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O, , bjective Biology for NEET-Volume I is a part of a two-volume set, which is developed, specially to cater to the requirements of medical aspirants. Written in a comprehensible, manner, the book is a huge repository of diligently chosen practice questions and previous, years’ questions. Significant attention has been paid to the recent trends in topical coverage and the, latest question paper pattern as appeared in the NEET examination while designing the book. This, is a must have resource for NEET and other similar medical entrance examinations., , Objective, , BIOLOGY for, , Highlights, Constructed as per the latest class XI and XII NCERT curriculum, Chapter-wise NCERT Exemplar questions, , Objective, , Plethora of practice questions to check understanding, ‘Assertion and reason’ type questions for AIIMS and other similar examinations, Previous Years’ Questions incorporated in every chapter, Mock Tests and Sample Papers at the end of the book for self-evaluation, , COMPLETE, , AL ELIGIBILITY, , CUM, , EN, , TR, , AN, , CE, ST, , SERIES, , IO N, NAT, , TE, , BIOLOGY, , The, , NEET, , for, Cover image: xsense.shutterstock.com, , NEET, , HIGHLIGHTS, • Structured as per, NCERT curriculum, , Vol, , I, , Vol, in.pearson.com, , Size: 172x235mm, , Spine: 18mm, , ISBN: 9789353062248, , Title, , Sub Title, , Edition, , • 2500+ MCQs included, chapter-wise, , I, , VIJAY, , Online resources available at, www.pearsoned.co.in/neet/rajivvijay, , • ‘Assertion and Reason’, type questions for exclusive, AIIMS preparation, , Authors / Editors Name, , RAJIV VIJAY, , With CD, , Red Band, , Territory line, , URL, , Price, , mQuest
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OBJECTIVE BIOLOGY, for, , NEET, , (National Eligibility Cum Entrance Test), , and Other Medical, Entrance Examinations, Volume 1, Third Edition, Dr Rajiv Vijay, MBBS, Government Medical College, Kota
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Contents, Prefacevii, Acknowledgmentsviii, About the Author, viii, Trend Analysis of NEET Biology From 2010–2018, ix, , Volume 1, Unit I, , Unit II, , Unit III, , Unit IV, , Unit V, , Diversity in the Living World, 1. Living World, 2. Biological Classification, 3. Plant Kingdom, 4. Animal Classification, , 1.3–1.16, 2.1–2.22, 3.1–3.30, 4.1–4.32, , tructural Organization in Plants, S, and Animals , 5. Plant Morphology, 6. Anatomy of Flowering Plants, 7. Structural Organization in Animals, , 5.3–5.26, 6.1–6.24, 7.1–7.18, , Cell: Structures and Functions, 8. Cell: The Unit of Life, 9. Biomolecules, 10. Cell Cycle and Cell Division, , 8.3–8.30, 9.1–9.26, 10.1–10.20, , Plant Physiology , 11. Transport in Plants, 12. Mineral Nutrition, 13. Photosynthesis in Higher Plants, 14. Respiration in Plants, 15. Plant Growth and Development, , 11.3–11.24, 12.1–12.18, 13.1–13.22, 14.1–14.14, 15.1–15.22, , Human Physiology , 16. Digestion and Absorption, 17. Breathing and Exchange of Gases, , 16.3–16.22, 17.1–17.22
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viContents, , 18., 19., 20., 21., 22., , Body Fluids and Circulation, Excretory Products and Their Elimination, Locomotion and Movement, Neural Control and Co-ordination, Chemical Co-ordination and Integration, , 18.1–18.26, 19.1–19.28, 20.1–20.22, 21.1–21.22, 22.1–22.22, , Volume 2, Unit I, Reproduction, 1. Reproduction in Organisms, 2. Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plant, 3. Human Reproduction, 4. Reproductive Health, , 1.3–1.24, 2.1–2.38, 3.1–3.34, 4.1–4.16, , Unit II, Genetics and Evolution, 5. Principles of Inheritance and Variation, 6. Molecular Basis of Inheritance, 7. Evolution, , 5.3–5.42, 6.1–6.32, 7.1–7.32, , Unit III, Biology in Human Welfare, 8. Human Health and Disease, 9. Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production, 10. Microbes in Human Welfare, Unit IV, , Unit V, , 8.3–8.34, 9.1–9.18, 10.1–10.22, , Biotechnology, 11. Biotechnology Principles and Processes, 12. Biotechnology and Its Application, , 11.3–11.24, 12.1–12.18, , Ecology, 13. Organisms and Populations, 14. Ecosystem, 15. Biodiversity and Conservation, 16. Environmental Issues, , 13.3–13.30, 14.1–14.22, 15.1–15.18, 16.1–16.20, , Mock Test 1, Mock Test 2, Mock Test 3, , M1.1–M1.6, M2.1–M2.10, M3.1–M3.8, , Sample Paper -I, Sample Paper -II, Sample Paper -III, , S1.1–S1.8, S2.1–S2.8, S3.1–S3.8
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Unit, , Diversity in, The Living World, , I, , Chapter 1: Living World, Chapter 2: Biological Classification, Chapter 3: Plant Kingdom, Chapter 4: Animal Classification, , Students Note, Unit I is one of the most important units from the examples point of view. As this unit, contains animal and plant classifications which require some extra input, so prepare these, two chapters in some more detail. Do not deviate so much from textbook. By solving, questions you can learn all the examples. Also nowadays, a question may be asked from, Chapter 1, i.e. ‘Living World’. Since all diagrams are important, you need to analyze each, diagram because questions can be asked in any format. Unit I contributes 8–10 questions, in AIPMT. Employ the process of mnemonic to increase the efficiency of memory. To, elaborate, for examples coming under Echinodermates given in textbook, you can employ, the following:, [A, B, C, D, E: A for Asterias (star fish) B for Brittle star (ohpiura) C for Cucumaria (sea, cucumber) D for anteDon(sea lily) and E for Echinus (sea urchin)].
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CHAPTER, , 1, , Living World, prACtiCe Questions, , Diversity in the Living World, 1. Who is known as ‘the Darwin of the 20th century’?, (a) Lamarck, (b) Ernst Mayr, (c) Carolus Linneaus, (d) Robert May, 2. The number of known and described species that are in the range of, (approximately), (a) 1.3 to 1.4 million, (b) 1.4 to 1.5 million, (c) 1.7 to 1.8 million, (d) 1.9 to 2.2 million, 3. Twin characteristics of growth are, (a) Increase in mass, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (b) Increase in number, (d) Increase in length and volume, , 4. Growth in living organism, (a) Is from outside, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (b) Is from inside, (d) Does not take place, , 5. Which of the following does not grow?, (a) Amoeba, (b) Yeast, , (c) Dead body, , (d) Planaria, , 6. Growth cannot be taken as a defining property of living organisms because, (a) All living organism do not show growth., (b) Non-living things also grow from inside., (c) Non-living things also grow., (d) Some living organism does not exhibit the process of reproduction., 7. Select the total number from the following organism that multiply by budding., Hydra, Sponges, yeast, earthworm, Planaria, honey bee, (a) 2, (b) 3, (c) 4, (d) 5, 8. For which organism, the growth is synonymous with reproduction?, (a) Unicellular algae (b) Amoeba, (c) Bacteria, , (d) All of these, , 9. Which of the following multiply through fragmentation?, (a) Fungi, (b) Filamentous algae (c) Planaria, , (d) All of these, , 10. Mark the correct statement., (a) The growth in living organisms is from inside., (b) Plants grow only up to a certain age., (c) Only living organisms grow., (d) All of these
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1.4, , Living World, , 11. The growth and reproduction are mutually exclusive events in, (a) Plants only, (b) Animals only, (c) Higher animal and plants, (d) Primitive organisms, 12. Reproduction cannot be an all-inclusive defining characteristic of living organisms because, (a) All living organism do not show growth., (b) Many organism do not reproduce., (c) Non-living things show reproduction., (d) All living organism show small period of reproductive phase in their life., 13. Living organism shows, (a) Self-replication , (c) Self-regulation and response to external stimuli , , (b) Evolution, (d) All of these, , 14. The sum total of chemical reactions occurring in our body is called, (a) Metabolism, (b) Homeostasis, (c) Catabolism, , (d) Anabolism, , 15. Select the incorrect statement from the following., (A) NBRI is situated at Lucknow., (B) Plant families like Convolvulaceae and Solanaceae are included in the order polymoniales, mainly based on the floral characters., (C) All living organisms such as from present, past and future are linked to one another by the, sharing of the common genetic material but to varying degree., (D) The order Solanum, Datura and Petunia are placed in family Solanaceae., (a) (A) only, (b) (B) and (D) only, (c) (D) only, (d) (B) and (C) only, 16. Which of the following statement is incorrect?, (a) All plants, animals, fungi and microbes exhibit metabolism., (b) Interactions among the molecular components of the organelles result into the properties, of cell organelles., (c) Properties of cellular organelles are present in the molecular constituents of the organelles., (d) Celluar organization of the body is the defining feature of life forms., 17. Properties of organs are, (a) Present in the constituent cells, (b) Due to different cells in them, (c) Due to their similar origin, (d) A result of interactions among the constituent tissues, 18. Which two points are known as the twin characteristics of growth?, (1) Increase in mass, (2) Metabolism, (3) Increase in the number of individuals, (4) Sense of environment, (a) (1) and (2), (b) (1) and (4), (c) (2) and (3), (d) (1) and (3), 19. Growth by cell division occurs _____________ in plants and _____________ in animals, (a) Continuously, only up to a certain age, (b) Only up to a certain age, continuously, (c) Continuously, never, (d) Continuously, continuously
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Living World1.5, , 20. Which of the following match is incorrect?, Common name, Genus, (a) Man, Homo, (b) Mango, Mangifera, (c) Housefly, Musca, (d) Wheat, Tritium, , Order, Primata, Sapindales, Coelopetra, Poales, , Class, Mammalia, Dicotyledonae, Insecta, Monocotyledonae, , 21. Which set of organisms multiply through fragmentation?, (a) Planaria, hydra, yeast, (b) Echinoderms, fungi, bacteria, (c) Fungi, filamentous algae, protonema of mosses, (d) Amoeba, hydra, virus, 22. Which of the following organism does not reproduce?, (a) Mules, (b) Sterile worker bees, (c) Sterile human couple, (d) All of these, 23. Which one of the following aspects is an exclusive characteristic of living things?, (a) Isolated metabolic reactions occur in vitro., (b) Increase in mass from inside only., (c) Perception of events happening in the environment and their memory., (d) Increase in mass by accumulation of material both on surface as well as internally., 24. Which of the following is self-conscious?, (a) Human being, (b) Tiger, , (c) Lion, , 25. Metabolic reactions take place, (a) In vitro, (c) both (a) and (b), , (b) In vivo, (d) only in unicellular organisms, , (d) Frog, , 26. Organisms that can sense and respond to environmental cues, (a) Eukaryotes only, (b) Prokaryotes only, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) Those with a well-developed neuroendocrine system, 27. Growth, development and functioning of living body is due to, (a) Decrease in entropy, (b) Increase in Gibbs-free energy, (c) Metabolism, (d) Adaptations, 28. A living organism can be exceptionally differentiated from a non-living thing on the basis of, its ability for, (a) Reproduction and Excretion, (b) Growth and Movement, (c) Responsiveness to touch and temperature, (d) Interaction with environment and progressive evolution, 29. Two components of binomial nomenclature are, (a) Generic name, (b) Specific epithet, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) Subspecies
