plants, b. Photosynthesis in plants, c. Photorespiration in plants d. Crop rotation in plants, 35. SPM denotes, a. Suspended particulate matter, b. Soft particular matter, c. Solid particular matter, d. None of these, 36. The species, which are in danger of extinction, are, referred to as, a. Endangered species, b. Vulnerable species, c. Threatened species, d. Rare species, 37. Which of the following group of vertebrates has, minimum number of species in India?, a. Mammals, b. Birds, c. Reptiles, d. Amphibians, 38. Which of the following species of Rhinoceros is said to, be the most critically endangered species?, a. Indian one horned rhinos b. African black rhinos, c. Javan rhinos, d. Sumatran rhinos, , 39. The major forest type found in India is, a. Subtropical deciduous, b. Tropical moist deciduous, c. Temperate deciduous, d. Tropical deciduous, 40. IUCN means, a. International Union of conservation of nature and, natural resources, b. Indian Union of conservation of nature and natural, resources, c. International United commission of nature and natural, resources, d. India and United commission of nature and natural, resources, 41. Which one of the following is found in the equatorial, region?, a. Chapparal, b. Deciduous forest, c. Coniferous forest, d. Tropical rain forest, 42. Which of the following is a treeless biome?, a. Tundra, b. Grassland, c. Desert, d. All of these, 43. Most stable ecosystem is, a. Desert, c. Forest, , b. Mountain, d. Ocean, , 44. Estuaries occur in, a. Orissa and Tamil Nadu, b. Kerala and Tamil Nadu, c. Kerala and Orissa, d. Kerala, Orissa and Tamil Nadu, 45. Kanha National Park is located in, a. Assam, b. Rajasthan, c. Uttar Pradesh, d. Madhya Pradesh, 46. Kaziranga National Park is located in the state of, a. Assam, b. West Bengal, c. Kerala, d. Karnataka, 47. Sardar Sarovar Dam was constructed on, a. Ganga, b. Yamuna, c. Godavari, d. Narmada, 48. The multi-crore project about the Ganga Action Plan, came, a. 1905, b. 1955, c. 1985, d. 1995, 49. The Ganga runs from Gangotri through a hundred of, towns and cities in, a. Uttar Pradesh, b. Uttar Pradesh and Bihar, c. Uttar Pradesh, Bihar and West Bengal, d. Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal and Haryana
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Natural Resources and Management, , II.D.95, , 59. Tawa irrigation project is in:, a. Maharashtra, b. Madhya Pradesh, c. Orissa, d. Haryana, , 50. Water pollution can be identified by testing its, a. PH level, b. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD), c. Both (a.) and (b.), d. None of these, 51. The three R’s to save the environment are, a. Reserve, Reduce, Recycle b. Reuse, Reserve, Reduce, c. Reserve, Reuse, Reduce d. Reduce, Recycle, Reuse, 52. Why should we conserve biodiversity?, a. We should preserve the biodiversity because we have, inherited, b. A loss of diversity may lead to a loss of ecological, stability, c. Both (a.) and (b.), d. None of the above, 53. The problems for criticism about large dams are that they, a. Displace large number of peasants and trebles without, proper rehabilitation, b. Swallow up huge amounts of public money without the, generation of proportionate benefits, c. Contribute enormously to deforestation and the loss of, biological diversity, d. All of the above, 54. The following are stakeholders of forests which one of, these causes the maximum damage to forest?, a. People who live in or around the forest, b. The industrials, c. The wildlife and native enthusiasts, d. The forest department of the government, 55. The concept of ‘Biosphere Reserve’ was evolved by, a. Government of India, b. Botanical Survey of India, c. UNESCO, d. UNDP, 56. Chipko Andolan is concerned with, a. Conservation of natural resources, b. Development of new breeds of forest plants, c. Zoological survey of India, d. Forest conservation, 57. Which energy of, hydroelectricity?, a. Potential energy, c. Both (a.) and (b.), , water, , is, , used, , to, , b. Kinetic energy, d. None of these, , 58. Measure of biodiversity of an area is, a. The number of species found there, b. The range of different life forms, c. Both (a.) and (b.), d. None of these, , produce, , 60. Primary source of water is, a. Rivers, c. Lakes, , b. Ground water, d. Rain water, , 61. The Chipko movement started from:, a. Reni in Garhwal, b. Arborio forest, c. Khejarli village, d. None of these, 62. The presence of which microorganism in Ganga water, indicates contamination, a. Lactobacillus bacteria, b. Amoeba, c. Coliform bacteria, d. Mucor spores, 63. The Ganga runs its course from, a. Ganga Sagar, b. Himalayas Peak Everest, c. Gangotri, d. Jamnotri, 64. The concept of sustainable development encourages, a. Form of growth that meets current basic needs, b. Preservation of the resources for the need of future, generation, c. A change in all respects of life, d. Growth to meet current needs, preservation for the, needs of future and change in all respects of life, 65. The management of natural resources should take into, a. A long term perspective, b. Environmental pollution, c. Their equitable distribution, d. (a.), (b.), (c.) and safe disposal of wastes, 66. When we consider the conservation of forests, we need to, look at the, a. People who are humanists and conscious about human, rights, b. Industrialists who use the various forests produce, c. The people who live in or around forests, d. The forest department of the Government, the, industrialists and the people who live in or around forests, 67 . In Independent India plantation of which trees caused, their monocultures, a. Eucalyptus, b. Pine, c. Eucalyptus, Pine and Teak, d. Eucalyptus, Pine, Teak and Need, 68. Amrita Devi Bishnoi scarificed her life to the protection, of, a. Sal trees, b. Pine trees, c. Khejri trees, d. Alpine meadows
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.D.96, , 69. Water harvesting is an age-old concept in India. Various, methods are used in different regions of India. Khadins, water harvesting method is used in, a. Rajasthan, b. Maharashtra, c. Bihar, d. Uttar Pradesh, 70. Kattas is the ancient method of water harvesting found in, a. Himachal Pradesh, b. Karnataka, c. Tamil Nadu, d. Madhya Pradesh, 71. When combustion of coal takes place in insufficient air, (oxygen) which gas is formed, Instead of carbon dioxide?, a. Sulphur dioxide, b. Nitrous oxide, c. Carbon monoxide, d. Nitrogen peroxide, 72. In which region of India bundhis are used for water, harvesting?, a. Rajasthan, b. Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh, c. Madhya Pradesh, Bihar, d. Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, 73. The ancient water harvesting method used in Rajasthan is, a. Surangams, b. Kattas, c. Kulhs, d. Nadis, 74. Ozone days is, a. September 16th, c. December 25th, 75, , b. January 30th, d. April 21st, , What percentage of sunlight is captured by plants to, convert it into food energy?, a. 1%, b. 10%, c. 50%, d. more than 50%, , 76. Which of the following is non-biodegradable?, a. tea leaves, b. nylon, c. remains of animals, d. fleece of sheep, 77. The structural and functional unit of the environment is, known as:, a. ecosystem, b. biosphere, c. food chain, d. food web, , 81. In an ecosystem, the 10% of energy disposable for, transfer from one trophic level to next is in the form of, a. heat energy, b. chemical energy, c. mechanical energy, d. light energy, 82. Accumulation of non-biodegradable pesticides in the food, chain in increasing amount at each higher trophic level is, known as, a. eutrophication, b. pollution, c. bio-magnification, d. accumulation, 83. Which of the following is an abiotic component?, a. plants, b. animals, c. soil, d. microorganisms, 84. Which of the statement is incorrect?, a. All green plants and blue green algae are producers, b. Green plants get their food from organic compounds, c. Producers prepare their own food from inorganic, compounds, d. Plants convert solar energy into chemical energy, 85. Edaphic factors are included in, a. Abiotic components, b. Biotic components, c. Producers, d. Consumers, 86. Air pollution causing photochemical oxidants production, include, a. Nitrous oxide, nitric acid fumes, nitric oxide, b. Ozone, peroxyacetyl nitrate, aldehydes, c. Oxygen, chlorine, fuming nitric acid, d. None of these, 87. The effect of pollution is first and most marked on, a. Natural flora of a place, b. Natural balance of our environment, c. Natural geochemical cycles, d. All of the above, 88. Smog is a combination of, a. Fire and water, c. Water and smoke, , b. Smoke and fog, d. Air and water, , 78. Depletion of ozone layer is mainly due to, a. Methane, b. Carbon Dioxide, c. Chlorofluorocarbons, d. Nitrogen, , 89. Sound becomes a hazardous noise pollution if its level is, above, a. 30 dB, b. 120 dB, c. 80 dB, d. 150 dB, , 79. First order consumers are:, a. Carnivores, c. Decomposers, , 90. Ultraviolet light causes, a. Photodynamic action, b. Sticky metaphases, c. Formation of pyrimidines, d. Destruction of hydrogen bonds between complementary, DNA strands, , b. Herbivores, d. Omnivores, , 80. A detritus food chain begins with, a. Carnivores, b. Herbivores, c. Omnivores, d. Decomposers
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Natural Resources and Management, , 91. Maximum deposition of DDT will occur in, a. Phytoplankton, b. Crab, c. Eel, d. Sea gull, 92. Which of the environment pollutions can cause birth, defects?, a. Smog, b. CO, c. SO2, d. Radioactivity, 93. Which of the following pollutants is discharged by jet, planes?, a. Aerosols, b. Fog, c. Smog, d. Photochemical oxidants, 94. Lichens indicate pollution by, a. Ozone, b. SO2, d. CO, c. NO3, 95. Montreal Protocol aims at, a. Control of CO2 emission, b. Reduction of ozone depleting substances, c. Biodiversity conservation, d. Control of water pollution, 96. Most harmful environment pollutants are, a. Natural nutrients in excess, b. Human organic wastes, c. Non-biodegradable chemicals, d. Waste animal feed, 97. The atmosphere of big metropolitan cities is polluted, most by, a. Automobile exhausts, b. Radioactive fall out, c. Household waste, d. Pesticides residue, 98. DDT is, a. Non-degradable pollutant, b. Industrial waste, c. Detergent, d. NH3, 99. Pollutants having most lasting effect are, a. Pesticides, b. Smoke from chimneys, c. SO2, d. CO, 100. Which of the following shows biological amplification?, a. Hg, b. Cd, c. Both (a.) and (b.), d. None, 101. Assertion: Tropical rain forests are disappearing fast, from developing countries such as India., Reason: No value is attached to these forests because, these are poor in biodiversity., The correct answer is:, a. Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the, correct explanation of the Assertion, , II.D.97, , b. Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is, not the correct explanations of Assertion., c. Assertion is true, but Reason is false, d. Both Assertion and Reason are false., 102. Assertion: A network of food chains existing together in, an ecosystem is known as a food web., Reason: An animal like kite cannot be a part of a food, web., The correct answer is:, a. Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the, correct explanation of the Assertion, b. Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is, not the correct explanations of Assertion., c. Assertion is true, but Reason is false, d. Both Assertion and Reason are false., 103. Assertion: In a food chain members of successive higher, levels are fewer in number., Reason: Number of organisms at any trophic level, depends upon the availability of organisms which serve as, food at the lower level., The correct answer is:, a. Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the, correct explanation of the Assertion, b. Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is, not the correct explanations of Assertion., c. Assertion is true, but Reason is false, d. Both Assertion and Reason are false., 104. Deforestation has an alarming effect on, a. Increase in grazing area, b. Weed control, c. Soil erosion, d. Sunlight, 105. Acid rain is caused due to increase in concentration of, a. SO2 and NO2, b. CO and CO2, c. CO and SO, d. Ozone and Dust, 106. Minamata disease is pollution related disease which, results from, a. Release of human organic waste into drinking water, b. Accumulation of arsenic into atmosphere, c. Release of industrial mercury into fishing water, d. Spilling of oil into sea, 107. A fertile soil likely to have a pH value of, a. 3–4, b. 6–7, c. 8–9, , d. 10–11, , 108. The niche of a species is meant for, a. The specific place where an organism lives, b. The specific function of species ant its competitive, power, c. The habitat and specific functions of a species, d. None of these
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.D.98, , 109. Humus is an example of, a. Crystalloids, c. Soil structure, , b. Organic colloids, d. None of them, , 110. Xerophytes have long roots, a. Due to light, b. To give mechanical support, c. To draw water from deep water beds, d. None of these, 111. The ‘‘Sangai’’ of Manipur is a, a. Great pied hornbill, b. Black-necked crane, c. Brow antlered deer, d. Reticulated python, 112. Dachigam sanctuary is located in, a. West Bengal, b. Madhya Pradesh, c. Jammu & Kashmir, d. Rajasthan, 113. Sarus is also known as, a. crane, c. plovers, , b. spot bill, d. flamingoes, , 114. Which one of the following pairs of geographical areas, shows maximum biodiversity in our country?, a. Kerala and Punjab, b. Sunderbans and Rann of Kutch, c. Eastern Ghats and West Bengal, d. Eastern Himalaya and Western Ghats, 115. The Giant panda feeds mainly on the leaves of, a. Banana, b. Mulberry, c. Pomegranate, d. Bamboo, 116. According to IUCN red list. What is the status of red, panda (Ailurus fulgens), a. Extinct species, b. Vulnerable species, c. Endangered species, d. Critically endangered species, 117. Species listed in Red Data Book are, a. Threatened, b. Endangered, c. Rare, d. All of these, , 118. Bandipur National Park is associated with, a. Tiger, b. Deer, c. Elephants, d. Rhinoceros, 119. Which of the following is not an endangered species?, a. Peacock, b. Indian Rhino, c. Asiatic lion, d. Great Indian bustard, 120. Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary is located in:, a. Kerala, b. Tamil Nadu, c. Karnataka, d. Andhra Pradesh, ANSWERS, 1., c, , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , b, , c, , a, , c, , c, , a, , d, , a, , d, , 11., c, , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , b, , d, , a, , c, , c, , a, , d, , d, , a, , 21., c, , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , d, , a, , d, , d, , b, , a, , c, , a, , d, , 31., a, , 32., , 33., , 34., , 35., , 36., , 37., , 38., , 39., , 40., , a, , c, , b, , c, , a, , d, , c, , d, , a, , 41., d, , 42., , 43., , 44., , 45., , 46., , 47., , 48., , 49., , 50., , a, , d, , a, , d, , a, , d, , c, , c, , c, , 51., d, , 52., , 53., , 54., , 55., , 56., , 57., , 58., , 59., , 60., , c, , d, , b, , c, , a, , a, , c, , b, , d, , 61., a, , 62., , 63., , 64., , 65., , 66., , 67., , 68., , 69., , 70., , c, , c, , d, , d, , d, , c, , c, , a, , b, , 71., c, , 72., , 73., , 74., , 75., , 76., , 77., , 78., , 79., , 80., , d, , d, , a, , a, , b, , c, , c, , b, , d, , 81., b, , 82., , 83., , 84., , 85., , 86., , 87., , 88., , 89., , 90., , c, , c, , b, , a, , b, , a, , b, , c, , d, , 91., d, , 92., , 93., , 94., , 95., , 96., , 97., , 98., , 99., , 100., , d, , a, , b, , b, , c, , a, , a, , a, , c, , 101., c, , 102., , 103., , 104., , 105., , 106., , 107., , 108., , 109., , 110., , c, , a, , c, , a, , c, , b, , c, , b, , c, , 111., c, , 112., , 113., , 114., , 115., , 116., , 117., , 118., , 119., , 120., , c, , a, , d, , d, , c, , d, , a, , a, , a, , 10.
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Section, , E, , HISTORY, Chapter in this sECTION, 1. The Making of Global World, , II.E.3, , 2. The French and Russian Revolutions, , II.E.9, , 3. Nazism and the Rise of Hitler, , II.E.14, , 4. Forest Society and Colonialism, , II.E.17, , 5. Modern World: Pastoralists, Peasants, and Farmers, , II.E.21, , 6. Sports and Clothing, , II.E.26, , 7. Nationalism in Europe, , II.E.31, , 8. The Nationalist Movement in Indo-China II.E.36, 9. Nationalism in India, , II.E.39, , 10. Global World and Industrialisation, , II.E.45, , 11. Work, Life and Leisure, , II.E.49, , 12. Print Culture and the Modern World, , II.E.53, , 13. Novels, Society and History, , II.E.57
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The Making of Global World, , 1, , II.E.3, , The Making of Global World, , Globalisation is not a new phenomenon, it has a long history., Movement of people, goods capital, etc. has been going on, since old time mainly through trade, migration of those who, were seeking better life. Most of the household items we are, using are being manufactured by some multinational, companies. These are influencing over hundreds of years along, with the flow of ideas. They have developed because of flow, of goods, flow of people as well gave us new words and new, terminologies to communicate with., Note, The Coke and Pepsi are from the US, the Hyundai is from, Korea, Suzuki is from Japan selling cars under Maruti’s, banner., The calculator have been manufactured in Taiwan, the, English we use is mix of US, British and Indianised version, of the original language., The whole economy, society and culture have been shaped, by influences from the outer nations., Movement of people, goods and services across the nations, has been termed as globalisation., Silk Routes Link the World: The silk routes were regarded as, the most important route connected China to Europe as well, linking the distant parts of the world. The name ‘silk routes’, points to the importance of Westbound Chinese silk cargoes, along this route, over land and by sea, knitting together vast, regions of Asia, and linking Asia with Europe and northern, Africa., But Chinese pottery also travelled the same route, as did, textiles and spices from India and Southeast Asia. In return,, precious metals – gold and silver – flowed from Europe to, Asia., Trade and cultural exchange always went hand in hand., Early Christian missionaries almost certainly travelled this, route to Asia, later did early Muslim preachers., Much before all Buddhism emerged from eastern India and, spread along the silk routes., Food and Travels: Traders and travelers introduced new, crops to the lands they travelled. As well ready foodstuff in, distant parts of the world might share common origins like, spaghetti and noodles/pasta. It is believed that noodles, , travelled West from China to become spaghetti. The Arab, traders took pasta to fifth century Sicily, an island now in Italy;, similar foods were also known in India and Japan. Many of, our common foods such as potatoes, soya, groundnuts, maize,, tomatoes, chilies, sweet potatoes, and so on were not known to, our ancestors until about five centuries ago., Conquest, Disease and Trade: The Indian subcontinent was, central to these flows and a vital point in their networks. The, entry of the Europeans helped enlarge or redirect some of these, flows towards Europe., Before its discovery America had been cut off from the rest of, the world, but from the sixteenth century, its vast lands and, abundant crops and minerals began to transform trade and lives, everywhere. Precious metals like silver, from South America, (mines located in present day Peru and Mexico) also enhanced, Europe’s wealth and financed its trade with Asia. Legends, spread in seventeenth century Europe about South America’s, fabled wealth. These countries had strong fire power and army, but the germs such as smallpox helped in the expansion., Smallpox in particular proved a deadly killer and deadly, diseases were widespread. Because of their long isolation,, America’s original inhabitants had no immunity against these, diseases that came from Europe., The Portuguese and Spanish conquest and colonisation of, America was decisively under way by the mid sixteenth, century. Religious conflicts were common, and religious, dissenters were persecuted. Thousands therefore fled Europe, for America. Here, by the eighteenth century, plantations, worked by slaves captured in Africa were growing cotton and, sugar for European markets. Until well into the eighteenth, century, China and India were among the world’s richest, countries., Dramatic Changes in Nineteenth Century: The world, changes profoundly in the nineteenth century as economics,, political, social, cultural and technological and reshape external, relations. Economists identify three types of movement or, ‘flows’ within international economic exchanges.
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II.E.4, , The first is the flow of trade which in the nineteenth century, referred largely to trade in goods, the second is the flow of, labour (the migration of people) in search of employment and, the third is the capital flow for short-term or long-term, investments. All these were closely interwoven and affected, people lives., Need of Food as Change Agent: From late eighteenth century, population growth had increased the demand for food grains in, Britain. The government even restricted the import of corn by, framing the ‘Corn Laws’, under the pressure of landed groups., These laws restricted the free trade opposed by traders and, industrialists hence abolished., The Nineteenth Century Economy: In Britain faster, industrial growth also led to higher incomes, and therefore, more food imports from the mid nineteenth century. To meet, the British demand in Eastern Europe, Russia, America and, Australia lands were cleared and food production expanded. It, was not enough merely to clear lands for agriculture but for, railways and the ports. New harbours had to be built and old, ones expanded to ship the new cargoes. People had to settle on, the lands to bring them under cultivation., Capital flowed from London financial centre, the demand for, labour in places led to more migration where labour was in, short supply in America and Australia. All over the world, around 150 million left their homes, crossed oceans and vast, distances over land in search of a better future accompanied by, complex changes in labour movement patterns, capital flows, and technology. Food no longer came from a nearby village or, town, but from thousands of miles away. It was not grown by a, peasant tilling own land, but by an agricultural worker, perhaps, recently arrived, who was now working on a large farm that, only a generation ago almost a forest., Role of Technology: The railways, steamships, the telegraph, were important inventions to the transformed nineteenth, century world. The mobile phone and internet in present world, cannot be imagined without these two important tools of, communication. Refrigeration provided an effective and, cheaper way to ensure availability of meat products to Europe., Late Nineteenth Century: In the late nineteenth century trade, flourished, markets expanded and increased the prosperity. In, many parts of the world, the expansion of trade and a closer, relationship with the world economy also meant a loss of, freedoms and livelihoods. Late nineteenth century European, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , conquests produced many painful economic, social and, ecological changes through which the colonised societies were, brought into the world economy., Rinderpest or the Cattle Plague: In Africa, in the 1890s, a, fast spreading disease of Rinderpest (cattle plague) had a, terrifying impact on people’s livelihoods and the local, economy. Inheritance laws were changed so that peasants were, displaced from land. Only one member of a family was, allowed to inherit land, as a result of which the others were, pushed into the labour market. It reached the Cape of Africa’s, 5 years later. Along the way cattle plague killed 90 percent of, the cattle. Planters, mine owners and colonial governments, now successfully monopolised what scarce cattle resources, remained, to strengthen their power and to force Africans into, the labour market. Control over the scarce resource of cattle, enabled European colonisers to conquer and subdue Africa., Indentured Labour Migration from India: In the nineteenth, century, millions of Indian and Chinese labourers went to work, on plantations, in mines, and in road and railway construction, projects around the world. The indentured labourers were hired, under contracts which promised return travel after they had, worked 5 years on their employer’s plantation. In the mid, nineteenth century many changes forced to be migrated poor in, search of work. The main destinations of Indian indentured, migrants were Mauritius, Fiji and the Caribbean islands like, Trinidad, Guyana and Suriname. Tamil migrants went to Ceylon, and Malaya as closer distant., Indentured workers were also recruited by agents for tea, plantations in Assam. Many migrants agreed to take up work, hoping to escape poverty or oppression in their home villages., Sometimes agents even forcibly abducted less willing migrants., Nineteenth century indenture has been described as a ‘new, system of slavery’ because of no legal rights, less wages and, harsh conditions of workers., Chutney music created by Indo-Caribbean people, popular in, Trinidad and Guyana, is another creative contemporary, expression of the post indenture experience. These forms of, cultural fusion are part of the making of the global world,, where things from different places get mixed, lose their, original characteristics and become something entirely new., Most indentured workers stayed on after their contracts ended,, or returned to their new homes after a short spell in India., Consequently, there are large communities of people of Indian, descent in these countries. From the 1900s India’s nationalist
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The Making of Global World, , leaders began opposing the system of indentured labour, migration as abusive and cruel, therefore abolished in 1921., Indian Entrepreneurs Abroad: Shikaripuri Shroffs and, Nattukottai Chettiars were amongst the many groups of, bankers and traders who financed export agriculture in Central, and Southeast Asia, using either their own funds or those, borrowed from European banks. They used sophisticated, system to transfer money over large distances, and even, developed indigenous forms of corporate organisation. Indian, traders and moneylenders also followed European colonisers, into Africa. Hyderabadi Sindhi traders, however, endeavoured, beyond European colonies., Indian Trade, Colonialism and the Global System:, Historically, fine cottons produced in India were exported to, Europe. With industrialisation, British cotton manufacture, began to expand, and industrialists pressurised the government, to restrict cotton imports and protect local industries. From the, early nineteenth century, British manufacturers also began to, seek overseas markets for their cloth. Excluded from the, British market by tariff barriers, Indian textiles now faced stiff, competition in other international markets. Exports from India, declined from some 30 percent around 1800 to 15 percent by, 1815., Indigo used for dyeing cloth was another important export for, many decades. And opium shipments to China grew rapidly, from the 1820s to become for a while India’s single largest, export. Britain grew opium in India and exported it to China, and, with the money earned through this sale; it financed its tea, and other imports from China. Thus Britain had a ‘trade, surplus’ with India. Britain used this surplus to balance its, trade deficits with other countries – that is, with countries from, which Britain was importing more than it was selling to., The Economy during First World War (1914–18): The First, World War was a war like no other before. The fighting, involved the world’s leading industrial nations which now, harnessed the vast powers of modern industry to inflict the, greatest possible destruction on their enemies. This war was, thus the first modern industrial war., It saw the use of machine guns, tanks, aircraft, chemical, weapons, etc. on a massive scale. To fight the war, millions of, soldiers had to be recruited from around the world and moved, to the frontlines on large ships and trains. The scale of death, and destruction – 9 million dead and 20 million injured – was, unthinkable before the industrial age, without the use of, industrial arms., , II.E.5, , Entire societies were also reorganised for war – as men went to, battle, women stepped in to undertake jobs that earlier only, men were expected to do. The war led to the snapping of, economic links between some of the world’s largest economic, powers which were now fighting each other to pay for them., So, Britain borrowed large sums of money from US banks as, well as the US public. Thus the war transformed the US from, being an international debtor to an international creditor., After the war Britain found it difficult to recapture its earlier, position of dominance in the Indian market, and to compete, with Japan internationally. Moreover, to finance war, expenditures Britain had borrowed liberally from the US. This, meant that at the end of the war Britain was burdened with, huge external debts. The war had led to an economic boom,, that is, to a large increase in demand, production and, employment. When the war boom ended, production, contracted and unemployment increased., Eastern Europe was a major supplier of wheat in the world, market. When this supply was disrupted during the war, wheat, production in Canada, America and Australia expanded, dramatically. But once the war was over, production in Eastern, Europe revived and created a glut in wheat output., Rise of Mass Production and Consumption: One important, feature of the US economy of the 1920s was mass production., The move towards mass production had begun in the late, nineteenth century, but in the 1920s it became a characteristic, feature of industrial production in the US., A well-known pioneer of mass production was the car, manufacturer Henry Ford. He adapted the assembly line of a, Chicago slaughterhouse (in which slaughtered animals were, picked apart by butchers as they came down a conveyor belt) to, his new car plant in Detroit. He realised that the ‘assembly, line’ method would allow a faster and cheaper way of, producing vehicles. The assembly line forced workers to repeat, a single task mechanically and continuously – such as fitting a, particular part to the car – at a pace dictated by the conveyor, belt. As a result, Henry Ford’s cars came off the assembly line, at 3 minutes intervals, a speed much faster than 0074hat, achieved by previous methods. The T Model Ford was the, world’s first mass produced car. Mass production lowered, costs and prices of engineered goods.
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II.E.6, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Car production in the US rose from 2 million in 1919 to more, than 5 million in 1929. Similarly, there was a spurt in the, purchase of refrigerators, washing machines, radios,, gramophone players, all through a system of ‘hire purchase’, (i.e., on credit repaid in weekly or monthly installments). In, 1923, the US resumed exporting capital to the rest of the world, and became the largest overseas lender., , Bank and the IMF designed to meet the financial needs of the, industrial countries those were not equipped to cope with the, challenge of poverty and lack of development. Whereas Europe, and Japan rapidly rebuilt their economies, they grew less, dependent on the IMF and the World Bank. Hence from the, late 1950s the Bretton Woods institutions began to shift their, attention more towards developing countries., , Rebuilding of a World Economy: Post World War II, The US’s emergence as the dominant economic, political and, military powers in the Western world as well the dominance, of the Soviet Union these two crucial influences shaped, postwar reconstruction. It sacrificed a lot to defeat Nazi, Germany, and transformed from a backward agricultural, country into a world power when the capitalist world was, trapped in the Great Depression., , Even after many years of decolonisation, the former colonial, powers still controlled vital resources such as minerals and, land in many of their former colonies. The most developing, countries did not simultaneously benefited from the fast growth, the Western economies experienced in the 1950s and 1960s., Therefore they organised themselves as a group – the Group of 77, (or G77) – to demand a New International Economic Order, (NIEO)., , Postwar Settlement and the Bretton Woods Institutions:, The industrial society based on mass production cannot be, sustained without mass consumption and a country’s economic, links with the outside world. But to ensure mass consumption,, there was a need for high and stable incomes. These two key, lessons from interwar economic experiences drew the, economists and politicians., , Rise of Multinational Corporations (MNCs): The worldwide, spread of MNCs was a notable feature of the 1950s and 1960s., Because of the high import tariffs imposed by different, governments and also forced MNCs to locate their, manufacturing operations and become ‘domestic producers’ in, as many countries as possible., , The main aim of the postwar international economic system, was to preserve economic stability and full employment in the, industrial world. Its framework was agreed upon at the United, Nations Monetary and Financial Conference held in July 1944, at Bretton Woods in New Hampshire, USA., , End of Bretton Woods and the Beginning of, ‘Globalisation’: Despite years of stable and rapid growth, not, all was well in this postwar world. From the 1960s the rising, costs of its overseas involvements weakened the US’s finances, and competitive strength., This eventually led to the collapse of the system of fixed, exchange rates and the introduction of a system of floating, , The Bretton Woods conference established the International, Monetary Fund (IMF) to deal with external surpluses and, deficits of its member nations. The IMF and the World Bank, are referred to as the Bretton Woods institutions or sometimes, the Bretton Woods twins. The postwar international economic, system is also often described as the Bretton Woods system., The IMF and the World Bank commenced financial operations, in 1947. The US has an effective right of veto over key IMF, and World Bank decisions., Decolonisation and Independence: When the Second World, War ended, large parts of the world were still under European, colonial rule. Over the next two decades most colonies in Asia, and Africa emerged as free, independent nations. The World, , exchange rates., This led to periodic debt crises in the developing world, and, lower incomes and increased poverty, especially in Africa, and Latin America., From the late 1970s MNCs started shifting of production, operations to low wage Asian countries. China had been cut off, from the postwar world economy since its revolution in 1949., But new economic policies in China and the collapse of the, Soviet Union and Soviet style communism in Eastern Europe, brought many countries back into the fold of the world, economy. China and Brazil have undergone rapid economic, transformation. In the last two decades the world’s economic, geography has been transformed as countries such as India.
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The Making of Global World, , II.E.7, , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , Globalisation does not involve which one of the following:, a. Rapid integration between countries., b. More good and services moving between countries., c. Increased taxes on imports., d. Movement of people between countries for jobs,, education etc., Who were the first Europeans to conquer America?, a. The French, b. The Portuguese, c. The Spanish, d. The Germans, What were the Corn Laws?, a. They were passed by the British Government to restrict, the import of corn, b. They were passed by the British Government to restrict, the export of corn, c. They were passed by the French Government to export, corn to Canada, d. They were passed by the America to import corn from, other countries, Which one of the following countries did not try to, expand food production to meet the British demand?, a. Eastern Europe, b. Russia, c. America, d. Japan, , 10. Which one country was not a part of Central Powers in, the First World War?, a. Germany, b. Austria-Hungary, c. Turkey, d. USA, 11. When did the Great Depression begin?, a. In 1929, b. In 1930, c. In 1931, d. In 1932, 12. Which one country was not a part of the Axis Powers in, the Second World War (1939–1945)?, a. Russia, b. Germany, c. Japan, d. Italy, 13. Which one country was not a part of the Allies Powers in, the Second World War?, a. Great Britain, b. France, c. Germany, d. USA, 14. In which one of the following years Great Depression, occurred in the word?, a. 1929–30, b. 1935–36, c. 1939–40, d. 1941–42, 15. Which one of the following groups of the countries was, known as the ‘Central Powers’ in Europe?, a. Germany, Russia and France, b. Russia, Germany and Britain, c. Germany, Austria-Hungary and Ottoman-Turkey, d. None of the above, , 5., , Up to the 18th century, which two countries among the, following were the richest countries of the world?, a. India, b. Turkey, c. South Africa, d. China, , 6., , Which new invention made it possible to transport, perishable foods over long distances?, a. Gun Powder, b. Refrigerated Ship, c. Compass, d. Bombs, , 16. What does the ‘Silk route’ refer to?, a. Present-day West Asia, b. West-bound Chinese silk cargoes, c. Introduction of humble potato, d. Both (a.) and (b.), , 7., , Where was the Chutney music popular?, a. China, b. Japan, c. North America, d. South America, , 17. Which was the tabled city of gold?, a. Peru, b. Mexico, c. El Dorado, d. Spain, , 8., , What is Rinderpest?, a. A cattle disease in Africa, b. A cattle disease in China, c. A cattle disease in USA, d. A cattle disease in Russia, , 18. Which fatal disease’s germ was carried by European, migrants to America?, a. Cholera, b. Smallpox, c. Chicken pox, d. Pneumonia, , 9., , Which one of the following countries was a part of the, Allies in First World War (1914–1916)?, a. Britain, b. France, c. U.S.A, d. Japan, , 19. What ‘technology’ helped in transporting perishable, goods?, a. Refrigerated aircrafts, b. Refrigerated railways, c. Refrigerated ships, d. Both (a.) and (b.)
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.E.8, , 20. Which disease spread like wild fire in Africa in the 1890s?, a. Cattle plague, b. Smallpox, c. Pneumonia, d. None of these, 21. What was ‘Hosay’?, a. Religious custom, c. Festival, , b. Annual procession, d. Sea route, , 27. Who was Sir Henry Morton Stanley?, a. Journalist, b. Scientist, c. Author, d. Industrialist, , 22. Which food travelled west from China to be called, ‘Spaghetti’?, a. Soya, b. Groundnuts, c. Potato, d. Noodles, , 28. What did ‘indentured labour’ mean?, a. Cheap labour, b. Free labour, c. Bonded labourer, d. None of these, , 23. The pioneer of mass production is:, a. John Winthrop, b. Sir Henry Morton Stanley, c. Henry Ford, d. None of these, , 29. Where was the ‘Chutney Music’ popular?, a. Fiji, b. Trinidad, c. Guyana, d. Both (b.) and (c.), , 24. How long did the ‘Great Depression’ last?, a. One year, b. Two and a half years, c. One and a half year, d. None of these, , 30. Which movement was launched during the height of, depression (1931)?, a. Civil Disobedience Movement, b. Swadeshi Movement, c. Quit India Movement, d. None of these, , 25. Name the ‘axis powers’ of the Second World War., a. Germany, Britain, France, b. France, Soviet, US, c. Germany, Japan, Italy, d. US, Japan, Italy, 26. What was the Bretton Woods system?, a. Postwar Military System, b. Postwar International Economic System, c. Postwar Political System, d. None of these, , ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , c, , b, , a, , d, , a, , b, , d, , a, , d, , d, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , a, , a, , c, , a, , c, , b, , c, , b, , c, , a, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , b, , d, , c, , c, , c, , b, , a, , c, , d, , a
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The French and Russian Revolutions, , 2, In the late 18th century in France the society was divided into, three estates. The first estate was the clergy, the second estate, was the nobility and the third estate comprised businessmen,, lawyers, merchants, peasants and artisans. The nobility enjoyed, feudal privileges like feudal dues, extracted from the peasants, and they did not pay any taxes. The burden of taxes fell on the, poor. They also paid feudal taxes like taille and tithes. A, middle class was emerging which was influenced by, philosophers like Montesquieu, Rousseau and John Locke., Note, In the decade full of turmoil, fear and tension that was the, French Revolution, the people of France began to reform the, French government. The Revolution began because French, leaders were unable to provide stability to the populace of, France at the time. During all this time almost continually, France is at war for close to 10 years. The objective of a, Revolution is to overthrow an existing government, and set up, a strong lasting constitution, and an efficient governmental, system and this was not meet in the French Revolution., The Bolshevik Revolution in Russia in 1917 was initiated by, millions of people who would change the history of the world as, we know it. When Czar Nicholas II dragged 11 million peasants, into World War I, the Russian people became discouraged with, their injuries and the loss of life they sustained. The country of, Russia was in ruins, ripe for revolution., The Outbreak of the Revolution, The French Government was an absolute monarchy and its, ruler Louis XVI was extravagant and drove France into, useless wars, bringing the country to bankruptcy., The French Parliament called Estates General had not been, called for the last 175 years. The administration was, corrupt, disorganised and inefficient., Consequences, The powers of the monarch were limited by the National, Assembly which drafted a constitution in 1791., A clear demarcation of three organs of the Govt., Legislature, Executive and Judiciary making France a, constitutional monarchy., A declaration of the rights of man and citizen adopted by, , The French and, Russian Revolutions, , II.E.9, , the constitution; Soon France became a republic. The king, was beheaded during the period of the Jacobins., Napoleon crowned himself emperor of France and was, defeated at the Battle of Waterloo., Women and the Revolution, Women were active participants but were denied equal, rights as men. They soon started their own political clubs, and newspapers., They wanted same political rights as men, i.e., right to vote,, to be elected to the assembly and to hold political office., Women get right to vote in 1946., Abolition of Slavery: An acute shortage of labour in the French, Caribbean colonies, so a triangular slave trade between Europe,, America and Africa in the 17th century; The Convention of 1974, freed slaves in French overseas possessions., Ten years later slavery was reintroduced by Napoleon and, finally abolished in 1848., Revolution in Everyday Life, Censorship abolished and mass media openly discussed, events and changes in France., New reforms in education, administration and judiciary;, Ideas of liberty and democratic rights – a very important, legacy of the French Revolution. French Revolution, inspired many other people around the world., Socialism in Europe and the Russian Revolution: In 1917,, two revolutions swept through Russia, ending centuries of, imperial rule and setting in motion political and social changes, that would lead to the formation of the Soviet Union. In March,, growing civil unrest, coupled with chronic food shortages,, erupted into open revolt, forcing the abdication of Nicholas II, (1868–1918), the last Russian czar. Just months later, the, newly installed provisional government was itself overthrown, by the more radical revolutionary party. Though the Revolution, of 1905 had failed to overthrow Czarism in Russia, it had, paved the way for the Revolution of 1917. The Revolution of, 1905 acted as a ‘Dress Rehearsal’ for the Revolution of 1917., By April 1918, the Bolsheviks (Communists) were fully, saddled in power. The Communist Government Nationalised
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II.E.10, , most of the industries and the bank in November, 1917 and, took over their ownership and management., Economy and Society, 85% of Russian population was agriculturist; Industry was, the private property of industrialists and workers were, divided into social groups., Russian Orthodox Church and the nobility owned a lot of, land., Influence of Socialism, Social Democratic Workers Party formed in 1898 by, followers of Karl Marx., Socialist Revolutionary Party formed in 1900 put forward, peasant’s rights and wanted transfer of land from nobles to, peasants., The party was also divided into Bolsheviks and Mensheviks, based on strategy and organization., Revolution of 1905, Russia was an autocracy; 1904 was a bad year where prices, rose and wages declined. Workers associations came up and, membership increased. A massive strike of 110,000, workers in St. Petersburg demanding 8-hour conditions, where 100 killed and 300 injured on ‘Bloody Sunday’. This, started the 1905 Revolution., Strikes all over the country by students, lawyers, doctors,, engineers and other middle class workers who established, the Union of Unions demanding a constituent assembly., Duma was created as a result but the Tsar dismissed it in 75, days. New Duma was full of conservatives and the liberals, and revolutionaries were kept out., World War-I and Russia, Initially people supported the Tsar entering in the World, War., Tsar refused to consult the Duma and became very, unpopular. Russians lost badly as they were ill-equipped, and unprepared and 7 million Russians died, crops and, buildings destroyed., Affected the industry also leading to labour shortage,, scarcity of bread and flour., Soldiers did not want to fight and people were also against, of war., February Revolution in Petrograd and its After Effects, Winter of 1917 was a tough winter with many food, shortages; On Feb 22 workers of 50 factory outlets went on, strike and on Sunday Feb 25, government suspended the, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Duma leading to protests and demonstrations., Police Headquarters ransacked and people shouted slogans, about bread, wages, better hours and democracy; Striking, workers gathered to form a ‘Soviet or’ council’-the, Petrograd Soviet., Tsar abdicated and Soviet and Duma leaders formed a, provisional government., Russia’s future was to be decided by a constituent assembly, elected on the basis of universal adult franchise after, February., Army officials, landowners and industrialists were, influential in provisional government., Vladimir Lenin returned to Russia after exile; Vladimir, Lenin put forward his three demands in ‘April Theses’, i.e., an, end to the war, land to the tiller, and nationalisation of banks., October Revolution and its After Effects, Conflict between the provisional government and, Bolsheviks grew and a military revolutionary committee, was appointed to seize power., On October 24 the military revolutionary committee took, control of the city, government officers and many members, arrested., A majority approved the Bolshevik action in a meeting of, the All Russian Congress of Soviets; By December the, Bolsheviks controlled the Moscow-Petrograd areas Change, after October., Industry and banks were nationalised and use of title was, banned., Constitution of 1918: Lenin promulgated a new constitution in, the same year. It gave the right to vote to the workers and the, revolutionaries but denied this privilege to the clergy, nobility, and most of the middle class. Every city and every district were, to elect a Soviet or Council of workmen. These local soviets, chose delegates to represent them in the provincial soviets. The, provincial soviets elected the ‘All Russia Congress of Soviets’, which was invested with supreme powers. A central executive, committee which was responsible to the National Congress, made law and appointed ministers (called Commissars). The, supremacy of the proletariat (working class) was strengthened, by organising an army of working class and the establishment, of a judicial system, which would be of service in crushing the, anti-Bolsheviks. In 1923, a new constitution was adopted in, Russia. (Union of Soviet Socialist Republics).
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The French and Russian Revolutions, , II.E.11, , Important Dates in History, Louis XVI becomes king of France, faces, 1774, empty treasury and growing discontent, within society of the Old Regime., Convocation of Estates General, Third, 1789, Estate forms National Assembly, the, Bastille is stormed, and peasants revolt in, the countryside., A Constitution is framed to limit the powers, 1791, of the king and to guarantee basic rights to, all human beings., France becomes a republic, the king is, 1792–93, beheaded. Overthrow of the Jacobin, republic, a Directory rules France., The period is referred to as the Reign of, 1793–94, Terror., Napoleon becomes emperor of France,, 1804, , 1815, 1850s–1880s, 1870s, 1898, 1905, , 1914, 1917, 1918-20, 1919, 1929, , annexes large parts of Europe., Napoleon is defeated at Waterloo., Debates take place over socialism in Russia, Socialists form an international body,, namely, the Second International., Formation of the Russian Social Democratic, Workers Party., The Bloody Sunday and the Revolution of, 1905; Socialists and trade unionists formed, a Labour Party in Britain and a Socialist, Party in France., Tsar Nicholas II rules Russia and its empire,, First World War begins., 2nd March – Abdication of the Czar or Tsar., The Civil War., Formation of Comintern., Beginning of Collectivisation., , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , 2., , 3., , On what charges was Louis XVI guillotined?, a. misgovernance, b. cruelty, c. treason, d. absolute rule, ‘Bastille’ stands for, a. name of a book, b. name of an author, c. a commander who tortured criminals, d. a fortress prison, Which French philosopher refuted the divine rights of, kings?, a. Maximilien Robespierre b. Jean Jacques Rousseau, c. Montesquieu, d. John Locke, , 9., , In the ‘Spirit of the Laws’, Montesquieu proposed, a. A division of powers between the King and the Church, b. A division of powers between men and women, c. A division of powers between three organs of the Govt., d. A division of powers between the King and the, peasants, , 10. The Estates General was, a. The Commander in Chief of the army, b. Another name of The King of France, c. A group of women who demonstrated on the streets, d. A political body to which the three estates of the estates, of the French society sent their representatives, 11. In France ‘guillotine’ referred to a system of, a. beheading a person, b. rewarding a person, c. taxing a person, d. punishing a person, , 4., , The Revolution in France established, a. monarchy, b. republic, c. dictatorship, d. oligarchy, , 5., , ‘Tithe’ was a tax collected from the French peasants by, a. The Emperor, b. The Church, c. The Nobles, d. The Army, , 6., , Direct tax to the state was called, a. tithes, b. taille, c. liwani, , d. livres, , 12. The event which led to the French Revolution of 1789 was, a. People protesting against the church, b. People protesting against the high price of food, c. People protesting against lack of employment, d. People protesting against rising prices of real estate, , 7., , The revolutionaries in France stormed which prison?, a. Versailles, b. Marseilles c. Bastille d. Ruschritz, , 13. Who were the French middle class?, a. Peasants, b. Artisans, c. Nobles, d. Educated professionals, , 8., , By whom was Social Contract written?, a. Voltaire, b. Rousseau, c. Adam Smith, d. Gorky, , 14. Who crowned himself Emperor of France in 1804?, a. Napoleon, b. Louis XVI, c. Robespierre, d. Jacobin
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II.E.12, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 15. Who was the Marseilles written by?, a. Voltaire, b. Sartre, c. Roget de Lisle, d. Gorky, , 26. Sceptre was the symbol of, a. People’s power, c. Royal power, , 16. Women in France were, a. Active Citizens, c. Electors, , 27. Olympe de Gouges was one of the most important of the, politically active women in revolutionary, a. France, b. Britain, c. Germany, d. USA, , b. Passive Citizens, d. None of these, , 17. Who wrote an influential pamphlet called ‘Declaration of, the Rights of Woman and Citizen’?, a. Rbbe-Siejes, b. Mirabeau, c. John Locke, d. Olympe de Gouges, 18., , At which of the following battles was Napoleon finally, defeated?, a. Paris, b. Versailles, c. Waterloo, d. Elba, , 19. An extreme situation where the basic means of livelihood, are endangered is called a, a. famine, b. hyper inflation, c. subsistence crisis, d. epidemic, 20. Who was Louis XVI’s queen?, a. Marie Antoinette, b. Queen Victoria, c. Queen Elizabeth, d. None of these, 21. The newly elected assembly abolished the monarchy and, declared France a republic on 21st September, a. 1792, b. 1794, c. 1798, d. 1892, 22. Name one important law that came into effect soon after, the storming of Bastille in the summer of 1789., a. The Reign of Terror, b. The abolition of censorship, c. The Old Regime, d. All of these, 23. The Declaration of the Rights of Man and Citizen, painted, by the artist _____ in 1790., a. Locke, b. Rousseau, c. Le Barbier, d. Mirabeau, 24. The ideas of philosophers were discussed intensively in, salons and coffee-houses and spread among people, through, a. Television and letters, b. Letters and mobiles, c. Telephones and books, d. Books and newspapers, 25. The revolutionary journalist Jean-Paul Marat published, the newspaper L’Ami du peuple, which means, a. The friend of the people b. The leader of the people, c. The king of the people, d. The man of the people, , b. Women’s power, d. Citizen’s power, , 28. Which religion did Austria and Spain Favour?, a. Christian, b. The Catholic Church, c. The Orthodox Church, d. All of these, 29. The Duma were council assemblies which were created, by the, a. Lenin, b. Karl Marx, c. Tsar of Russia, d. Emperor of France, 30. Before 1914, Petrograd was known as, a. Samara, b. Omsk, c. St Petersburg, d. Moscow, 31. The procession that marched to the Winter Palace in 1904, was led by, a. Father Gapon, b. Lenin, c. Stalin, d. Kerensky, 32. The Tsar allowed the creation of the Duma in, a. 1904, b. 1917, c. 1905, d. 1914, 33. The Tsar kept out _________from the Duma., a. liberals and revolutionaries, b. conservatives and liberals, c. revolutionaries and conservatives, d. all of the above, 34. Most industry and banks were nationalized by the, Bolsheviks in, a. December 1918, b. August 1917, c. November 1917, d. October 1917, 35. The Bolsheviks were also known as the, a. greens, b. blues, c. whites, d. reds, 36. ‘Kulaks’ was the name for, a. revolutionaries, b. well-to-do peasants, c. pro-Tsarists, d. workers, 37. ‘Comintern’ was the name given to, a. an international union of pro-Bolshevik socialist parties, b. an international union of pro-Tsarist socialist parties, c. an international union of non-Bolshevik parties, d. an international union of pro-Menshevik parties
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The French and Russian Revolutions, , II.E.13, , 38. The revolution in which the Bolsheviks gained control, was the, a. Revolution of 1905, b. Blood Sunday, c. October Revolution, d. February revolution, 39. Which of the following is not true about true radicals?, a. they wanted a government based on majority, b. they supported suffrage for women, c. they opposed privilege of landowners, d. they wanted to respect the past, 40. Which of the following statement is true about socialists?, a. they were against private property, b. some wanted a cooperative community, c. some wanted to overthrow capitalism, d. all of these, 41, , Which statement is not true about the economy of Russia, in 1905?, a. industry was found in pockets, b. it was privately owned, c. workers conditions were good, d. Russia was primarily agrarian, , 42. What was not the result of the 1905 revolution?, a. Duma was established, b. trade unions were allowed to exist, c. Duma was dissolved after 75 days, d. elections were held, , 43. The Soviet Union was created in:, a. 1905, b. 1917, c. 1921, , d. 1922, , 44. Why did the British, French and others support the nonBolsheviks?, a. they wanted to control Russia, b. they were angry over Russians withdrawing from the war, c. they wanted Russia to be a democracy, d. they did not want socialism to spread, 45. Which of the following was not a step taken by, Bolsheviks?, a. nationalisation of banks, b. allowing private enterprise, c. collectivisation, d. given autonomy to non-Russian national, ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , d, , d, , d, , b, , b, , b, , c, , b, , c, , 10., d, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , a, , b, , d, , a, , c, , b, , d, , c, , c, , a, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , a, , b, , c, , d, , a, , c, , a, , b, , c, , c, , 31., , 32., , 33., , 34., , 35., , 36., , 37., , 38., , 39., , 40., , b, , a, , d, , d, , d, , a, , c, , a, , c, , d, , 41., , 42., , 43., , 44., , 45., , c, , d, , d, , d, , b, ,
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II.E.14, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 3, , Nazism and the Rise of Hitler, , Nazism becoming popular in Germany after Worl War I, (WWI) and the rise of Hitler—the genocidal war that he, unleashed on minorities and the horrors they were subjected to., Note, Adolf Hitler was the leader of Nazi Germany and the, chancellor of Germany from 1934 to 1945. Born in Austria in, 1889, Adolf Hitler rose to power in German politics as leader, of the National Socialist German Workers Party, also known as, the Nazi Party. His policies precipitated World War II and the, Holocaust. He initiated World War II and oversaw fascist, policies that resulted in millions of deaths and served as, dictator from 1934 to 1945. Hitler committed suicide with wife, Eva Braun on April 30, 1945, in his Berlin bunker., Birth of Weimar Republic, Germany was defeated in WWI., Emperor abdicated., National Assembly met at Weimar and established, democratic constitution., Deputies were elected on the basis of universal adult, franchise., People were not very happy with the establishment of the, republic., Treaty of Versailles, Peace treaty signed between Germany and the Allies;, Germany lost its colonies, territories, iron and coal to other, European countries and was demilitarized., Had to pay a compensation of six billion pounds., Effects of the War, Weimar republic had to pay for the sins of the old empirehumiliated and financially crippled, Socialists, Catholics and Democrats were targeted by the, Conservatives., Soldiers were placed above civilians; Democracy was, considered a weak and fragile system., Growth of Political Radicalism in Germany, There was a demand for Soviet style governance;, Communist and Socialists put down by the Democrats and, Catholics., , Both revolution and militant nationalists wanted radical, solution., Political radicalism was further heightened by economic, crisis; Crisis arose again with the Great Depression and, collapse of the Wall Street Exchange., Unemployment rose to 6 million and youth took to criminal, activities; People lost confidence in the democratic system, which offered no solutions., Rise and Style of Hitler, He was a soldier in World War I and was horrified by the, German defeat and the Treaty of Versailles., Formed the National Socialist German Workers Party (Nazi, Party); Nazism became a mass movement during the Great, Depression., By 1932 Nazi Party became the largest party with 37%, votes; Hitler was a great orator and he promised to build a, strong nation, restore dignity of the German, and weed out, all ‘foreign’ influences., Nazis held massive rallies and public meetings as a show of, strength and confidence for Hitler; Hitler was projected as, messiah or savior., Destruction of Democracy, On coming to power, Hitler passed the Fire Decree to 29, February 1933 indefinitely suspending civic rights like, freedom of speech, press and assembly., In March 1933 the famous Enabling Act was passed, which established dictatorship in Germany; All political, parties and trade unions were banned except the Nazi, Party., Economy and Foreign Policy, A programme of state-funded economic reconstruction was, launched aiming at full production and full employment;, Hitler pulled out of the League of Nations and reoccupied, the Rhineland and Sudetenland from Czechoslovakia., Integrated Austria and Germany in 1938 under the slogan, ‘one people one leader’., Hitler attacked Soviet Union in June 1941., He exposed German western front to British aerial bombing, and eastern front to the powerful Soviet Army.
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Nazism and the Rise of Hitler, , Soviet Red Army inflicted a defeat on Germany at, Stalingrad., War ended in May 1945 with Hitler’s defeat., Nazi World View, Believed that there was no quality among people – only a, racial hierarchy; The blond-haired, blue-eyed Aryan race was, the most superior and the most inferior were the Jews., Hitler believed in ‘lebensraum’ or living space; he wanted, to extend German boundaries for settlement and power., The Nazis, once in power, set out to create a community of, pure Germans eliminating all whom they considered, ‘undesirable’., Apart from Jews, gypsies, Blacks, Russians and Poles were, also prosecuted., From 1933–1938 Jews were segregated and from, 1939К1945 they were mainly sent to concentration camps, and killed., ‘Good German’ children were brainwashed about Nazi, ideas of race and ideology of aggression and violence, Youth organisations like Jungvolk and Hitler Youth were, created to worship war, glorify aggression and violence,, hate democracy and undesirable elements, Art of Propaganda, Nazis used language and media were effectively., , II.E.15, , They used special words for mass killings-‘special, treatment’, ‘final solution’, ‘Jews euthanasia’, (disabled), ‘selection’, ‘disinfection’., Media was used to win support for the regime and, popularise its world view; Propaganda films were made to, defame the Jews, who were stereotyped and referred to as, vermin, rats and pests., Important Dates, August 1, 1914, November 9, 1918, June 28, 1919, January 30, 1933, September 1, 1939, June 22, 1941, , First World War begins., Germany capitulates ending the war,, proclamation of the Weimar, Republic., Treaty of Versailles., Hitler becomes Chancellor of, Germany., Germany invades Poland, beginning, of the Second World War., Germany invades the USSR, , January 27, 1945, , Mass murder of the Jews begins, The United States joins Second, World War., Soviet troops liberate Auschwitz., , May 8, 1945, , Allied victory in Europe., , June 23, 1941, December 8, 1941, , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , The Allied powers were:, a. USA, France, Germany and Britain, b. France, Britain, USA and USSR, c. USSR, Germany, Italy and Spain, d. Austria, Germany, France and Britain, , 5., , The Great Economic Depression was caused by:, a. World War I, b. overproduction, c. crash of the Wall Street Exchange, d. collapse of Weimar Republic, , 2., , The Axis powers were:, a. Germany, Britain and France, b. Germany Italy and Japan, c. Britain, France and Italy, d. Britain, France and USA, , 6., , Hitler was given dictatorial powers by:, a. The Fire Decree, b. Enabling Act, c. Article 78 of the constitution, d. None of the above, , 3., , Which was not a provision of the Treaty of Versailles?, a. Germany was held responsible for the war, b. Its colonies were taken away, c. Rhineland was demilitarised, d. Germany was to become a democratic country, , 7., , The 2nd World War started after Hitler attacked, __________., a. Austria, b. England, c. France, d. Poland, , 4., , What was the impact of World War I on Europe?, a. aggression and masculinity were emphasised, b. trench life was glorified, c. national honour and war propaganda was glorified, d. all of the above, , 8., , USA entered the 2nd World War when, a. Japan occupied French Indo-china, b. Hitler attacked Poland, c. Hitler signed a pact with Japan, d. Japan attacked Pearl Harbor
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II.E.16, , 9., , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Hitler’s racism was borrowed from ______ and ________, a. Herbert Spencer and Charles Darwin, b. Howard Spencer and Charles Darwin, c. Herbert Spencer and Howard Holmes, d. Lenin and Herbert Spencer, , 10. At the bottom of the racial hierarchy were, a. Jews, b. Gypsies, c. Slavs, d. Poles, , 20. US entered into World War II due to, a. Annexation of Poland by Germany, b. Aerial bombing on London, c. Japanese attack on Pearl Harbor, d. Non-payment of reparation dues by Germans, , 11. Ten-year-old German children had to join____., a. Hitler Youth, b. Young Hitler, c. Jungvolk, d. Little Hitler, 12. The organisation for all young boys at 14 and above was, __________., a. Young Hitler, b. Hitler Youth, c. Little Hitler, d. Teen Hitler, 13. Which were the words the Nazis never used while dealing, with Jews?, a. Special treatment, b. Mass murder, c. Final solution, d. Disinfection, 14. What was the name of the ideology of the Nazi Party?, a. Communism, b. Socialism, c. National socialism, d. Social Democrats, , 16. During First World War against whom did Germany not, fight?, a. Austria, b. England, c. France, d. Belgium, , 18. What was the name given to gas chambers by Nazis?, a. Killing Machines, b. Dissolution Areas, c. Revolutionary Ground, d. Dissolution Areas, , 21. The Nazi party became the largest party by, a. 1930, b. 1931, c. 1932, d. 1933, 22. When did Hitler join the German Workers Party?, a. 1918, b. 1919, c. 1920, d. 1921, 23. When did Hitler try to seize control of Bavaria and, capture Berlin?, a. 1919, b. 1923, c. 1929, d. 1933, 24. Who amongst these offered Chancellorship to Hitler?, a. Churchil, b. Goebbels, c. Helmuth, d. Hindenburg, , 15. When the First World War was fought?, a. 1911–1914, b. 1914–1918, c. 1916–1920, d. 1941–1945, , 17. What was ‘Dawes Plan’?, a. A plan to secure loans from US bakers, b. A plan to ease reparation terms on Germany, c. A plan to overtake Rhineland mines, d. An extension of Versailles treaty, , 19. Hitler took over the German Workers’ Party and renamed, it:, a. Secular German Workers, b. Socialist Workers of Germany, c. National Socialist Party, d. National Workers of Germany, , 25. What was the name given to mass killings of the Jews, under Hitler’s regime?, a. Special Task, b. Special Treatment or Final Solution, c. Final Stage, d. Special Task or Final Stage, ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , b, , b, , d, , d, , c, , b, , d, , d, , a, , a, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , c, , b, , b, , c, , b, , a, , b, , d, , c, , c, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , c, , b, , b, , d, , b, ,
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Forest Society and Colonialism, , 4, , II.E.17, , Forest Society and Colonialism, , Colonial control over forests; development of new rules and, ways of organising the forests and their effects on the lives of, local communities., Note, The British directly encouraged the production of commercial, crops like jute, sugar, and cotton. The demand for these crops, increased in nineteenth-century Europe where food grains were, needed to feed the growing urban population and raw materials, were required for industrial production. In the early nineteenth, century, the British thought that forests were unproductive., Forests were considered to be wilderness that had to be brought, under cultivation so that the land could yield agricultural, products and revenue, and enhance the income of the British., Large areas of natural forests were also cleared to make way, for tea, coffee and rubber plantations to meet Europe’s growing, need for these commodities., A system of cutting trees controlled by the forest department,, in which old trees are cut and new ones planted in straight lines, for British Railway and Navy. After the Forest Act, all their, everyday practices cutting wood for their houses, grazing their, cattle, collecting fruits and roots, hunting and fishing became, illegal., Causes of Deforestation in India, Increasing population and rising demand for food., British encouraged production of commercial crops like, jute, sugar and cotton, required for industrial production as, raw material., The colonial state thought forests were unproductive and, cleaned them for cultivation. More agricultural production, meant more revenue and more income for the state., Spread of railways from 1850s created a new demand for, wood for railway tracks, sleepers and fuel., Large areas of natural forests were also cleared for tea,, coffee and rubber plantations., The Rise of Commercial Forestry, National forests with different types of trees were cut down., In their place was planted one type of trees in straight rows., This is called a plantation., Forest officials surveyed forests, estimated the area under, , different types of trees and made working plans for forest, management; they planned how much plantation area to cut, was then to be replanted., The Forest Act of 1878 and its Effects on People’s Lives: It, divided the forests into three categories-reserved, protected and, village forests:, Villagers could not take anything from reserve forests, except for house building or fuel; They could take wood, from protected or village forests., Every day practices like cutting of wood for houses,, grazing cattle, collecting fruits and roots, hunting and, fishing became illegal., People now stole wood, and when caught, bribed the forest, guards; Women were harassed by police constables and, forest guards while collecting fuel wood., Shifting Cultivation, Where plants of the forests are cut and burnt in rotation;, Seeds are sown in the ashes after the monsoon rains and, crops harvested in October–November., Plots are cultivated for a couple of years and then left, fallow for 12–18 years for the forests to grow back., A mixture of crops is grown-like millets, maize and beans., European Ban on Shifting Cultivation and its Effect on, Villagers, European considered it harmful and not fit to grow timber, for railway sleepers., When a forest was burnt, there was the added danger of, flames spreading and burning valuable timber., Shifting cultivation made it difficult for the government to, calculate taxes., Many communities were displaced from forests and had to, change occupations. Some rebelled., Who Could Hunt?, The new forest laws changed the lives of forest dwellers., Villagers who lived in or near forests survived by hunting, deer, partridges and small animals., Hunting became a big sport for the Europeans to such an, extent that various species almost became extinct., Britishers also gave rewards for killing tigers and wolves on, the grounds that they threatened cultivation.
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II.E.18, , New Trades, Employments and Services, Many communities stated trading in forest products like in, Brazil. Villagers began to collect latex from wild rubber, trees to sell to traders., Adivasi communities, who were banned from trading in, forest goods like hides, horns, silk, cocoons, bamboo,, spices, resins, etc, lost their livelihood. Some were labelled, criminal tribes and forced to work in factories, mines and, plantations., Santhals and Oraons worked in tea plantations in Assam., Their wages were low and working conditions are bad., The People of Bastar, Covers southernmost part of Chhattisgarh bordering, Andhra Pradesh, Orissa and Maharashtra, Inhabited by, Muria, Muria Gonds, Dhurwas, Bhatras, Halbas., Nature worshippers believe that land is given by the Earth., They show respect to Earth, rivers, mountains and forests., They look after all the natural resources and pay a small fee, (devsari, dand or man) when they take wood from the, forests of other villages., Watchmen protect their forests and are paid by contribution, of grain from each household., There is one big hunt every year where the headmen of the, villages in a pargana meet and discuss issues., Fears of the People, Some villagers in Bastar were allowed to stay on in, reserved forests on condition that they worked free for the, forest department., They would help in cutting and transporting trees and, protect the forest from fires. These came to be known as, forest villages., Sufferings under Colonial Forest Laws, Cause: The proposal of the colonial government to reserve, two-thirds of forests and banning of shifting cultivation,, hunting and collection of forest produce., People were displaced without notice or compensation;, Villagers suffered from increased land rent and frequent, demands for free labour and goods by British official., Revolt against British Forest Policies in Bastar, People gathered and discussed forest issues is their village, councils, bazaars, at festivals and wherever the headman, and priests of several villages gathered., The leadership was taken by Gunda Dhur of the Dhurwas, of the Kanger forest., , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Mango boughs, a lump of earth, chillies and arrows were, circulated between villages as messages inviting villagers to, rebel., Dutch Laws for Forests in Java, Laws restricted villagers from forests. Now wood could, only be cut for making river boats or constructing houses;, Wood could only be cut from specified forests., Villages were punished for grazing cattle, travelling, through forests with horse carts, or transporting wood, without permit., The Dutch also imposed rents on land being cultivated in, the forests., Regulation of Cultivation in Forests, The need to manage forests for shipbuilding and railways, led to the introduction of forests services., Export of sleepers required labour to cut the trees, transport, the logs and prepare the sleepers., They first imposed rents on land being cultivated in the, forests and later exempted some villages from these rents if, they worked collectively to provide free labour and, buffaloes for cutting and transporting timber., This was known as ‘blandongdiensten’. Later, instead, of new exemption, forest villagers were given small, wages but their right to cultivate forest land was, restricted., Samin’s Challenge, Surontiko Samin of Randublatung, a teak forest village,, questioned the state ownership of the forest., He argued that the state had not created the wind, water,, earth and wood, so it could not own it., A widespread movement developed. Saminsts protested by, lying down on their land, not paying taxes or fines or, perform labour., The Woodcutters of Java, Kalangs of Java, a community of skilled forest cutters and, shifting cultivations were famous as the woodcutters of java, When the Mataram Kingdom of Java split, the 6,000, families (Kalangs) were equally split between the two, kingdoms., They were skilled in harvesting teak that was used to build, palaces of kings, The Dutch began to gain control of the forests in the 18th, century and tried to make the Kalangs work under them., Their rebellion was suppressed by the Dutch.
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Forest Society and Colonialism, , War, Deforestation and Effects, Forest departments cut trees freely to meet British war, needs during World War I and II., Before Japanese invasion of Java, the Dutch followed’ a, scorched earth’ policy, destroying raw mills and burning, huge piles of teak logs so that they did not fall into, Japanese hands., The Japanese forced villagers to recklessly cut down trees, for their was industries., Villagers and Forests After the War, The villagers used the war as an opportunity to expand, cultivation in forests in Java., After the war it was difficult for Indonesian forest services, to get this land back., In India, people’s need for agricultural land has brought, them into conflict with forest department’s desire to control, land and exclude people from it., , II.E.19, , New Developments in Forestry: Governments of Asia and, Africa have realised that people who live near the forests must, be involved to avoid conflicts. Scientific forestry gives, importance to conservation of forests rather than collecting, timber., Similarities between Colonial Management in Bastar and, Java, Both the British in India and the Dutch in Java tried to, control forests., Passed laws and Acts that affected the lives of villagers, and displaced them. Forest entries were restricted and, people could no longer to use forest for their traditional, needs., Both tried to commercially exploit the forest to expand their, income and revenue. British India created plantations of tea, and coffee., , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , Which of the following was the most essential for, colonial trade and movement of goods?, a. Roadways, b. Railways, c. Airways, d. Riverways, , 2., , Who among the following were well-known skilled forest, cutters?, a. Maasais of Africa, b. Kalangas of Java, c. Gonds of Orissa, d. Mundas of Chhotanagpur, , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , Which of the following forest communities is wrongly, matched with the place of their living?, a. Santhals- Jharkhand, b. Gonds - Chhattisgarh, c. Korava- Madras Presidency, d. Oraon- Chhattisgarh, , 7., , Which of these is a commercial crop cultivated by the, British in India?, a. Jute, b. rice, c. wheat, d. apples, , 8., , Where did the British use timber from deforestation?, a. to build ships, b. to build cottages, c. to light wood for fireplaces, d. for cooking, , Which of the following decision was taken by the forest, Act 1879?, a. All forests were to be brought under the control of the, forest Department., b. Forests were to be divided into three categories., c. Forests were to be cleared for cultivation., d. People’s entry to all types of forests was to be, restricted., , 9., , Who was the German expert who became the first, Inspector General of Forests in India?, a. Henry Millten, b. Gunter Grass, c. Dietrich Brandis, d. Hjalmar Schacht, , Latex can be collected from which of the following trees?, a. Rubber tree, b. Eucalyptus tree, c. Deodar tree, d. Pine tree, , 11. Wood most suitable for building railway sleepers is, a. pine, b. oak, c. sal, d. plywood, , Across India, from Mizoram to Kerala. Many forests, thrived because, a. Government restricted cutting-of trees, b. Villages protected forests as sacred groves, c. Local residents resisted cutting of forests, d. Forest with dangerous animals survived as no one, dared to enter these forests, , 10. One type of tree planted in straight rows is called, a. plantation, b. forest, c. farm, d. terrace garden
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A Complete Study Guide For NTSE, , II.E.20, , 12. From the fruit of which tree do you get oil for cooking, and to light lamps?, a. peepal tree, b. mahua tree, c. pine tree, d. oak tree, 13. Which Act banned people of villages form cutting wood,, grazing their cattle and hunting?, a. Criminal Tribes Act, b. Waste Land Act, c. None of these, d. Forest Act, 14. What is the name of shifting cultivation of hidden, agriculture practised traditionally in many parts of Asia,, Africa and South America?, a. milpa, b. tavy, c. jhum, d. all of these, 15. One of the crops grown through shifting cultivation is:, a. wheat, b. rice, c. millet, d. cotton, 16. Which is banned under Colonial Forest Laws?, a. hunting, b. football, c. cricket, d. athletics, 17. Which trees do you get latex from?, a. peepal, b. silk cotton, c. rubber, d. pine, , 20. The tribes of Bastar are called:, a. Maria, b. Muria Gonds, c. Halbas, d. All of these, 21. What is a cluster of villages called?, a. pargana, b. district, c. devsari, , d. panchayat, , 22. One of the ways in which the tribes of Bastar circulated, messages of rebellion against the British was to pass, around:, a. chapatis, b. a lump of earth, c. notes, d. swords, 23. Which colonial power ruled over Java?, a. Portuguese, b. British, c. Dutch, d. French, 24. Who were known as the woodcutters of Java?, a. Bhatras, b. Koravas, c. Santhalas, d. Kalangs, 25. Which policy did the Dutch follow when the Japanese, occupied Java?, a. Scientific Forestry, b. Swidden, c. Scorched earth, d. Blandongdiensten, , ANSWERS, 18. Where did the British in India have their tea plantations?, a. Chhattisgarh, b. Jharkhand, c. Madras, d. Assam, 19. One of the leaders of the forest communities that rebelled, against the British was, a. Chandra Shekhar Azad, b. Birsa Munda, c. Mangal Pandey, d. None of these, , 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , b, , b, , b, , b, , a, , d, , b, , a, , c, , a, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , c, , b, , d, , c, , c, , a, , c, , d, , b, , b, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , a, , b, , c, , d, , c
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Modern World: Pastoralists,, Peasants and Farmers, , Modern World: Pastoralists, Peasants and Farmers, , 5, , Nomads are known as a group of communities who travel, from place to place for their livelihood. Some are salt traders,, fortune-tellers, conjurers, ayurvedic healers, jugglers,, acrobats, story tellers, snake charmers, animal doctors,, tattooists, grindstone makers, or basket makers. The nomadic, communities in India can be broadly divided into three, groups hunter gatherers, pastoralists and the peripatetic or, non-food producing groups. Among these, peripatetic nomads, are the most neglected and discriminated social group in, India. They have lost their livelihood niche because of drastic, changes in transport, industries, production, entertainment, and distribution systems. Nomads are still not facilitated with, any constitutional safeguard even they are poor and deprived., Importance of pastoralism in societies and how colonialism, impacted the lives of pastoralists in countries like India and, Africa and how they have coped with the pressures of modern, society. Nomads are people who do not live in one place but, move from one to another to earn their living. They herd, goats and sheep, camels and cattle., Note, The nomadic pastorals’ was a result of the Neolithic revolution., During the revolution, humans began domesticating animals, and plants for food and started forming cities. Nomads’, generally has existed in symbiosis with such settled cultures, trading animal products (meat, hides, wool, cheeses and other, animal products) for manufactured items not produced by the, nomadic herders., Pastoral nomadism is a form of subsistence agriculture, (farming to eat) based on the herding of domesticated animals., The word pastoral means sheep herding. Pastoral nomads are, producers of food, and the size of their tribal or ethnic units, increases accordingly. These groups raise livestock, and they, move about within their established territory to find good, pastures for their animals., In the Mountains, Gujjar or Bakarwals, herders of goat and sheep, are from, Jammu and Kashmir. In winter when the high mountains, are covered with snow, they come down with their herds, to the low ranges of the Sivalik., , II.E.21, , The Gaddi shepherds of Himachal Pradesh too spend their, winters in the lower ranges of the Sivalik where their, graze on the dry scrub forests., The Kurumas and Kurubas herd sheep and goats and sell, woven blankets., They also engage in pottery trades, cultivate small patches, of land. Their movements depend on the monsoons,, avoiding the wet monsoon for sheep Uttar Pradesh,, Punjab, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra., Banjaras: Herd cattle, barter plough cattle and other, goods to villagers for grain and fodder, Movements, depend on search for good pastures., The pastoral Dhangars of Maharashtra herded sheep,, wove blankets and herded buffaloes. They stayed in the, central plateau of low rainfall and thorny scrub. In the, monsoon, this tract became a vast grazing ground for the, flocks., Rajasthan: Raikas combine cultivation with pastoralism., When pastures in one place become dry and exhausted,, move in search of pasture and water. They follow the, monsoon., Waste Land Act, Under this Act, all uncultivated land was taken over and, given to select individuals. Some were made village, headmen; The individuals were granted concessions and, encouraged to make the land cultivable., Most of these lands were grazing tracts leading to decline, of decline of pastures and posed problems for pastoralists., Forest Acts, Through these Acts, some forests which produced, commercially valuable timber like Deodar and Sal were, declared ‘Reserved’; No pastoralists were allowed to enter, these forests., Some forests were classified ‘Protected’ where the, movements of pastoralists were restricted and they could, enter only with a permit. They were fined if they, overstayed., Criminal Tribes Act, In 1871 the British passed the Criminal Tribes Act by, which all nomadic communities were classified criminals;
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II.E.22, , All these Acts led to a serious shortage of pastures, in turn, leading to intensive, continuous grazing of the remaining, pastures., This exhausted the pastures as there was no time for natural, restoration of vegetation growth. The quality of pastures, declined; this led to the deterioration of animal stock., Underfed cattle died during scarcities and famine., Pastoral Nomads in Africa, In Africa there are pastoral communities like Bedouins,, Maasai, Somali, Boran, Turkana., Most of them now live in semi-arid grasslands or arid, deserts where rainfed agriculture is difficult and raise cattle,, camel, goat, sheep, donkey, they sell milk, meat, animal, skin, wool., Effects of Colonialism, Maasai lost their best grazing ground and were pushed into, a small area in south Kenya and North Tanzania-an arid, zone, with poor pastures and uncertain rainfall in 1885;, Large areas of grazing land turned into game reserves like, Maasai Mara and Samburu National Park in Kenya., Pastoralists not allowed entering reserves, nor hunting or, grazing their herds. The loss of land and water resources, created pressure on the small land. Continued grazing, exhausted and declined the quality of pastures. Fodder was, in short supply., Social Hierarchy in Maasai Society, Maasai society divided into two social categories – elders, and warriors. Elder formed the ruling group, decided affairs, of community, settled disputes., Warriors, younger people, responsible for protection of, tribe – organised cattle raids which was important as cattle, was considered wealth., The Coming of Modern Agriculture in England, Enclosing of the common land started in the 18th century, which the poor could neither entre nor use; Each peasant, was given a mix of good and bad land to cultivate., Common land used by everybody to collect berries,, firewood, hunt animals and fish in the ponds., Demand for Grain, Early enclosures were for sheep farmers whereas later ones, were for grain production., Due to industrialisation, the war with France, and, population increase in England, the demand for grain went, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , up; The production of grain increased by bringing more, land under cultivation., Impact, Landlords became rich; the poor could no longer collect, firewood, graze their cattle, or collect meat and fruit and at, some places, were displaced from the land., Labourers did not live with the landowners; the 1800 they, were paid wages and employed only at harvest time;, Threshing machines were introduced to reduce dependence, on workers., Bread Basket and Dust Bowl, Till 1780, white American settlements were confined to a, narrow coastal area in the east; Many Native Americans, were nomads and hunter gatherers living by hunting,, fishing and trapping., By the early 20th century the landscape was transformed as, white Americans moved westwards displacing local tribes, and farming new areas., Westward Movement, After the American War of Independence, the white, Americans moved westward from 1775 to 1783; they cut, forests, cultivated land, hunted animals for their skins and, mined for gold and minerals., For this, the Native Americans had to be removed; in which, the Native Americans were massacred, villages were burnt,, and forests were cleared to be cultivated., USA became a major wheat producer., Introduction of New Technology, Demand for wheat and wheat production increased, dramatically from late 19th century to the 20th century., Helped by the new technology like mechanical reapers and, ploughs pulled by tractors, four men could plough, seed and, harvest 2000 to 4000 acres of wheat in a season., Impact, Machines brought misery to the poor farmers., By the end of World War I, there was a large surplus of, wheat, price of wheat fell but the export market collapsed., This caused the great agrarian depression of the 1930s, which also led to environmental disasters., Dust storms became blizzards because the land had been, stripped bare and people were blinded and cattle got, suffocated with the dust., The whole region had become a dust bowl and the ecology, of the region had to be protected.