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1.6, , Living World, , 30. In Mangifera indica Linn, Linn stands for, (a) Latin, (c) Linnaeus, , (b) Lower organism, (d) Lamarck, , 31. Alsatian is a breed of, (a) Dog, , (c) Cow, , (b) Cat, , (d) Horse, , 32. Modern taxonomy studies require, (a) Knowledge of external and internal structure., (b) Knowledge of structure of cell., (c) Knowledge development process and ecological information of organisms., (d) All of these, 33. Which of the following term include all other terms?, (a) Classification, (b) Nomenclature, (c) Taxonomy, , (d) Systematics, , 34. Linnaeus evolved a system of nomenclature called, (a) Trinomial, (b) Vernacular, (c) Binomial, , (d) Polynomial, , 35. Binomial nomenclature seems to be difficult because a scientific name is derived from, (a) Hindi, (b) Sanskrit, (c) Latin, (d) Arabic, 36. A group of plants or animals with similar traits of any rank is, (a) Species, (b) Order, (c) Genus, , (d) Taxon, , 37. Binomial nomenclature means, (a) Two names in which one is given by zoologist and other by botanist., (b) One scientific name consisting of a generic name and a specific epithet., (c) Two names in which one is latinized and other is french., (d) Two names in which one is scientific and other is local., Taxonomy, 38. Basic unit of taxonomic hierarchy is, (a) Species, (b) Kingdom, , (c) Class, , 39. Botanical name of mango is, (a) Mangifera indica, (c) Solanum melongena, , (b) Solanum tuberosum, (d) Panthera leo, , 40. Botanical name of potato is, (a) Mangifera indica, (c) Solanum melongena, , (b) Solanum tuberosum, (d) Panthera leo, , 41. Zoological name of lion is, (a) Mangifera indica, (c) Solanum melongena, , (b) Solanum tuberosum, (d) Panthera leo, , (d) Phylum, , 42. The branch connected with characterization, nomenclature, identification and classification is, (a) Ecology, (b) Taxonomy, (c) Morphology, (d) Eugenics, 43. The third name in trinomial nomenclature is, (a) Species, (b) Subgenus, , (c) Subspecies, , (d) Holotype
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Living World1.7, , 44. In binomial nomenclature, (a) Both genus and species are printed in italics., (b) Genus and species may be of same name., (c) Both the initial letters in genus and species is capital., (d) Genus is written after the species., 45. As we go from higher species to kingdom, the number of common characterstic goes on, _______., (a) Increasing, (b) Decreasing, (c) Remains same, (d) None of these, 46. The binomial nomenclature was given by, (a) Lamarck, (c) Carolus Linnaeus, , (b) Ernst Mayr, (d) Darwin, , 47. The term ‘taxon’ is used for, (a) The ranks of species and genus, (c) The species epithet only, , (b) The ranks up to phylum, (d) Any rank of taxonomic hierarchy, , 48. The taxonomic aid that provides information for the identification of names of species found, in an area is, (a) Monograph, (b) Manual, (c) Catalogue, (d) Periodical, 49. The Indian Botanical Garden is located in, (a) Howrah, (b) Lucknow, , (c) Mumbai, , 50. The famous botanical garden ‘Kew’ is located in, (a) England, (b) Lucknow, (c) America, , (d) Mysore, (d) Australia, , 51. Identify the correct sequence of taxonomic categories., (a) Species–order–kingdom–phylum, (b) Species–family–genus–class, (c) Genus–species–order–phylum, (d) Species–genus–order-phylum, 52. Which biological name is wrongly written?, (a) Apis indica, (c) Felis domesticus, , (b) Triticum aestivum, (d) Mangifera Indica, , 53. The descending arrangement of categories is called, (a) Classification, (b) Taxonomy, (c) Hierarchy, , (d) Key, , 54. Petunia is a, (a) Variety, , (d) Genus, , (b) Subspecies, , (c) Species, , 55. Which one of the following is not a category?, (a) Species, (b) Class, (c) Phylum, , (d) Convolvulaceae, , 56. In the hierarchy of classification, the order is present between, (a) Family and genus, (b) Phylum and kingdom, (c) Family and class, (d) Family and species, 57. Select the incorrect statement from the following., (a) Each statement in key is called lead., (b) Taxonomic keys are tools that helps in identification based on characterstics., (c) ICZN stands for International Code of Zoological Nomenclature., (d) Ernst Mayr used the system a Nature as the title of his publication.
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Living World1.9, , 71. Select the total number of family from the following:, Felis, Felidae, Solanaceae, Liliaceae, Canidae, Hominidae, Poaceae, Muscidae, Insecta,, Convolvulaceae, (a) 5, (b) 6, (c) 7, (d) 8, 72. Family Solanaceae and Convolvulaceae belongs to the order, (a) Poales, (b) Polymoniales, (c) Diptera, , (d) Dicot, , 73. Common features of Chordata are, (a) The presence of notochord in any stage of life, (b) Dorsal hollow neural system, (c) Paired pharyngeal gill slits, (d) All of these, 74. Which of the following is a common feature of category ‘insecta’?, (a) Presence of ostium, (b) Presence of coxal gland for excretion, (c) Three pair of jointed legs in thoracic region, (d) Exoskeleton of cutin, 75. Which of the following represent the family of mango?, (a) Sapindales, (b) Anacardiaceae, (c) Poales, , (d) Poaceae, , 76. House fly belongs to the order, (a) Diptera, (b) Carnivora, , (d) Insecta, , (c) Primata, , 77. Which is not required for the preservation of insect?, (a) Collecting, (b) Killing, (c) Pinning, , (d) Pressing, , 78. IBG is situated at, (a) Kew, , (d) Jodhpur, , (b) Howrah, , 79. A museum has a collection of, (a) Preserved plants, (c) Skeleton of animals, , (c) Lucknow, (b) Preserved animals, (d) All of these, , 80. Which of the following animals is usually stuffed and preserved?, (a) Large birds, (b) Mammals, (c) Small lizards, (d) Both (a) and (b), 81. Zoological parks are places for, (a) Wild animals, (c) Wild plants, , (b) Pet animals, (d) Endangered crops, , 82. Zoological park is a place where, (a) Wild animals are kept in protected environment under human care., (b) We can learn about wild animal’s food habit., (c) We can learn about wild animal’s behavior., (d) All of these, 83. The keys are based on contrasting characters generally in pairs called, (a) Duplex, (b) Couplet, (c) Dimer, , (d) All of these
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1.10, , Living World, , 84. Which of the following is incorrect about keys?, (a) Key is a taxonomical aid used for the identification of plants and animals based on the, similarities and dissimilarities., (b) Separate taxonomic keys are required for each taxonomic category such as family, genus, and species for identification purposes., (c) Keys are generally analytical in nature., (d) Key is another taxonomical aid used for the nomenclature of plants and animals based on, the similarities and dissimilarities., 85. Which of the following is a mean of recording description?, (a) Flora and manuals, (b) Monographs, (c) Catalogues, (d) All of these, 86. Flora contains information about the habitat and distribution of, (a) Animals of a given area, (b) Plants of a given area, (c) Some useful plants of a given area, (d) Some useful animals of a given area, 87. Monographs contains the information of, (a) genus, (b) species, , (c) family, , (d) any one taxon, , 88. Manuals contain information for, (a) Habitat and distribution of animals in a given area, (b) Habitat and distribution of plants in a given area, (c) Identification of names of species found in an area, (d) Habitat and distribution of some useful animals in a given area, 89. Organisms vary in, (a) Size and colour, (b) Habitat, (c) Physiological and morphological features (d) All of these, 90. Live specimens of organisms are found in, (a) Herbaria, (c) Zoological parks and botanical gardens, , (b) Museum, (d) All of these, , 91. The name of a plant written on herbarium sheet is its, (a) English name, (b) Local name, (c) Botanical name, , (d) All of these, , 92. NBRI is situated in, (a) Kolkata, , (d) Jodhpur, , (b) Lucknow, , (c) Delhi, , 93. Which is the prime source of taxonomical studies?, (a) Collection of actual specimen, (b) Nomenclature, (c) Characterization, (d) Identification, 94. Tiger, dog and cat are placed in order of, (a) Insectivora, (b) Carnivora, , (c) Primata, , (d) Lagomorpha, , 95. Monkey, gorilla and gibbons belongs to which of the following order and class respectively, (a) Primata and prototheria, (b) Primata and mammalia, (c) Carnivora and eutheria, (d) Carnivora and mammalia
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Living World1.11, , 96. In plants, the families are characterized on the basis of, (a) Vegetative structures, (b) Reproductive features, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) None of these, 97. Match the column:, Column I, A. Man, B. Mango, C. House fly, D. Tiger, E. Wheat, (a) A–1, B–5, C–3, D–4, E–2, (c) A–4, B–2, C–3, D–1, E–5, , Column II, 1. Order–Carnivora, 2. Family–Poaceae, 3. Genus–Musca, 4. Phylum–Chordata, 5. Family–Anacardiaceae, (b) A–4, B–5, C–3, D–1 and 4, E–2, (d) A–1, B–2, C–3, D–4, E–5, , 98. Select the incorrect combination:, (a) Fragmentation, Fungi, Planaria, Protonema of moss, (b) Budding, Yeast, hydra and sponges, (c) Order , Mammalia, primata, diptera, poales,, polymoniales, sapindales, (d) Genus Homo, Triticum, Musca, Felis, Panthera,, Datura, Petunia, Mangifera, Solanum, 99. Select the correct combination:, (a) Earliest classification based on, (b) Reproduction is synonymous with growth, (c) ICZN, (d) NBRI, , –, –, –, –, , Uses of various organisms, Primitive multicellular organism, International Code of Zoo Nomenclature, National Botanical Registered Institute, , 100. Single-horned Rhinoes are found in, (a) Ghana, (c) Kaziranga National Park, , (b) Bastar of Madhya Pradesh, (d) Khasi in Meghalaya, , 101. Herbarium sheet provides the information of, (a) Collector’s name, (c) Local, English and botanical name, , (b) Family of plant, (d) All of these, , 102. Select the total number of correct statements from the following:, 1. Photoperiod affects the reproduction in seasonal breeders, both plants and animals., 2. All organisms handle chemicals entering their bodies., 3. Metabolism is a characterstic feature of all living organisms., 4. In animals, growth is seen only up to a certain age., 5. Non-living object exhibits metabolism., 6. No non-living object is capable of reproducing or replicating by itself., (a) 2, (b) 3, (c) 4, (d) 6, 103. All plants, animals, fungi and microbes exhibit, (a) Reproduction, (b) Growth by increase in mass only, (c) Metabolism, (d) Self-consciousness
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1.12, , Living World, , Assertion and Reason Questions, Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given, below:, (a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the, assertion., (b) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the, assertion., (c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false., (d) If both the assertion and reason are false., 104. Assertion: Systematics is an important branch of biology., Reason: Systematics name the organisms and divides them into groups and subgroups, according to the set rules to make their study easy., 105. Assertion: Members of a species breed only with others of the same species., Reason: In some cases, members of different species may also breed, producing sterile or, fertile offspring., 106. Assertion: No non living object exhibit metabolism., Reason: Cellular organization is absent in non-living organisms., 107. Assertion: Metabolic reactions can be demonstrated outside the body in cell free systems., Reason: An isolated metabolic rection performed in test tube is neither living nor non-living., 108. Assertion: Conservative characters are more useful in classification., Reason: These characters do not change during evolution. Therefore, their similarities show, relationships among organisms., 109. Assertion: Linnaeus insisted that the scientific names should be Latinized., Reason: This gives beauty to the names., 110. Assertion: There is no difference between the terms taxon and category., Reason: Aves is a taxon that includes the category ‘birds’., 111. Assertion: Each rank or taxon represents a unit of classification., Reason: Taxonomic categories are distinct biological entities and not merely morhpological, aggregates., 112. Assertion: Human being has self-conciousness., Reason: Human is an organism who is aware of himself., 113. Assertion: In unicellular organism, the reproduction is synonymous with growth., Reason: Increase in the number of cells is also called growth., 114. Assertion: Growth is not taken as a defining property of living organism., Reason: Non living organism can also grow by accumulation of material on their surface., 115. Assertion: Growth in plant is said to be open., Reason: In plant, growth by cell division occurs throughout their life., 116. Assertion: In Planaria we call regeneration as true regeneration., Reason: A fragmented organism regenerates the lost part of its body and becomes a new organism.
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Living World1.13, , 117. Assertion: Growth and reproduction is synonymous in amoeba ., Reason: Amoeba is unicellular organism., 118. Assertion: All organisms handle chemicals entering in their bodies., Reason: All organisms are aware of their surroundings., 119. Assertion: All living organism present, past and future are linked to one another., Reason: Because all organism sharing common genetic material, but to varying degrees., 120. Assertion: Properties of tissues are arises due to interaction of cells., Reason: Properties of tissues are present in constituent cells., 121. Assertion: Scientific names of all organisms are based on agreed principles and criteria provided by ICBN., Reason: ICBN is International code for biological nomenclature., 122. Assertion: Binomial system provided by Linnaeus is used by biologist all over the world., Reason: This naming system using a two word format is convenient., 123. Assertion: Earliest classifications were based on the uses of various organisms., Reason: In early days human beings needed to find sources for their basic needs of food,, clothing and shelter., 124. Assertion: Cockroach belongs to Insecta., Reason: Cockroach posses three pair of jointed legs in their thoracic region., , previous year questions, 1. The Indian rhinoceros is a natural inhabitant of which one of the Indian states?, , [AIPMT MAINS 2010], (a) Uttarakhand, (b) Uttar Pradesh, (c) Himachal Pradesh, (d) Assam, , , 2. Which one of the following aspects is an exclusive characteristic of living things?, [AIPMT MAINS 2011], (a) Isolated metabolic reactions occurs in vitro., (b) Increase in mass from inside only., (c) Perceptions of events happening in the environment and their memory., (d) Increase in mass by accumulation of material both on surface as well as internally., , 3. Which one of the following is common to multicellular fungi, filamentous algae and protonema of mosses?, , [AIPMT PRE 2012], (a) Diplontic life cycle, (b) Members of kingdom Planate, (c) Mode of Nutrition, (d) Multiplication by fragmentation, 4. Which one of the following is not a correct statement?, , , [AIPMT MAINS 2013], (a), (b), (c), (d), , Herbarium houses dried pressed and preserved plant specimens, Botanical gardens have collection of living plants for reference, A museum has collection of photographs of plants and animals, Key is a taxonomic aid for identification of specimens.
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1.14, , Living World, , 5. Nomenclature is governed by certain universal rules. Which one of the following is contrary, to the rules of nomenclature?, [NEET - I, 2016], (a) Biological names can be written in any language, (b) The first word in a biological name represents the genus name, and the second is a specific, epithet, (c) The names are written in Latin and are italicized, (d) When written by hand, the names are to be underlined, 6. The label of a herbarium sheet does not carry information on, (a) Name of collector, (b) Local names, (c) Height of the plant, (d) Date of collection, , [NEET - II, 2016], , 7. Match Column – I with Column – II for housefly classification and select the correct option, using the codes given below:, [NEET - II, 2016], Column – I, Column – II, A. Family, 1. Diptera, B. Order, 2. Arthropoda, C. Class, 3. Muscidae, D. Phylum, 4. Insecta, (a) A–3, B–2, C–4, D–1, (b) A–4, B–3, C–2, D–1, (c) A–4, B–2, C–1, D–3, (d) A–3, B–1, C–4, D–2, 8. Study the four statements (A-D) given below and select the two correct ones out of them:, , [NEET - II, 2016], A. Definition of biological species was given by Ernst Mayr., B. Photoperiod does not affect reproduction in plants., C. Binomial nomenclature system was given by R. H. Whittaker, D. In unicellular organisms, reproduction is synonymous with growth, The two correct statements are, (a) C and D, (b) A and B, (c) A and D, (d) B and C, , NCERT Exemplar Questions, 1. As we go from species to kingdom in a taxonomic hierarchy, the number of common, characteristics, (a) Will decrease, (b) Will increase, (c) Remain same, (d) May increase or decrease, 2. Which of the following ‘suffixes’ used for the units of classification in plants indicates a, taxonomic category of ‘family’?, (a) –Ales, (b) –Onae, (c) –Aceae, (d) –Ae, 3. The term ‘systematics’ refers to, (a) The identification and classification of plants and animals., (b) The nomenclature and identification of plants and animals.
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Living World1.15, , (c) The diverse kind of organisms and their relationship., (d) The different kinds of organisms and their classification., 4. Genus represents, (a) An individual plant or animal., (b) A collection of plants or animals., (c) Group of closely related species of plants or animals., (d) Different kinds of organisms and their classification., 5. The taxonomic unit ‘Phylum’ in the classification of animals is equivalent to which hierarchical, level in the classification of plants?, (a) Class, (b) Order, (c) Division, (d) Family, 6. Botanical garden and zoological parks have, (a) Collection of endemic living species only., (b) Collection of exotic living species only., (c) Collection of endemic and exotic living species., (d) Collection of only local plants and animals., 7. Taxonomic key is one of the taxonomic tools in the identification and classification of plants, and animals. It is used in the preparation of, (a) Monographs, (b) Flora, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) None of these, 8. All living organisms are linked to one another because, (a) They have common genetic material of the same type., (b) They share common genetic material but to varying degrees., (c) All have common cellular organization., (d) All of these, 9. Which of the following is a defining characteristic of living organisms?, (a) Growth, (b) Ability to make sound, (c) Reproduction, (d) Response to external stimuli, 10. Match the following by choosing the correct option:, a. Family, i. Tuberosum, b. Kingdom, ii. Polymoniales, c. Order, iii. Solanum, d. Species, iv. Plantae, e. Genus, v. Solanaceae, Options, (a) i – d, ii – c, iii – e, iv – b, v – a, (b) i – e, ii – d, iii – b, iv – a, v – c, (c) i – d, ii – e, iii – b, iv – a, v – c, (d) i – e, ii – c, iii – b, iv – a, v – d
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1.16, , Living World, , Answer Keys, Practice Questions, 1. (b), 2. (c), 3. (c), 11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (d), 21. (c) 22. (d) 23. (b), 31. (a) 32. (d) 33. (d), 41. (d) 42. (b) 43. (c), 51. (d) 52. (d) 53. (c), 61. (b) 62. (d) 63. (d), 71. (d) 72. (b) 73. (d), 81. (a) 82. (d) 83. (b), 91. (d) 92. (b) 93. (a), 101. (d) 102. (c) 103. (c), , 4. (b), 14. (a), 24. (a), 34. (c), 44. (a), 54. (d), 64. (d), 74. (c), 84. (d), 94. (b), , 5. (c), 15. (c), 25. (c), 35. (c), 45. (b), 55. (d), 65. (d), 75. (b), 85. (d), 95. (b), , 6. (c), 16. (c), 26. (c), 36. (d), 46. (c), 56. (c), 66. (d), 76. (a), 86. (b), 96. (c), , 7. (b), 17. (d), 27. (c), 37. (b), 47. (d), 57. (d), 67. (d), 77. (d), 87. (d), 97. (b), , 8. (d), 18. (d), 28. (d), 38. (a), 48. (b), 58. (d), 68. (d), 78. (b), 88. (c), 98. (c), , 9. (d) 10. (a), 19. (a) 20. (c), 29. (c) 30. (c), 39. (a) 40. (b), 49. (a) 50. (a), 59. (d) 60. (d), 69. (b) 70. (a), 79. (d) 80. (d), 89. (d) 90. (c), 99. (a) 100. (c), , Assertion and Reason Questions, 104. (a) 105. (b) 106. (a) 107. (b) 108. (a) 109. (c) 110. (d) 111. (b) 112. (a) 113. (a), 114. (a) 115. (a) 116. (a) 117. (a) 118. (a) 119. (a) 120. (c) 121. (d) 122. (a) 123. (a), 124. (a), Previous Year Questions, 1. (d), , 2. (b), , 3. (d), , 4. (c), , 5. (a), , 6. (c), , 7. (d), , 8. (c), , NCERT Exemplar Questions, 1. (a), , 2. (c), , 3. (c), , 4. (c), , 5. (c), , 6. (c), , 7. (c), , 8. (d), , 9. (d), , 10. (a)
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CHAPTER, , 2, , Biological, Classification, prACtiCe Questions, , Kingdom Classification, 1. Who was the first to attempt a more scientific basis of classification?, (a) Linnaeus, (b) Aristotle, (c) Whittaker, (d) Bentham and Hooker, 2. Aristotle classified plants in herbs, shrubs and trees on the basis of, (a) Anatomical feature, (b) Morphological characters, (c) Physiological characters, (d) Biochemical characters, 3. In how many groups did Aristotle divide the animals on the basis of presence/absence of RBC?, (a) 1, (b) 2, (c) 3, (d) 4, 4. Two kingdom classification does not distinguish between, (a) Eukaryote and prokaryote, (b) Unicellular and multi-cellular organisms, (c) Photosynthetic (green algae) and non-photosynthetic (fungi) organisms, (d) All the above, 5. In which year Whittaker proposed the five kingdom classification?, (a) 1960, (b) 1959, (c) 1969, 6. Whittaker’s kingdom are, (a) Plantae and Animalia, (c) Fungi, , (d) 1979, , (b) Monera and Protista, (d) All of these, , 7. How many main criteria were used by Whittaker for classification?, (a) 1, (b) 3, (c) 4, , (d) 5, , 8. What is the criteria used by Whittaker for classification?, (1) Cell structure, (2) Thallus organization, (3) Mode of nutrition, (4) Reproduction, (5) Phylogenetic relationship, (6) Biochemical difference, (7) Physiological character, (a) All except (5) and (6), (b) All except (5) and (7), (c) All except (6) and (7), (d) All except (3) and (4), 9. In earlier classification (like two kingdoms), the following are included in plant, (1) Bacteria, blue green algae, fungus, (2) Mosses and fern, (3) Gymnosperms and angiosperm, (a) (1) only, (b) (2) and (3) only, (c) (3) only, (d) All of these