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Modern World: Pastoralists, Peasants and Farmers, , II.E.23, , Indian Farmers and Opium Production, British rile was established gradually after the Battle of, Plassey (1757)., Land revenue was seen as major source of government, income., The British sought to regularise land revenue, increase its, land, and bring more land under cultivation., Land under forests and pastures declined and problems, came up for peasants and pastoralists., In the early 19th century, indigo and opium were produced, and by the end of the century, sugarcane, cotton and jute, were produced., Indian peasant were cultivating to feed the population of, urban Europe and to supply the mills of Lancashire., , Trade with China, Opium production is linked with British trade with China as, British were buying tea and silk from China., By 1830, 30 million pounds of tea was imported from, China and in turn, China did not allow the entry of foreign, merchants or goods leading to an unequal balance of trade, and outflow of treasure from England., Thus, Western merchants in mid-eighteenth century began, an illegal trade of opium., By 1835, 35,000 crates were being unloaded every year to, China which led to the Chinese becoming addicted to, opium., The returns from opium sale financed the tea purchases in, China., , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , 2., , c. they increased the fertility of the soil, d. all of these, , The Enclosure Movement was aimed at:, a. Building more houses, b. Giving land to the villagers, c. Encasing the common land, d. All of these, , 7., , The early Enclosure Movement was:, a. to use land for grazing sheep, b. to use land for grazing cows, c. to grow wheat, d. all of these, , The Native Americans had to be removed because:, a. the white settlers wanted to settle in the west, b. they wanted to grow grain, c. they wanted to dominate, d. All of these, , 8., , The mechanisation of agriculture:, a. brought misery to the poor farmers, b. made it possible to plough, seed and harvest large, tracts of land, c. dramatically increased production of grain, d. all of the above, , 9., , America turned into a dust bowl in the 1930s because:, a. the entire landscape has been ploughed and stripped, of grass, b. machines were used in agriculture, c. forests were cut, d. none of the above, , 3., , Between 1750 and 1850 how much land was enclosed?, a. 5 million acres, b. 6 million acres, c. 7 million acres, d. none of these, , 4., , How much did the British population, between1750 to 1900?, a. it doubled, b. four times, c. increase three-fold, d. none of these, , 5., , Demand for food grains increased in England in late, century nineteenth because of:, a. increase in population, b. migration from rural areas to urban areas, c. Napoleonic Wars disrupted of food grains from, Europe, d. all of the above, , 6., , multiply, , Farmers in England grew turnip and clover regularly, because:, a. it was easy to grow them, b. there was a great demand for them, , 10. Which was the commodity that the British sold to the, Chinese?, a. Cloth, b. Tea, c. Opium, d. Indigo, 11. Indian farmers were not keen to grow opium because:, a. they did not get a good price for it, b. it required a lot of labour, c. it made the soil infertile, d. all of these
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II.E.24, , 12. By 1870, the government was exporting the following, number of chests of opium annually, a. 40, 000, b. 50,000, c. 60,000, d. 70,000, 13. In which state of India are the Gujjar or Bakarwals found?, a. Rajasthan, b. Jammu and Kashmir, c. Maharashtra, d. Gujarat, 14. Which of the following African pastoral groups lived in the, regions of Kenya and Tanzania?, a. Somali, b. Bedouin c. Boran, d. Maasai, 15. Which of the following factors determine the seasonal, rhythms of movement of the Kuruma and Kurubas of, Andhra region?, a. Cold and snow, b. Alternating of monsoon and dry season, c. Climatic disturbances, d. Drought or flood, 16. Which of the following refers to Bugyal?, a. Large cultivated area in plains, b. Coastal regions of Kerala, c. Hilly regions in the Aravallis, d. Vast meadows in the high mountains, 17. Where is Serengeti National Park situated?, a. Kenya, b. Tanzania c. Zambia, d. Uganda, 18. What is the dry forested area of Kumaon and Garhwal, called?, a. Bugyal, b. Bhabar, c. Desert forest, d. Arid zone, 19. Dhangars were an important pastoral community of, a. Uttar Pradesh, b. Jammu and Kashmir, c. Maharashtra, d. Himachal Pradesh, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 24. Why did the landlords and farmers decide to buy, threshing machines?, a. To increase profit from land, b. To reduce their dependence on labourers, c. To bring more land under cultivation, d. To prevent the labourers from toiling day and night, 25. By selling which of the following items to China, did the, British regularly collect money for purchasing tea from, that county?, a. Opium, b. Jute, c. Cotton, d. Sugarcane, 26. Ordinary dust storm took the form of the Black Blizzard, in US plains in 1930 because, a. The entire ploughed landscape was stripped of all grass, which earlier held the land together, b. There was no rainfall in the region for a very long time, c. The whole plain was an arid zone without much, vegetation, d. The area faced heavy flooding, 27. In which area between 1820 and 1850, did the Indian, Americans settle down?, a. Apalachian Plateau, b. Mississippi Valley, c. Texas region, d. Nevada, 28. How did poor pastoralists in Africa earn their living after, they lost their grazing tracks to colonialists?, a. cooking, b. hunting, c. teaching, d. as charcoal burners, 29. Traditionally, who within the Maasai community were in, charge of settling disputes?, a. warriors, b. elders, c. women, d. all of them, , 20. Maru Raikas, and their settlement is called a, a. Dhandi, b. Bhabar, c. Desert, d. Handia, , 30. Traditionally, who within the Maasai community were in, charge of raiding?, a. elders, b. women, c. women, d. all of them, , 21. Gujjar and Bakarwals of Jammu and Kashmir are great, herders of, a. Horse and cow, b. Deer and bear, c. Goat and sheep, d. Horse and buffalo, , 31. What are the areas that African pastoralists were not, allowed to enter?, a. white areas, b. game reserves, c. across imperial border, d. all of these, , 22. Which battle established British supremacy in India?, a. The Battle of Panipat, b. The Battle of Plassey, c. The Battle of Mysore, d. The Battle of Samergarh, , 32. What were large areas of grazing land converted into in, Africa?, a. game reserves, b. bazaars, c. highways, d. white areas, , 23. Who among the following invented the first mechanical, reaper?, a. Eli Whitney, b. Cyrus McCormick, c. James Hargreaves, d. Arkwright, , 33. Which European powers cut Maasai land into half?, a. France and Holland, b. Britain and Germany, c. Portugal and Spain, d. Italy and Britain
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Modern World: Pastoralists, Peasants and Farmers, , II.E.25, , 34. Which one is a tribe of Africa?, a. Berbers, b. Somali, c. Bedouins, d. All of these, 35. Which pastoral tribe in India has migrated to Haryana in, search of new grazing ground for their sheep?, a. Gujjar/Bakarwals, b. Kurubas, c. Raikas, d. Gollas, 36. Under which Act were grazing grounds converted to, cultivated farms in India?, a. Waste Land Act, b. Criminal Tribes Act, c. Forest Act, d. Press Act, 37. Which trees did the British plant/cultivate for their, commercially valuable timber?, a. peepal, b. deodar, c. pine, d. banyan, 38. Which pastoral community inhabits Maharashtra?, a. Kurumas, b. Kurubascolton, c. Gollas, d. Dhangars, 39. Which one is a pastoral community of the Himalayas?, a. Bhotiyas, b. Stupas, c. Kinnauris, d. All of these, 40. A word that means ‘high meadows’ ________., a. bhabar, b. bajra, c. bugyal, d. kharif, 41. In which part of Himachal does the Gaddi shepherds, farm?, a. Lahul and Spiti, b. Manali, c. Kumaon, d. Garhwal, 42. Several households came together for this journey, forming what is known as __., a. Sarai, b. Kafila, c. Shamiana, d. Mehfil, 43. Which area became out of bounds for the Railkas after the, partition of India?, a. Punjab, b. Karachi, c. Balochistan, d. Sindh, 44. Which crop does the Dhangar community cultivate?, a. wheat, b. rice, c. bajra, d. cotton, 45. Pastoral nomads move in search of _________, a. food, b. livelihood, c. water, d. settlements, , 46. In which of the following year and by whom was Maasai, land divided into two regions?, a. In 1885 by Europens, b. In 1887 by Australians, c. In 1888 by Americans, d. In 1889 by the British, 47. Which of the following options refers to the changes, brought about by the enactment of Waste Land Rules?, a. All sterile lands were declared as waste land., b. Farmers were compelled to cultivate waste lands, c. All uncultivated land was taken over by the, government and given to selected individuals., d. Pastoralists were made to settle in waste lands., 48. Why did feeding the cattle become a persistent problem, for the Maasais?, a. Because continuous grazing in small area deteriorated, the quality of pasture., b. Because maasais were confined to a small area., c. Because massais lived in an arid zone without any grass., d. Because massais began to cultivate Pastoral land., 49. Why did poor peasants resort to riots to protest against the, use of threshing machines?, a. Threshing machines hand become a sign of, unemployment and bad times., b. They were opposed to machines., c. They found the machines too difficult to operate., d. The peasants were too poor to buy threshing machines., 50. Which of the following is the most important cause of the, Great Agrarian Depression?, a. Closure of banks, b. Closure of factories, c. Over production and fall of agricultural prices, d. Crash of stock market, ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , d, , a, , b, , b, , d, , c, , a, , d, , a, , 10., c, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , d, , b, , b, , d, , b, , d, , b, , b, , c, , a, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , c, , b, , b, , b, , a, , a, , b, , d, , b, , c, , 31., , 32., , 33., , 34., , 35., , 36., , 37., , 38., , 39., , 40., , d, , a, , b, , d, , c, , a, , b, , d, , d, , c, , 41., , 42., , 43., , 44., , 45., , 46., , 47., , 48., , 49., , 50., , a, , b, , 4, , c, , b, , a, , c, , a, , a, , c, ,
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II.E.26, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 6, The importance of cricket and its evolution as more than just a, game and how the history of the game was linked to the social, history of the time. Cricket grew out of stick and ball games, played in England; Game was linked to the wider history of, colonialism and nationalism. The social economic history in, the 18th and 19th centuries shaped the game of Cricket and its, unique history; Cricket rules codified after the Industrial, Revolution., Unlike golf and tennis, cricket equipment is made of natural, pre-industrial materials, i.e., Cricket has refused to re-make, tools with plastic, fibreglass and metal However, cricket, has used technology in protective gear like pads and gloves, , Note, In cricket only the length of the pitch, i.e., 22 yards is, specified. The shape of the ground can be oval or round and, the vagueness of the cricket ground is due to its village, origins. Cricket was the earliest modern game to be, codified. ‘Laws of cricket’ were drawn up in 1744 in which, it was decided that umpires would decide all disputes. The, first cricket club in Hambledon was formed in the 1760s,, the MCC was founded in 1787; MCC’s revision of the laws, brought in a series of changes that took place in cricket in, the 1760s and 1770s., Test matches can go on for 5 days and end in a draw which, does not happen in any other sport., Cricket and Victorian England, Organisation of cricket in England reflected the nature of, England society; Rich played for pleasure and were called, amateurs and Gentlemen while the poor who played were, called professionals and players., Amateurs tended to be batsmen while the laborious aspect, of the game like bowling was done by professionals, Team sports like cricket and rugby were an organised way, of teaching English boys discipline, hierarchy, skills, code, of honors and leadership qualities., Spread of Cricket, Cricket was limited to those countries that were British, colonies., The Afro-Caribbean population was discouraged from, , Sports and Clothing, participating in organised club cricket; In spite of all this,, the game was very popular in the Caribbean., Modern Transformation of Cricket, Modern cricket is dominated by Test matches and One-day, Internationals played between national teams., India entered the world of Test cricket in 1932., After World War II most Asian and African colonies gained, independence., The business of cricket was controlled by the ICC (Imperial, Cricket Conference) renamed as International Cricket, Conference as late as in 1965., England and Australia had veto power which was scrapped, only in 1989., Colonial flavour was evident as England, Australia and, New Zealand continued to play cricket with South Africa in, the 1950s and 1960s despite their policy of apartheid; the, rest of the countries had boycotted South Africa., Cricket, Race and Religion, Cricket was organised on the principle of race and religion., First Indian club was the Calcutta Cricket Club established, in 1792., The sport was played mainly by British military men and, civil servants in all white clubs., Origin of Indian cricket was found in Bombay where the, small community of Parsis built their own cricket, gymkhana., The rivalry between the Parsi Gymkhana and Bombay, Gymkhana came to an end in 1889., The Parsi Gymkhana became precedent for other Indians, who established clubs based on religious communities, e.g., Hindu and Muslim. Gymkhana cricket led to first class, cricket being organised on communal and racial lines, e.g., Ranji Trophy., Commerce, Media and Cricket Today, 1970s was the decade of the transformation of cricketSouth Africa was excluded from international cricket in, 1970; In 1971 the first One-day international was played, between England and Australia., Coloured dress, protective helmets, cricket under lights,, filed restrictions were introduced.
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Sports and Clothing, , Cricketers became celebrities and cricket Boards made huge, money from advertisements as television coverage changed, cricket and expanded audiences to small towns and villages., India has the largest viewership among cricket playing, nations and the largest market. The game’s centre of gravity, has shifted to Asia and the contribution of India, Pakistan and, Sri Lanka is immense, ‘Doosra’ and ‘reverse swing’ were innovations which Britain, and Australia did not like but were accepted ultimately by, bowlers all over the world, Clothing: a Social History, How colonisation, democratic movements, capitalism and the, growth of an industrial society influenced and changed the, way people thought about dress and its meanings form the, 18th and 19th centuries., Sumptuary Laws and Social Hierarchy, The French followed sumptuary laws (dress codes) that, controlled the behaviour of the socially inferior. They were, prevented from wearing certain clothes, consuming certain, foods and beverages and hunting game in certain areas., The French Revolution ended these distinctions. The, Jacobins called themselves ‘sans culottes’ (meaning without, knee breeches) to distinguish themselves from the aristocracy, who wore fashionable ‘knee breeches’, The men and women both stared, wearing loose and, comfortable clothing. The colours of France were worn blue,, white and red as a sign of patriotism. The political symbols, were part of the dress red cap of liberty, long trousers and the, revolutionary cockade pinned onto a hat. The equality can be, expressed by simplicity of clothing., Clothing and Notions of Beauty, Women in Victorian England were groomed to be docile,, dutiful, and submissive to bear pain. Norms of clothing, reflected these ideals. Girls were tightly laced up and dressed, in stays., The idea was to restrict the growth of their bodies and, contain them within small moulds. The tight fitting corsets, had to wear older girls. Tightly laced, small waist was, admired as attractive and graceful., Reaction of Women, By the 1830s, as women in England began agitating for, democratic rights (suffrage) many began campaigning for, dress reforms., Women’s magazines described how tight dresses and corsets, , II.E.27, , caused deformities and illness. Such clothing restricted body, growth and hampered blood circulation., Reformers faced ridicule and hostility from conservatives., Their arguments-women who gave up traditional norms of, dressing no longer looked beautiful and lost their femininity, and grace., Transformations in Colonial India, The wealthy Parsis of western India started wearing baggy, trousers and the phenta (hat) along with long collarless coats,, boots and a walking stick; some wore western clothes, without giving up their Indian ones. Bengali bureaucrats, began stocking western style clothes for work outside the, home and changed into more comfortable Indian clothes at, home., Western and Indian forms of dressing and to some western, clothes were a sign of modernity and progress., New Times and New Materials, Before the 17th century, ordinary women in Britain possessed, very few clothes made of flax, linen or wool, which were, difficult to clean., After 1600, trade with India brought cheap, beautiful and, easy to maintain chintzes within the reach of many, Europeans, During the Industrial Revolution, cotton clothes became, accessible to a wider section of people in Europe. Later,, artificial fibres made clothes cheaper, easier to wash and, maintain., In the late 1870s, heavy restrictive underclothes were, discarded and clothes got lighter, shorter and simpler., The War, Clothes became plainer, simpler and social barriers were, eroded as women across classes began to dress in similar, ways., Clothes became more practical during World War I as, women were employed in ammunition factories, they wore a, ‘working uniform’ of blouse and trousers with scarves, which, was later replaced by khaki overalls and caps, Bright colours were replaced by sober colours as the war, dragged on. Skirts became shorter. Women took to cutting, their hair short for convenience, School: New schools for children emphasised the, importance of plain dressing, discouraged ornamentation,, games and gymnastics became a part of the school, curriculum for women.
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II.E.28, , Caste Conflict and Dress Change, The caste system in India defined its own strict social codes, of food and dress. These codes had the force of law., In May 1822, women of the Shanar caste were attacked by, upper caste Nairs in public places for wearing a cloth across, their upper bodies., Under the influence of Christian missionaries in 1820s,, Shanar women converts began to wear tailored blouses and, clothes to cover themselves like upper castes., The abolition of slavery in Travancore in 1855 frustrated, the upper castes who felt they were losing control., Riots broke out in 1859, women were attacked in market, places and stripped of their upper clothes, houses were, robbed and chapels buried., Finally the government issued another proclamation, permitting Shanar women, Christian or Hindu, to wear a, jacket or cover their upper bodies in any manner whatever,, but not like the women of high caste’., British Rule and Dress Codes, In different cultures, specific items of clothing often convey, contrary meanings leading to misunderstanding and, conflict., Turban and Hat, When European traders first came to India, they were, distinguished from the India ‘turban wearers’ as ‘hat, wearers’., The turban in India was not just for protection from the beat, but a sign of respectability and could not be removed at, will; Many Indians also wore the turban to assert their, regional or national identity., Shoes, In 1824–828, Governor-General Amherst insisted that, Indians take their shoes off as sign of respect when they, appeared before him. Lord Dalhousie made ‘Shoe respect’, stricter and Indians were made to take off their shoes when, entering government institutions, only those who wore, European clothes were exempted., Since Indians took off their shoes when entering a sacred, place or home, the British felt they should do so when they, entered the courtroom different from homes., Designing the National Dress, As nationalist feelings swept across India, Indians began, designing cultural symbols that would express the unity of, the nation, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Tagores: The Tagore Family of Bengal experimented with, designs for a national dress. Rabindranath Tagore suggested, that India’s national dress should combine elements of, Hindu and Muslim dress., Thus the chapkan (a long buttoned coat) was considered the, most suitable dress for men., Jnanadanandini Devi, wife of Satyendranath Tagore, the, first Indian ICS, adopted the Parsi style of wearing the sari, pinned to the left shoulder with a brooch and worn with a, blouse and shoes which was adopted by the Brahmo Samaj, women and came to be known as Brahmika sari., The Swadeshi Movement, Industrial Revolution in England mechanised spinning and, weaving and greatly increased the demand for raw, materials such as cotton and indigo., As Britain politically controlled India, peasants were forced, to grow indigo and cheap British textile replaced coarser, Indian textile., Large numbers of Indian weavers and spinners were left, without work and textile weaving centres at Murshidabad,, Surat, etc. declined., By the middle of the 20th century, large numbers of people, began boycotting British mill made cloth and adopting, coarser and more expensive khadi., Use of khadi was made a patriotic duty. Women were urged, to throw away their silks and glass bangles and wear simple, shell bangles. Rough homespun was glorified in songs and, poems to popularise it., The experiment with khadi gave Gandhi ji ideas about, using cloth as a symbolic weapon against British rule., Mahatma Gandhi’s Experiments with Clothing, Made spinning on the charkha and the daily use of khadi, very powerful symbols of self-reliance and resistance to the, use of British mill-made cloth., While studying law in London as a boy of 19 years in 1988,, he cut off the tuft on his head and dressed in a Western suit, to avoid ridicule; In Johannesburg, as a lawyer, and even on, his return, he still wore western clothes., He decided to dress ‘unsuitably’ as a powerful political, statement in a kurta with his head shaven as a sign of, mourning to protest against the shooting of Indian coal, miners., On his return in 1915, he dressed like a kathiawadi peasant, and in 1921, he adopted the short dhoti and wore it until his, death.
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Sports and Clothing, , Khadi, white and coarse, was to him a sign of purity, of, simplicity and a poverty. Wearing it became a symbol of, nationalism., He wore the short dhoti without a shirt when he went to, England for the Round Table Conference in 1931. He, refused to compromise and wore it before king George V., at Buckingham palace., Mahatma Gandhi’s dream was to clothe the whole nation in, khadi. He felt khadi would be a means of erasing, differences between religion and classes., , II.E.29, , Nationalists like Moti Lal Nehru gave up their expensive, western style suits and adopted the Indian dhoti and kurta, made of fine cloth., , Those who had been deprived by caste norms for centuries, were attracted to western style dressing, for example,, Babasaheb Ambedkar and many dalits as a political, statement of self-respect., Other women, like Sarojini Naidu and Kamala Nehru wore, coloured saris with designs, instead of coarse, white homespun., , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , 2., 3., , 4., , 5., , Imperial Cricket Conference (ICC) was renamed the, International Cricket Conference as late as, a. 1955, b. 1965, c. 1976, d. 1980, The first written ‘Laws of Cricket’ were drawn up in, a. 1644, b. 1844, c. 1944, d. 1744, The first Indian club, the Calcutta Cricket Club, was, established in, a. 1890, b. 1992, c. 1792, d. 1900, The stumps must be 22 inches high and the bail across, them, a. Eight inches, b. Six inches, c. Four inches, d. Five inches, First One day International World Cup was successfully, staged in, a. 1979, b. 1970, c. 1975, d. 1978, , 6., , India was represented in the hockey competition of the, Olympic Games for the first time in, a. 1920, b. 1944, c. 1904, d. 1928, , 7., , Which of the following dresses in not associated with, Gandhi ji?, a. Lungi and Kurta, b. Khadi loincloth or dhoti, c. Sherwani, d. Western style suit, , 8., , 9., , Which of the following was the official residence of, British King George V?, a. White House, b. Buckingham Palace, c. 10 Downing Street, d. Winter Palace, In France which of the following was the only class who, could use materials like ermine, fur and silk?, a. Royalty, b. Nobility c. Clergy, d. Commons, , 10. Simplicity of cloths was the symbol of which of the, following?, a. Liberty, b. Fraternity, c. Equality, d. All of these, , 11. The first One Day International was played between:, a. India and Australia, b. India and England, c. England and West Indies d. England and Australia, 12. The name of the Australian tycoon who saw cricket’s, money-making potential was:, a. Dennis Lille, b. Kerry Packer, c. Frank Worrall, d. Forbes, 13. The first Indian cricket club was:, a. Delhi Gymkhana, b. Calcutta Cricket Club, c. Bombay Gymkhana, d. Parsi Gymkhana, 14. Which of the following is not a cricket playing country?, a. India, b. Sri Lanka c. Pakistan d. China, 15. The length of the pitch is a specified:, a. 20 yards, b. 21 yards c. 22 yards, , d. 25 yards, , 16. World’s first cricket club was formed in:, a. Hambledon b. Calcutta, c. Marylebone, d. Yorkshire, 17. The ‘doosra’ and the ‘reverse swing’ were pioneered by:, a. India, b. Pakistan, c. Australia, d. England, 18. The earliest modern sport to be codified was:, a. cricket, b. football, c. hockey, d. rugby, 19. Which changes were introduced in cricket in the 19th, century?, a. rule about wide balls, b. boundaries, c. all shots had to be a run, d. all of these, 20. Which laws or rights spelt out dress codes for the French, society?, a. sumptuary laws, b. fundamental rights, c. judicial laws, d. constitutional laws, 21. Which clothing material were the lower classes barred, from using?
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II.E.30, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , a. ermine, b. silk, c. brocade, d. all of them, 22. What did the Jacobins not wear to distinguish themselves, from the aristocracy?, a. knee breeches b. shoes c. hat, d. jacket, 23. Which of these became a political symbol in France?, a. Shoes, b. Jacket, c. Cockade pinned on to a hat, d. Handkerchief, , 34. Who famously defied the ‘shoe respect’ in a Surat court, room?, a. Manockjee Cowasjee Entee, b. Gandhi ji, c. Sarojini Naidu, d. Rabindranath Tagore, , 24. After the French Revolution the simplicity of clothing in, French was meant to express which one of the following?, a. equality, b. brotherhood, c. justice, d. democracy, , 36. Political control of India helped the British to force the, farmers to grow which crop?, a. tea, b. coffee, c. indigo, d. wheat, , 25. Which of these was a very important part of women’s, clothing Victorian England?, a. slays, b. corsets, c. long skirts, d. all of these, , 37. Murshidabad, Machilipatnam and Surat under the British, were all __, a. port cities, b. textile weaving centres, c. farmlands, d. presidencies, , 26. Who believed that women who gave up traditional norms, of dressing lost their beauty femininity and grace?, a. Liberals, b. Reformers, c. Conservatives, d. Socialists, , 38. Which movement was launched in 1905 to counter the, partition of Bengal?, a. Swadeshi Movement, b. Non-cooperation Movement, c. Quit India Movement, d. Satyagraha, , 27. Which material imported from Indian after 1600 changed the, size of European’s wardrobes?, a. flax, b. linen, c. wool, d. chintzes, 28. Who wore the ‘phenta’ in India?, a. Bengalis, b. Parsis, c. British, , d. Christians, , 29. Which social group in India found Western style clothing, liberating?, a. Dalits, b. Parsis, c. Bengalis d. Women, 30. Men and women of which caste were not allowed to, cover the upper parts of their bodies?, a. Dalits, b. Nairs, c. Shanars, d. None of these, 31. Which State abolished slavery in 1855?, a. Mysore, b. Hyderabad, c. Carnatic, d. Travancore, , 35. Who designed a national dress combining elements of, Hindu and Muslim dress?, a. Sarojini Naidu, b. Jnanadanandini Tagore, c. Lady Bachoobai, d. Rabindranath Tagore, , 39. What became a symbol of purity, simplicity, poverty and, self-reliance?, a. khadi, b. charkha, c. shell-bangles, d. saris, 40. Woman usually wore traditional dresses because, a. They were dutiful and docile, b. These clothes helped in creating the expected image of, girls, c. Woman were trained to bear and suffer, d. Woman looked graceful in these dresses, ANSWERS, 1., , 32. Which part of a person’s attire asserted their identity in, India?, a. dhoti, b. chaddar c. turban, d. hat, 33. Which Governor General of India made ‘shoe respect’, stricter?, a. Amherst, b. Dalhousie c. Canning d. Minto, , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , b, , d, , c, , b, , c, , d, , c, , b, , a, , a, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , d, , b, , c, , d, , c, , a, , b, , a, , d, , b, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , d, , a, , c, , a, , d, , c, , d, , b, , a, , c, , 31., , 32., , 33., , 34., , 35., , 36., , 37., , 38., , 39., , 40., , d, , c, , b, , a, , d, , c, , b, , a, , a, , d, ,
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Sports and Clothing, , II.E.31, , 7, , Nationalism in Europe, , 00000000, Nationalism, in France, 1830–1848, , Nationalism, among Balkans, 1871–1914, , Nationalism in, Britain, 1688–1801, , Nationalism in, Europe, 1789–1914, , Unification of, Italy, 1830–1861, , Unification of, Germany, 1866–1871, , In 1848 Frederic Sorrieu a French artist visualised his dream of, a world made up of Democratic and Social Republics. The, prints show the people of Europe and America marching in a, long train, and offering homage to the statue of Liberty as they, pass by it. Statue of Liberty bears the torch of Enlightenment in, one hand and the Charter of the Rights of Man in the other., They have been used by the artist to symbolize fraternity, among the nations of the world. Nationalism emerged as a, force which brought about sweeping changes in the political, and mental world of Europe., The American Revolution had its impact on the French who, groaned under tyrannical monarchy. When the French, volunteers led by general La Fayette returned to France from, the colonies they sowed the seeds of revolution on their native, soil, thus, paving the way for the outbreak of the French, Revolution in 1789, swept away the existing political, institutions and aimed at establishing a more egalitarian society, and responsible government than what existed before., Due to the French revolution of 1789 the idea of National state, and National identity emerged., Note, Nationalism was an important factor in the development of, Europe. In the 19th century, a wave of romantic nationalism, swept the European continent, transforming its countries., Some newly formed countries, such as Germany, Italy and, Romania were formed by uniting various regional states, , with a common "national identity". Others, such as Greece,, Poland and Bulgaria, were formed by winning their, independence. More concisely, nationalism better defined, these countries., The French Revolution paved the way for the modern, nation-state and also played a key role in the birth of, nationalism. Across Europe radical intellectuals, influenced, by Napoleon and the Napoleonic Code the instrument for, the political transformation of Europe. Revolutionary, armies carried the slogan of "liberty, equality and, brotherhood" and ideas of liberalism and national selfdeterminism. National awakening also grew out of an, intellectual reaction to the Enlightenment that emphasised, national identity., The Making of Nationalism in Germany and Italy, In the mid of the 18th century in Europe there were no, nation states as we know of them today., Germany and Italy were divided into kingdoms. Eastern, and central Europe was under autocratic rule with in the, territories lived people of diverse cultures., The Habsburg empire that ruled over Austria-Hungary, for, example, was an area having intense diversity of culture, and language too. It includes the Alpine regions-the Tyrol,, Austria and Sudetenland –as well as Bohemia, where the, aristocracy was predominantly German speaking. It also, included the Italian speaking provinces of Lombardy and, Venetia., Thus such differences did not easily promote a sense of, political unity. The only tie binding them was a common, kingdom. Through the 19th century nationalist feeling kept, arising but the autocracy and the clergy suppressed most of it., “Liberalism” means free. For the new middle classes, liberalism stood for freedom for the individual and equality of, all before the law. Politically, it emphasised the concept of, government by consent. Yet equality before the law did not, necessarily stand for universal suffrage. In the economic, sphere, liberalism stood for the freedom of markets and the, abolition of state-imposed restrictions on the movement of, goods and capital.
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.E.32, , French Revolution: French Revolution and rise of Napoleon, described himself as the “Child of Revolution”. In modern, European history, the French Revolution began in 1789 and, ended in the late 1790s with the ascent of Napoleon Bonaparte., During this period, French citizens rased and redesigned their, country’s political landscape, uprooting centuries-old, institutions such as absolute monarchy and the feudal system., Like the American Revolution before it, the French Revolution, was influenced by Enlightenment ideals, particularly the, concepts of popular sovereignty and inalienable rights., On June 12, as the National Assembly (known as the National, Constituent Assembly during its work on a constitution), continued to meet at Versailles, fear and violence consumed, the capital. Though enthusiastic about the recent breakdown of, royal power, Parisians grew panicked as rumors of an, impending military coup began to circulate. A popular, insurgency culminated on July 14 when rioters stormed the, Bastille fortress in an attempt to secure gunpowder and, weapons; many consider this event, now commemorated in, France as a national holiday, as the start of the French, Revolution., On August 4, the Assembly adopted the Declaration of the, Rights of Man and of the Citizen (“Déclaration des droits de, l’homme et du citoyen”), a statement of democratic principles, grounded in the philosophical and political ideas of, Enlightenment thinkers like Jean-Jacques Rousseau (17121778). The document proclaimed the Assembly’s commitment, to replace the ancient régime with a system based on equal, opportunity, freedom of speech, popular sovereignty and, representative government., Causes of Rise of Nationalism in Europe: Working class, population or middle classes made up of industrialists, businessmen, professionals. It was among the educated, liberal, middle classes ideas of national unity following the abolition of, aristocratic privileges gained popularity. Many writers, poets,, statesmen, politicians and philosophers, etc. also made valuable, contribution to the growth of nationalism. Machiavelli had, been rightly called the father of modern nationalism. The, writings of J.S. Mill, Fitch, Mazzini, Garibaldi etc. went a long, way in rousing political consciousness and national spirit, among the people., In certain countries foreign rule also played an important part, in the growth of nationalism. The foreign rulers suppressed the, people under them cruelly and mercilessly. Rise of officials, like Bismarck and Cavour which led to the unification of, Germany and Italy., , Wave of Economic, Nationalist Sentiments, , Nationalism, , Table: 7.1 Types of Nationalist Movements, Type, Characteristics, Unification, , Separation, , State-building, , Mergers of politically, divided but culturally, similar lands, Culturally distinct group, resists being added to a, state or tries to break, away, Culturally distinct group, form into a new state by, accepting, a, single, culture, , Strengthened, , the, , Examples, 19th century Germany, 19th century ltaly, Greeks in the Ottoman, Empire, French-speaking, Canadians, The United States, Turkey, , Some Nationalists and Revolutionaries, Italy, Giuseppe Mazzini campaigner for Italian unification. The, great political idealist of the Italian struggle for, independence, was born at Genoa, June 22, 1805. His faith, in democracy and the enthusiasm for a free Italy he, inherited all from his parents. As student in the University, of Genoa he gathered round him, a circle of youths who, shared his dreams. He joined the secret society of the, Carbonari at the age of twenty two only, and was sent on a, mission to Tuscany; there he was entrapped and arrested., When he was released, among the Italian exiles in, Marseilles, he set about the formation, of the Society of, Young Italy with the aim to establish a free and united, Italian republic. His activities led to a decree for his, banishment from France, but he succeeded in outwitting the, spies of the Government and going on with his work. The, conspiracy for a national rising planned by Young Italy was, discovered, many of the leaders were executed, and, Mazzini himself condemned to death. Though Mazzini and, his “Young Italy” failed to achieve unification., Garibaldi is described as “the sword of Italian Unification”., He was a disciple of Mazzini, was a born patriot and joined, “Young Italy”. He gathered a large number of loyal, volunteers who were ready to sacrifice their lives for his, sake. In 1860 AD his “Red Shirt” troops defeated Austria to, secure the independence of Naples and Sicily, which later, on joined Sardinia Garibaldi could have become a dictator, by his own right over southern part of Italy but he proved to, be a patriot., Count Camillo de Cavour belonged to an aristocratic family, in Sardinia. As an editor of a reputed newspaper, he urged, the King to take the lead in liberating Italy from Austrian, control in 1848. Cavour decided to work for the Unification, of Italy. He got elected to the Assembly and made speeches
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Nationalism in Europe, , to improve the state of affairs in Piedmont and Sardinia., King was impressed and he appointed Cavour as Prime, Minister in 1852. He diverted his energies to make, Piedmont and Sardinia a model in all respect. He, encouraged modern agriculture and rapid industrialisation., He followed the policy of free trade. A network of canals,, Roads, bridges and railways were built to bring economic, prosperity. He then, dedicated himself, his body and soul, together, to achieve his goal of independence and the, unification of Italy. For this purpose, he took recourse to, diplomacy., King Victor Emmanuel – He was the King of Sardinia who, helped all revolutionaries whose main aim was to achieve, the unification and independence of Italy. It is rightly said, that the unification of Italy was achieved by Mazzini., Cavour , and King Victor Emmanuel who is regarded as the, body of Italy. It was Emmanuel who finally completed the, task of unification, after Cavour had died, by annexing the, Papal territories of Venetia and Rome. In this way, the, united Italy came into existence in the year 1871 A.D., under the Sardinian King. Like Germany, the united Italy, also became a monarchy., France, Rousseau was a great philosopher and thinker whose, writings greatly influenced the people as well as other, thinkers of his times. His ideas, which are propounded in, his famous book ‘The Social Contract’ invoked the French, people with the sentiments of freedom, equality and justice., His new ideas proved a major factor in the outbreak of the, French Revolution., Montesquieu was a great political theorist who opposed the, theory of the ‘Divine Right of Kings’. In his book, “The, Spirit of Laws” he stressed the concept of ‘Separation of, Powers’ of the legislature, executive and judiciary as a prerequisite to eliminate corruption from the administration. His, concept of the ‘Separation of Powers’ was a great instrument, against the despotic rule of the French Emperors., Voltaire was also a revolutionary thinker and writer. He, exposed the bitter truth of evils prevailing in the Church, and the state administration. He believed that a new age, could not be ushered in unless the old values, outlived, institutions, irrational superstitions and religious fanaticism, were rooted out. In this way, he preached revolution and, prepared the ground for it., Germany, Otto Von Bismarck was a great German statesman who, dedicated himself to the cause of the German unity. He, , II.E.33, , followed the policy of blood and iron, i.e. strong policy,, and united his country by defeating both Austria and France, in 1866 and 1870 respectively. Without him the unification, of Germany would not have been possible. He always, believed in strong monarchy. Bismarck was convinced that, Prussia alone had the capacity to lead all other German, states and if she has to achieve the unification, it has to be, through means of war against the enemies of German, unification., Johann Gottfried Herder – (1744–1803) – He was a German, Philosopher he claimed that true German culture was to be, discovered among the common people and it was through, folk songs, folk poetry and folk dances that the true spirit of, nation was popularised., Poland, Karol Kurpinski was a polish nationalist who tried to infuse, the spirit of nationalism through his operas and music and, turned folk dances of Poland into nationalist symbols. He, roused the national emotions of the people against the, partition of his country by Russia, Prussia and Austria., Effect of Nationalism in Countries of Europe, 1830 Revolution in France: The Liberal middle classes, forced the French ruler Louise Philippe to abdicate the, throne. National Assembly proclaimed a Republic, granted, suffrage to all adult males above 21 and guaranteed the, right to work., A war broke out between the Greeks and Sultan of Turkey, in 1827 A.D. Poets, artists lauded Greece as the cradle of, European civilisation and mobilised public opinion to, support its struggle against a Muslim empire England,, France and Russia helped the Greeks in 827 AD to defeat, the Sultan and forced him to sign the Treaty of, Constantinople in 1832 A.D. Greece was granted, Independence., In 1830, the Belgians too rose in revolt against their Dutch, master. Britain and France gave their recognition to their, independence Belgium secured its Independence., The Vienna Congress divides the kingdom of Poland, among Austria, Russia, and Prussia. Nicholas was, reactionary and an arbitrary ruler being inspired by the July, Revolution of 1830, the Poles raise a standard revolt., Though the people of France, England and Germany had, sympathies with the Poles yet they rendered them no, material help to regain their independence. Consequently,, the Russian Army smashed their movement ruthlessly.
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II.E.34, , Similarly, the revolt of the Poles in 1848 and in 1863 A.D., was also crushed European country came forward to help, the Poles and they were badly defeated., Unification of Italy: There were many obstacles in the way, of the unification of Italy in the 19th century. After the, downfall of Napoleon, the Congress of Vienna once again, divided Italy into small states. The Pope of Rome was, keeping Rome and its adjoining territories under his, dominance. He was acting as the head of all the Christian, countries of the world as such he was also proving a great, hurdle in the way of the Italian unification., Unification of Germany: Before the advent of Napoleon,, Germany was a congery of more than two hundred, independent principalities each ruled by a prince. It was, Napoleon who welded them as 39 states. The ruler of every, Germany state was a sovereign in his own territory and, therefore opposed every move of the liberals to bring about, the unification of Germany, it was completed in 1871., Rise of Nationalism, Before 1817 Prussia had a customs house in each district, and they hampered free flow of goods from one corner of, the state to the other. In order to encourage free flow of, goods, the Prussian government passed an act by which, Tariff Reforms were introduced. With the exception of few, German states and Austria almost all joined the Custom, union of Prussia. Thus, Prussia took upon herself a leading, role in bringing about the economic union of German states, in 1834 and paved the way for political unity., As a result of the French Revolution of 1848, a revolution, also took place in Austria. Germans took advantage of the, situation and rose in rebellion against their rulers. In the, German regions a large number of political associations, whose members were middle class professionals,, businessmen and prosperous artisans came together in the, city of Frankfurt and decided to vote for an all German, National Assembly. On 18th May 1848 831 elected, representatives met the Frankfurt parliament convened in, the Church of St Paul’s. The Assembly began to draw up a, new constitution for the Germany under the King of, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Prussia. Frankfurt Assembly failed to achieve its objective, and National movement was suppressed., King William–I and his Iron Chancellor, Bismarck –, Germany was unified by the policy of “blood and iron”, pursued by Bismarck, the Prussian Chancellor. Bismarck, tried to achieve his aim by dint of his military power and, astute diplomacy., The impact of Prussia’s impressive victories was so great, that the other Germany states also joined the German, Confederation which recognised the Prussian king as its, hereditary head., Balkan Countries: The states between the Black Sea and the, Adriatic Sea like the Bulgaria, Serbia, Bosnia and Herzegovina, etc. are known as the Balkan States. For a long time these, states were a bone of contention between various European, powers and Turkey. Some of the main causes of the nationalist, tensions were the following:, The majority of the people of the Balkan states were,, however, Christians. By the beginning of the 19th century,, the Turkish Empire became very weak and came to be, known as the ‘Sick man of Europe’. This encouraged the, Balkan people who were mostly Christians., The French Revolution and the Napoleonic wars inspired, the feelings of nationalism among them and they clamoured, for independence. Russia, Germany, England and AustroHungary were keen on extending its own control over the, area. This lead to series of wars in the region and finally the, first World War., Britain: The development of nationalism in Britain was unlike, the rest of Europe. In most of the European countries,, Nationalism was linked with revolutions. But in Britain, the, formation of state was not the result of a sudden upheaval or, revolution. It was the result of a long drawn out process., English Parliament, snatched power from the English monarch, James–II in 1688, which became instrumental in establishing a, nation state with England at the center. As a result of the Act of, Union between England and Scotland in 1701, England and, Scotland were united in 1701 and the result was the creation of, Great Britain. Both the states had one parliament and one ruler., , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , In which one of the following events, we see the clear, expression of nationalism?, a. Glorious Revolution, b. The French Revolution of 1789, c. The American Revolution, d. The Russian Revolution, , 2., , 3., , Where did the industrialisation first begin in Europe?, a. USA, b. England, c. France, d. Russia, Who were the two architects of the Unification of Germany?, a. The Prussian Chancellor-Bismarck, b. The Prussian King-William I
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II.E.35, , Nationalism in Europe, , 4., , 5., , c. The Napoleon Bonaparte, d. The German Ken Frederick the great, Who were the two amongst the following the architects of, the Unification of Italy?, a. Mazzini Garibaldi etc, b. Napoleon III, c. King Victor Emmanual-II of Sardinia, d. The Czar of Russia, What is meant by the Ottoman Empire?, a. The empire established by the Czar, b. The empire established by Hitler, c. The empire established by Turkey, d. The empire established by Italy, , 6., , Which of the following countries made the Balkan, problems all the more complicated?, a. Russia, b. Germany, c. South Africa, d. North America, , 7., , Which one of the following statements is false regarding, the Act of Union 1707?, a. It was an agreement between England and Scotland., b. It was an agreement between England and Ireland., c. It resulted in the formation of the ‘United Kingdom of, Great Britain., d. It gave England control over Scotland., , Which one of the following statements is false regarding, the Zollverein formed in 1834?, a. It abolished trade barriers., b. It reduced the number of currencies, c. It had most of the German states as members., d. It abolished feudal system., 9. Which one of the following is not true about the female, allegory of France?, a. She was named Marianne., b. She took part in the French Revolution., c. She was a symbol of national unity., d. Her characteristics were drawn from those of Liberty, and the Republic., 10. Which one of the following states was ruled by an Italian, house before unification of Italy?, a. Kingdom of Two Sicilies b. Lombardy, c. Venetia, d. Sardinia-Piedmont, 11. Who among the following formed a secret society, called, ‘Young Italy’?, a. Otto von Bismarck, b. Giuseppe Mazzini, c. Metternich, d. Johann Gottfried Herder, 8., , 12. Which one of the following types of government was, functioning in France before the revolution of 1789?, a. Dictatorship, b. Military, c. Body of French Citizen, d. Monarchy, 13. Who among the following hosted the Congress at Vienna in, 1815?, a. King of Netherlands, b. Giuseppe Mazzini, c. Duke Metternich, d. Otto von Bismarck, 14. Which one of the following is true about the ‘Treaty of, Constantinople’ of 1832?, a. It recongnised Turkey as an independent nation., b. It recongnised Greece as an independent nation., c. It recongnised Germany as an independent nation., d. It recongnised France as an independent nation., 15. Identify the French artist who prepared a series of four prints, visualising his dream of a world form the following:, a. Kitagewa Utamaro, b. Richard M. Hoe, c. Voltaire, d. Frederic Sorrieu, 16. The artisans, industrial workers and peasants revolted, against which one of the following in 1848, Europe?, a. Economic Hardship, b. Political instability, c. Monarchy, d. Revolutionary War, 17. The term ‘absolutist’ is referred to, a. monarchical government b. abstract theory, c. a vision, d. none of these, 18. When did Napoleon invade Italy?, a. 1821, b. 1905, c. 1797, d. 1795, 19. Why was the Treaty of Vienna drawn up in 1815?, a. To draw up a settlement for Europe, b. to restore the monarchies, c. to divide the German Confederation of 39 states, d. None of these, 20. What major is the liberal nationalism?, a. For freedom of individual and equality of all, b. Preservation of the Church, c. A modern army, d. Efficient bureaucracy, ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , b, , b, , a, , a, , c, , a,b, , b, , d, , b, , d, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , b, , d, , c, , b, , d, , a, , a, , c, , a, , a
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II.E.36, , The Nationalist Movement in, Indo-China, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 8, , Indo-China, in the late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries,, consisted of Vietnam, Laos and Cambodia. The earliest, contacts of Indo-China with the Westerners or Europeans may, be traced back to the sixteenth century when the Portuguese's, traders came to this region. The Portuguese were followed by, the French in the seventeen century. The French expanded their, power in Indo-China from 1747 to 1900., The most visible form of French control was military and, economic domination but the French also built a system that, tried to reshape the culture of the Vietnamese. Nationalism in, Vietnam emerged through the efforts of different sections of, society to fight against the French and all they represented., French troops landed in Vietnam in 1858 and by the mid-1880s, they had established a firm grip over the northern region. After, the Franco-Chinese war the French assumed control of Tonkin, and Annam and in 1887, French Indo-China was formed., France also thought it was the mission of the advanced, European countries to bring the benefits of civilisation to, backward peoples. The French began by building canals and, draining lands in the Mekong delta to increase cultivation. By, 1931 Vietnam had become the third largest exporter of rice in, the world. French business interests were pressurising the, government in Vietnam to develop the infrastructure further., , kept long hair. While teaching, Vietnamese teachers quietly, modified the text and criticised what was stated., Students fought against the colonial government’s efforts to, prevent the Vietnamese from qualifying for white-collar jobs., They were inspired by patriotic feelings and the conviction that, it was the duty of the educated to fight for the benefit of the, society. By the 1920s, students were forming various political, parties, such as the Party of Young Annan., In 1903, the modern part of Hanoi was struck by bubonic, plague. The French hired Vietnamese workers and paid them, for each rat they caught. For the Vietnamese the rat hunt, seemed to provide an early lesson in the success of collective, bargaining-that if they came together they could negotiate a, higher bounty., Vietnamese Religious Beliefs and their Movements, It was a mixture of Buddhism, Confucianism and local, practices. French missionaries introduced Christianity. The, revolt was led by officials at the imperial court who were, against the spread of Catholicism and French power. They led, a general uprising in Ngu An and Ha Tien provinces where, over a thousand Catholics were killed. The French crushed the, movement but this uprising served to inspire other patriots to, rise up against them., , To consolidate their power the French systematically, dismantled the traditional educational system and established, French schools for the Vietnamese. Some policy-makers, emphasised the need to use the French language, they felt by, learning the language the Vietnamese would be introduced to, the culture and civilisation of France and the educated people, in Vietnam would respect French sentiments and ideals, see the, superiority of French culture, and work for the French. The, Vietnamese be taught in lower classes whereas French in the, higher classes., , Phan Boi Chau was one such nationalist. He became a major, figure in the anti-colonial resistance from the time he formed, the Revolutionary Society (Duy Tan Hoi) in 1903, with Prince, Cuong De as the head. Phan Chu Trinh was intensely hostile to, the monarchy and opposed to the idea of resisting the French, with the help of the court. His desire was to establish a, democratic republic. He accepted the French revolutionary, ideal of liberty but charged the French for not abiding by the, ideal., , In 1907, to provide a Western style education the Tonkin Free, School was started. This education included classes in science,, hygiene and French. It was not enough to learn science and, Western ideas; to be modern the Vietnamese had to also look, modern. The school encouraged the adoption of Western styles, such as having a short haircut. For the Vietnamese this meant a, major break with their own identity since they traditionally, , Note, Indo-China comprises the modern countries of Vietnam, Laos, and Cambodia. Its early history shows many different groups, of people living in this area under the shadow of the powerful, empire of China. Even when an independent country was, established in what is now northern and central Vietnam, its, rulers continued to maintain the Chinese system of government
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II.E.37, , The Nationalist Movement in Indo-China, , as well as Chinese culture. Vietnam was also linked to the, maritime silk route that brought in goods, people and ideas., Other networks of trade connected it to the hinterlands where, non-Vietnamese people such as the Khmer Cambodians lived., Inspiration from Japan and China in Modernisation, Go East Movement: In the first decade of the twentieth, century a ‘go east movement’ became popular. In 1907–08, some 300 Vietnamese nationalists students went to Japan to, acquire modern education. For most of them, the primary, objective was to drive out the French from Vietnam,, overthrow the puppet emperor and re-establish the Nguyen, dynasty that had been deposed by the French. These, nationalists looked for foreign arms and help. They appealed, to the Japanese as fellow Asians. Most of the nationalists also, wanted to establish a strong military in Vietnam on the lines, of Japan which had defeated Russia in 1907. Vietnamese, students established a branch of the restoration Society in, Tokyo but after 1908, the Japanese Ministry of Interior, clamped down on them. The Vietnamese nationalists were, also inspired by the revolutionary movement which occurred, in China. In 1911, the long established monarchy in China, was overthrown by a popular movement under Sun Yat –, Sen and Republic was set up., The Communist Movement and Vietnamese Nationalism, The Great Depression of the 1930s had a profound impact on, Vietnam. The prices of rubber and rice fell, leading to rising, rural debts, unemployment and rural uprisings, such as in the, provinces of Nghe An and Ha Tinh. These provinces were, among the poorest, had an old radical tradition, and have been, called the ‘electrical fuses’ of Vietnam—when the system was, under pressure they were the first to blow. In February 1930, Ho, Chi Minh brought together with Vietnam Cong San Dang, competing nationalist groups to establish the Vietnamese, Communist Party, later known as the Indo-Chinese Communist, Party., Japan occupied Vietnam in 1940. To fight against the Japanese, Vietminh was formed which recaptured Hanoi in 1945. Ho Chi, Minh formed the Democratic Republic of Vietnam and became, the chairman., , The New Republic of Vietnam, The challenges faced by new Republic to restore its hold, over Indo-China. The French troops entered Vietnam and, started fighting Vietminh and tried to regain control by, using the emperor, Bao Dai, as their puppet. The Vietminh, were forced to retreat to the hills by the offensive French., The war had taken a new turn because it became a part of, the cold war of the USA and the Soviet Union. Soviet, Union and China gave support to Ho Chi Minh whereas, France got the support of Britain and the USA., In 1954, the Viet Minh surrounded 16,000 French troops, and inflicted upon them a crushing defeat at the fortress of, Dien Bien Phu; forced the French government to initiate, negotiations with the government of the Democratic, Republic of Vietnam. An international conference was held, at Geneva in July 1954 and decided to divide Vietnam, temporarily into North Vietnam and South Vietnam., USA was against the unification of Vietnam. When the Ho, Chi Minh government in North Vietnam and National, Liberation Front in South Vietnam tried to unify the two, parts, in violation of the Geneva Conference. US could not, tolerate this, therefore decided to intervene in Vietnam., America had to suffer a huge loss of men and money though, she caused great destruction in North Vietnam through, bombardment. America lost about 75,000 soldiers in the war, by 1975 AD It evoked strong reaction in America. Various, countries of the world strongly criticised the American, intervention in the internal affairs of Vietnam. As a result,, America was compelled to start the withdrawal of her troops in, April 1975. Saigon also surrendered after the withdrawal of, American troops. In this way, the United Vietnam came into, existence on April 30, 1975 AD., A peace settlement was signed in Paris in January 1974. This, ended conflict with the US but fighting between the Saigon, regime and the NLF continued. The NLF occupied the, presidential palace in Saigon on 30 April 1975 and unified, Vietnam., , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , Choose any country which is not part of Indo-China, a. Vietnam, b. Myanmar c. Laos, d. Cambodia, , 2., , Which country had established its control over Vietnam, in the 18th Century?, a. England, b. USA, c. France, d. German, , 3., , Who was Sun-Yat-Sen?, a. A great nationalist of Vietnam, b. A great nationalist of China, c. A great nationalist of Japan, d. A great nationalist of Russia
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II.E.38, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 4., , Which provinces of Vietnam were called the electrical, fuses of Vietnam?, a. Nghe An, b. Ho Tinh, c. Mica, d. Kwangchow, , 5., , What was the result of the peace negotiations held at, Geneva after the defeat of the French forces in 1954?, a. Vietnam was made independent, b. Vietnam was handed over to France, c. The U.S.A forces had to withdraw from Vietnam, d. Vietnam was divided into two parts-the South Vietnam, and the North Vietnam, , 6., , Who led the coup in South Vietnam?, a. Sun-Yat-Sen, b. Ngo Dinh Diem, c. Ho Chi Minh, d. Phen Boi Chau, , 7., , Which one of the following was NOT an impact of the, Great Depression of 1930s on Vietnam?, a. Vietnam was occupied by Japan., b. The Price of rice and rubber fell., c. There was an increase in unemployment., d. There were rural uprisings., , 8., , Which one of the following statements is false about Ho, Chi Minh?, a. Ho Chi Minh was the Chairman of the Democratic, Republic of Vietnam, b. He Founded the Vietnamese Communist party., c. He took control of South Vietnam after Vietnam split., d. He gave help to the National Liberation Front., , 9., , Which one of the following was an impact of the Great, Depression of 1930s on Vietnam?, a. Japan defeated and occupied Vietnam., b. Price of rice and rubber increased., c. There was decrease in unemployment., d. There were uprisings in rural areas., , 10. Who among the following took power in the Southern, part of Vietnam after the division of the country?, a. Ngo Dinh Diem, b. Ho Chi Minh, c. Bao Dai, d. N.L.F, 11. Which one of the following statements is not true about, the Trung sisters of Vietnam?, a. The Trung sisters fought against French domination., b. They fought against Chinese domination., c. Phan Boi Chau wrote a play on the lives of the Trung, sisters., d. The chose death over surrender to enemies., , 12. Who, among the following were known as ‘colons’?, a. French citizens living in Vietnam, b. French citizens living in France, c. Educated people of Vietnam, d. Elites of Vietnam, 13. Why was the Tonkin Free School started in 1907 in, Vietnam?, a. To provide modern education, b. To provide western-style education, c. To provide education to Vietnamese only, d. To provide education to French children, 14. Who among the following was the founder of ‘Hoa Hao, Movement’ In Vietnam?, a. Paul Chu Trinh, b. Liang Qichao, c. Phan Boi Chau, d. Huynh Phu So, 15. Who, among the following was a member of the French, team, who explored Mekong river?, a. Paul Burnard, b. Liang Qichao, c. Nuynh Phu So, d. Garnier, 16. Who among the following led the Scholars’ Revolt of, 1868, in Vietnam?, a. Teachers and Students, b. Professionals, c. Officials of Imperial Court d. The Elites, 17. When did Vietnam get independence?, a. 1887, b. 1945, c. 1873, d. 1858, 18. When did the national Assembly of Vietnam announced, unification of Vietnam?, a. 1945, b. 1975, c. 1976, d. 1996, 19. Which imperialist power dominated Vietnam?, a. French, b. German, c. Russian, d. None of these, 20. What kind of education did the Tonkin Free School, in, 1907, stress on?, a. Learning English language, b. Looking modern, c. Inculcating western ideas, d. Both (b.) and (c.), ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , b, , c, , b, , a, , d, , b, , a, , c, , a, , c, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , a, , a, , b, , d, , d, , a, , b, , c, , a, , d, ,
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Nationalism in India, , 9, In 1857, the Indians rose in revolt against the British but they, failed. Thus, the first war of independence had created among, the Indians a feeling of national awakening. It became a source, of inspiration of the succeeding generations of the Indian, people in their struggle against the foreign rule. The political, dissatisfaction, the disastrous economic policies and unjust, administration of the British made the Indians to realise the, need to organise themselves on a national scale to press their, demands before the government. This resulted of foundation of, the Indian National Congress in 1885. It waged a prolonged, and courageous struggle for independence from the British rule, and ultimately achieved independence. By the beginning of the, 20th century, Indian national movement had entered one of the, most significant phases of its history. The moderate elements in, the Congress who had hitherto led the national movement had, lost their former importance and extremist nationalists had, caught the imagination of the people. In the changed political, climate of the country, two new events—the partition of, Bengal and the growth of Swadeshi Movement further, awakened the masses and strengthened the national movement., Note, The Congress under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi, organised movements for independence. But diverse groups, and classes participated in these movements with varied, aspirations and expectations. As their grievances were wide –, ranging, freedom from colonial rule also meant different things, to different people. This is precisely why the unity within the, movement often broke down. In other words what was, emerging was a nation with many voices wanting freedom, from colonial rule., Impact of First World War on India: The First world war, led to a huge increase in the defense expenditure. So the British, Government increased the taxes, custom duties and introduced, the income tax. Throughout the war years, prices of almost, every article increased which caused much hardship to the, common people and naturally they were drawn towards the, National Movement. There were many political and religious, factors, caused by the First World War, which helped, nationalism in India., Khilafat Movement, First World War ended in the victory of England and defeat, of Germany and her ally Turkey. The Indian Muslim was, , II.E.39, , Nationalism in India, unhappy over the disintegration of the Ottoman Empire., Khalifa was the highest religious office in the Islamic, world. A Khilafat committee was formed in Bombay in, March 1919. The Chief sponsors of the Khilafat movement, were the Ali brothers, i.e., Muhammad Ali and Shaukat Ali., Gandhiji found in this movement an opportunity to unite, the Hindus and the Muslims, hence he supported Khilafat, movement and asked the Hindus to support it., The Idea of Satyagraha: Mahatma Gandhi had gone to South, Africa for his legal practice but due to certain circumstances,, started nationalist movement with a new idea of mass agitation,, which was called ‘Satyagraha’. This idea of Satyagraha, believed in the power of truth. He took the help of two, weapons—Satyagraha and Non-violence. This could be done, by peaceful petitions and not aggression. By this means, truth, would ultimately win. The idea of truth could unite all the, Indians too., On 21 March, 1919 by the British parliament, Rowlatt, Committee recommended, to confer on the police and, magistrate to arrest anybody subjected to attempt to over throw, the government. To take into custody the suspected persons for, any length of time and to search houses of any person without, warrant. This act authorised the government to imprison any, person without trial or conviction in a court of law, thus, denying him any right to appeal against it., Gandhiji branded these bills as Black Bills and requested, the Viceroy to drop them. The bill was passed inspite of, opposition, Gandhiji appealed to the people to Satyagraha, against Rowlatt Act on 6th April 1919 by observing hartal,, fasting, prayers etc. It was a grand success and Gandhiji, emerged as an all India leader., Jallianwala Bagh Tragedy, 13 April, 1919, On 11th April, General Dyer was put in charge of the city, with, an instruction to take whatever steps he considered necessary, to re-establish civil control. Dyer banned public meeting. Being, ignorant of this ban, crowd of villagers who had come to, Amritsar to attend a fair gathered in the enclosed ground of, Jallianwala Bagh. About 20,000 people attended the meeting.
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II.E.40, , The meeting was passing on peacefully Dyer reached the place, and without giving warning ordered his troop to fire. The firing, continued till the ammunition was over, and it was followed by, a reign of terror. This bloody and ghasty massacre was, condemned by all. It sent a wave of shock throughout the, country Rabindranath Tagore returned his “Knighthood” and, Mahatma Gandhi surrendered his title of Kaisar-i- Hind., Non-cooperation Movement: In declaration of August 1917,, the secretary of state for India, Mr Montague had promised to, establish gradually responsible government in India. But the, Mont-ford Reforms (1919) had disappointed the Indians. The, passing of the Rowlatt Bills (Black Bills) and the Jallianwala, Bagh massacre and atrocities committed by the police in the, Punjab further enraged the masses. The question of Khilafat, had also annoyed the Congress. Under these circumstances,, Gandhiji decided to start the Non-cooperation Movement, against the British. Under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi,, the Congress decided to start the Non-Cooperation Movement, against the British Government. It aimed to:, , Support the Khilafat Movement., , To compel the government to compensate for the, atrocities committed by it on the people at Jallianwala Bagh, and during the martial law in the Punjab., To Achieve the Goal of Swaraj, the Following Programmes, were Adopted:, Boycott of the elections under the Government of India, Act, AD 1919., Boycott of government schools and colleges., Boycott of the law courts., Boycott of foreign goods., Surrender of titles and honorary offices., Refusal to attend government Darbars., The Constructive Side of the Programme Consisted of:, , Establishment of national schools and colleges., , The use of private arbitration courts in place of the, government courts for litigation, etc., , Use of Swadeshi cloth on a large scale., , Revival of hand spinning and hand weaving., , The removal of untouchability., The movement was to be completely non-violent., Non-Cooperation Movement, In his famous book Hind Swaraj (1909) Mahatma Gandhi, declared that British rule was established in India with the, cooperation of Indians, and had survived only because of, this cooperation. If Indian refused to cooperate, British rule, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , in India would collapse within a year, and Swaraj would, come., Non-cooperation movement launched by the Indian, National Congress under the leadership of Gandhiji, constitutes a great landmark in the history of India’s, struggle for freedom. It was started mainly to achieve three, things:, To solve the Khilafat issue., To remedy the wrong done to the people of Punjab by, the Amritsar massacre., To attain Swaraj., Sitaram Raju talked of the greatness of Mahatma Gandhi, said, he was inspired by the Non-Cooperation Movement, and, persuaded people to wear khadi and give up drinking. But at, the same time he asserted that India could be liberated only by, the use of force, not non-violence. The Gudem rebels attacked, police stations, attempted to kill British officials and carried on, guerrilla warfare for achieving Swaraj., Swaraj in the Plantations, For plantation workers in Assam, freedom meant the right, to move freely in and out of the confined space in which, they were enclosed, and it mean retaining a link with the, village from which they had come. Under the Inland, Emigration Act of 1859, plantation workers were not, permitted to leave the tea gardens without permission., When they heard of the Non-Cooperation Movement,, thousands of workers defied the authorities, left the, plantations and headed home., Mahatma Gandhi was a staunch follower of Ahimsa and, non-violence but when in 1922, the people burnt down the, police station at Chauri Chaura in UP, where 22 policemen, were burnt alive, he was simply stunned. He felt he would, no longer be able to direct the Non-cooperation Movement, on the peaceful lines as was desired by him. So he called, off this movement in 1922 AD, The Non-Cooperation Movement neither set right the, Punjab and Khilafat wrongs nor attained Swaraj. As such, the movement failed in its objective. However it would be, wrong to conclude that the movement had produced no, good results; but promoted Hindu-Muslim unity in the, country. It made the people politically awakened and, fearless., Swaraj Party, The unconditional suspension of the Non-co-operation was, bitterly criticised by the Congress leaders like C R Das., Motilal Nehru, Ali Brothers, S C Bose etc. They gave up, the policy of Non-cooperation and decided to enter the
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Nationalism in India, , legislatures to carry on the struggle from within. The, Swaraj Party was keen to contest elections under the Act of, 1919. Swaraj Party contested elections in November 1923, and was very successful. At the same time Gandhiji asked, the Congress men to devote their energies to mass contact, through a four-fold constructive programme. This program, aimed at social reform, economic development, village, reconstruction and communal harmony., Simon Commission, British government in 1927 announced Simon commission, to look into the functioning of the constitutional system in, India and suggest changes. The Commission did not have a, single Indian member. Due to its all white composition, the, Indian National leaders boycotted it. They demanded that, the Indian members in the British House of Commons but, the British government rejected the Indian demand Instead,, the Secretary of state for India, lord Birkenhead, insulted, the Indians. He said that the Indians were not competent to, discuss constitutional issues., The British government adopted a policy of repression to, crush the anti-Simon movement. Thousands of innocent, and unarmed Indians were beaten by the police. As a result,, Lala Lajpat Rai died in Lahore and Govind Ballabh Pant, got crippled for life., Congress Session Of 1929, The Forty-Fourth Session of the Congress was held at, Lahore in December, 1929 under the presidentship of Pt., Jawahar Lal Nehru. The situation then in India was very, tense because of the death of Lala Lajpat Rai in 1928 as a, result of the lathi-charge he received while leading a, demonstration against the Simon commission. Naturally,, important resolutions were passed in this session; the, attainment of Complete Independence as its goal. In a, special resolution it was said, “The British Government has, ruined Indian economically, politically, culturally and, spiritually. We believe, therefore that India must attain, Purna Swarajya or Complete Independence., It was also decided to observe 26th January as the, Independence Day all over the country year after year., Accordingly, 26th of January, 1930 was celebrated as the, first Independence Day all over the country and at many, places the tri-colour was hoisted., Civil Disobedience Movement and Salt Satyagraha: The, Lahore session of the Indian National Congress in December, AD 1929 passed a resolution demanding complete, , II.E.41, , independence for India. In case this demand was not fulfilled, it, would start Civil Disobedience Movement. It was a new, method of carrying on the freedom movement. Gandhiji made, the salt, the main issue of the movement. The salt is the most, necessary article of the common man’s food. The government, had doubled the tax on salt and had also prohibited the making, of salt from sea water. Gandhiji hoped that he would get the, biggest support from the masses by breaking the salt law., Gandhiji opposed the imposition of this tax. He said, “Salt is, such a thing which is even used by the poorest. Imposing tax on, it is exploitation.” So, Gandhiji was determined to break the, Salt Law by making salt from the sea water., On 31 Jan, 1930, Gandhiji wrote to Viceroy Irwin Stating that, if the demands were not fulfilled by 11th March, the congress, would launch a Civil Disobedience Movement., The Civil Disobedience Movement started by the Congress, under the leadership of Gandhiji to achieve Purna Swaraj, was very different from the Non-cooperation Movement., Land revenue was also not to be paid to the government., Foreign goods too were to be boycotted. The freedom, loving Indians were also to organise big protest,, demonstrations or Satyagrah all over the country peacefully, to show their resolve., Irwin was not willing to negotiate. So, Mahatma Gandhi, started his famous Salt March accompanied by 78 of his, trusted followers. The march was over 240 miles, from, Gandhiji’s ashram in Sabarmati to the Gujrat coastal town, of Dandi. The volunteers walked for 24 days, about 10, miles a day. They reached the sea on 6th April Gandhiji, broke the salt laws the same day by making some salt from, sea water. It was an illegal action. Making of salt was the, monopoly of the government., The rich peasants became enthusiastic supporters of the, Civil Disobedience Movement. The poorer peasantry was, not just interested in the lowering revenue demand., Apprehensive of raising issues that might upset the rich, peasants and landlords, the Congress was unwilling to, support ‘no rent’ campaigns in most places., The business classes were keen on expanding their, business, they now reacted against colonial policies that, restricted business activities. The industrial working classes, did not participate in the Civil Disobedience Movement in, large numbers, except in the Nagpur region. As the, industrialists came closer to the Congress, workers stayed, aloof. There were strikes by railway workers in 1930 and, dockworkers in 1932. In 1930 thousands of workers in, Chota Nagpur tin mines wore Gandhi caps and participated, in protest rallies and boycott campaigns.
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.E.42, , The Limits of Civil Disobedience, Not all social groups were moved by the abstract concept of, Swaraj. For long the congress had ignored the dalits, for, fear of offending the Satnamis the conservative high-caste, Hindus. But Mahatma Gandhi declared that Swaraj would, not come for a hundred years if untouchability was not, eliminated. He called the ‘untouchables’ Harijan, or the, children of God, organised satyagraha to secure them entry, into temples, and access to public wells, tanks, roads and, schools. Dalit participation in the Civil Disobedience, Movement was therefore limited, particularly in the, Maharashtra and Nagpur region where their organisation, was quite strong., Civil Disobedience Movement, relations between Hindus, and Muslims were worsened, provoking Hindu-Muslim, communal clashes and riots in various cities. Large sections, of Muslims could not respond to the call for a united, struggle. Many Muslim leaders feared that the culture and, identity of minorities would be submerged under the, domination of a Hindu majority., Suspension of the Movement and Gandhi Irwin Pact, 5, March, 1931: Lord Irwin proposed the convening of a round, table conference at London to pacify the Indians. First Round, Table conference was held at London from 12th November,, 1930 to 19th January, 1931., , Second Round Table Conference – September 7h to, Dec 1st 1931, At the conference the Indian minorities, viz, Harijans,, Sikhs, Anglo-Indians, Indian Christians etc. demanded, separates electorates for them. None of them stood for, national interest. Gandhiji opposed the demands of the, minorities from the national point of view. Therefore, he, left the conference and returned to India on 28th December,, 1931 empty handed., It was in the twentieth century, with the growth of, nationalism, that the identity of India came to be visually, associated with the image of Bharat Mata. The image was, first created by Bankimchandra Chattopadhyay. In the, 1870s he wrote ‘Vande Mataram’ as a hymn to the, motherland. Later it was included in his novel, ‘Anandamath’. Abanindranath Tagore painted his famous, image of Bharat Mata. During the Swadeshi movement in, Bengal, a tricolour flag (red, green and yellow) was, designed. It had eight lotuses representing Hindus and, Muslims. Another means of creating a feeling of, nationalism was through reinterpretation of history. These, nationalist histories urged the reader to take pride in India’s, great achievements in the past and struggle to change the, miserable conditions of life under British rule., Important Dates, , December 1931, , Distressed UP peasants organized by, Baba Ramchandra., Gandhian hartal against Rowlatt Act;, Jallianwala Bagh massacre., Non-cooperation and Khilafat, movement launched., Chauri Chaura; Gandhiji withdraws, Non-cooperation movement., Alluri Sitarama Raju arrested ending a, 2-year armed tribal struggle., Lahore Congress; Congress adopts the, demand for ‘Purna Swaraj’., Ambedkar establishes Depressed, Classes Association., Gandhiji begins Civil Disobedience, Movement by breaking Salt Law at, Dandi., Gandhiji ends Civil Disobedience, Movement., Second Round Table Conference., , 1932, , Civil Disobedience re-launched., , 1918–19, The Indian National Congress boycotted the conference. Soon, after the conference, Lord Irwin lifted ban on the Congress, Working Committee and released its members including, Gandhiji. Then the moderate leaders viz, M R Jayakar, Tej, Bahadur Sapru, Right Honourable V S Sastri brought about, conciliation between Irwin and Gandhiji. As a result of, discussion between the two for over 15 days, Gandhi-Irwin, pact was signed on 5th March, 1931. According to the pact, the, government agreed:, To withdraw all ordinances and pending prosecutions., To release all political prisoners, except those guilty of, violence., To permit the people residing within a certain distance of, the sea shore to collect or manufacture salt free of duty., The Congress on the other hand agreed to suspend the civil, disobedience Movement and to stop all boycott and to, participate in the second Round table on the basis of, responsibility and safeguards in the interest of India., , April 1919, January 1921, February 1922, May 1924, December 1929, 1930, March 1930, , March 1931
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Nationalism in India, , II.E.43, , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , When was the Indian National Congress formed?, a. In 1882, b. In 1883, c. In 1884, d. In 1885, , 2., , Who was the President of its First Session?, a. Dadabhai Naoroji, b. Surendranath Banerjee, c. W C Bonnerjee, d. Gopal Krishna Gokhale, , 3., , Why did Gandhiji withdraw the Non-Cooperation, Movement?, a. Gandhiji realised that people were losing interest in the, movement., b. Gandhiji felt that the movement was turning violent in, many places., c. Some Congress leaders wanted to participate in, elections to Provincial Councils., d. Some Congress leaders wanted more radical mass, agitations., , 4., , Which one of the following statements is not related to, the Gandhi-Irwin Pact?, a. Gandhiji agreed not to launch any further mass, agitations against the British., b. Gandhiji agreed to participate in the round Table, Conference., c. Gandhiji decided to call off the Civil Disobedience, Movement., d. The British agreed to release the political prisoners., , a. 1916, c. 1918, , b. 1917, d. 1919, , 8., , Who among the following composed ‘Vande Mataram’?, a. Mahatma Gandhi, b. Abanindranath Tagore, c. Rabindranath Tagore, d. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay, , 9., , In which one of the following Indian National Congress, sessions, the demand of ‘Purna Swaraj’ was formalised?, a. Nagpur Session, b. Lahore Session, c. Madras (Chennai) Session, d. Calcutta (Kolkata) Session, , 10. Which one of the following agreements gave reserved, seats to ‘Depressed Classes’ in Provincial and Central, Legislative Councils?, a. Lucknow Pact, b. Gandhi–Irwin Pact, c. Poona Pact, d. None of these, 11. Which one of the following combination of colour was, there in the ‘Swaraj flag’ designed by Gandhiji in 1921?, a. Red, Green and White, b. Red, Green and Yellow, c. Orange, White and Green, d. Yellow, White and Green, , 5., , Why did Nationalists in India tour villages to gather folk, songs and legends? Choose the most appropriate reason, from the following:, a. Nationalists wanted to study their own culture., b. Nationalists wanted to publish it and earn money., c. Nationalists did it because it gave a true picture of, traditional culture, d. Nationalists wanted to keep folk culture intact., , 12. In which one of the following regions was Dalit, participation limited in the Civil Disobedience, Movement?, a. Maharashtra and Nagpur, b. Awadh and Maharashtra, c. Bengal and Punjab, d. Kerala and Karnataka, , 6., , In which of the following years Mahatma Gandhi inspired, the peasants of Champaran district of Bihar to struggle, against the oppressive plantations system?, a. 1916, b. 1917, c. 1918, d. 1919, , 13. Why were the Dalits ignored by the Congress for a long, time?, a. Fear of offending the Sanatanis, b. Fear from Dr B R Ambedkar, c. Fear from socialism, d. Fear from industrialists, , 7., , Mahatma Gandhi organised a Satyagraha in support of, cotton mill workers of Ahmedabad in which of the, following years?, , 14. Which one of the following Acts did not permit plantation, workers to leave the tea gardens without permission?
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.E.44, , a. Indian Independence Act, b. Inland Emigration Act of 1859, c. Imperial Legislative Council Act, d. Inland Immigration Act, 15. The Non-Cooperation Movement began on which one of, the following dates?, a. January 1921, b. November 1921, c. December 1921, d. May 1921, 16. Which one of the following was the main reason to, withdraw Non-cooperation Movement?, a. Movement turning violent, b. Leaders were tired, c. Satyagrahis needed to be trained, d. All the above, 17. Where was Gandhi’s ashram located?, a. Dandi, b. Sabarmati, c. Allahabad, d. Nagpur, , 18. What led to the Civil Disobedience Movement?, a. Arrival of the Simon Commission, b. Working at the farm without payments, c. Violation of Salt Tax by Gandhi, d. Fall in demand for agricultural goods, 19, , Who organized the Dalits into the Depressed Classed, Association?, a. Mahatma Gandhi, b. Subhash Chandra Bose, c. Jawaharlal Nehru, d. B R Ambedkar, , 20. Who wrote the ‘Vande Mataram’?, a. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay, b. Rabindranath Tagore, c. Abanindranath Tagore, d. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , d, , c, , b, , a, , c, , a, , c, , d, , b, , c, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , a, , a, , a, , b, , d, , d, , b, , c, , d, , a, ,
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Global World and Industrialisation, , 10, To speak of an “Industrial Revolution,” the process of, industrialisation was a gradual one that unfolded over the, course of the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries, eventually, becoming global., Note, Like the Neolithic Revolution that occurred 10,000 years, before it, the Industrial Revolution dramatically transformed, the way humans lived their lives to a degree that is hard to, exaggerate. It is not difficult to define industrialisation; it is, simply the use of machines to make human labour more, efficient and produce things much faster. As simple as this, sounds, however, it brought about such sweeping changes that, it virtually transformed the world, even areas in which, industrialisation did not occur. The change was so basic that it, could not help but affect all areas of people's lives in every part, of the globe. The Industrial Revolution began in England in the, late 18th century, and spread during the 19th century to, Belgium, Germany, Northern France, the United States, and, Japan. Almost all areas of the world felt the effects of the, Industrial Revolution because it divided the world into "have", and "have not" countries, with many of the latter being, controlled by the former. England's lead in the Industrial, Revolution translated into economic prowess and political, power that allowed colonisation of other lands, eventually, building a worldwide British Empire., Powerful Trade Guilds: The expansion of world trade and the, acquisition of colonies in different parts of the world as well, the demand for goods began growing during the seventeenth, and eighteenth centuries. But merchants could not expand, production within towns, because of the urban crafts and trade, guilds were powerful there. Merchants from the towns in, Europe began moving to the countryside, supplying money to, peasants and artisans, persuading them to produce for an, international market., Cheaper Labour from Rural Areas: Income from proto, industrial production supplemented their shrinking income, from cultivation. In 1730, the earliest factories in England, came up but only in the late eighteenth century that the number, of cotton factories multiplied. In 1760 Britain was importing, 2.5 million pounds of raw cotton to feed its cotton industry. By, 1787 this import soared to 22 million pounds., , Global World, and Industrialisation, II.E.45, , New Technology: In the eighteenth century, a series of, inventions increased the efficiency in the production process, (carding, twisting and spinning, and rolling) as well enhanced, the output per worker, enabling each worker to produce more,, and they made possible the production of stronger threads and, yarn., The Pace of Industrial Change: The cotton was the leading, sector in the first phase of industrialisation up to the 1840s;, then led the iron and steel industry. The expansion of railways,, in England from the 1840s and in the colonies from the 1860s,, the demand for iron and steel increased abruptly. The new, industries could not easily displace traditional industries. The, pace of change in the ‘traditional’ industries was not set by, steam powered cotton or metal industries. New technology was, expensive and merchants and industrialists were cautious in, using it., Popularity of Intricate Designs: Machines were producing, uniforms, standardised goods for a mass market. The demand, in the market was often for goods with intricate designs and, specific shapes. In Victorian Britain, the upper classes the, aristocrats and the bourgeoisie preferred things produced by, hand. Handmade products came to symbolise refinement and, class. They were better finished, individually produced, and, carefully designed. Industrialists usually preferred hand labour,, employing workers for the season., Seasonality of Working Opportunity: Seasonality of work in, many industries meant prolonged periods without work. After, the busy season was over, the poor were on the streets again., Moreover, the income of workers depended not on the wage, rate alone. Till the mid-nineteenth century, about 10 percent of, the urban populations were extremely poor. The 1830s is, economic slump in the proportion of unemployed went up in, between 35 and 75 percent in different regions., The fear of unemployment made workers hostile to the, introduction of new technology., In the woollen industry, women who survived on hand, spinning began attacking the new machines., Roads were widened, new railway stations came up,, railway lines were extended, tunnels dug, drainage and, sewers laid, rivers embanked.
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II.E.46, , The Age of Indian Textiles: In many countries Coarser, cottons were produced, but the finer varieties often came from, India. Surat on the Gujarat coast connected India to the Gulf, and Red Sea Ports; Masulipatnam on the Coromandel Coast, and Hooghly in Bengal had trade links with Southeast Asian, ports. Till 1750 this network was controlled by Indian, merchants going to breaking down., Rise of European Companies: The European companies, gradually gained power by a variety of concessions from local, courts, then the monopoly rights to trade. This resulted in a, decline of the old ports of Surat and Hooghly through which, local merchants had operated. While Surat and Hooghly, decayed simultaneously Bombay and Calcutta grew. This shift, from the old ports to the new ones was an indicator of the, growth of colonial power., Weaver’s Changed Condition, The consolidation of East India Company power after the, 1760s did not initially lead to a decline in textile exports from, India. Before establishing political power in Bengal and, Carnatic in the 1760s and 1770s, the East India Company had, found it difficult to ensure a regular supply of goods for export., The French, Dutch, Portuguese as well as the local traders, competed in the market to secure woven cloth., East India Company, As the East India Company established political power, it could, assert a monopoly right to trade. The East India Company, proceeded to develop a system of management to control and, to eliminate competition, control costs, as well to ensure, regular supplies of cotton and silk goods. The Company tried, to eliminate the existing traders and brokers connected with the, cloth trade, and establish a more direct control over the weaver., They appointed paid servant called the gomasthas to supervise, weavers, collect supplies, and examine the quality of cloth. In, many weaving villages there were reports of clashes between, weavers and gomasthas. The new gomasthas were outsiders,, with no long term social link with the village. They acted, arrogantly, marched into villages with sepoys and peons, and, punished weavers for delays in supply even beating and, flogging them. The weavers lost the space to bargain for prices, and sell to different buyers the price received from the, Company was miserably low and the loans they had accepted, tied them to the Company. Over time many weavers began, refusing loans, closing down their workshops and taking to, agricultural labour., , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Goods from Manchester: The cotton industries developed in, England, industrial groups began worrying about imports from, other countries. They pressurised the government to impose, import duties on cotton textiles so that Manchester goods could, sell in Britain without facing any competition from outside. At, the same time industrialists persuaded the East India Company, to sell British manufactures in Indian markets as well. Exports, of British cotton goods increased dramatically in the early, nineteenth century. At the end of the eighteenth century there had, been virtually no import of cotton piece goods into India., Produced by machines at lower costs, the imported cotton goods, were so cheap that weavers could not easily compete with them., Beginning of Factories: The first cotton mill in Bombay came, up in 1854 and around the same time jute mills came up in, Bengal. In North India, the Elgin Mill was started in Kanpur in, the 1860s, and a year later the first cotton mill of Ahmedabad, was set up. By 1874, the first spinning and weaving mill of, Madras began production., Some merchants from Madras traded with Burma while others, had links with the Middle East and East Africa. They operated, within India, carrying goods from one place to another,, banking money, transferring funds between cities, and, financing traders. When opportunities of investment in, industries opened up, many of them set up factories., Migration for Employment Opportunities: Peasants and, artisans who found no work in the village went to the industrial, centre in search of work. Over 50 percent workers in the, Bombay cotton industries in 1911 came from the neighboring, district of Ratnagiri, while the mills of Kanpur got most of their, textile hands from the villages within the district of Kanpur., From the United Provinces (Modern UP or Uttar Pradesh), for, instance, they went to work in the textile mills of Bombay and in, the jute mills of Calcutta. Getting jobs was always difficult, even, when mills multiplied and the demand for workers increased., The Peculiarities of Industrial Growth: European, Managing Agencies, which dominated industrial production, in India, were interested in certain kinds of products. They, established tea and coffee plantations, acquiring land at cheap, rates from the colonial government; and they invested in, mining, indigo and jute. Most of these were products required, primarily for export trade and not for sale in India. The yarn, produced in Indian spinning mills was used by handloom, weavers in India or exported to China.
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II.E.47, , Global World and Industrialisation, , In first decade of the twentieth century a series of changes, affected the pattern of industrialisation. As the Swadeshi, movement gathered momentum, nationalists mobilised people, to boycott foreign cloth. Yet, till the First World War,, industrial growth was slow. The war created a dramatically, new situation. With British mills busy with war production to, meet the needs of the army, Manchester imports into India, declined. Indian mills had a vast home market to supply. Over, the war years industrial production boomed., Dominance of Small scale Industries: In the twentieth, century, handloom cloth production expanded steadily: almost, trebling between 1900 and 1940. Handicrafts people adopt, new technology if that helps them improve production without, excessively pushing up costs. By 1941, over 35 percent of, , handlooms in India were fitted with fly shuttles: in regions like, Travancore, Madras, Mysore, Cochin, Bengal the proportion, was 70 to 80 percent., Creation of Market for Goods: From the beginning of the, industrial age, advertisements have played a part in expanding, the markets for products, and in shaping a new consumer, culture. When Manchester industrialists began selling cloth in, India, they put labels on the cloth bundles. The label was, needed to make the place of manufacture, mark the quality and, the name of the company familiar to the buyer. When Indian, manufacturers advertised the nationalist message was clear and, loud. If you care for the nation then buy products that Indians, produce. Advertisements became a vehicle of the nationalist, message of Swadeshi., , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , In 1990, which popular music publisher produced a music, book?, a. Oxford, c. E T Paul, , 2., , 3., , 5., , 6., , b. Bollivabooks, d. Cambridge, , Why could not the merchants expand production within, , Which two Indian ports had links with South-East Asian, countries?, a. Surat, c. Masulipatnam, , 8., , b. Hooghly, d. Broach, , What was the name of the paid servant who was, , towns in England?, , appointed by the English Company to deal with the Indian, , a. Because in towns, the Government rules were very, strict, , weavers?, a. Gomastha, , b. Because in towns, urban crafts and trade guilds were, very powerful, , b. Seth, c. Mamlatdar, , c. Because then the electricity was available only for a, short duration, , d. Lambardar, , d. Because in towns, the police was very corrupt, , When was the first cotton mill set-up in India?, a. In 1814, b. In 1834, , When did the earliest factories come up in England?, , c. In 1854, , a. In 1720s, c. In 1740s, 4., , 7., , b. In 1730s, d. In 1750s, , 9., , d. In 1874, , 10. Name the material which were exported to England from, India?, , Which were the two most dynamic industries in Britain?, , a. Rice, , b. Wheat, , a. Cotton Industries, c. Silk Industries, , c. Cotton, , d. Jute, , b. Electronic Industries, d. Metal Industries, , Who improve the steam-engine produced by New, Comen?, a. James Hargreaves, , b. James Watt, , c. Samuel Crompton, , d. John Macadam, , Which Indian port connected India to the Gulf and Red, Sea Ports?, , 11. By 1873, Britain was exporting steel and iron worth how, many millions to foreign countries?, a. About 57 million pounds, b. About 67 million pounds, c. About 77 million pounds, d. About 87 million pounds, 12. Which city of England developed as a finishing centre?, , a. Surat, , b. Broach, , a. Manchester, , b. Liverpool, , c. Calicut, , d. Cochin, , c. Birmingham, , d. London
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.E.48, , 13. What was the main reason for breaking down the network, of foreign trade of the Indian merchants in the 18th, century?, a. The coming of the European companies, b. The mutual conflict of the Indian rulers, c. Continuous famines in India, d. The foreign competition, 14. Who were the first European nations to come to India?, a. The English, b. The French, c. The Dutch, d. The Portuguese, 15. Who, among the following, improved the steam engine, produced by New Comen?, a. Mathew Boulton, b. James Watt, c. Henry Ford, d. Grahm Bell, 16. Which of the following group of industries were the, dynamic industries of England during its earliest phase of, industrialisation?, a. Cotton and metals, b. Cotton and silk, c. Silk and Footwear, d. Footwear and glass, , 22. Where was the first jute mill set up?, a. Bengal, b. Haryana, c. Gujarat, d. Karnataka, 23. Who was a ‘Jobber’?, a. Trusted worker, c. Dancer, , b. Painter, d. Soldier, , 24. What was the ‘Fly Shuttle’ used for?, a. Washing, b. Weaving c. Drying, , d. Sowing, , 25. Who created the first ‘cotton mill’?, a. Mathew Boulton, b. James Hargreaves, c. Henry Patullo, d. Richard Arkwright, 26. Who improved the Steam Engine?, a. Samuel Luke Fildes, b. Bhai Bhosle, c. James Watt, d. None of these, 27. In what goods did the Indians dominate the international, market?, a. Spices, b. Silk, c. Cotton, d. Both (b.) and (c.), , 17. What did the term ‘Orient’ refer to?, a. England, b. Asia, c. Russia, d. America, , 28. Which Company sought to monopolise rights to trade in, India?, a. East India Company, b. Bird Heilgers and Co., c. Andrew Yule, d. Both (a.) and (c.), , 18. Which is the pioneer country in industrialisation?, a. Russia, b. India, c. England, d. None of these, , 29. Who was Dwarkanath Tagore?, a. Soldier, b. Industrialist, c. Painter, d. Author, , 19. What was the ‘Spinning Jenny’?, a. Machine, b. Vehicle, c. Song, d. Dance form, 20. Which among these was a pre-colonial sea port?, a. Vishakhapatnam, b. Chennai, c. Hooghly, d. Cochin, 21. Where was the first cotton mill set up?, a. Surat, b. Bombay, c. Calcutta, d. Kerala, , 30. Which industries were busy in the cold months?, a. Gas works, b. Mining, c. Breweries, d. Both (a.) and (c.), ANSWERS, 1., c, 11., c, 21., b, , , , 2., b, 12., d, 22., a, , 3., b, 13., a, 23., a, , 4., a, 14., d, 24., b, , 5., b, 15., b, 25., d, , 6., a, 16., a, 26., c, , 7., b, 17., b, 27., d, , 8., a, 18., c, 28., a, , 9., c, 19., a, 29., b, , 10., b, 20., c, 30., d
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Work, Life and Leisure, , 11, , II.E.49, , Work, Life and Leisure, , Towns and cities that first appeared along river valleys, such as, Ur, Nippur and Mohenjo Daro, were larger in scale than other, human settlements. They can be densely settled modern day, metropolises, which combine political and economic functions, for an entire region, and support very large populations., Characteristics of City: Ancient cities developed when food, became surplus to support a wide range of non-food producers., Cities were the centres of political power, administrative, network, trade and industry, religious institutions and, intellectual activity. The cities supported various social groups, such as artisans, merchants and priests. The promise of work, continued to attract more people to the city, causing a severe, housing shortage. Most of the migrant workers lived in, tenements. Three major concerns that led to better housing for, the poor were: the threat to public health, the possibility of fire, hazards and fear of social disorder. The city gradually, underwent urbanisation as people migrated to it for work., Urbanisation refers to the development of a city or town., During the First World War (1914–18) London began, manufacturing motor cars and electrical goods, and the number, of large factories increased until they accounted for nearly one, third of all jobs in the city., Industrialisation and the Rise of the Modern City in, England: In 1851, more than three quarters of the adults living, in Manchester were migrants from rural areas. London can be, an ideal example of development of a city. The city of London, was a powerful magnet for migrant populations, even though it, did not have large factories. ‘Nineteenth century London,’ says, the historian Gareth Stedman Jones, ‘was a city of clerks and, shopkeepers, of small masters and skilled artisans, of a, growing number of semi-skilled and sweated out workers, of, soldiers and servants, of casual laborers, street sellers, and, beggars.’ Apart from the London dockyards, five major types, of industries employed large numbers: clothing and footwear,, wood and furniture, metals and engineering, printing and, stationery, and precision products such as surgical instruments,, watches, and objects of precious metal., , Marginal Groups: In the mid-nineteenth century, Henry, Mayhew wrote several volumes on the London labour, and, compiled long lists of those who made a living from crime., Many of whom he listed as ‘criminals’ were in fact poor people, who lived by stealing lead from roofs, food from shops, lumps, of coal, and clothes drying on hedges. There were others who, were more skilled at their trade, expert at their jobs., They were the cheats and tricksters, pickpockets and petty, thieves crowding the streets of London. In an attempt to, discipline the population, the authorities imposed high, penalties for crime and offered work to those who were, considered the ‘deserving poor’., Additionally there was a widespread fear of social disorder,, especially after the Russian Revolution in 1917. Workers’ mass, housing schemes were planned to prevent the London poor, from turning rebellious., Transport in the City: A public transport system became need, of the time, which would enable people to live in far off, suburbs and commute to their workplaces. By the twentieth, century, most large metropolises such as New York, Tokyo and, Chicago could not do without their well-functioning, transportation systems; therefore the population in the city, became more dispersed., Social Change in the City: In the twentieth century many, social reforms occurred, as women got employment in war, time industries and offices, they withdrew from domestic, service. Women of the upper and middle classes in Britain, faced isolation at higher levels, although their lives were, made easier by domestic maids who cooked, cleaned and, cared for young children on low wages. Women who worked, for wages had some control over their lives, particularly, among the lower social classes., However, many social reformers felt that the family as an, institution had broken down, and needed to be saved or, reconstructed by pushing these women back into the home.
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II.E.50, , Men, Women and Family in the City: The city no doubt, encouraged a new spirit of individualism among both men and, women, and a freedom from the collective values that were a, feature of the smaller rural communities. But men and women, did not have equal access to this new urban space. As women, lost their industrial jobs and conservative people railed against, their presence in public spaces, women were forced to withdraw, into their homes. The public space became increasingly a male, preserve, and the domestic sphere was seen as the proper place, for women. The family now consisted of much smaller units., Above all, the family became the heart of a new market of goods, and services, and of ideas., If the new industrial city provided opportunities for mass work,, it also raised the problem of mass leisure on Sundays and other, common holidays., Leisure and Consumption: The working classes met in pubs, to have a drink, exchange news and sometimes also to organise, for political action. Libraries, art galleries and museums were, established in the nineteenth century to provide people with a, sense of history and pride in the achievements of the British., Music halls were popular among the lower classes, and, by the, early twentieth century, cinema became the great mass, entertainment for mixed audiences., Contradictory Experiences of Cities Bombay: In the, seventeenth century, Bombay was a group of seven islands, under Portuguese control. In 1661, control of the islands, passed into British hands after the marriage of Britain’s King, Charles II to the Portuguese princess. The East India Company, quickly shifted its base from Surat, its principal western port, to, Bombay. At first, Bombay was the major outlet for cotton, textiles from Gujarat. Gradually, it also became an important, administrative centre in western India, and then, by the end of, the nineteenth century, a major industrial centre., Bombay as the City of Dreams: Better town planning was, carried out with lots of greenery and open spaces to induce a, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , sense of calm. This was believed to help produce more, responsible citizens. Bombay became the capital of the, Bombay Presidency in 1819, after the Maratha defeat in the, Anglo Maratha war., The Bombay Fort area which formed the heart of the city in the, early 1800s was divided between a ‘native’ town, where most, of the Indians lived, and a European or ‘white’ section. A, European suburb and an industrial zone began to develop to the, north of the Fort settlement area, with a similar suburb and, cantonment in the south. This racial pattern was true of all, three Presidency cities. Like the European elite, the richer, Parsi, Muslim and upper caste traders and industrialists of, Bombay lived in sprawling, spacious bungalows., Chawls were multi-storeyed structures which had been built, from at least the 1860s in the ‘native’ parts of the town. People, who belonged to the ‘depressed classes’ found it even more, difficult to find housing. Lower castes were kept out of many, chawls and often had to live in shelters made of corrugated, sheets, leaves, or bamboo poles., After that, there was no turning back; Bombay had become, India’s film capital, producing films for a national audience., Most of the people in the film industry were themselves, migrants who came from cities like Lahore, Calcutta, and, Madras and contributed to the national character of the, industry., Cities and the Challenges of the Environment: City, development everywhere occurred at the expense of ecology, and the environment. Natural features were flattened out or, transformed in response to the growing demand for space for, factories, housing and other institutions. Large quantities of, refuse and waste products polluted air and water, while, excessive noise became a feature of urban life. When people, first joined campaigns for cleaner air, the goal was to control, the nuisance through legislation. This was not at all easy, since, factory owners and steam engine owners did not want to spend, on technologies that would improve their machines., , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , Name the novel written by Durgacharan Ray about the, city of Calcutta., a. Durgesh Nandini, b. Nirmala, c. Godaan, d. Debganer Martye Aagaman, , 2., , Name one factor which changed the form of urbanisation, the modern world., a. Capitalism, b. Secularism, c. Industrialisation, d. Unemployment
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Work, Life and Leisure, , 3., , Name the two industrial cities of Britain., a. Manchester, b. Cambridge, c. Oxford, d. Leeds, , 4., , What was the population of London in 1750?, a. 375,000, b. 475,000, c. 575,000, d. 675,000, , 5., , Why were the migrants attracted towards London and, Manchester?, a. To get better education facilities for their children, b. To live a life of leisure and pleasure, c. To enjoy the city life, d. To avail of job facilities in textile mills, , 6, , Which two industries developed in London during the, First World War?, a. Textile Industry, b. Iron Industry, c. Motor Car Industry, d. Electrical goods, , 7., , Who built tenements for the migrant workers?, a. The government, b. The Factory owners, c. The industrialists, d. Individual landowners, , 8., , Who one of the following architects and the planners, developed the principle of Garden City?, a. Charles Bondt, b. Ebenezer Howard, c. Joseph Mathews, d. Charles Wood, , 9., , What was the expected life of poor workers in London in, 1877 according to Charles Booth’s survey?, a. 29 years, b. 39 years, c. 49 years, d. 59 years, , 10. Between the two World Wars (1919–1939), who accepted, the responsibility of housing of the poor class in England?, a. The Industrialists, b. The British State, c. The Private landowners, d. The Social Groups, 11. Which one of the following factors solved the problem of, housing of the poor?, a. The Paris underground railway, b. Moscow underground railway, c. The local buses, d. The London underground railway, 12. Why were the people afraid of travelling in the, Underground Railways?, a. They felt that they would be burned alive, b. They felt that they would die because of suffocation, c. They felt that they would die of accident, d. All of these, , II.E.51, , 13. What was the Chartist Movement?, a. It was the movement to get equal pay for equal work, b. It was the movement to against the rise of prices, c. It was the movement to fix reasonable hour for work, d. It was the movement to get the right to vote for every, adult, 14. What do you mean by a Chawl?, a. It was a one room tenement for the poor labourers, b. It was a boarding house for the students, c. It was hospital for the poor patients, d. It was a separate colony for the washerman to live, 15. Which one of the following is correct about the Annual, London Season?, a. It was meant for wealthy Britishers only, b. Organised for an elite group of 300–400 families, c. Several cultural events were organised, d. All the above, 16. After reclamation how many islands were joined together, to develop the city of Bombay (Mumbai)?, a. Seven, b. Five, c. Three, d. Ten, 17. Who wrote “The Gods Visit Earth”?, a. Andrew Mearns, b. Gareth Jones, c. Durgacharan Ray, d. Henry Mayhew, 18. What does a ‘metropolis’ refer to?, a. State, b. Capital, c. Country, d. Town, 19. Which among these was ‘not’ an early industrial city of, Britain?, a. Leeds, b. Manchester, c. London, d. Both (a.) and (b.), 20. What does a philanthropist work for?, a. Industrial development, b. Peace and security, c. Social upliftment, d. None of these, 21. Two major types of industries in London which employed, large number of workers., a. Clothing and footwear, b. Jute and chemicals, c. Iron and Steel, d. Silk and cotton, 22. Who was the architect and planner of London?, a. Raymond Unwin, b. Barry Parker, c. Ebenezer Howard, d. Both (b.) and (c.)
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II.E.52, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 23. Who designed the Garden City of New Earswick?, a. Raymond Unwin, b. Charles Booth, c. Barry Parker, d. Both (a.) and (c.), , 28. What was Charles Booths’ contribution to London?, a. Housing facilities, b. Raised funds, c. First social survey, d. None of these, , 24. Who wrote “The Bitter Cry of Outcast London”?, a. Gareth Jones, b. Andrew Mearns, c. Charles Dickens, d. None of these, , 29. When was the first underground railway introduced?, a. 1863, b. 1880, c. 1887, d. 1889, 30. Who was Haussmann?, a. He founded Paris, b. He rebuilt Paris, c. He designed Paris, d. None of these, , 25. Which famous writers migrated from Lahore?, a. Ismat Chughtai and Saadat Manto, b. Saadat Hasan Manto and Kali Prasanna, c. Kali Prasanna Singh and Ismat Chughtai, d. None of these, 26. What were ‘tenements’?, a. Over-crowded apartments, b. Official documents, c. Surgical instruments, d. Wartimes offices, 27. Which among these were presidency cities?, a. Bombay, b. Bengal, c. Madras, d. All of the above, , ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , d, , c, , a,d, , d, , d, , c, , d, , b, , a, , b, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , d, , b, , d, , a, , d, , a, , c, , b, , c, , c, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , a, , b, , b, , b, , a, , a, , b, , c, , a, , b, ,
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Print Culture and the Modern World, , 12, , Print Culture, and the Modern World, , The earliest kind of print technology was developed in China,, Japan and Korea; it was a system of hand printing. From AD 594, onwards, books in China were printed by rubbing paper against, the inked surface of woodblocks. China possessed a huge, bureaucratic system which recruited its personnel through civil, service examinations. Textbooks for this examination were, printed in vast numbers under the sponsorship of the imperial, state. From the sixteenth century, the number of examination, candidates went up and that increased the volume of print. From, hand printing there was now a steady shift to mechanical, printing. Buddhist missionaries from China introduced hand, printing technology into Japan around AD 768–770., The reading culture was accompanied by a new technologies, Western printing techniques and mechanical presses. In the late, nineteenth century as Western powers established their outposts, in China and Shanghai became the hub of the new print culture,, catering to the Western style schools., Note, In AD 868 printed the oldest Japanese book is the Buddhist, Diamond Sutra, containing six sheets of text and woodcut, illustrations. Pictures were printed on textiles, playing cards, and paper money., In medieval Japan, poets and prose writers were regularly, published and books were cheap and abundant. Printing of, visual material led to interesting publishing practices., In the late eighteenth century; Urban circles at Edo (later to, be known as Tokyo) flourished; Illustrated collections of, paintings depicted an elegant urban culture involving, artists, courtesans, and teahouse gatherings., Print Comes to Europe: After many years of exploration in, China in 1295 Marco Polo a great explorer, returned to Italy. He, brought the knowledge of printing technology with him. Then, Italians began producing books with woodblocks, and soon the, technology spread to other parts of Europe., The breakthrough occurred at Strasbourg, Germany, where, Johann Gutenberg developed the first known printing press in, the 1430s., , II.E.53, , Print Revolution and its Impact: The time and labour, required to produce each book came down, and multiple copies, could be produced with greater ease. Books flooded the, market, reaching out to an ever growing readership. Access to, books created a new culture of reading. But the transition was, not so simple. Books could be read only by the literate and the, rates of literacy in most European countries were very low till, the twentieth century. To encourage reading the printers began, publishing popular ballads and folk tales profusely illustrated, with pictures., Effect on Religion: The religious reformer Martin Luther, wrote 95 theses criticising many of the practices and rituals of, the Roman Catholic Church in 1517. A printed copy of this, was posted on a church door in Wittenberg. It challenged the, Church to debate his ideas. Several scholars, in fact, think that, print brought about a new intellectual atmosphere and helped, spread the new ideas that led to the Reformation., The Roman Church, troubled by such effects of popular, readings and questionings of faith, imposed severe controls, over publishers and booksellers and began to maintain an Index, of Prohibited Books from 1558., The Reading Mania: As literacy and schools spread, there was, a virtual reading mania in European countries. People wanted, books to read and printers produced books in ever increasing, numbers. There were almanacs or ritual calendars, along with, ballads and folktales. The reading entertainment material began, to reach ordinary readers as well. Books were of various sizes,, serving many different purposes and interests. The periodical, press developed from the early eighteenth century, combining, information about current affairs with entertainment., Newspapers and journals carried information about wars and, trade, as well as news of developments in other places., Print Culture and the French Revolution: The writings of, Voltaire and Rousseau were read widely. Those who read these, books saw the world through new eyes that were questioning,, critical and rational. A new culture of dialogue and debate, created by print only. This literature circulated underground, and led to the growth of hostile sentiments against the, monarchy.
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II.E.54, , From the late nineteenth century the primary education became, compulsory then children became an important category of, readers. Production of school textbooks became critical for the, publishing industry. In France in 1857 children’s press,, devoted to literature for children alone, was set up. Lending, libraries had been in existence from the seventeenth century, onwards. In the nineteenth century, lending libraries in England, became instruments for educating white collar workers,, artisans and lower middle class people. Sometimes, selfeducated working class people wrote for themselves. After the, working day was gradually shortened from the mid-nineteenth, century, workers had some time for self-improvement and selfexpression., In the late nineteenth century, the offset press was developed, which could print up to six colours at a time. From the turn of, the twentieth century, electrically operated presses accelerated, printing operations. In the 1920s in England, popular works, were sold in cheap series, called the Shilling Series. The dust, cover or the book jacket is also a twentieth century innovation., With the onset of the Great Depression in the 1930s, publishers, feared a decline in book purchases., Note, Gutenberg was the son of a merchant and grew up on a, large agricultural estate. From his childhood he had seen, wine and olive presses. He learnt the art of polishing stones,, became a master goldsmith, and also acquired the expertise, to create lead moulds used for making trinkets. Drawing on, this knowledge, Gutenberg adapted existing technology to, design his innovation. The olive press provided the model, for the printing press., The first book Bible was printed by him; about 180 copies, were printed in 3 years. The new technology did not, entirely displace the existing art of producing books by, hand., The metal letters imitated the ornamental handwritten, styles. In the 100 years between 1450 and 1550, printing, presses were set up in most countries of Europe. Printers, from Germany traveled to other countries, seeking work, and helping start new presses., The second half of the fifteenth century saw 20 million, copies of printed books flooding the markets in Europe., India and the World of Printing: India had a very rich and, old tradition of handwritten manuscripts – in Sanskrit, Arabic,, and Persian also in various vernacular languages. Manuscripts, were copied on palm leaves or on handmade paper. Pages, were sometimes beautifully illustrated; they would be either, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , pressed between wooden covers to ensure preservation. In the, mid-sixteenth century the printing press came to Goa with, Portuguese missionaries., New ideas emerged through these clashes of opinions. This, was a time of intense controversies between social and, religious reformers and the Hindu orthodoxy over matters like, widow immolation, monotheism, Brahmanical priesthood and, idolatry., In Bengal, as the debate developed, tracts and newspapers, proliferated, circulating a variety of arguments. In the same, year, a Gujarati newspaper, the Bombay Samachar, made its, appearance. In North India, the ulama were deeply anxious, about the collapse of Muslim dynasties., In different ways, they reinforced the new emphasis on human, lives and intimate feelings, about the political and social rules, that shaped such things. By the end of the nineteenth century, a, new visual culture was taking shape., Note, In East Bengal, in the early nineteenth century, Rashsundari, Debi, a young married girl in a very orthodox household,, learnt to read in the secrecy of her kitchen., Later, she wrote her autobiography Aamar Jiban which was, published in 1876. It was the first full length autobiography, published in the Bengali language., Women and Printing: Lives and feelings of women began to, be written in particularly vivid and intense ways. Women’s, reading, therefore, increased enormously in middleclass, homes. Liberal husbands and fathers began educating their, womenfolk at home, and sent them to schools when women’s, schools were set up in the cities and towns after the mid, nineteenth century. Conservative Hindus believed that a, literate girl would be widowed and Muslims feared that, educated women would be corrupted by reading Urdu, romances. Since social reforms and novels had already, created a great interest in women’s lives and emotions, there, was also an interest in what women would have to say about, their own lives. By the late nineteenth century, a lot of these, books were being profusely illustrated with woodcuts and, coloured lithographs., Printing and the Poor People: In nineteenth century very, cheap small books were brought to markets of Madras towns, and sold at crossroads, allowing poor people traveling to, markets to buy them. Public libraries were set up from the, early twentieth century, expanding the access to books.
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Print Culture and the Modern World, , In the twentieth century, B R Ambedkar in Maharashtra and E, V Ramaswamy Naicker in Madras, better known as Periyar,, wrote powerfully on caste and their writings were read by, people all over India., By the 1930s, Bangalore cotton millworkers set up libraries to, educate themselves, following the example of Bombay, workers. These were sponsored by social reformers who tried, to restrict excessive drinking among them, to bring literacy, and, sometimes, to propagate the message of nationalism., Note, From the 1860s, a few Bengali women like Kailashbashini, Debi wrote books highlighting the experiences of women, about how women were imprisoned at home, kept in, ignorance, forced to do hard domestic labour and treated, unjustly by the very people they served. In the 1880s, in, present day Maharashtra, Tarabai Shinde and Pandita, Ramabai wrote with passionate anger about the miserable, lives of upper caste Hindu women, especially widows., In Punjab, too, a similar folk literature was widely printed, from the early twentieth century. Ram Chaddha published, the fast selling Istri Dharm Vichar to teach women how to, be obedient wives., , II.E.55, , In the early nineteenth century in the East Bengal, a young, married girl Rashsundari Debi, very orthodox household,, learnt to read in the secrecy of her kitchen. Later, she wrote, her autobiography Aamar Jiban which was published in, 1876. It was the first full length autobiography published in, the Bengali language., In 1878, the Vernacular Press Act was passed, modeled on, the Irish Press Laws. It provided the government with, extensive rights to censor reports and editorials in the, vernacular press., From now on the government kept regular track of the, vernacular newspapers published in different provinces., Printing and Censorship: After the revolt of 1857, the attitude, to freedom of the press changed. Enraged Englishmen, demanded a clamp down on the ‘native’ press. As vernacular, newspapers became assertively nationalist, the colonial, government began debating measures of stringent control., When Punjab revolutionaries were deported in 1907,, Balgangadhar Tilak wrote with great sympathy about them in, his Kesari. This led to his imprisonment in 1908, provoking in, turn widespread protests all over India., , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , Where was the earliest kind of print technology, developed?, a. England, b. Germany, c. China, d. Russia, , 2., , For what purpose, the earliest textbooks were printed in, China?, a. To recruit the Civil servants through written, examination, b. To teach the religious priests, c. To train the factory workers, d. All of these, , 3., , 4., , What was the oldest Japanese book printed in Japan round, about 868 AD?, a. The Buddhist Diamond Sutra, b. The Jain Diamond Sutra, c. The Manusmriti, d. The Jatakas, Who was Gutenberg?, a. A great inventor of France, b. A great inventor of Germany, c. A great Russian inventor, d. A great British inventor, , 5., , For which invention Gutenberg is so famous?, a. For the invention of Printing Press, b. For the invention of Gunpowder, c. For the invention of Flying Shuttle, d. For the invention of Aeroplane, , 6., , During which period printing presses were set up in most, countries of Europe?, a. 1250–1350 AD, b. 1350–1450 AD, c. 1450–1550 AD, d. 1550–1650 AD, , 7., , Who was Martin Luther?, a. Religious reformer of Germany, b. Religious reformer of France, c. Religious reformer of Austria, d. Religious reformer of Holland, , 8., , What is meant by Reformation?, a. It was a reform movement to reform the Catholic Church, b. It was a reform movement to reform the Protestant, Church, c. It was a reform movement to reform the religion of, Jews, d. It was a reform movement to reform the Hindu religion
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.E.56, , 9., , Who were scribes?, a. They were factory workers, b. They were the clergymen, c. They wrote the manuscripts by hand, d. They were the farmers, , 10. What were the cheap books known in England and, France?, a. Chapbooks, b. Bibliotheque Bleuea, c. Handbooks, d. Textbooks, 11. When did the first printing press come to India?, a. In the middle of the 16th Century, b. In the middle of the 17th Century, c. In the middle of the 18th Century, d. In the middle of the 19th Century, 12. Raja Rammohan Roy began to publish which weekly?, a. Sambad Kaumudi, b. The Bengal Gazette, c. The Hindu Patrika, d. The Kesari, 13. Name two Persian newspapers which began to be, published in India in the early 19th century., b. The Hindustan, a. Jam-i-Jahan Numa, c. The Persian Chronicle, d. Shamsul Akbar, 14. Name two Muslim writers who extensively debated for, the education of Muslim women., a. Altaf Hassan Ali, b. Shaukat Ali, c. Muhammad Ali, d. Begum Rokeya Sakhawat Hossain, 15. The first printing press came to India with which one of, the following:, a. Portuguese Missionaries b. Catholic Priests, c. Dutch Protestants, d. East India Company, 16. Who among the following developed the first known, printing press in the 1430s?, a. Johann Gutenberg, b. James Watt, c. New Comon, d. Marconi, 17. What is ‘calligraphy’?, a. Stylised writing, c. Textbooks, , b. Poetry, d. Flower arrangement, , 18. What was the ‘Edo’?, a. Flourishing urban circles, b. Illustrated collection of paintings, c. Libraries, d. Old name of Tokyo, 19. Who got the printing technology of China to Italy?, a. Van Gogh, b. Marco Polo, c. Manet, d. None of these, 20. What was Gutenberg’s first printed book?, a. Ballads, b. Dictionary, c. Bible, d. None of these, 21. Who was Martin Luther?, a. Painter, c. Religious reformer, , b. Poet, d. All of these, , 22. Which scholar expressed a deep anxiety about printing?, a. Martin Luther, b. Erasmus, c. Johann Gutenberg, d. None of these, 23. What were ‘Penny Chabboks’?, a. Ritual calendars, b. Journals, c. Newspaper, d. Pocket-sized books, 24. What did Menocchio, the miller do?, a. Commissioned artists, b. Enraged the Roman Catholic Church, c. Wrote the Adages, d. None of these, 25. Who was James Lackington?, a. Publisher, b. Painter, c. Scholar, d. Reformer, ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , c, , a, , a, , b, , a, , c, , a, , a, , c, , a, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , a, , a, , d, , b, , c, , a, , a, , a, , a, , a, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , c, , b, , d, , b, , a
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Novels, Society and History, , 13, , II.E.57, , Novels, Society and History, , The novel is a modern form of literature. It is born from print,, a mechanical invention. In ancient times manuscripts were, handwritten. These circulated among very few people. In, contrast, because of being printed, novels were widely read, and became popular very quickly. Technological, improvements in printing brought down the price of books and, innovations in marketing led to expanded sales. In France,, publishers found that they could make super profits by hiring, out novels by the hour. The worlds created by novels were, absorbing and believable, and seemingly real. While reading, novels, the reader was transported to another person’s world,, and began looking at life as it was experienced by the, characters of the novel., , The New Woman, During the eighteenth century the middle classes became more, prosperous then women got more leisure to read as well as, write novels. And novels began exploring the world of women, and their emotions as well identities, their experiences and, problems. Many novels were about domestic life a theme about, which women were allowed to speak with authority., Novels for the Young: Novels for young boys idealised a new, type of man: someone who was powerful, assertive,, independent and daring. Love stories written for adolescent, girls also first became popular in this period, especially in the, US, notably Ramona (1884) by Helen Hunt Jackson and a, series entitled What Katy Did (1872) by Sarah Chauncey, , Note, Novels: Novels are easy to print and widely read was born, from print., A manuscript is hand written book difficult to prepare and, there were only few readers can read it., Novelists Charles Dickens wrote about the terrible effects, of industrialisation on people’s lives and characters. His, novel Hard Times (1854) describes Coke town, a fictitious, industrial town, as a grim place full of machinery, smoking, chimneys, rivers polluted purple and buildings that all, looked the same., Dickens criticised not just the greed for profits but also the, ideas that reduced human beings into simple instruments of, production., , Woolsey, who wrote under the pen name Susan Coolidge., Colonialism and Post-colonialism: The early novel contributed, to colonialism by making the readers feel they were part of a, superior community of fellow colonialists. It was only later, in, the twentieth century that writers like Joseph Conrad (1857–, 1924) wrote novels that showed the darker side of colonial, occupation., Potheri Kunjambu, a ‘lower caste’ writer from North, Kerala, wrote a novel called Saraswativijayam in 1892,, mounting a strong attack on caste oppression., This novel shows a young man from an ‘untouchable’, caste, leaving his village to escape the cruelty of his, , The World of the Novel: More than other forms of writing, which came before, novels are about ordinary people. They do, not focus on the lives of great people or actions that change the, destinies of states and empires., The nineteenth century British novelist Thomas Hardy, for, instance, wrote about traditional rural communities of England, that were fast vanishing. The novel uses the vernacular, the, language that is spoken by common people. By coming closer, to the different spoken languages of the people, the novel, produces the sense of a shared world between diverse people in, a nation. Novels also draw from different styles of language., , Brahmin landlord., He converts to Christianity, obtains modern education,, and returns as the judge in the local court. Meanwhile,, the villagers, thinking that the landlord’s men had killed, him, file a case. At the conclusion of the trial, the judge, reveals his true identity, and the Nambuthiri repents and, reforms his ways., Saraswativijayam stresses the importance of education for, the upliftment of the lower castes. From the 1920s, in, Bengal too a new kind of novel emerged that depicted the, lives of peasants and ‘low’ castes.
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.E.58, , The Novel in India: In the seventh century Banabhatta’s, Kadambari Stories written in Sanskrit were not new to India., The Panchatantra is another. There was also a long tradition of, prose tales of adventure and heroism in Persian and Urdu, known, as dastan., Some of the earliest Indian novels were written in Bengali and, Marathi. The earliest novel in Marathi was Baba Padmanji’s, Yamuna Paryatan (1857), which used a simple style of, storytelling to speak about the plight of widows. This was, followed by Lakshman Moreshwar Halbe’s Muktamala (1861)., Naro Sadashiv Risbud used a highly ornamental style in his, Marathi novel Manjughosha (1868). This novel was filled with, amazing events., In the north, Bharatendu Harishchandra, the pioneer of modern, Hindi literature, encouraged many members of his circle of, poets and writers to recreate and translate novels from other, languages. The writings of Devaki Nandan Khatri created, Chandrakanta a Hindi novel his bestseller, a romance with, dazzling elements of fantasy is believed to have contributed, immensely in popularizing the Hindi language and the Nagari, script among the educated classes of those times. Sevasadan, deals mainly with the poor condition of women in society., Issues like child marriage and dowry are woven into the story, of the novel., In the nineteenth century, the early Bengali novels lived in two, worlds; one group was about historical characters and love, stories based on historical events and another group of novels, depicted the inner world of domestic life in contemporary, settings., Colonial administrators found ‘vernacular’ novels a valuable, source of information on native life and customs. Such, information was useful for them in governing Indian society,, with its large variety of communities and castes. Indians used, the novel as a powerful medium to criticise what they, considered defects in their society and to suggest remedies., Novels also helped in establishing a relationship with the past., Many of them told thrilling stories of adventures and intrigues, , set in the past. Through glorified accounts of the past, these, novels helped in creating a sense of national pride among their, readers., Social novelists often created heroes and heroines with ideal, qualities, who their readers could admire and imitate. Some of, them wrote in newspapers and magazines, advising people to, stay away from the immoral influence of novels. Women and, children were often singled out for such advice: they were seen, as easily corruptible. Some parents kept novels in the lofts in, their houses, out of their children’s reach. Young people often, read them in secret. This passion was not limited only to the, youth., In the early decades of the twentieth century, women in south, India also began writing novels and short stories. Some women, authors also wrote about women who changed the world of, both men and women., Caste Practices, ‘Lower Castes’ and Minorities: In late, nineteenth century Kerala, a younger generation of English, educated Nayar men who had acquired property and wealth on, their own, began arguing strongly against Nambuthiri alliances, with Nayar women. Advaita Malla Burman’s (1914–51) Titash, Ekti Nadir Naam (1956) is an epic about the Mallas, a, community of fisher folk who live off fishing in the river, Titash. The novel is about three generations of the Mallas,, about their recurring tragedies and the story of Ananta, a child, born of parents who were tragically separated after their, wedding night. The novel describes the community life of the, Mallas in great detail, their Holi and Kali Puja festivals, boat, races, bhatiali songs, their relationships of friendship and, animosity with the peasants and the oppression of the upper, castes., These histories could not satisfy the tastes of the new Indian, administrators and intellectuals. Nor did the traditional Puranic, stories of the past – peopled by gods and demons, filled with, the fantastic and the supernatural – seem convincing to those, educated and working under the English system., , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , Which invention made the novel popular?, a. The invention of ink, b. Increase in the number of readers, c. Invention of the print, d. The discovery of metals, , 2., , Give the name of the novel written by Henry Fielding, a. Return of the Native, b. The Mayor of Casterbridge, c. Tom Jones, d. Oliver Twist
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Novels, Society and History, , II.E.59, , 3., , Who was the author of the novel named ‘Pamela’?, a. Henry Fielding, b. Samuel Richardson, c. Charles Dickens, d. Thomas Hardy, , 12. Which was the first modern novel in Malayalam?, a. Rajasekhara, b. Indulekha, c. Pariksha Guru, d. Sevasadan, , 4., , Name two important novels of Charles Dickens?, a. Pamela, b. Far from the Madding Crowd, c. Hard Times, d. Oliver Twist, , 5., , Name two important novels of Thomas Hardy., a. The Return of the Native, b. Pamela, c. Pride of Prejudice, d. The Mayor of Casterbridge, , 13. Who was the author of Telugu novel Rajasekhara, Caritamu written in 1878?, a. Srinivas Das, b. Sarat Chandra Chattopadhyay, c. Viresalingam, d. O. Chandu Menon, , 6., , 7., , What is the theme of Jane Austen’s novel ‘Pride and, Prejudice’?, a. It gives us a glimpse of life of rural women in England, in the early 19th Century, b. It gives us a glimpse of life of a urban women in, England in the early 19th Century, c. It gives us a glimpse of life of French women living in, Paris, d. All of these, Name the two novels which were written for the younger, generation, a. Treasure lslands, b. Pariksha Guru, c. Yamuna, d. The Jungle Book, , 8., , Who is the author of the novel ‘Robinson Crusoe’?, a. Charles Dickens, b. Thomas Hardy, c. Joseph Conrad, d. Daniel Defoe, , 9., , Name the author who in his novels shows the darker side, of colonial occupation, a. Joseph Conrad, b. Daniel Defoe, c. Helen Hunt Jackson, d. Sarah Chauncey Woolsey, , 10. The earliest India novels were in which two languages?, a. Punjabi, b. Bengali, c. Marathi, d. Ganga, 11. Which was the earliest novel in Marathi?, a. Kadambari, b. Panchatantra, c. Yamuna, d. Ganga, , 14. Who is regarded as the best novelist in the Hindi, literature?, a. Advaita Malla Barman, b. Potheri Kunjambu, c. Srinivas Das, d. Munshi Prem Chand, 15. Who among the following is the author of the novel ‘Hard, Times’?, a. Leo Tolstoy, b. Thomas Hardy, c. Charles Dickens, d. Samuel Richardson, 16. Who among the following is the author of the novel, ‘Pariksha Gurus’?, a. Prem Chand, b. Srinivas Das, c. Devki Nandan Khatri, d. Chandu Menon, 17. In which countries was the concept of the Novel born?, a. Italy and England, b. Germany and Italy, c. England and France, d. None of these, 18. What is an ‘epistolary novel’?, a. Novel written in series of letters, b. Novel based on a biographical account, c. Novel written in poetic verse, d. None of these, 19. What did Samuel Richardson write?, a. Germinal, b. Oliver Twist, c. Pamella, d. None of these, 20. Who wrote Hard Times?, a. Charles Dickens, c. Emile Zola, , b. Emily Bronte, d. Thomas Hardy, , 21. Who collected popular Scottish ballads?, a. Thomas Hardy, b. Henry Fielding, c. Walter Scott, d. Charles Dickens, 22. Who wrote the novel Germinal?, a. Emile Zola, b. Emily Bronte, c. Jane Austen, d. Rudyard Kipling
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.E.60, , 23. Who wrote Jane Eyre?, a. Jane Austen, c. Emily Bronte, , b. Charlotte Bronte, d. None of these, , 24. What was meant by ‘vernacular’?, a. Classical language, b. Stylised writing, c. Literary language, d. Language of the common people, 25. Daniel Defoe’s hero, Robinson Crusoe was a:, a. Pirate, b. Adventurer, c. Slave trader, d. Both (b.) and (c.), 26. What did ‘Kissa-goi’ mean?, a. Vagabond, b. Moralising, c. The art of storytelling, d. Slave trade, 27. What was the first historical novel in Assam called?, a. Manomati, b. Phulmoni, c. Karuna, d. Jonaki, , 28. Which novel talks about the topsy-turvy world in which, women take the place of men?, a. Sultana’s Dream, b. Padmarag, c. Indulekha, d. Indirabai, 29. Which is Premchand’s best-known work?, a. Rangbhoomi, b. Godan, c. Sevasadan, d. None of these, 30. Which novel was written by members of the upper caste?, a. Saraswativijayam, b. Indirabai, c. Indulekha, d. Both (b.) and (c.), ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , c, , c, , b, , c,d, , a, , a, , a, , d, , a, , b, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , c, , b, , c, , d, , c, , b, , c, , a, , c, , a, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , c, , a, , b, , d, , d, , c, , a, , a, , b, , d, ,
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Section, , F, , geography, Chapter in this sECTION, 1. India: Physical Features, , II.F.3, , 2. Drainage and Climate, , II.F.7, , 3. Natural Vegetation, Wild Life and Resources II.F.12, 4. , , Population, , II.F.16, , 5. Resources for Human Needs, , II.F.19, , 6. Water Resources and Agriculture, , II.F.25, , 7. Minerals and Energy Resources, , II.F.31, , 8. , , II.F.36, , Manufacturing Industries, , 9. Lifelines of the National Economy, , II.F.40
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India: Physical Features, , 1, , II.F.3, , India: Physical Features, , The Himalayas and other lofty mountains form India’s, northern boundary except in the Nepal region. In the, Northwest, Afghanistan and Pakistan border on India. A, series of mountain ranges in the East separate India from, Burma also in the East is Bangladesh bounded by Indian, states of West Bengal, Assam, Meghalaya, and Tripura and, Mizoram. The Gulf of Mannar and the Palk Straits separate, India from Sri Lanka. The Andaman and Nicobar Islands in, the Bay of Bengal and Lakshadweep in the Arabian Sea are, parts of the territory of India., Kanyakumari is the southernmost tip on the mainland is, situated on three seas (Indian Ocean, Arabian Sea and Bay, of Bengal)., Indira Point in Great Nicobar in the Andaman and Nicobar, Islands is the southernmost point of the Indian union. It, has got submerged under sea water in 2004 during the, Tsunami., The Tropic of Cancer (23°30’N) divides India into almost, two equal parts. The southern part is in tropical zone, while its northern is in sub-tropical zone., The central location of India at the head of the Indian Ocean, is of great advantage. Hence countries of East Africa and, West Asia can be reached through sea routes. As such India, can establish close cultural and commercial relation with, these countries., Note, Subcontinent – It is a landmass having a distinct character in, respect of physical features, climate, vegetation and the other, aspects of cultural environment from the rest of the continent., Indian subcontinent consists of Pakistan, Indian, Bhutan,, Nepal and Bangladesh; Sri Lanka is often included in the, subcontinent., Location and Size, The mainland extends between latitudes 8°4 N and 37°6, N and longitudes 68°7 E and 97°25 E; The latitudinal, and longitudinal extent of the mainland is about 30°., The country is divided into almost two equal parts by the, Tropic of Cancer (23°30 N)., India has a landmass of 3.28 million square km which, accounts for about 2.4% of the total geographical area of, the world; It has a land boundary of about 15,200 km and, , the mainland including the Andaman and Nicobar and, Lakshadweep has a coastline of 7,516.6 km., India’s Neighbours: India has 29 states and 7 Union, Territories; its land boundaries are shared by Pakistan and, Afghanistan in the Northwest; China (Tibet), Nepal and, Bhutan in the North; Myanmar and Bangladesh in the East, and Sri Lanka and Maldives, both island countries are our, southern neighbours., A narrow channel of sea formed by Palk Strait and Gulf of, Mannar separates India from Sri Lanka., Maldives islands are situated to the South of Lakshadweep, islands., India’s distance from Europe has been reduced by 7,000, km since the opening of the Suez Canal in 1869., India’s Standard Time: The standard time for the whole, country is the time along the Standard Meridian of India, 82°30 E passing through Mirzapur in Uttar Pradesh. There is, a time lag of 2hrs from Gujarat to Arunachal Pradesh. The, sun shines overhead at noon twice a year at all places which, is situated between the Equator and the Tropic of Cancer, in, the Northern Hemisphere. Since, Ahmedabad (23°3’N) falls, within this range, it sees the sun overhead twice in a year., Besides Nepal, Sri Lanka also adopts 82°30’E as the standard, meridian to have uniformity of time with India. It avoids the, inconvenience caused from local time. Local time at each, longitude is different. There is about 2 hours different, between the local time of Eastern most part and western most, parts of India., The Different Regions: According to the Theory of Plate, Tectonics, the crust of the earth has been formed out of seven, major and minor plates. The movement of the plates causes, stress within the plates and continental rocks resulting in, folding faulting and volcanic activity. The plate boundaries, may be classified into convergent boundary, divergent, boundary and transform boundary., The northern mountains are a rich source of water resources, and forest wealth., The northern plains are the granaries of the country., The plateau is a storehouse of minerals., The coastal region and the islands facilitate fishing and, port activities.
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.F.4, , Table: 1.1 Himalayan Mountains., , Geography, , Composition, , Special, features, , Himadri, It is the most, continuous, range with an, average height, of 600 m., They are a, symmetrical in, nature., , Himachal, The height, varies between, 3700 and 4500, m and width 50, km., These ranges are, composed of, compressed and, altered rocks., , They are, composed of, granite., It is covered, with snow, throughout the, year and a no., of glaciers, descent from, this range., , Pir Panjal range, forms the, longest range, and Dhauladhar, and Mahabhart, are prominent, ones, , Shivalik, There height, varies from 900, to 1100 m and, width 10 to 50, km., These ranges are, composed of, loose sediment, brought down by, rivers from main, Himalayan, ranges., They are, composed of, sediment, and, alluvial., The longitudinal, valley between, Himadri and, Shivalik form, duns., , They lie above, the flood plain., , The Peninsular Plateau: It is an elevated upland with, relatively extensive level surface. The Plateau is bounded by, deep slops on one or more sides. It is uneven and rocky. The, Peninsular Plateau which forms the oldest structure of Indian, subcontinent was formed due to the breaking and drifting of the, Gondwanaland. The Plateau has broad and shallow valley and, rounded hills. Narmada river divide it into two main divisions:, 1., , Central Highland: It is made of hard igneous and, metamorphic rocks. It lies North to the Narmada and, covers a major area of Malwa Plateau. Few rivers like, Narmada and Tapi originate from these hills. In the, extreme West by the rocky desert of Rajasthan, in the, North-west by the Aravallis. In the North by Gangetic, Plain and in the South by Vindhya range. The Eastward, extension of this plateau are locally knows as the, Bundelkhand. The Chota Nagpur Plateau marks the further, eastward extension drained by Damodar river., K2, KA, , Nanga, Parbat, , ZA, S, , OR, AM, , Jaintia, Thar desert, , AV, AR, , AL, , LI, , R, , BANGHEL KHAND, , NCE, YA RA, VINDH, , CHHOTA NAGPUR, PLATEAU, , S, GHAT, , Khadar, The newer, younger, deposit of, flood plain., , DODA BETTA, , ANAIMUDI, CARDAMOM HILLS, , N Gangetic Plain, , Table: 1.2 The Northern Plains, , S, LI, VA, , Bundelkhand, Malwa, , W, , PATKAI BUM, , SAGA HILLS, , ERN, WEST, , Lakshadweep, Islands, , A, AR, , Kankar, The soil in this, region, contains, calcareous, deposits., , R, , GE BUNDELKHAND, AN, , relief feature., , Bhangar, The largest part, of Northern, plain formed of, older Alluvial., , RA, K, , KA, , Ganga-Brahmaputra Delta, , The Northern Plains: It has been formed by three major, river systems-the Indus, the Ganga and the Brahmaputra, along with their tributaries. The northern plain is broadly, divided into Punjab plains formed by Indus and its tributaries,, the Ganga plains extends between Ghaggar and Teesta rivers, and the Brahmaputra plains lie in Assam. The northern plains, can be divided into four regions based on the variations in, , Bhabar, River deposit, pebbles in a, narrow belt of, about 8–16 km, which lie, parallel to, Shivalik., , It does not, contain kankar, nodules., It is very fertile., , It is less fertile., , COROMANDEL COAST, , Criteria, Height, and, width, , All the streams, disappear in, this belt., Terai is formed, at the base., , PUR, VAN, CHA, L, , The Himalayan Mountains: The Himalayan mountains run, in West-East direction from the Indus to the Brahmaputra;, They cover a distance of 2,400 km and have three parallel, ranges in their longitudinal extent such as the Inner the, Himadri, Outer the Shivaliks and the Himachal or Lesser, Himalaya. Himalayas have also been divided on the basis of, regions from West to East, demarcated by river valleys such, as Punjab Himalayas or Kashmir and Himachal Himalayas,, Kumaon Himalayas, Nepal Himalayas, Assam Himalayas and, Purvachal or the Eastern hills., , E, Chota Nagpur, , S Vindhya Range, Figure: 1.1, , LUSHAI HILLS
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India: Physical Features, , II.F.5, , Deccan Plateau: It is a triangular landmass that lies South of, the river Narmada. The North-western part of the Deccan, Plateau is Maharashtra, consists of an extensive lava belt called, the Deccan trap region. This is of volcanic origin and hence, rocks are igneous. These rocks have denuded over time and, formed black soil. The rest of the Deccan Plateau consists of, crystalline metamorphic rocks., It is bounded on its North by the Vindhya, s and Satpura hills. Mahadev, the Kaimur hills and the Maikal, ranges from its eastern extension while its South-eastern and, western boundaries are formed by the eastern and western, Ghats. Three prominent hill ranges from the West to East are, the Garo, the Khasi and the Jaintia Hills., The Indian Desert: It lies towards western margins of the, Aravalli Hills. It is an undulating sandy plain covered with, sand dunes with low vegetation cover; Barchans and, longitudinal dunes are the types of dunes found here. It has an, arid climate with rainfall below 150 mm. Luni is a large river, of this region., , passes like Bhor Ghat, Thal Ghat and, Pal ghat., The height increases from North to, South, Anamudi in Annamalai and, Doddabetta (2637 m) in Nilgiri hills, are in the southern part., They are known by different names, Sahyadri in Maharashtra and, Karnataka, the Nilgiris in Tamil Nadu, and the Annamalai and cardamom, Hills along Kerala–Tamil Nadu, border., , Krishna and Kaveri., The height of the Eastern Ghats, increase from South to North., , They are known as Northern, hills, Nallamala, Shevaroy and, Javadi hills., , The Coastal Plains: There are two narrow coastal strips, the, western coast running along the Arabian Sea on the West and, the eastern coast along the Bay of Bengal on the East. The, plains along the Bay of Bengal also known as Northern, (northern part), Coromandel Coast (southern part) and an, important feature along the eastern coast is the Chilika Lake., The western coast consists of three sections:, Konkan (Mumbai-Goa), Kannad Plain (the central stretch), Malabar Coast (the southern stretch), , Table: 1.3 Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats, Western Ghats, Western Ghats form a sharp edge all, along the western boundary of the, Deccan plateau. They rise abruptly, from the coastal plains and run, parallel to the Arabian sea., They are continuous, high and, wellmarked with natural gaps or, , Eastern Ghats, Eastern ghats form the eastern, edge of Deccan plateau, parallel, to the Bay of Bengal with low, irregular hills., , The Islands: Our country has two groups of islands one, Lakshadweep islands lying close to the Malabar Coast of, Kerala is composed of small coral islands; other Andaman, and Nicobar islands are elongated chain of islands located, in the Bay of Bengal and are an elevated portion of, submarine, mountains., , They are discontinuous and cut, by several rivers like Godavari,, , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., 2., 3., , 4., , 5., , The Tropic of Cancer does not pass through:, a. Rajasthan b. Orissa, c. Chhattisgarh d. Tripura, The easternmost longitude of India is:, a. 9725'E, b. 687'E, c. 77 6'E, d. 8232'E, Uttaranchal, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal and, Sikkim have common frontiers with:, a. China, b. Bhutan, c. Nepal, d. Myanmar, , 6., , Area-wise which is the largest state of India?, a. Madhya Pradesh, b. Maharashtra, c. Rajasthan, d. Andhra Pradesh, , 7., , The latitude that divides India into two equal halves is:, a. Tropic of Cancer, b. Tropic of Capricorn, c. Equator, d. Arctic Circle, , 8., , The latitudinal extent of India is:, a. 8030'N to 9725'N, b. 2330'N to 2330'S, , If you intend to visit Kavaratti during your summer, vacation, which one of the following Union Territories of, India you will be going to?, a. Puducherry, b. Lakshadweep, c. Andaman and Nicobar, d. Diu and Daman, , 9., , My friend hails from a country which does not share a, land boundary with India. Identify the country., a. Bhutan, b. Tajikistan, c. Bangladesh, d. Nepal, , 10. Which plateau lies between the Aravalli and the Vindhyan, ranges?, a. Malwa plateau, b. Deccan plateau, c. Chhota Nagpur plateau, d. Bundelkhand, , c. 687'N to 9725'N, , d. 84'N to 376'N, , The island group which is towards South-east of India is:, a. Andaman and Nicobar, b. Sri Lanka, c. Maldives, d. Lakshadweep
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.F.6, , 11. The distance between north and south extremity of India is:, a. 3214 km, b. 3000 km, c. 2933 km, d. 3600 km, 12. India’s neighbour towards North West is:, a. Afghanistan, b. Nepal, c. Bhutan, d. Myanmar, 13. India is separated from Sri Lanka through:, a. Gulf of Khambhat, b. Gulf of Kutch, c. Gulf of Mannar, d. Gulf of Persia, 14. Form Gujarat of Arunachal Pradesh the time lag is:, a. 2 hrs 15 min, b. 2 hrs 30 min, c. 1 hr 45 min, d. 2 hrs, 15. The Standard Meridian of India passes through Mirzapur, in the state of, a. Madhya Pradesh, b. Bihar, c. Andhra Pradesh, d. Uttar Pradesh, 16. The southernmost part of India is:, a. Kanyakumari, b. Kavaratti, c. Indira Point, d. Port Blair, 17. Name of group of inlands lying in the Arabian Sea., a. Andaman & Nicobar, b. Lakshadweep, c. Hawaii, d. Philippines, , 22. Which one of the following rivers has the largest inhabited, riverine islands in the world?, a. Ganga, b. Indus, c. Yamuna, d. Brahmaputra, 23. In which belt of Northern plains do all the rivers disappear?, a. bhabar, b. terai, c. khadar, d. bhangar, 24. The highest peak of South India is:, a. Doda Betta, b. Mahendragiri, c. Anai Mudi, d. Shevroy, 25. Which type of soil is found in Deccan Trap region?, a. Black soil, b. Alluvial soil, c. Arid soil, d. Laterite soil, 26. The largest river of the Indian desert is:, a. Chambal, b. Betwa, c. Indus, d. Luni, 27. The largest salt water lake of India:, a. Sambhar, b. Pulicat, c. Chilika, d. Kolleru, 28. The two tributaries of the Indus are:, a. Ravi and Yamuna, b. Sutlej and Kosi, c. Jhelum and Chenab, d. Beas and Damodar, , 18. A landmass bounded by sea on three sides is referred to as:, a. coast, b. island, c. peninsula, d. none of these, , 29. What is the name given to the southern part of eastern, coastal plains?, a. Kannad plain, b. Malabar, c. Konkan, d. Coromandel, , 19. Mountain ranges in the eastern part of India forming its, boundary with Myanmar are collectively called, a. Himachal, b. Uttaranchal, c. Purvachal, d. None of these, , 30. Which of the following is composed of corals?, a. Lakshadweep, b. Andaman and Nicobar, c. Puducherry, d. Malabar, ANSWERS, , 20. The western coastal strip, south of Goa is referred to as, a. Coromandel, b. Konkan, c. Kannad, d. Northern Circar, 21. The highest peak in the Eastern Ghats is:, a. Anamudi, b. Kanchenjunga, c. Mahendragiri, d. Khasi, , 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , c, , a, , c, , b, , b, , c, , a, , d, , a, , a, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , a, , a, , c, , d, , d, , c, , b, , d, , c, , c, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , c, , d, , a, , c, , a, , d, , c, , c, , d, , a
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Drainage and Climate, , II.F.7, , 2, , Drainage and Climate, , The term drainage describes the river system of an area;, depending on the slop of land, underlying rock structure and, the climatic conditions of the area, drainage basin form certain, patterns like radial, rectangular and dendritic patterns., Drainage basin is an area drained by a single river system and a, river system is a river along with tributaries, Water divide is an elevated area, such as a mountain or an, upland that separates two drainage basins; The world’s, largest drainage basin is of the Amazon Basin., Drainage systems of India are mainly controlled by the, broad relief features of the subcontinent and divided into, two major groups., Note, The Himalayan drainage system has evolved through a long, geological history. At mainly includes the Ganga, the Indus, and the Brahmaputra river basins. Since these are fed both by, melting of snow and precipitation, rivers of this system are, perennial., Indus System is one of the largest basins of the world,, covering an area of 11,65,000 sq. km. It originates from a, glacier near Bokhar Chu in the Tibetan region in the Kailash, mountain range enters the Indian territory in J & K. It enters, into Pakistan near Chillar in the Dardistan region., , These rivers form S-shaped valley., These rivers form deltas. Most of the, Himalayan rivers are perennial: the, Indus, Ganga and the Brahmaputra, These rivers form meanders., , These rivers flow through broad, shallow valleys., Narmada and Tapi, form, estuaries. Mahanadi, Godavari,, Krishna and Kaveri form deltas., These rivers flow over more or, less straight course., , Table: 2.2 Compare Delta and Estuary, Delta, , Estuary, , It is a triangular shaped land formed, at the mouth of a river., , It is a funnel-shaped channel at, the mouth of a river., It is a long narrow channel., , It resembles the Greek letter delta (), Absence of tides and current help in, the formation of a delta., The river breaks up into many, channels / distributaries before joining, the sea., Ganga and Brahmaputra delta is the, biggest in the world, , Estuaries are formed due to tides, and strong currents., The river joins the sea directly., , Narmada and Tapi rivers make, estuaries on the west coast., , The Indus River System: Originates near Lake Mansarovar in, Tibet; It is one of the longest rivers of the world and has a total, length of 2900 km. Its tributaries are the Zaskar, the Nubra, the, Shyok, the Hunza and the five rivers of Punjab namely, Ravi,, Chenab, Beas Satluj and Jhelum., It flows through the states of Jammu and Kashmir,, Himachal Pradesh and Punjab and drains into the Arabian, Sea, East of Karachi., , Table: 2.1 Himalayan Rivers and Peninsular Rivers, Himalayan Rivers, Himalayan rivers have large basins, , They perform intensive erosional, activity, They carry huge load of sand and silt., They form large meanders, and, variety of depositional features like, flood plains levee, etc, These rivers are perennial because, they get water from the rainfall as, well as the melting of ice., , These rivers flow on porous soil., Hence, the damage from flood to life, and property is not so serious., , Peninsular Rivers, Peninsular rivers flow through, shallow valleys. They have small, drainage basins., They have very little erosional, activity to perform, Because of hard rock bed and, gentle slope they carry less silt., They do not perform meandering, and therefore and linear courses., A large no of them are seasonal, as their flow is dependent on, rainfall. During summer even the, large rivers have highly reduced, flow of water in their channels., These rivers flow on nonporous, rocky land. So, these rivers cause, much damage in the rainy season., , The Ganga River System: Originates from the Gangotri, Glacier in Uttarakhand; It has a total length of 2,500 km. It, flows through Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar and West, Bengal., Its tributaries are the Yamuna, the Ghaghara, the Gandak,, the Kosi, the Betwa and Son, Joined by Brahmaputra in Bangladesh and drains into Bay, of Bengal. The delta formed by the river is known as the, Sunderban delta., The Brahmaputra River System: Originates in Tibet east of, Mansarovar Lake enters India through a gorge in Arunachal, Pradesh. It is slightly longer than the Indus river and drains into, Bay of Bengal., Its tributaries are Lohit and Dihang. It flows through the, states of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.F.8, , Lakes: Lakes regulate the flow of river, prevents flooding,, helps to maintain even flow of water, moderate the climate of, surroundings, maintain the aquatic ecosystem, enhance natural, beauty and help develop tourism and provide recreation. Lakes, of large extent are called the seas such as the Caspian, and, Dead seas, etc. Many fresh water lakes are found in the, Himalayan region which is of glacial origin. Lake Wular in, Jammu and Kashmir has been formed due to tectonic activity, and is the largest lake. Other lakes are Dal lake, Bhimtal,, Nainital, etc which are freshwater lakes, Sambhar lake in, Rajasthan which is a salt water lake and Chilika, Pulicat and, Kolleru which are lagoons., Rivers and their Pollution: Pollution level of many rivers has, been raising due to increasing urbanisation and, industrialisation. Water from the river is a basic natural, resource, essential for various human activities like irrigation,, navigation, and hydro-power generation. Heavy load of, untreated sewage and industrial effluents are emptied into the, rivers which affects not only the quality of water but also the, self-cleansing capacity of the river., The Peninsular Rivers: The main water divide in Peninsular, India is formed by the Western Ghats, which runs from North, to South close to the western coast. These East flowing rivers, make deltas at their mouths., Table: 2.3 The East Flowing and the West Flowing Rivers of the Peninsular, Plateau, West Flowing Rivers, These rivers drain in the Arabian, Sea., The tributaries of these rivers are, small in size., These rivers form estuaries., , East Flowing Rivers, The rivers drain in the Bay of, Bengal., The tributaries of these rivers are, large in size, These rivers form deltas., , These rivers flow through rift, valleys., Except Narmada and Tapi, these, rivers have small course., Examples: Narmada and Tapi, , These rivers flow through shallow, or mature valleys., These rivers have long courses,, large basins and deep valleys., Example: Mahanadi, Godavari,, Kaveri, Krishna., , The Narmada Basin: It originates from the Amarkantak hills, in Madhya Pradesh, spreads approximate length of 1,312 km;, which covers part of Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat. Flows, towards the West in a rift valley formed due to faulting and, drains into the Arabian Sea. The tributaries of Narmada are, short and mostly flow at right angles., The Tapi Basin: It originates from the Satpura ranges, in the, Betul district of Madhya Pradesh, spreads approximate length, of 724 km, which covers part of Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and, , Maharashtra. Flows in rift valley parallel to the Narmada’ its, main tributaries are Purna, Girna, Panzara, Waghur, Bori and, Aner rivers. It ultimately merges into Gulf of Cambay of, Arabian Sea., The Godavari Basin: It originates from the slopes of Western, Ghats in the Nasik district of Maharashtra; spreads a length of, 1,500 km; which covers parts of Maharashtra, Madhya, Pradesh, Orissa and Andhra Pradesh. It’s largest Peninsular, River with tributaries like the Purna, the Wardha, the Pranhita,, the Manjra, the Wainganga and Penganga. Because of its, length and the area covers, it is known as Dakshin Ganga;, terminates into Bay of Bengal., The Mahanadi Basin: It originates in the highlands of, Chhattisgarh, spreads a length of 860 km; which covers, Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand and Orissa. After, passing through Orissa, it terminates into Bay of Bengal., The Krishna River: It originates from a spring near, Mahabaleshwar spreads a length of 1,400 km and drains into, Bay of Bengal. The drainage basin is shared by Maharashtra,, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh. The Tungabhadra, the Koyana,, the Ghatprabha, the Musi and Bhima are some of its tributaries., The Kaveri Basin: It originates in the Brahmagiri range of, Western Ghats spreads for about 760 km before draining into, Bay of Bengal in south of Cuddalore, in Tamil Nadu. The, Amravati, Bhavani, Hemavati and Kabini are some of its, tributaries., Climate: Climate refers to the sum total of weather conditions, and variations over a large area for a long period of time (more, than 30 years); Weather refers to the condition of the, atmosphere over an area at any point of time. The elements of, weather and climate are temperature, atmospheric pressure,, wind, humidity and precipitation., Table: 2.4 Weather and Climate, Weather, , Climate, , Weather is the state of atmosphere, over an area at any point of time., , Climate refers to the sum total of, weather conditions and variations, over a large area for a long period, of time., It is a sum total of average weather, conditions of 30 years., Elements of climate are the same, as those of weather, , It changes every moment, Elements of weather are temperature,, atmospheric pressure, wind humidity, and precipitation., Examples:- Cloudy, windy, dry , wet,, etc., , Examples:- Monsoon, equatorial, desert, cold climate etc.