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2.2, , Biological Classification, , 10. What is common to bacteria, mosses and fungus?, (a) It is a mode of nutrition, (b) Presence of cell wall, (c) Autotrophic, (d) Body organization, 11. All prokaryotic groups are put under ———— kingdom, (a) Monera, (b) Plantae, (c) Fungi, 12. Kingdom protista contains, (a) Blue green algae, (c) Unicellular eukaryotes, , (d) Protista, , (b) Fungi, (d) All of these, , 13. Chlamydomonas, chlorella, paramecium and amoeba are placed in which kingdom of, Whittaker’s classification?, (a) Monera, (b) Plantae, (c) Fungi, (d) Protista, 14. Phylogeny refers to, (a) Morphology, (c) Reproduction, , (b) Physiology, (d) Evolutionary relationship, , 15. Kingdom monera contains, (a) Bacteria, (c) Slime moulds, , (b) Dinoflagellate, (d) Euglenoid, , 16. Most abundant microorganism are, (a) bacteria, (b) virus, , (c) amoeba, , (d) paramecium, , 17. Which of the following is incorrect about bacteria?, (A) It is grouped under five categories on the basis of shape., (B) It can live in hot spring, deep ocean, snow and desert areas., (C) It can live as a parasite., (D) It is composed of simple behaviour and complex structure., (a) (A) and (B) only, (b) (A) and (D) only, (c) (B) and (C) only, (d) (C) and (D) only, 18. Most extensive metabolic diversity is found in, (a) Protozoans, (b) Amphibian, (c) Bacteria, , (d) Fungi, , 19. Most of the bacteria are, (a) Chemo-autotrophs (b) Photo-autotrophs, , (c) Heterotroph, , (d) Holozoic, , 20. Match the column:, Column I, A. Salty area, B. Hot spring, C. Marshy area, (a) A‒3, B‒1, C‒2, (c) A‒2, B‒1, C‒3, , Column II, 1. Thermoacidophile, 2. Methanogen, 3. Halophiles, (b) A‒1, B‒2, C‒3, (d) A‒2, B‒3, C‒1, , 21. Archaebacteria can live in some of the most harsh habitats because of, (a) Presence of mesosome, (b) High power of multiplication, (c) Special cell wall structure, (d) All of these
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Biological Classification2.3, , 22. Following are present in gut of cows and buffaloes and is responsible for the production of, methane from the dung of these animals, (a) Methanogen, (b) Thermoacidophiles, (c) Halophils, (d) All of these, 23. Motile bacteria possess, (a) Cilia, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (b) Flagella, (d) None of these, , 24. Which of the following statements is true about cyanobacteria?, (a) It is found in fresh water only., (b) It may be unicellular, colonial or filamentous., (c) They often form bloom in non-polluted fresh water bodies., (d) Colonies are not surrounded by gelatinous sheath., 25. Specialized cell of nostoc and anabaena fix nitrogen are known as, (a) Cyst, (b) Heterocyst, (c) Oocytes, (d) Cholecyst, 26. Find out the total number of false statements:, A. Cyanobacteria have chlorophyll ‘a’ like green plants., B. Bacteria which oxidizes various inorganic substance such as nitrates and ammonia and, uses the released energy for ATP production are chemosynthesis autotrophic bacteria., C. Heterotrophic bacteria are less in abundance in nature., D. Majority of heterotrophic bacteria are decomposers., E. Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria play an important role in recycling of nutrients like, nitrogen, phosphorus iron and sulphur., (a) 1, (b) 2, (c) 3, (d) 4, 27. Heterotrophic bacteria helps in, (a) Curding of milk, (c) Nitrogen fixation in leguminous plant, , (b) Production of antibiotic, (d) All of these, , 28. Select the total number of disease from the following caused by bacteria:, Mumps, Smallpox, Citrus canker, Cholera, Typhoid, Tetanus, Sleeping sickness, Malaria, (a) 2, (b) 4, (c) 5, (d) 6, 29. Which one is correct about reproduction in bacteria?, (a) Mainly by binary fission, (b) Spores are formed under unfavorable condition, (c) Sexual reproduction by transfer of DNA from one to another, (d) All of these, 30. Following features belong to, A. Complete lacking of cell wall, B. Anaerobic, C. Smallest living cell, D. Many of them are pathogenic to plant and animals, (a) Chrysophytes, (b) Prions, (c) Viroids, (d) Mycoplasma
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2.4, , Biological Classification, , 31. Which of the following is incorrect about protista?, (a) All are single cell eukaryotes, (b) Some have flagella or cilia, (c) Sexually reproduce by cell fusion and zygote formation, (d) Members of protista are primarily terrestrial, 32. Kingdom protista include, (a) Chrysophyte, (b) Dinoflagellate, , (c) Euglenoids, , 33. Which kingdom of Whittaker are not well-defined?, (a) Monera, (b) Protista, (c) Fungi, , (d) All of these, (d) Animalia, , 34. Which of the following is correct about chrysophytes?, I. Found in fresh and marine water, II. Microscopic plankton, IV. Most of them are photosynthetic, III. Cell walls are embedded with CaCO3, (a) I and III only, (b) I, III and IV only (c) I, II and IV only (d) I and IV only, 35. Chief producers in ocean are, (a) Euglenoids, (b) Dinoflagellate, , (c) BGA, , (d) Chrysophytes, , 36. Chrysophytes include, (a) Diatoms, (b) Golden algae, , (c) Desmids, , (d) All of these, , 37. Diatomaceous earth is used in, (a) Polishing, (c) Filteration of syrups, , (b) Filteration of oils, (d) All of these, , 38. In _______ cell wall forms two thin overlapping shells which fit together as in a soap box., (a) Dinoflagellates, (b) Diatoms, (c) Euglenoids, (d) None of these, 39. Mostly marine, photosynthetic and biflagellate organisms are, (a) Diatoms, (b) Desmids, (c) Dinoflagellates, , (d) Euglenoids, , 40. The following features belong to, I. Appear yellow, green, brown, blue and red depending on the pigment in cell., II. Stiff cellulose plate forms cell wall., III. One longitudiual and one transverse flagella present., IV. Photosynthetic, (a) Diatoms, (b) Desmids, (c) Dinoflagellates, (d) Euglenoids, 41. Red tide is because of, (a) Desmids, (b) Gonyaulax, , (c) Euglena, , (d) Red algae, , 42. Which of the following is true about gonyaulax?, (a) Release toxin, (b) Slow multiplication causing red tide, (c) Heterotropic, (d) All of these, 43. Habitat of euglenoids is, (a) Fresh river water, (c) Marine water, , (b) Fresh stagnant water, (d) All of these, , 44. Mode of nutrition in euglenoids is, (a) Autotropic, (b) Heterotropic, , (c) Symbiotic, , (d) Mixotropic
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Biological Classification2.5, , 45. Characteristic feature of euglenoids are, A. Presence of cell wall, C. Photosynthetic in presence of sunlight, (a) A and D only, (c) B, C and D only, , B., D., (b), (d), , 46. Euglenoids have flexible body because of, (a) Cellulosic wall, (c) Lipoic wall, , (b) Protein rich pellicle, (d) Pectinic wall, , 47. Pigments of euglenoids are identical to, (a) Bacteria, (b) Diatoms, , (c) Dinoflagellates, , 48. Euglena posses all except, (a) Pellicle, (c) Two unequal flagella, , (b) Two equal flagella, (d) Mixotrophic nutrition, , Presence of two flagella, Presence of pellicle on their cell, B and D only, All of these, , (d) Higher plants, , 49. Character belongs to slime moulds, A. Saprophytes, B. Forms plasmodium under favourable condition, C. Spores posses true walls, D. Spores are dispersed by water, E. Body moves along decaying twings and leaves engulfing organic matter., (a) All except E, (b) All except D, (c) All except C and E, (d) All except B, 50. Which protist are believed to be the relatives of animals?, (a) Slime moulds, (b) Dinoflagellates, (c) Protozoans, , (d) Diatoms, , 51. Protozoans are, A. Hetrotrops, B. Parasites or predators, C. Protist, D. Belived to be primitive relative of animals, (a) A and B only, (b) B and C only, (c) D and A only, , (d) All of these, , 52. Amoeboid protozoans, (a) Live in fresh water, sea water or moist soil, (b) Captures prey by putting pseudopodia, (c) Marine forms have shells on their surface, (d) All of the above, 53. False feet is the characteristic of which protozoan?, (a) Sporozoan, (b) Ciliated protozoan, (c) Flagellated protozoan, (d) Amoeboid protozoans, 54. Sleeping sickness is caused by, (a) Plasmodium, (b) Paramoecium, , (c) Trypanosoma, , (d) Entamoeba, , 55. The protist which possess flagella is, (a) Paramoecium, (b) Plasmodium, , (c) Trypanosoma, , (d) Entamoeba