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Drainage and Climate, , The word monsoon refers to the seasonal reversal of the, wind direction during a year. The monsoons occur in the, tropical area roughly between 20°N and 20°S., Coriolis force (Ferrel’s Law) which is responsible for, deflecting winds towards the right in the northern, hemisphere and towards the left in the southern hemisphere., Jet Streams are a narrow belt of high altitude westerly, winds in the troposphere., The Inter Tropical Convergence Zone is a broad trough, of low pressure in equatorial latitudes., Periodic change in pressure conditions is known as, Southern Oscillation or SO which is connected to the EI, Nino and hence the phenomenon is referred to as ENSO., Monsoon: The factors which affect climate, the four main, seasons of India with special reference to the monsoons. The, burst of the monsoon in when the normal rainfall increases, suddenly and continues constantly for several days around the, time of arrival of monsoon., The southern tip of the India peninsula receives the, monsoon by the first week of June., Monsoon branches into two-the Arabian Sea branch and the, Bay of Bengal branch., The Arabian Sea branch reaches Mumbai and the Bay of, Bengal branch reaches Assam., Mawsynram in Meghalaya receives the highest average, rainfall in the world., It withdraws from the northern half of the peninsula by, mid-October., , II.F.9, , Monsoon withdraws from the rest of the country by early, December., October-November are a period of transition from hot rainy, season to dry winter conditions., Parts of western coast and northeastern India receive, rainfall above 400 cm annually; Western Rajasthan,, adjoining parts of Gujarat, Haryana and Punjab receive less, than 60 cm., Interior parts of Deccan plateau and east of the Sahyadris, and Leh in Jammu and Kashmir receive very less rainfall., Climatic Controls: Six major factors which affect the climate, of any place latitude, altitude, pressure and wind system,, distance from the sea, ocean currents and relief features., The Cold Weather Season (Winter): The cold weather, seasons lasts from mid-November to February; The coldest, months in northern part of India are December and January., The temperature increases from South to North’. The higher, slopes of the Himalayas experience snowfall and frost is, common in the north. Northeast trade winds blow from land to, sea and hence, for most part of the country, it is a dry season., The Hot Weather Season (Summer): From March to May, it, is the hot weather season in India. There is rising temperature, and falling air pressure in the northern part of the country. An, elongated low pressure area develops from the Thar Desert in, the northwest to Patna and Chota Nagpur plateau in the East, and Southeast., , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , Which one of the following describes the drainage patterns, resembling the branches of a tree?, a. radial, b. dendritic, c. centrifugal, d. trellis, , 5., , Which one of the following is the longest river of Peninsular, India?, a. Narmada, b. Krishna, c. Godavari, d. Mahanadi, , 2., , In which of the following states is the Wular lake located?, a. Rajasthan, b. Uttar Pradesh, c. Punjab, d. Jammu and Kashmir, , 6., , 3., , The river Narmada has its source at, a. Satpura, b. Brahmagiri, c. Amarkantak, d. Slopes of the Western Ghats, , Which one amongst the following rivers flows through a, rift valley?, a. Damodar, b. Tungabhadra, c. Krishna, d. Tapi, , 7., , Which one of the following is not a tributary of river, Indus?, a. Chenab, b. Ravi, c. Beas, d. Sind, , 4., , Which one of the following lakes is a salt water lake?, a. Sambhar, b. Dal, c. Wular, d. Gobind Sagar, , 8., , Length of river Indus in kilometres is, a. 2,500, b. 2,900, c. 3,200, d. 3,500
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II.F.10, , 9., , Ganga River enters the plains from the mountains at, a. Devprayag, b. Haridwar, c. Allahabad, d. Farakka, , 10. Which of the following rivers form estuaries?, a. Narmada and Tapi, b. Krishna and Godavari, c. Ganga and Brahmaputra, d. Mahanadi and Damodar, 11. Chambal, Betwa, Ken and Son are the tributaries of which, of the following rivers?, a. Indus, b. Ganga, c. Narmada, d. Brahmaputra, 12. Which of the following river is known for its braided, channel and riverine islands?, a. Indus, b. Ganga, c. Narmada, d. Brahmaputra, 13. The other name for Brahmaputra in Bangladesh is:, a. Meghna, b. Padma, c. Jamuna, d. Tsangpo, 14. In which of the states is the Chilika lake located?, a. Tamil Nadu, b. Andhra Pradesh, c. Orissa, d. Bihar, 15. Which river is also known as Dakshin Ganga?, a. Mahanadi, b. Krishna, c. Kaveri, d. Godavari, 16. Indus Water Treaty of 1960 was signed between which, two countries?, a. India and Pakistan, b. India and China, c. India and Nepal, d. India and Afghanistan, 17. Which river forms the largest basin in India?, a. Indus, b. Ganga, c. Godavari, d. Brahmaputra, 18. Which river forms the second largest waterfall in India, named as Sivasamudram?, a. Godavari, b. Narmada, c. Tapi, d. Kaveri, 19. The Brahmaputra in its Tibetan part has less silt, despite, a. it being a cold and dry area, b. it being a region of high rainfall, c. carrying a large volume of water, d. flowing with high speed, 20. Which one of the following places receives the highest, rainfall in the world?, a. Silchar, b. Mawsynram, c. Cherrapunji, d. Guwahati, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 21. The wind blowing in the northern plains in summers is, known as:, a. Kaal Baisakhi, b. Loo, c. Trade Winds, d. None of these, 22. Which one of the following causes rainfall during winters, in north-western part of India?, a. cyclonic depression, b. western disturbances, c. retreating monsoon, d. southwest monsoon, 23. Monsoon arrives in India approximately in:, a. Early May, b. Early July, c. Early June, d. Early August, 24. Which one of the following characterises the cold weather, seasons in India?, a. warm days and warm nights, b. warm days and cold nights, c. cool days and cold nights, d. cold days and warm nights, 25. The wind which blows during the advancing monsoon, season and is responsible for bringing rainfall in India, during the summer season is:, OR, Which winds account for rainfall along the Malabar, coast?, a. North east trade winds, b. South east trade winds, c. Southwest monsoon winds d. North west trade winds, 26. Monsoon is mainly experienced between the latitude:, a. 10 N to 10S, b. 15 N to 15S, c. 20 N to 20S, d. 25 N to 25S, 27. Storms in West Bengal that occur during the month of, April are called, a. Mango showers, b. Western disturbances, c. Cyclones, d. Kaal Baisakhi, 28. Which place has the lowest ever recorded temperature in, India?, a. Drass, b. Kargil, c. Leh, d. Nefa, 29. Which of the following regions do not receive adequate, amount of rainfall because of being in a rain shadow area?, a. Thar desert, b. Punjab, c. Ladakh, d. Northern plains, 30. The season of advancing monsoons remains in the months, of, a. Mid-November to February, b. March to May, c. October to November, d. June to mid-September
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Drainage and Climate, , II.F.11, , 31. Season of retreating monsoon in from:, a. Mid-November to February, b. March to May, c. October to November, d. June to September, , 34. Which of the following city receives rainfall due to, retreating monsoon?, a. Chennai, b. Mumbai, c. Kolkata, d. Delhi, , 32. Which part of India experiences the highest range of, temperature in day?, a. The western part of India, b. Ladakh, c. The coast of Tamil Nadu, d. Deserts of Rajasthan, , ANSWERS, , 33. Which one of the following stations has an equable, climate?, a. Lucknow, b. Thiruvananthapuram, c. Amritsar, d. Panaji, , 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , c, , d, , c, , a, , c, , d, , d, , b, , b, , a, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , b, , d, , c, , c, , d, , a, , b, , d, , b, , c, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , c, , c, , d, , a, , c, , d, , b, , c, , c, , b, , 31., , 32., , 33., , 34., , c, , d, , b, , a, ,
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Natural Vegetation,, Wild Life and Resources, A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.F.12, , 3, , Ecosystem is formed by plants and animals in an area which, are interdependent and interrelated to each other in their, physical environment. Biome is a very large ecosystem having, distinct types of vegetation and animal life on land. Among, twelve mega bio-diversity countries of the world India is one of, them. India stands 10th in the world and 4th in Asia in plant biodiversity with 47, 000 plant species. Our country has more than, 89,000 species of animals and 1,200 species of birds along with, 2,500 species of birds. The world amphibians, reptiles and, mammals 5–8 % of share belong to India., Virgin vegetation refers to a plant community which grown, naturally without human aid and has been left undisturbed by, humans for a long time. Plants of purely Indian origin are, known as endemic species and those who have come from, outside India are known as exotic plants. Plants of a particular, period or region are known as flora and species of animals are, known as fauna. India is the only country that has both tigers, and lions., Note, Natural Resources: Man utilises numerous elements of the, environment for his comfort and betterment. These elements, are in the form of land, water, vegetables and minerals. These, are termed as natural resources. But actually they are not, natural resources, they become natural resources only when, They have value for human beings., Technological development has identified their value., Transport facilities provide an opportunity for the, development of these resources., Factors Affecting the Distribution of Flora and Fauna, Relief includes soil which provide basis for different types, of vegetation and land features which assist in the, development of various types of vegetation and supports, variety of wildlife., Climate includes temperature, humidity and precipitation, which affects the character, extent of vegetation and growth, and changes it from vegetation; latitude, altitude, season, and duration of the day causes variation in duration of, sunlight; precipitation determines the thickness of, vegetation., , Importance of Forests, Modifies local climate, provides humus to the soil, controls, soil erosion regulate stream flow, controls temperature and, causes rainfall., Supports a variety of industries, provides livelihood for, many communities and scenic view for recreation., Some Wildlife Reserves, Dachigam, , Rajaji, , Pakistan, , Sariska, Bharatpur, , China (Tibet), , Corbett, Nepal, Banbasa, Dudhwa, Mahanadi, , Gorumara, Chandra Prabha, , Shivpuri, , Ranthambhor, , Rajdewra, Gir, , Kanha Kisli, Tadoba, , Kanheri, , Bhutan Kaziranga, Manas, , Bangla, desh, , Tropic of Cancer, , Simlipal, Chandaka, , Myanmar, , Kawal, Arabian, , Pocharam, , Ranganathittu, Bandipur, , Eturnagaram, , Bay of Bengal, , Guindy, Vedanthangal, , Mudumalai, Wildlife sanctuary, , Periyar, Sri, Lanka, , Bird Sanctuary, National Park, , Figure: 3.1, , Protection of Flora and Fauna, Fourteen biosphere reserves have been set up in the, country., Financial and technical assistance is provided to many, botanical gardens by the government since 1992., Many eco-developmental projects like Project Tiger,, Project Rhino, Project Great India Bustard have been, introduced., 89 national parks, 490 wildlife sanctuaries and zoological, gardens have been set up to take care of natural heritage., Types of Vegetation, Tropical Evergreen Forests: They are restricted to heavy, rainfall (above 200 cm) areas of the Western Ghats, upper parts, of Assam and Tamil Nadu coast, the island groups of, Lakshadweep, Andaman and Nicobar.
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Natural Vegetation, Wild Life and Resources, , Trees reach up to a height of 60 metres or above and trees, have no definite time for shedding their leaves., All kinds of vegetation like trees, shrubs and creepers are, found giving it a multilayered structure., Commercially important trees are ebony, mahogany,, rosewoods, rubber and cinchona., In the jungles of Assam and West Bengal, common animals, found are elephants, deer monkey, lemur, bird, sloth, bats,, scorpions and one-horned rhinoceros., Tropical Deciduous Forests: The forests those receive rainfall, between 200 cm and 70 cm are known as the monsoon forests., They are divided into moist and dry deciduous depending on, the availability of water., Moist deciduous forests are found in areas with rainfall, between 200 cm and 100 cm; exist in the eastern part of the, country; teak, bamboo, sal, shisham, sandalwood, mulberry,, etc are found in these forests., Dry deciduous forests are found in areas with rainfall, between 100 cm and 70 cm; found in the rainier parts of the, peninsular plateau and the plains of Bihar and Uttar, Pradesh; mostly teak, sal, peepal and neem trees are found, in these forests., Common animals are lion, tiger, pig, deer, elephant, birds,, lizards, snakes and tortoise., The Thorn Forests and Scrubs: Found in areas with less than, 70 cm of rainfall in north western part of the country including, the semi-arid areas., Acacia, palms, and cacti dominate; succulent stems to, conserve water; leaves are thick and small to minimise, evaporation., Forests give way to thorn forests and scrubs in arid areas, and common animals are fox, tiger, lion, wolf, wild ass,, horses, and camels., Mountain Forests: Decrease in temperature with increasing, altitude leads change in natural vegetation above 3,600 metres, there is alpine vegetation; above snowline the growth gets, stunted and between an height of 1000–2000 metres, wet, temperate forests are found with broad evergreen leaf tress, such as oaks and chestnuts., Temperate forests with coniferous trees are found between, 1500–3000 metres in the southern slopes of the Himalayas, and high altitudes of southern and North-East India., Common animals are Kashmir stag, Tibetan antelope,, spotted deer, yak, red panda, snow leopard, shaggy horn, wild ibex, etc, , II.F.13, , Mangrove Forests: Mangroves are common with deep plant, roots submerged under water, Found in the deltaic areas like the Ganga, the Mahanadi, the, Krishna, Godavari and Kaveri., Sundari, Keora, Palm, Coconut, etc. are found., Royal Bengal tiger, turtles, crocodiles, gharials and snakes, are found., Resources: Everything available in our environment which can, be used to satisfy our needs, provided, it is technologically, accessible, economically feasible and culturally acceptable can, be termed as resource., Table: 3.1 Resources, On the Basis of Exhaustibility, Renewable: Resources which can be, used again and again., They can be reproduced,, replenished and renewed., These are also called as, inexhaustible resources., These includes solar energy, water, resources, geothermal energy, wind, energy, soil, forests and wild life, resources., , On the Basis of Origin, Biotic: All living elements of the, environment are included in biotic, resources., They go on reproducing or, regenerating till favourable conditions, are available in the environment. e.g, Crops, grass, animals, fish, forest,, livestock and man himself., On the basis of Ownership, Individual, Community, resources, owned, These are owned, These are, privately by, accessible to all, individuals., the members of, the community., , In villages,, people have land, ownership., , Village, commons, (grazing grounds,, , Non-Renewable: Resources which, can be used only once., Once used they cannot be, reproduced, replenished or, renewed. They take millions of, years in their formation., These are also called exhaustible, resources., These includes minerals of all types, including energy minerals, coal,, petroleum, natural uranium,, thorium, iron ore etc., Abiotic: They comprises all nonliving elements of environment., They are of both types exhaustible and, inexhaustible. Exhaustible are all, types of minerals and conventional, power resources and Inexhaustible are, Water, air, solar energy, etc., National, resources, All the minerals,, water resources,, forests, wildlife,, land within the, political, boundaries and, oceanic area up, to 12 nautical, miles [Unit used, to measure, distances at sea],, (19.2 km) from, the coast termed, as territorial, water and, resources belong, to the nation., , International, The oceanic, resources beyond, 200 km of, Exclusive, Economic zone, belong to open, ocean and no, individual, country can, utilise these, without the, agreement of, international, institutions.
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.F.14, Plantations,, burial grounds,, pasture lands,, village pond, etc), ponds, water in, public park,, wells, etc are, picnic spots,, some of the, playgrounds in, examples of, cities are, resource. In, accessible to all, cities, people, people living, have plot, houses there., and other, properties., On the Basis of the Status of Development, Potential, Developed, Stock, Resources which, These are the, Materials in the, are found in a, resources which, environment, region, but have, are available in, which have the, not been utilised, the country and, potential to, e.g., Rajasthan, human being has, satisfy human, and Gujarat have, been using them, needs but human, enormous, for a long time., beings do not, potential for the, e.g., Agricultural, have the, development of, and Industrial, appropriate, wind and solar, resources., technology to, energy, but so for, access them, e.g.,, these have not, Water is a, been developed, compound of, so for., two inflammable, gases, hydrogen, and oxygen, which can be, used as a rich, source of energy, but we do not, know how to use, them., , Reserves, These are the, resources which, can be put into, use with the help, of existing, technical, knowledge but, their use has not, been started,, e.g., River water, can be used for, generating power, but presently it is, being utilised, only to a limited, extent., , Common Plants and their Medicinal Values, Tulsi: Once a common sight at the courtyard of every, Indian household, tulsi or basil leaves can cure cough, cold,, bronchitis and loss of appetite. The plant is the most widely, used herbal expectorant in the world., Bael: Extract of the leaves of this very familiar tree helps, cure diarrhea, dysentery, constipation., Peppermint or Pudina: The plant's leaves are popular, mainly due to their taste. However, its medicinal values like, curing indigestion and healing bruises are also not to be, overlooked., Henna or Mehndi: Why do you think Indian women have, always liked to apply mehndi on their hands? The answer is, simple and obvious – mehndi helps cure burns., Neem: Ayurveds have documented this plant as one of the, most valuable herb. The extract of its leaves work as a, sedative and cure analgesic, epilepsy, hypertension., Cinnamon: Another popular expectorant, dalchini or, cinnamon helps cure pulmonary problems such as, bronchitis, asthma, and even cardiac disorder and fever., Lavender: The flower is widely appreciated for its smell., However, it also eases pain, and when applied to cuts and, bruises, it functions as an antiseptic., Marigold: Popularly known as gaenda, marigold extract is, good for sunburn, acne, and blemishes. This medicinal herb, also soothes ulcers and helps cure digestive problems., , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , What kind of vegetation is supported by the sandy soil of, the desert?, a. cactus or thorny bushes, b. mangroves, c. tropical deciduous forests d. tropical rain forest, , 2., , What kind of vegetation is supported by deltaic soils?, a. cactus or thorny bushes, b. mangroves, c. tropical deciduous forests d. Tropical rain forest, Decrease in temperature with increasing altitude in, Himalayas results in, a. succession of natural vegetation belt, b. growth of only temperate forests, c. growth of only tropical deciduous forests, d. growth of mangrove forest, , 3., , 4., , Why has natural vegetation undergone many changes?, a. growing demand for cultivated land, b. Development of industries and mining, c. urbanisation and overgrazing pastures, d. all of these, , 5., , Natural cover of vegetation is found in which part of, India?, a. inaccessible region of Himalayas, b. hilly regions of central India, c. marusthali, d. all of these, , 6., , To which one of the following types of vegetation does, rubber belong?, a. tundra, b. tidal, c. Himalayan, d. tropical rainforest, , 7., , Cinchona tress are found in the areas of rainfall more than, a. 100 cm, b. 70 cm, c. 50 cm, d. Less than 50 cm, , 8., , In which of the following state is the Simlipal bio-reserve, located?, a. Punjab, b. Delhi, c. Orissa, d. West Bengal
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Natural Vegetation, Wild Life and Resources, , 9., , Which one of the following bioreserve of India is not, included in the world network of bioreserve?, a. Manas, b. Nilgiris, c. Gulf of Mannar, d. Nanda Devi, , 10. Which one of the following animals lives in the swampy, and marshy lands of Assam and West Bengal?, a. tiger, b. lion, c. one-horned rhinoceros, d. elephants, 11. Biosphere reserve that is located at the trijunction of, Kerala, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu:, a. Gulf of Mannar, b. Agasthyamalai, c. Pachmarhi, d. Nilgiris, 12. The most widespread forest of Indiais:, a. tropical evergreen forest b. tropical deciduous forests, c. coniferous forests, d. thorn and scrub forest, 13. Which one of the following is not a wildlife sanctuary?, a. Periyar, b. Bandipur, c. Manas, d. Sariska, 14. The natural habitat of elephant is, a. Sundarbans of West Bengal, b. Cold Regions of Himalayas, c. Wet Forest of Assam, d. Rann of Kutch in Gujarat, 15. Gir forest is the only habitat remaining for which of the, following animal:, a. tiger, b. Asiatic lion, c. leopard, d. Asiatic cheetah, , II.F.15, , 16. Natural vegetation which is purely Indian is known as, endemic or indigenous species but those which have, come from outside India are termed, a. Exotic plants, b. Ecstatic plants, c. Exact plants, d. Extra plants, 17. The biomes are identified on the basis of, a. Cities, b. Plants, c. states, , d. Rocks, , 18. Which of these statements is not a valid reason for, depletion of flora and fauna?, a. Agricultural expansion, b. Large scale developmental projects, c. Grazing and fuel wood collection, d. Rapid industrialisation and urbanisation, 19. Match the following animals with their category of, existenceAnimals/Plants, Category of Existence, 1. Blackbuck, a. Extinct, 2. Asiatic elephant, b. Rare, 3. Andaman wild pig, c. Endangered, 4. Himalayan brown bear, d. Vulnerable, a. 1-d, 2-c, 3-e, 4-b, 5-a, b. 1-c, 2-d, 3-e, 4-b, 5-a, c. 1-a, 2-e, 3-c, 4-b, 5-d, d. 1-b, 2-c, 3-e, 4-a, 5-d, ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , b, , b, , a, , d, , d, , d, , a, , d, , a, , a, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , d, , b, , d, , c, , b, , a, , b, , c, , b
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.F.16, , 4, , Population, , In 1872, the first census is done in India and the first complete, census was taken in the year 1881; The Indian Census is the, comprehensive source of demographic, social and economic, data. India has 2.4% of the total area of the world and its, population is about 17.5% of the world population., Note, The quantity of people has got its own value but it is so up to a, certain point. Beyond that the excessive number becomes a, liability rather than an asset. The quality of the people matters, rather than the number. Where man is an asset, he is a curse as, well. As far as our own country is concerned, our population is, becoming a great liability on us. We population and should lay, stress on improving the quality of the people by providing, them balanced and nutritious food, necessary medical care and, technical and professional training. The growth of population, should also be checked by making the people aware of the, small family norms., Report of Census 2011 in India: Total population in India, increased to 1.21 billion. The decadal growth for the total, population was 17.64%. Rate of adult literacy showed a, registered growth of 74.04%, where the decadal growth was, 9.21% of the Census of 2011 in India., Table: 4.1 Census 2011, Female population, , Male population, , Total population, , 586,469,174, , 623,724,248, , 1,210,193,422, , Density: 382 per sq., Sex ratio: 940 females per 1000 males, km., Decadal Growth Rate (2001–2011), Sex ratio: 914 females per 1000 males, Female: 8, 99, 54,828, Male: 9, 15, 01,158, Total: 18, 14, 55,986, (18.12 %), (17.19 %), (17.64 %), Population (0–6 years), Girls: 7, 58, 37,152, (12.93 %), , Boys: 8, 29, 52,135, (13.30 %), , Total: 15, 87, 89,287, (13.12 %), , Males: 44, 42, 03,762, (82.14 %), , Total: 77, 84, 54,120, (74.04 %), , Literacy, Females: 33, 42, 50,358, (65.46 %), , Literacy: Literacy rate of a place is calculated based on the, fact that how many among the total inhabitants are literate. A, person is regarded as literate, in case, he or she is within the, age group of 7 years or above and is capable of reading,, , writing and speaking in a particular language. Census 2011, literacy rate calculated by taking the total population of a place, into account is known as Crude Literacy Rate. Whereas, the, Effective Literacy Rate calculating, the population ageing, between 7 years and above are taken into account. Within the, years 2001 to 2011, the Effective Literacy Rate in India, increased to 74.04%. Out of this, the percentage of male, Effective Literacy Rate is 82.14 % and female Effective, Literacy Rate is 65.46 %., Population Size and Distribution: As per 2011 Census, India, has a population of 1,028 million which account for 16.49% of, the India’s population with a population of 199.6 million is the, most populous state of India., Half of India’s population lives in just 5 states i.e., Uttar, Pradesh, Maharashtra, Bihar, West Bengal and Andhra, Pradesh., In terms of area the biggest state is the Rajasthan, which, has only 5.5% of the total population of India., Population density is the number of persons per unit area of, Bihar has 1102 person per sq. km is the highest population, density and the Arunachal Pradesh has the lowest i.e. 17, persons per sq. km., As per 2011 Census, the population density of India was, 382 persons per sq. km., The Northern Plains and Kerala in the South have high to, very high population densities because of the flat plains, with fertile soils and abundant rainfall., Population Growth and Processes of Population Change, The three processes namely births, deaths and migrations affect, the population numbers, distribution and composition, Annual growth rate is the rate of increase of population in, a given year., India’s population has steadily increased from 361 million, in 1651 to 1028 million in 2001 and 1210.2 million in 2011., Birth rate is the number of live births per 1000 persons in, a year., Death rate is the number of live deaths per 1000 persons in, a year., Migration is the movement of people across regions and, territories; migration can be internal (within the country), or international (between the countries).
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Population, , II.F.17, , Characteristics or Qualities of the Population: The age, composition of a population refers to the number of people in, different age groups in a country; children below 15 years, (30.9% population) are economically unproductive; working, population (15–59 years: population 61.6%) are economically, productive and biologically reproductive; people above 59, years (7.5% population) thought they may be economically, productive are not available for employment through, recruitment as they may have retired., Urban population has increased from 17.29% (1951) to, 31.16% (2011). There are 35 cities in our country with a, population of 1 million and above., India sex ratio 940 female for every 1000 males; Sex ratio, is defined as the number of females per 1000 males in the, population., Literacy determines the level of economic development;, literacy rate was 64.84% in 2001, now 74.4% in 2011;, 82.14% of males and 65.46% for females for the population, aged 7 years and above., , Occupational structure is the distribution of population, according to different types of occupation; occupations are, classified as primary, secondary and tertiary with 67.37%,, 12.13% and 20.50% respectively., Improvement in public health, prevention of infectious, diseases and application of modern medical practices in, diagnosis and treatment of ailments determine the health of, the population., Adolescent population which constitute 1/5th of the total, population are the most important resource for the future, and their nutrition requirements are higher than those of a, normal child or adult; but in India, the diet available to this, category is inadequate in all nutrients, National Population Policy (NPP) 2000 provides to, improve individual health and welfare through Family, Planning Programme (1952) and Family Welfare, Programme ; NPP 2000 identified adolescents as one of the, major sections of the population and called for various, programmes for their benefit., , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , Migration changes the number, distribution, composition of the population in, a. the area of departure, b. both the area of departure and arrival, c. the area of arrival, d. none of these, , and, , A large proportion of children in a population are a result, of, a. high birth rates, b. high life expectancy, c. high death rates, d. more married couples, The magnitude of population growth refers to, a. the total population of an area, b. the number of persons added each year, c. the rate at which the population increases, d. the number of females per thousand males, According to Census 2011, a literate person is one who, a. can read and write his/her name, b. can read and write any language with understanding, c. is 7 years old and can read and write any language with, understanding, d. knows the 3 ‘R’s (reading, writing and arithmetic), Population of India according to 2011 is, a. 981 million, b. 1210 million, c. 1031 million, d. 1042 million, , 6., , What is India’s area?, a. 2.38 million square km, c. 3.28 million square km, , b. 2.98 million square km, d. 3.56 million square km, , 7., , Which is the most populous state of India, according to, the 2011 census?, a. Uttar Pradesh, b. Madhya Pradesh, c. Andhra Pradesh, d. Bihar, , 8., , The number of persons per unit area is termed as, a. population growth, b. population change, c. population density, d. population distribution, , 9., , What do we obtain by subtracting the earlier population, (e.g. that of 2001) from the later population (e.g. that of, 2011)?, a. absolute numbers, b. absolute increase, c. annual growth rate, d. population growth, , 10. Most migrations have been from rural to urban areas, because of which factors?, a. pull factors, b. push factors, c. internal migration, d. none of these, 11. Adolescents comprise of the group from, a. 1–10 years, b. 10–15 years, c. 10–19 years, d. 15–25 years, 12. Kerala’s literacy rate is:, a. 93.91%, c. 97%, , b. 95%, d. 100%
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.F.18, , 13. The number of people in different age groups in a country, a. age structure, b. age rates, c. age composition, d. age groups, 14. The large number of adolescent girls suffers from, a. malnutrition, b. anaemia, c. goitre, d. high blood pressure, 15. The NPP 2000 provides a policy framework for free and, compulsory, a. school education, b. food, c. health, d. immunisation, 16. How many ‘million plus’ cities are there according to, 2011 census?, a. 20, b. 23, c. 35, d. 40, 17. Which are the most populous and least populous states of, India?, a. Uttar Pradesh and Arunachal Pradesh, b. Madhya Pradesh and Goa, c. Rajasthan and Arunachal Pradesh, d. Bihar and Manipur, , 18. Which are the biggest and the smallest states of India?, a. Madhya Pradesh and Sikkim, b. Uttar Pradesh and Nagaland, c. Rajasthan and Goa, d. Karnataka and Goa, 19. What was the rank of India in world to cross the billion, mark?, a. First, b. Second, c. Third, d. Fourth, 20. Three most popular states of India are?, a. UP, Maharashtra, Bihar, b. UP, Maharashtra, West Bengal, c. UP, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, d. UP, Maharashtra, Sikkim, ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , b, , a, , c, , b, , b, , c, , a, , c, , b, , b, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , c, , a, , c, , b, , a, , c, , a, , c, , b, , a, , , , 10.
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Resources for Human Needs, , II.F.19, , 5, , Resources for Human Needs, , A resource is a source or supply from which benefit is, produced. Typically resources are materials, energy, services,, staff, knowledge, or other assets that are transformed to, produce benefit and in the process may be consumed or made, unavailable, Note, In our environment everything is available which can be used, to satisfy our needs. These are technologically accessible,, economically feasible and culturally acceptable can be termed, as resources. The process of transformation of things available, in our environment involves an interdependent relationship, between the nature, human beings and technology., Resources, , Human, , Natural, , Renewable, , Continuous or flow, , Non- Renewalbel, , Biological, , Natural Vegetation, , Recyclable, , Structures & Institutions, , Quantity & Quality, , Non-Recyclable, , Wildlife, , Figure: 5.1, , Natural interests become natural resources only when they are, developed for the satisfaction of human needs for example land, has to be cleared of unwanted materials so that it becomes, suitable for the crops to grow. In similar way the minerals have, to be taken out of the earth and smelt so that it can be used for, making materials and other elements for using by us., As man used them indiscriminately this had led to depletion of, resources. The global warming, ozone layer depletion,, environmental pollution and land degradation are the global, ecological crises. Without damaging the environment, development should take place., Resource Planning in India: India has made concerted efforts, for achieving the goal of resource planning right from the First, Five Year Plan launched after Independence., , , , Identification and inventory of resources across the regions, of the country by surveying, mapping and qualitative and, quantitative estimation and measurement of the resources., Evolving a planning structure endowed with appropriate, technology, skill and institutional set up for implementing, resource development plans., Availability of resources in absence of technology and, institution hinder development. In India there is uneven, distribution of natural resources and human resources., India, development and resource development does not, only involve the availability of resources but also the, technology and quality of human resources., Table: 5.1 Classification of Resources, On the Basis of Origin, Biotic Resources: All living, organisms in our environment are, called biotic resources. For, example, trees, animals, insects,, etc., On the Basis of Exhaustibility, Renewable Resources:, Resources that can be replenished, after a short period of time are, called Renewable Resources. For, example – agricultural crops,, water, forest, wildlife, etc., On the Basis of Ownership:, Individual: , Com, Resources, munityReso, owned by, urces owned, individuals, by, are called, community, Individual, or society are, Resources., called, For, Community, example–, Owned, land owned, Resources., by farmers,, For, house, etc., example–, Graveyard,, grazing land,, ponds, burial, grounds,, park, etc., , Abiotic Resources: All nonliving things present in our, environment are termed as, abiotic resources. For example –, earth, air, water, metals, rocks,, etc., Non-renewable Resources:, Resources which takes million, years of time to replenish are, called non-renewable resources., For example – fossil fuels., , , , N, ational, Resources:, , Resources, owned by, Individual, Nations, are called, National, Resources, For, example–, Governm, ent land,, Roads,, canals,, railway,, etc., , , , International, Resources:, Resources, regulate by, International, bodies are, called, International, Resources. For, example–, Ocean and sea, beyond 200 km, of the, Exclusive, Economic, Zone and is, called open sea, or ocean. No, individual, country can, utilise these, resources, without the, permission of, International, bodies.
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.F.20, On the Basis of Status of Development:, Potential, Developed, , Resources:, Resources:, Resources, Resources, which are, which are, found in a, developed, particular, and surveyed, region, but, for utilisation, not yet, and are being, used, used in, properly., present time, For, are known as, example –, Developed, Rajasthan, Resources., and Gujarat, receive, plenty of, solar, energy and, have plenty, of wind, energy, but, use of these, resources, so far has, not been, developed, properly., , Stock:, Resources, that are, available,, but we do, not have, proper, technolog, y to used, them are, called, Stock. For, example –, water is, made of, oxygen, and, hydrogen,, which can, be used as, fuel, but, because, of lack of, proper, technolog, y these, are not, being, used., , , , Reserves:, Resources, which are, available, and the, knowhow, to use them, is also, present but, they are yet, to be used, are called, Reserves., For, example–, river water, which is not, used to, generate, electricity., , Resources are vital for human beings. But indiscriminate use of, resources is creating many problems. The accumulation of, resources in only few hands leaves others unsatisfied;, indiscriminate use of resources is creating many problems, around the world, such as global warming, ecological crisis,, disturbance in ozone layer, etc. therefore equal distribution of, resources becomes necessary for sustainable development., Sustainable, Development:, Without, damaging, the, environment, development takes place and compromising with, needs of future is called sustainable development. The justified, use of resources in keeping of mind is the sustainable, development. The Earth Summit was organised in 1992 in Rio, de Janeiro in which more than 100 state heads agreed with, Agenda 21 for the sustainable development and proper use of, resources. Agenda 21 is an agenda to combat environmental, damage, poverty, disease, etc. through global cooperation on, common interests, mutual needs and shared responsibilities., Conservation of Resources, Overuse of resources creates many socio-economic problems., Many leaders and thinkers have been advocating for the, judicious use and conservation of resources. Gandhiji told, “There is enough for everybody’s need and not for any body’s, greed.” He thought that exploitative nature of modern, , technology is the root cause for depletion at global level. He, believed in the production by masses and not in the mass, production. Therefore the conservation of resources at various, levels becomes most important to use them judiciously., Land Resources: Land supports our life system and is one of, the most important natural resources. Therefore necessary and, good planning needed to use it. India comprises of many types, of land like mountains, plateau, plains and islands., Mountains: About 30% of land area in India is in the form, of mountain. Mountain supports the perennial flow of, rivers, which carry fertile soils, facilitate irrigation and, provide drinking water., Plain: About 43% of land area in India is in the form of, plains. Plains provide facilities for agriculture, building of, industries and houses, etc., Plateau: About 27% of land in India is in the form of, plateau which provides many types of minerals, fossil fuels, and forest., Land utilisation: Patterns of use of land resources., Land not available for cultivation either barren or waste, land, which is not used for agriculture purpose. The Lands, are also used for buildings, roads, factories, for nonagriculture purpose., Current fallow the land left without cultivation for one or, less than one agricultural year, Other than current fallow, the land left uncultivated for the past 1 to 5 agricultural, years., Net sown area: Area which is sown at least once in a year, is called net sown area. The pattern of net sown area varies, widely from state to state. Where net sown area is 80% in, state like Punjab whereas only 10% in the state of, Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Manipur and Andaman and, Nicobar Island. Such difference is creating lot of, discrimination., Gross cropped area: Area sown more than once in an, agricultural year plus net sown area is known as gross, cropped area., Land use pattern in India: Pattern of use of land depends, upon physical and human factors both. Climate, topography,, type of soil, etc. are considered as physical factors while, population, technology, skill, population density, tradition,, capability, etc. are considered as human factors., India has total 3.28 million square kilometre land used data., But only 93% of land of total geographical area is, available. This is because land used data has not been, collected for the North eastern states except Assam and the, land occupied by Pakistan and China has not been surveyed, because of many unavoidable reasons.
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Resources for Human Needs, , II.F.21, , The land under permanent pasture is decreasing; which will, create the problem for grazing. The total net sown is not, more than 54% including land other than fallow land. Land, other than fallow land is either of poor quality or too costly, to cultivate, these lands are cultivated only once or twice in, two or three consecutive years., Forest: According to National Forest Policy (1952), the, forest should be 33% of total geographical area, which is, essential to maintain ecological balance. But the forest area, in India is far less than desired measures., Presently, about 130 million hectare of land is reported, under degraded land in India, in which about 28% of land, belongs to forest and about 28% is water eroded area. Rest, degraded land is because of over deposition of salinity and, alkalinity. Overgrazing, mining, deforestation, division of, lands in small area because of family feuds, etc. are some, of the major causes of degradation of land., Soil as a Natural Resource, Soils are derived largely from rocks and minerals broken down, by weathering. It takes millions of soil up to a few centimetres, Table: 5.3 Important Soils of India, Type, Formation, Alluvial Soil, (Transported, Soil) (Bhangar, and Khaddar), , Silt brought by, rivers during the, course of their, long journey, , Black Soil, (Regular Soil), (In situ), , Weathering of, volcanic (basalt), rock formed by, the Deccan lava., , Red Soil, (In situ), , Decomposition, of Metamorphic, rocks., , Laterite Soil, (In situ), , Formed by, intense leaching, due to heavy, rains, , Arid Soil, , Location, , in depth. Soil is one of the most important natural resources., Soil supports the growth of plants. Soil is the natural home of, many living organism, such as ants, rats, snakes, and many, insects., Table: 5.2 Formation of Soil, Physical Processes, , Chemical Action, , Biological processes, , Rocks expanding and, contracting in hot sun, and cold rain cracks, and chips. Wind wears, then rock away into, tiny bits and water, trapped in crocks, expands when freezes,, splitting and breaking, the rock. Running, water usually carries, sand and gravel., , Oxygen and CO2 in, the air and water, combine with, substances in the rock, to alter it. Weak acid, in rain attack the rock,, some of the rocks, dissolve; some softens, and in the end, crumbles., , When plants die, they are, decomposed by the, microorganisms., Decomposed plants and, animal material, called, humus is an important, addition to the, developing soil. Animals, also help by digging, burrows and mixing the, soil, improving its ability, to hold air and moisture, , Main, Minerals, Potash, lime, , Deficient, Minerals, Organic and, nitrogenous, contents, , Rich in line,, iron, potash,, magnesium,, alumina and, calcium., Rich in iron., , Hill summits of Eastern,, Western Ghats and Assam Hills., , Rich in iron, , Parts of Rajasthan and Gujarat, , Saline in, nature, , Potassium, lime,, silica,, phosphoric acid, and nitrogen., Organic matter, , River valleys (Ganga,, Brahmaputra) Deltas of, Godavari, Krishna. Coastal strip, of Peninsular India – Punjab,, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, and West Bengal., Deccan trap, Valleys of, Godavari, Krishna, Narmada, and Tapi. Maharashtra, Gujarat,, Andhra Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh,, Tamil Nadu., Eastern Part of Deccan Plateau,, Southern States of Tamil Nadu,, Chota Nagpur Plateau., , Alluvial Soil: Most widely spread and mostly these soils, contain adequate proportion of potash, phosphoric acid and, lime which are ideal for the growth of sugarcane, paddy,, wheat, vegetables and other cereal and pulse crops. It is the, most widely spread and important soil of India. It covers about, 24% of the country’s total land surface. These soils are, generally deficient in nitrogen and humus., Classification of Alluvial Soil:, On the basis of size of their grains: Duars, Chos and, Terai., On the basis of age: Bangar (old alluvial), , Main Features, , Crops Associated, , Very fertile., Covers 40% areas, of India, , Rice, wheat, cotton,, oilseeds and, sugarcane., , Lacks nitrogen, and humus., , Self ploughing, quality, holds, moisture when, wet., , Cotton, tobacco,, oilseeds and, sugarcane., , Phosphorus,, nitrogen, humus, and lime., , Coarse, porous,, crumbly and does, not retain moisture,, requires fertilisers., Acidic, porous,, crumbly and, coarse., , Wheat, rice, cotton,, pulses and, sugarcane., , Sandy in texture, , Bajra, ragi, etc., , Coffee, rubber,, cashew and, tapioca., , Khadar (new alluvial): More fine particles and more, fertile than Bangar., These soils constitute the surface of the great Plains form Punjab, to Assam. They also occur in the valleys of the Narmada and, Tapti in MP and Gujarat, Mahanadi in MP and Orissa, Godavari, in Andhra Pradesh and Cauvery in Tamil Nadu and along the, coast of Kerala., Black Soil: They have the capacity to hold moisture; these, soils are black in colour and they are eminently suitable for the, cultivation of cotton. In some areas they are also called regur.
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.F.22, , They are sticky when wet and develop deep wide cracks on, drying which helps in the process of self- aeration and, absorption of nitrogen from the atmosphere., Formation: Climatic condition along with the parent rock, materials are the important factors for the formation of, black soil. The black colour is due to the presence of, compounds of iron and Aluminium. They are rich in soil, nutrients, such as calcium carbonate, magnesium, potash, and lime and known for its fertility. Cotton, cereals and, oilseeds may kinds of vegetables are well suited to black, soils, They cover the Plateaus of Maharashtra, Saurashtra,, Malwa, MP and Chhattisgarh., Red and Yellow Soils: These soils comprising red loams and, yellow earths and derived from crystalline igneous and, metamorphic rocks rich in ferromagnetism minerals. It looks, yellow when it occurs in hydrated form., Distribution: They are found in Orissa, Chhattisgarh, and, southern parts of the middle Ganga Plain along the, piedmont zone of western Ghats Red soils are airy and need, irrigation support for cultivation. Almost all kinds of crops, are grown on red soils, though they seem to be more, suitable for the cultivation of rice, ragi, tobacco and, vegetables., Laterite Soil: Humus content of the soil is low because most, of the microorganism, particularly the decomposers, like, bacteria, gets destroyed due to high temperature. Soil develops, in areas with high temperature and heavy rainfall. This is the, result of intense leaching due to heavy rains. Laterite soils are, poor in nitrogen, Phosphoric acid, potash, lime and magnesia., They are suitable for cultivation with adequate does of manures, and fertilisers. This soil is useful for growing tea, coffee and, cashew nut., , Forest Soils: These soils are found in the hilly and, mountainous areas. These forest soils are characterised by the, deposition of organic matter derived from forest growth humus, predominates in all forest soils. The soil is loamy and silty in, valley sides and coarse grained in upper slopes., The Himalayas and the other ranges in the north and the high, hill summits in the Sahyadris, Eastern Ghats and the Peninsula, have forest soil. Temperate fruits, maize, wheat and barley are, raised on them in J & K, Himachal Pradesh. Plantations of tea,, coffee, and spices are laid on these soils in Karnataka, Kerala,, Tamil Nadu and Manipur., 68°E, , 72°, , 76°, , 80°, , 84°, , 88°, , 92°, , 36°, , 96°, 36°, , MAJOR SOIL TYPES, 32°, , 32°, PAKISTAN, , CHINA, (TIBET), , 28°, , NEPAL, BHUTAN, 24°, BANGLADESH, , TROPIC, OF, , MYANMAR, 20°, , 20°, , BAY OF, BENGAL, 16°, ARABIAN, SEA, , Forest &Mountainous, Alluvial, , 12°, , 12°, , Red and Yellow, Black, Laterite, , 8°N, , SRI, , 72°, , 76°, , 8°N, , Arid, , INDIAN OCEAN LANKA, 84°, , 88°, , 92°, , Figure: 5.2, , These soils occur in summits of Sahyadris, Eastern Ghats,, Rajmahal hills and many other hills in the eastern part of India, and in the hilly areas of Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu., Arid Soil: These soils are formed under arid and semiarid, conditions in the northwestern part of the country. These soils, range from red to brown in colour. They are generally sandy in, texture and saline in nature. These soils have a high soluble salt, content and a low to very low humus content. They are rich in, phosphate but poor in nitrogen. The entire area West of the, Aravalli rang in Rajasthan has desert soils. The soil extends to, the southern districts of Haryana and Punjab in the North and, the Rann of Kutch in South., , Soil Erosion: It is the removal of soil by the forces of nature, like wind and water. Generally there is a balance between soil, forming process and erosion process. Sometimes, this balance, is disturbed due to human activities like deforestation,, overgrazing, construction and mining, etc., Types of Soil Erosion:, Water erosion: Water is a powerful agent of soil erosion., Major types of erosion caused by water are:, Sheet erosion: When the top layer of the soil is removed, over a large area by running water, it is called sheet, erosion. It is harmful because it removes the top layer, which is finer and fertile.
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Resources for Human Needs, , , , , , Gully erosion: If erosion continues unchecked for, sufficient time, small finger shaped grooves develop on the, landscape, called Rill Erosion, with further erosion of the, soil, the rills may deepen and become enlarged and are, ultimately turned into gullies. The main cause of gully, erosion is the removal of vegetation. Gullies cut up, agricultural land and the entire area may be tuned into bad, land., Wind erosion: Wind is a powerful agent of erosion in, arid and semiarid lands with little rainfall. Wind can lift, the valuable topsoil from one area and deposit in another, area. It is very dangerous type of erosion because due to, wind most of the deserts of the world are expanding., , Soil Conservation: It includes all those measures, which help in, protecting the soil from erosion and exhaustion. Protective soil, ensures progress in agriculture; industrial development,, economic betterment and a high standard of living so there is, urgent need to conserve soil., Afforestation: It means increase area under forest., Indiscriminate felling of trees should be stopped and efforts, should be made to plant trees in new areas., Crop rotation: Terracing and contour ploughing across the, hill slopes is a very effective and one of the oldest methods of, soil conservation. Shelter belts (the rows of trees) can also, reduce soil erosion because these break the force of wind and, water. Strip cropping (growing strips of grass between the, crops) can break up the force of wind and reduce erosion., , II.F.23, , Land Degradation: It is a process through which land, becomes unfit for cultivation. At present there is about 130, million hectare of degraded land in India., Factor Responsible for Land Degradation, Water logging: Over irrigation of land is also responsible, for land degradation. Water logging increases salinity and, alkalinity in soil making it unfit for cultivation. States of, Punjab, Haryana, West UP are facing land degradation due, to water logging., Overgrazing: Overgrazing of land by animals results in, removal of grass over a large area making it easy for wind, and water to remove the soil. In states like Gujarat,, Rajasthan, MP hilly states of northern India it is one of the, main reasons for land degradation., Mining: It is common is Jharkhand, Orissa, MP,, Chhattisgarh., Industrialisation: Mining processing like grinding of, limestone of cement industry and calcite and soapstone for, ceramic industry etc. generate huge quantity of dust in the, atmosphere. It retards the process of infiltration of water, into the soil., Ways of Conservation of Land:, Afforestation and proper management of grazing., Stabilisation of sand dunes by growing thorny bushes., Control of mining activities., Proper discharge and disposal of industrial effluents and, wastes after treatment. Proper management of waste land., , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , On the basis of its origin, resources can be classified into:, a. Renewable and non-renewable, b. Continuous and biological, c. Biotic and abiotic, d. Recyclable and non-recyclable, What is required for sustained quality of life and global, peace?, a. Depletion of resources, b. Equitable distribution of resources, c. Accumulation of resources, d. None of these, Where was the first international Earth Summit held?, a. Rio de Janeiro, b. Geneva, c. Switzerland, d. Philippines, What was the ‘Agenda 21’?, a. Treaty signed between countries, b. Bill of rights, , c. Declaration for sustained global development, d. None of these, 5., , Who wrote Small is Beautiful?, a. Mahatma Gandhi, b. Jawaharlal Nehru, c. Rabindranath Tagore, d. Schumacher, , 6., , Which report introduced the concept of ‘sustainable, development’?, a. World Commission on Environment and Development, Report, b. Brundtland Commission Report, c. State of Forest Report, d. None of these, Mountains account for how much of the total surface area, in India?, a. 30%, b. 40%, c. 43%, d. 25%, , 7.
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.F.24, , 8., , What is ‘fallow land’?, a. Cultivated land, b. Fertile land, c. Uncultivated land, d. None of these, 9. What is the percentage of Net Sown Area (NSA) in India?, a. 60%, b. 55%, c. 45%, d. 54%, 10. In which of the following states, has deforestation caused, land degradation due to mining?, a. Maharashtra, b. Jharkhand, c. Gujarat, d. None of these, 11. In which of the following states has overgrazing caused, land degradation?, a. Orissa, b. Rajasthan, c. Chhattisgarh, d. None of these, 12. What is the other name for black soil?, a. Regur soil, b. Cotton soil, c. Alluvial soil, d. Both (a.) and (b.), 13. What is ‘new alluvial’ soil known as?, a. Bangar, b. Terai, c. Khadar, d. Regur, 14. Where are arid soils found?, a. Gujarat, b. Maharashtra, c. Uttar Pradesh, d. Rajasthan, 15. What is known as ‘bad land’?, a. Land unfit for cultivation, b. Land unfit for settlement, c. Ravines, d. Both (a.) and (c.), , 16. Under which of the following type of resource can tidal, energy be put?, a. Replenishable, b. Abiotic, c. Human-made, d. Non-recyclable, 17. Which one of the following is the main cause of land, degradation in Punjab?, a. Intense cultivation, b. Deforestation, c. Over irrigation, d. Overgrazing, 18. In which one of the following states is terrace cultivation, practiced?, a. Punjab, b. Haryana, c. Plains of Uttar Pradesh, d. Uttaranchal, 19. In which one of the following states is the black soil, found?, a. J & K, b. Gujarat, c. Rajasthan, d. Jharkhand, 20. Alluvial Soil have been deposited by three important, Himalayan river systems – the Indus, the Ganga and, a. The Mahanadi, b. The Godavari, c. The Brahmaputra, d. The Krishna, ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , c, , b, , a, , c, , d, , b, , a, , c, , d, , b, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , b, , d, , c, , d, , d, , a, , c, , d, , b, , c, , , , 10.
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Water Resources and Agriculture, , 6, , II.F.25, , Water Resources and Agriculture, , In volume water on earth; 97.5% exists in oceans and seas;, only 2.5% of total water is available as freshwater. 70% of total, freshwater is present as frozen ice in icebergs and glaciers., Below 30% of total freshwater is stored as groundwater. India, receives about 4% of global precipitation. The total renewable, water resources in India are estimated at 1,897 sq. km per, annum. By 2025 large parts of India will join regions with, absolute water scarcity., Note, Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) refers to the area in the, sea up to which a country has a right to explore and use the, marine resources beyond its coast. Any country’s EEZ is, determined by the United Nations Convention on the Law, of the Sea (1982). A country has to seek special permission, from the United Nations to explore and use marine, resources beyond its Exclusive Economic Zone. India’s, Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) extends to 200 nautical, miles (or 370 km) from its coastal baseline., All water on the surface of the earth evaporates because of, the heat of the sun. It turns into clouds and falls on the, earth in the form of rain. Rainwater again flows into the, river and ocean or percolates. Underground plants absorb, soil moisture and release water into the atmosphere through, transpiration., Water Scarcity: Overexploitation of water, excessive use and, unequal access to water among different social groups are the, main causes of water scarcity., At many places groundwater contaminated due to excess, use of chemical fertilisers and insecticides. The, contamination is at such a high level that water has become, unfit for human consumption., More the population more the water needed for various, purposes. Large scale farming also needs lot of water for, irrigation. While demand has been increasing, the process, of natural recharge of groundwater has suffered because of, several reasons., Large scale deforestation has disturbed the natural recharge, of groundwater at many places. Construction of concrete, buildings, factories and roads has also made the ground less, impervious to rainwater. This has almost totally stopped the, percolation of rainwater to recharge groundwater., , The most of the rivers turn into filthy drains because of, sewage and effluents are being discharged into them, without being treated., Water Resource Management: To manage water resources,, India had a long tradition of building various structures., Irrigation systems were built as early as during the Mauryan, Empire. Currently many multipurpose dam projects had been, built in India for many purposes. They prevent flood by, checking the flow of water. The water from the dams is used, through a system of canals to irrigate far flung areas. Dams are, also used for electricity generation. Moreover, drinking water, is also supplied from the dams. But dams have caused a lot of, people being displaced from their ancestral lands and a vast, tract of land gets submerged in the catchment area of dam., Rainwater Harvesting: Rainwater can be collected for future, use or can be channelised to recharge groundwater. Most of the, rainwater just flows off without percolating down the ground,, which can be prevented by using rainwater harvesting. Rooftop, rainwater harvesting is ideal to be applied at small scale., Fortunately, there are some parts of India where rooftop, rainwater harvesting is being successfully adapted to store and, conserve water., In Gendathur, a remote backward village in Mysore,, Karnataka, villagers have installed in their households rooftop, rainwater harvesting system to meet their growing water needs., Nearly 200 households have installed this system and the, village has earned the rare distinction of being rich in, rainwater. Gendathur receives an annual precipitation of 1,000, mm and with 80% of collection efficiency and of about 10, fillings; every house can collect and use about 50,000 litres of, water annually., Note, Important multipurpose projects are: Bhakra dam on Satluj,, Hirakud on Mahanadi, Damodar valley on Damodar and, Chambal on Chambal., Agriculture, The term agriculture is derived from two Latin words, ager or, agri meaning ‘land’ or ‘soil’ and culture meaning ‘cultivation’.
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.F.26, , Agriculture thus, means land cultivation. However, in modern, days agriculture also includes animal husbandry, forestry and, pisciculture., , Conuco, , Venezuela, , Roca, , Brazil, , Masole, , Central Africa, , Lading, , Indonesia, , Types of Farming (Agriculture) in India, , Ray, , Vietnam, , India Types of Agriculture, Shifting, , Subsistence, , Intensive, , Slash and Burn, , Farmers produce, for, selfconsumption, , Practiced in high, density, , Commercial, Plantation, , Primitive Subsistence Farming: This type of farming is, suitable for small patches of land. Primitive tools and, family/community labour are used in this type of farming. The, farming mainly depends on monsoon and natural fertility of, soil; Crops are grown as per the suitability of the, environmental condition., Slash and Burn: A patch of land is cleared by slashing the, vegetation and then the slashed plants are burnt for agriculture., The ash is mixed with the soil and crops are grown. This type, of farming produces just enough crops to sustain the family., After a couple of seasons, the patch is left fallow and a new, patch of land is prepared for farming. This allows the earlier, patch of land to replenish its fertility through the natural, process., Although there are different names for slash and burn farming, in different regions of India, the name 'Jhum Cultivation' or, Jhuming is commonly used in this context. The following table, shows various names for slash and burn farming in different, countries., Table: 6.1 Different Names of Slash and Burn Farming, Slash and Burn Farming in India, Name, , Intensive Subsistence Farming: Such type of farming is, generally practiced in densely populated areas. This involves, high degree of use of biochemical inputs and irrigation due to, huge pressure of population on this type of farming., Problems of Intensive Farming: Division of land through, successive generation leads to plot size getting smaller and, smaller. This makes it impossible to properly manage the farm, inputs. Moreover, large-scale farming is not possible in that, case., Commercial Farming: This type of farming the purpose of, selling the farm produces. Various modern techniques are used, in this type of farming, e.g. HYV (High Yielding Variety), seeds, chemical fertilisers, insecticides and pesticides. Punjab,, Haryana, Western UP and some parts of Maharashtra are the, areas where commercial farming is common and Bihar, West, Bengal, Tamil Nadu, etc. also using such farming., Plantation: The farming, in which single crop is grown on a, large area. Plantation requires intensive capital and a large, number of workers. Most of the produce from a plantation is, used in various industries like tea, coffee, rubber, sugarcane,, banana, etc. Tea is mainly produced in the tea gardens of, Assam and North Bengal, coffee is produced in Tamil Nadu,, and banana is produced in Bihar and Maharashtra. Plantation, requires excellent network of transport and communication,, processing industries and a good market., Cropping Pattern, Crops of India, , Regions/ Contries, Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram and, Nagaland, Manipur, , Food crops, (Rice, wheat, millets etc), , Bewar or Dahiya, , Bastar (Chhattisgarh) and Andaman, andNicobar Islands, Madhya Pradesh, , Table: 6.2 Cropping Seasons are Rabi, Kharif and Zaid, Rabi, Kharif, , Podu or Penda, , Andhra Pradesh, , Rabi crops are also, , Kharif crops are also, , The zaid season falls in, , Pama Dabi or Koman or Bringa, , Orissa, , known as winter, , known as summer crops., , between the rabi and, , Kumara, , Western Ghats, , crops. They are sown, , They are sown at the, , kharif seasons., , Valre or Waltre, , South-eastern Rajasthan, , Khi, , Himalayan belt, , from October to, , beginning of monsoon, , Watermelon,, , Kuruwa, , Jharkhand, , December and, , and harvested in, , muskmelon, cucumber,, , harvested from April, , September-October., , vegetables and fodder, , to June. Wheat,, , Paddy, maize, jowar,, , crops are some of the, , Jhumming, Pamlou, Dipa, , Slash and Burn Farming in World, Milpa, , Mexico and Central America, , Cash crops, (Cotton, jute, etc), , Commercial Plantation crops, (Coffee, rubber, tea etc), , Zaid
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Water Resources and Agriculture, , II.F.27, , barley, pea, gram and, , bajra, tur, moong, urad,, , crops grown in this, , mustard are the, , cotton, jute, groundnut, , season. Sugarcane is, , important rabi crops., , and soyabean are, , planted in this season, , Punjab, Haryana,, , important kharif crops., , but takes almost a year, , Himachal Pradesh,, , Assam, West Bengal,, , to grow., , Jammu & Kashmir,, , coastal regions of, , Uttarakhand and, , Orissa, Andhra Pradesh,, , Uttar Pradesh are the, , Tamil Nadu, Kerala,, , important producers, , Maharashtra, Uttar, , of rabi crops., , Pradesh and Bihar are, , , , , , important rice growing, states. In Assam, West, Bengal and Orissa; three, crops of paddy are, , , , grown in a year. These, are called Aus, Aman, and Boro., , Major Crops, Wheat: Wheat is the main food crop in North and Northwestern parts of India. Wheat needs 50 to 75 cm of annual, rainfall which should be evenly distributed over the, growing season. The Ganga-Sutlej plains in the northwest, and black soil region of Deccan are the two important, wheat-growing zones in India. Punjab, Haryana, Uttar, Pradesh, Bihar, Rajasthan and parts of Madhya Pradesh are, the important wheat producing regions., Rice: India is the second largest producer of rice; after, China. It requires high temperature (above 25°C), high, humidity and rainfall above 100 cm annually. However, it, can be grown with the help of suitable irrigation in areas of, less rainfall. Rice is grown in the northern plains, northeast, India, coastal areas and deltaic regions. Nowadays, rice is, also grown in Punjab, Haryana, and western Uttar Pradesh, and in parts of Rajasthan. This has been possible because of, development of a dense network of canals., Millets: Jowar, bajra and ragi are the important millets, grown in India. Millets are known as coarse grains, but they, have very high nutritional value., Jowar: Maharashtra is the largest producer of jowar;, followed by Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Madhya, Pradesh. Jowar grows in moist areas and hardly needs, irrigation., Bajra: Bajra grows well on sandy soil and shallow black, soil. Rajasthan is the largest producer of bajra; followed, by Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Gujarat and Haryana., , , , , , Ragi: Ragi grows in dry regions on red, black, sandy, loamy and shallow black soils. Karnataka is the largest, producer of ragi; follower by Tamil Nadu., Maize: Maize is used both as food and fodder. It grows, well in old alluvial soil and requires a temperature range of, 21°–27°C. The major maize-producing states are, Karnataka, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Andhra Pradesh and, Madhya Pradesh., Pulses: India is the largest producer of pulses in the world., It is also the largest consumer of pulses. Pulses are usually, produced in rotation with other crops. UP, MP, Rajasthan, and Karnataka are the major pulse-producing states., Sugarcane: Sugarcane needs hot and humid climate. It, requires temperature range of 21°–27°C and rainfall of 75, cm to 100 cm. India is the second largest producer of, sugarcane, while Brazil is the number one. Uttar Pradesh,, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh,, Bihar, Punjab and Haryana are major sugar producing, states., Oilseeds: India is the largest producer of oilseeds., Groundnut, mustard, coconut, sesame, soybean, castor,, cotton seeds, linseed and sunflower are the main oilseeds, grown in India., Groundnut: Groundnut accounts for about half of the, major oilseeds produced in the country. Andhra Pradesh is, the largest producer of groundnut; followed by Tamil Nadu,, Karnataka, Gujarat and Maharashtra. Groundnut is a kharif, crop. Linseed and mustard are rabi crops. Sesame is a, kharif crop in north and rabi crop in south. Castor is grown, both as rabi and kharif crops., , India is the Leading Producer of Tea in the World., Tea: Tea plants grow well in tropical and sub-tropical, climates; in deep and fertile well drained soil. The soil should, be rich in humus and organic matter. Tea is a labour, intensive industry. Assam, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu and, Kerala are major tea-producing states. The hills of Darjeeling, are famous for the unique quality of tea produced there., Coffee: Coffee is also grown in plantations. Initially, the, Arabica variety was brought from Yemen and produced in, India. The cultivation of coffee was initially introduced on, the Baba Budan Hills., Horticulture Crops: India produces about 13% of the world’s, vegetables and the largest producer of fruits and vegetables in, the world. It is an important producer of pea, cauliflower, onion,, cabbage, tomato, brinjal and potato.
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.F.28, Table: 6.3 Non-food Crops, Rubber, Rubber is a crop of, equatorial region but it, is also grown tropical, and subtropical, regions. It needs moist, and humid climate, with rainfall more than, 200 cm. A temperature, range above 25°C is, required for rubber, plantation. In India,, rubber is mainly grown, in Kerala, Tamil Nadu,, Karnataka and, Andaman & Nicobar, islands and also in the, Garo hills of, Meghalaya. India is the, fifth largest rubber, producer in the world., , Cotton, India is the third-largest, producer of cotton., Cotton grows in dry, pats of black cotton soil, of the Deccan plateau., High temperature, light, rainfall or irrigation,, 210 frost-free days and, bright sunshine are, required for the growth, of cotton. The crop, requires 6 to 8 months, to mature. Maharashtra,, Gujarat, Madhya, Pradesh, Karnataka,, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil, Nadu, Punjab, Haryana, and Uttar Pradesh are, the main cotton, producing states., , Jute, Jute needs welldrained fertile soils of, the flood plains. West, Bengal, Bihar, Assam,, Orissa and Meghalaya, are the major jute, producing states., , Bhoodan: Vinoba Bhave started the Bhoodan Andolan to, encourage big landlords to donate a part of their land to the, landless farmers. The reform was successful in Punjab and UP, but could not be implemented throughout the country, because, of poor response by farmers. Many people came out in support, of Vinoba Bhave and donated land. Small plot size hampers, proper farm management. To improve the condition, the, government brought certain measures for land reform. In some, states, land was redistributed so that all of the land owned by a, farmer could come on a single plot., Green Revolution: Green Revolution was started in the 1960s, and 1970s to improve farm output. Use of new technology and, HYV seeds was encouraged. Green revolution produced very, good results; especially in Punjab and Haryana., White Revolution: White Revolution (Operation Flood) was, initiated to improve milk production in the country., A comprehensive land development programme was launched, in the 1980s and 1990s. These programmes included both, institutional and technical reforms. Provision for crop, insurance was made against drought, flood, cyclone, fire and, disease. Gramin banks and cooperative societies were opened, , in rural areas so that farmers could get access to loan facilities., Kisan Credit Card (KCC), Personal Accident Insurance, Scheme (PAIS) and many other schemes were introduced for, the benefit of farmers. The government owned radio and TV, channels broadcast special weather bulletins and agricultural, programmes. Government also announced MSP (Minimum, Support Price) so that farmers can be saved from exploitation, by middlemen., The growth in agricultural sector is going down. Reduction in, import duties on agricultural products means that farmers are, facing tough competition from international markets., Investment is not coming into agriculture and hence, employment opportunities are also showing de-growth in this, sector. The share of agriculture in GDP has being declining, from 1951 onwards. Yet it continues to be the largest, employer. About 63% of the total workforce was employed in, agriculture. Government is making continuous efforts to, modernize agriculture. ICAR (Indian Council of Agricultural, Research), agricultural universities, veterinary services, animal, breeding centres, horticulture development, R&D in the field of, meteorology, etc. are given top priority with an aim to improve, Indian agriculture., Food Security: To ensure food security to all sections of, society, the government has carefully designed a national food, security system. It has two components:, Buffer stock: Once the government procures food grains, through FCI (Food Corporation of India), buffer stock is, maintained at various locations. This stock is utilised in, case of food shortage at any place. This stock is also, utilised in case of natural disasters; like flood and drought., Public distribution system (PDS): PDS is a programme, which provides food grains and other essential commodities, at subsidised prices to poor people in rural and urban areas., A person needs to get a ratio card made to avail the benefits, of PDS. Separate cards are made for BPL (Below Poverty, Line) and APL (Above Poverty Line) families. The PDS is, also fed by the FCI., , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , Which of these statements is not an argument in favour of, multi-purpose river projects?, a. Multi-purpose projects bring water to those areas which, suffer from water scarcity, b. Multi-purpose projects by regulating water flow help to, , control floods., c. Multi-purpose projects lead to large scale displacements, and loss of livelihood., d. Multi-purpose projects generate electricity for our, industries and our homes.