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2.6, , Biological Classification, , 56. Ciliated protozoan possess, (a) Thousands of cilia, (c) Coordinated movement of rows of cilia, , (b) Gullet that opens outsides to cell, (d) All of these, , 57. Sporozoans possesss, (a) Spore like stage in life cycle, (c) They are motile, , (b) They are infectious, (d) Both (a) and (b), , 58. Select the correct statement from the following for kingdom fungi, A. They are heterotrophic., B. They show less diversity in morphology and habitat., C. Yeast is an unicellular fungus., D. They prefer to grow in warm and humid places., (a) A and D only, (b) C and D only, (c) A, C and D only, , (d) A and B only, , 59. Which of the following are example of fungus?, (a) Toadstool, (b) Puccinia, (c) Yeast, , (d) All of these, , 60. Which of the following pairs belongs to the same kingdom?, (a) Mycoplasma and Euglena, (b) Golden algae and Green algae, (c) Toadstool and Albugo, (d) Lichens and Alternaria, 61. Refrigeration prevents food from spoilage by, (a) Fungus, (b) Bacteria, , (c) Both, , 62. Which is not a correct matching?, (a) Rust → Puccinia, (c) Chrysophyte → Diatomaceous earth, , (b) Yeast → Bread and beer, (d) Penicillium → Red tide, , (d) None of these, , 63. The following features belongs to, A. Body consist of long, slender thread-like structures called hyphae., B. Cell wall consist of chitin., C. Cosmopolitan, (a) Ciliated protozoans, (b) Slime moulds, (c) Fungi, (d) Euglenoids, 64. If hyphae are continuous tube filled with multinucleated cytoplasm it is known as, (a) Septate hyphae, (b) Coenocytic hyphae, (c) Mycelium, (d) None of these, 65. Select the correct matching:, A. Fungi depend on dead substrate, ‒ Saprophytic, B. Fungi depend on living plants and animals ‒ Parasite, C. Fungi as symbiont with algae, ‒ Lichens, D. Fungi as symbiont with root of higher plant ‒ Mycorrhazia, (a) A and B only, (b) B and C only, (c) C and D only, , (d) All of these, , 66. Vegetative reproduction in fungus takes place by, (a) Fragmentation, (b) Fission, (c) Budding, , (d) All of these, , 67. Asexual reproduction in fungus occurs by spores known as, (a) Conidia, (b) Sporangiospores, (c) Zoospores, (d) Any of the above
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Biological Classification2.7, , 68. Sexual reproduction in fungus is by, (a) Oospores, (c) Basidiospores, , (b) Ascospores, (d) Any of the above, , 69. Sexual reproduction in fungus occurs in the following sequential event. Arrange them properly., A. Fusion of two nuclei called karyogamy., B. Fusion of protoplasm between two motile or non-motile gametes., C. Meiosis in zygote resulting in haploid spores., (a) A → B → C, (b) B → A → C, (c) C → B → A, (d) C → A → B, 70. Dikaryon and dikaryophase is seen in the case of, (a) Ascomycetes, (b) Basidiomycetes, (c) Phycomycetes, (d) Both (a) and (b), 71. The kingdom fungi is divided into various classes on the basis of, (a) Morphology of mycelium, (b) Mode of spore formation, (c) Type of fruiting bodies, (d) All of these, 72. During sexual reproduction in fungus, (a) Hyphae of same class come together and fuse., (b) Hyphae of same genus come together and fuse., (c) Hyphae of closely related species come together and fuse., (d) Hyphae of compatible mating type come together and fuse., 73. Habitats of phycomycetes are, (a) Aquatic, (c) Obligate parasite in plant, , (b) Decaying wood in moist and damp place, (d) All of these, , 74. Endogenously produced spores are found in all except, (a) Mushroom, (b) Mucor, (c) Albugo, (d) Rhizopus, 75. The following features belong to class, A. Asexual reproduction by zoospores or aplanospores., B. Fusion of gametes may be isogamous, anisogamous or oogamous., C. Mycelium is aseptate and coenocytic., D. Spores are endogenously produced in sporangium., (a) Ascomycetes, (b) Deuteromycetes, (c) Phycomycetes, (d) Basidiomycetes, 76. The following fungus belongs to class ascomycetes (count the total number)., Rhizopus, Penicillium, Yeast, Mucor, Agaricus, Puccinia, Albugo, Claviceps, Neurospora,, Alternaria, Trichoderma, Aspergillus, Ustilago, Morels, Buffles, Colletotrichum, Toadstool, (a) 5, (b) 7, (c) 9, (d) 10, 77. Ascomycetes are mostly, (a) Acellular, (b) Unicellular, , (c) Multicellular, , 78. Unicellular ascomycetes is, (a) Penicillium, (c) Saccharomyces (yeast), , (b) Alternaria, (d) Agaricus, , (d) All of these
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2.8, , Biological Classification, , 79. The following features belongs to class, A. Mycelium branched and septate., B. Asexual spores conidia produced exogenously., C. Sexual spores produced endogenously., D. Many members of this class are edible., (a) Ascomycetes, (b) Phycomycetes, (c) Basidiomycetes, , (d) Deuteromycetes, , 80. Which of the following is extensively used in biochemical and genetic work?, (a) Aspergillus, (b) Claviceps, (c) Neurospora, (d) Penicillium, 81. The commonly known form of basidiomycetes are, (a) Mushrooms, (b) Bracket fungi, (c) puffballs, , (d) all, , 82. The following characteristics are of which of the given fungi?, A. Mycelium branched and septate., B. Asexual spores are generally not found., C. Vegetative reproduction by fragmentation is common., D. Sex organs are absent but plasmogamy is by fusion of two somatic cells of different, strains or genotype., (a) Phycomycetes, (b) Basidiomycetes, (c) Deuteromycetes (d) Ascomycetes, 83. Karyogamy and meiosis occurs in basidium produces ______ basidiospores., (a) 1, (b) 2, (c) 3, (d) 4, 84. Basidiospores are produced on basidium, (a) Endogenously, (b) Exogenously, , (c) Both (a) and (b), , 85. Find out the correct matching:, (a) Ustilago–Smut, (c) Agaricus–Mushroom, , (b) Puccinia–Rust, (d) All are correct, , (d) None of these, , 86. Which of the following fungi only reproduce by asexual spores conidia?, (a) Alternaria, (b) Colletotrichum, (c) Trichoderma, (d) All of these, 87. Deuteromycetes are known as imperfect fungi because, (a) Only sexual phase is found., (b) Only asexual or vegetative phase are known., (c) Both asexual and sexual phase are known., (d) Reproduction in these fungi is absent., 88. Many members of _______ class are decomposers of litter and help in mineral cycling., (a) Ascomycetes, (b) Deuteromycetes, (c) basidiomycetes, (d) phycomycetes, 89. The following features belongs to, A. Mycelium septate and branched., B. Some members are saprophytes or parasites., C. Reproduce only by conidia., (a) Ascomycetes, (b) Deuteromycetes (c) Basidiomycetes, , (d) Phycomycetes, , 90. Which of the following are examples of insectivorous plants?, (a) Bladderwort, (b) Venus fly trap, (c) Cuscuta, , (d) Both (a) and (b)
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Biological Classification2.9, , 91. Kingdom plantae include, (a) Algae and bryophytes, (c) Angiosperms, , (b) Pteridophytes and gymnosperms, (d) All of these, , 92. Plant cells have all except, (a) Chloroplast, (c) Large vacuole, , (b) Cellulosic cell wall, (d) Centriole, , 93. Alternation of generation is seen in all except, (a) Fucus, (b) Sphagnum, (c) Equisetum, , (d) Alternaria, , 94. Life cycle in plant has generally two distinct phase the ______ sporophytic and the ______, gametophytic that alternate with each other. This phenomenon is called as alternation of, generation., (a) diploid, diploid, (b) diploid, haploid, (c) haploid, diploid, (d) haploid, haploid, 95. Select from the following the total number of features belonging to animal kingdom., 1. Multicellular, heterotrophic., 7. Higher forms shows sensory and, 2. Most of them capable of locomotion., neuromotor mechanism., 3. Have definite shape and size., 8. Some members are autotrophic., 4. Digestion of food in internal cavity., 9. Presence of cellulose cell wall., 5. Holozoic mode of nutrition., 10. Sexual reproduction generally by, 6. Stored food reserve as glycogen or fat., copulation of male and female., (a) 6, (b) 7, (c) 8, (d) 10, Viruses,Viroids and Lichens, 96. In five kingdom classification of Whittaker, some acellular organisms are not included, they are, (a) Virus, (b) Viroids, (c) Lichens, (d) Both (a) and (b), 97. Virus is, (a) Completely non-living, (b) Inert crystalline structure outside the living cell, (c) Cellular organism, (d) One of Whittaker’s classification, 98. ‘Virus’, the name means, (a) Venom or poisonous fluid, (b) Acellular form, (c) Non-cellular form, (d) The connecting link between living and non-living, 99. ‘Virus’ , the name was given by, (a) Ivanowsky, (b) Pasteur, , (c) Whittaker, , (d) Beijerinck, , 100. Contagium vivum fluidum (infections living fluid) name given to fluid extract from infected, tobacco plant was given by, (a) Ivanowsky, (b) Pasteur, (c) Whittaker, (d) Beijerinek, 101. Viruses are, (a) Inert outside their specific host cell, (c) Passes through bacteria proof filter, , (b) Obligate parasite, (d) All above statements are correct