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Water Resources and Agriculture, , II.F.29, , 2., , Choose two states which have only 40% of net sown area, under irrigation:, a. Punjab, b. Himachal Pradesh, c. Rajasthan, d. Haryana, , 11. Which Indian leader has said, ‘River dams are the temples, of modern India’?, a. Lala Lajpat Rai, b. Pt Jawahar Lal Nehru, c. Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya, d. Subhash Chandra Bose, , 3., , Mention two areas where canal irrigation has developed:, a. Great Plains of the North, b. North Eastern States, c. The Deccan Plateau, d. Deltas of Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna and Kaveri, rivers, , 12. Choose any two techniques of rooftop rain-water, harvesting., a. To capture water from rooftops, b. To capture run-off water form catchment areas, c. To bring water from far-off regions, d. To use groundwater, , 4., , Which purpose is served by the Multipurpose Projects?, a. To irrigate the land, b. To generate electricity, c. To uproot the people, d. To make the land better, , 13. Which are the two sources of fresh water in India?, a. Sea-water, b. Rain fall, c. Groundwater, d. Cyclones, , 5., , 6., , 7., , What have the canal roofs?, a. They are small islands made by the remains of the, canals over a long period, b. They are islands made by earthquakes in the sea-bed, c. They are islands made by the Tsunami Storms, d. None of these, Name any two sources of surface water, a. Ponds, b. Glaciers, c. Sea waves, d. Tanks, What is the mean annual inflow of Indian rivers?, a. About 1,569 million cubic metres, b. About 1,669 million cubic metres, c. About 1,769 million cubic metres, d. About 1,869 million cubic metres, , 8., , How much surface water is covered by the Indus, the, Ganga and the Brahmaputra?, a. About 20%, b. About 30%, c. About 40%, d. About 60%, , 9., , Which one of the following is not a Multi-purpose River, Valley Project of North India?, a. Tungabhadra Project, b. Bhakra Nangal Project, c. Damodar Valley Project, d. Chambal Valley Project, , 10. Choose the main source of irrigation in India:, a. Canals, b. Ocean currents, c. Jet Streams, d. Tubewells, , 14. On which one of the following rivers Sardar Sarovar Dam, is built?, a. River Kaveri, b. River Krishna, c. River Narmada, d. River Satluj, 15. Which one of the following describes a system of, agriculture where a single crop is grown on a large area?, a. Shifting Agriculture, b. Plantation Agriculture, c. Horticulture, d. Intensive Agriculture, 16. Which one of the following in a rabi crop?, a. Rice, b. Millets, c. Gram, d. Cotton, 17. Which one of the following is a leguminous crop?, a. Pulses, b. Millets, c. Jowar, d. Sesamum, 18. Which one of the following prices is announced by the, government in support of a crop?, a. Maximum support price b. Minimum support price, c. Moderate support price, d. Influential support price, 19. Name any two agricultural resources., a. Climate, b. Irrigation, c. Banking, d. Transport, 20. What was the average size of agricultural holding in India, in 1970?, a. 1.2 hectares, b. 1.5 hectares, c. 1.9 hectares, d. 2.1 hectares, 21. Which one of the following in not a Kharif crop?, a. Wheat, b. Rice, c. Rice, d. Maize
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.F.30, , 22. Which one of the following is not a rabi crop?, a. Wheat, b. Barley, c. Rice, d. Gram, , a. Karnataka, c. Tamil Nadu, , 23. Which two of the following are cash crops of India?, a. Cotton, b. Maize, c. Rice, d. Rubber, 24. Which two of the following states are the major rice, producing areas in India?, a. Andhra Pradesh, b. Uttar Pradesh, c. Orissa, d. Uttrakhand, 25. Which two of the following are the chief sugarcane, producing areas of India?, a. Maharashtra, b. Madhya Pradesh, c. Orissa, d. Karnataka, 26. In what broad category do the soils of Maharashtra fall?, a. Black Soils, b. Arid Soils, c. Mountain Soils, d. Laterite Soils, 27. In which one of the following states, the coffee is not, chiefly grown?, , b. Kerala, d. West Bengal, , 28. In which one of the states, the rubber is chiefly grown?, a. Punjab, b. Haryana, c. Kerala, d. Jammu and Kashmir, 29. Which state was the harbinger of Green Revolution in, India?, a. Punjab, b. Uttar Pradesh, c. Madhya Pradesh, d. Himachal Pradesh, 30. In which one of the following crops, India is the leading, producer and exporter in the world?, a. Jute, b. Tea, c. Coffee, d. Rubber, ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , c, , a,c, , a,c, , a, , a, , c ,d, , d, , d, , a, , a, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , b, , a,b, , b, , c, , b, , c, , a, , b, , a,b, , d, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , c, , c, , a, , a, , a, , a, , d, , c, , a, , b, ,
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Minerals and Energy Resources, , 7, , II.F.31, , Minerals and Energy Resources, , A homogenous, naturally occurring substance with definable, internal structure is called mineral. Minerals are natural, chemical compounds, uniform in composition and structure, and consist of rocks and ores. Man has been using minerals, since pre-historic times. The importance of minerals in human, civilization is reflected from the fact that many stages in the, history of economic development are named after minerals, used in those days. Minerals occur in different types of rocks,, some are found in igneous and some in sedimentary rocks., Almost all metals are found in the form of ore., Note, Minerals occur in rocks (Study of rocks is called geology)., Ore: The mineral occurring in combination with the other, impurities is called an ore., Mining: The process of obtaining minerals from the earth, interior., Table: 7.1 Classification of Minerals, Metallic, (Minerals which have metals) Iron ore,, Gold, Silver, Cobalt, etc, , , , They are lustrous., They are mostly associated with, igneous and metamorphous rocks., , , , These minerals are malleable, , , , They are generally solid and heavy, , Ferrous, , Non-ferrous, , They have iron, metal., Iron ore,, chromites,, nickel, , They contain metals, other than iron., Gold, Silver, Bauxite,, Copper, , Non-Metallic, (Minerals which do not have, metals) Mica, Coal, Limestone,, Potash, etc, , They are not lustrous., , They are mostly, associated with, sedimentary or, metamorphic rocks., , These minerals are not, malleable., , They are neither solid nor, heavy. Some of them are, found in liquid as wells as, gaseous states., , Occurrence Mode of Minerals, Igneous and metamorphic rocks: The smaller, occurrences are called veins and the larger occurrences are, called lodes. They are usually formed when minerals in, liquid/molten and gaseous forms are forced upwards, through cavities towards the earth’s surface, e.g., tin,, copper, zinc, lead, etc., Sedimentary rocks: In sedimentary rocks, minerals occur, in beds or layers, e.g., coal, iron ore, gypsum, potash salt, and sodium salt., , Surface rocks: Decomposition of surface rocks and, removal of soluble constituents leaves a residual mass of, weathered material which contains ores, e.g., Bauxite etc., Alluvial deposits: These minerals are found in sands of, valley floors and the base of hills. These deposits are called, placer deposits. They generally contain those minerals, which are not corroded by water, e.g., gold, silver, tin,, platinum, etc., Ocean water: Most of the minerals in ocean water are too, widely diffused to be of economic importance, e.g.,, common salt, magnesium and bromine., Iron Ore: Magnetite is the finest iron ore with a very high, content of iron up to 70%. This iron ore is valuable for the, electrical industry because of excellent magnetic properties., Hematite ore is the most important industrial iron ore; in terms, of usage. The iron content of hematite is 50–60%. India is rich, in good quality iron ores., Others, 1%, Jharkhand,, 12%, Goa, 17%, Chhattisgarh,, 19%, , Karnataka,, , Orissa, 25%, , Figure: 7.1 Iron ore in India, , In India Iron Ore Belts, Orissa Jharkhand Belt: Badampahar mines in the, Mayurbhanj and Kendujhar districts of Orissa have high, grade hematite ore. Hematite iron ore is mined in Gua and, Noamundi in Singhbhum district of Jharkhand., Durg Bastar Chandrapur Belt: The Bailadila range of, hills in the Bastar (Chhattisgarh) has very high grade, hematite ore. This hilly range has 14 deposits of super high, grade hematite ore., Bellary Chitradurga Chikmaglur Tumkur Belt: The, Kudremukh mines a 100% export unit located in the Western, Ghats in Karnataka. The ore from these mines is transported as, slurry through a pipeline to a port near Mangalore.
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.F.32, , Maharashtra Goa: This belt includes the state of Goa and, Ratnagiri district of Maharashtra; the ores are not of very, high quality., Manganese: In the manufacturing of steel and ferromanganese alloy mainly used is manganese. It is also used in, making bleaching powder, insecticides and paints., , Other, 30%, , Karnataka,, 15%, , Orissa, 33%, , Madhya,, Pradesh 22%, , Figure: 7.2 Manganese ore in India, , Copper: Copper is mainly used in electrical cables, electronics, and chemical industries. 52% of India’s copper is produced in, the Balaghat mines of Madhya Pradesh. Rajasthan is the next, leading producer with 48% share., Aluminium: The main areas of bauxite are Amarkantak, plateau, Maikal hills and the plateau region of Bilaspur-Katni., Orissa is the leading producer of bauxite with 45% share in, India. Panchpatmali in Koraput district is the most important, centre of bauxite deposit in Orissa., Mica: Mica deposits are found in the northern edge of the, Chota Nagpur plateau. Koderma-Gaya-Hazaribagh belt of, Jharkhand is the leading producer of mica. Ajmer in Rajasthan, and Nellore in Andhra Pradesh are also important producers of, mica. Mica is a mineral which is made up of a series of plates, layered into a few centimetre thick mica sheets. Mica has, excellent dielectric strength, low power loss factor, insulating, properties and resistance to high voltage. Mica is widely used, in electric and electronic industries., Hazards of Mining: Cases of respiratory tract diseases are, very high in mining areas. Mining is a hazardous industry; both, for the workers and for the residents. The miners have to work, under tough conditions where no natural light is available., There is always a risk of collapse of mine roof, inundation with, water and fire. The areas around mines face the problem of too, much dust from the mines. Slurry from mines damages the, roads and the farmland. Houses and clothes become dirty more, often than in other areas. Miners are at great risk of getting, afflicted with pulmonary disorders., , Conservation of Minerals: It is important that we conserve, the mineral resources, as it takes millions of years for the, formation of minerals. Compared to the present rate of, consumption, the replenishment rate of minerals is very slow., Hence, mineral resources are finite and non-renewable. Due to, this, it is important that we conserve the mineral resources., Energy Resources, Energy is required for all activities. It can be generated, from fuel minerals like coal, petroleum, natural gas,, uranium and from electricity., Energy resources can be classified as Conventional and, Non-conventional sources., Table: 7.2 Non-renewable and Renewable Resources, Non-renewable resources, Renewable resources (Non(Conventional sources of energy), Conventional source Energy), , These are the sources which, , These are the new energy, have been in use since the, resources which have begun, industrial period started., to be used., , They are expensive., , They are inexpensive., , They are exhaustible and cannot, , They are renewable and, be replenished., inexhaustible., , They are convenient and, , They are not very, versatile form of energy and are, convenient and versatile and, in great demand by industry,, are not in demand by, e.g. coal, oil, natural gas,, industry,, hydroelectricity and nuclear, e.g. sun, wind, tide,, energy., geothermal energy, biomass., Etc., , Coal: In India, coal occurs in rock series of two main, geological ages. The Gondwana coal was formed over 200, million years ago. The tertiary deposits are about 55 million, years old. The major sources of Gondwana coal are located in, the Damodar valley (West Bengal–Jharkhand). In this belt;, Jharia, Raniganj and Bokaro are important coalfields. Coal, deposits are also present in the Godavari, Mahanadi, Son and, Wardha valleys. Tertiary coal is found in the North-eastern, states of Meghalaya, Assam, Arunachal Pradesh and Nagaland., There are varieties of coal on the degree of compression during, its formation:, Lignite: It is soft and has high moisture content is a low, grade brown coal. Neyveli in Tamil Nadu has the main, reserves of lignite coal. This type of coal is used for, electricity generation., Bituminous coal: This is the most popular coal for, commercial use, which was formed because of increased, temperature and was buried very deep. High grade, bituminous coal is ideal for use in metallurgy., Anthracite coal: This is the highest quality hard coal.
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Minerals and Energy Resources, , II.F.33, , country. At present, there are over 300 thermal power stations, in India., , Carbon content or energy content of coal, Water content of coal, , % of world reserves, , Brown coal, Lignite, 17%, , Sub-bituminous, 30 %, , Hard coal, Bituminous, 52%, Used in boiler, , Anthracite, 1%, , Coking coal, , Uses, , Electricity generation, Cement plants, industrial boilers, , Turbine, , Generator, Transmission, , Coal supply, , Steam coal, , Electricity, generation, , Steam line, , Steel, , “No fumes”, , manufacturing Domestic and, , industrial uses, , Figure: 7.3 Carbon content or energy content of coal, , Condenser, , Boiler, , Transformer, , Water supply, , Figure: 7.4 Thermal Power Plant, , Petroleum: Petroleum is found in fault traps between porous, and non-porous rocks. Petroleum is a major source of fuel for, various uses. It provides raw materials for various, manufacturing industries; like plastic, textiles, pharmaceuticals,, etc. Most of the petroleum in India occurs in anticlines and, fault traps in the rock formations of the tertiary age. The oil, bearing layer is a porous limestone or sandstone through which, oil may flow. The intervening non-porous layers prevent the oil, from rising or sinking. Mumbai High produces about 63% of, India’s petroleum; Gujarat produces 18% and Assam 13%., Ankleshwar is the most important oil field in Gujarat. Assam is, the oldest oil producing state of India. Important oil fields of, Assam are Digboi, Naharkatiya and Moran-Hugrijan., , Non-conventional Sources of Energy, Nuclear Energy: Nuclear energy is obtained by altering the, structure of atom. When the structure of an atom is altered, too, much energy is released in the form of heat. This heat is, utilised to generate electric power. Uranium and Thorium are, used for generating atomic power. These minerals are available, in Jharkhand and the Aravalli ranges of Rajasthan. The, Monazite sand of Kerala is also rich in Thorium., Uranium fuel rods, Boron control rods, , Heat exchanger, , Natural Gas: Gas usually occurs above the oil because it is, lighter than oil. Natural gas is found along with or without, petroleum. It is used as fuel and also as industrial raw material., Large reserves of natural gas have been discovered in the, Krishna-Godavari Basin. Gulf of Cambay, Mumbai High and, Andaman Nicobar islands are also important areas with large, reserves of natural gas. The 1,700 km long Hazira-VijaipurJagdishpur pipeline links Mumbai High and Bassein with the, fertiliser, power and industrial complexes in western and, northern India. Natural gas is mainly used by the fertiliser and, power industries. Nowadays, use of CNG (Compressed Natural, Gas) is increasing as vehicle fuel in the country., Electricity: Electricity is generated mainly by two methods; by, running water which drives hydro turbines and by burning, other fuels like coal, petroleum and natural gas to drive, turbines. Bhakra Nangal, Damodar Valley Corporation, Kopili, Hydel Project, etc. are major hydroelectric producers in the, , Hot gas, , Steam to, turbines, , Core, , Cold water, , Gas flow, Cold gas, Pump, Tick concrete shield to absorb neutrons and other radiations, Graphite moderator, , Figure: 7.5 Nuclear Power Plant, , Solar Energy: Photovoltaic technology is used to convert solar, energy into electricity. The largest solar plant of India is
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.F.34, , located at Madhapur near Bhuj. Solar energy holds great, promises for the future. It can help in minimising the, dependence on firewood and animal dung cakes in rural areas., This will also help in conservation of fossil fuels., , Wind energy converted to electric, energy to satisfy electrical, Synchronous, inverter, Customer’s, distribution panel, Utility Meter, , Solar collector, , Excess energy fed to the grid for credit, Additional power requirements satisfied by the, , Figure: 7.8 System Configuration, To taps, , Controller, Tank, , Boiler, , Biogas: Biogas can be produced from shrubs, farm waste, and, animal and human waste. Biogas is more efficient than, kerosene, dung cake and charcoal. Biogas plants can be set up, at municipal, cooperative and individual levels. The gobar gas, plants provide energy and also manure., Outlet for bio-gas, Slurry of cattle dung, and water, , Cold water feed, , Pump, , Maxing, tank, , Figure: 7.6 Solar Power Plant, , Floating, gas-holder, H, Inlet, , P, , S, , V, , Gas valve, , Overflow tank, , Outlet, F, , M, , Bio gas collects, here, , Ground level, , Wind Power: India now ranks as a “Wind Super Power” in the, world. The wind farm cluster in Tamil Nadu (from Nagercoil, to Madurai) is the largest cluster in India. Andhra Pradesh,, Karnataka, Gujarat, Kerala, Maharashtra and Lakshadweep are, also important centres of wind power production., , Spent slurry, , Inlet pipe, , I, , O, , Underground digester tank, , Partition wall, W, F, , Figure: 7.9 Floating gas-holder type biogas Plant, , Generator, Brake, Gearbox, Lopbox, Hydraulic, , Gas outlet, Soil, , Rotorblade, , Gas tank, , Outlet, , Nacelle, , Hub, , , , , , , Yaw drive, , Pitch control unit, Axis cabinet, Battery backup, Drives, , Lower, Transformer station, , Foundation, , Soil, , , , , , , Low voltage distribution panel, Main control cabinet, Invertor technology, Windpark communication, , Fertiliser, , Manure, , Clina sensors, Aviation lights, Antennas, , , , , , , , Support for pipe, , Dung and water mixture, , Slurry, , Cooling system, , Outlet pipe, , Digester, , Figure: 7.10 Fixed gas-holder type biogas plant, , Tidal Energy: Floodgate dams are built across inlets. The, water flows into the inlet during high tide and gets trapped, when the gate is closed. Once the tide recedes, the gates are, opened so that water can flow back to the sea., Sluice, Barrage, , High water, , Basin, , e.g. 20 kV/ 690 V Cable route, , Sea, Figure: 7.7 Wind Power Plant, , Low Water, Turbine, Estuary, Figure: 7.11 Tidal Power Plant
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Minerals and Energy Resources, , II.F.35, , The flow of water is used to run the turbine to generate, electricity. A 900 mw tidal energy power plant is set up by the, National Hydropower Corporation in the Gulf of Kutch., , Turbine Generator, Steam, , Geo Thermal Energy: We know that the inside of the earth is, very hot. At some places, this heat is released on the surface, through fissures. Groundwater in such areas becomes hot and rises, up in the form of steam. This steam is used to drive turbines. Two, experimental projects have been set up in India to harness, geothermal energy. They are; the Parvati valley near Manikaran in, Himachal Pradesh and the Puga Valley in Ladakh., , Cooling, tower, , Injection, well, , Hot water, , Figure: 7.12 Geothermal Power Plant, , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , Which one of the following minerals is formed by, decomposition of rocks, leaving a residual mass of, weathered material?, a. Coal, b. Bauxite c. Iron Ore d. Zinc, , 12. Orissa is the leading producer of which one of the, following minerals?, a. Copper, b. Iron Ore, c. Manganese ore, d. Mica, , 2., , Koderma, in Jharkhand, is the leading producer of which, one of the following minerals?, a. Bauxite, b. Mica, c. Iron One d. Copper, , 13. Koderma Gaya-Hazaribagh belt of Jharkhand is the, leading producer of which one of the following minerals?, a. Copper, b. Bauxite c. Iron-ore d. Mica, , 3., , Minerals are deposited and accumulated in the strata of in, which of the following rocks:, a. Sedimentary Rocks, b. Igneous Rocks, c. Metamorphic Rocks, d. None of the above, , 14. Which one of the following is a non-metallic mineral?, a. Lead, b. Copper, c. Tin, d. Limestone, , 4., , Which one of the following is contained in the Monazite, sand?, a. Oil, b. Uranium c. Thorium d. Cola, , 5., , Which two of the following are iron producing states?, a. Chhattisgarh, b. Punjab, c. Rajasthan, d. Jharkhand, , 6., , Name the mineral of which India is the largest producer in, the world., a. Iron, b. Mica, c. Coal, d. Aluminium, , 7., , In which state is the Kolar gold field located?, a. Jharkhand, b. Kerala, c. Karnataka, d. Tamil Nadu, , 8., , 9., , 15. Which one of the following fuels is considered, environment friendly?, a. Coal, b. Petroleum c. Natural Gas d. Firewood, 16. India is referred to as a ‘Super Power’ in the world in, which one of the following non-conventional sources of, energy?, a. Solar Energy, b. Wind Power, c. Bio Gas, d. Tidal Energy, 17. Minerals are deposited and accumulated in the stats of which, of the following rocks?, a. Sedimentary rocks, b. Metamorphic rocks, c. Igneous rocks, d. Solid rocks, 18. Which state had the largest number of iron ore mines?, a. Orissa, b. Chhattisgarh, c. Maharashtra, d. Karnataka, , Name the most important coal producing state in India., a. Jharkhand b. Haryana, c. Uttar Pradesh, d. Madhya Pradesh, Which one of the following is the finest quality of iron ore?, a. Haematite b. Limonite c. Magnetite d. Siderite, , 10. Limestone is the basic raw material for which one of the, following industries?, a. Iron and Steel industry, b. Fertiliser industry, c. Cement industry, d. Automobile industry, 11. Which one of the following minerals is a fossil fuel?, a. Barium, b. Coal, c. Zircon, d. Uranium, , 19. Main uses of manganese ore in, a. Steel, b. Salt, c. Ferro-manganese alloy, d. Bleaching powder, ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , b, , b, , a, , c, , a, , b, , c, , a, , a, , b, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , b, , b, , d, , d, , c, , b, , a, , d, , c, ,
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.F.36, , 8, , Manufacturing Industries, , Industrialisation plays a vital role in the economic development, of a country. Utilisation of huge volume of natural resources, has become possible with the development of industries in the, country. With the growing industrialisation of the economy, the, volume and rate of capital formation in the country are, gradually being enhanced due to increase in the level of income, and saving capacity of people in general. Indian economy has, been facing an unbalance sectoral development. Growth in, industrialisation in the country can attain balanced sectoral, development and its can reduce the too much dependence of, the economy on the agricultural sector by providing jobs to the, people in secondary and tertiary sectors., Organised and unorganised industries are jointly contributing a, good portion of the total national income of the country., Moreover, as a result of industrialisation the level of national, income and capital income of the country also increase at a, satisfactory rate. Export of manufactured goods brings much, needed foreign exchange. Development of industrial sector, would increase the job opportunities for a large section of the, population of the country. Setting up of new industrial units, can create job opportunities., Note, Electronic industry covers a wide range of products including, television sets, transistor sets, telephone exchanges, cellular, telecom, paging, computers and varied equipments for posts, and telegraph, defence, railway and meteorological, departments. India has made significant progress in electronic, and computer technology. From 1996–97 to 2001–02, the, industry grew by a factor of over three times. Bangalore is the, largest centre of electronics goods production and is rightly, termed as the Electronic Capital of India. The other major, producing centres are Hyderabad, Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai,, Kolkata, Kanpur, Pune, Lucknow, Jaipur Coimbatore, etc., The software has emerged as the major industry in the field of, electronics. Software exports have become an important part, of India’s exports., Table: 8.1 Contributions, Contribution of Agriculture to, Industry, Agriculture provides raw, material to industry such as jute,, cotton, sugarcane, etc., , Contribution of Industry to, Agriculture, Industry provides inputs to the, Agriculture such as fertilisers,, pesticides, tractors etc., , It also acts as a source of capital, formation which can be utilised, in industry., It provides food to the industrial, workers., It provides good market to the, industrial product., It also decreases pressure on, industry., , It provides infrastructural facilities, to the industry., It can absorb surplus labourers or, workers of agriculture and reduces, pressure on agriculture., Industry provides processed product, to the agriculture, it also increases, the market value of agriculture, product., , Table: 8.2 Classifications of Industries, On the Basis of Raw Materials, Agro-based Industries: Cotton,, Mineral-based Industries: Iron and, woollen, jute, silk textile, rubber,, steel, cement, aluminium,, sugar, tea, coffee, etc., petrochemicals, etc., According to their Main Role, Basic or Key Industries: These, Consumer Industries: These, industries supply their products or, industries produce goods which are, raw materials to manufacture other, directly used by consumers, e.g., goods, e.g. iron and steel, copper, sugar, paper, electronics, soap, etc., smelting, aluminium smelting., On the basis of capital investment, Small Scale Industry: If the, Large Scale Industry: If the, invested capital is up to Rs. 1 crore,, invested capital is more than Rs. 1, then the industry is called a small, crore, then the industry is called a, scale industry., large scale industry., Based on the Bulk and Weight of Raw Materials and Finished Goods, Light Industries: Electronics, Heavy Industries: Iron and steel., On the Basis of Ownership, Joint Sector:, Cooperative sector:, Public Sector: Private Sector:, These, These industries are, These, These industries, industries are, owned and operated, industries are, are owned and, jointly owned, by the producers or, owned and, operated by, by the, suppliers of raw, operated by, individuals or a, government, materials, workers, government, group of, and individuals, or both. The, agencies, e.g., individuals, e.g., or a group of, resources are pooled, SAIL, BHEL,, TISCO, Reliance,, individuals, e.g. by each stakeholder, ONGC, etc., Mahindra, etc., Oil India, Limited., , and profits or losses, are shared, proportionately,, e.g., AMUL, , Manufacturing Industry, Textile Industry: In India, the textile industry contributes, 14% to industrial production. This industry is the second, largest in terms of employment generation, after, agriculture. In India 35 million persons are directly, employed in the textiles industry. The contribution of, textiles industry to GDP is 4%. This is the only industry in, the country which is self-reliant and complete in the value, chain., Cotton Textiles: Cotton textiles were traditionally, produced with hand spinning and handloom weaving
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Manufacturing Industries, , II.F.37, th, , techniques. Power-looms came into use after the 18, century. During the colonial period, the competition of, mill-made cloth from England destroyed the Indian textiles, industry., At present, there are 1,600 cotton and synthetic textile mills, in India. Almost 80% of them are in the private sector. The, rest are in the public sector and cooperative sector., Additionally, there are several thousand small factories, with four to ten looms., Location of Cotton Textile Industry: This industry was, earlier concentrated in the cotton belt of Maharashtra and, Gujarat. Availability of raw materials, port facilities,, transport, labour, moist climate, etc. were in favour of these, locations. The industry provides a source of livelihood to, farmers, cotton boll pluckers and workers engaged in, ginning, spinning, weaving, dyeing, designing, packaging,, tailoring and sewing. This industry supports many other, industries; like chemical and dyes, mill stores, packaging, materials and engineering works., Spinning still continues to be centralised in Maharashtra,, Gujarat and Tamil Nadu. However, weaving is highly, decentralised and there are many weaving centres in the, country, Production of fabric in India by various sectors: At, around 34 million, India has the second largest installed, capacity of spindles in the world; after China. India, accounts for one-fourth of the world trade in cotton yarn., However, India’s share in garment trade in the world is, only 4%. Our spinning mills are globally competitive and, can use all the fibres we produce. But the weaving, knitting, and processing units cannot use much of the high quality, yarn produced in the country. India exports cotton yarn to, Japan. Cotton goods are also exported to USA, UK, Russia,, France, East European countries, Nepal, Singapore, Sri, Lanka and African countries., Table: 8.3 Sector and Share Production, Sector, , Share of production, , Loomage, , Mills, , 6%, , 1.33 lakh, , Power loom, , 54.17%, , 14 lakh, , Handloom, , 23%, , NA, , Jute Textiles: India is the largest producer of raw jute and jute, goods and second largest exporter in the world. Most Proximity, of the jute producing areas, inexpensive water transport, good, rail and road network, abundant water for processing raw jute, and cheap labour from West Bengal, Bihar, Orissa and Uttar, Pradesh. In West Bengal along the bank of Hooghly 70 jute, , mills are located in India. The jute industry is in a narrow belt, which is 98 km long and 3 km wide., Jute industry is facing challenge from synthetic fibre and also, from other competitors like Bangladesh, Brazil, Philippines,, Egypt and Thailand. But the internal demand has been rising, because of government policy of mandatory use of jute, packaging. The National Jute Policy was formulated in 2005, with an objective to increase productivity, improve quality and, ensure good prices for the jute farmers. The future of jute looks, bright due to growing global concern for environment friendly, and biodegradable material., Sugar Industry: India is the second largest producer of sugar, in the world. It is the largest producer of gur and khandsari., There are over 460 sugar mills in the country. They are spread, over Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Tamil, Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, Punjab, Haryana and Madhya, Pradesh. Sixty percent mills are in UP and Bihar. This industry, is seasonal and hence is more suited to the cooperative sector., In recent years, there has been a growing tendency to shift and, concentrate in the southern and western states; especially in, Maharashtra. The cane produced in this region has higher, sucrose content. The cooler climate of this region ensures a, longer crushing season., Seasonal nature of industry, old and inefficient methods of, production, transport delay and the need to maximise the use of, bagasse are the major challenges for this industry., Mineral-based Industries, Iron and Steel Industry: India is 9th among the world crude, steel producers and produces 32.8 million tons of steel. India is, the largest producer of sponge iron whereas per capita, consumption of steel is only 32 kg per annum. It is the basic, industry as iron is required for making machineries for all other, industries. Because of this, production and consumption of, steel is often regarded as the index of a country’s development., In India at present 10 primary integrated steel plants and, many mini steel plants are. SAIL (Steel Authority of India, Limited) is the major public sector company in this sector,, while TISCO (Tata Iron and Steel Company) is the major, private sector company in this industry., Most of the iron and steel industries are in the Chota, Nagpur plateau region. This region has plenty of low cost, iron ore, high grade raw materials, cheap labour and good, connectivity through railways and roadways.
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II.F.38, , Reasons for Underperformance of Iron and Steel Industry, in India, High cost and limited availability of coking coal., Low productivity of labour., Erratic energy supply., Poor infrastructure., Aluminium Smelting: Aluminium smelting is the second most, important metallurgical industry in India. There are eight, aluminium smelting plants in India, located in Orissa (NALCO, and BALCO), West Bengal, Kerala, Uttar Pradesh,, Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu. India produced, over 600 million tons of aluminium in 2004., Aluminium is often turned into alloy and then used for, making various products., Chemical Industries: The chemical industry is usually its own, largest consumer. The chemical industry contributes about 3%, to the GDP. The chemical industry of India is the third largest, in Asia and is at twelfth position in the world., Organic Chemicals: These include petrochemicals., Petrochemicals are used for manufacturing synthetic fibres,, synthetic rubber, plastics, dye-stuffs, drugs and, pharmaceuticals. Organic plants are located near oil, refineries or petrochemical plants., Inorganic Chemicals: Sulphuric acid, nitric acid, alkalis,, soda ash and caustic soda are the inorganic chemicals., Sulphuric acid is used to manufacture fertilisers, synthetic, fibres, plastics, adhesives, paints, dye stuffs. Soda ash is, used to make glass, soaps and detergents, paper, etc., Fertiliser Industry: India is the third largest producer of, nitrogenous fertilisers. Fertiliser industry is centred around the, production of nitrogenous fertilisers, phosphatic fertilisers and, ammonium phosphate and complex fertilisers. There are 57, fertiliser units which manufacture nitrogenous and complex, nitrogenous fertilisers. Out of them, 29 units manufacture urea, and 9 manufacture ammonium sulphate as by-product. There, 68 small units which produce single superphosphate., Complex fertilisers have a combination of nitrogen (N),, phosphate (P) and potash (K). Potash is entirely imported, because India does not have any reserves of commercially, viable potash or potassium compounds., Cement Industry: in India 128 large and 323 mini cement, plants are. Cement industry requires bulky raw materials like, limestone, silica, alumina and gypsum. There are many cement, plants in Gujarat because of proximity to ports., , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Improvement in quality has found the Indian cement a, readily available market in East Asia, Middle East, Africa, and South Asia., Automobile Industry: In India almost all types of vehicles are, manufactured. After 1991 liberalisation many automobile, manufacturers set up their base in India. With the launch of, contemporary models, India became an attractive market for, automobiles. The major centres of automobile industry are, Delhi, Gurgaon, Mumbai, Pune, Chennai, Kolkata, Lucknow,, Indore, Hyderabad, Jamshedpur, Bangalore, Sanand,, Pantnagar, etc., Electronics and IT (Information Technology) Industry:, This industry had generated a large number of employments of, fast growth of BPO (Business Process Outsourcing); this sector, has been a major earner of foreign exchange. Bangalore is, often termed as the electronic capital of India. The other, important centres are Mumbai, Pune, Delhi, Hyderabad,, Chennai, Kolkata, Lucknow and Coimbatore., Industrial Pollution and Environmental Degradation, Air Pollution: High proportion of carbon dioxide, sulphur, dioxide and carbon monoxide create air pollution., Suspended particulate matters also create problems. Smoke, is emitted from chimneys of various factories. Some, industry also pose the risk of leak of hazardous chemicals;, the way it happened during the Bhopal Gas Tragedy. Air, pollution has adverse effect on human health, animals,, plants, buildings, and the atmosphere as a whole., Noise Pollution: Factory equipments, generators, electric, drills, etc. are the major sources of noise pollution. Noise, pollution can result in constant irritation, hypertension and, hearing impairment., Radioactive Pollution: Waste from nuclear power plants, contains highly radioactive materials and need to be, properly stored. The leakage of any radioactive material can, cause short term and long term damages to humans and, other creatures., Water Pollution: Organic and inorganic industrial wastes, and effluents cause water pollution. Paper, pulp, chemical,, textile, dyeing, petroleum refineries, tanneries, etc. are, mainly responsible for water pollution., , Thermal Pollution of water: It occurs when hot water, from factories or thermal plants is drained into rivers and, ponds before cooling. This plays havoc with the aquatic, life.
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Manufacturing Industries, , II.F.39, , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , Which one of the following industries uses limestone as a, raw material?, a. Aluminium b. Cement c. Sugar, d. Jute, , 13. Which one of the following has been the major source of, foreign exchange for IT industry?, a. BHEL, b. SAIL, c. BPO, d. OIL, , 2., , Which one of the following agencies, market steel for the, public sector plants?, a. HAIL, b. SAIL, c. TATA Steel, d. MNCC, , 3., , Which one of the following industries uses bauxite as a, raw material?, a. Aluminium b. Cement c. Jute, d. Steel, , 14. Which one of the following factors plays the most, important role in the location of an industry in a particular, region?, a. Raw material, b. Market, c. Least Production cost, d. Transport, , 4., , 5., , 6., , Which one of the following industries manufactures, telephones, computers, etc?, a. Steel, b. Aluminium, c. Electronics, d. Information Technology, Which one of the following is not a chief ingredient of the, modern industry?, a. Capital, b. Qualified skilled labour, c. No banking facilities, d. Availability of raw material, Which of the following state of India are more famous for, their cotton textile industry?, a. Punjab, b. Maharashtra, c. Gujarat, d. Both (b.) and (c.), , 7., , Which of the following are the famous centres of cotton, textiles in India?, a. Mumbai, b. Jalandhar, c. Ahmedabad, d. Both (a.) and (c.), 8. Name the most important coal producing state in India., a. Uttar Pradesh, b. Bihar, c. West Bengal d. Both (b.) and (c.), 9. Where is the steel in industry mostly confined to?, a. Tamil Nadu, b. Orissa, c. West Bengal, d. Both (b.) and (c.), 10. Name the state in which Bhilai Steel Plant is situated. a., Bihar, b. Chhattisgarh, c. Jharkhand, d. West Bengal, 11. Which one of the following countries is giving stiff, competition of India with regard to jute industry?, a. Brazil, b. Bangladesh, c. Philippines, d. Thailand, , 15. Which one of the following cities has emerged as the, ‘electronic capital’ of India?, a. Delhi, b. Kolkata c. Bangalore d. Hyderabad, 16. On what basis is the industrial sector classified into public, and private sectors?, a. Employment conditions, b. The nature of economic activity, c. Ownership of enterprise, d. Number of workers employed in the enterprise, 17. What is the full form of NMCC?, a. National Manufacturing Computer Corporation, b. New Medical Competitive Council, c. National Manufacturing Competitive Council, d. Non-medical Competitive Council, 18. Light industries use, a. Light raw material, b. Materials which produce light, c. Light investment, d. All of these, 19. Name the two main centres of cotton textile industry., a. Mumbai and Kolkata, b. Mumbai and Ahmedabad, c. Ahmedabad and Lucknow, d. Lucknow and Ahmedabad, 20. Where the majority of jute mills located in India?, a. On the banks of river Hoogli, b. On the banks of river Yamuna, c. On the banks of river Krishna, d. On the banks of river Satluj, ANSWERS, , 12. Which one of the following major ports has been developed, to decongest Kolkata port?, a. Kandla, b. Haldia, c. Paradip, d. Marmagao, , , 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , b, , b, , d, , c, , c, , d, , d, , d, , d, , 10., b, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , b, , b, , c, , b, , c, , c, , c, , a, , b, , a
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.F.40, , 9, , Lifelines of the National Economy, , We use different material items in our daily life. Some of these, are available in our immediate surrounding but most of them, are not available in our immediate environment. Have you ever, thought how these goods reach to us? These goods reach to us, through mean of transport., Radio, Television, Telephone, e-mail, telegraph etc. are the, main mean of communication whereas roadways, railways,, pipelines, airways and waterways are major means of transport., At present it is the time of information and technology. The, world is developing very fast and means of communication, play a very vital role in the development of the world. Means, of communication act like nervous system in the human body., We can know what is happening in other parts of nation and, world only through this media., Note, Transport helps in the development of communication., Various means of communication help us in interacting, with other in all the parts of the world. It has brought the, world closer., Transport like railways help us in conducting various, activities like business, sightseeing, pilgrimage and, transportation of goods over linger distances., Pipelines are used for transporting crude oil and natural gas, to refineries and factories., Water provides the cheapest means of transport and is, useful for international trade., Air transport provides the fastest, most comfortable mode, of transport., Means of Transport, , Land, Roadways, Railways, Pipelines, , Water, Inland, Overseas, , Air, International Airways, Domestic Airways, Public Undertaking, Private Airlines, , Roadways: India has one of the largest networks in the world,, aggregating to about 3.32 million kilometres. Though in India, roads are being constructed at a very fast pace but still density, of roads is very low. “The length of roads per 100 sq. km of, area is known as density of roads. Density of road is lowest in, , Jammu and Kashmir i.e., 10 km whereas it is highest in Kerala, i.e. 375 km. Roadways have an edge over railways due to, following features:, Roads require less investment is compared to railway., These can be built at higher altitude and at any place., Road transportation is easy and is within the reach of, common man and is available for 24 hours., Maintenance cost is also low., Extension of agriculture is possible only through road, transportation., Road transportation has the merit of offering personal, service., Road system facilitates the transportation of perishable, goods (milk, vegetables, etc) across different areas and, thereby stimulates their production as well adds to the, knowledge of farmers who receive useful managerial and, technical information., In India, Roads are Classified in Six Classes, Golden quadrilateral super highways: The Super Highway, have been planned to meet the requirement of fast movement, of traffic. The government has launched a major road, development project linking Delhi-Kolkata-Chennai-Mumbai, and Delhi by six-lane superhighways. The North-South, corridors linking Srinagar (Jammu and Kashmir) and, Kanyakumari (Tamil Nadu), and East-West Corridor, connecting Silchar (Assam) and Porbandar (Gujarat) are part, of this project. The major objective of these Super Highways, is to reduce the time and distance between the mega cities of, India. These highway projects are being implemented by the, National Highway Authority of India (NHA)., National highways: The main roads which are constructed, and maintained by the Central Public works Department, (CPWD) are known as National Highways. These roads, connect the state capitals, big cities, and important ports., State highways: These are constructed and maintained by, the state governments (State Public Works Department) and, join the state capitals with district headquarters and other, important towns. The total length of state roadways in India, is 4 lakh km approx., District road: These roads link the district centres with the, major roads. Their total length is nearly 6 lakh km. These, roads are maintained by Zila Parishad.
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Lifelines of the National Economy, , Village roads: These connect the villages with the, neighbouring towns and cities. These play very vital role in, the development of villages., Border roads: The Border Roads Organisation (BRO) was, established in 1960 for the development of the roads of, strategic importance in the northern and north eastern, border areas., Other roads: Rural roads, which link rural areas and, villages with towns, are classified under this category., These roads received special impetus under the “Pradhan, Mantri Grameen Sadak Yojana”., Problems of Indian Roads:, , , , The road network is inadequate in India as compared to, demand and volume of traffic. The condition of most of, the roads is very poor; these become muddy during the, rainy season., Most of the highways lack side amenities like telephone, both emergency health services, police station etc., Railways: Railways are the principal mode of transportation, for freight and passengers in India. Railways also make it, possible to conduct multifarious activities like business,, sightseeing, pilgrimage along with transportation of goods over, longer distance., Railways in India bound the economic life of the country as, well as accelerate the development of the industry and, agriculture., The Indian Railway have a network of 7,031 station spread, over a route length of 63,221 km with a fleet of 7817, locomotives, 5321 passenger service vehicles, 1904 other, coach vehicles and 228,170 wagons as on 31 March 2004., Major Problems of Indian Railways, Most of the tracks are very old., Many passengers travel without tickets., People pull chains unnecessarily which cause heavy loss to, the railway., Frequent accident also cause great loss to the railways., Airways is also giving it a tough competition., Pipelines: Pipeline transport is becoming a very important, means of transportation especially for the petrochemical, industries. In the port pipelines were used only to transport, water but now they are used for transporting crude oil, natural, gas, petroleum products etc., Advantages of Pipeline Transportation: Transportation, through pipe lines rules out delay and transportation losses., , II.F. 41, , Many fertiliser plants and thermal power stations are benefiting, by the supply of gas through pipelines., Though initial cost of laying pipelines is high but running, cost is very low., It maintains continuous supply of gas and oil., The pipes can be laid through difficult terrains as well as, under sea., The far inland locations of refineries like Barauni, Mathura,, and Panipat could be thought of only because of pipelines., The three important networks of pipelines transportation, in the country are:, From oil field in upper Assam to Kanpur (Uttar Pradesh),, via Guwahati, Barauni and Allahabad. It has branches from, Brauni to Haldia, via Rajbandh, Rajbandh to Maurigram, and Guwahati to Siliguri., From Salaya in Gujarat to Jalandhar in Punjab, via, Viramgam, Mathura, Delhi and Sonipat. It has branches to, connect Koyali (Near Vadodara, Gujarat) Chakshu and, other place., Gas pipeline from Hazira in Gujarat connects Jagdishpur in, Uttar Pradesh, via Bijapur in Madhya Pradesh. It has, branches to Kota in Rajasthan, Shahajahanpur, Sabrala and, other places in Uttar Pradesh., Waterways: Waterways are the cheapest and oldest mean of, transport., Importance of Waterways:, It is the most suitable from carrying heavy and bulky goods., It is a fuel efficient and environment friendly mode of, transport., The element of wear and tear is very less., More than 95% of the country’s trade volume is moved by, the sea., With the development of National Waterways it has, become main source of transportation for the natural trade., Inland Waterways: The government has declared the, following waterways as National waterways:, The Ganga River, between Allahabad and Haldia (1,620, km)., The Brahmaputra river, between Sadiya and Dhubri (891 km)., The West-coast canal, between Kollam and Kottayam in, Kerala (168 km)., The Champakara canal (14 km) and the Udyogmandal, canal in Kerala (22 km)., Sea Ports: The long coastline of 7,516.6 km. India is dotted, with 12 major and 186 medium and minor ports. Following are, the major ports of India.
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II.F.42, , Major Sea Ports are:, Kandla: In the wake of loss of Karachi port to Pakistan, after the partition, this was the first port developed soon to, ease the volume of trade on the Mumbai port. Kandla is a, tidal port. It caters to the convenient handling of exports, and imports of highly productive granary and industrial belt, stretching across the states of Jammu and Kashmir,, Himachal Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan and, Gujarat., Mumbai: It is the biggest port with a spacious natural and, well-sheltered harbour., Jawahar Lal Nehru: This port at Nhava Sheva was, planned with a view to decongest Mumbai port and serve as, a hub port for this region., Mormugao Port (Goa): It is the premier iron ore exporting, port of the country. This port accounts for about 50% of, India’s iron ore export., New Mangalore: The port is located in Karnataka. It caters, to the export of iron ore concentrates from, Kudremukh mines., Kochi: It is the extreme south-western port, located at the, entrance of a lagoon with a natural harbour., Ports of East Coast, Tuticorin (Thoothukudi): This port is in Tamil Nadu., This port has a natural harbour and rich hinterland. Thus it, has flourishing trade handling of a large variety of cargoes, to even our neighbouring countries like Sri Lanka,, Maldives, etc and the coastal region of India., Chennai: It is one of the oldest artificial port of the, country. It is ranked next to Mumbai in terms of the volume, of trade and cargo., Visakhapatnam: It is the deepest landlocked and wellprotected port. This port was originally, conceived as an, outlet for iron ore exports., Paradip: The port is located in Orissa, specialises in the, export of iron ore., Kolkata: It is an inland riverine port. This port serves a, very large and rich hinterland of Ganga-Brahmaputra basin., It is a tidal port so it requires constant dredging of Hooghly., Haldia: The port is in West Bengal. It was developed as a, subsidiary port, in order to relieve growing pressure on the, Kolkata port., Airways: Air ways is the fastest mode of transport. Though it, is still the costliest mode of transport but with the entry of, private companies there is every possibility that in near future, it will become chap and main source of transportation. The Air, transport was nationalised in 1953. On the operational side,, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Indian Airlines, Alliance air (subsidiary of India Airlines),, private scheduled airlines and non-scheduled operators provide, domestic air services. Air India provides international air, services. Pawan Hans Helicopters Ltd provide helicopter, services to oil and natural gas commission in its off shore, operations to inaccessible areas and difficult terrains like the, north-eastern states and the interior parts of Jammu and, Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh and Uttaranchal. Indian Airlines, operations also extend to the neighbouring countries of South, and South-east, Asia and the middle-east., Advantages of Airways: Airways is the fastest means of, transport and saves time. It reduces pressure on roads and, railways., It can cover very difficult terrains like high mountains,, dreary deserts, thick forests and long stretches of seas with, great case., Airways also help in increasing the trade especially that of, perishable products., Communication: Means of communication are no less, important than the means of transport. Exchange of, information is necessary for trade and commerce,, communication are necessary even for functioning of the long, distance means of transport fact both means of transport and, communication to be developed simultaneously. Posts,, telegram, telephones are the common mean of, communications., Indian Postal System: The Indian Postal network is the, large world. It handles parcels as well as personal, communications. Cards and envelopes are called first class, mail and are airlifted between covering both land and air., The second-class includes the book pockets, registered, newspaper periodicals. They are carried by surface mail,, land and water transport. They facilitate quick of mails in, large towns and cities, six mails have been introduced, recently. They are Rajdhani channel, Metro Channel, Green, Business Channel, Bulk Mail Channel and Pet Channel., Mass Communication: Mass communication provides, entertainment and creates awareness among people about, various national programmes and policies. It includes radio,, television, newspapers, magazines, books and films. All India, Radio (Akashwani) broadcasts a variety of programmes in, national, regional and local languages for various categories of, people, spread over different parts of the country. Doordarshan,, the national television channel of India, is one of the largest, terrestrial networks in the world. It broadcasts a variety of, programmes from entertainment, educational to sports, etc. for, people of different age groups.
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Lifelines of the National Economy, , International Trade: The exchange of goods and services, among people, states and countries is referred as trade. The, market is the place where such exchanges take place. Trade, between two countries is called international trade. Trade takes, place through sea, air or land., No country can survive without international trade because, resources are space bound., Advancement of international trade of a country leads to its, economic prosperity because such a trade provides so many, jobs to workers as well as business to traders., It is through international trade that we earn much of our, foreign exchange which is required for importing many, essential goods., , II.F. 43, , Tourism: Tourism in India has grown substantially over last, three decades. Foreign tourists arrivals in the country witnessed, an increase of 23.5% during the year 2004 as against the year, 2003, thus contributing Rs. 21,826 crores of foreign exchange., Tourism helps in earning foreign exchange., It provides direct as well as indirect employment to the, people. Over 15 million people are directly involved in the, tourism industry., It promotes national integration., It supports cottage and handicraft industry because, foreigners like to purchase these products., It helps in developing friendly relations with other countries, and promotes informational understandings., , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , Which two of the extreme locations are connected by the, East-West Corridor?, a. Mumbai and Nagpur, b. Mambi and Kolkata, c. Silchar and Porbandar, d. Nagpur and Siliguri, , 2., , Which mode of transportation reduces trans-shipment, losses and delays?, a. Railways, b. Pipeline, c. Roadways, d. Waterways, , 3., , Which one of the following states is not connected with, the HVJ pipeline?, a. Madhya Pradesh, b. Gujarat, c. Maharashtra, d. Uttar Pradesh, , 4., , Which one of the following ports is the deepest land, locked and well-protected port along the east coast?, a. Chennai, b. Tuticorin, c. Paradip, d. Visakhapatnam, , 5., , Which one of the following is the most important mode of, transportation in India?, a. Pipeline, b. Roadways, c. Railways, d. Airways, , 6., , Which one of the following terms is used to describe, trade between two or more countries?, a. Internal trade, b. External trade, c. International trade, d. Local trade, , 7., , Which one of the following is the costliest means of, transport?, a. Airways, b. Waterways, c. Roadways, d. Railways, , 8., , Which one of the following is the highest road of India?, a. The road that link Delhi with Manali in Himachal, Pradesh, b. The road that links Jammu with Srinagar, c. The road that links Kolkata with Darjeeling, d. The road that links Manali in Himachal Pradesh to Leh, in Ladakh, , 9., , Which of the following are major ports in the East coast, of India?, a. Visakhapatnam, b. Paradip, c. Mangalore, d.Both (a.) and (b.), , 10. Jawaharlal Nehru Airport is near which city?, a. Kolkata, b. Chennai, c. Mumbai, d. Delhi, 11. In which state Dum Dum Airport is situated?, a. West Bengal, b. Punjab, c. Maharashtra, d. Orissa, 12. Which one of the following is not a Means of, Communication?, a. Railways, b. Radio, c. Press, d. Films, 13. The first class mail includes which one of the following?, a. Book packets, b. Registered newspapers, c. Envelopes and cards, d. Periodicals and journals, 14. Which one of the following is an inland riverine port?, a. Kandla, b. Kolkata, c. Mumbai, d. Tuticorin, 15. Which one of the following states has the highest road, density?, a. Goa, b. Kerala, c. Mumbai, d. Gujarat
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.F.44, , 16. Which one of the following ports is the biggest with a, spacious natural and well sheltered harbour?, a. Kolkata, b. Chennai, c. Visakhapatnam, d. Mumbai, 17. Gauge is the term stating, a. The place where there is provision of loading and, unloading of ships, b. The place on the sea coast, c. The high pedestal built along the coastline, d. The width before the two rails of the railway line, 18. The rail gauge with a track width of 1.676 m is, a. Broad guage, b. Metre guage, c. Narrow guage, d. None of these, 19. Which is not the name of an international airport?, a. Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose Airport, , b. Indira Gandhi International Airport, c. Palam Airport, d. Meenambakkam, 20. What does QMS stand for?, a. Quick Medical Service, b. Quick Mail Service, c. Quick Mother Dairy Service, d. None of these, ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , c, , b, , c, , d, , b, , c, , a, , d, , d, , c, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , a, , a, , c, , b, , b, , d, , d, , a, , c, , b, ,
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Section, , G, , economics, Chapter in this sECTION, 1. Production of Goods and Services, , II.G.3, , 2. , , II.G.5, , Human Resources, , 3. Poverty – A Big Challenge, , II.G.7, , 4. , , Food Security in India, , II.G.10, , 5. , , Development, , II.G.13, , 6. Sectors of the Indian Economy, , II.G.16, , 7. Money and Credit, , II.G.20, , 8. Globalisation and the Indian Economy, , II.G.23, , 9. , , II.G.26, , Consumer Rights
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1, , Production of Goods and Services 3.H, , Production of Goods and Services, , It is an economic activity of creating utility and marketability by, converting raw materials into useful things and the main, production activity connected with the cultivation of crops and, allied activities., Types of Production Activities in Villages:, Farming: The cultivation of crops and allied activities., Non-farming Activities: Activities other than the, cultivation of crops. These include small manufacturing or, rural industries, transport, shop-keeping, dairy farming,, etc., Cultivators are the people who are engaged in farming., They can be farmers, tenants and farm labourers., Note, The aim of production is to produce goods and services that, fulfill some of people’s requirements or to give people what, they want. There are four requirements for the production of, goods and services which are known as factors of, production:, , Multiple Cropping and Modern Farming Methods, Multiple cropping means to grow more than one crop on a, piece of land during the year. It is the most common, method., Cultivation follows a two-season cycle: (i) Kharif season, (rainy season)—potato, jowar, bajra crops and (ii) Rabi, season (winter season)—wheat is the main crop of this, season., Modern farming methods use high-yielding varieties of, seeds (HYVs) that produce greater amounts of grain. This, is possible from a combination of irrigation, chemical, fertilisers, pesticides, farm machinery, and so on., Use of modern farming methods resulted in increasing the, productivity of land, Productivity of land means the output per hectare of land, and is measured as, Totaloutput, Yield of land =, No. of hectares of land, , Land and other natural resources such as water, minerals,, forests, etc., are the first requirement for production., Labour refers to the people who work for us. There are, two types of labour: skilled labour and unskilled labour., Human, , Capital, , (the, , entrepreneur), , refers, , to, , the, , knowledge and enterprise required to combine land, labour and physical capital to produce the required, output., Physical capital refers to the variety of inputs required at, every stage of production., Basic Practice of Production, Preparation of Soil, Sowing, Adding Manure and Fertilisers, Irrigation, Protecting From Weeds Harvesting, Storage, , Negative Impact of Modern Farming Methods, Environmental degradation: excessive and unchecked use, of fertilisers and HYV seeds led to depletion of, environmental resources and reduction of water table, Green Revolution, It refers to phenomenal increase in agricultural production, over a long period of time. Initially, it was limited only to, wheat crop, but later it spread to many other crops like rice, and oilseeds. This came about due to the HYV seeds,, fertilisers, and insecticides, Arrangement of Capital Needed in Farming, Modern farming methods require a great deal of capital., Small farmers do not have any capital of their own., They have to borrow money or arrange for the capital from, moneylenders and traders but they charge high rates of, interest on such loans., They fall in a debt trap and the vicious cycle of poverty, continues., Non-farming Activities as an Alternative Source of, Livelihood, Agricultural diversification is required to end vicious cycle, of poverty.
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.G.4, , For this, non-farming, sustainable, alternative sources of, livelihood are required., Rural people should be provided with loans at low rates of, interest., These areas should be connected with towns and cities, through better means of transport., , Non-farming activities like small manufacturing and shopkeeping are generally more productive and generate more, income., They will help in achieving sustainable development in, rural areas., , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , Which is the main production activity in villages across, India?, a. Small shop-keeping, b. Dairy farming, c. Cultivation of crops, d. Transport, Which is the most abundant factor of production?, a. Machinery, b. Business, c. Labour, d. Landlord, Raw materials and money in hand are called, a. Agriculture, b. Everything, c. Working capital, d. Horticulture, Physical Capital includes, a. Fixed Capital, b. Working Capital, c. Human Capital, d. Fixed and Working Capital, Name the most common way of increasing production on, a given piece of land., a. Single cropping, b. Double cropping, c. Multiple cropping, d. Use of fertilisers, What is the minimum wage rate for a farm labourer set by, the government?, a. Rs. 35, b. Rs. 40, c. Rs. 60, d. Rs. 35–40, , 12. Standard unit of measuring the area of land is called, a. Bigha, b. Guntha, c. Hectare, d. Acre, 13. Kharif season is identified with, a. Summer Season, b. Winter Season, c. Spring Season, d. Rainy Season, 14. Which is the main Rabi Season crop?, a. Rice, b. Pulses, c. Bajra, , d. Wheat, , 15. Area having high level of irrigation are?, a. Deccan Plateau, b. Riverine Plains and Coastal Plains, c. Southern part, d. Hilly areas, 16. Which State in India makes maximum use of chemical, fertilisers?, a. Haryana, b. Punjab, c. Orissa, d. Tamil Nadu, 17. Production of any type of good or service requires the, services of, a. Land, b. Labour, c. Capital + Enterprise, d. All of these, 18. Productivity of land can be raised by introducing, a. Single cropping system, b. Traditional methods, c. Double cropping, d. Modern farming methods, , 7., , Green Revolution was introduced in, a. 1951, b. 1970, c. In the late 1960s, d. 1950, , 8., , Who owns most of land in villages?, a. Upper caste families, b. Lower caste families, c. Labour class families, d. Business class families, , 19. All production is organised by combining land. Labour,, physical capital and human capital, which are known as?, a. Factors of politics, b. Factors of education, c. Factors of production, d. Factors of sports, , 9., , Which is the most abundant factor of production India?, a. Land, b. Labour, c. Capital, d. Human Capital, , 20. Which activities require little land and more capital?, a. Farming, b. Transport, c. Non-farm activities, d. Dairy farming, , 10. Which factor of production is fixed and scarce?, a. Capital, b. Land, c. Labour, d. Enterprise, 11. Farm labourers are the type of people who are, a. Landless cultivators, b. Farmers, c. Tenants, d. Cultivators, , ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , d, , c, , c, , d, , c, , c, , c, , a, , b, , 10., b, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , a, , c, , d, , d, , b, , b, , d, , d, , c, , c
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 2, How a population becomes human capital when investments, are made in the form of education, training, and medical, care. The economic activities undertaken in the three sectors, and the problems associated with unemployment., Human capital refers to the stock of skill, ability,, expertise, education and knowledge in a nation., Physical capital includes tools, machines, buildings,, raw material and money in hand., Human capital formation is a process of adding to the, stock of human capital through education, training and, medical care., Note, Human Resource refer to the individuals or personnel or, workforce within an organisation responsible for performing, the tasks given to them for the purpose of achievement of, goals and objectives of the organisation which is possible, only through proper recruitment and selection, providing, proper, orientation, an, induction,, training,, skill, developments,, proper, assessment, of, employees, (performance, appraisal),, providing, appropriate, compensation and benefits, maintaining proper labour, relations and ultimately maintaining safety, welfare and, health concern of employees, which is process of the, human resource management., Quality of Population, It depends on literacy rate, health of a person and skill, formation acquired by people of the country., An illiterate and unhealthy population is a liability to the, economy., A literate and healthy population is an asset., Education, It contributes towards growth of society., Enhances national income, cultural richness, and increased, efficiency in governance., Literacy rates have increased over the years., Literacy among men is 50% higher than in females and, 50% higher in urban areas than in rural areas., , 5, , Human Resources, Health, Improvement of health status is a priority, National Policy aims at improving accessibility of health, care, family welfare and nutritional service with special, focus on the under-privileged., Importance of Human Capital Formation, Raises production and efficiency as educated and healthy, people can make better use of resources., Brings positive changes in attitudes as it stimulates, innovation and creates ability to absorb new technologies., Improves quality of life raises life expectancy Economic., Activities by Men and Women, Activities can be classified into three main sectors, Primary which, includes agriculture,, forestry, animal, husbandry, fishing,, poultry farming and, mining., , Secondary which, includes quarrying, and manufacturing., , Tertiary which includes, trade, transport,, communication, banking,, education, health, tourism,, services, insurance, etc., , + Quaternary: services involving complex processing and handling of, information: education and research, engineering, IT specialist, etc., , These activities add value to be national income and are, called economic activities which is divided into two parts:, , , Market activities, , , , Non-market activities, , Unemployment, Unemployment is said to exist when people who are willing, to work at the going wages cannot find jobs., In India unemployment exists in urban and rural areas., In rural areas there is seasonal and disguised unemployment., Urban areas have educated unemployment., Unemployment leads to wastage of manpower resource and, results in people who are assets for the economy becoming, a liability., It leads to economic overload., It has a detrimental impact on the overall growth of an, economy., In India, statistically, unemployment rate is low.
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A Complete Study Guide For NTSE, , II.G.6, , Multiple Choice Questions, 1. Human Capital includes stock of, a. Skill, knowledge and Enterprise, b. Knowledge only, c. Healthy people, d. Educated people, , 12. Economic activities include, a. Market and non-market activities, b. Profit, c. Market activities, d. Flow of goods and services, , 2., , An agricultural worker can be converted into an asset by, imparting training on the use of:, a. Traditional technology, b. Capital, c. Labour, d. Modern technology, , 13. Primary sector constitutes the activities relating to, exploitation of, a. Man-made resources, b. National resources, c. Natural resources, d. Raw-material, , 3., , Which age group constitutes the workforce population?, a. 10–40 years, b. 12–60 years, c. 15–59 years d. 20–60 years, , 4., , In rural areas there is mainly, a. Seasonal and disguised unemployment, b. Frictional unemployment, c. Educational and cultural right, d. Technological unemployment, , 14. Virtuous Cycle means, a. Human development causing human development, b. Poverty causing poverty, c. Human development causing poverty, d. Economic development due to more production, , 5., , During 1951–2000 crude death rate has dropped to, a. 26.1, b. 12, c. 8.7, d. 15.6, , 6., , During 1951-2000 crude birth rate has dropped to, a. 8.7, b. 26.1, c. 15, d. 18.7, , 7., , Infant mortality rate is the death rate of a child, a. under 1 years of age, b. under 5 years, c. under 2 years, d. under 6 months, , 8., , 9., , 15. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan has been launched to provide, elementary education to all children in the age group of, a. 6–14 yrs., b. 3–10 yrs, c. 5–12 yrs, d. 7–14 yrs, 16. An unemployed person is one who is, a. willing to work, b. able and willing to work but cannot get work, c. able to work, d. not able to work so cannot get work, 17. ____________is the number of babies born there for, every 1,000 people during a particular period of time., a. Birth rate, b. Baby rate c. Born rate d. Big rate, , The Tenth Plan outlay on education has increased to, a. 43,825 crore b. 251 crore, c. 151 crore, d. 50,000 crore, Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan is a significant step towards, providing, a. General Education, b. Middle Education, c. Elementary Education, d. Higher Education, , 10. Increase in longevity of life is an indication of, a. Reduction in infant mortality rate, b. Reduction in death rate, c. Reduction in birth rate, d. Good quality of life and self-confidence, 11. Which states of India have poor health indices and few, medical colleges?, a. Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh, b. Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh, c. Tamil Nadu and Maharashtra, d. Bihar and UP, , 18. Death rate is the number of people per _______who die during, a particular period of time., a. 10,000, b. 1,000, c. 100, d. 10, 19. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan is a significant step towards, providing elementary education to all children in the age, group of six years to, a. Fifteen years, b. Ten years, c. Nine years, d. Fourteen years, 20. Trade, transport, communication, banking, education,, health, tourism, services, insurance are included in the, a. Whole sector, b. Tertiary sector, c. Main sector, d. Last sector, ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , b, , d, , c, , a, , c, , b, , a, , a, , c, , d, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , d, , a, , c, , a, , a, , b, , a, , b, , d, , b, , , , 10.
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Poverty – A Big Challenge, , 3, , II.G.7, , Poverty – A Big Challenge, , “There was lack of food, of clothing, of housing and of every, other essential requirement of human existence... the, development policy objective should be to get rid of the, appalling poverty of the people”., —Nehru, The Discovery of India, (1946), Poverty is a situation in which an individual fails to earn, income sufficient to buy him minimum means of subsistence., Note, Poverty is general scarcity or dearth, or the state of one who, lacks a certain amount of material possessions or money. It is a, multifaceted concept, which includes social, economic political, elements. Poverty seems to be chronic or temporary, and most, of the time it is closely related to inequality. As a dynamic, concept, poverty is changing and adapting according to, consumption patterns, social dynamics and technological, change. Absolute poverty or destitution refers to the, deprivation of basic human needs, which commonly includes, food, water, sanitation, clothing, shelter and health care., Relative poverty is defined contextually as economic inequality, in the location or society in which people live., The World Bank has similarly revised its definition and, benchmarks to measure poverty since 1990, with $1.25 per day, income on purchasing power parity basis as the definition in, use from 2005 to 2013, Poverty Line, It is an imaginary line which divides the poor from the nonpoor on the basis of either money income, wealth or per day, average consumption of food. The people falling below this, line are said to be poor., Poverty ratio:, No. of people living below poverty line, ×100, Total population, There is a substantial decline in poverty rations since 1973., The proportion of people living below poverty line has, fallen from 55% in 1973 to 26% in 2000., Concept of Human Poverty: Human poverty means denial of, all types of opportunities- economic, social and physical, opportunities to live a tolerable life., , Social Exclusion: It is a process through which individuals, or groups are excluded from facilities, benefits and, opportunities that others (their ‘betters’ enjoy)., Vulnerability: It describes the greater probability of being, more adversely affected than other people when bad time, comes for everybody (earthquakes, tsunami, terrorism,, crises, etc.), Reasons for Causes of Poverty, Low level of economic development under British Govt., High growth rates of population., Inequalities of land and other resources., Unemployment., Socio-cultural and economic factors., Inter-State Disparities, Proportion of poor people varies from state-to-state., Orissa and Bihar continue to be the poorest states., There has been a significant decline in poverty in Kerala,, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, West Bengal,, Punjab and Haryana., Global Poverty Scenario, Substantial decline in poverty., China-poverty declined substantially., Sub-Saharan Africa- poverty rose from 41% in 2001., South-Asian countries poverty declined only marginally., Latin-American countries poverty ratio remained stable., Russia poverty re-surfaced again., Anti-poverty Measures, Promotion of economic growth-there is strong link between, economic growth and poverty reduction, Targeted anti-poverty programmes, National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA), National Food for Work Programme 2004 (NFWP), Prime Minister Rozgar Yojana 1993 (PMRY), Rural Employment Generation Programme 1995 (REGP), Swaranajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana 1999 (SGSY), Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojana 2000 (PMGY), Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY), Poverty as a Challenge: Poverty trends in India and the, world—the causes of poverty and the anti-poverty measures
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.G.8, , taken by the government. Since the 1950s, the Indian, government and non-governmental organisations have initiated, several programmes to alleviate poverty, including subsidising, food and other necessities, increased access to loans, improving, agricultural techniques and price supports, and promoting, education and family planning. These measures have helped, eliminate famines, cut absolute poverty levels by more than, half, and reduced illiteracy and malnutrition., Although the Indian economy has grown steadily over the last, two decades, its growth has been uneven when comparing, social groups, economic groups, geographic regions, and rural, and urban areas. Between 1999 and 2008, the annualised, growth rates for Gujarat, Haryana, or Delhi were much higher, than for Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, or Madhya Pradesh. Poverty, rates in rural Orissa (43%) and rural Bihar (41%) are among, , the world's most extreme. Despite significant economic, progress, one quarter of the nation's population earns less than, the government-specified poverty threshold of Rs. 32 per day, (approximately US$ 0.6)., According to the 2001 census, 35.5% of Indian households, used banking services, 35.1% owned a radio or transistor,, 31.6% a television, 9.1% a phone, 43.7% a bicycle, 11.7% a, scooter, motorcycle or a moped, and 2.5% a car, jeep or van;, 34.5% of the households had none of these assets. According to, Department of Telecommunications of India the phone density, reached 73.34% by December 2012 and as an annual growth, decreased by −4.58%. This tallies with the fact that a family of, four with an annual income of Rs. 137000 (US$2,200) could, afford some of these luxury items., , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , Which is the most difficult challenge faced by, Independent India?, a. Low investment, b. Poverty, c. Inflation, d. Unemployment, , 6., , What is the poverty line in terms of rupees in urban areas, considering the year 2000 as base., a. Rs. 328 per month, b. Rs. 454 per month, c. Rs. 500 per month, d. Rs. 458 per month, , 2., , What is the number of poor people living in India as per, the economics survey (2002–03)?, a. 80 crore, b. 36 crore, c. 26 crore, d. 20 crore, , 7., , 3., , Which of the following are the two indicators to analyse, poverty used by social scientists now?, a. Social exclusion and vulnerability, b. Hunger and lack of shelter, c. Living with a sense of helplessness and ill-treatment, d. Inability to afford education and treatment, , What is the uniform standard for poverty?, a. Minimum availability of income equivalent of below, $ 1 a day, b. Minimum availability of income equivalent of below, $ 2 a day, c. Rs. 328 per month, d. Rs. 454 per month, , 8., , Which organisation in India conducts survey for, estimating poverty line?, a. Central Statistical Organisation, b. NSSO, c. Census of India, d. Economic Survey of India, , 9., , Which are the two poorest states in India?, a. Orissa and Bihar, b. Kerala and Andhra Pradesh, c. Punjab and Haryana, d. West Bengal and Tamil Nadu, , 4., , 5., , The accepted average calorie requirement in India in rural, areas is:, a. 2100 calories per person per day, b. 2600 calories per person per day, c. 2400 calories per person per day, d. 2000 calories per person per day, What is the accepted average calorie requirement in India, in urban areas?, a. 2600 calories per person per day, b. 2100 calories per person per day, c. 2400 calories per person per day, d. 2000 calories per person per day, , 10. Which state has focused on human resource development, in reducing poverty?, a. Andhra Pradesh, b. Punjab, c. Tamil Nadu, d. Kerala
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Poverty – A Big Challenge, , 11. Which anti-poverty programme has the aim to create selfemployment opportunities for educated unemployed, youth in rural areas and small towns?, a. Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojana, b. Rural Employment Generation Programme, c. Prime Minister Rozgar Yojana, d. National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 12. In which of the following countries has poverty remained, almost stable?, a. China, b. South Asian countries, c. Latin American countries, d. Russia, 13. In which of the following countries has poverty, resurfaced?, a. Russia, b. China, c. Latin American Countries, d. South Asian Countries, 14. Social groups which are most vulnerable to poverty are, scheduled caste and _________households., a. Other backward class, b. Other backward cast, c. Upper caste, d. Scheduled tribe, 15. Poverty declined substantially in China and Southeast, Asian countries as a result of rapid economic growth and, massive investments in, a. Human resource development, b. Human recharge development, c. Human resource demand, d. None of these, , II.G.9, , 16. The aim of Prime Minister Rozgar Yozana (PMRY) is to, create self-employment opportunities for educated, unemployed youth in rural areas and, a. Big towns, b. Small towns, c. States, d. Big cities, 17. Who always insisted that India would be truly, independent only when the poorest of its people become, free of human suffering?, a. Rajiv Gandhi, b. Sonia Gandhi, c. Sanjay Gandhi, d. Mahatma Gandhi, 18. Uneven distribution of poverty is due to differences in, __________ and__________ infrastructure in different, states., a. Wine, food, b. Social, economic, c. Wood, iron, d. Petrol, money, 19. In West Bengal, land reform measures have helped in, a. Increasing poverty, b. Equal poverty, c. Reducing poverty, d. Uneven poverty, 20. Punjab and Haryana have traditionally succeeded in, reducing poverty with the help of, a. Low agricultural growth rates, b. High agricultural growth rates, c. Rivers, d. Transport system, ANSWERS, 1., b, 11., c, , , , 2., c, 12., c, , 3., a, 13., a, , 4., c, 14., d, , 5., b, 15., a, , 6., b, 16., b, , 7., b, 17., d, , 8., b, 18., b, , 9., a, 19., c, , 10., d, 20., b
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.G.10, , 4, , Food Security in India, , Food Security means availability, accessibility and, affordability of food to all people at all times., Need for Food Security:, Food is the basic necessity of life and an important source, of nutrition., A well-fed, nourished and food secure people can only, contribute for country’s development., , Note, The average per capita food consumption is about 500 gm, per person, but still much is to be achieved. In 2009–10, about one-seventh of the rural and one-sixth of the urban, population had a caloric intake below 1,890, which is only, 70% of the global adult norm of 2,700 calories per day. The, country is way down when it comes to protein and micronutrient intake and that is why malnutrition among children, and women is still rampant., Availability of food at the macro level depends on, production and net imports and at the micro level it hinges, on transport, infrastructure and market integration. And as, far as availability is concerned, India has done well but still, lacks in access and absorption., In 2001, the production of food grains was about 196.1 MT, and in 2014 it had gone up to 263.20 MT, but the food, security index in 1999 was 105.58 and in 2008 it was, 105.98. This indicates that access and absorption is still to, be addressed., Famine, It is a situation of shortage of food leading to massive, starvation mainly due to widespread failure of crops caused, by drought., Famine causes weight loss in adults and stunted growth in, children. If the famine continues for any length of time,, malnutrition starts to cause an increase in mortality. The, young and the old tend to die first, and often diseases kill, more individuals than overt starvation. Mass migrations, may occur in response to famines., Food Insecure People, The worst-affected groups are landless people with little or, no land to depend upon, traditional artisans, providers of, , traditional services, petty self-employed workers and the, destitute including beggars., In the urban areas, the food insecure families are those, whose working members are generally employed in ill-paid, occupations and casual labour market., Aspect of Hunger, Hunger indicates food insecurity and is not just an expression, of poverty, it brings about poverty. It has two dimensions:, Chronic hunger: It is a consequence of diets persistently, inadequate in terms of quantity and/or quality., Seasonal hunger: it is related to cycles of food growing, and harvesting., Green Revolution: India is self-sufficient in food production, this is only because of modern pattern of agriculture. Then, Green revolution in 1960’s is one of the important era in India, history. India adopted a new strategy in agriculture which, resulted in green revolution, especially in the production of, wheat and rice., The Main Features of Green Revolution in India are:, Introduction of new and high yielding variety of seeds., Increased use of fertilisers, pesticides and weedicides in, order to reduce agricultural loses., Increased application of fertilisers in order to enhance, agricultural productivity., Government’s Food Security System, Buffer stock: It is the stock of food grown, namely, wheat, and rice procured by the govt. through Food Corporation, of India (FCI). FCI purchases wheat and rice from the, farmers in states where there is surplus production., Minimum support price: A minimum price guaranteed, by the govt. It is declared by the govt. every year before, the sowing season to provide incentives to the farmers for, raising the production of crops., Issue price: It is the price at which the food grains are, distributed in the deficit areas and among the poorer strata, of society. This price is lower than the market price, Public distribution system: The food procured by the, FCI is distributed through govt. regulated ration shops
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Food Security in India, , among the poorer section of the society. This is called the, public distribution system (PDS). Ration shops are also, called Fair Price Shops., Other Important Food Intervention Programmes, Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS), Food-For-Work Programme (FFW), Poverty Alleviation Programmes (PAPS), Current Status of Public Distribution System, Over the years, the policy related to PDS has been revised, to make it more efficient and targeted., Revamped Public Distribution System (RPDS), 1992: It, was introduced in 1,700 blocks in the country to provide the, benefits of PDS to remote and backward areas., Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS), 1997: It, was introduced to adopt the principle of targeting the ‘poor, in all areas’, Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY), 2000: Under this, scheme 1 crore of the poorest among the BPL families, covered under the targeted PDS were identified. Further 2, crore families have been covered under it. Food grains were, made available to each eligible family at highly subsidised, rates., Annapurna Scheme (APS), 2000: Special target group, was indigent senior citizens., Role of Cooperatives in Food Security: There are various, cooperatives and NGOs working intensively towards this, direction. These societies set up shops to sell low priced, goods to poor people, e.g., in Delhi, Mother Dairy; in, Gujarat, Amul; and in Maharashtra, Academy of, Development Science (ADS)., To encourage the food security, the Food and Agriculture, Organization of the United Nations celebrates World Food Day, every year on 16th October, the day on which the organisation, was founded in 1945. “World Food Security and the challenges, of climate change and bio-energy” was the theme for the World, Food Day for the year 2008., Food Security in India: An economic issue which is the basic, necessity of life and discussing the government’s role in, ensuring food supply. The food security is the imperative, prerequisite for the economic and social stability of any nation., Although India had long back achieved self-sufficiency in, food, the Government of India has launched the new National, Food Security Mission 2007 with the basic objective of, , II.G.11, , grappling with the persistent yield storage in the country. The, mission will increase the production of rice by 10 million, tonnes, wheat by 8 million tonnes and pulses by 2 million, tonnes in 5 years by the end of 11th Five Year Plan (2011–, 2012), National Food Security Bill: The Bill seeks for “providing, food and nutrition security in human life-cycle by ensuring, adequate quality and quantity of food at affordable prices”. It, will extend to the entire nation. The roll out date for the plan, may differ from state-to-state., Eligible Households: The number of eligible person will be, calculated with the help of Census population figure. The, identification of eligible households will be done by state, governments based on scheme’s guidelines for Antyodaya. The, lists of eligible households are to be placed in the public, domain by the state government., Entitlements: The combined coverage of Priority and, Antyodaya households (called “eligible households”) shall, extend “up to 75% of the rural population and up to 50% of the, urban population”., Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS), For every person 5 kg of food grains., Antyodaya households 35 kg of food grains per month., Prices: Rice at Rs. 3 per kg, Wheat at Rs. 2 per kg and Millets, or Coarse Grains at Rs. 1 per kg; the prices may be revised, after 3 years., Children’s Entitlements, For children below 6 months, “exclusive breastfeeding shall, be promoted”., For children from age 6 months to 6 years, the Bill, guarantees an age-appropriate meal, free of charge, through, the local anganwadi., For children aged 6–14 years, mid-day meal shall be, provided every day in all schools run by local bodies,, government and government aided schools, up to Class, VIII. Children suffering from malnutrition will be identified, with the help of local anganwadi and meals will be, provided to them free of charge through them., Entitlements of Pregnant and Lactating Women: Every, pregnant and lactating mother is entitled to get a free meal, from local anganwadi (during pregnancy and 6 months after, child birth); Maternity benefits of Rs. 6,000 in instalments.
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A Complete Study Guide For NTSE, , II.G.12, , Multiple Choice Questions, 1. Which of the following problems needs to be eradicated, to improve access to food?, a. Unemployment, b. Inflation, c. Poverty, d. Starvation, 2., , 3., , 4., , Buffer stock is the stock of which of the following food, grains procured by the government., a. Jowar and bajra, b. Corn and wheat, c. Pulses and corn, d. Wheat and rice, Subsidy is a payment that a government makes to a, producer to supplement which price?, a. Market Price, b. Minimum support price, c. Issue price, d. Fair price, The most devastating famine that occurred in India was, the famine of, a. Orissa, b. Bengal, c. Rajasthan, d. Jharkhand, , 5., , In which year did the famine of Bengal occur?, a. 1943, b. 1946, c. 1940, d. 1941, , 6., , Which dimension of hunger is a consequence of diets, persistently inadequate in terms of quantity and/or, quality?, a. Seasonal, b. Crucial, c. Chronic, d. Total, , 7., , Which prime minister officially recorded the impressive, strides of the Green Revolution in agriculture?, a. Jawaharlal Nehru, b. Indira Gandhi, c. Rajiv Gandhi, d. Atal Bihari Vajpai, , 8., , When was rationing in India introduced?, a. 1940s, b. 1960s, c. In mid-1970s d. 1973, , 9., , When was the Food-For-Work Programme introduced?, a. 1975, b. 1977–78, c. 1960, d. In mid-1970’s, , 10. When was AAY launched?, a. 1990, b. 1992, , c. 2001, , d. 2000, , 11. Which card is a PDS card for poverty line families?, a. Yellow card, b. APL, c. Antyodaya card, d. Ration card, 12. In which year was targeted PDS introduced?, a. 1992, b. 1997, c. 2004, d. 2000, , 13. The components of the food security system designed by, the government are:, a. Minimum Support Price, b. Rationing and Buffer Stock, c. Issue Price and Rationing, d. Buffer stock and Public Distribution System, 14. Ration shop also known as _____________ keep stocks, of food grains, sugar, and kerosene oil for cooking., a. Few Price Shops, b. Fair Price Shops, c. Fast Price Shops, d. First Price Shops, 15. The rationing system was revived in the wake of an acute, food shortage during the 1960s prior to the:, a. White Revolution, b. Great Revolution, c. Green Revolution, d. Blue Revolution, 16. Mother Dairy is making strides in provision of milk and, vegetables to the consumers at controlled rate decided by, a. Government of Bihar, b. Government of Gujarat, c. Government of Punjab, d. Government of Delhi, 17. Amul in another success story of cooperatives in milk and, milk products from, a. Uttar Pradesh, b. Gujarat, c. Rajasthan, d. Haryana, 18. In Maharashtra, Academy of Development Science, (ADS) has facilitated a network of NGOs for setting up, ____________ in different regions., a. Milk banks, b. Money banks, c. Cloth banks, d. Grain banks, 19. Public Distribution System (PDS) is the most important, step taken by the Government of India towards, a. Ensuring water security, b. Ensuring milk security, c. Ensuring food security, d. Ensuring fans security, 20. _______means food production within the country, food, imports and the previous year’s stock stored in, government granaries., a. Availability of food, b. Availability of blood, c. Availability of fun, d. Availability of almonds, ANSWERS, 1., d, 11., a, , , , 2., d, 12., b, , 3., a, 13., d, , 4., b, 14., b, , 5., a, 15., c, , 6., c, 16., d, , 7., b, 17., b, , 8., a, 18., d, , 9., b, 19., c, , 10., d, 20., a
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Development, , II.G.13, , 5, , Development, , Development is a process of change to a better life., Development involves thinking about the essential things that, we require for better life style. Different people have different, development goals as development for one may not be a, development for the other. For an example to get more, electricity, industrialists may want more dams. But this may, submerge the land and disrupt the lives of tribals., , Cheap labour, A girl, , Share in parental property, Better educational facilities, A rural woman, , Better economic opportunities, Equal wage for equal work, , Industrialist, , Developmental Goals of Individuals, , High price of their products, As much as freedom and opportunity as her brother, , Better infrastructure, Low taxes, Cheap labour, , Quality of Life, , Income, , Congenial Working, Atmospheres, Regular Work, Better Wages, Decent PricesRate, of dearness allowance, (DA), , Freedom, Equal treatment, Job security, Respect, Leisure time, , Note, Developed countries want developing countries to liberalise, their trade and investment so that goods could be imported or, exported easily. Also they could set-up their factories and, offices in the developing countries for enjoying the benefits of, low cost of labour and high demand i.e. large market. In return,, developing countries expect that developed nations should not, impose duty or other barriers on goods imported from, developing nations, by developed countries., World Trade Organization (WTO) is an international body that, promotes foreign trade and investment among its member nations., It promotes trade among member nations and enhances, competitiveness among all trading parties so as to benefit, consumers., Table: 5.1 Development Goals of Different Categories of Persons, Category of Person, , Development Goals/Aspirations, , Landless rural, Labourers, , More days of work, Better wages, Social and economic equality, , Rich farmer, , Low price food grains, Cheap labour, Higher price of their products, Cheap inputs like seeds, machinery. Etc., , Trader, , Infrastructure facilities, Less taxes, , Features of Development: It is a broad concept of, development in both quantitative and qualitative. It includes, increase in economic welfare along with increase in real per, capita income or product., Economic growth accompanied by welfare of people,, which includes reduction of poverty and inequality in, income distribution, removal of illiteracy, increase in, employment opportunities and availability of basic, amenities for all., The ultimate purpose of the development is to attain social, and economic justice to improve the overall quality of life,, human relations and living conditions of all individuals and, social groups., National Development: National development is a complex, concept encompassing improvement in all or some aspects of, social, economic, political, technological and above all cultural, aspects of a nation or country., Criteria for Comparing the Development of Different, Countries or States, Income: For comparing countries their income is, considered to be one of the most important attributes., Countries with higher income are more developed than, others with less income., National income: It means total value of finished goods, and services produced in a country in a year., Per capita income: When national income is divided by, total population we get per capita income, Per Capita Income =, , National Income, Total Population
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.G.14, , Average incomes: For comparison between countries we, compare the average income which is the total income of, the country divided by its total population. Since different, countries have different population, comparing total income, will not tell us what an average person is likely to earn., Countries are generally divided into developed, developing, and under developed on the basis of their per capita income., Some of the other common attributes used for comparing, the two states or countries are:, , , Infant Mortality Rate: It indicate the number of, children that dies before the age of 1 year a proportion, of 1,000 live children born in that particular year., , , , Literacy rate: Measures the proportion of literate, population in the 7 years and above age group., , , , Net attendance ratio: It is the total number of children of, age group 6–10 years attending school as a percentage of, total number of children in the same age group., , , , Life expectancy: Denotes average expected length of, life of a person at the time of birth., , , , Gross enrolment ratio: Means enrolment ratio for, primary school, secondary school and higher education, beyond secondary school., , Public facilities: Public facilities are services offered by, the government, which is open to all people. Provision of, basic facilities, such as safe drinking water, sanitation,, education, health and public distribution system is required, to lead a healthy life., , Human Development: Human development is the overall, development of human i.e. Physical, Social, Education,, Cultural, Political, Mental Development. Human Development, Index is a statistical tool to measure the overall development of, human beings., Sustainability of Development: Sustainable economic, development means increase in real income or production and, economic welfare of an economy in such manner as to, maintain environmental conservation, quality of life and, preserve for future generations., Importance of Sustainable:, Economic development: It results in increase of long-term, real per capita income of the economy. It helps in efficient, use of natural resources to achieve long-term objective like, increase in income, employment and abolition of poverty., Raising the standard of living: It emphasises on increase, in per capita income and national income but not at the cost, of environment, natural resources and quality of life., Care for Future Generations: It results in conservation of, natural capital stocks for future generations. Natural capital, stock means all kinds of environmental and ‘natural resources., It checks any harm to the living standards of the future, generation. It emphasises on use of environmental friendly, technology to avoid industrial pollution and adverse impact on, the environment and bio-control measures instead of, genetically engineered seeds, fertilisers and pesticides to, reduce agricultural pollution., , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , Development of country can be determined by its:, a. per capita income, b. average literacy level, c. health status of its people, d. all the above, Which of the following neighbouring countries has better, performance in terms of human devolvement than India?, a. Bangladesh, b. Sri Lanka, c. Nepal, d. Pakistan, What is the most common method of measuring the, economic development of country?, a. Equal treatment, b. Freedom, c. Security, d. Income, A kind of development that does not damage the, environment is called:, a. Sustainable development b. Human development, c. Economic development, d. None of these, , 5., , What should be the development goal a rural landless, labourer?, a. More freedom, b. To resent discrimination, c. More work and better wages, d. Fight for equal rights, , 6., , Why do some people oppose dams?, a. They will disrupt their lives, b. Other people will get more jobs, c. They will benefit the other parts of the country, d. They will submerge their lands, According to the World Bank rating, which countries were, regarded as rich or developed?, a. Where per capita income was up to $8000 per annum, b. Where per capita income was up to $9000 per annum, c. Where per capita income was up to $10,066 per annum, d. Where per capita income was up to $15000 per annum, , 7.
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Development, , 8., , 9., , II.G.15, , Which countries were called low income countries or, developing countries?, a. Where per capita income was $825 or less, b. Where per capita income was $925 or less, c. Where per capita income was $1250 or less, d. Where per capita income was $1650 or less, Which area of the world has the largest crude oil, reserves?, a. USA, b. Russia, c. China, d. The Middle East, , 10. Besides seeking income what two things the people, would keep, a. Security, b. Preference over others residents, c. Their own elders, d. Equal treatment, 11. Among the following criteria which one is the basis to, measure the development of a country according to the, World Bank?, a. Per Capita Income, b. Literacy Rate, c. Gross Enrolment Ratio, d. Life Expectancy, 12. Which one among the following is a development goal, common to all?, a. Freedom, b. Equal opportunities, c. Security and respect, d. High levels of income and better quality of life, 13. For development, people look at:, a. Income, b. Mixed goals, c. Job security, d. Family, 14. Which is the most important attribute for measuring the, development of countries?, , a. Health, c. Income, , b. Poverty, d. None of these, , 15. What is the ‘average income’ of a country?, a. Total income of an individual, b. Total income of a country, c. Total income of a country divided by its population, d. None of these, 16. The other name for ‘average income’ is:, a. Aggregate income, b. Annual income, c. Fixed income, d. Per capita income, 17. On what basis does the Human development Index (HDI), compare countries?, a. Educational level, b. Health status, c. Per capita income, d. All of the above, 18. What is India’s rank as per the HDI report?, a. 137, b. 93, c. 126, d. 134, 19. Which institution determines the development of a, country?, a. World Bank, b. IMF, c. Amnesty International, d. None of these, 20. Which neighbouring country of India ranks better, according to the HDI report?, a. Nepal, b. Pakistan, c. Bangladesh, d. Sri Lanka, ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , d, , b, , d, , a, , c, , a,d, , c, , a, , d, , a,d, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , a, , d, , b, , c, , c, , d, , d, , c, , a, , d, , , , 10.
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.G.16, , 6, , Sectors of the Indian Economy, , A framework containing all types of economic activities;, Economic activities are important for the individual as well as, for the nation. Utilisation of natural resources depends upon, man's occupation, civilisation and his standard of living. These, occupations are divided into following three activities:, 1. Primary activities, 2. Secondary activities, 3. Tertiary activities, Table: 6.1 Primary, Secondary and Tertiary Activities, Primary, activity: All, activities, connected with, procuring,, gathering or, producing, things from, materials, provided by, nature are called, Primary, activities., , Agriculture and, allied activities, forestry, fishing,, mining and, quarrying, etc., , Food and, Raw material, , Secondary activity: It is, also known as industrial or, manufacturing sector. The, occupations, where in the, primary products obtained, from natural resources are, improved upon or, processed are called, secondary occupations., The materials required by, secondary occupations are, provided by primary, sector, yet to a great extent, it depends upon science,, technology and, knowledge., , Manufacturing,, construction, electricity,, gas, water supply etc., , Tertiary activity: It, includes trade, transport,, communication and, other services provided, to the people employed, in primary and, secondary occupations., These activities by, themselves do not, produce a good but they, are an aid or a support, for the production, process. Since these, activities generate, services rather than, goods, the tertiary sector, is also called the Service, sector., Transport,, communications and, trade, hotels, banking, and insurance, defense,, public administration, and other services, etc., Inputs like, Machines, vehicles, etc., , Secondary, Sector, , Inputs, like, Machinery, , Services, , Primary, Sector, , Tertiary, Sector, Food, Services, , Note, Indian economy can also be classified into the organised and, unorganised sector. In the first one the employment related, conditions are fairly regular while in case of the latter the, government has no control. The organised sector is registered, , with the government, which is not the case with the, unorganised one. The first one adheres to the stipulations and, rules laid down by the government while the second one, provides irregular and lower levels of payment., The organised sector is mostly made of workers that are, employed in the public sector companies. Of late the scales are, slowly tipping in the favour of the private sector with a lot of, Indians starting their businesses and international entities, coming into the country. The number of jobs may have gone, down in the organised sector in the recent years. However,, National Sample Survey, and Central Statistics Office data, show that the average salaries have gone up in the same time., GDP (Gross Domestic Product): It is the market value of all, the final goods and services produced within a country during, a particular year. In India, the task of measuring GDP is, undertaking by a central government ministry. This ministry,, with the help of various government departments of all the, Indian states and union territories, collects information relating, to total volume of goods and services and their prices and then, estimates the GDP., NSSO (National Sample Survey Office's):, It is an, organisation under the Ministry of statistics, Planning and, Programme implementation; It collects data on employment, and un-employment., Table: 6.2 Sectors of the Indian Economy, , Primary Sector: When, the economic activity, depends mainly on, exploitation of natural, resources then that, activity comes under, the primary sector., Agriculture and, agriculture related, activities are the, primary sectors of, economy., It includes the, occupations which, are closely related to, man’s environment., It employs more, than 60% of the, population., It provides food and, other basic, requirements to all, the workers., , Secondary Sector:, When the main activity, involves manufacturing, then it is the secondary, sector. All industrial, production where, physical goods are, produced come under, the secondary sector., , It includes, occupations which, produce finished, goods., It converts primary, goods into finished, good., It provides tools and, other inputs to, primary and tertiary, sectors., , Tertiary Sector: When, the activity involves, providing intangible, goods like services then, this is part of the, tertiary sector. Financial, services, management, consultancy, telephony, and IT are good, examples of service, sector., It includes, occupations which, provide services., It contributes, maximum to India’s, GDP., It provides banks,, roads,, communication and, transportation to, primary and, secondary sector.
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Sectors of the Indian Economy, , II.G.17, , Steps to Remove Disguised Type Unemployment, More irrigational facilities so that farmers are able to grow, two or three crops instead of one., One or two members of small farmer’s family can be made, to work in the farms of a big landlord and earn wages., By opening new factories workers can be absorbed there., Some of the members may move to work in a nearby, factory and earn more money., Ways to Create More Employment, The government or banks can provide loans at cheap rates, to the small farmers help to improve the farming, which, can result in more employment., If more dams are built and canal water is provided to all the, small farmers, then a lot of employment can be generated, in the agriculture sector., If more money is spent on transportation and storage, then, not only small farmers will be benefited but many more, people can be employed in transport and storage sector., In the semi-rural areas, more industries and services can be, promoted and as a result, a large number of people can be, employed there., Honey collection centers and vegetable and fruit processing, units can be set up in rural areas which can greatly improve, the employment structure., Planning commission estimates that nearly 20 lakh jobs can, be created in the education sector alone and if tourism as a, sector is improved, every year 35 lakh people could be, given employment. For the short dam we need quick, measures. Central government in India recently made a law, implementing the Right to Work in 200 districts of India,, called NREGA 2005., NREGA 2005 (National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005): The Central Government of India, made a law in 2005,, in order to create more employment opportunities and also to, ensure better conditions to the workers. According to this act,, 100 days of employment in a year has been guaranteed by the, government to those persons who are able to and are in need of, work. If the government fails to provide 100 days of, employment, it will give un-employment allowance to the, people., Table: 6.3 Classification of Economy in the Way People are Employed, Organised Sector, Terms of employment are regular, and people are assured work, jobs, of workers are secure., Laws are strictly followed that, protect the interests of the, labourers., Fair wages are paid to the, workers., , Unorganised Sector, Workers are assured no permanent, work and there is no job security., No rules and regulations are, followed., Workers are not paid fair wages., Workers are deprived of these, benefits., No pension are paid to workers., , Workers get other benefits like, provident fund, gratuity. Paid, leave medical benefits etc., Workers are paid pensions after, retirement., , In rural areas it comprises land, less agricultural labourers,, weavers, blacksmiths, carpenters., In cities casual workers in, construction, steel vendors, rag, pickers etc., , Problems in Unorganised Sector, Social discrimination: Workers belonging to the, scheduled castes, scheduled tribes, backward communities,, work in large numbers in the unorganised sector. They had, only to suffer from economic exploitation but also from, social discrimination. For the full development of their, personality and better development, the injustices should be, given to them so that they can lead a life of respect and can, contribute to the national development., Economic exploitation: The workers are often exploited, and not paid a fair wages regularly. Workers are the part of, unorganised sector both in the rural areas and urban areas, are exploited economically., Measures to Protect Labourers in the Unorganised Sector, Unorganised sector is one where no rules and regulations are, followed generally neither under the control of the, government. In the rural areas, many labourers other than the, agricultural labourers (such as carpenters, blacksmiths,, barbers, and washermen) form the unorganised sector. While, in urban areas a large number of workers in the small scale, industries, casual workers in construction, trade and transport, form the unorganised sector. The following measures can be, taken to protect the labourers in this unorganised sector:, Workers working in the unorganised sector in the rural area, like landless agricultural labourers, small and marginal farmers, and different artisans can be helped in a number of ways. The, small and marginal farmers, which form nearly 80% of the, rural households in India, should be given adequate facilities, for timely delivery of seeds, agricultural inputs, credit, storage, facilities and marketing outlets., Workers in the urban areas like workers in small-scale, industries, casual workers in construction, trade and, transport etc. should be provided government help for, procuring raw material and marketing of their output., Casual workers should also be given full protection against, exploitation of the rich landlords and factory owners., Sectors in Terms of Ownership, Public sector: A sector for which the state or its agency, undertakes economic activities and controls the means of, production and distribution. In other words, the, government owns most of the assets and provides all the
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.G.18, , services example – the Indian Railways, the Iron and Steel, Industry at Bhilai and Durgapur, etc. Oil India Ltd is such, industries. The purpose of the public sector is not just to, earn profits. Government raises money through taxes and, other ways to meet expenses on the services rendered by it., Private Sector: Industries owned by individual or firms, formed by individuals are called private sectors ownership, of assets and delivery of services is in the hands of private, individuals. Activities in the private sectors are guided by, the motive to earn profit, e.g., Tata Iron & Steel Co Ltd,, Reliance Industries Limited, etc., Advantages of Public Sector: The public sector provides, many essential things at quite a reasonable cost which the, private sector cannot provide. The public sector has the benefit, of the people above everything because its purpose is not to, earn money but to benefit the people at all costs. All public, Multiple Choice Questions, 1, The sectors are classified into public and private sector on, the basis of, a. employment conditions, b. the nature of economic activity, c. ownership of enterprise, d. number of workers employed in the enterprise, 2., , Production of a commodity, mostly through the natural, process, is an activity in ________ sector., a. primary, b. secondary, c. tertiary, d. information technology, , 3., , GDP is the sum total of the value of_________ goods, produced during a particular, a. all goods and services, b. all final goods and services, c. all intermediate goods and services, d. all intermediate and final goods and services, , 4., , Organised sector is characterised by:, a. No job security, b. Formal government regulations, c. Indefinite working hours, d. Lack of benefits from employers, , 5., , 6., , Which one of the following is not an activity of the, Primary Sector?, a. Fishing, b. Mining, c. Manufacturing, d. Lumbering, Which one of the following is not an activity of the, Secondary Sector?, , sector enterprises greatly contribute to the economic, development of a nation., The public sector can set up heavy industries, which, require a lot of money, but private sector cannot do so., The public sector is mainly held by the government, which, so often bears some of the cost for the benefit of the public, especially for the poor people. People are given wheat,, kerosene oil etc., at the lower prices than they buy from the, market., The public sector, mainly held and controlled by the, government provides health and educational facilities free, of cost or at the very nominal price., Railways, Post Offices, Steel Plants, Oil India are some, examples of the public sector activities. From the above, account it becomes quite clear that the public sector, contributes to the economic development of a nations and, that is why it is necessary to have the public sector., , a. Brick-making, c. Manufacturing, , b. Sugar-making, d. Forestry, , 7., , Which one of the following activity does not belong to the, Tertiary Sector?, a. Fishing, b. Agriculture, c. Mining, d. Banking, , 8., , Unorganised sector is characterised by:, a. Government control, b. Job security, c. Small, scattered units, d. Regular jobs, , 9., , What is disguised unemployment?, a. When more people are made to work less than their, potential, b. When people are ready to work but they have no jobs, or work to do, c. When less people are made to work more than their, potential, d. When everyone is made to work according to his, potential, , 10. Which one of the following is not an example of the, Public Sector?, a. Railways, b. Post Offices, c. Reliance Industries, d. Army, 11. Sectors are divided into public and private based on:, a. Employment conditions, b. Nature of economic activity, c. Number of workers, d. Ownership of enterprises
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Sectors of the Indian Economy, , 12. Which one among the following in the most appropriate, meaning of under-employment?, a. Workers are not paid for their work, b. Workers are working less than what they are capable of, doing, c. Workers are working in a lazy manner, d. Workers do not want to work, 13. Producing a good by exploiting the natural resources is an, activity of the:, a. Secondary sector, b. Primary sector, c. Service sector, d. None of these, 14. The other name for the secondary sector:, a. Industrial sector, b. Service sector, c. Primary sector, d. None of these, 15. The other name for Tertiary Sector:, a. Industrial Sector, b. Governmental sector, c. Service sector, d. Secondary sector, 16. Under-employment occurs when people:, a. Do not work at all, b. Work slowly, c. Are not paid for worm, d. Work less than their potential, , II.G.19, , 17. Under-employment can also be called:, a. Unemployment, b. Disguised unemployment, c. Over employment, d. None of these, 18. GDP is the total value of _________produced during a year., a. all the final goods and services, b. all goods and services, c. all intermediate goods and services, d. all intermediate and final goods and services, 19. If tourism as a sector is improved every year; additional, employment can be provided to:, a. 40 lakh people, b. 20 lakh people, c. 60 lakh people, d. 35 lakh people, 20. What is the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act,, 2005?, a. 100 days of guaranteed employment, b. Permanent employment, c. Food for work programme, d. None of these, ANSWERS, 1., c, 11., d, , 2., a, 12., b, , 3., a, 13., b, , 4., b, 14., a, , 5., c, 15., c, , 6., d, 16., d, , 7., b, 17., b, , 8., c, 18., a, , 9., a, 19., d, , 10., c, 20., a
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.G.20, , 7, Modern age is the age of money. In every economy, money, performs numerous functions and all economic activities are, money dependent. In barter system goods are directly, exchanged without the use of money means exchange of goods, against goods, which is also called C.C. Economy (Commodity, for Commodity exchange economy). In such economy a person, gives his surplus goods and gets in return the goods he needs., For example: A weaver gives cloth to the farmer and gets in, return wheat from the farmer or gets utensils and give old, clothes. But now barter system is applicable only in small, towns., Note, RBI work as ‘lender of the last resort’ for all banks because it, provides them financial assistance in times of emergency., When any Indian bank has shortage of money they can take, loan from RBI The RBI sees that the different banks, periodically submit information to it and how much they are, lending to whom and at what interest rate, etc. Such, supervision by the RBI on the working of other banks is quite, necessary to keep them under control and also to see that there, is no management or misappropriation of any kind in their, working. The RBI monitors the cash balance of different, banks. Each and every bank receives deposits from the public., Out of this amount the bank maintain minimum cash with, them to be given to the depositors on demand., Drawbacks of the Barter System, Difficulty of double coincidence of wants: There is lack, of double coincidence in the wants of buyers and sellers in, barter system. A seller has to find out a person who wants, to buy, seller’s goods and at the same times who must have, that the sellers wants., Lack of a common unit of value: In barter system there is, no common measure (unit) of value. The problem arises, in, what proportion the two goods are to be exchange. How, much wheat = How much Rice?, Lack of Standard for deferred payment: In barter system, the problem of borrowing and lending arises. Contractual, payments or future payments would certainly be very, difficult under barter system of exchange., Lack of system for storage of value: It is difficult for the, people to store wealth for future use. Things are not possible, to keep in lockers. Thus storing goods is very difficult., , Money and Credit, Money: Anything which is generally acceptable by the people, in exchange of goods and services or in repayment of debts., Money is matter of functions for a medium, a measure, a, standard, a store., Functions of Money are:, Money as the medium of exchange: People exchange, goods and services through the medium of money. Money, acts as a medium of exchange or medium of payment., Money acts as an intermediary in the process of exchange., Money as a measure of value: Value of all goods and, services can be expressed easily in a single unit called, money., Money as the standard of deferred payment: Money, makes borrowing and lending process easier. Money is the, link which connects the value of today with future., Money as a store of value: People keep a part of their, wealth in the form of money. It is the best form of reserve, because it can be easily converted into other things., Modern Forms of Money, Modern Form of Money, , Currency, , Deposits with Banks, Demand Deposit, , Term Deposit, , Table: 7.1 Modern Form of Money, Modern Form of Money, Currency: Ancient, Deposits with Banks: Bank takes the, currency was made up of, surplus savings of the individuals deposits, Gold, Silver, Copper,, are life line of the Banks. Bank pays interest, Leather etc., but modern, on deposits and provides the facility of, form of currency includes, Cheque Book, Pass Book and withdrawal, paper notes and coins. In, facility., India coins and 1 Rupee, There are two types of deposits:, note issued by the central, Demand Deposit:, Term Deposit:, Deposits in a bank which, Government and Rs. 2 to, Deposits which, are payable on demand, Rs. 1,000 notes issued by, can be, are called demand, the RBI. In India no other, withdrawn only, deposits. People can, individual or organisation, after the expiry, withdraw the money, is allowed to issue, of the stipulated, when they require A/C, currency. It is also called, time, holder on pay a specific, Legal Tender Money., (Predicated)for, amount by Cheques, Because it is legally, which deposits, instead of cash so D.D., sanction as a medium of, have been made. considered as money., exchange and no one can, e.g.: Fixed, e.g.: Current A/C, Saving, refuse to take this money., deposit., Bank A/C.
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Money and Credit, , Commercial Banks Perform Two Main Functions:, I. Accepting Deposits, Fixed or Time Deposit Account, Current or Demand Deposit Account, Saving Deposit Account, Recurring Deposit Account, II. Advancing Loan: Bank provides loan facilities to needy, and earned interest. There is a huge demand for loans for, various activities. Bank provides loan by various methods:, Cash credit, Demand loans, Short term loans, Overdraft facility, The banks mediate between those who have surplus funds (the, depositors) and those who are in need of these funds (the, borrowers). The difference between what is charged from, borrowers and what is paid to the depositors is their main, source of income., Credit: Informal credit in India included credit given by, unorganised sector like: indigenous bankers, moneylenders,, chit funds, traders, etc. It refers to an agreement in which the, lender supplies the borrower with money, goods or services in, return for the promise of future payment., Terms of Credit: Interest rate, collateral and documentation, requirement, and the mode of repayment together comprise, what is called the Terms of Credit., Collateral: Collateral is an asset that the borrower owns (such, as land, building, vehicle, livestock’s, deposits with banks) and, uses this as a guarantee to a lender until the loan is repaid. If, the borrower fails to repay the loan, the lender has the right to, sell the asset to obtain payment., Credit Arrangements: In India credit arrangements are, mainly divided into two parts: Formal and Informal sources,, those further are classified in many groups., Multiple Choice Questions, 1. In a SHG most of the decisions regarding savings and, loan activities are taken by:, a. Bank, b. Members, c. Non-government organisation, d. None of these, , II.G.21, , I. Formal Sources: Banks / Co-operative society / Self, helping groups (SHG’s), Formal sources of credit: The RBI supervises the, functioning of formal sources of loans and sees that the, bank should credits to businessman, traders as well as to, small cultivators and borrowers also. Timely banks have to, submit all-the information to RBI on what rate of interest., How much loan provided to whom?, , Lower rate of interest on loans is charged in formal, sources as compared to informal sources of credit. Formal, sources provide loans facilities at cheap and affordable, rates and conditions., II Informal Sources: Money lenders / Traders / Employers /, Relatives / Friends. Informal lenders charge very high rate of, Interest by the borrowers so it is necessary that Banks increase, their lending particularly in the rural area with less terms,, conditions and rate of Interest., There is no organisation which supervises the credit, activities of informal sources of credit. They can lend at, whatever Interest rate, they use unfair means to get their, money back comparatively they use unfair means to get, their money back comparatively they charge higher ROI, (Rate of Interest)., In rural area people depends on Informal sources for their, needs., Urban areas or richer households depend on formal credit., They are availing cheap credit and progressing. It is, important that the formal credit is distributed more equally, so that the poor can benefit from the cheaper loans., Self Help Group (SHG’s): A typical SHG’s has 15–20, members usually belonging to one neighbourhood who meet, regularly. All the decisions taken by group members. To, collect the small savings of the members and to go provide, timely loans for a variety of purposes at reasonable rate of, Interest, SHG’s are popular now a day., It helps borrowers to overcome the problem of lack of, collateral (security) small loans are provided to the, members for buying seeds, fertilisers, raw material or for, acquiring small assets. SHG’s also help to poor people and, women to become financially self-reliant., 2., , Formal sources of credit does not include, a. Bank, b. Cooperatives, c. Employers, d. None of these, , 3., , The currency notes on behalf of the Central Government, are issued by whom?, a. State Bank of India, b. Reserve Bank of India, c. Punjab National Bank, d. Central Bank of India
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.G.22, , Which one of the following is not a feature of money?, a. Medium of exchange, b. Lack of divisibility, c. A store of value, d. A unit of account, , 12. A majority of the credit needs of the ___ households are, met from informal sources., a. Man, b. Poor, c. Woman, d. Rich, , 5., , Which one of the following statements is most, appropriate regarding transactions made in money?, a. It is easiest way, b. It is the safest way, c. It is the cheapest way, d. It promotes trade, , 14. ________ issues currency notes on behalf of the Central, Government, a. ABN, b. SBI, c. RBI, d. PNB, , 6., , Which one of the following is the new way of providing, loans to the rural poor?, a. Cooperative societies, b. Traders, c. Relatives and Friends, d. SHGs, , 4., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 13. ________ costs of borrowing increase the debt-burden., a. High, b. Low, c. Fix, d. Fit, , Which among the following authorities issues currency, notes?, a. Government of India, b. The State Bank of India, c. Central Bank, d. Reserve Bank of India, Banks provide a higher rate of interest on which one of, the following accounts?, a. Saving account, b. Current account, c. Fixed deposits for long period, d. Fixed deposits for very short period, Which one of the following is the main source of credit of, for the urban households in India?, a. Formal Sector, b. Informal sector, c. Moneylenders, d. Traders, , 10. Which one the following is the main informal source of, credit for rural households in India?, a. Friends, b. Relatives, c. Landlords, d. Moneylenders, 11. Which one of the following is the main source of credit, for rich urban households?, a. Moneylenders, b. Businessmen, c. Banks, d. Self-help Groups, , 15. Bank charges a higher interest rate on loans than what, whey offer on ________., a. Buyers, b. Credits, c. Sellers, d. Deposits, 16. ________ is an asset that the borrower owns and uses as a, guarantee until the loan is repaid to the lender., a. Papers, b. Collateral c. Source, d. Firm, 17. In a barter system goods are directly exchanged without, the use of, a. Funny, b. Honey, c. Money, d. People, 18. Formal sources of credit do not include, a. Banks, b. Cooperatives, c. Employers, d. Securities, 19. Grameen Bank of Bangladesh is one of the biggest, success stories in reaching out to the poor to meet their, credit need at, a. First rates, b. Same rates, c. Reasonable rates, d. Best rates, 20. Most loans from informal lenders carry a very high, interest rate and do little to increase the income of the, a. Borrowers, b. Lenders, c. People, d. Buyers, ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , b, , c, , b, , b, , a, , a, , d, , c, , a, , d, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , c, , b, , a, , c, , d, , b, , c, , c, , c, , a, , , , 10.
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Globalisation and the Indian Economy, , 8, In recent past, India has been encouraging inflow of foreign, investment. New economic policy refers to the policy measures, and changes introduced by Indian Government since 1991. The, main components of new Economic policies are:, New Industrial policy, New trade policy (export-import), Fiscal reforms (Tax), Monetary reforms (Bank and Money), Capital market reforms (Shares), Table: 8.1 The main Strategies of New Economic Policy, Liberalisation, Privatiation, Globalisation, Liberalisation means, It is closely associated, Globalisation means, removing un-necessary, with liberalisation. It, the free interaction of, trade restrictions and, means allowing the, our economy, with the, making the economy, private sectors to setworld economy. It, more competitive., up were previously, means free flow of, Private sector have been, reserved for public, trade and capital, and, exempted from, sector. e.g.: Telecom,, movement of persons, Licensing, quota,, Airways., across borders under, permission, regulations, the policy of, means it is the process, globalisation. Each, by which government, nation must keep its, controls over the private, doors opens to the rest, sector are being, of the world., loosened., , Note, Indian economy had experienced major policy changes in early, 1990s. The new economic reform, popularly known as,, Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation (LPG model), aimed at making the Indian economy as fastest growing, economy and globally competitive. The series of reforms, undertaken with respect to industrial sector, trade as well as, financial sector aimed at making the economy more efficient., With the onset of reforms to liberalise the Indian economy in, July of 1991, a new chapter has dawned for India and her, billion plus population. Now that India is in the process of, restructuring her economy, with aspirations of elevating herself, from her present desolate position in the world, the need to, speed up her economic development is even more imperative., And having witnessed the positive role that Foreign Direct, Investment (FDI) has played in the rapid economic growth of, most of the Southeast Asian countries and most notably China,, India has embarked on an ambitious plan to emulate the, , Globalisation and, the Indian Economy, , II.G.23, , successes of her neighbours to the east and is trying to sell, herself as a safe and profitable destination for FDI., Globalisation: A process associated with increasing openness, growing economic interdependence and deepening economic, integration in the world economy., Rapid improvement in technology: Development in, information and communication technology makes possible, faster delivery of goods across long distances possible at, lower costs. Email, voice mail, internet, mobile, telegraph,, fax, etc., Liberal foreign trade policy: Around 1991 barriers on, foreign trade and foreign investment were removed this, meant that goods could be imported and exported easily and, also foreign companies could set up factories and offices, here., Pressures from international Organisations such as, WTO: Aim of world trade Organisation is to liberalise, uniform and non-discriminatory international trade., Currently 149 countries are the members of WTO. WTO, establishes rules regarding international trade and check, that these rules are obeyed it was setup in 01-01-95 by the, member countries of United Nations. WTO gives many, opportunities to developing countries also., Merits and Demerits of Globalisation, Helps in development by latest technology., Increase in the volume of trade in goods and services., Encourage productive efficiency and healthy competition., Helpful increased volumes of outputs income employment., Inflow of private foreign capital and makes possibility of, large funds., It has enabled some large Indian companies to emerge as, multinational themselves., Demerits, It will bring income inequality., It may lead to loss of autonomy., It will increase competition, mal practice., It will increase the dependence of under developed, countries.
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.G.24, , Fair Globalisation: Fair globalisation refers to the situation, which creates opportunities for all and ensures that its benefits, are property shared by every country. Government can take, following steps to ensure achieving fair globalisation:, Influence the decisions of WTO., Use trade and investment barriers efficiently., Labour laws should be implemented properly., Small producers, domestic industry should be supported., Steps to Attract Foreign Investment, Removed trade barriers, restrictions, quotas, regulations,, etc., Government has allowed flexibility in labour laws to attract, foreign investment., SEZ (Special Economic Zones) are being set up. This, provides world class facilities of electricity, water,, transport., Multinational, Corporations, (MNCs):, Multinational, corporation is that corporation whose sphere of activity is, spread over more than one country. It is also known as, international corps transnational corporations’ global, corporations, etc. MNC is a company that owns or control, Multiple Choice Questions, 1. The Past two decades of globalisation have seen rapid, movements in, a. goods, services and people between countries, b. goods, services and investments between countries, c. goods, investments and people between countries, d. All of these, 2. The most common route for investments by MNCs in, countries around the world is to, a. set up new factories, b. buy existing local companies, c. form partnership with local companies, d. None of these, 3. Globalisation has led to improvement in living conditions, a. of all the people, b. of people in the developed countries, c. of workers in the developing countries, d. none of the above, 4. Name the Indian companies which have benefited from, the increased competition?, a. Tata Motors, b. Ranbaxy, c. Hamdard, d. Both (a.) and (b.), , production and services in more than one nation. Its managerial, headquarter is located in home country which it carries out, operations in and numbers of other host countries., Merits of MNCs, It provides transfer capital., It provides improved skills., It provides superior technology., It provides wider range at lower cost., It provides improves living standard of people., It provides creating employment opportunities., It provides help in development of human resources., It provides advanced knowledge and better quality product., Demerits of MNCs, It brings inequality in regional economy., Harmful for domestic, small scale and industries, small, producers are unable to compete., It often uses undesirable, corrupt practices., They have only own profit motive and not concerned with, an overall economy development of host countries., Exploitation of customers, employers increased Job is, always uncertain., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , ‘Cargill Foods’ is the largest producer of which of the, following in India?, a. Medicines, b. Asian Paints, c. Edible Oil, d. Garments, WHO was stated at the initiative of which one of the, following group of countries?, a. Rich countries, b. Poor countries, c. Developed countries, d. Developing countries, Which one of the following organisations lays stress on, liberalisation of foreign trade and foreign investment?, a. International Labour Organisation, b. International Monetary Fund, c. World Health Organisation, d. World Trade Organisation, Which one of the following is not a characteristic of a, ‘Special Economic Zone’?, a. They do not have to pay taxes for a long period, b. Government has allowed flexibility in labour laws, c. They have world class facilities, d. They do not have to pay taxes for an initial period of 5, years
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II.G.25, , Globalisation and the Indian Economy, , 9., , Which of the following is a ‘barrier’ on foreign trade?, a. Tax on import, b. Quality control, c. Sales tax, d. Tax on local trade, , 10. Which one of the following was the main aim to form, ‘World Trade Organisation’?, a. To liberalise international trade, b. To promote trade of rich countries, c. To promote trade of poor countries, d. To promote bilateral trade, 11. A company theta owns or controls production in more, than one nation ________., a. Private company, b. MNCs, c. Subsidiary company, d. Leader company, 12., , 13., , 14., , Investment made by MNCs is called, a. Internal investment, b. Dollar investment, c. Foreign investment, d. Pond investment, Cargill foods, a very large American MNC, has bought, over smaller Indian companies such as, a. Best foods, b. Gold foods, c. Fine foods, d. Parakh foods, Ford motors came to in, a. 1995, c. 1970, , b. 1998, d. 1980, , 15. Rapid integration between countries is called, a. Nationalisation, b. Mutual share, c. Globalisation, d. Open share, 16. What is the name of the organisation whose aim is to, liberalise international trade?, a. PTO, b. WTO, c. MTO, d. KTO, 17. Till 2006, how many members were there in the WTO?, a. 150, b. 100, c. 50, d. 20, 18. Removing barriers or restrictions set by the government is, known as, a. Globalisation, b. Nationalisation, c. Liberalisation, d. Open market, 19. Name the term which refers to globalisation, which, creates opportunities for all and ensures that, is benefits, are better shared., a. Fair globalisation, b. Fair nationalisation, c. Liberalisation, d. Best share, 20. Companies that set up production units in the special, economic zones do not have to pay taxes for an initial, period of, a. 10 years, b. 12 years, c. 5 years, d. 15 years, ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , c, , c, , a, , d, , c, , c, , d, , d, , a, , a, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , b, , c, , d, , a, , c, , b, , a, , c, , a, , c
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.G.26, , 9, All of us are consumers in one way or the other. Any person, who pays prices for goods and services is called consumer., Many a time we come across unfair trade practices adopted by, the sellers. Consumer is exploited in various ways when he is, in a market. Some various forms of consumer exploitation are:, Higher Prices: The traders sometimes charge a price, higher than the retail price or when they add charges that, were not mentioned., Substandard quality: Sometimes traders sell poor quality, goods,e.g. supply of defective appliances., Duplicity of products: Duplicate goods are sold to the, consumer in the name of original company., Adulteration and impurity: Adulteration means mixing of, low quality products with superior quality product., Under weighing and under measurement: Sometimes, traders indulge in unfair trade practices such as when, shopkeepers weigh less than what they should., Lack of safety device: Many electrical appliances lack, required in built safeguard which cause accidents, e.g.,, Cheap quality 3-pin plug, poor earthing wire., False information: Sellers easily mislead the consumer by, giving wrong or incomplete information about its quality,, price, durability, expiry dates, effects etc., Artificial scarcity: Many traders, in order to amass huge, profits create artificial scarcity by doing hoarding and then, black marketing., Rough behavior: In matters like LPG connections, fixing a, new telephone line etc, consumers are often harassed and, undue favours are asked from them., Unsatisfactory services: Most of the suppliers don’t, provide the satisfactory services after sale like they don’t, give free services or demos., Note, The consumer movement in India has made some progress in, terms of numbers of organised groups and their activities. The, existing laws are not very clear on the issue of compensation to, consumers injured by defective products. After 21 years of the, enactment of COPRA in India, consumer awareness is spreading, but at a slow pace especially in the unorganised sectors is weak., As rules and regulations applicable to market place are often not, followed; Consumer movement can only be effective with, consumer’s active involvement., , Consumer Rights, Factors Causing Exploitation of Consumers, Lack of awareness, Unrecorded sales, Compromising attitude, Ignorance of the consumer., Legal and length processes, Limited competition., Consumer Movement: Consumer movement arose out of, dissatisfaction of the consumers as many unfair practices were, being indulged in by the sellers. It took many years for, organisations in India, and around the world, to create, awareness amongst people. Some aware consumers from, consumer groups to highlight unfair trade practice of traders, and service providers. They bring pressure on government to, enact certain rules for consumer protection; it was first stated, by Ralph Nader., Consumer Awareness (Consumer Education and, Protection): Consumer awareness means educating the, consumers about their rights and to familiarise them with, various rules and regulations framed by government for, protecting them against their exploitation in the market by the, seller. Consumer Awareness has arisen in the make of, liberalisation of the economy. With Liberalisation,, Privatisation, Globalisation, Government has withdrawn its, interference from certain areas of production. The profit, seeking private producers manipulate the prices and, availability of goods. So, to keep a check on them, government, has taken up the tasks of spreading consumer awareness., In 1985 United Nations adopted the UN guidelines for, consumer Protection. At the international level, this has, become the foundation for consumer movement., A major step taken in 1986 by the Indian government was, the enactment of the Consumer Protection Act 1986,, popularly known as COPRA., Every consumer has a right to prevent himself/herself, from getting exploited and lead a healthy life free, from any kind of contamination. According to, Kautilya’s ‘Arthashastra’ offences like adulteration, and underweight were punishable Consumer, Awareness is essential because consumer awareness, means educating the consumers about their right and, protecting them against their exploitation in the, market by the seller.
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Consumer Rights, , Right of a Consumer: Under Consumer Protection Act,, consumer has the following rights:, Right to safety: The consumer has the right to be protected, against the marketing of hazardous goods., Right to be informed: Consumers have a right to be given, the facts, which are they need to know about the product., Therefore the manufacturer should give all information, regarding the quality, price, date of manufacture, precaution, of use etc., Right to choose: The consumer has a right to choose from, amongst a variety of goods and services available in the, market place at competitive prices., Right to be heard: It’s the right of the consumer to be, heard of his grievance and the complaints about the, products and services., Right to consumer education: The consumer has right that, he should be granted with all its rights to protect its interest., Duties of Consumers: A consumer must be alert on reasoning, the price and quality of products. He should be assert and act to, ensure that he gets a fair deal., Always ask for a cash memo or a bill., Always ask for guaranteed/warranted product., Always make a complaint if cheated, do not compromise, Always ask for a quality mark products such as ISI, BIS,, AGMARK., Role of Government in Consumer Protection, Legislative measures: Government took a major step for, consumer protection in 1986. It was:, COPRA: Consumer protection act enacted on 24th Dec., 1986. Its main aim is to protect the consumer from, exploitation., At National level it is NCDRC: National Consumer, Dispute Redressal Court or National Consumer Court, New, Delhi. It is the apex body, deals with the cases of crores., Multiple Choice Questions, 1. Name two ways by which a shopkeeper cheats the, customers:, a. By giving poor quality goods, b. By refusing to give goods on credit, c. By charging more for a commodity or a service, d. By refusing to give the articles below the printed price, 2. When is ‘World Consumers’ Rights Day’ celebrated?, a. 13th January every year, b. 14th February every year, c. 15th March every year, d. 16th April every year, , II.G.27, , , , At State level it is SCDRC: State Consumer Disputes, Redressal Court or State Consumer Court. There are 34, state consumer courts. It deals with the cases involving, claims of Rs. 20 lakhs to 1 crore., , , , The District Court: There are 572 district consumer, courts. The district level courts deals with the cases, involving claims up to to 20 lakhs., , Note, If the case is dismissed in district level court, the consumer can, also appeal in State and then in the National level courts., Table: 9.1 Administrative Measures, Public Distribution System (PDS), , Administrative Price Mechanism, , In order to protect the consumer, from exploitation government has, provided all essential commodities, at the fair price shops like wheat,, rice, cereals, pulses, edible oil etc to, protect consumer from the, exploitation of put sellers., , In order to protect the consumer from, exploitation state government has, regulated prices of some commodities, like petrol, cement, diesel etc., , Standardisation of a Product, ISI: Indian Standard Institutes - 1947, Later on it came to be known as BIS—Bureau of Indian, standards. Its main function is to check the quality of, products on scientific ground in laboratories., Codex Alimentarius Commission: It was formed in 1963, by (FAO) food and Agricultural Organisations and WHO., This body sets international food standards. It develops, food standard guidelines and codes of practice for, producers and International trade in food products such as, milk products, meat, fish, cereals, etc., Agmark: Agricultural Produce Grading and MarketingAGMARK scheme is run by DMLDirectorate of Marketing, and Intelligence Ministry of Agriculture. AGMARK is, found on spices honey, condiments, oil etc., , 3., , 4., , Name any two rights of the consumers, a. Right to safety from adulterated articles, b. Right to pay less price than the printed one, c. Right to steal his goods, d. Right to choice of things best quality at reasonable rates, Which one of the following is the Consumer Court at the, National Level?, a. The District Forum, b. The State Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission, c. The Consumer International, d. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.G.28, , 5., , 6., , The district level court deals with the cases involving claims:, a. up to Rs. 10 lakh, b. up to Rs. 20 lakh, c. between Rs. 20 lakh to Rs. 1 crore, d. exceeding Rs. 1 crore, When did the United Nations adopt the guidelines for, consumer protection?, a. 1983, b. 1984, c. 1985, d. 1986, , Q.7 Which one of the following logos is used for standardisation, of agricultural products?, a. ISI, b. Hallmark, c. Agmark, d. I.S.O, Q.8 In which one of the following courts, a consumer should, file a case if he/she is exploited in the market?, a. Local Court, b. State Court, c. Supreme Court, d. Consumer Court, 9., , ISI mark can be seen on which of the following items?, a. Jewellery, b. Edible oil, c. Electrical appliance, d. Cereals, , 10. Hallmark is the certification maintained for standardisation, for which one of the following?, a. Jewellery, b. Electrical goods, c. Edible oil, d. Refrigeration, , a. Consumer movement cells, b. Consumer organisations, c. Consumer protection councils, d. Consumer parts, 14. Consumers have the right to seek _____against unfair, practices and exploitation., a. Redressal b. Books, c. Funds, d. Capital, 15. In October 2005, the Government of India enacted a law,, popularly known as RTI (Right to Information) Act,, which ensures its citizens all the information about the, functions of, a. Private departments, b. Public departments, c. Local departments, d. Government departments, 16. National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission is, located in, a. Lucknow, b. New Delhi, c. Chennai, d. Mumbai, 17. A major step taken in 1986 by the Indian Government, was the enactment of the Consumer Protection Act 1986,, popularly known as:, a. KOPRA, b. BOPRA, c. TOPRA, d. COPRA, 18. In 1985 the United Nations adopted the UN Guidelines for, a. Consumer Protection, b. Consumer Parts, c. Consumer Battle, d. Consumer Signature, , 11. Under COPRA, a three-tier quasi-judicial machinery at, the district, state and national levels was set up for redressal, of, a. Consumer market, b. Consumer products, c. Consumer goods, d. Consumer disputes, , 19. The enactment of COPRA has led to the setting up of, separate departments of Consumer Affairs in _____ and, ____ governments., a. Central, state, b. Village, block, c. City, town, d. State, tehsil, , 12. The district level court deals with the cases involving, claims up to Rs. 20 lakhs, the state level courts between, Rs. 20 lakhs and Rs. 1 crore and the national level court, deals with cases involving claims exceeding, a. Rs. 10 crore, b. Rs. 1 crore, c. Rs. 100 crore, d. Rs. 50 crore, , 20. The organisations that monitor and issue ISI, Agmark or, Hallmark certificates allow producers to use their logos, provided they follow certain, a. Work permit, b. Quality standards, c. Debit card, d. Topic of press, , 13. The consumer movement in India has led to the formation, of various organisations locally known as consumer, forums or, , ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , a,c, , c, , a,d, , d, , b, , c, , c, , d, , c, , a, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , d, , b, , c, , a, , d, , b, , d, , a, , a, , b, ,
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Section, , H, , political science, Chapter in this sECTION, 1. Democracy in the Contemporary World, , II.H.3, , 2. What is Democracy? Why Democracy?, , II.H.7, , 3. Constitutional Design, Popular Struggles, and Movements, II.H.10, 4. Electoral Politics, , II.H.15, , 5. Working of Institutions, , II.H.19, , 6. Political Parties, , II.H.23, , 7. Democratic Rights, , II.H.27, , 8. Power Sharing, , II.H.31, , 9. Federalism, , II.H.35, , 10. Diversity in Society, , II.H.40, , 11. Gender, Religion and Caste, , II.H.43, , 12. Challenges and Outcomes of Democracy II.H.47
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Democracy in the Contemporary World, , 1, , Democracy in the, Contemporary World, , Democracy is a form of government that allows people to, choose their rulers. In a democracy: only leader elected by, people should rule the country, and people have the freedom to, express views, freedom to organise and freedom to protest. The, expansion of democracy in the last 100 years to more and more, countries, the ups and downs and the stories of two, democracies, that of Chile and Poland., Two Tales Of Democracy, Chile: Located in South America., Capital of Chile is Santiago,, Salvador Allende was the elected, President of the Chile in 1970 and, he became the first democratically, chosen Marxist. He had taken, various steps to help poor, workers, reformed the educational, system and re-distributed the land, to farmers. He was opposed by, the foreign investers in Chile, because he wanted to end the, domination of foreign capital in, Chile. On 11th September 1973 a, military coup was held under the, leadership of general Augusto, Pinochet. Allende was arrested, and asked to resign. When he, refused this proposal his, presidential house was bombarded, and he was killed. Augusto ruled, Chile for neat 17 years and his, regime ended on 11th March 1990., , Poland: Located in the European, continent. Capital of Poland in Warsaw., It is a communist country. A, communist state is a state governed by, communist party without allowing, other parties to compete for power. The, state controls all the big property and, industry. In 1980 Poland was governed, by Polish United Workers Party and no, one was allowed to oppose the party., The government in Poland was, supported and controlled by the, government of U.S.S.R., which was a, powerful communist state. In 1980, the, workers of Lenin shipyard in the city of, Gdansk went on strike and Lech, Walesa was the leader of this strike., They demanded right to form, Independent Trade Union, abolition of, press censorship and release of political, prisoners. Agreement was signed, between government and Lech Walesa, in August 1980. The elections were, held in 1909 and solidarity won 91, seats outs of 100. Lech Walesa became, the 1st popularly elected president of, Poland., , Note, Coalition: An alliance of people, associations, parties or, nations. This alliance may be temporary or a matter of, convenience., Communist state: A state governed by communist party, without allowing other parties to compete for power. The, state controls all the big property and industry., Coup: A coup d’etat (pronounced ku de’ ta) or simply a, coup, is the sudden overthrow of a government illegally. It, may or may not be violent in nature. The term is French for, a sudden blow or strike to a state., , II.H.3, , Decolonisation: It means to give political independence to, a country that was formally a colony., Difficulties People Face in a Non-democratic Country, Non-responsible government: Non-democratic Governments, are not answerable to the people or any other institution. It, can do as it wishes and no one can question it. Pinochet’s, government in Chile tortured and killed several citizens, those wanted to be restored democracy. More than 3,000, people were killed by the military., Non-sovereign: Most of the non-democratic governments, are non-sovereign. The Government of Pinochet, who, became the President of Chile through military coup, for its, foreign policy was totally dependent of USA., No political party or single party: Another major problem, for the people of non-democratic countries is that they have, little choice. In Poland only Polish United Worker’s Party, was allowed to function. The leaders or the party were put, in prison those spoke against., No-freedom: People of non-democratic government don’t, enjoy basic freedoms like freedom of speech, freedom to, move freely, freedom to form unions or associations, etc., When in Poland Solidarity started exposing widespread, corruption in the government, thousands of Solidarity, members were put in prison., Features of a Democracy, In Poland and Chile the governments were not democratic, former one was a military dictatorship and the latter was a, communist rule., Had no freedom of speech and expression, could not form, associations or organise protests., On the contrary, democracy is a form of government that, allows people to choose their rules., Only elected leaders rule the country., People have freedom of speech and expression of, association and to organise protests., Phases in Expansion of Democracy, The French Revolution in 1789 overthrew monarchy, yet it, did not lead to a stable democracy in France. It inspired, many movements around the world.
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II.H.4, , Democracy also developed in Britain; The British colonies, in North America declared themselves independent is 1776, Throughout 18th and 19th century, struggles of democracy, were for political equality, freedom and justice. The right to, vote was not given to all, only to those owning property,, Blacks were also not given this in the US until 1965., End of Colonialism, For a long time many Asian and African countries were, colonies of European countries, i.e., they were under, foreign rule, Many colonies had freedom struggles to free the country, from foreign rule and establish a democratic rule in their, country. Some countries became independent after 1947,, e.g. India in 1927, Ghana in Africa in 1957., Throughout 18th and 19th century, struggles of democracy, were for political equality, freedom and justice. The right to, vote was not given to all, only to those owning property., Blacks were also not given this right in the US until 1965., Recent Phase, Next phase of democracies came after 1980 in Latin America., By 2005, 120 countries were holding multiparty elections., Another phase started with the disintegration of the Soviet, Union, which controlled many Eastern European countries., The 15 Republics of Soviet Union emerged as independent, countries and most became democracies., One country, Myanmar, continued to be under military rule, in spite of the leader Aung Sung Suu Kyi winning the, elections. She continues to be under house arrest. She was, given the Nobel Peace Prize for her struggle for democracy., Democracy at the Global Level: There is no single world, government but many institutions in the world partly perform, that function; These organisations cannot command citizens, like a government does but they can limit the actions of, governments. Most of the global institutions fail to pass the, simple test of democracy that we use for our national, governments., The United Nations (UN) is a global organization of nations, to help in cooperation, international law, security, economic, development and social equity., Even in the UN, the five permanent members of the, Security Council—U.S. Russia, UK, France and China have, a veto, meaning that the Council cannot take a decision if, any permanent member says no to that decision. Similarly,, the International Monetary Fund does not have equal voting, rights, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Democracy Promotion: Many powerful countries in the world, have taken on the task to promote democracy. They want, existing democracies to directly intervene in countries that are, non-democratic to establish democracy. In some cases, powerful countries gave launched an armed attack on nondemocratic countries, for example, the invasion and occupation, of Iraq by the US and its allies in 2003, United Nations: A global association of nations of the world, to help cooperation in international law, security, economic, development and social equity is the UN. The Secretary, General of UN is the chief administrative officer. The UNO is, not working democratically., General assembly: 193 countries form the membership of, General Assembly, also known as world parliament. Every, member country sends five representatives but is allowed, only one vote. Its headquarters are located in New York., There are 193 members of the General Assembly and each, member has one vote but the General Assembly cannot take, any decision when there is a conflict between different, countries., Security council: Most important organ of UN, it has 15, members 5 permanent (Britain, Russia, China, America and, France) and 10 non-permanent members elected for two, years each. The five permanent members of the Security, Council have the veto power. Security Council can impose, trade sanctions on the warring countries and can take, military action against them. Countries like India, which is, one of most powerful democracy of the world, have no veto, power in the Security Council. The Security Council is, dominated by the big powers like Russia and USA., Secretariat: Secretariat comprises a Secretary General and, such staff as the organisation may require. Secretary, General is the chief Administrative Officer of the Secretariat., Economic and social council: Economic and social council, consist of 54 members and they are elected by the General, Assembly for a period of 3 years. This council is mainly, responsible for solving economic and social problems of, the world., Trusteeship council: Trusteeship council is responsible for, supervising the administration of trust territories. The, Trusteeship Council consists of an equal number of, administrating and non-administrating powers., IMF is not working democratically. Its 173 member states, do not have equal voting rights. The vote of each country is, weighed by how much money it has contributed to the IMF., Nearly half of the voting power in the IMF is in the hands, of only seven countries (US, Japan, France, UK, Saudi
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Democracy in the Contemporary World, , Arabia, China and Russia) The remaining 166 countries, have very little say in how this international organisation, takes decisions., World Bank: World Bank also has a similar system of, voting. The President of World Bank has always been a, citizen of the US, conventionally nominated by the, , II.H.5, , Treasury secretary of the US government., International Court of Justice: It consists of fifteen judges, who, , are, , elected, , by, , the, , General, , Assembly, , on, , the, , recommendations of the Security Council for 9 years., International Court of Justice decides the cases between the, states., , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , Which of the following does not lead to the spread of, democracy?, a. Struggle by the people, b. Invasion by foreign countries, c. End of colonialism, d. People’s desire for freedom, , 7., , The five permanent members of the UN Security Council, are:, a. US, UK, China, India and Japan, b. Japan, Germany, UK France and USA, c. USA, UK, France, China and Russia, d. USA, Russia, UK, France and German, , 2., , Which of the following statements is true about today’s, world?, a. Monarchy as a form of government has vanished., b. The relationship between different countries has become, more democratic than ever before, c. In more and more countries rulers are being elected by, the people, d. There are no more military dictators in the world., , 8., , Which of the following was a communist state?, a. France, b. Poland, c. Myanmar, d. England, , 9., , Who led the military coup in Chile?, a. Renmin Daibiao, b. General Augusto, c. Robert Mugabe, d. Michelle Bachelet, , Use one of the following statements to completed the, sentence: Democracy in the international organisations, requires that, a. the rich countries should have a greater say., b. countries should have a say according to their military, power., c. countries should be treated with respect in proportion to, their population., d. all countries in the world should be treated equally., , 10. Which type of government was formed after Pinochet, became President?, a. The secular government, b. The dictatorial government, c. The people’s government, d. The political government, , 3., , 4., , When was Universal Adult Franchise granted in India?, a. 1947, b. 1950, c. 1952, d. 1962, , 11. Who was the first woman to be a Defence Minister in, Latin America?, a. Augusto Pinochet, b. Nkrumah, c. Michelle Bachelet, d. Salvador Allende, , 5., , Which of the following countries has not been under, military rule?, a. Pakistan, b. India, c. Bangladesh, d. Myanmar, , 12. By 1900, which was the only country where every adult, had voting right?, a. India, b. France, c. New Zealand, d. Britain, , 6., , The organ of the United Nations responsible for maintaining, peace and security is, a. The World Bank, b. The General Assembly, c. The Security Council, d. The International Court of Justice, , 13. Who became the first prime minister and then the president, of Ghana?, a. Michelle Bachelet, b. Nkrumah, c. Raul Hanuf, d. Salvador Allende
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II.H.6, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , 14. Which party was led by Aung San Suu Kyi?, a. The National Party for Democracy, b. The National League for Democracy, c. The National League for Dictatorship, d. The New League for Democracy, , 18. Which of the following does not lead to the spread of, democracy?, a. Struggle by the people, b. Invasion by foreign countries, c. End of colonialism, d. People’s desire for freedom, , 15. Which prize was awarded to Aung Sun Suu Kyi?, a. Bharat Ratna, b. Nobel Peace Prize, c. Oscar Award, d. Vir Chakra, 16. Who is the chief administrative officer of the United, Nations?, a. The Director General, b. The Senior General, c. The Chief executive Officer, d. The Secretary General, 17. What was Myanmar previously known as?, a. Rangoon, b. Ceylon, c. Burma, d. Japan, , 19. Which of the following statements is true about today’s, world?, a. Monarchy as a form of government has vanished, b. The relationship between different countries has, become more democratic than ever., c. In more and more countries rulers are being elected by, the people, d. There are no military dictators in the world, 20. Who became the President of Chile after Allende died?, a. Salvador Augusto, b. Mike Russell, c. General Augusto Pinochet d. Peter Ronald, ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , b, , c, , d, , b, , b, , c, , c, , b, , b, , b, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , c, , c, , b, , b, , b, , d, , c, , b, , c, , b, ,
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What is Democracy? Why Democracy, , 2, , I. 7, , What is Democracy?, Why Democracy?, , Democracy is a form of government in which the rulers are, elected by the people. It is also important to distinguish, between a government that is a democracy and one that, pretends to be democracy. The features of a democracy are:, The final decision making powers in a democracy must rest, with those elected by the people., A democracy must be based on free and fair elections that, offer a real choice between political alternatives., Each adult citizen must have one vote and each vote must, have one value in a democracy., A democracy government rules within limits set by, constitutional laws and citizens’ rights., The fate of the country depends not only on the rulers but, mainly on what we citizens do. No country can have perfect, democracy., The main difference between a democracy and other forms, of govt. Like monarchy, dictatorship or one party govt. Is, that it does not require all citizens to take part in politics, whereas democracy depends on active political participation, by all citizens., Concept, Since its independence in 1930, Mexico holds elections after, every 6 years to elect its president. The country has never been, under a military or dictator’s rule. But still it cannot be called, democratic country.” Free and fair election is the basic feature, of democracy but in Mexico this is not so: In Mexico until, 2000, every election was won by party called PRI (Institutional, Revolutionary Party). Opposition parties did contest elections,, but never managed to win. The PRI was known to use many, dirty tricks to win elections. All those who were employed in, government offices had to attend its party meetings. Teachers, of government schools used to force parents to vote for the, PRI. Media largely ignored the activities of opposition political, parties except to criticise them., Arguments for Democracy, It is a more accountable form of government as it best, responds to the needs of the people., Democracy improves the quality of decision making as, many people are involved in consultation and discussion., Democracy provides a method to deal with differences and, , conflicts as all diverse opinions and views are kept in mind, while making decisions., Democracy enhances the dignity of citizens., A democracy allows us to correct our mistakes. A, democracy has space for public discussion in which there is, room for correction either to change the rulers or the ruled., Arguments against Democracy, Change of leaders leads to instability., There is no morality in democracy as it is all about political, competition and power play., Decision making is a very slow process in a democracy and, leads to delays., Elected leaders do not know the best interests of people, which way lead to bad decisions., Democracy leads to corruption as it is based on electoral, competition., Ordinary people have no idea as to what is good or bad for, them., Broader Meaning of Democracy, Modern day democracies are representative democracies,, i.e., the majority of people rule through their elected, representatives., This is because of the large number of people and also, because all citizens do not take decisions., Democracy is a principle that can be applied to any sphere, of life., It is also an ideal standard that all democracies aim to, become that no person goes hungry to bed. In a democracy, every citizen must be able to play an equal role in decision, making., Freedom Which are Usually Taken Away When a, Democracy is Overthrown, Freedom to move freely., Freedom of speech and expression., Freedom to assemble peacefully., Freedom to form unions and associations., Freedom of religion., Freedom of equality before law
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A Complete Study Guide For NTSE, , II.H.8, , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , Democracy is a form of government, a. in which a small group rules., b. all the people take collective decisions., c. the rulers are elected by the people., d. the rulers are elected by a group of people., , 2., , Which of the following countries is a democratic?, a. Myanmar, b. Nepal, c. China, d. India, , 3., , Equal right to vote is given in which of the following, countries?, a. Saudi Arabia, b. Fiji, c. Estonia, d. India, , 4., , Which of these is not a feature of democracy?, a. Rule of law, b. Equal rights, c. Freedom of speech and expression, d. One common religion, , 5., , Which of these is a feature of elections that is truly, democratic?, a. Free competition, no permanent winner or loser, b. Only one party is allowed to exist, c. Government limits the number of political parties, d. Election commission is not independent, , 6., , 7., , Which of the following is an argument against, democracy?, (i) Government is answerable and efficient., (ii) Decisions in democracy are always delayed, (iii) A democracy can best deal with conflicts, (iv) Democracy leads to corruption and power play, a. (i) and (ii), b. (ii) and (iii), c. (i) and (iv), d. (i) and (iii), Democracy deals best with conflicts as, a. it uses brutal power, b. there is no permanent winner or loser, c. there are good decisions in a democracy, d. the majority group takes the decision., , 8., , A democracy is a government based on, a. Debate and discussion, b. Rule of law, c. Accountability answerability of the elected to the, electoral, d. All of the above, , 9., , A good democracy will have, a. Free and fair elections, b. A society based on social justice, c. Equal rights for minorities, d. All of the above, , 10. Which type of government is more accountable?, a. Democratic government, b. Republican government, c. Public government, d. Dictatorship government, 11. Which is the most common form of democracy?, a. People’s democracy, b. Revolutionary democracy, c. Responsive democracy, d. Representative democracy, 12. An important feature of democracy is that a democratic, government rules within limits set by, a. Company law and citizens’ rights, b. Constitutional law and citizen’ rights, c. Consumer law and company rights, d. Constitutional law and social rights, 13. Which Pakistan General led a military coup in October, 1999?, a. Nawaz Sharif, b. Pervez Musharraf, c. Ayub Khan, d. None of these, 14. The famous political party of Mexico was:, a. People’s party, b. Institutional Revolutionary party, c. Revolutionary party, d. Chinese Communist party, 15. Who did not have the right to vote in Saudi Arabia?, a. Non-propertied men, b. Non-residents, c. Women, d. Propertied men
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What is Democracy? Why Democracy?, , II.H.9, , 16. Which party of Zimbabwe helped its country to gain, independence?, a. ZANU-PF, b. Popular party, c. Zimbabwe party, d. None of these, 17. During which period did China record its worst famines, in the world’s history?, a. 1935-39, b. 1958-61, c. 1952-55, d. 1943-46, 18. Use one of the following statements to complete the, sentence: Democracy in the international organisations, requires that____?, a. The rich countries should have a greater say, b. Countries should have a say according to their military, power, , c. All countries in the world should be treated equally, d. None of these, 19. Why is democracy considered the best form of government?, a. Offers better chances of a good decision, b. Respect people’s own wishes, c. Allows different kinds of people to live together, d. All of the above, 20. In which country laws were made by single ruler?, a. Zimbabwe, b. USA, c. France, d. India, ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , c, , d, , d, , d, , a, , c, , b, , d, , d, , a, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , d, , b, , b, , b, , c, , a, , b, , d, , d, , a, ,
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.H.10, , 3, , Constitutional Design, Popular, Struggles and Movements, , A constitution is a set of rules that every citizen and the, government have to follow. It is the supreme law of the land., The constitution determines the right of citizens, the form and, powers of the government, and how the government and its, various organs function. The need for a constitution, how it is, drawn up, who designs them and in what way, the values that, shape the constitution., Note, Preamble to the Constitution: It is a short statement of its, basic values. It is an introductory statement in a constitution, which states the reasons and guiding values of the constitution., Taking inspiration from the American model, most countries in, the contemporary world have chosen to begin their, constitutions with a preamble. This reads like a poem on, democracy. It contains the philosophy on which the entire, Constitution has been built. It provides a standard to, examine and evaluate any law and action of government, to, find out whether is good or bad. It is the soul of the Indian, Constitution., Democratic Constitution in South Africa, South Africa had been coloured during the 17th and 18th, centuries and the whites had settled there., Three-fourths of the population in South Africa was made, up of ‘Blacks’, i.e., natives of South Africa. Besides these, were the coloured people—the mixed races and people, from India., ‘Blacks’ coloured and Indian origin people did not have, any voting rights. The policy of apartheid was followed,, i.e., discrimination towards non-whites, Non-whites could not enter white areas, live or work there., Trains, buses, hospitals, school, beaches, parks, etc. were, separate. They were also not allowed to from association or, protest, African National Congress (ANC) led the struggle against, apartheid. They were formed by many other groups and, even whites. Many governments condemned the apartheid, regime and its policies, the leading figure against ANC was, Nelson Mandela who was imprisoned for 28 years, Finally the govt. realised it could not continue this, regression for long. Nelson Mandela was released, ban on, , political parties and media was limited. The national flag of, the Republic of South Africa was unfurled at midnight on, 26 April, 1994., The new multi-racial government of South Africa come to, power. A new constitution was written which is one of the, finest in the world, Why Do We Need a Constitution?, Constitution determines the relationship between the people, and government., Ensures certain basic rules so that different people can live, together in faith and cooperation., It specifies how the government is to form and who takes, the decisions., It limits the power of the government and specifies the, rights of citizens., It puts forward the aspirations of the people about creating, a just and fair society., All countries that have a constitution may not be, democratic, but all democracies have a constitution., Making of Indian Constitution, India’s Constitution was also drawn up in difficult, circumstances; partition into India and Pakistan, living in a, free country and the diversity and size of India., Partition of India caused death, destruction and there was, the problem of the merger of the princely states., Path to the Constitution, There was a consensus during the freedom struggle about, some basic ideas like universal adult franchise, right to, freedom and equality, and protection of the right to, minorities., Elections held in 1937 to provincial legislatures gave a, certain amount of experience to the working of legislative, constitution., The Indian Constitution has adopted many details and, procedures from the Government of India Act of 1935., Our leaders were also inspired by the French Revolution,, parliamentary democracy of Britain, Bill of Rights of the, US and the socialist revolution in Russia.