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2.10, , Biological Classification, , 102. Who showed that virus can be crystallized out?, (a) Ivanowsky, (b) Beijerinck, (c) Stanley, (d) Pasteur, 103. Virus contains, (a) Protein, (d) RNA, , (b) DNA, (d) (a) and either (b) or (c), , 104. Virus infected plants generally have, (a) Single stranded DNA, (c) Double stranded RNA, , (b) Double stranded DNA, (d) Single stranded RNA, , 105. Viruses which infect animals have, (a) Single stranded RNA, (c) Double stranded DNA, , (b) Double stranded RNA, (d) Any of the above, , 106. Bacteriophage generally have, (a) Single stranded RNA, (c) Double stranded DNA, , (b) Double stranded RNA, (d) Any of the above, , 107. Capsomeres may be arranged in, (a) Helical, (b) Polyhedral, , (c) Ellipsoid, , (d) Either (a) or (b), , 108. In virus infected plants the following symptoms can be observed, (a) Mosaic formation and stunted growth, (b) Leaf rolling and curling, (c) Yellowing and vein clearing, (d) All of these, 109. Select the total number of diseases from the following which can be caused by virus in plant or, animals., Mumps, Small pox, Rust, Smut, Herpes, Influenza, Potato spindle tuber, Red rot of sugar cane,, Turnip mosaic, Black rot crucifier, (a) 4, (b) 5, (c) 7, (d) 8, 110. Potato spindle tuber disease is caused by, (a) Virus, (b) Viroids, , (c) Lichens, , (d) Fungi, , 111. ‘Viroids’ is discovered by, (a) Ivanowsky, (b) T. O. Diener, , (c) Beijerinck, , (d) Stanley, , 112. Viroids are, (a) Free protein, , (c) Free DNA, , (d) Free saccharides, , (b) Free RNA, , 113. The molecular weight of RNA of viroid is, (a) High, (c) Very high, , (b) Low, (d) Any of the above, , 114. Lichens are symbiotic association between, (a) Algae and bacteria, (c) Algae and fungus, , (b) Bacteria and fungus, (d) Fungus and root of higher plant, , 115. In lichen, the algal component is called ______ and fungal component is called ______., (a) mycobiont, phycobiont, (b) phycobiont, mycobiont, (c) phycobiont, mycorrhazia, (d) mycorrhaiza, mycobiont
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Biological Classification2.11, , 116. Which one of the following is heterotrophic in lichen?, (a) Fungus, (b) Algae, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (d) None, , 117. Lichens are, (a) Pollution indicators, (b) Symbiotic association between algae and fungus, (c) Pioneer species in primary succession on rocks, (d) All of the above, 118. Which of the following is incorrect about lichens?, (a) Algae part is autotrophic, (b) Fungus part absorb nutrient and minerals, (c) Fungus provide shelter to algae, (d) Algae provide shelter to fungus, 119. Identify the A, B, C and D in this figure., A, , B, , (a), (b), (c), (d), , C, , D, , A–Spirilla, B–Vibrio, C–Flagellum, D–Cocci, A–Cocci, B–Flagellum, C–Spirilla, D–Vibrio, A–Vibrio, B–Spirilla, C–Cocci, D–Flagellum, A–Flagellum, B–Spirilla, C–Cocci, D–Vibrio, , 120. Identify around structure ‘A’ in this diagram, A, , Bacilli, , (a) dsDNA, , (b) Plasmid, , (c) Spore, , (d) Cosmid, , 121. What indicates A in this figure?, , A, B, , (a) Heterocyst, (c) Cyanobacteria, , (b) Mucilaginous sheath, (d) ATP
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2.12, , Biological Classification, , 122. Identify the A, B and C shown in this figure?, , B, , C, A, , (a), (b), (c), (d), , A–Cell wall, B–DNA, C–Cell membrane, A–DNA, B–Cell membrane, C–Cell wall, A–Cell membrane, B–DNA, C–Cell wall, A–DNA, B–Cell wall, C–Cell membrane, , 123. Identify the organism given in this diagram and its feature., , A, B, , (a) Vibrio–Comma shape bacteria which causes cholera, (b) Fungi–Body organization is loose tissue level, (c) Blue green algae–Filamentous structure, helps in nitrogen fixation, (d) Algae–Heterotrophic structure feeds on Nostoc, 124. Select the incorrect statement about the organism given in this diagram., , (a), (b), (c), (d), , Autotrophic in sunlight, Heterotrophic in deprived sunlight, Biflagellate, They are surrounded by protein rich layer known as cell wall
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Biological Classification2.13, , 125. Identify A, B, C in this diagram., , A, , (a), (b), (c), (d), , B, , C, , A–Euglena, B–Paramoecium, C–Vibrio, A–Paramoecium, B–Vibrio, C–Euglena, A–Flagella, B–Paramoecium, C–Vibrio, A–Paramoecium, B–Slipper animalcule, C–Vibrio, , 126. Identify the A, B and C in this figure., , A, , B, , (a) A–Agaricus, B–Mucor, C–Aspergillus, (c) A–Aspergillus, B–Mucor, C–Agaricus, , C, , (b) A–Mucor, B–Agaricus, C–Aspergillus, (d) A–Agaricus, B–Aspergillus, D–Mucor, , 127. Identify the A and B shown in this figure., , B, , A, , (a) A–DNA, B–Capsid, (c) A–Capsid, B–RNA, , (b) A–RNA, B–DNA, (d) A–RNA, B–Capsid, , 128. What is indicating A to D in this figure., C, B, , A, , D
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2.14, , Biological Classification, , (a), (b), (c), (d), , A–Collar, B–Tail Fibres, C–Head, D–Sheath, A–Sheath, B–Collar, C–Head, D–Tail fibres, A–Tail fibres, B–Sheath, C–Collar, D–Head, A–Tail fibres, B–Collar, C–Head, D–Sheath, , Assertion and Reason Questions, Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given, below:, (a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the, assertion., (b) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the, assertion., (c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false., (d) If both the assertion and reason are false., 129. Assertion: Chemotaxonomy is classifying organisms at molecular level., Reason: Cytotaxonomy is classifying organisms at cellular level., 130. Assertion: Bacteria are prokaryotic., Reason: Bacteria do not possess true nucleus and membrane bound cell organelles., 131. Assertion: Bacteria are grouped under four categories based on their shapes., Reason: Cocci and Bacilli may form clusters or chain of a definite length., 132. Assertion: Mycoplasma can survive without oxygen., Reason: They have no cell wall., 133. Assertion: Bacterial cell wall are not like the plant cell., Reason: Bacterial cell wall is made up of cellulose., 134. Assertion: Bacteria do not always move with the help of flagella., Reason: Flagellated bacteria employs rotary motion of flagellum when it moves., 135. Assertion: Amoeba contains a contractile vacuole., Reason: It helps in both digestion and osmoregulation., 136. Assertion: Whittaker proposed a five kingdom classification., Reason: The main criteria were cell structure, body organization, mode of nutrition, reproduction and phylogenetic relationship., 137. Assertion: Paramecium is aquatic, actively moving organism., Reason: Paramecium contains two nucleus., 138. Assertion: Fresh water protozoan possess contractile vacuoles., Reason: The main function of the vacuole is contraction during digestion., 139. Assertion: Sexual reproduction in protozoan is not a frequent occurrence., Reason: Sexual reproduction has no significance., 140. Assertion: Bacteria are the most abundant micro-organism., Reason: Bacteria show most extensive metabolic diversity.
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Biological Classification2.15, , 141. Assertion: Euglenoids have flexible body., Reason: Euglenoids are covered by protein rich layer called pellicle, 142. Assertion: Slime moulds are saprophytic protists., Reason: Slime moulds derive their nutrition mainly from decaying organic matter., 143. Assertion: Slime moulds are called protistan fungi., Reason: A Slime mould resembles both protozoa and true fungi., 144. Assertion: Cell walls of diatoms are indestructible., Reason: Cell walls of diatoms embedded with silica., 145. Assertion: Mycoplasma is pleomorphic (means can change their shape)., Reason: Cell wall is absent in Mycoplasma., 146. Assertion: Euglenoids shows mixotrophic nutrition., Reason: Euglenoids are autotrophic in sunlight and heterotrophic in absence of sunlight., 147. Assertion: Neurospora is used extensively in genetic work., Reason: Neurospora belongs to Ascomycetes., 148. Assertion: Bladderwort and Venus fly trap are parasite, Reason: Cuscuta is insectivorous plant., 149. Assertion: Lichens are very good pollution indicators., Reason: Lichens do not grow in polluted areas., 150. Assertion: Virus is obligate parasite, Reason: Virus can’t multiply without host cell., 151. Assertion: Aristotle used simple morphological characters to classify plants into trees, shrubs, and herbs., Reason: Aristotle divides animals in two groups on the basis of presence or absence of red, blood., 152. Assertion: Fungi are no more considered as plant., Reason: Fungi posses heterotrophic nutrition and their cell wall consist of chitin mainly., 153. Assertion: Kingdom Protista brought together chlorella and paramecium, which in earlier, classification were placed in different kingdom., Reason: Criteria for different classification are different in many aspects., 154. Assertion: Bacteria are the most abundant micro-organisms, Reason: Bacteria only shows autotrophic mode of nutrition., 155. Assertion: Bacteria have simple structure., Reason: Bacteria show most extensive metabolic diversity., 156. Assertion: Archaebacteria is most resistant to adverse environmental conditions., Reason: Archaebacteria has complex cell wall structure., 157. Assertion: Methane is produced from the dung of ruminating animals., Reason: Methanogens present in gut of many ruminant animals., 158. Assertion: Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria are useful for ecosystem., Reason: They play great role in recycling nutrients like nitrogen, phosphorus, iron and sulphur.
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2.16, , Biological Classification, , 159. Assertion: Bacteria reproduce mainly by binary fission., Reason: Under unfavourable condition they produce spores., 160. Assertion: All single called eukaryotes reproduce by asexual means only placed under kingdom Protista., Reason: Protistan cell contain well defined nucleus but not membrane bound cell organelles., 161. Assertion: Classification system has undergone several changes over a period of time., Reason: This is because the criteria for classification gradually get changed., 162. Assertion: Deuteromycetes are referred as imperfect fungi, Reason: Sexual stage is not known in these fungi., , previous year questions, 1. Given below is the diagram of a bacteriophage. In which one of the options all four parts A, B,, C and D are correct?, , [AIPMT MAINS 2010], A, C, , B, , D, , (a), (b), (c), (d), , A: Tail fibres, B: Head, C: Sheath, D: Collar, A: Sheath, B: Collar, C: Head, D: Tail fibres, A: Head, B: Sheath, C: Collar, D: Tail fibres, A: Collar, B: Tail fibres, C: Head, D: Sheath, , 2. Select the correct combination of the statements (A-D) regarding the characteristics of certain, organisms, , [AIPMT MAINS 2010], (A) Methanogens are archaebacteria which produce methane in marshy areas., (B) Nostoc is a filamentous blue–green algae which fixes atmospheric nitrogen., (C) Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria synthesize cellulose from glucose., (D) Mycoplasma lack a cell wall and can survive without oxygen., The correct statements are:, (a) (B) and (C), (b) (A), (B) and (C), (c) (B), (C) and (D), (d) (A), (B) and (D), 3. Some hyperthermophilic organisms that grow in highly acidic (pH = 2) habitats belong to the, two groups called, , [AIPMT PRE 2010]
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2.18, , Biological Classification, , 12. Which one single organism or the pair of organisms is correctly assigned to its or their named, taxonomic group?, , [AIPMT PRE 2012], (a) Paramoecium and plasmodium belong to the same kingdom as that of penicillium., (b) Lichen is a composite organism formed from the symbiotic association of an algae and a, protozoan., (c) Yeast used in making bread and beer is a fungus., (d) Nostoc and Anabaena are examples of protista., 13. Maximum nutritional diversity is found in the group, , (a) Fungi, (b) Animalia, (c) Monera, (d) Plantae, , [AIPMT PRE 2012], , 14. Pigment containing membranous extensions in some cyanobacteria are, , [AIPMT PRE 2013], (a) Heterocysts, (b) Basal bodies, (c) Pneumatophores, (d) Chromatophores, 15. The five kingdom system of classification suggested by R. H. Whittaker is not based on, , [AIPMT PRE 2014], (a) Presence or absence of a well defined nucleus, (b) Mode of reproduction, (c) Mode of nutrition, (d) Complexity of body organization, 16. Which one of the following fungi contains hallucinogens?, , [AIPMT PRE 2014], (a) Morchella esculenta, (b) Amanita muscaria, (c) Neurospora sp., (d) Ustilago sp., 17. Archaebacteria differ from eubacteria in, , (a) Cell membrane structure, (c) Cell shape, , [AIPMT PRE 2014], (b) Mode of nutrition, (d) Mode of reproduction, , 18. Anoxygenic photosynthesis is the characteristic of, , (a) Rhodospirillum, (b) Spirogyra, (c) Chlamydomonas, (d) Ulva, , [AIPMT PRE 2014], , 19. Which of the following shows coiled RNA strand and capsomeres?, , [AIPMT PRE 2014], (a) Polio virus, (b) Tobacco mosaic virus, (c) Measles virus, (d) Retrovirus, 20. Viruses have, , (a) DNA enclosed in a protein coat, (c) Single chromosome, , [AIPMT PRE 2014], (b) Prokaryotic nucleus, (d) Both DNA and RNA
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Biological Classification2.19, , 21. A location with luxuriant growth of lichen on the trees indicated that the, , [AIPMT PRE 2014], (a) Tress are very healthy, (b) Trees are heavily infested, (c) Location is highly polluted, (d) Location is not polluted, 22. Which of the following matches is correct?, (a) Phytophthora, → Aseptate mycelium, (b) Alternania, → Sexual reproduction absent, (c) Mucor, → Reproduction by conjugation, (d) Agaricus, → Parasitic fungus, 23. The guts of cow and buffalo posses, (a) Fucus spp , (c) Methanogens , , →, →, →, →, , [AIPMT 2015], Basidiomycetes, Deuteromycetes, Ascomycetes, Basidiomycetes, [AIPMT 2015], , (b) Chlorella spp, (d) Cyanobacteria, , 24. The imperfect fungi which are decomposers of litter and help in mineral cycling belong to, , [RE-AIPMT 2015], (a) Basidiomycetes, (b) Phycomycetes, (c) Ascomycetes, (d) Deuteromycetes, 25. Pick up the wrong statement:, , (a) Protista have photosynthetic and heterotrophic modes of nutrition., (b) Some fungi are edible., (c) Nuclear membrane is present in Monera., (d) Cell wall is absent in Animalia., 26. Chromatophores take part in, , (a) Growth, (c) Respiration, , [RE-AIPMT 2015], , [RE-AIPMT 2015], (b) Movement, (d) Photosynthesis, , 27. Which of the following disease is caused by a protozoan?, , (a) Influenza, (b) Babesiosis, (c) Blastomycosis, (d) Syphilis, , [RE-AIPMT 2015], , 28. Select the wrong statement, , [RE-AIPMT 2015], (a) W.M. Stanley showed that viruses could be crystallized, (b) The term ‘contagium vivum fluidum’ was coined by M.W. Beijerinek, (c) Mosaic disease in tobacco and AIDS in human being are caused by viruses, (d) The viroids were discovered by D.J. Ivanowsky, 29. Cell wall is absent in, , (a) Funaria, (c) Nostoc, , [RE-AIPMT 2015], (b) Mycoplasma, (d) Aspergillus, , 30. In which group of organisms the cell walls from two thin overlapping shells which fit together?, , [RE-AIPMT 2015]
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2.20, , Biological Classification, , (a) Euglenoids, (c) Slime moulds, , (b) Dianoflagellates, (d) Chrysophytes, , 31. Choose the wrong statement:, , (a) Neurospora is used in the study of biochemical genetics, (b) Morels and Buffles are poisonous mushrooms, (c) Yeast is unicellular and useful in fermentation, (d) Penicillium is multicellular and produces antibiotics, , [RE-AIPMT 2015], , 32. Which of the following statements is wrong for viroids?, (a) They lack a protein coat, (b) They causes infections, (c) They are smaller than viruses, (d) Their RNA is of high molecular weight, , [NEET - I, 2016], , 33. Which of the following statements is wrong?, (a) Cyanobacteria are also called blue-green algae., (b) Golden algae are also called desmids., (c) Eubacteria are also called false bacteria., (d) Phycomycetes are also called algal fungi., , [NEET - I, 2016], , 34. Which of the following would appear as the pioneer organisms on bare rocks?, , [NEET - I, 2016], (a) Lichens, (b) Mosses, (c) Liverworts, (d) Green algae, 35. Chrysophytes, Euglenoids, Dinoflagellates and Slime moulds are included in the kingdom:, , [NEET - I, 2016], (a) Monera, (b) Protista, (c) Fungi, (d) Animalia, 36. The primitive prokaryotes responsible for the production of biogas from the dung of ruminant, animals, include the:, [NEET - I, 2016], (a) Halophiles, (b) Thermoacidophiles, (c) Methanogens, (d) Eubacteria, 37. Which one of the following is wrong for fungi?, (a) All fungi possess a purely cellulosic cell wall, (b) They are heterotrophic, (c) They are both unicellular and multicellular, (d) They are eukaryotic, , [NEET - II, 2016], , 38. Methanogens belong to, (a) Archaebacteria, (c) Slime moulds, , [NEET - II, 2016], (b) Dianoflagellates, (d) Eubacteria, , 39. Select the wrong statement:, (a) ‘Diatomaceous earth’ is formed by the cell walls of diatoms, (b) Diatoms are chief producers in the oceans, (c) Diatoms are chief microscopic and float passively in water, (d) The walls of diatoms are easily destructible, , [NEET - II, 2016]
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Biological Classification2.21, , NCERT Exemplar Questions, 1. All eukaryotic unicellular organisms belong to, (a) Monera, (b) Protista, (c) Fungi, (d) Bacteria, 2. The five kingdom classification was proposed by, (a) R.H. Whittaker, (b) C. Linnaeus, (c) A. Roxberg, (d) Virchow, 3. Organisms living in salty areas are called as, (a) Methanogens, (c) Heliophytes, , (b) Halophiles, (d) Thermoacidophiles, , 4. Naked cytoplasm, multinucleated and saprophytic specifications are the characteristics of, (a) Monera, (b) Protista, (c) Fungi, (d) Slime moulds, 5. An association between roots of higher plants and fungi is called, (a) Lichen, (b) Fern, (c) Mycorrhiza, (d) BGA, 6. A dikaryon is formed when, (a) Meiosis is formed, (b) The two haploid cells do not fuse completely, (c) Cytoplasm does not fuse, (d) None of the above, 7. Contagium vivum fluidum was proposed by, (a) D. J. Ivanovsky, (b) Stanley, , (b) M. W. Beijerinck, (d) Robert Hook, , 8. The association between mycobiont and phycobiont is found in, (a) Mycorrhiza, (b) Root, (c) Lichens, (d) BGA, 9. Difference between a Virus and a Viroid is, (a) Absence of protein coat in viroid but present in virus., (b) Presence of low molecular weight RNA in virus but absent in viroid., (c) Both a and b, (d) None of the above, 10. With respect to fungal sexual cycle, choose the correct sequence of events., (a) Karyogamy, Plasmogamy and Meiosis, (b) Meiosis, Plasmogamy and Karyogamy, (c) Plasmogamy, Karyogamy and Meiosis, (d) Meiosis, Karyogamy and Plasmogamy, 11. Viruses are non-cellular organisms but replicate themselves once they infect the host cell. To, which of the following kingdom do viruses belong to?, (a) Monera, (b) Protista, (c) Fungi, (d) None of the above
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2.22, , Biological Classification, , 12. Members of phycomycetes are found in, i. Aquatic habitats, ii. On decaying wood, iii. Moist and damp places, iv. As obligate parasites on plants, Choose from the following options., (a) None of the above, (c) ii and iii, , (b) i and iv, (d) All the above, , Answer Keys, Practice Questions, 1. (b), 2. (b), 3. (b), 4. (d), 5. (c), 6. (d), 7. (d), 8. (c), 9. (d) 10. (b), 11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (d) 14. (d) 15. (a) 16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (a), 21. (c) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (b) 25. (b) 26. (a) 27. (d) 28. (b) 29. (d) 30. (d), 31. (d) 32. (d) 33. (b) 34. (c) 35. (d) 36. (d) 37. (d) 38. (b) 39. (c) 40. (c), 41. (b) 42. (a) 43. (b) 44. (d) 45. (c) 46. (b) 47. (d) 48. (b) 49. (b) 50. (c), 51. (d) 52. (d) 53. (d) 54. (c) 55. (c) 56. (d) 57. (d) 58. (c) 59. (d) 60. (c), 61. (c) 62. (d) 63. (c) 64. (b) 65. (d) 66. (d) 67. (d) 68. (d) 69. (b) 70. (d), 71. (d) 72. (d) 73. (d) 74. (a) 75. (c) 76. (b) 77. (c) 78. (c) 79. (a) 80. (c), 81. (d) 82. (b) 83. (d) 84. (b) 85. (d) 86. (d) 87. (b) 88. (b) 89. (b) 90. (d), 91. (d) 92. (d) 93. (d) 94. (b) 95. (c) 96. (d) 97. (b) 98. (a) 99. (b) 100. (d), 101. (d) 102. (c) 103. (d) 104. (d) 105. (d) 106. (c) 107. (d) 108. (d) 109. (b) 110. (b), 111. (b) 112. (b) 113. (b) 114. (c) 115. (b) 116. (a) 117. (d) 118. (d) 119. (d) 120. (c), 121. (a) 122. (d) 123. (c) 124. (d) 125. (a) 126. (b) 127. (c) 128. (b), Assertion and Reason Questions, 129. (b), 139. (c), 149. (a), 159. (b), , 130. (a), 140. (b), 150. (a), 160. (d), , 131. (b), 141. (a), 151. (b), 161. (a), , 132. (b) 133. (a) 134. (b) 135. (c) 136. (b) 137. (b) 138. (c), 142. (a) 143. (a) 144. (a) 145. (a) 146. (a) 147. (b) 148. (d), 152. (a) 153. (a) 154. (c) 155. (b) 156. (a) 157. (a) 158. (a), 162. (a), Previous Year Questions, , 1. (c), 11. (b), 21. (d), 31. (b), , 2. (d), 12. (c), 22. (b), 32. (d), , 3. (a), 13. (c), 23. (c), 33. (c), , 4. (a), 14. (d), 24. (d), 34. (a), , 5. (a), 15. (a), 25. (c), 35. (b), , 6. (b), 16. (b), 26. (d), 36. (c), , 7. (a), 17. (a), 27. (b), 37. (a), , 8. (b), 18. (a), 28. (d), 38. (a), , 9. (d), 19. (b), 29. (b), 39. (d), , 10. (d), 20. (a), 30. (d), , 8. (c), , 9. (a), , 10. (c), , NCERT Exemplar Questions, 1. (b), 11. (d), , 2. (a), 12. (d), , 3. (b), , 4. (d), , 5. (c), , 6. (b), , 7. (b)