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Constitutional Design, Popular Struggles and Movements, , The Constituent Assembly, The Constitution of India was drafted by an assembly, of elected representatives called the Constituent, Assembly., Elections for the Constituent Assembly were held in 1945, with 299 members., The Assembly adopted the Constitution on 29 November, 1949, but it came into effect on January 26, 1950, which, is celebrated as Republic Day., It has withstood the test of time. Some of its provision may, have been questioned but nobody doubts its legitimacy., The Constituent Assembly was dominated by the Indian, National Congress but it had members from other political, groups and opinions who worked in and open and, transparent manner. Every issue, every discussion and, every word spoken have been published as ‘Constituent, Assembly Debates’. They provide the rationale behind, each provision of the constitution., Guiding Values of the Indian Constituent, The Indian Constitution reflects the aspirations of the people. It, is not a static document that cannot be changed. There is, prescribed procedure for amendment. It is a legal document; it, specifies the rights of the people and puts limits on the, government., Philosophy of the Constitution Values of the Constitution are, mentioned in the Preamble of the India Constitution. It, mentions:, We the people of India, i.e., the Constitution has been, drawn up by the people of India through their, representatives., Sovereign, i.e., people have the supreme power to take all, decisions on their own., Socialist, i.e., wealth should be shared equally by society, and the government should reduce socioeconomic, difficulties., Secular, i.e., every citizen has the freedom to follow any, religion and the government treats all religions equally., Republic, i.e., the head of the state is elected., Justice—everybody gets their due and government works, for the welfare of all, especially the disadvantaged groups., Liberty—people have basic freedoms of speech and, expressions and associations, etc., Equality—everybody is equal before the law and, everybody has equality of opportunity., Fraternity means a feeling of brotherhood., , II.H.11, , The Constitution of Nepal 2015 is the seventh constitution of, Nepal. This is the first Constitution made and adopted by the, Constituent Assembly (CA) which was specifically elected for, this purpose. President Ram Baran Yadav announced the, promulgation of Constitution of Nepal, 2015 at a, special meeting of the Constituent Assembly on September 20,, 2015., The New Constitution has 308 Articles, Nine Annexes and, Preamble., The Constitution has been adopted and proclaimed in the, name of "We, the people of Nepal, in exercise of the, sovereign powers inherent in us.", The people of Nepal have the sovereign power and the right, to autonomy and self-rule, by maintaining Nepal’s, independence, sovereignty, geographical integrity, national, unity, freedom and dignity., It recalls historical people’s movements and armed, struggles and the sacrifice made by people for national, interest, democracy, progressive change., It recognises the martyrs, the disappeared citizens and the, victims., It declares ending all forms of discriminations and, oppression created by the feudal, autocratic, centralised and, unitary system of government in the past., It notes its commitment to Nepal's multi-ethnic,, multilingual, multicultural and diverse geographical, specificities and end of discriminations relating to class,, ethnicity, region, language, religion and gender, discrimination including all forms of racial untouchability,, in order to protect and promote unity in diversity, social and, cultural solidarity, tolerance and harmonious attitudes., It also expresses the determination to create an egalitarian, society on the basis of the principles of proportional, inclusion and participation, to ensure equitable economy,, prosperity and social justice., There is a commitment to create the bases of socialism by, adopting democratic norms and values, including peoples', competitive multi-party democratic governance system,, civil liberty, fundamental rights, human rights, adult, franchise, periodic elections, complete press freedom and, an independent, impartial and competent judiciary, and the, concept of Rule of Law., Narmada Bachao Andolan: In 1985, it is the most powerful, mass movement started, against the construction of huge dam, on the Narmada river. Narmada is the India's largest West, flowing river, which supports a large variety of people with
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.H.12, , distinguished culture and tradition ranging from the indigenous, tribal people inhabited in the jungles here to the large number, of rural population. The proposed Sardar Sarovar Dam and, Narmada Sagar will displace more than 2,50,000 people. The, biggest problem is the resettlement or the rehabilitation of, these people., The Narmada Bachao Andolan has been pressurising the World, Bank to withdraw its loan from the project through media, led, by one of the prominent leader Medha Patkar. It has now been, turned into the International protest, gaining support from, NGO'S all around the world. Protestors are agitating the issue, through the mass media, hunger strikes, massive marches,, rallies and the through the on screen of several documentary, films. Although they have been protesting peacefully, but they, been harassed, arrested and beaten up by the police several, , times. The controversy over large dams on the river Narmada, has come to symbolise the struggle for a just and equitable, society in India. The story is long and complicated and will, take a long time to tell. In short, the Government's plan is to, build 30 large, 135 medium and 3000 small dams to harness, the waters of the Narmada and its tributaries. The proponents, of the dam claim that this plan would provide large amounts of, water and electricity which are desperately required for the, purposes of development., It is a multi-crore project that will generate big revenue for the, government. The Narmada Valley Development plan is the, most promised and most challenging plan in the history of, India. The proponents are of the view that it will produce 1450, MW of electricity and pure drinking water to 40 million people, covering thousands of villages and towns., , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , Nelson Mandela was tried for treason by the South, African government because, a. he was against the white people, b. he wanted only the blacks to rule, c. he opposed the apartheid regime, d. all of the above, , 2., , In the apartheid system:, a. Blacks and whites had voting rights, b. Mixed races and blacks had voting rights, c. Only whites had voting rights, d. None of the above, , 3., , In the apartheid system the blacks, a. were forbidden to live in white areas, b. had restriction on the use of public places, c. had no voting rights, d. all of the above, , 4., , 5., , 6., , India has adopted the Bill of Rights from, a. the South African Constitution, b. the Constitution of USA, c. the British Constitution, d. the French Constitution, , 7., , The Indian Constitution has adopted many institutional, details and procedures from, a. The Constitution of USA, b. The Government of India Act of 1935, c. The French Constitution, d. Resolution at the Karachi Congress of 1931, , 8., , The Indian Constitution came into effect on, a. 15 August 1947, b. 26 January 1947, c. 26 November 1950, d. 26 January 1950, , 9., , The term ‘secular’ as mentioned in the Preamble stands for, a. equal status of all, b. rule of the people, c. equality of wealth, d. equal respect for all religious beliefs and practices, , The new Constitution of South Africa was not based, on, a. equal rights for all, b. different rights for various races, c. a government of mixed races, d. democratic values, , 10. A country that has an elected head of the state is known as, a. a monarchy, b. a dictatorship, c. a democracy, d. a republic, , India’s Constitution was drawn up, a. by the british government, b. by an elected group of leaders, c. by the Indian National Congress, d. by the Act of 1935, , 11. Constitutional amendments are, a. changes in the Constitution, b. framework of the Constitution, c. philosophy of Constitution, d. limits to the Constitution
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Constitutional Design, Popular Struggles and Movements, , 12. The Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the, Constitution was, a. Dr Rajendra Prasad, b. Jawaharlal Nehru, c. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee, d. Dr Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar, 13. An active Hindu Mahasabha member and part of the, interim government was, a. Somnath Lahiri, b. K M Munshi, c. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee, d. Dr Rajendra Prasad, 14. Which of these is a provision that a democratic, constitution does not have?, a. Name of the country, b. Powers of the organs of the government, c. Name of the head of the state, d. Powers of the head of the state, 15. When did Napal become a constitutional monarchy?, a. In 1960, b. In 1970, c. In 1980, d. In 1990, 16. Who became the new Prime Minister of Nepal in 2006?, a. Beni Prasad, b. Girija Prasad, c. Gyanendra, d. Himmat Prasad Koirala, 17. Which two of the following are the characteristics of, Constitutional Monarchy?, a. An elected representative acts as the head of the state, b. The King is the leader of Parliament, c. If the monarch is the head of the state, he plays only the, symbolic role as in Great Britain, d. The king nominates the members of the legislative, 18. Which two of the following are the characteristics of, Pressure Groups?, a. They seek to capture political power, b. They seek to promote their own interests, c. They are formed by organised or unorganised group of, people, d. They are a hindrance in the way of democracy, 19. In which two ways, the Public Interest Groups achieve, their aims?, a. They organise meetings to win the public support, b. They raise slogans against the government and disrupt, public, , II.H.13, , c. They try to influence the media by drawing their, attention to their cause, d. They set the public property on fire, 20. Which organisation was set up by the Nepalese people to, restore democracy in Nepal?, a. The Dual Alliance, b. The Triple Alliance, c. The Two Party Alliance, d. The Seven Party Alliance, 21. The Narmada Bachao Andolan was started against which, one of the dams?, a. The Bhakra Dam, b. Sardar Sarovar Dam, c. The Hirakud Dam, d. The Kosi Dam, 22. Backward and Minorities Community Employees, Federation (BAMCEF) is an example of which one of the, following?, a. Public interest group, b. A movement for equality, c. A sectional interest group, d. A political party, 23. Which one of the following was the main aim of the, movement in Nepal in 2006?, a. To reduce the power of the king, b. To re-establish democracy in Nepal, c. To promote one party rule, d. To stop military coup, 24. National Alliance for Peoples’ Movements (NAPM) is, a. an organisation of organisations, b. an environmental movement, c. a political party, d. a public interest group, 25. The struggle in Bolivia in 2000 was, a. to establish democracy, b. due to increase in price of water, c. to have a re-election, d. due to racial discrimination, 26. Which one of the following is the ‘Third Wave Country’, that had won democracy in 1990?, a. Bolivia, b. Belgium, c. Bangladesh, d. Nepal, 27. Which one of the following was the main aim to start, movement on April 2006 in Nepal?
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.H.14, , a. A-3; B-2; C-4; D-1, b. A-2; B-4; C-3; D-1, c. A-1; B-3; C-4; D-2, d. A-2; B-3; C-4; D-1, , a. To control over government, b. To snatch power from the king, c. To restore democracy, d. To dethrone the king, , 31. The Water War in Bolivia was led by, a. Maoists, b. FEDECOR, c. BAMCEF, d. Socialists, , 28. Which one of the following is a public interest group?, a. BAMCEF, b. Railway Employees Union of India, c. Sarafa Bazar Union, d. Merchant’s Union, 29. Match the following leaders with their roles in the making, of the Constitution:, Column I, Column II, (A) Motilal Nehru, 1. President of the, Constituent Assembly, (B) B R Ambedkar, 2. Member of the, Constituent Assembly, (C) Rajendra Prasad, 3. Chairman of the, Drafting Committee, (D) Sarojini Naidu, 4. Prepared a, Constitution for India, in 1928, a. A-4; B-2; C-1; D-3, b. A-4; B-3; C-1; D-2, c. A-1; B-3; C-4; D-2, d. A-4; B-1; C-3; D-2, 30. Given here are some of the guiding values of the, Constitution and their meaning. Match them correctly., Column I, Column II, 1. Government will, (A) Sovereign, not favour any, religion., 2. People have the, (B) Republic, supreme right to, make decisions., 3. Head of the state is, (C) Fraternity, an elected person., 4. People should live, (D) Secular, like brothers and, sisters., , 32. Match the Column- I with Column- II using the codes, given below the lists., Column I, Column II, (A) Pressure groups, 1. Narmada Bachao, Andolan, (B) Long-term movement 2. Asom Gana Parishad, (C) Single issue, 3. Women’s movement, movement, (D) Political party, 4. Fertilisers dealers, association, a. A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2, b. A-2, B-1, C-4, D-2, c. A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1, d. A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1, 33. To which of the following countries does FEDECOR, belong?, a. Nepal, b. Northern Ireland, c. Belgium, d. Bolivia, 34. Which political party came to power in Bolivia in 2006?, a. Democratic Party, b. Socialist Party, c. Liberal Party, d. Conservative Party, ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , d, , c, , d, , d, , b, , b, , b, , d, , d, , d, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , a, , d, , c, , c, , d, , b, , a,c, , a,c, , a,c, , d, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , b, , a, , b, , a, , b, , d, , c, , a, , b, , d, , 31., , 32., , 33, , 34., , b, , a, , d, , a, ,
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Electoral Politics, , 4, Most democracies today rule through representatives and these, are chosen though elections. People choose representatives, who make laws for them. These representatives also form the, govt. and take major decisions., Note, No elections, no democracy: All the citizens in modern, democracy cannot participate in administration. This function, is performed by their elected representatives. Only through, election we can get rid of corrupt, criminal and anti people government and change it for a new government. It is, through elections that voters can maintain their control over, executive and prevent them from becoming despotic and, autocratic. Without elections no democratic government can be, formed., Election Commission is an autonomous body provided for in, the constitution of India and assigned the responsibility of, conducting free and fair elections which are the backbone of, democracy., What Makes an Election Democratic?, Both democratic as well as non- democratic countries hold, elections., In a democratic election some minimum conditions should, be fulfilled like one person, one vote and every vote has, the same value; Elections should be held after regular, intervals., Parties and candidates should be free to contest elections, and the voters should have a real choice., Elections should be conducted in a free and fair manner., Is it Good to have Political Competition?, Election is a form of political competition among, political parties; Electoral competition has many merits and, demerits:, Demerits of Electoral Competition, It creates disunity and factorisations., It prevents the formation of sensible long-term policies., Due to this some good people may not enter this arena as, competitors., , II.H.15, , Electoral Politics, Merits of Electoral Competition, Our constitution framers opted for free competition in, elections., They felt this would work better in the long run, as in the, real world, people want power and to remain in power., Political competition is way in which political leaders may, be rewarded or punished by the people for their, performance or non-incentives., Political competition provides incentives to political parts, and leaders., If they work for the people chances of their victory will, increase., So even if power is the only motivation, even then they will, serve the people., Our System of Elections, Elections are held in India for Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha, after every 5 years., Their term lasts for 5 years after which both the Lok Sabha, and Vidhan Sabha are dissolved., Elections for the Lok Sabha are knows as General, Elections., Electoral Constituencies, Voters in a geographical area who elect a representative to, the legislative bodies are known as electoral constituencies;, each constituency elects one representative., For the Lok Sabha elections, the country is divided into 543, constituencies., Similarly, each states is divided into a certain number of, assembly constituencies., Each village or town is divided into several ‘wards’ that are, like constituencies., Electoral Politics: Why election are useful and necessary?; the, importance of electoral competition; the difference between, democratic and non-democratic elections; the stages of, elections and the role of the Election Commission (EC) in, ensuring free and fair elections., Reserved Constituencies, In order to ensure the election of weaker sections of society,, to ensure the voice of the deprived section, and to ensure
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II.H.16, , , , , , , that our democracy is truly representative we have a special, system of reserved constituencies., Some constituencies are reserved for people belonging to, the Scheduled Castes (SC) and Scheduled Tribes (ST)., Currently 79 seats are reserved for SC and 41 for ST, a, number in proportion to their share in the total population., This was extended to panchayat and corporation even for, the OBC (Other Backward Castes)., Similarly, one-third seats are reserved for women in rural, and urban local bodies., , Voters List, The list of those eligible to vote is prepared much before, the election. This is officially called the Electoral Roll or, Voters List; From time to time the Electoral Rolls are, updated and revised., All citizens aged 18 years and above can vote in an election, regardless of his/her caste, religion or gender. Some, criminals and persons with unsound mind can be denied the, right to vote., Nomination of Candidates, Anybody who is a voter can be a candidate except that a, candidate has to be at least 25 years old., Political parties nominate their candidate; every candidate, has to fill a nomination form and give some money as a, security deposit., Election Campaign, People must know in an election about the candidates of, political parties and their policies in order to make the right, choice., This is done by election campaign when candidates contact, their voters., This contact is through door to door campaigning, TV news,, debates and discussions, slogans, posters and advertisements., Candidates and political parties try to focus public attention, on major issues; They hold rallies address the people and use, catchy slogans; However, they have to follow a moral code, of conduct., Polling and Counting of Votes, On the day of the election the voters go to their polling, booth and cast their vote., Nowadays electronic voting machines (EVMs) are used to, record votes; The machine shows the name of the candidate, and the party symbol., , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , The voter has to press the button against the name of the, candidate whom he/she wants to give her vote., The EVMs are sealed and opened on the day of counting of, votes; this is reported by television channels, radio and, newspapers., Within a few hours it becomes clear as to who the winner is, and who will form the new government., Independent Election Commission, Elections are conducted by and independent and very, powerful EC which enjoys the same kind of independence, that the judiciary enjoys., EC takes decision on every aspect of control and conduct of, elections., Functions of Election Commission, Announcement of elections and declaration of results., Implementing the code of conduct and punishing its, violation by any political party or candidate., Prevents misuse of governmental power, can transfer, government officials., When on election duty government officers work under the, control of the EC and not the government., Can order re-polling., Popular Participation, India has a high voter turnout as illiterate and underprivileged, people vote in larger proportion sections. Common people in, India attach a lot of importance to elections as they feel that, their vote matters., Acceptance of Election Outcome, Ruling parties routinely lose elections both at National and, State level., Mostly the electoral outcomes are accepted as people’s, verdict by the losing party., Challenges to Free and Fair Elections, Candidates and parties with a lot of money do have an, unfair advantage over smaller parties and independents., Concern over number of criminals entering politics and, contesting elections., Some families dominate in the elections., Lack of choice to the voters in policies and candidates., Booth capturing: Supporters or hired musclemen of party, or a candidate gain physical control of a polling booth and, cast false votes by threatening everyone or by preventing, genuine voters from reaching the polling booth.
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Electoral Politics, , Code of conduct: A set norms and guidelines to be, followed by political parties and contesting candidates, during election time., Constituency: Voters in geographical area who elect a, representative to the legislative bodies., Incumbent: The current holder of a political office., Usually the choice for the voters in elections is between the, incumbent party or candidate and those who oppose them., , II.H.17, , Level playing field: Condition in which all parties and, candidates contesting in an election have equal opportunities, to appeal for votes and to carry out election campaign., Rigging: Fraud and malpractices indulged by a party or, candidate to increase to increase its votes. It includes stuffing, ballot boxes by a few persons using the votes of others;, recording multiple votes by the same person; and bribing or, coercing polling officers to favour a candidate., , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , Which of these is not a good reason to say that Indian, elections are democratic?, a. India has the largest number of voters in the world., b. India’s Election Commission is very powerful., c. In India, everyone above the age of 18 has a right to, vote., d. In India, the losing parties accept the electoral verdict., The Voter’s List is prepared by, a. the Panchayats and Municipalities, b. the Central Government, c. the Legislature, d. the Election Commission, At present the number of Lok Sabha constituencies are in, the state of, a. 550, b. 545, c. 543, d. 540, The maximum number of Lok Sabha constituencies are in, which state?, a. Andhra Pradesh, b. Bihar, c. Maharashtra, d. Uttar Pradesh, , 5., , Who gave the slogan ‘Garibi hatao’?, a. Jawaharlal Nehru, b. Lal Bahadur Shastri, c. Indira Gandhi, d. Rajiv Gandhi, , 6., , Which of the following methods are not allowed by the, election law?, a. bribing or threatening voters, b. appealing in the name of caste or religion, c. using government resources to campaign, d. all of the above, , 7., , Which of the following is not a function of the EC?, a. nominating candidates, b. scrutiny of nomination, c. allotting symbols, d. enforcing moral code of conduct, , 8., , An incumbent representative is:, a. the representative of the opposition parley, b. the sitting representative, c. the future representative, d. the previous representative, , 9., , Which of the following statements is not true?, a. Poor people are not interested in voting., b. Poor people vote in high numbers., c. Common people attach lot of importance to their vote., d. Voting percentage in India is high., , 10. The number of constituencies reserved for Scheduled, Castes in India is:, a. 80, b. 79, c. 75, d. 72, 11. The number of constituencies reserved for Scheduled, Tribes in India is:, a. 50, b. 49, c. 45, d. 41, 12. During election the voters make many choices, Select the, correct options., (i) Who will make laws for them?, (ii) Who will grant fundamental Rights?, (iii) Who will form the government and take major, decisions?, (iv) Who will check the functioning of courts?, a. (i) and (iii), b. Only (ii), c. Only (iii), d. Both (ii) and (iv), 13. Which of the following statements about the reasons for, conducting elections are false?, a. Elections enable people to judge the performance of the, government., b. People select the representative of their choice in an, election., c. Elections enable people to evaluate the performance of, the judiciary., d. People can indicate which polices they prefer.
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.H.18, , 14. Is it good to have political competition? Which of the, following statement justify this?, a. It creates a sense of disunity and factionalism., b. Political competition helps to force political parties and, leaders to serve people., c. It gives a fair chance to people for the responsible, government., d. Political competition cause divisions and some, ugliness., 15. Which of the following statements regarding elections, and Election Commission hold true?, (i) Election Commission of India has enough powers to, conduct free and fair elections in the country., (ii) There is a high level of popular participation., (iii) It is very easy for the party in power to win an, election., (iv) Many reforms are needed to make our elections, completely free and fair., a. (i), (ii), and (iii), b. (i), (ii) and (iv), c. (i),(ii),(iii) and (iv), d. Only (iii), 16. Which among the following is not correct?, a. The Election Commission conducts all election for the, Parliament and Assemblies, b. The Election Commission directs and controls the, preparation of electoral rolls, c. The Election Commission cannot fix the election dates, d. The Election Commission does the scrutiny of, nomination papers., 17. Analyse the following statements regarding the fair, electoral practice?, a. A minister flags off a new train in his constituency a, week before polling day, b. A candidate promises that she will get a new train for, her constituency if she is elected, c. Supporters of a candidate take the voters to a temple, and make them take an oath that they will vote for him, , d. The supporters of a candidate distribute blankets in, slums in return for a promise for, 18. Who appoints Chief Election Commissioner in India?, a. The Governor, b. The President of India, c. The Chief Justice, d. The Prime Minister, 19. Here are some facts on Indian election. Which of them, reflect the weakness of our electoral system?, (i) The Lok Sabha has always has less than 10 percent, women members, (ii) The Election Commission often refuses to accept the, governments should be held., (ii) The present Lok Sabha has more than 145 members, whose assets are more than Rs. 1 crore, (iv) After losing an election the Chief Minister says “I, respect the people’s verdict”., a. (i), b. (iii), c. (i) and (iii), d. (ii) and (iv), 20. Which of the following sentiments about the reason for, conducting elections are false?, a. Elections enable people to judge the performance of the, government, b. People select the representative of their choice in an, election, c. Elections enables people to evaluate the performance of, the judiciary, d. People can indicate which policies they prefer, ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , a, , d, , c, , d, , c, , d, , a, , b, , a, , b, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , d, , a, , c, , c, , b, , c, , b, , b, , c, , c, ,
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Working of Institutions, , 5, , II.H.19, , Working of Institutions, , To make laws to administer the country, protect people, and, perform welfare activities and to solve conflicts; To implement, these laws; To interpret the laws and to ensure justice to all we, need political institution., Head of Administration: President is the head of the State, he, carried out and conducted administration of the state. All, orders are issued in his name. Being the head of the Union, administration, all officials are his subordinates. He appoints, the Prime Minister and on the latter’s advice other ministers in, the Council of Ministers. He administers the oath of office to, them. The Prime Minister and the other ministers submit their, resignation to him if situation demands., All the high officials such as the Attorney General of, India, the Comptroller and Auditor General of India, the, Governors of states, Ambassadors and High Commissioners,, the Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts, the Election, Commissioners, etc. are appointed by the President. He also, appoints the Chairman and other members of the Union Public, Service commission, finance commission etc., Parliament: It is the assembly of elected representatives. At, the State level it is called the Legislative Assembly., Functions of a Parliament, It is the final authority for making changing or abolishing, existing laws., It exercises control over those who run the country and, controls the public money., Highest forum of discussion and debate on public issues., In India the Parliament consists of the President, Lok Sabha, and Rajya Sabha., Sabha, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha are two Houses of the, Parliament, Lok Sabha has more power in money matters and all laws, related to money matters are voted in the Lok Sabha. Rajya, Sabha can only delay the law by 14 days., Lok Sabha only can pass a ‘no confidence motion’ against, the Prime Minister and Council of Ministers. Rajya Sabha, does not have this power., , Lok Sabha: Lok Sabha is composed of representatives of the, people chosen by direct election on the basis of the adult, suffrage. The maximum strength of the house envisaged by the, Constitution is 552, which is made up by election of up to 530, members to represent the States, up to 20 members to represent, the Union Territories and not more than two members of the, Anglo-Indian Community to be nominated by the Hon'ble, President, if, in his/her opinion, that community is not, adequately represented in the house. The total elective, membership is distributed among the states in such a way that, the ratio between the number of seats allotted to each state and, the population of the state is, so far as practicable, the same for, all states., It is the house of people., Passes all laws related to money as well as ordinary laws., Because of its larger strength its will is to prevail., Controls the Council of Ministers, can pass no confidence, motion., Rajya Sabha: The Rajya Sabha or Council of States is the, upper house of the Parliament of India. Membership of Rajya, Sabha is limited by the Constitution to a maximum of 250, members, and current laws have provision for 245 members., Most of the members of the house are indirectly elected by, state and territorial legislatures using single transferable votes,, while the President can appoint 12 members for their, contributions to art, literature, science, and social services., Members sit for staggered 6-year terms, with one-third of the, members retiring every 2 years. The Vice President is the, chairman of Rajya sabha., Makes ordinary laws regarding matters other than money., Functionaries Who Takes Day-to-Day Decisions, Political Executive, Elected by people for a specific period., Take all the big decisions., Decide the framework and objective on policy., Answerable to people, in charge of policies., Permanent Executive, Appointed on long-term basis., Assist political executive to, administration., , carry, , out, , day-to-day
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.H.20, , Prime Minister: Head of the government; Appointed by the, President as leader of the majority party or coalition of parties, that is in majority in the Lok Sabha., Prime Minister appoints other ministers., Cabinet Ministers, Inner ring of Council of Ministers., Top level leaders and in-charge of major ministers., Ministers of State with Independent Charge, In-charge of small ministries., Ministers of State required to assist cabinet ministers., Working of Institutions, The working of the three major institutions legislature,, executive and judiciary and the role they play together to, carry on the task of running the government., Powers of the Prime Minister, Has wide-ranging powers., Chairs Cabinet meets., Coordinates in work of different departments., Has the power to take final decision in case of, disagreement., Ministers work under him., Can change portfolios of ministers or even dismiss, them., When the Prime Minister quits, the entire ministry quits., Coalition politics has put constraints on the powers of the, Prime Minister., He has to accommodate different groups and factions, within the party as well as alliance partners., The President: First citizen/Head of the country., Exercises only nominal powers like the Queen of Britain, Elected indirectly by the members of State Legislatures., , All major policy decision, laws, appointments made in the, name of the President. Supreme Commander of Defence, Forces of India but all these powers are exercised on the advice, of Council of Ministers., Can exercise discretion to appoint a leader when no one, party or coalition gets support in the Lok Sabha., Judiciary, Judiciary interprets the Constitution, solves conflicts,, ensures justice, and protects right of the people, India Judiciary, Supreme Court, High Courts in states, District Courts, Local Courts, Supreme Court is the highest court of the country, Decisions binding on all parts of the country, Controls judicial administration, Solves disputes between:, Citizens, Two or more State governments, The Union and State governments, Highest court of appeal, Independence of Judiciary, Judiciary is not under the control of the legislature or, executive., This is because of selection procedure., Removing a judge is very difficult., Indian Judiciary has the power of judicial review., It is the guardian of Fundamental Rights., Courts can intervene to prevent misuse of government, powers., , Indian judiciary is one of the most powerful in the, world., , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , If you are elected as the President of India which of the, following decisions can you take on your own?, a. Select the person you like as Prime Minister., b. Dismiss a Prime Minister who has a majority in Lok, Sabha., c. Ask for reconsideration of a bill passed by both the, houses., d. Nominate the leaders of your choice to the Council of, Ministers., , 2., , Who among the following is a part of the political, executive?, a. District Collector, b. Secretary of the Ministry of Home Affairs, c. Home Minister, d. Director General of Police, , 3., , Which of the following statements about the judiciary is, false?
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Working of Institutions, , 4., , 5., , 6., , a. Every law passed by the Parliament need approval of, the Supreme Court., b. Judiciary can strike down a law if it goes against the, spirit of the Constitution., c. Judiciary in independent of the Executive., d. Any citizen can approach the courts if her rights are, violated., Which of the following institutions can make changes to, an existing law of the country?, a. The Supreme Court, b. The President, c. The Prime Minister, d. The Parliament, The Prime Minister of India is, a. a nominal head, b. actual head of the government, c. elected directly, d. elected indirectly, The Prime Minister is the, a. person whom the President wants to head the govt., b. the person liked by most MPs., c. head of the majority party or coalition of parties in the, Lok Sabha., d. all of the above., , 7., , The President of India is, a. the head of the government, b. head of the country, c. head of the majority party or coalition in the Lok Sabha, d. elected directly by the people, , 8., , The Permanent Executive, a. is elected by the people, b. hold office for limited period, c. are answerable to the people, d. assist the political executive, , 10. Which of the following statements in not true?, a. Prime Minister is directly elected by the people., b. Prime Minister allots ministries to the various, ministers., c. Prime Minister can change the ministries of the, ministers., d. PM can dismiss the ministries., 9., , Policy and objectives are decided by?, a. the political executive, b. the permanent executive, c. the legislature, d. the judiciary, , II.H.21, , 11. Which of the following statements is not true?, a. All decisions are made in the name of the President., b. President has some discretionary powers., c. President appoints the Prime Minister., d. President can reject a law passed by the Parliament., 12. The Judiciary in India is, a. under the control of the executive, b. under the control of the legislature, c. independent of the control of the legislature and, executive, d. under the control of the President, 13. Under the power of judicial review, a. they can determine the constitutional validity of a law, b. make new laws, c. cancel any law, d. all of the above, 14. Who is permanent executive among the following?, a. Home Minster, b. Home Secretary, c. Leader of Opposition, d. None of the above, 15. Which of the following is not permanent executive?, a. District Collector, b. Finance Secretary, c. Finance Minister, d. Joint Secretary, 16. Union Council of ministers include following types of, Ministers. Choose the correct option., (i) Cabinet Ministers, (ii) Chief Ministers, (iii) Ministers of State with Independent Charges, (iv) Ministers of State, a. (i), b. (ii), c. (iii), d. (i) (iii) and (iv), 17. The rise of coalition politics has imposed certain, constraints on the power of the Prime Minister. Select the, valid points., (i) The Prime Minister of a coalition government cannot, take decision as he likes, (ii) He has to lead to the views and positions of the, Coalition partners and other parties, (iii) In a coalition government, the power wielded by a, Prime Minister depends on the personality of the person, holding that position., (iv) The Prime Minister has to accommodate different, groups and functions
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.H.22, , a. (i) and (ii), b. (iii), c. (iv), d. Except (iii), all (i), (ii), and (iv) are correct, 18. The President of Indian is elected by, a. Direct election by citizens who are 18 years or above, b. Indirect election by the Electoral College, c. Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers, d. Public of the country, 19. In what ways does the Lok Sabha exercise Supreme, Power over Rajya Sabha?, a. Lok Sabha exercises more powers on money matter, b. Lok Sabha controls the President of India, c. During the joint session the final decision is taken by, Lok Sabha because of its larger number of members, d. It guides the functioning of Rajya Sabha, , 20. Judiciary (courts) can take up any dispute, (i) Between citizens and the judiciary, (ii) Between citizens and the government, (iii) Between two or more state governments, (iv) Between government at the Union and governments, of the other countries, Select the best options:, a. (i) and (iv), b. (i) and (iii), c. (ii) and (iv), d. All of these, ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , c, , c, , a, , d, , b, , c, , b, , d, , a, , a, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , d, , c, , a, , b, , c, , d, , d, , b, , b, , c, ,
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Political Parties, , 6, Politics in India take place within the framework of its, constitution, because India is a federal parliamentary, democratic republic, in which the President of India is the head, of state and the Prime Minister of India is the head of the, central government. India follows the dual polity system, i.e. a, double government which consists of the central authority at, the centre and states at the periphery. The constitution defines, the organisation powers and limitations of both central and, state governments, and it is well-recognised, rigid and, considered supreme; i.e. laws of the nation must conform to it., As with any other democracy, political parties represent, different sections among the Indian society and regions, and, their core values play a major role in the politics of India. Both, the executive branch and the legislative branch of the, government are run by the representatives of the political, parties who have been elected through the elections. As with, any other democracy, political parties represent different, sections among the Indian society and regions, and their core, values play a major role in the politics of India. Both the, executive branch and the legislative branch of the government, are run by the representatives of the political parties who have, been elected through the elections., A political party is a group of people who come together to, contest elections and hold power in the government. Political, parties always seek to attain and maintain political power., They agree on some policies and programmes for promoting, national interest. Since there can be different views on what is, good for all, parties try to persuade people why their policies, are better than the other., They seek to implement these policies by winning popular, support through elections. Thus parties reflect a fundamental, political division of a society. Parties are a part of the society, and thus involve partisanship. Thus a party is known by which, part it stands for, which policies it supports and whose interests, it upholds. A political party has three components:, The leaders,, The active members, and, The followers, , II.H.23, , Political Parties, Note, Political Party: A political party is group of people who, come together to contest election and hold power in the, government., One Party System: In some countries, only one party is, allowed to control and run government. These are called, one-party system., Bi-party System: A country where two parties prevail., Multi-party System: It is a system in which more than two, parties function and several parties have reasonable chance, of coming to power either on their own or in alliance with, others., National Parties: These exist, operate and function throughout, India. In order to be recognised as a National Political Party, it, must have been continuously engaged in political activity at the, national level for 5 years., Functions Performed by Political Parties in a Democracy, They contest election. They put forward different policies, and programmes among which the voters opt., They play a decisive role in making laws for the country., The party or parties with majority seats form and run the, government., They also play the role of opposition. They shape public, opinion., They provide people access to government machinery and, welfare schemers., Challenges Faced by Political Parties, The parties lack internal democracy, which keeps many, prospective leaders deprived of their rights., There have been dynastic successions in the political, parties. This keeps the parties deprived of apt leadership., The parties sometimes, indulge in the use of money and, muscle power for winning elections. This hampers, development and is against the spirit of democracy., There are not much ideological differences among the, various parties. So, there is a scarcity of meaningful choices, before the voters., Reforms to Strengthen Political Parties, It should be made necessary for political parties to regulate, their internal affairs. It should be made compulsory for, political parties to maintain a register of its members.
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.H.24, , Parties should be asked to give at least one third of the seats, to women., There should be state funding of elections. The government, should give money to meet their election expense., Ordinary citizens, media, and movements can play an, important role by pressurising parties to bring in reforms., , Since there are different views on what is good for all,, parties try to persuade people why their policies are better, than others., They seek to implement these policies by winning popular, support through elections., Parties are a part of society and thus involve partisanship., A party is generally known by what it stands for, which, policies it supports and whose interests it upholds., A party runs with the help of its leaders, active members,, and supporters., , Characteristics of a Political Party, They agree on some policies and programmes for the, society with a view to promote collective good., , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , Which one of the following is not a national party?, a. The Indian National Congress, b. The Asom Gana Parishad, c. The Bharatiya Janata Party, d. The Bahujan Samaj Party, , 7., , The political party which believes in Marxism-Leninism is, a. Nationalist Congress Party, b. Communist Party of India, c. Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK), d. Bahujan Samaj Party, , 2., , Which one of the following is not a Regional Party?, a. The Akali Dal, b. The Shiv Sena, c. The Telugu Desam, d. The Bahujan Samaj Party, , 8., , 3., , What is Bye-election?, a. Elections held to fill a vacancy caused by the death or, any other reason, b. Elections held after a specific period, c. Elections held to from the new government, d. Elections held in between the fixed term of the house., , Which among the following led the struggle against, ‘privatisation of water’ in Bolivia?, a. Political parties, b. Farmers, c. Factory Workers, d. FEDECOR, , 9., , In which one of the following states does the ‘Rashtriya, Lok Dal’ exist as a regional political party?, a. Haryana, b. Uttar Pradesh, c. Karnataka, d. Orissa, , 4., , 5., , 6., , Who is the President of the Congress Party at present?, a. Smt Sonia Gandhi, b. Shri Sharad Pawar, c. Dr Manmohan Singh, d. Shri Varun Gandhi, Who is the President of the Bharatiya Janata Party at, present?, a. Shri Rajnath Singh, b. Shri L K Advani, c. Shri Nitin Gadhkari, d. Shri Amit Shah, Which one of the following political seeks to represent, and secure power for Dalits, OBC’s and Adivasis?, a. Bahujan Samaj Party, b. Bharatiya Janata Party, c. Forward Block, d. Janata Dal (S), , 10. In which one of the following states does ‘Shiv Sena’, exist as a regional political party?, a. Gujarat, b. Karnataka, c. Maharashtra, d. Madhya Pradesh, 11. Which one of the following facilities is offered by the, Election Commission to a recognised political party?, a. Party Name, b. Manifesto, c. Election Symbol, d. Election Funds, 12. In which one the following states does ‘Biju Janata Dal’, exist as a regional political party?, a. Karnataka, b. Andhra Pradesh, c. Bihar, d. Orissa
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Political Parties, , 13. Which one of the following countries has one party, system?, a. China, b. Indo-China, c. Japan, d. Germany, 14. Which one among the following countries has a two-party, system?, a. United Kingdom, b. China, c. Indo-China, d. Japan, 15. During election the voters make many choices., Select the correct options., (i) Who will make laws for them?, (ii) Who will grant Fundamental Rights?, (iii) Who will form the government and take major, decisions?, (iv) Who will check the functioning of courts?, a. (i) and (iii), b. Only (ii), c. Only (iii), d. (ii) and (iv), 16. Which of the following statements about the reasons for, conducting elections are false?, a. Elections enable people to judge the performance of the, government, b. People select the representative of their choice in an, election,, c. Elections enable people to evaluate the performance of, the judiciary, d. People can indicate which policies they prefer, 17. Is it good to have political competition? Which of the, following statements justify this?, (i) It creates a sense of disunity and factionalism, (ii) Political competition helps to force political parties, and leaders to serve people, (iii) It gives a fair chance to people for the responsible, government, (iv) Political competition causes divisions and some, ugliness, a. (i), b. (iv), c. (ii) and (iii), d. (i) and (iv), , II.H.25, , 18. Which of the following statements regarding elections, and Election Commission hold true?, (i) Election Commission of India has enough powers to, conduct free and fair election in the country, (ii) There is a high level of popular participation in the, elections in our country, (iii) It is very easy for the party in power to win an, election, (iv) Many reforms are needed to make our elections, completely free and fair, a. (i), (ii), and (iii), b. (i), (ii), and (iv), c. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv), d. only (iii), 19. Which among the following is not correct?, a. The Election Commission conducts all elections for the, Parliament and Assemblies, b. The Election Commission directs and controls the, preparation of electoral rolls, c. The Election Commission cannot fix the election dates, d. The Election Commission does the scrutiny of, nomination papers, 20. Analyse the following statements regarding the fair, electoral practice., a. A minister flags off a new train in his constituency a, week before polling day., b. A candidate promises that she will get a new train for, her constituency if she is elected, c. Supporters of a candidate take the voters to a temple, and make them take an oath that they will vote for him, d. The supporters of a candidate distribute blankets in, slums in return for a promise for vote, 21. Here are some facts on Indian elections. Which of them, reflect the weakness of our electoral system?, (i) The Lok Sabha has always has less than 10 per cent, women members, (ii) The Election Commission often refuses to accept the, government’s advice about when the elections should be, held, (iii) The present Lok Shaba has more than 145 members, whose assets are more than Rs. 1 crore., (iv) After losing an election the Chief Minister says “I, respect the people’s verdict”., a. (i), b. (iii), c. (i) and (iii), d. (ii) and (iv)
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.H.26, , 22. Who appoints Chief Election Commissioner in India?, a. The Governor, b. The President of India, c. The Chief Justice, d. The Prime Minister, 23. Which of the following sentiments about the reason for, conducting elections are false?, a. Elections enable people to judge the performance of the, government, b. People select the representative of their choice in an, election, c. Elections enable people to evaluate the performance of, the judiciary, d. People can indicate which policies they prefer, 24. What are national parties?, a. Parties which have units in various states, b. Parties which have no units, c. Parties which have units in two states, d. Parties which have units in all states, 25. On what ideologies does the Indian National Congress, rest?, a. Communalism, b. Socialism, c. Federalism, d. Secularism, 26. Who is the founder of the Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP)?, a. Jyotiba Phule, b. Kanshi Ram, c. BR Ambedkar, d. Sahu Maharaj, , 27. Which party enjoys a strong hold in Tripura, West Bengal, and Kerala?, a. CPI (M), b. CPI, c. BSP, d. BJP, 28. Which out of the following is a state party?, a. INC, b. AGP, c. BJP, d. CPI (M), 29. When was the Indian National Congress formed?, a. 1885, b. 1977, c. 1980, d. 1989, 30. Which of the following countries has a single party, system?, a. Pakistan, b. Nepal, c. People’s Republic of China, d. Bangladesh, ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , b, , d, , a, , a, , d, , a, , b, , b, , b, , c, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , c, , d, , a, , d, , a, , c, , c, , b, , c, , b, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , c, , b, , c, , a, , d, , b, , a, , b, , a, , c, , 0,
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Democratic Rights, , II.H.27, , 7, , Democratic Rights, , Those claims recognised by the society and enforced by the, state are rights. Every right has a corresponding duty, Rights, are dynamic-they evolve as does duty and rights ensure, equality, freedom and justice. Examples of Violations of, Rights—Three Case Studies., Note, Saudi Arabia: Country is ruled by a hereditary king and, people have no role in electing or changing their rulers. The, king selects the legislature and the executive. He appoints the, judges and can change any of their decisions. Citizens cannot, form political organisations. Media cannot report anything that, the monarch does not like. There is no freedom of religion., Women are subjected to many public restrictions. Here the, government is denying its citizens basic rights., Guantanamo Bay, 600 people picked up by US forces from all over the world, and put in prison in Guantanamo Bay., These were considered enemies of US linked to the 9/11, attack on New York., No access given to media or UN. US Army kept them there, without any trial., A complete denial of Human Rights., Saudi Arabia, A country with an absolute monarcy, No freedom of speech, religion, media or to form political, associates, Many restrictions on women and discriminated against, Kosovo, It was Yugoslavia province before its split, There was a civil war between Serbs and Albanians, Many Albanians were killed, Finally this stopped after many countries intervened, The Serbian leader Milosevic was tried for crimes against, humanity, Why do we need rights in a democracy?, They are the basis of a democracy, They protect minorities from oppression of the majority, They protect the weak against the tyranny of the strong, , They protect citizens from the excesses of the government., The Fundamental Rights: Basic rights of citizens., The fundamental rights of many liberal democracies are similar, as equality before the law, freedom of speech and expression, and cultural and religious freedom are all a part of the basic, fundamental rights. However, there were traditionally six, important fundamental rights according to the Indian, Constitution. These rights are protected by the law and are, defined as the basic human rights of all citizens. Abiding by the, fundamental rights chapter, there is a list of fundamental duties, that need to be followed by the Indian citizen. Here is the list of, fundamental rights in India., I. Right to Equality, Establishes the rule of law, i.e., the laws apply to all in the, same manner., Equality opportunity to all., No discrimination against any citizen on the basis of caste,, religion, ethnicity, sex or place of birth., Equal access to all to public places like parks, wells, tanks,, bathing ghats, etc., No discrimination even for govt. jobs excepting, reservations for SC, ST and OBS following the principle of, protective discrimination., Abolishment untouchability., No titles except academic or military in nature., II., , , , , , , , , , Right to Freedom, Freedom of speech and expression., Freedom of assemble peacefully., Freedom of association., Freedom to travel to any part of the country or reside in any, part of the country., Freedom to follow any profession., But these freedoms are not absolute and may be withdrawn to, maintain peace and harmony., This right also contains right to life, personal liberty and, rights of a person accused of a crime., The right to profess, propagate and practice any religion the, citizen believes in is also a part of this right.
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II.H.28, , III. Right against Exploitation, The constitution mentions three specific evils making them, illegal., Human trafficking, i.e., selling and buying of human, beings., Forced labour, or beggar in any form where a worker, renders ‘free service or at a nominal remuneration’., Child labour is also prohibited by law-children below the, age of 14 years cannot be made to work in a factory, mine,, or in any hazardous work., IV. Right to Freedom of Religion, India is a secular country and right to freedom of religion to, all its citizens ensures that all states treat all the religions, neutrally., Every Indian citizen has religious freedom and can follow, any religion of their choice., Right to freedom of religion also promotes a right to, preach, practice and propagate any religion of their choice, and guarantees freedom of conscience to all Indian citizens., V. Cultural and Educational Rights:, The cultural and educational rights include the right to, education and help to conserve various heritages of, minorities and protect them from discrimination., This fundamental right safeguards the minorities and, prohibits discrimination against any citizen for admission, into any educational institutions based on religion, race, caste or language, subject to reservations in the state., This fundamental right also allows minorities to set up and, administer educational institutions to preserve their, heritage., VI. Right to Constitutional Remedies, Right to Constitutional Remedies allows Indian citizens to, approach the Supreme Court of India to protect their, fundamental rights., The Supreme Court has rights to protect the fundamental, rights of citizens even against private bodies, and can also, award compensation to the affected individuals., The Supreme Court of India is seen as a designated, protector of these rights by the Constitution., How to Secure these Rights, Everyone has a right to enforce Fundamental Rights; This is, called Right to Constitutional Remedies., A person who is denied rights can go directly to the, Supreme Court or High Court of the state., Fundamental Rights are guaranteed against action of the, legislature, executive and other authorities., , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , The Supreme Court and High Court C can issue writs for, the enforcement of Fundamental Rights., A person can also file a PIL (Public Interest Litigation)., Expanding Scope of Rights, Our Constitution and law offer a wide range of rights., The scope of rights has expanded over the years., School education has become a right., Parliament has enacted the Right to Information (RTI)., The right to life was expanded to include right food., There is pressure on government all over the world to, accept human rights., Constitution of South Africa includes new rights like right, to privacy, environment, adequate housing, access to health, care, food and work., Fundamental Duties in Indian Constitution: It says “it shall, be the duty of every citizen of India”:, 1. To abide by the constitution and respect its ideal and, institutions., 2. To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our, national struggle for freedom., 3. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity, of India., 4. To defend the country and render national service when, called upon to do so., 5. To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood, amongst all the people of India transcending religious,, linguistic and regional diversities, to renounce practices, derogatory to the dignity of women., 6. To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite, culture., 7. To protect and improve the natural environment including, forests, lakes, rivers, and wild-life and to have compassion, for living creatures., 8. To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit, of inquiry and reform., 9. To safeguard public property and to abjure violence., 10. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and, collective activity, so that the nation constantly rises to, higher levels of endeavor and achievement., Further, one more Fundamental duty has been added to the, Indian Constitution by 86th Amendment of the constitution, in 2002., 11. Who is a parent or guardian, to provide opportunities for, education to his child, or as the case may be, ward between, the age of 6 to 14 years.
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Democratic Rights, , II.H.29, , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , Which of the following is not an instance of an exercise, of a fundamental right?, a. Workers from Bihar go to the Punjab to work on the, farms., b. Christian missions set up a chain of missionary, schools., c. Men and women government employees get the same, salary., d. Parents’ property is inherited by their children, Which of the following freedoms is not available to an, Indian citizen?, a. Freedom to criticise the government, b. Freedom to participate in armed revolution, c. Freedom to start a movement to change the government, d. Freedom to oppose the central values of the, Constitution, Which of the following rights is available under the, Indian Constitution?, a. Right to work, b. Right to adequate livelihood, c. Right to protect one’s culture, d. Right to privacy, Which right bans untouchabiltiy?, a. Right to Equality, b. Right to Freedom, c. Educational and Cultural Right, d. Right against exploitation, The Jain community has opened its own educational, institutions. This is a reflection of which right?, a. Right to Freedom, b. Right to Freedom of Religion, c. Right to Equality, d. Cultural and Educational Right, The Right which enforces Fundamental Right is:, a. Right to Equality, b. Right against Exploitation, c. Cultural and Educational Right, d. Right to Constitutional Remedies, Writs are issued under, a. Right to equality, b. Right to freedom, c. Right against exploitation, d. Right to Constitutional Remedies, , 8., , Women do not have the right to vote in which of the, following countries?, a. India, b. Saudi Arabia, c. Nepal, d. Britain, , 9., , Rights are, a. All claims of individuals, b. Some claims of individuals over citizens, c. Those claims recognized by the society and enforced by, the State, d. All of the above, , 10. We need rights, a. to give certain freedoms to the majority, b. to allow the govt. to maintain law and order, c. to protect the minorities from oppression of the, majority, d. to allow the people to do what they wish to, 11. Which right protects the culture of minorities?, a. Right to equality, b. Right to freedom, c. Right to freedom of religion, d. Educational and cultural rights, 12. What does the freedom of speech and expression not, include?, a. Right to criticise the govt., b. Right to defame a person, c. Publish a matter criticising a person, d. All of the above, 13. ‘Begar’ is a practice of, a. child labour, b. paying law wages, c. rendering services free of charge, d. begging, 14. What does the word ‘secular’ mean?, a. The state in anti-religion, b. Only one religion is allowed, c. Only one religion is allowed to exist, d. The state has no religion, 15. The National Human Rights Commission was set up in, a. 1990, b. 1993, c. 1998, d. 2000
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.H.30, , 16. The National Human Rights Commission is appointed by, the, a. Legislature, b. Judiciary, c. President, d. None of the above, 17. Which right was called ‘the heart and soul’ of the, Constitution by Dr Ambedkar?, a. Right to Equality, b. Right to Freedom, c. Cultural and Educational Rights, d. Right to Constitutional Remedies, 18. Identify the correct option regarding Rule of Law., a. Reasonable claims of persons are recognised by the, society and sanctioned by law., b. The laws apply equally to all regardless of a person’s, status., c. Freedom of speech and expression, d. According to law, citizen has a right not to be exploited, 19. Which one of the following does not mean the Right of, Religion?, a. A person is free to change religion on his/her will, b. A person can sacrifice animals or human beings as, offerings to supernatural forces or gods, 0, , c. A person has the right to propagate his religion, d. Every religious sect is free its manage its religious, affairs, 20. We need Rights in a Democracy because?, (i) Rights protect minorities from the oppression of, majority, (ii) Rights ensure individual liberty, (iii) Rights guarantee limitation on an individual’s right to, equality, (iv) Rights are placed higher than the government to, check the government’s misuse of power., Select the correct options., a. Only (iii), b. Only (iv), c. All (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv), d. Only (i), (ii) and (iv), ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , d, , b, , c, , a, , d, , d, , d, , b, , b, , c, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , d, , b, , c, , d, , b, , b, , d, , d, , b, , c, ,
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Power Sharing, , II.H.31, , 8, , Power Sharing, , Power sharing is the very spirit of democracy. A democratic, rule involves sharing power with those affected by its exercise,, and who have to live with its effects. All communities, social, groups get their say in the governance. People have a right to, be consulted on how they are to be governed., A legitimate government is one where citizens, through, participation, acquire a stake in the system., Note, In a democracy, power is shared among different organs of, the government such as the legislature, executive and, judiciary. This is called as the horizontal distribution of, power because it allows different organs of government, placed at the same level to exercise different powers. Under, this kind of power sharing arrangement no organ of the, government can exercise unlimited powers. Each organ has, its own powers and checks the powers of others. This results, in a balance of power among various institutions., Indian Government, Legislature, , Executive, Horizontal, , Judiciary, , Reasons which Make Power-sharing Desirable, Prudential: Reduces the possibility of conflicts between, different social groups. Social conflicts lead to violence,, political instability. Prevents groups from overstepping, their rights to enhance their own power. No single group, can subvert the constitution, power sharing unites the, nation. When a power is not shared, it oppresses the, minority and even the majority is ruined., Moral: The spirit of democracy calls for power sharing., People who are affected by the policies must have a hand in, shaping those policies. Citizens’ participation is a, must. Moral reasons make power sharing essential and, valuable., Belgium, Geographical Position: Small country in Europe, bordered, by the Netherlands, France and Germany. Area and, Population: Smaller in area than the Indian state of, , , , , , , , , Haryana, population a little over 1 crore, half of the state of, Haryana. Ethnic, Composition: 59% live in Flemish region-speak Dutch,, 40% live in Wallonia region-speak French and 1% speaks, German, Brussels (Capital) 805 speak French, and 20%, speak Dutch., In Brussels, the Dutch-speaking people are in a minority, which is the opposite of the rest of the country, where they, are in majority., The minority population of French speaking people was, richer than the Dutch speaking people., The majority communities were given benefits much later., This led to tension between the two communities in the, 1950s and 1960s. Tension was more acute in the capital city, of Brussels., , The Belgian Method, Equal number of Dutch and French speaking Ministers in, the Central Government., Special laws to become Acts need a majority from each, language group., State Governments are not made subordinate to central, government., A separate Government for Brussels, equal representation, for both the linguistic groups., A third government called the community Government, elected by the Dutch, French and German-speaking people,, in charge of language, cultural and educational issues., Accommodation in Belgium, Belgium unlike Sri Lanka has taken a totally different, stand. It amended the constitution to accommodate every, ethnic community, with the result that it did not suffer from, a civil war, demands for autonomy or partition of the, country., Sri Lanka, Geographical Position: A Small island in Asia, off the, southern coast of Tamil Nadu., Population: Same as Haryana’s about 2 crore people., Ethnic Composition: 74% Sinhalese-speaking people 18%, Tamil-speaking people, 13% are natives of Sri Lanka,
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II.H.32, , known as Sri Lankan Tamils. The rest are called Tamil, Lankas who are descendants of plantation workers, who, came from India during the colonial period., Religion: Most of the Sinhala-speaking people are, Buddhists. Most of the Tamils are Hindus or Muslims., Christians constitute 7% of the population and they belong, to both Sinhala and Tamil communities., Majoritarianism in Sri Lanka: A belief that only the, majority community should rule a country, make laws for, everyone and with total disregard to the wishes and needs, of the minority. Sri Lanka became independent in 1948. It, immediately adopted measures to impose Sinhala, supremacy. It made Sinhalese the official language of the, country (by an act in 1956), and ignored Tamil completely., Made a preferential policy to favour Sinhala speaking, people in all government jobs and educational institutions., It promoted and protected Buddhism., Result, The Tamils felt alienated. No respect or recognition was, given to their language, culture and religion., They began a struggle for equality in jobs, entry to the, university, recognition of their language and culture., Slowly the conflict changed into a demand for regional, autonomy., The Tamilians were grouped together in the North and East, of Sri Lanka. They Tamil Eelam in the North and East., Their demands were ignored the conflict became more, severe and by the 1980s, the Tamilian demand had, changed., A civil war ensured, which killed thousands on both sides., The flourishing economy of Sri Lanka has disappeared and, the conflict has given a blow to social, cultural and, economic life of Sri Lanka., Power Sharing in India, India is a democratic country. One basic principle of, democracy is that people are the source of all political, power., People of India elect their representative through direct, franchise and representatives elect the government to make, or amend rules and regulations and to carry out day to day, functioning of governance., In a democracy, people rule themselves through institutions, of self-governance. In a good democratic government, due, respect is given to diverse groups and views that exist in a, society., , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Everyone has a voice in the shaping of public policies., Therefore, it follows that in a democracy political forms of, power sharing power should be distributed among as many, citizens as possible., Power Sharing in Different Organs of Government, Power is shared among different organs of government,, such as the legislature, executive and judiciary., The horizontal distribution of power allows different organs, of government placed at the same level to exercise different, powers., Such a separation ensures that none of the organs can, exercise unlimited power. Each organ checks the others., This results in a balance of power among various, institutions., Ministers and government officials exercise power; they are, responsible to the Parliament or State Assemblies., Judges can check the functioning of executive or laws made, by the legislatures. This arrangement is called a system of, checks and balances., Power Sharing at Different Levels, Power can be shared among governments at different levels, a general government for the entire country and, governments at the provincial or regional level., Such a general government for the entire country is usually, called federal government., In India, we refer to it as the Central or Union Government., The governments at the provincial or regional level are, called by different names in different countries., In India, we call them State Governments. State, Governments and Central Government have their distinct, areas to exercise power. This is called federal division of, power., Power Sharing among Social Groups, Power may also be shared among different social groups,, such as the religious and linguistic groups., Indian constitution has provision for reservation of different, communities like minorities, OBCs, SC and ST and, women., Power Sharing among Various Pressure Groups, Power sharing arrangements can also be seen in the way, political parties, pressure groups and movements control or, influence those in power., In a democracy, the citizens must have freedom to choose, among various contenders for power. In contemporary
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Power Sharing, , democracies this takes the form of competition among, different parties., Such competition ensures that power does not remain in, one hand. In the long run power is shared among different, political parties that represent different ideologies and, social groups., Sometimes this kind of sharing can be direct, when two or, more parties form an alliance to contest elections., , II.H.33, , If their alliance is elected, they form a coalition government, and thus share power. In a democracy, we find interest, groups such as those of traders, businessmen, industrialists,, farmers and industrial workers., They also will have a share in governmental power, either, through participation in governmental committees or, bringing influence on the decision making process., , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , When did Sri Lanka gain Independence?, a. 15th August, 1947, b. 4th February, 1947, c. 4th February, 1948, d. 4th February, 1950, , 2., , From which country did Sri Lanka won its independence?, a. Belgium, b. France, c. Spain, d. England, , 3., , Name two of the languages spoken in Sri Lanka., a. English, b. French, c. Sinhala, d. Tamil, , 4., , Which language was recognised as the official language, after independence in Sri Lanka?, a. Sinhala, b. Tamil, c. Portuguese, d. English, , 5., , When did Belgium gain independence?, a. February 4, 1948, b. August 15, 1947, c. June 21, 1849, d. April 19, 1839, , 6., , Which one of the following languages is spoken in, Belgium?, a. Dutch, b. French, c. German, d. Spanish, , 10. Which two among the following are valid reasons for, power sharing?, a. All section of the society are given a share in the, administration of their country, b. Only the people of the majority community enjoy all, the political rights, c. It is more democratic, d. No other group other than the majority group can take, part in election, 11. Which of the following minority communities is, relatively rich and powerful in Belgium?, a. French, b. Dutch, c. German, d. English, 12. What is the %age of Sinhala speaking in Sri Lanka?, Choose the correct option from the following:, a. 58, b. 74, c. 65, d. 82, 13., , Which among the following does Belgium share its, borders with?, a. Italy, b. Germany, c. Austria, d. None of these, , 14. What is the predominant language spoken by Belgians?, a. French, b. German, c. Dutch, d. English, , 7., , How many times was Belgium constitution amended?, a. Twice, b. Thrice, c. Four times, d. Five times, , 8., , Which one of the following is the main religion of Sri, Lankans?, a. Hinduism, b. Buddhism, c. Christianity, d. Islam, , 16. Most Sinhala-speakers follow________., a. Christianity, b. Islam, c. Buddhism, d. Hinduism, , 9., , In which of the following countries majoritarianism is, followed?, a. Belgium, b. Sri Lanka, c. India, d. England, , 17. The Civil War in Sri Lanka was caused due to:, a. Distrust between Sinhala and Tamils, b. Distrust between Indian Tamils and native Tamils, c. Distrust between Tamils and Sinhala, d. None of these, , 15. What is the predominant language spoken in Brussels, (Belgium’s capital)?, a. French, b. English, c. German d. Dutch
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.H.34, , 18. Why is power sharing regarded as good?, a. Reduces social conflict, b. Reduces poverty, c. Maximises wealth, d. Provides employment, , 22. The other name for regional governments in India:, a. Provincial governments, b. State governments, c. Community governments, d. None of these, , 19. Tyranny of the ________, is not oppressive for the, minority; it often brings ruin to the majority., a. Ruler, b. Majority, c. State, d. None of these, , 23. Which out of the following has a community government, kind of power sharing arrangement?, a. Sri Lanka, b. India, c. Belgium, d. France, , 20. In a democracy, political power should be:, a. Collected, b. Non-existent, c. Distributed, d. None of these, , ANSWERS, , 21. Power is shared among different___________ of the, government., a. Organs, b. Levels, c. Social groups, d. Both (a.) and (b.), , 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , c, , d, , c, d, , a, , d, , d, , c, , b, , b, , a, c, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , a, , b, , b, , c, , a, , c, , a, , a, , b, , c, , 21., , 22., , 23., , d, , b, , c, ,
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Federalism, , II.H.35, , 9, Federalism is a system of government in which the power is, divided between a central authority and various constituent, units of the country. Usually, a federation has two levels of, government. One is the government for the entire country that, is usually responsible for a few subjects of common national, interest. The others are governments at the level of provinces, or states that look after much of the day-to-day administering, of their state. Both these levels of governments enjoy their, power independent of the other. An ideal federal system has, mutual trust and agreement to live together. Therefore, two, aspects are crucial for the institutions and practice of, federalism. Governments at different levels should agree to, some rules of power sharing., Features of Federalism, There are two or more levels/tiers of government. Different, tiers of government govern the same citizens, but each tier, has its own jurisdiction in specific matters of legislation,, taxation and administration., The fundamental provisions of the constitution cannot be, unilaterally changed by one level of government. Such, changes require the consent of both the levels of, government., Courts have the power to interpret the constitution and the, powers of different levels of government. The highest court, acts as an umpire if disputes arise between different, levels of government in the exercise of their respective, powers., The jurisdictions of the respective levels or tiers of, government are specified in the constitution. So the, existence and authority of each tier of government is, constitutionally guaranteed., Sources of revenue for each level of government are clearly, specified to ensure its financial autonomy., The federal system has dual objectives to safeguard and, promote unity of the country, while at the same time, accommodate regional diversity., The Constitution demarcates the powers of the central and the, state governments into different lists of subjects. There are, broadly three lists: Union, State and Concurrent lists., , Federalism, Federal Government: Two or more levels of government. In, the federal system, the central government cannot order the, state governments to do something. State government has its, own power which is separately answerable to the people., Unitary Government: Only one level of there is sub-units,, they are subordinate to the central government. The central, government can pass orders to the provincial or local, government. The national government has all powers., Balance of Power: The balance of power between the central, and the state government varies from one federation to another., This balance depends mainly on the historical context in which, the federation was formed. There are two kinds of routes, through which federations have been formed., The first route involves independent States coming together, on their own to form a bigger unit, so that by pooling, sovereignty and retaining identity they can increase their, security. This type of ‘coming together’ federations, includes the USA, Switzerland and Australia. In this first, category of federations, all the constituent States usually, have equal power and are strong vis-à-vis the federal, government., The second route is where a large country decides to divide, its power between the constituent States and the national, government. India, Spain and Belgium are examples of this, kind of ‘holding together’ federations. In this second, category, the central government tends to be more powerful, vis-à-vis the States. Very often different constituent units of, the federation have unequal powers. Some units are granted, special powers., Note, Residuary List: Anything out of above mentioned lists is, taken as residuary subject. Union Government has the power to, legislate on these subjects., Special Status: Jammu and Kashmir has its own Constitution., Many provisions of the Indian Constitution are not applicable, to this State without the approval of the State Assembly., Indians who are not permanent residents of this State, cannot buy land or house here. Similar special provisions, exist for some other States of India as well.
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II.H.36, , Federation: A Federation is better equipped to take care of, minority interests. Federations’ Independent states voluntarily, form a bigger union. They enhance their security by pooling, their sovereignty and identity. The states and the centre have, equal powers. Example: USA, Australia, Switzerland, A large country decides to divide its power between the, states and the central government. The central government, is always more powerful than the regional states. Some, units have special powers. Different constituent units have, unequal powers. Example: India, Spain and Belgium, The Indian Federation: The Constitution is Federal in, character and declared India as a Union of States. The, Constitution originally provided for a two-tier system of, government, the Union Government or what we call the, Central Government, representing the Union of India and the, State governments. Later, a third tier of federalism was added, in the form of Panchayati and Municipalities., List of Jurisdiction, Union list: Subjects of national importance like defense, foreign affairs, atomic energy, banking, post and, telegraph are included in the Union List. The central, government can pass laws on the subjects mentioned in the, Union List. The Union Government alone can make laws, relating to the subjects mentioned in the Union List. It has, 97 subjects. It includes subjects of national importance such, as defense of the country, foreign, banking,, communications and currency. They are included in this list, because we need a uniform policy on these matters, throughout the country., State list: It comprises those important subjects on which, the state government can pass laws. Subjects like police,, local government, trade and commerce within the state and,, agriculture are included in the State List. The State, Governments alone can make laws relating to the subjects, mentioned in the State List. It has 66 subjects. It contains, subjects of State and local importance such as police, trade,, commerce, agriculture and irrigation., Concurrent list: The concurrent List comprises the, subjects which are of common concern both to the centre, and the state government. Ordinarily both the central and, the state governments can frame laws on these subjects., Both the Union as well as the State Governments can make, laws on the subjects mentioned in this list. It has 47, , A Complete Study Guide For NTSE, , subjects. It includes subjects of common interest to both the, Union Government as well as the State Governments, such, as education, forest, trade unions, marriage, adoption and, succession. If their laws conflict with each other, the law, made by the Union Government will prevail., Union Territories: There are some units of the Indian Union, which enjoy very little power. These are areas which are too, small to become an independent State but which could not be, merged with any of the existing States; e.g., Chandigarh, or, Lakshadweep or the capital city of Delhi., These territories do not have the powers of a State. The, Central Government has special powers in running these, areas. This sharing of power between the Union, Government and the State governments is basic to the, structure of the Constitution., Centre–State Relations: Restructuring the Centre–State, relations is one more way in which federalism has been, strengthened in practice., Before 1990: Same party ruled the Centre and most of the, states. This led to the state governments not exercising their, rights as autonomous federal units. Spirit of federalism, undermined by the central government as they often, dismissed state governments controlled by rival parties., After 1990: Rise of regional parties after 1996 changed the, situation. An era of “coalition governments” at the centre, began. Since no single party got a clear majority in the, Parliament the major national parties formed alliances with, several regional parties to form government at the centre., The state government now cannot be dismissed by the, centre arbitrarily., Federalism in India, Linguistic states: The creation of linguistic states was the, first and a major test for democratic politics in our country., Since independence, many old states have vanished and, many new states have been created. This was done to, ensure that people who spoke the same language lived in, the same state. Some states were created not on the basis of, language but to recognise differences based on culture,, ethnicity or geography. These include States like Nagaland,, Uttarakhand and Jharkhand. Experience has shown that the, formation of linguistic States has actually made the country,, more united., Language policy: Hindi was identified as the official, language. But Hindi is the mother tongue of only about 40
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Federalism, , percent of Indians. Therefore, there were many safeguards, to protect other languages. Besides Hindi, there are 21 other, languages recognised as Scheduled Languages by the, Constitution., Linguistic Diversity of India: Linguistic diversity has been an, asset as our people now have access to literature produced in, other regional languages. Even after this grouping, the Census, found 114 major languages. Of these 22 languages are now, included in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution and, are therefore called ‘Scheduled Languages’., As per the latest Census Report, 1991 of India held in 1991, there are 1500 distinct languages. These languages were, grouped together under some major languages. For example, languages like Bhojpuri, Magadhi, Bundelkhandi,, Chhattisgarhi, Rajasthani, Bhili and many others were, grouped together under ‘Hindi’. Others are called ‘nonScheduled Languages’. In terms of languages, India is, perhaps the most diverse country in the world., Decentralisation in India: In 1992 a major step towards, decentralisation was taken. The Constitution was amended to, make the third tier of democracy more powerful and effective., A vast country like India cannot be run only through two tiers, of government as discussed above. Many of these States are, internally very diverse in terms of dialects or local languages, spoken, in terms of eating habits and cultures. Therefore,, federal power sharing in India needs another tier of, government, below that of the State governments. This is the, rationale for decentralisation of power. The basic idea behind, decentralization is that there are a large number of problems, and issues which are best settled at the local level., Besides, at the local level it is possible for the people to, directly participate in decision making., The State governments are required to share some powers, and revenue with local government bodies. The nature of, sharing varies from State-to-State., Multiple Choice Questions, 1. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of, Federalism?, a. There is a division of power between the Centre and, the state, b. There is focus on both Central and State issues, c. The power is centred around the Central Government, d. All of these, , II.H.37, , This helps to inculcate a habit of democratic participation., Local government is the best way to realise one important, principle of democracy, namely local self-government., An independent institution called the State Election, Commission has been created in each State to conduct, Panchayat and Municipal elections., Now it is, constitutionally mandatory to hold regular elections to local, government bodies., Rural local government is popularly known by the name, Panchayati raj. The Panchayat works under the overall, supervision of the Gram Sabha. All the voters in the village, are its members. It has to meet at least twice or thrice in a, year to approve the annual budget of the Gram Panchayat, and to review the performance of the Gram Panchayat., The local government structure goes right up to the district, level. A few Gram Panchayats are grouped together to form, what is usually called a Panchayat Samiti or block or, mandal. All the Panchayat Samitis or mandals in a district, together constitute the Zila (district) Parishad., Most members of the Zila Parishad. are elected. Members, of the Lok Sabha and MLAs of that district and some other, officials of other district level bodies are also its members., Zila Parishad chairperson is the political head of the Zila, Parishad., Note, This new system of local government is the largest experiment, in democracy conducted anywhere in the world. There are now, about 36 lakh elected representatives in the Panchayats and, municipalities etc., all over the country. This number is bigger, than the population of many countries in the world., Constitutional status for local government has helped to deepen, democracy in our country., , 2., , In which one of the following countries, there is not a, federal form of government?, a. United States of America, b. Canada, c. Australia, d. Argentina
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A Complete Study Guide For NTSE, , II.H.38, , 3., , In which two of the following countries, there is a Unitary, form of Government?, a. Belgium, b. France, c. Japan, d. Argentina, , 13. Which out of the following countries can be classified as, a ‘coming together’ federation?, a. China, b. Japan, c. Australia, d. India, , 4., , How many countries have federalism in the world?, a. About 25, b. About 35, c. About 45, d. About 65, , 5., , Which one of the following large countries has not, adopted federalism?, a. USA, b. China, c. India, d. Brazil, , 14. Which out of the following countries can be classified as, a ‘holding together’ federation?, a. USA, b. Germany, c. France, d. Spain, , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , Which one of the following countries fall in the category, of ‘coming together federation’?, a. India, b. USA, c. Spain, d. Belgium, Which two of the following countries follow holding, together style of federalism?, a. India, b. Spain, c. Australia, d. Switzerland, Which two of the following states have special status in, India?, a. Jammu and Kashmir, b. Uttarakhand, c. Himachal Pradesh, d. Hilly states of North-East India, Which two of the following states have been formed, recently?, a. Uttarakhand, b. Orissa, c. Jharkhand, d. Maharashtra, , 10. Which is the most diverse country in the world according, to language?, a. Australia, b. USA, c. Brazil, d. India, 11. Belgium shifted from a___________to a federal form of, government., a. Military, b. Unitary, c. Monarchy, d. Democratic, 12, , Which out of the following is an aspect of an ideal federal, system?, a. Mutual trust, b. Economic growth, c. Wealth maximisation, d. None of these, , 15. What was the third tier added to the Indian government, later?, a. Local, b. Regional, c. Judiciary, d. None of these, 16. Which out of the following in included in the Union List?, a. Trade, b. Foreign affairs, c. Police, d. Marriage, 17. In which List do agriculture and irrigation fall?, a. Concurrent List, b. Union List, c. State List, d. Both a and b, 18. Which state in India enjoys a special status that of having, its own constitution?, a. Punjab, b. Himachal, c. Kerala, d. J & K, 19. Which out of the following states in India does not have, the powers of a state?, a. Jharkhand, b. Uttarakhand, c. Delhi, d. Tamil Nadu, 20. What is the official language of India?, a. Hindi, b. English, c. Bengali, d. None of these, 21., , Where did India conduct its nuclear tests?, a. Odisha, b. Rajasthan, c. Maharashtra, d. Gujarat, , 22. Which out of the following states is not infected by the, Naxalite movements?, a. Andhra Pradesh, b. Kerala, c. Jharkhand, d. Odisha, 23. Which out of the following states was born out of culture,, ethnicity and geography?, a. Uttar Pradesh, b. Nagaland, c. Mizoram, d. Assam, 24. How many languages are included in the Eighth Schedule, of the Indian Constitution?, a. 11, b. 22, c. 20, d. 16
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Federalism, , II.H.39, , 25. Rural local government is popularly known as:, a. Panchayati Raj, b. Zila Parishad, c. Gram Panchayat, d. None of these, 26. The other name for Panchayat Samiti (gram panchayats, grouped together) is:, a. Gram sabha, b. Panchayat, c. Mandal, d. None of these, 27. Local government bodies for urban areas are called:, a. Zila Parishad, b. Muncipal Corporation, c. Council, d. None of these, 28. Zila Parishad is the local government at the:, a. Village level, b. State level, c. District level, d. None of these, , 29. Which country has carried out an extraordinary experiment, that combines both, decentralisation and participative, democracy?, a. India, b. Germany, c. England, d. Brazil, 30. Where in India was a similar experiment carried out?, a. Jammu, b. Kerala, c. Himachal, d. Gujarat, ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , c, , d, , b,c, , a, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , b, , d, , a,b, , a,d, , a,c, , d, , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , b, , a, , c, , d, , a, , b, , c, , d, , c, , a, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , b, , b, , b, , b, , a, , c, , b, , c, , d, , b, ,
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II.H.40, , 10, Social divisions within a nation are not limited to just language, of region. The presence of different socio-economic group,, different religious groups, different linguistic groups, different, cultural groups and different caste groups can be termed as, diversity in society. India is a perfect example of diverse, nation. In India people of almost all major religion of this, world can be found. There are thousands of languages, variety, of food habits, all hues of costumes and myriad variety of, cultures and subcultures in India., Note, Social division takes place when some social difference, overlaps with many other differences. The difference between, the Blacks and Whites became a social division in the US and, South Africa because historically most of the blacks were poor,, homeless and discriminated against. In India Dalits tend to be, poor and landless. They often face discrimination and injustice., These kinds of situations produce social divisions which are, harmful for democracy and weaken the basic foundation of, democracy. When one kind of social difference becomes more, important than any other and people start feeling that they, belong to different communities this can lead to disintegration, of the country., Social Divisions can have Many Forms: Almost all human, societies practice gender based division of social roles., Social divisions can be based on regional differences (as in, Belgium and Sri Lanka- different languages spoken in, different regions)., They can be based on different religions (Sri Lanka)., They can be based on racial discrimination (USA, South, Africa)., Social divisions can lead to social inequalities. All social, differences do not result in social divisions. Some can unite, people also. Two kinds of social divisions:, Based on accident of birth., Based on people’s own choices., Diversity in Politics: Diversity as perfect stimulus to politics, done to ensure uninterrupted control over resources and power., This was as per the caste system of ancient Hindu scriptures;, society was divided into four classes based on area of work. In, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Diversity in Society, India more and more people started getting access to modern, methods of education, partly because of British influence and, partly because of liberal policies followed by successive, governments., Nobody is sure what was the situation originally but over a, period of time this developed into a caste and class system, which was strictly based on one's birth in a particular caste., The so-called upper caste people controlled every, economical resource and lower caste people were oppressed, to prevent them from developing in the socio-economic, order., The economic prosperity ultimately leads to social up, gradation. History is full of example when some, economically stronger social group tried to dominate the, comparatively weaker sections., Apart from this the fourth estate, media increased political, awareness among vast sections of the society., Overlapping: Under this, a social difference overlaps another, difference. Under this people start feeling that they belong to, different communities. These create possibilities of deep social, divisions. For example, difference between Blacks and the, Whites in USA is an overlapping difference because the Blacks, tend to be poor, homeless and discriminated., Cross-cutting: A social difference crosscuts another, difference. Under this, the group can share a common interest, on one issue but are likely to be in different sides on different, issues. These are easier to accommodate. In Netherlands class, and religion tend to cut across each other as Catholics and, Protestants are about equally likely to be poor on rich., Steps to Include Fringe Groups into Mainstream by, Government: After independence, the constitution makers, made two radical provisions, which were to frame India's, destiny in the right direction., The first provision was to give the right to vote to every, adult citizen of this country. Many experts in those days, laughed at the idea giving. The reason given was highly, illiterate population was not fit to use the right judiciously.
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Diversity in Society, , The second provision was to give reservation to the, Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes to include them in, the mainstream of the life of the nation., These two provisions helped grow the level of political, awareness amongst the people of hinterland. In fact it took, hundreds of years for developed countries like US and UK, to provide voting rights to women., In a Hindu majority nation a Muslim President was, administering oath of office to a Sikh Prime Minister who was, chosen for the job by a Catholic woman. The statement should, make every Indian proud of its rich diversity and the respect, for diversity which majority of its citizens have imbibed over a, period of time., , II.H.41, , The Outcomes of Social Divisions: Social divisions will be, reflected in politics and political parties will refer to these, divisions. Political parties would try to redress the grievances, of minorities. If people think they are Indians first, and then, they are Bengali, Punjabi, etc., or a religious or language, group, then there will be no conflict., Political parties in India tend to exploit religion for political, gains. This lead to dangerous consequences., Peace remains if one community does not try to dominate, the others. For example, in Sri Lanka the demands of “only, Sinhala” were at the cost of Tamil speaking community,, etc., , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , Where were the Olympics held in 1968?, a. Washington, b. London, c. Paris, d. Mexico City, , 2., , Which two US athletes showed their resentment against, the racial discrimination policy of the United States?, a. Peter Norman, b. Tommie Smith, c. Adam Smith, d. John Carlos, , 3., , 4., , Who was the Australian athlete who showed sympathy, and support to the above two Americans?, a. Henry Walpole, b. John Conard Appnal, c. Martin Luther, d. Peter Norman, Social divisions and differences are based on which one, important factor?, a. Accident of birth, b. Migration, c. Adopting New Profession, d. Adopting New Religion, , 5., , Name any two Asian countries in which there was, conflict between two linguistic and ethnic groups., a. Iran, b. Iraq, c. Sri Lanka, d. Israel, , 6., , Name the conflicting groups of people is Sri Lanka., a. The Tamils, b. The Buddhist, c. The Christians, d. The Sinhalese, , 7., , Which one of the following causes led to the disintegration, of Yugoslavia?, a. Foreign attack, b. Political divisions on religious and ethnic lines, c. Economic crisis, d. Epidemic, , 8., , What are the two social division of US society?, a. The Whites, b. The French, c. The Spanish, d. The Blacks, , 9., , Who are African-Americans?, a. Their ancestors were African who later on migrated, to America, b. Their ancestors were Americans who later on, migrated to Africa, c. They were brought to America from Africa as slave, d. They belonged to Black-White mixed race, , 10., , Which two of the following are responsible for social, diversity?, a. Cultural differences, b. Linguistic differences, c. Economic differences, d. Political differences, , 11., , What feat did John Carlos achieve?, a. Led the Civil Rights Movement in USA, b. Won the bronze medal in the 1986 Olympics, c. Led the Black Power Movement, d. None of these
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.H.42, , 12., , What gesture of Tommie Smith and John Carlos, symbolised Black Power in America?, a. Black-gloved and raised clenched fists, b. Wearing a human rights badge, c. Black socks with no shoes, d. None of these, , 13., , The silver medallist who showed his support to the two, Afro-American athletes:, a. Carl Lewis, b. Michael Jordan, c. Peter Norman, d. None of these, , 14., , A homogenous society is that which has similar kinds, of____________., a. Recipes, b. Rules, c. Differences, d. People, , 15., , _________involves competition among various political, parties., a. Democracy, b. Conflicts, c. Social divisions, d. None of these, , 16., , Which region of the UK has been the site for violent, and bitter ethno-political conflict?, a. Switzerland, b. Northern Ireland, c. Netherlands, d. None of these, , 17., , Yugoslavia disintegrated into how many countries?, a. Five, b. Four, c. Six, d. Two, , 18., , Which is the third crucial factor in deciding the outcome, of politics of social divisions?, a. People perceiving their identities, b. People leaders raising the demands, c. Expression of various kinds of demands, d. Government reacting to the demands, , 19., , Political expression of social division best help:, a. Political leaders, b. Marginalised social groups, c. Political parties, d. None of these, , 20., , Democracy is the best way to fight for recognition and, accommodate____., a. Diversity, b. Repression, c. Hostility, d. Poverty, , ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , d, , b, d, , d, , a, , a, b, , a, b, , b, , a, d, , a, , a, b, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , b, , a, , c, , d, , a, , b, , c, , d, , b, , a, ,
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Gender, Religion and Caste, , 11, , II.H.43, , Gender, Religion and Caste, , A system in which all work inside the home is either done by, the women of the family, or organised by them through the, domestic helpers. The result of this division of labour is that, although women constitute half of the humanity, their role in, public life, especially politics, is minimal in most societies., Earlier, only men were allowed to participate in public affairs,, vote and contest for public offices. Gradually the gender issue, was raised in politics and women in different parts of the world, organized and agitated for their equal rights., Note, Gender division is a form of social division under which, unequal roles are assigned by the society to men and women., Though the social structure of our society is changing but still, our society is male dominating. This is reflected in many areas, of our daily life through sexual division of labour. If one sees, sexual division of work at home or at society one can notice, that women do all work inside the home such as cooking, cleaning, washing clothes, tailoring, looking after children, etc., and men do work outside the home., Sexual Division of Labour, There were agitations in different countries for the, extension of voting rights to women. These agitations, demanded enhancing the political and legal status of, women and improving their educational and career, opportunities., More radical women’s movements aimed at equality in, personal and family life as well. These movements are, called Feminist movements. Political expression of gender, question helped to improve women’s role in public life., We now find women working as scientists, doctors,, engineers, lawyers, managers and college and university, teachers which were earlier not considered suitable for, women., Women face disadvantage, discrimination and oppression, in various ways. Ours is still a male dominated, Patriarchal, society., The literacy rate among women is only 54 percent, compared with 76 percent among men. The proportion of, women among the highly paid and valued jobs is still very, small. On an average an Indian woman works 1 hour more, than an average man every day., , Woman much of work is not paid and therefore often not, valued. There are reports of various kinds of harassment,, exploitation and violence against women., The Equal Wages Act provides that equal wages should be, paid to equal work. However in almost all areas of work,, from sports and cinema, to factories and fields, women are, paid less than men, even when both do exactly the same, work., In many parts of India parents prefer to have sons and find, ways to have the girl child aborted before she is born. Such, sex-selective abortion led to a decline in child sex ratio, (number of girl children per thousand boys) in the country, to merely 927., Urban areas have become particularly unsafe for women., They are not safe even within their own home from beating,, harassment and other forms of domestic violence., Women’s political representation Issues related to women’s, wellbeing or otherwise are not given adequate attention., One way to ensure this is to have more women as elected, representatives., In India, the proportion of women in legislature has been, very low. For example, the percentage of elected women, members in Lok Sabha has never reached even 10 percent, of its total strength., Their share in the state assemblies is less than 5 percent., One way to solve this problem is to make it legally, binding to have a fair proportion of women in the elected, bodies., This is what the Panchayati Raj has done in India. Onethird of seats in local government bodies – in Panchayat, and municipalities are now reserved for women., Now there are more than 10 lakh elected women, representatives in rural and urban local bodies., Women’s organisations and activists have been demanding, a similar reservation of at least one-third of seats in the Lok, Sabha and State Assemblies for women., Religion and Politics: Ideas, ideals and values drawn from, different religions can and perhaps should play a role in, politics. People should be able to express in politics their, needs, interests and demands as a member of a religious, community. These political acts are not wrong as long as they, treat every religion equally.
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.H.44, , Communalism: When religion is seen as the basis of the, nation the problem begins. The problem becomes more acute, when religion is expressed in politics in exclusive and partisan, terms, when one religion and its followers are pitted against, another. This happens when beliefs of one religion are, presented as superior to those of other religions, when the, demands of one religious group are formed in opposition to, another and when state power is used to establish domination, of one religious group over the rest. This manner of using, religion in politics is communal politics., Communalism can Take Various Forms in Politics, The most common expression of communalism is in, everyday beliefs. These routinely involve religious, prejudices, stereotypes of religious communities and belief, in the superiority of one’s religion over other religions. This, is so common that we often fail to notice it, even when we, believe in it. A communal mind often leads to a quest for, political dominance of one’s own religious community. For, those belonging to majority community, this takes the form, of majoritarianism., Political mobilisation on religious lines is another frequent, form of communalism. This involves the use of sacred, symbols, religious leaders, emotional appeal and plain fear, in order to bring the followers of one religion together in, the political arena. In electoral politics this often involves, special appeal to the interests or emotions of voters of one, religion in preference to others., , Muslim, Christian, Sikh, Others, , Share of Religion in Population %, , Secular State, The Constitution provides to all individuals and, communities freedom to profess, practice and propagate, any religion, or not to follow any., There is no official religion for the Indian state. Unlike the, status of Buddhism in Sri Lanka, that of Islam in Pakistan, and that of Christianity in England, our constitution does, not give a special status to any religion., The Constitution prohibits discrimination on grounds of, religion. At the same time the Constitution allows the state, , to intervene in the matters of religion in order to ensure, equality within religious communities. For example, it bans, untouchability., Caste and Politics, Unlike gender and religion, caste division is unique to, India. All societies have some kind of social inequality and, some form of division of labour. In most societies,, occupations are passed on from one generation to another., Caste system is an extreme form of this. What makes it, different from other societies is that in this system,, hereditary occupational division was sanctioned by rituals., Caste system was based on exclusion of and discrimination, against the ‘outcaste’ groups. They were subjected to the, inhuman practice of untouchability., Current Status of Caste Related Prejudice, Partly due to efforts of our great leaders and partly due to, other socio-economic changes, castes and caste system in, modern India have undergone great changes., With economic development, large scale urbanisation,, growth of literacy and education, occupational mobility and, the weakening of the position of landlords in the villages,, the old notions of caste hierarchy are breaking down., The Constitution of India prohibited any caste-based, discrimination and laid the foundations of policies to, reverse the injustices of the caste system. Yet caste has not, disappeared from contemporary India. Some of the older, aspects of caste have persisted., Effects of centuries of advantages and disadvantages, continue to be felt today. The caste groups that had access, to education under the old system have done very well in, acquiring modern education as well., Those groups that did not have access to education or were, prohibited from acquiring it have naturally lagged behind., That is why there is a disproportionately large presence of, ‘upper caste’ among the urban middle classes in our, country. Caste continues to be closely linked to economic, status., Caste in Politics, When parties choose candidates in elections, they keep in, mind the caste composition of the electorate and nominate, candidates from different castes so as to muster necessary, support to win elections. When governments are formed,
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Gender, Religion and Caste, , , , , , , , , political parties usually taken care that representatives of, different castes and tribes find a place in it., Each caste group tries to become bigger by incorporating, within it neighbouring castes or sub-castes which were, earlier excluded from it., Various caste groups are required to enter into a coalition, with other castes or communities and a dialogue., New kinds of caste groups have come up in the political, arena like ‘backward’ and ‘forward’ caste groups. The caste, plays different kinds of roles in politics. In some situations, expression of caste differences in politics gives many, disadvantaged communities the space to demand their share, of power., In this sense-caste politics has helped people from Dalits, and OBC castes to gain better access to decision making., Several political and non-political organisations have been, demanding and agitating for an end to discrimination, against particular castes, for more dignity and more access, to land, resources and opportunities., , II.H.45, , At the same time exclusive attention to caste can produce, negative results as well. As in the case of religion, politics, based on caste identity alone is not very healthy in a, democracy. It can divert attention from other pressing, issues like poverty, development and corruption. In some, cases caste division leads to tensions, conflict and even, violence., Caste Inequality Today, The average economic status (measured by criteria like, monthly consumption expenditure) of caste groups still, follows the old hierarchy – the ‘upper’ castes are best off,, the Dalits and Adivasis are worst off, and the backward, classes are in between., The proportion living in extreme poverty (below the official, ‘poverty line’) is much higher for the lowest castes and, much lower for the upper castes, with the backward classes, once again in between. The upper castes are heavily overrepresented among the rich while the lower castes are, severely under-represented., , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , 2., , According to the Census of India, 2001, what is the, literacy rate in India?, a. 45.68%, b. 58.45%, c. 65.38%, d. 66.48%, According to the Census of India, 2001, what is the, literacy rate for men in India?, a. 65.85%, b. 65.95%, c. 68.75%, d. 75.85%, , 3., , According to the Census of India, 2001, what is the, literacy rate for women in India?, a. 45.16%, b. 54.16%, c. 56.36%, d. 57.46%, , 4., , According to the Census of India, 2001, what is the major, religion of Sri Lanka?, a. Hinduism, b. Buddhism, c. Christianity, d. Islam, , 5., , What is the major religion of Nepal?, a. Buddhism, b. Jainism, c. Hinduism, d. Christianity, , 6., , According to the Census of India, 2001, what is the sex, ratio in India?, a. 840 females for every 1000 males i.e., 840:1000, b. 903 females for every 1000 males i.e., 903:1000, , c. 925 females for every 1000 males i.e., 925:1000, d. 933 females for every 1000 males i.e., 933:1000, 7., , Which one of the following countries, the female, participation in public life is not so high?, a. Sweden, b. Pakistan, c. Norway, d. Finland, , 8., , According to the Census of India, 2001, what is the, percentage of scheduled castes and scheduled tribes in, India?, a. 16.2%, b. 26.3%, c. 36.4%, d. 37.5%, , 9., , Which of the following two leaders worked for the, establishment of classless society?, a. Dadabhai Naoroji, b. Mahatma Gandhi, c. Dr BR Ambedkar, d. Bhagat Singh, , 10. Which one of the following does not come under the, purview of ‘family laws’?, a. Matters related to marriage, b. Matters related to divorce, c. Matters related to adoption, d. Matters related to robbery
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.H.46, , 17. On what grounds do women’s movements argue against, Family Laws?, a. All religions discriminate against women, b. Victims of communal riots are from religions minorities, c. One religion is always presented to be superior, d. All states discriminate against women, , 11. What does ‘gender division’ mean?, a. Hierarchical social division, b. Division between male and female, c. Gender issue in politics, d. None of these, 12. Feminist movements are based on:, a. Liberty, b. Equality, c. Participation, d. Power, 13. Which out of the following countries has a high, participation of women in public life?, a. France, b. Italy, c. Sweden, d. India, 14. Who would say that religion can never be separated from, politics?, a. Jawaharlal Nehru, b. Mahatma Gandhi, c. Rabindranath Tagore, d. Bhagat Singh, 15. India still has a ____________society., a. Matriarchal, b. Egalitarian, c. Patriarchal, d. None of these, 16. The religious status of Sri Lanka., a. Islam, b. Christianity, c. Buddhism, d. Hinduism, , 18. What did social reformers like Jyotiba Phule work towards?, a. Freedom of Expression, b. Removing caste inequalities, c. Freedom to practise any religion, d. Removing sexual division of labour, 19. What did the ‘twice born’ castes have the right to, in past?, a. Religion, b. Speech, c. Education, d. None of these, 20. What do you call a person who thinks that caste is the, principal basis of a community?, a. Secularist, b. Communalist, c. Casteist, d. Feminist, ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , c, , d, , b, , b, , c, , d, , b, , a, , b,c, , d, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , a, , b, , c, , b, , c, , c, , a, , b, , c, , c, ,
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Challenges and Outcomes of Democracy, , 12, , Challenges and, Outcomes of Democracy, , Democracy may be good as a political system but in practice it, has failed to tackle successfully issues like social prejudices, and economic disparities. What needs to be done to make the, system more efficient? Is it possible to secure a high growth, rate within a democratic order?, Can equal rights and special safe guards for minorities go side, by side in a democracy? These are some of the challenges, proposed to be dealt with in this chapter., Democracy is the dominant political system in a majority of, world countries. No one now pleads for retention of, dictatorship or justifies absolute monarchy. The number of, democracies has been constantly rising over the last one, hundred years., However, as we assess the outcomes of democracy, we feel a, bit disappointed. People’s expectations have been belied. In, some cases it appears as is all the sacrifices made for a change, of political system from a monarchy or dictatorships to democracy, have been in vain. At the same time no one seems willing to, revert back and discard democracy., Democracy thus faces challenges. It has to adapt in a manner, that it becomes meaningful to the people in terms of a better, social and economic life. Let us examine some of these, challenges., When a country adopts democracy replacing a dictatorship, it, does at the same time replace the existing systems and, institutions. The first challenge before democracy in such a, situation is to demolish the institutions that perpetuated the, dictatorial regime. Most dictators keep the military by their, side. In this process men in uniform get used to certain position, of authority even in civil matters. The first challenge is to, demarcate the role of civil and military authorities. The army, must go back to the barracks. It should have no role in civil, administration., The second challenge lies in ensuring that decision-making, becomes participative and transparent. The powers of the, federal units and local self-government bodies have to be, earmarked. Minority groups have been included in decision-, , II.H.47, , making at all levels. In some cases even reservation may be, necessary for a limited period of time., Decision-making can become participative only if the, institutions involved in decision making are given autonomy in, functioning. It the district magistrate heads the District Board, and has the power to veto majority decisions, members of the, Board will soon lose interest in the working of the local selfgovernment institutions., Democratic institutions may not always be democratic in their, day to day functioning. In some cases the institutions, constitution may be such that it cuts at the very root of, equality. Here are some examples., USA wields a commanding influence in the functioning of the, World Bank. As an agency of the UN it is supposed to be, democratic in its functioning. In reality smaller nations have no, chance of taking a decision that may not be acceptable to USA., The UN Security Council has five permanent members who, have the right to veto. They can block any decision taken by, the General Assembly by virtue of their special right., In Pakistan the Head of the state continues to be the Chief of, the armed forces. He can back his decision by armed might and, need not necessarily depend on people’s support., In Myanmar the army rule has international acceptance even, though Suu Kyi had been under house arrest for over 15 years., In China political power remains concentrated in a single, party–the Communist party., Iraq has an elected parliament. However its writ does not, prevail in areas where the Sunnis predominate., USA claims itself to the model of democracy but it does not, stick to democratic norms when it comes to dealing with, smaller nations of the world. It accepts that USA has the right, to preemptive action but India does not have the right to attack, terrorist camps in PoK even though they may be planning to, attack India.
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II.H.48, , The challenges to democracy mean various problems that come, while ensuring a democratic set up in a country. A challenge is, not just any problem. We usually call only those difficulties a, challenge which are significant and which can be overcome., Once we overcome challenge we go up to a higher level than, before. Different countries face different kinds of challenges., Major Challenges are:, Foundational Challenge: Non- democratic countries face the, foundational challenge of making the transition to democracy, and then instituting democratic government. This involves, bringing down the existing non-democratic regime, keeping, military away from controlling government and establishing a, sovereign and functional state. Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia and, Myanmar faces the foundational challenges., Challenge of Expansion: Most of the established democracies, face the challenge of expansion. This involves applying the, basic principle of democratic government across all the, regions, different social groups and various institutions. This, challenge includes:, Ensuring greater power to local of the federation., Inclusion of women and minority groups., Reducing the number of decisions which remain outside the, area of democratic control. Most countries including India, and other democracies like the US face this challenge., Deepening of Democracy: The third challenge i.e. democracy, in one form or another. This involves strengthening of the, institution and practices of democracy. This should happen in, such a way that people can realise their expectations of, democracy. But ordinary people have different expectations, from democracy in different societies. Therefore, this challenge, takes different meanings and paths in different parts of the, world. In general terms, it usually means strengthening those, institutions that help people’s participation and control., This requires an attempt to bring down the control and, influence of the rich and powerful people in making, governmental decision., The challenges mentioned above are linked to the possibility of, reforms. These are challenges only because we think these can, be overcome. Generally, all the suggestions or proposals about, overcoming various challenges to democracy are called, ‘Democracy reform’ or ‘Political reform’., , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Note, Challenges to democracy: Challenges to democracy, means various problems that come while ensuring a, democratic set up in a country. A challenge is not just any, problem., Challenges: We usually call only those difficulties a, ‘challenge’ which are significant and which can be, overcome. A challenge is a difficulty that carries within it, an opportunity for progress. Once we overcome challenge, we go up. For example, poverty and unemployment., Democratic reforms: Generally, all the suggestions or, proposals about overcoming various challenges to, democracy are called ‘democracy reform’ or democratic, reform or ‘political reform’., Right to Information Act 2005 Empowers Every Citizen to:, Ask any question from the Government or seek any, information., Take copies of any government documents., Inspect any Government documents., Inspect any Government work., Take samples of material of any Government work. These, kinds of laws help to control corruption., Outcomes of Democracy: Democracy is believed to be, superior to other political systems as it provides a more, equitable political order. It provides better scope for resolution, of differences and better quality of decision-making. Mistakes, committed under democratic system can be rectified without, recourse to violet revolutions. In real practice these ideals, remains for form being achievable. We should not expect from, democracy what lies beyond its scope. Moreover achievement, does not depend on just the presence of conditions necessary, for achievement. The conditions need to be properly used., Most democracies have been able to stand up to these, criteria. However it cannot be said that they have always, been responsive to people’s aspirations., Alternative systems may deliver quicker results but there is, no guarantee that the decisions taken would be guided by, the motives of public interest., Economic growth is also relatively slow under democracy., But democracy cannot be held responsible if people have a, poor work culture., Even when economic development does take place, a, democratic system alone is no guarantee that the fruits of, growth shall be equitably distributed among various sectors, of the society. While one democracy may spend more on
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Challenges and Outcomes of Democracy, , public education and health, the other may spend more on, buying arms and ammunitions for defence., Democracy promotes social harmony by making special, provisions for minorities and disadvantaged groups., However it is not always possible to concede all minority, demands. More so if they clash with the provisions existing, in the country’s constitution., , II.H.49, , Democracy ensures greater individual freedom than dictatorship, or monarchy. The system however becomes slow when it, comes to dealing with age old traditions. The plight of, Dalits and denial of equal status to women are examples., Democracy can be more meaningful if the responsibility for, social reforms is shared by voluntary groups outside the, government., , Multiple Choice Questions, 1., , Which one of the following states of India has the highest, literacy rate of 91%?, a. Bengal, b. Bihar, c. Orissa, d. Kerala, , 2., , Which one of the following states has the lowest literacy, rate in India?, a. Punjab, b. Jammu and Kashmir, c. Bihar, d. Maharashtra, , 3., , Which one of the following countries has the largest, population in the world?, a. China, b. Japan, c. India, d. North Korea, , 4., , How much part of the globe is not still under democratic, governments?, a. About One-sixth, b. About One-fifth, c. About One-fourth, d. About One-third, , 5., , Which one of the following is a foundational challenge of, democracy?, a. Ensuring greater power to local government., b. Keeping military away from controlling government., c. Extension of federal principle to all the unites of the, federation, d. Empowering women, , 6., , The Seven Party Alliance (SPA) in Nepal has succeeded, in removing monarchy, holding elections and forming a, government. This comes under which one of the following, challenges?, a. Foundation challenge, b. Challenge of expansion of democracy, c. Challenge of deepening of democracy, d. All the above, , 7., , Which one of the following is not the quality of democracy?, a. It promotes equality among citizens, b. It takes quick decisions, c. It improves the quality of decision-making, d. It enhances the dignity of the individual, 8. Which one of the following countries has a federal system, of government?, a. Cango, b. Sudan, c. South Africa, d. Tanzania, 9. Which among the following countries does not have a, federal government?, a. Nigeria, b. South Africa, c. Poland, d. Tanzania, 10. Which one of the following countries does not have a, federal system of government?, a. Argentina, b. Brazil, c. Chile, d. Venezuela, 11. Which one of the following features is common to most, of the democracies?, a. They have formal constitution, b. They hold regular election, c. They have political, d. All the above, 12. In the context of democracies which of the following idea, is correct., Democracies have successfully eliminated., a. Conflicts among people, b. Economic inequalities among people, c. Differences of opinion about how marginalised sections, are to be treated, d. The idea of political inequality, 13. In the context of assessing democracy which among the, following is odd one out, Democracies need ensure:, a. Free and fair elections, b. Dignity of the individual, c. Everyone has freedom to what they choose, d. Equal treatment before law
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.H.50, , 14. Studies on political and social inequalities in democracy, show that, a. Democracy and development go together, b. Inequalities exist in democracies, c. Development under democracy is not much different, from that of dictatorship, d. Dictatorship is better than democracy, 15. Which is the best form of government?, a. Kingship, b. Autocracy, c. Dictatorship, d. Democracy, 16. The Indian Constitution has laid emphasis on granting, equal status and equal opportunities to which two sections, of the society?, a. Women, b. Farmers, c. Army men, d. Discriminated classes, 17. Which two causes indicate that democracy is a better, form of government?, a. It ensures equal and freedoms to all, b. It is not free from corruption, c. It provides equal opportunities to all in decisionmaking process, d. It involves too much delay, , 18. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of, dictatorship?, a. It ensures quick and decisive action, b. It ensures stability, c. It ensures equality and justice to all, d. It ensures efficiency, 19. Which one of the following is considered the best form of, government?, a. Democracy, b. Dictatorship, c. Monarchy, d. Military Rule, 20. In which one of the following countries is democracy not, preferred over dictatorship?, a. Bangladesh, b. Pakistan, c. Sri Lanka, d. India, ANSWERS, 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , d, , c, , a, , c, , b, , a, , b, , c, , c, , c, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , d, , d, , b, , b, , d, , a, d, , a, c, , c, , a, , b, ,
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II.1, , Mock Test-I, , Mock Test, MAT (Mental Ability Test) – I, Time: 120 Minutes, 1., , 2., , 3., , Maximum Marks: 100, , Sink is to float. In the same way, Destroy is to:, a. Enemy, b. Alive, c. Peace, d. Create, Which of the following has the same relationship as that, of ‘PS’: ‘TW’?, a. JM : RQ, b. AD : DI c. AD : EH d. FC : ZE, Which of the following will come in the place of question, mark in the given series?, BYA, CXB, ? , EVD:, a. DVE, b. DCW, c. DXB, d. DWC, , Directions (4 to 5): Fill the blank from the choice given, below., 4. 507986 : 772112 : : 537689 : ______, a. 745742, b. 735841, c. 716039, d. 755643, 5., , 4 23 122 621 ______, a. 960, c. 1728, , b. 1296, d. 3120, , 6., , Select the alternative which is different from other:, a. 1764, b. 1875, c. 1321, d. 1542, , 7., , When Amir saw Manjeet, he recalled that he is son of the, father of the mother of his daughter. Manjeet is Amir’s:, a. Brother-in-law, b. Brother, c. Cousin, d. Uncle, , Directions (8 to 9): Amar goes to the house of his sister, Ashwini in R T Nagar who is the neighbour of Shalini., Shalini has a daughter Chandini. Chandini is studying, medicine. Rajesh is the father of Amar and is married to, Deepika and has a sister who is Shalini., 8., , How is Shalini related Amar?, a. Aunt, b. Sister, c. Cousin, d. Mother, , 9., , How is Shalini related to Rajesh?, a. Sister, b. Sister-in-law, c. Aunt, d. Mother, , Directions (10 to 12): Complete the given series in each, question:, 10. 144, 121, 100, 81, ….., a. 80, c. 64, , b. 72, d. 60, , 11. ZA13, YB15, XC17 …., a. WC 19, c. WD 20, , b. WD 18, d. WD 19, , 12. BNQ, CMR, DLS ….., a. FOT, c. FGT, , b. EGT, d. EKT, , Directions (13 to 15): The following questions are based on, letter series in which some letters are missing. The missing, letters are given in a proper sequence as one of the, alternatives among the given four alternatives under each, question., 13. __ ab __ ab __ a __ pad, a. aapp, b. apap, , c. pppb, , d. bbaa, , __ aabb __ abba __ b, a. bab, b. aba, c. bba, d. baa, 15. a __ baa __ baa __ ba, a. aab, b. bab, c. bba, d. bbb, Directions (16 to 17): In each of the following questions, four groups of three words each are given. Only one group, in each question does not share the underlying principal, that combines the words. Find that group:, , 14., , 16. a. Arm, Hair, Legs, b. Car, Tyre, Steering, c. Tree, Leaf, Trunk, d. Universe, Solar System, Galaxy, 17. a. India, china, Japan, b. Canada Mexico, Australia, c. South Africa, Kenya, Zimbabwe, d. United Kingdom, France, Spain, 18. Penology related to Punishment in a same way, Seismology related to?, Penology : Punishment : Seismology : …., a. Law, b. Earthquake, c. Liver, d. Medicine
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.2, , Directions (19 to 20): There are four trees–tamarind,, coconut, mango and neem – each at a different corner of a, rectangular plot. A well is located at one corner and a cabin, at another adjacent corner. Tamarind and coconut tree are, on either side of the gate which is located at the centre of the, side opposite to the side at whose extremes, the well and the, cabin are located. The mango tree is not at the corner where, the cabin is located., 19. Which of the following pairs can be diagonally opposite, to each other in the plot?, a. Neem and tamarind, b. Cabin and neem, c. Mango and well, d. Coconut and tamarind, 20. If the tamarind tree is diagonally opposite to the well,, then which is diagonally opposite to the coconut tree?, a. Mango, b. Gate, c. Well, d. Cabin, Directions (21 to 23): Choose the odd one out., 21. a. Seismograph, c. Cyclone, , b. Earthquake, d. Tsunami, , 22. a. Bhopal, c. Hyderabad, , b. Mumbai, d. Allahabad, , 23. a. 67, c. 69, , b. 79, d. 97, , 24. A man starts walking in South and walks for 7 km, then, turns left and walks for 2 km., Then once again turns left, and walks for 2 km., Then, once again turns left and, walks for 12 km, turns left one more time and walks for 2, km. How much distance he has to cover to reach the, starting point?, a. 7 km, b. 12 km, c. 4 km, d. 5 km, 25. A is 3 times more efficient than B. Hence, he takes 60, days less in painting a room. In how many days, work, will be completed, if A and B both work together?, a. 30 days, b. 45 days, 1, 1, c. 22 days, d. 17 days, 2, 2, Directions (26 to 28): Eleven students, A, B, C, D, E, F, G,, H, I, J, and K, are sitting in arrow in an NTSE class facing, the professor., D, who is to the immediate left of F, is second to the right of C., A is seated second to the right of E, who is at one of the, ends., J is the immediate neighbour of A and B, and third to the, left of G., H is to the immediate left of D and third to the right of I., , 26. Which of the following groups of friends is sitting to the, right of G?, a. I B J A, b. I C H D F, c. C H D F, d. C H D E, 27. Which of the following statements is correct in the above, seating arrangement?, a. There are three students sitting between D and G, b. G and C are neighbours sitting to the immediate right of H, c. K is sitting between A and J, d. B is sitting between J and I, 28. If E and D, C and B, A and H, K and F interchange their, positions, which of the following pairs of students is, sitting at both the ends?, a. D and E, b. E and F, c. D and K, d. K and F, 29. Village Q is to the North of the village P. The village R is, in the East of Village Q. The village S is to the left of the, village P. In which direction is the village S with respect, to village R?, a. West, b. South-west, c. North or West, d. South, 30. Complete the series using one of the alternatives., 2197, 2744, 3375, 4096 …., a. 4761, b. 4232, c. 4913, d. 3291, 31. If the position of the letters in the word, ‘GOVERNMENT’ are rearranged in such a way that the, position of the 1st and 2nd letters are interchanged,, similarly the position of the 3rd and 4th letters are, interchanged and so on. Which of the following will be, the 3rd from the right end after the rearrangement?, a. M, b. F, c. V, d. R, 32. A girl facing North turns 90° in the anti-clock direction, and then turns 45° in the clockwise direction and then, turns 135° in the anti-clockwise. Which directions is she, facing now?, a. South, b. East, c. North, d. West, 33. The ratio of boys to girls in a school is 5 : 2. The number, of boys is more by 450 than that of girls. How many, students are there in that school?, a. 650, b. 1050, c. 400, d. 950
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II.3, , Mock Test-I, , 34. Given, , that:, , x + y − z + 100 = 350., , If, , x = 2y, , and, , y = 2 z then z = ?, , a. 30, b. 50, c. 70, d. 90, 35. If the simple interest on a certain sum of money at the rate, of 4% for 5 years is Rs. 800, find the sum., a. Rs. 4,000, b. Rs. 9,000, c. Rs. 12,000, d. None of the above, 36. If A : B = 6 : 7 and B : C = 8 : 9. Find the value of C : A?, 9, 16, 21, 6, a., b., d., c., 6, 21, 16, 9, 37. The smallest number which when reduced by 7 is, divisible by 12, 16 and 18:, a. 199, b. 223, c. 295, d. 287, , 39. Shekhar started a business investing Rs. 25,000 in 1999., In 2000, he invested an additional amount of Rs. 10,000, and Rajeev joined him with an amount of Rs. 35,000. In, 2001, Shekhar invested another additional amount of Rs., 10,000 and Jatin joined them with an amount of Rs., 35,000. What will be Rajeev’s share in the profit of Rs., 1,50,000 earned at the end of 3 years from the start of the, business in 1999?, a. Rs. 45,000, b. Rs. 50,000, c. Rs. 70,000, d. Rs. 75,000, , 5 5 5 5... is:, , a. 0, c. can’t be determined, , b. 5, d. none, , b. Irrational, d. None, , 45., , b. 3, , , then x =, b. 3, d. 0, , a. 3log 2 7, , b. 1 − 3log 3 7, , c. 1 − 3log 7 2, , d. None of these, , Directions (46 to 49): In the following questions, diagram is, given below in which the figures are interlocking each, other. Each figure represents a certain section of people, which is indicated thereon. Different regions of the diagram, are lettered. Read the statements of the questions given, below the diagram, and write down the letter of the region, which represents the statement:, Americans, , 2, , 1, , 6, , Painters, , 3, 4, , 5, 7, , Sculptors, , 46. Americans who are painters but not sculptors., a. 1, b. 2, c. 3, d. 4, 47. Painters who are neither Americans nor sculptors, a. 4, b. 6, c. 5, d. 8, 48. Non-American painters who are also sculptors., a. 4, b. 5, c. 3, d. 6, 49. American who are painters as well as sculptors., a. 2, , b. 3, , c. 4, , d. 5, 3 th, 2, of the total fruits are apples, rd of the, 4, 3, , d. 4, , b. 2400, d. 3600, , 51. 12 men can complete a piece of work in 16 days. How, many days will 4 men take to complete the task?, a. 60 days, b. 45 days, c. 54 days, , c. 2, , 2−2 x, , log7 log 7 7( 7 7 ) =, , a. 2000, c. 3000, , 0.1 + 0.75 , 1 , ÷ 0.125 +, =?, 2.5 + 0.05 , 4.8 , a. 1, , 3, 2, , remaining are peach and the rest 300 are oranges. Find, the total number of fruits in the basket., , 42. Which of the following number has the terminal decimal, representation?, 1, 1, 3, 17, a., b., c., d., 7, 3, 5, 3, 43., , =, , 50. In a basket,, , 41. The number (6 + 2)(6 − 2) is:, a. Rational, c. Can’t say, , x +2, , a. 1, c. 4, , 38. In a class of 250 students, 75.8% took French and 49.4%, took Latin. How many students took both French and, Latin?, a. 189.0, b. 123.0, c. 63.0, d. 90.0, , 40. The value of, , 2, 3, , 44. If, , d. 48 days
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.4, , 52. In a certain code language, ‘NOTE’ is coded as ‘OPUF’., Similarly, ‘TASK’ is coded as ‘UBTL’. How will, ‘CORE’ be coded in the same code language?, a. BNRE, b. PSFD, c. DSFP, d. DPSF, , 60. M I S S I S S I P P I – A R L I N G T O N, MPPISSISSII–?, a. A O T N R L I N G, b. A G T O R L I N N, c. A N G T O R L I N, d. A O T G N I L R N, , 53. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word, ‘RAZORS’ each of which has as many letters between, them as in the English alphabet series:, a. None, b. One, c. Two, d. Three, , 61. Pointing to a boy. Mamta said, “he is the only son of my, father-in-law’s only child.” How is the boy related to, Mamta?, a. Brother, b. Daughter, c. Son, d. Husband, , Directions (54 to 58): Study the following Pie-diagrams, carefully and answer the questions given below it., Proteins, 16%, , Muscles, 1/3, Hormones, enzymes and, other, proteins, , 62. Which watch fits on the end of this sequence?, , Skin, 1/10, Bones, 1/6, , Other dry, elements 14%, , 9:15, , 54. In the human body, what part is made of neither bones, nor skin?, 2, 3, a., b., 5, 5, 1, d. None of these, c., 40, 55. What is the ratio of the distribution of proteins in the, muscles to that distribution of proteins in the bones?, a. 1 : 18, b. 18 : 1, c. 2 : 1, d. 1 : 2, 56. What will be the quantity of water in the body of a person, weighing 50 kg?, a. 20 kg, b. 35 kg, c. 71.42 kg d. 120 kg, 57. What percentage of the weight of human body is, equivalent to the weight of the skin in human body?, a. .016, b. 1.6, c. 0.16, d. Data inadequate, , a. 2:33, , b. 126°, , 8:34, , 4:56, , c. 108°, , d. 252°, , 59. Vinay met Rohit at the Taj Mahal in Agra on 25, December 1987, which was Friday. Vinay reminded, Rohit that their first meeting was also at the Taj Mahal in, Agra on 6 January 1984. On which day did they both, meet on the first occasion?, a. Sunday, b. Thursday c. Tuesday d. Friday, , b. 7:52, , c., , 12:20, , d. 6:27, , 63. Complete the series: 5, 6, 10, 19, 35, ………., a. 50, b. 60, c. 40, d. 70, Directions (64 to 65): In each of the following questions,, choose the correct mirror image from the given four, alternatives of the Word/figure., 64., , 58. To show the distribution of proteins and other dry, elements in the human body, the arc of the circle should, subtend at the centre an angle of:, a. 50°, , 6:54, , Water, 70%, , b., , a., 65., , c., , d., , O O, , O, , a., , O, , O, , b., , O, , O, , O, , O, , c., , d., , O
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II.5, , Mock Test-I, , Directions (66 to 67): In each of the following questions,, choose the correct water-images from the given four, alternatives of the Word/figure., 66. wrote, a., b., c., d., 67. RAJ589DB, a., c., , b., d., , Directions (68 to 69): Read the data carefully and answer, the questions., LAP BUT CAR SON HID, (New words to be formed may or may not necessarily be, meaningful English words), 68. If the given words are arranged in the order as they would, appear in a dictionary from the left to right, which of the, following will be 4th from the left?, a. LAP, b. BUT, c. CAR, d. SON, 69. If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next, alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many, words having no vowels will be formed?, a. One, b. Two, c. Three, d. More than three, Directions (70 to 71): A wooden cube is painted black on, four adjoining faces and green on two opposite faces, that, is, top and bottom. It is then cut into 27 smaller, identical, cubes., , 2, , 73. The total surface area of a cube is 384 m . Its volume will be:, a. 343 m3, b. 616 m3, c. 512 m3, d. 660 m3, 74. When the price of TV set was increased by 30%, the no., of TV sets sold decreased by 20%. What was the effect on, the sales?, a. 8% decreased, b. 8% increased, c. 4% decreased, d. 4% increased, Directions (75 to 80): Select the answer figure from the, given four alternaticeswhich has the same relationship to, the third, which is between the first two figures on the left, of sign:, 75. Problem Figures, , ?, , a., , b., , c., , d., , 76. Problem Figures, T, , C T, , T, , a., , C, , b., , C, , C, , T, , ?, , T C, , c., , d., , 77. Problem Figures, , ?, , 70. How many smaller cubes have only one of their faces, painted black?, a. 1, b. 2, c. 3, d. 4, , a., , b., , c., , 78. Problem Figures, , ?, , 71. How many smaller cubes have only one of their faces, painted green?, a. 1, b. 2, c. 3, d. 4, 72. Arrange the following according dictionary and determine, the one at 4th place: Zamaica, Zidane, Zeast, Zinedine, a. Zamaica, b. Zidane, c. Zeast, d. Zinedine, , d., , a., , b., , c., , d.
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.6, , 79, , 86. How many squares are there in the given figure?, , Problem Figures, , ?, , a. 2, b. 3, c. 4, d. 5, 87. Find the number of triangles in the given figure?, , a., , b., , c., , d., , 80. Problem Figures, , ?, a. 14, b. 16, c. 18, d. 17, 88. Shown below are four different positions of the same, dice. Find the number on the face opposite the face, showing 6., 5, , a., , b., , c., , d., , Directions (81 to 85): In each of the following questions,, there are figures of which three are similar in a certain, way, and one is different. Find the one that is different, from the rest., 81., , a., , b., , c., , 6, , 6, 3, , 1, , 1, , 3, 3, , 4, , 4, 5, , 2, , 2, , 3, , 5, , 4, , a. 1, b. 2, c. 4, d. 5, 89. Consider the following three figures, marked X, Y, Z, showing one fold in X, another in Y and cut in Z. From, amongst the answer figure A, B, C and D, select the one,, showing the unfolded position of Z., , d., X, , Y, , Z, , a., , b., , c., , 82., , a., , b., , c., , d., , 83., , a., , b., , c., , d., , a., , b., , c., , d., , d., , 90. In each of the following questions there is a diagram, marked (X), with one or more dot placed in it. The, diagram is followed by four other figures, marked (a.),, (b.), (c.) and (d.) only one of which is such as to make, possible the placement of the alternative in each case., , 84., , X, , 85., , a., , b., , c., , d., , a., , b., , c., , d.
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II.7, , Mock Test-I, , Direction (91 to 95): In each of the following questions,, some letters or groups of letters are given all of which, except one, share a common similarity while one is, different. Choose the odd one out., 91. a. DW, b. HS, c. MN, d. KO, 92. a. RAT, c. BED, , b. OUT, d. LOT, , 93. a. USING, c. UPKEA, , b. VTOJE, d. OMIDE, , 94. a. GET, c. SET, , b. MET, d. EAT, , 95. a. CDE, c. FGH, , b. IJK, d. PQR, , b., , c., , O, O, a., , b., , c., , d., , 98., , a., , b., , c., , d., , a., , b., , c., , d., , a., , b., , c., , d., , 99., , Direction (96 to 100): In the following questions, four, figures are given. Three of them are alike in a certain way, and one is different. Find the odd one from the alternatives., 96., , a., , 97., , d., , 100.
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II.8, , A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , Mock Test, SAT (Scholastic Aptitude Test) – II, Time: 120 Minutes, , Maximum Marks 100, , 1., , The assimilatory power in photosynthesis is:, a. ATP, b. NADPH, c. ATP and NADPH 2, d. ATP, NADPH and CO 2, , 2., , The tissue respiration refers to, a. Inspiration, b. Expiration, c. Internal respiration, d. External respiration, , 3., , Respiratory mechanism is controlled by, a. Central nervous system, b. Parasympathetic nervous system, c. Sympathetic nervous system, d. Autonomic nervous system, , 4., , The function of kidney in mammals is to excrete, a. extra urea, extra water and extra amino acids, b. extra urea, extra water and carbohydrates, c. extra salts, urea and excess water, d. extra urea, salts and excess water, , 5., , Bending of growing shoot towards sunlight is called, a. Heliotropism, b. Hydrotropism, c. Photonasty, d. Phototropism, , 6., , The study of fruits is called, a. Polynology, c. Silviculture, , b. Horticulture, d. Pomology, , Mendel’s law rediscovered by, a. Lamarck, de Varies and Correns, b. Hugo de varies, Correns and Tschermak, c. Morgan, Beadle and Tatum, d. Hugo de Varies, Morgan and Correns, 8. Main function of plasma membrane is, a. Maintain cell shape and size, b. Control of all cellular activity, c. Regulate the flow of material into and out of the cell, d. Store cell nuclei, 9. First land inhabiting organisms are, a. Bryophytes, b. Pteridophytes, c. Gymnosperms, d. Angiosperms, 10. Which one of the following is not a bacterial disease?, a. Cholera, b. Tuberculosis, c. Anthrax, d. Influenza, 7., , 11. Which of the following can make you ill if you come in, contact with an infected person?, a. High blood pressure, b. Genetic abnormalities, c. Sneezing, d. Blood cancer, 12. Which of the following fuels are formed by the, degradation of biomass?, a. Biomass, b. CNG, c. Coal and Petroleum, d. None of these, 13., , log H __________, , a. Concentration of H+, c. pOH, 14. Contains, , 23, 11, , b. pH, d. None of these, , Na , , a. 22 protons, b. 22 neutrons, c. 12 neutrons, d. None of these, 15. An element has 13 protons. The group and period to, which it belongs, a. 3rd period and 13th group, b. 2nd period and 13th group, c. 3rd period and 3rd group, d. 2nd period and 3rd group, 16. On moving horizontally across a period, the number of, electrons in the outermost shell increases from ___ to ___, a. 2, 8, b. 2, 18, c. 1, 8, d. 1, 18, 17. Which of the following has the highest dipole moment?, H CH3, H, |, |, C O, a., b. C C, |, |, H, CH3 H, , CH 3 H, |, |, c. C C, |, |, CH 3 H, , Cl CH3, |, |, d. C C, |, |, CH3 Cl
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Mock Test-II, , II.9, , 18. Identify the substances that are oxidised and the, substances that are reduced in the following reaction, CuO(s) H 2 (g) , Cu(s) H 2 O( ), , 24. Match the statement of Column I with those in Column II:, Column I, Column II, (A) Fermi, 1. 10 13 cm, , a. Cu is oxidised, H 2 O is reduced, , (B) X-ray, , 2. 10 13 cm, , b. CuO is oxidised, H 2 O is reduced, , (C) Astronomical unit, , 3. 3.08 1016 m, , c. H 2 is oxidised, CuO is reduced, , (D) Parallactic second, , 4. 1.496 1011 m, b. A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2, d. A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4, , d. H 2 is oxidised, H 2 O is reduced, 19. Buckminsterfullerene is an example of _______ carbon., a. an isomer, b. an isotope, c. an allotrope, d. a functional group, , a. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4, c. A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3, , 25. For the velocity time graph shown in figure, the distance, covered by the body in the last 2 seconds of its motion is, what fraction is of the total distance covered in all the 7, seconds?, , 20. Which of the following metals exist in their native state in, nature?, a. Cu and Au, b. Au and Zu, c. Au and Ag, d. Ag and Cu, , A, B, C, D, , a. A, , No reaction, No reaction, , b. B, , Copper (II), Sulphate, Displacement, , No, reaction, No, reaction, , Zinc, Sulphate, , Silve, Nitrate, , No, reaction, No, reaction, No, reaction, , Displa, cement, No, reaction, , c. C, , d. D, , 23. In which test tubes, the rusting of iron nail will take, place?, , 1, a. 1 and 2, c. 2 and 3, , 2, , 6, 4, 2, , a. 1/2, c. 1/3, , 22. Samples of four metals A, B, C and D were taken and, added to the following solution one by one. The results, obtained have been tabulated as follows: Which is the, least reactive metal?, Iron (II), Sulphate, No reaction, Displaceme, nt, , 8, , 0, , 21. Sodium is a, a. Silvery white and very soft metal, b. Colourless and hard metal, c. Silvery white and very hard metal, d. Colourless and very soft metal, , Metal, , 10, , 3, 4, b. 1, 2 and 3, d. 2, 3 and 4, , 1, , 2, 3, 4, Time (s), , 5, , 6, , 7, , b. 1/4, d. 2/3, , 26. The net force acting on a body of mass of 1 kg moving, with a uniform velocity of 5 ms-1 is:, a. 5 N, b. 0.2 N, c. 0 N, d. None of these, 27. A body of mass m is moving in a circle of radius r with a, , mv 2, and is, r, directed towards the centre. What is the work done by this, force in moving the body over half the circumference of, the circle?, , constant speed v. The force on the body is, , a., , mv 2, r2, , b. Zero, , mv 2, r2, d., r2, mv 2, 28. The acceleration due to gravity on the moon’s surface is:, a. approximately equal to that near the earth’s surface, b. approximately six times that near the earth’s surface, c. approximately one-sixth of that near the earth’s surface, d. slightly greater than that near the earth’s surface, c., , 29. The velocity of sound in air at 30°C is approximately:, a. 332 ms 1, , b. 350 ms 1, , d. 530 ms 1, , d. 341 ms 1
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.10, , 30. A centigrade and a Fahrenheit thermometer are dipped in, boiling water. The water temperature is lowered until the, Fahrenheit thermometer registers 140°. What is the fall in, temperature as registered by the Centigrade thermometer?, a. 30°, b. 40°, c. 60°, d. 80°, 31. A person sees his virtual image by holding a mirror very, close to the face. When he moves the mirror away from, his face, the image becomes inverted. What type of mirror, he is using, a. Plane mirror, b. Convex mirror, c. Concave mirror, d. None of these, 32. The refractive index of a material of a prism of angles, 45°– 45° – 90° is 1.5. The path of the ray of light incident, normally on the hypotenuse side is shown in, A, , A, , 90°, , 90°, , a., B, , c., B, , b., 45°, , 45°, , C, , 45°, , B, , 45°, , A, , A, , 90°, , 90°, , 45°, , d., , 45°, , B, , C, , 45°, , 45°, , C, , C, , i, 30, , 30, 30, , 1, 1, a., ampere, b., ampere, 45, 15, 1, 1, c., ampere, d. ampere, 10, 5, 34. For what value of R the net resistance of the circuit will, be 18 , R, 10, , 10, , a. 8 , c. 16 , , 10, , 10, , 10, , b. 10 , d. 24 , , 2, of the profit and B, 5, and C share the remaining profit equally. A’s income is, increased by Rs. 220 when the profit rises from 8% to, 10%. Find the capitals invested by A, B and C., a. Rs. 8250, b. Rs. 8450, c. Rs. 8650, d. Rs. 8850, , 37. A, B and C are partners. A receives, , 38. Rohan’s monthly income is Rs. 12000. If this monthly, income is increased by 10% find the total income after 2, months?, a. 14800, b. 14520 c. 14502 d. 14500, , 40. Durgesh borrowed an amount of Rs. 15,000 at the simple, interest rate of 12% p.a. and another amount at the simple, interest rate of 15% p.a. for a period of two years each., He paid amount of Rs. 9000 as total interest. What is the, total amount borrowed?, a. Rs. 18,000 b. Rs. 32000 c. Rs. 35000 d. Rs. 33000, 41. There is 60% increase in an amount in 6 years at simple, interest. What will be the compound interest on Rs., 12,000 after 3 years at the same rate?, a. Rs. 2160, b. Rs. 3120 c. Rs. 3972 d. 6240, 42. Three years ago the average age of A and B was 18 years., With C joining them now, the average becomes 22 years., How old is C now?, a. 27 years, b. 30 years c. 28 years d. 24 years, 43. Consider a hollow cylinder of inner radius r and thickness, of wall t and length . The volume of the above cylinder, , 10, , A, , 36. The sum of three numbers is 98. If the ratio between the, first and second be 2 : 3 and that between the second and, third be 5 : 8, then find the second number., a. 10, b. 20, c. 30, d. 40, , 39. The ratio between the sale price and the cost price of an, article is 7: 5. What ratio between the profit and the cost, price of that article?, a. 2 : 7, b. 5 : 2, c. 7 : 2 d. 2 : 5, , 33. The current in the adjoining circuit will be, , 2V, , 35. Energy resources derived from natural organic materials, are called?, a. geothermal energy sources b. fossil fuels, c. biomass, d. all of these, , B, , is given by:, a. 2 ( r 2 2 ), , t, , b. 2 rt 1, 2r , , c. 2 ( r 2 t 2 ), , d. 2 r ( r t )
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Mock Test-II, , II.11, , 44. The radius of circle is increased by 1 cm, then the ratio of, the new circumference to the new diameter is:, 1, a. 2, b. 1, c. , d. , 2, 45. If a rectangular sheet of paper 44 cm × 22 cm is rolled, along its length of form a cylinder, then the volume of, cylinder in cm3 is:, a. 1694, , b. 3080, , c. 3388, , d. none of these, , 46. If A, B, C are interior angles of a triangle ABC, then, , BC , sin , is equal to:, 2 , A, A, a. sin, b. cos, 2, 2, A, A, c. sin, d. cos, 2, 2, 47. Find the value of x from the equation, , , , cot 2 sec tan, , 2 , 6, 3, 4, sin cos, , 6, 4 cos ec 2 cos ec , 4, 6, a. 4, b. 6, c. - 2, d. 0, , 52. From a book containing 100 pages, one page is selected, randomly. The probability that the sum of the digits of the, page number of the selected page is 11, is:, 2, 9, a., b., 25, 100, 11, c., d. None of these, 100, 53. A, B, C are the three angles of a triangle ABC are in, , A.P. If a, b, c are the corresponding sides, then, a. b 2 c 2 bc a 2, , b. a 2 c 2 ac b 2, , c. b 2 a 2 ab c 2, d. None of these, 54. Sides of a triangle ABC; a, b, c are in G.P. If ‘r’ be the, common ratio of this G.P., then, , x, , 48. As observed from the top of a 75 m high lighthouse from, the sea-level, the angles of depression of two ships are 30º, and 60º. If one ship is exactly behind the other on the, same side of the lighthouse, then the distance between the, two ships is:, , 5 1 , , , a. r , 2, , , 5 1 , , , b. r , 2, , , 5 1 5 1, ,, c. r , , 2 , 2, , 5 1 5 3 , ,, d. r , , 2 , 2, , 6, 5 has:, x 10, a. an extraneous root between –5 and –1, b. an extraneous root between –10 and –6, c. two extraneous roots, d. a real root between 20 and 25, , 55. The equation, , 56. If, , x 10 , , b, xa, , then the value of x in terms of a and b is:, xa, b, , a. 25 3 m, , b. 75 3 m, , a. a 2 b 2, , b. a 2 b 2, , c. 50 3 m, , d. None of these, , c. a 2 b 2, , d. None, , 49. If the first five elements of the set x1 , x2 , , x10 are, , replaced by xi 5, i 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and next five elements, are replaced by xi 5, j 6,7, ,10 then the mean will, change by:, n 1, c. 10, d. 25, 2, 50. If the median is 20 and each item is increased by 2, the, new median will be:, a. 40, b. 10, c. 22, d. No change, 51. There are n letters and n addressed envelopes. The, probability that all the letters are not kept in the right, envelope, is:, 1, 1, a., b. 1 , n!, n!, 1, c. 1 , d. None of these, n, , a. 0, , b., , 57. Find, , the, , value, , of, , a 3 b3 c3 3abc, , when, ab bc ca a 2 b 2 c 2, , a 5,5 6, c 10., , a. 1, b. –1, c. 2, d. –2, 58. If ( x y z ) 1, xy yz zx 1xyz 1 then value of, x 3 y 3 z 3 is:, , a. –1, b. 1, c. 2, d. –2, 59. In the given figure, if C is the centre of the circle and, PQC 25 and PRC 15, then QCR is equal to:, P, , C, 25, , R, , Q, , a. 40°, , 15, , b. 60°, , c. 80°, , d. 120°
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.12, , 60. The diagram shows a right-angled triangle and a, semicircle. PQ is the diameter of the semicircle., R, , 13 cm, P, , 12 cm, , 5 cm, Q, , The perimeter of the whole diagram is, a. 13 8, b. 30 + 5 c. 18 + 6, , d. 18 + 5, , 61. Which movement was launched during the height of, depression (1931)?, a. Civil Disobedience Movement, b. Swadeshi Movement, c. Quit India Movement, d. None of these, 62. What was the name given to mass killings of the Jews, under Hitler’s regime?, a. Special Task, b. Special Treatment or Final Solution, c. Final Stage, d. Special Task or Final Stage, 63. Pastoral nomads move in search of _________________, a. food, b. livelihood, c. water, d. settlements, 64. What major is the liberal nationalism?, a. For freedom of individual and equality of all, b. Preservation of the Church, c. A modern army, d. Efficient bureaucracy, 65. Who wrote the ‘Vande Mataram’?, a. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay, b. Rabindranath Tagore, c. Abanindranath Tagore, d. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, 66. Who was Haussmann?, a. He founded Paris, b. He rebuilt Paris, c. He designed Paris, d. None of these, 67. Which novel was written by members of the upper caste?, a. Saraswativijayam, b. Indirabai, c. Indulekha, d. Both (b.) and (c.), 68. Which of the following was not a step taken by, Bolsheviks?, a. nationalisation of banks, b. allowing private enterprise, c. collectivisation, d. given autonomy to non-Russian nationalities, , 69. Which policy did the Dutch follow when the Japanese, occupied Java?, a. Scientific Forestry, b. Swidden, c. Scorched Earth, d. Blandongdiensten, 70. Which physiographic division is the storehouse of, minerals?, a. Himalayas, b. Peninsular Plateau, c. Northern plains, d. Island groups, 71. Which one of the following characterises the cold weather, season in India?, a. Warm days and warm nights, b. Warm days and cold rights, c. Cool days and cold nights, d. Cold days and warm nights, 72. Which of these statements is not a valid reason for, depletion of flora and fauna?, a. Agricultural expansion, b. Large scale developmental projects, c. Grazing and fuel wood collection, d. Rapid industrialisation and urbanisation, 73. Three most popular states of India are?, a. UP, Maharashtra, Bihar, b. UP, Maharashtra, West Bengal, c. UP, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, d. UP, Maharashtra, Sikkim, 74. Alluvial Soil have been deposited by three important, Himalayan river systems—the Indus, the Ganga and, a. The Mahanadi, b. The Godavari, c. The Brahmaputra, d. The Krishna, 75. Which state was the harbinger of Green Revolution in, India?, a. Punjab, b. Uttar Pradesh, c. Madhya Pradesh, d. Himachal Pradesh, 76. Which state is not the producer of mica?, a. Bihar, b. Jharkhand, c. Rajasthan, d. Uttar Pradesh, 77. Where the majority of jute mills located in India?, a. On the banks of river Hoogli, b. On the banks of river Yamuna, c. On the banks of river Krishna, d. On the banks of river Satluj, 78. What does QMS stand for?, a. Quick Medical Service, b. Quick Mail Service, c. Quick Mother Dairy Service, d. None of these
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II.13, , Mock Test-II, , 79. Which activities require little land and more capital?, a. Farming, b. Transport, c. Non-farm activities, d. Dairy farming, 80. Trade, transport, communication, banking, education,, health, tourism, services, insurance are included in the, a. Whole sector, b. Tertiary sector, c. Main sector, d. Last sector, 81. Punjab and Haryana have traditionally succeeded in, reducing poverty with the help of, a. Low agricultural growth rates, b. High agricultural growth rates, c. Rivers, d. Transport system, 82. _______means food production within the country, food, imports and the previous year’s stock stored in, government granaries., a. Availability of food, b. Availability of blood, c. Availability of fun, d. Availability of almonds, 83. Which neighbouring country of India ranks better, according to the HDI report?, a. Nepal, b. Pakistan, c. Bangladesh, d. Sri Lanka, 84. What is the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act,, 2005?, a. 100 days of guaranteed employment, b. Permanent employment, c. Food for work programme, d. None of these, 85. Most loans from informal lenders carry a very high, interest rate and do little to increase the income of the, a. Borrowers b. Lenders c. People, d. Buyers, 86. Companies that set up production units in the special, economic zones do not have to pay taxes for an initial, period of, a. 10 years, b. 12 years c. 5 years, d. 15 years, 87. The organisations that monitor and issue ISI, Agmark or, Hallmark certificates allow producers to use their logos, provided they follow certain, a. Work permit, b. Quality standards, c. Debit card, d. Topic of press, 88. When was Universal Adult Franchise granted in India?, a. 1947, b. 1950, c. 1952, d. 1962, 89. In which country laws were made by single ruler?, a. Zimbabwe b. USA, c. France, d. India, , 90. Which of these is a provision that a democratic, constitution does not have?, a. Name of the country, b. Powers of the organs of the government, c. Name of the head of the state, d. Powers of the head of the state, 91. Who appoints Chief Election Commissioner in India?, a. The Governor, b. The President of India, c. The Chief Justice, d. The Prime Minister, 92. The President of Indian is elected by, a. Direct election by citizens who are 18 years or above, b. Indirect election by the Electoral College, c. Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers, d. Public of the country, 93. When was the Indian National Congress formed?, a. 1885, b. 1977, c. 1980, d. 1989, 94. Which one of the following does not mean the Right of, Religion?, a. A person is free to change religion on his/her will, b. A person can sacrifice animals or human beings as, offerings to supernatural forces or gods, c. A person has the right to propagate his religion, d. Every religious sect is free its manage its religious affairs, 95. Which out of the following has a community government, kind of power sharing arrangement?, a. Sri Lanka b. India, c. Belgium d. France, 96. Grameen Bank of Bangladesh is one of the biggest, success stories in reaching out to the poor to meet their, credit need at, a. First rates, b. Same rates, c. Reasonable rates, d. Best rates, 97. When was rationing in India introduced?, a. 1940s, b. 1960s, c. In mid-1970s, d. 1973, 98. Why has natural vegetation undergone many changes?, a. Growing demand for cultivated land, b. Development of industries and mining, c. Urbanisation and overgrazing pastures, d. All of these, 99. At present the number of Lok Sabha constituencies are in, the state of, a. 550, b. 545, c. 543, d. 540, 100. Which of the following was a communist state?, a. France, b. Poland, c. Myanmar, d. England
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A Complete Study Guide for NTSE, , II.14, , ANSWERS, MAT – I, , SAT – II, , 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., , 1., , 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., , 9., , d, , b, , d, , a, , d, , c, , a, , a, , a, , c, , c, , c, , a, , d, , a, , d, , b, , c, , a, , 10., d, , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , 11., , 12., , 13., , 14., , 15., , 16., , 17., , 18., , 19., , 20., , a, , a, , c, , d, , d, , a, , b, , b, , a, , d, , c, , c, , b, , c, , a, , c, , b, , a, , c, , c, , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , 21., , 22., , 23., , 24., , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., , 30., , a, , d, , c, , d, , c, , c, , d, , c, , b, , c, , a, , d, , a, , c, , b, , c, , b, , c, , a, , c, , 31., , 32., , 33., , 34., , 35., , 36., , 37., , 38., , 39., , 40., , 31., , 32., , 33., , 34., , 35., , 36., , 37., , 38., , 39., , 40., , a, , a, , b, , b, , a, , c, , c, , c, , b, , b, , c, , a, , c, , c, , b, , c, , a, , b, , d, , d, , 41., , 42., , 43., , 44., , 45., , 46., , 47., , 48., , 49., , 50., , 41., , 42., , 43., , 44., , 45., , 46., , 47., , 48., , 49., , 50., , a, , c, , a, , c, , c, , b, , b, , b, , b, , d, , c, , d, , b, , c, , c, , b, , b, , c, , a, , c, , 51., , 52., , 53., , 54., , 55., , 56., , 57., , 58., , 59., , 60., , 51., , 52., , 53., , 54., , 55., , 56., , 57., , 58., , 59., , 60., , d, , d, , c, , d, , c, , b, , b, , c, , d, , d, , b, , a, , b, , c, , b, , a, , a, , b, , c, , c, , 61., , 62., , 63., , 64., , 65., , 66., , 67., , 68., , 69., , 70., , 61., , 62., , 63., , 64., , 65., , 66., , 67., , 68., , 69., , 70., , c, , d, , b, , b, , b, , a, , b, , a, , d, , d, , a, , b, , b, , a, , a, , b, , d, , b, , c, , b, , 71., , 72., , 73., , 74., , 75., , 76., , 77., , 78., , 79., , 80., , 71., , 72., , 73., , 74., , 75., , 76., , 77., , 78., , 79., , 80., , b, , d, , c, , d, , a, , b, , d, , b, , b, , c, , b, , c, , a, , c, , a, , b, , a, , b, , c, , b, , 81., , 82., , 83., , 84., , 85., , 86., , 87., , 88., , 89., , 90., , 81., , 82., , 83., , 84., , 85., , 86., , 87., , 88., , 89., , 90., , c, , d, , b, , d, , c, , d, , b, , c, , c, , c, , b, , a, , d, , a, , a, , c, , b, , b, , a, , c, , 91., , 92., , 93., , 94., , 95., , 96., , 97., , 98., , 99., , 100., , 91., , 92., , 93., , 94., , 95., , 96., , 97., , 98., , 99., , 100., , d, , b, , c, , d, , d, , c, , b, , c, , d, , c, , b, , b, , a, , b, , c, , c, , a, , d, , c, , b, ,