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CHAPTER, , 3, , Plant Kingdom, prACtiCe Questions, , Classification System, 1. Who suggested the five kingdom of classifications?, (a) Robert Hooke, (b) Joseph Dalton Hooker, (c) Carolus Linnaeus, (d) Whittaker, 2. The earliest classification used only, (a) Physiological characters, (c) Gross morphological characters, , (b) Gross anatomical characters, (d) All of these, , 3. Artificial systems gave equal weightage to, (a) Morphological and anatomical characters, (b) Vegetative and sexual characters, (c) Vegetative and anatomical characters, (d) Morphological and sexual characters, 4. _______ characters are easily affected by environment, (a) Sexual, (b) Somatic, (c) Anatomical, 5. Natural classification system developed were, (a) Natural affinities amongst organism, (c) Embryology, , (d) All of these, , (b) Ultra structure and anatomy, (d) All of these, , 6. The classification based on evolutionary history was, (a) Phylogenetic classification, (b) Artificial classification, (c) Numerical classification, (d) None of these, 7. Numbers and codes are assigned to the characters in, (a) Cytotaxonomy, (b) Chemotaxonomy, (c) Numerical taxonomy, (d) None of these, 8. Chemotaxonomy is based on, (a) Information of chromosome number, structure and behaviour., (b) Chemical constituents of plants, (c) All observable characters, (b) Only sexual characters, 9. According to phylogenetic classification the organisms belonging to same taxa, (a) Are same in anatomy, (b) Have same genetic constituent, (c) Have a common ancestor, (d) Have all same characteristics
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3.2, , Plant Kingdom, , 10. The characters used to classify organism when no fossil evidence is supportive is, (a) Numerical taxonomy, (b) Cytotaxonomy, (c) Chemotaxonomy, (d) All of these, Algae, 11. Chlorophyll bearing, thalloid, simply, autotropic and mainly aquatic organisms are, (a) Bryophytes, (b) Protist, (c) Algae, (d) All of these, 12. Filamentous forms of algae are, (a) Ulothrix, (b) Spirogyra, 13. Volvox is a, (a) Unicellular algae, , (c) Chlamydomonas, , (b) Filamentous algae (c) Colonial algae, , (d) Both (a) and (b), (d) Symbiotic algae, , 14. The modes of reproduction found in algae are, (a) Vegetative, (b) Asexual, (c) Sexual, , (d) All of these, , 15. Vegetative reproduction in algae is by, (a) Binary fusion, (b) Fragmentation, , (c) Budding, , (d) Cyst formation, , 16. Spore formation in algae occur during, (a) Vegetative reproduction, (c) Sexual reproduction, , (b) Asexual reproduction, (d) During germination, , 17. Isogamy is seen in, (a) Chlamydomonas, , (c) Both (a) and (b), , (b) Spirogyra, , 18. Algae possesing both isogamy and anisogamy is, (a) Chlamydomonas (b) Volvox, (c) Spirogyra, , (d) None of these, (d) Fucus, , 19. Male gamete is small and motile and female gamete is large and immotile in, (a) Fucus, (b) Spirogyra, (c) Ulothrix, (d) All of these, 20. 50 per cent CO2 fixation on earth is carried out by, (a) Protist, (b) Higher plants, (c) Algae, , (d) None of these, , 21. Marine algae used as food are, (a) Laminaria, (b) Sargassum, , (c) Porphyra, , (d) All of these, , 22. Hydrocolloids are secreted by, (a) All of the algae, (c) Only red algae, , (b) Only brown algae, (d) Both red and brown algae, , 23. Algin is secreted by, (a) All of the algae, (c) Only red algae, , (b) Only brown algae, (d) Both red and brown algae, , 24. Carrageen is secreted by, (a) All of the algae, (c) Only red algae, , (b) Only brown algae, (d) Both red and brown algae, , 25. Microbes used in the preparation of ice cream and jellies are grown on the product secreted by, (a) Chlorella, (b) Spirullina, (c) Gelidium and gracilaria, (d) All of these
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Plant Kingdom3.3, , 26. The algae rich in proteins and used as food by space travellers is, (a) Chlorella, (b) Spirullina, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (d) Laminaria, , 27. Agar is commercially obtained from, (a) Gelidium and gracilaria, (c) Chlorella and spirullina, , (b) Laminaria and spirulina, (d) Chlamydomonas and spirogyra, , 28. Green algae are kept in, (a) Phaeophyceae, (b) Xanthophylls, , (c) Xhlorophyceae, , (d) Rhodophyceae, , 29. The organism which contain chlorophyll ‘a’ and ‘b’ cup-shaped chloroplast and is unicellular is, (a) Spirogyra, (b) Chlamydomonas (c) Volvox, (d) Ulothrix, 30. Dominance of chlorophyll ‘a’ and ‘b’, pyrenoids and starch as stored food are found in, (a) Members of chlorophyceae, (b) Members of rhodophyceae, (c) Members of phaeophyceae, (d) All of these, 31. Chlorophyceae are grass green due to the dominance of pigment, (a) Chlorophyll a, c, (b) Chlorophyll b, a, (c) Chlorophyll d, c, (d) All of these, 32. Pyrenoids are located in, (a) Cytoplasm, (b) Mitochondria, , (c) Chloroplast, , (d) Nucleus, , 33. Pyrenoids store, (a) Protein, , (c) Lipids, , (d) Both (a) and (b), , (b) Starch, , 34. Cell wall of green algae is made up of, (a) Cellulose and pectose, (b) Cellulose and pectin, (c) Inner layer of pectose and outer layer of cellulose, (d) Inner layer of cellulose and outer layer of pectose, 35. Zoospores are formed during asexual reproduction of algae and formed in, (a) Sporangia, (b) Zoosporangia, (c) Microsporangia, (d) Megasporangia, 36. Sexual reproduction is of isogamous, anisogamous and oogamous in, (a) Chlorophyceae, (b) Rhodophyceae, (c) Chlorophyceae and Phaeophyceae, (d) Chlorophyceae and Rhodophyceae, 37. Algae which are primarily marine is, (a) Red algae, (b) Brown algae, , (c) Green algae, , (d) All of these, , 38. Filamentous brown algae is, (a) Spirogyra, (b) Laminaria, , (c) Ectocarpus, , (d) Porphyra, , 39. Green algae performs _______ oogamous type sexual reproduction, (a) Sphagnum, (b) Volvox, (c) Dictyota, , (d) Spirogyra, , 40. Kelps represent the group of, (a) Bryophytes, (b) Red algae, , (c) Green algae, , (d) Brown algae, , 41. Kelps may reach a height up to, (a) 120 m, (b) 100 m, , (c) 1000 m, , (d) 10 m
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3.4, , Plant Kingdom, , 42. The algae which possess chlorophyll a, c, carotenoids and xanthophylls belong to, (a) Green algae, (b) Brown algae, (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these, 43. Brown algae vary in colour from _______ to various shades of _______ depending on the, amount of _______ pigment and _______ present in them, (a) fucoxanthin, xanthophyll, blue, brown, (b) blue, brown, fucoxanthin, xanthophyll, (c) yellow, brown, fucoxanthin, xanthophyll, (d) olive green, brown, fucoxanthin, xanthophyll, 44. Laminaria and mannitol are stored foods of, (a) Euglena, (b) Green algae, , (c) Liverworts, , (d) Brown algae, , 45. The plant body of algae is divided in holdfast, stipe and fronds in, (a) Chara, (b) Laminaria, (c) Porphyra, , (d) All of these, , 46. The plant body attached to substratum in brown algae is by, (a) Rhizoids, (b) Multicellular hair (c) Holdfast, , (d) Roots, , 47. The photosynthetic leaf like organ found in some of the algae are called, (a) Sporophyll, (b) Fronds, (c) Leaves, (d) Scaly leaves, 48. Zoospores of brown algae are, (a) Uniflagellate, (c) Biflagellate, , (b) Multiflagellate, (d) May be any of the above three, , 49. The arrangement of flagella in brown algae is, (a) One and equally arranged, (b) Two unequal and laterally arranged, (c) Many flagella arranged anywhere on the body, (d) Depends from organism to organism, 50. The biflagellate pear-shaped zoospores are characteristics of, (a) Red algae, (b) Green algae, (c) Brown algae, , (d) All of these, , 51. Fertilization in brown algae occurs in, (a) Water, (b) Within the oogonia (c) Both (a) and (b), , (d) None of these, , 52. Sexual reproduction shown by members of brown algae is, (a) Isogamous, (b) Anisogamous, (c) Oogamous, , (d) All of these, , 53. Pyriform gametes means, (a) Pea-shaped gametes, (c) Gametes with one flagella, , (b) Pear shaped gametes, (d) All of these, , 54. Dictyota belongs to, (a) Bryophytes, , (c) Brown algae, , (b) Green algae, , 55. Red algae are red due to the presence of pigment, (a) Phycoerythrin, (b) r-phycocyanin, (c) r-phycoerythrin, 56. Red algae are found in, (a) Cold seas, (c) Warm water, , (d) None of these, (d) r-phepocyamin, , (b) Seas with moderate temperature, (d) None of these
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Plant Kingdom3.5, , 57. Algae found in the areas where no light penetrates is, (a) Green algae, (b) Dinoflagellates, (c) Red algae, , (d) Brown algae, , 58. Algae found in areas with abundant light as well as areas of great depths with no light is, (a) Red algae, (b) Green algae, (c) Blue algae, (d) Brown algae, 59. Red algae are mostly, (a) Unicellular, (c) May be multicellular and unicellular, , (b) Multicellular, (d) None of these, , 60. Floridean starch is stored food found in, (a) Some protist, (b) Some bryophytes (c) Some algae, , (d) Prokaryotes, , 61. Floridean starch is similar to, (a) Amylopectin, (b) Glycogen, , (c) Fructose, , (d) Both (a) and (b), , 62. The spores and gametes of red algae are, (a) Motile and non-motile, (c) Both non-motile, , (b) Both are motile, (d) Motile spores and non-motile gamete, , 63. Sexual reproduction of oogamous type is found in, (a) Red algae, (b) Green algae, (c) Brown algae, , (d) All of these, , 64. The most reduced type of sexual reproduction is found in the members of, (a) Red algae, (b) Green algae, (c) Brown algae, (d) All of these, 65. _______ reproduction is shown by the members of rhodophyceae., (a) Oogamous, (b) Isogamous, (c) Anisogamous, , (d) All of these, , 66. Fronds are found in which of the following algae?, I. Laminaria, II. Fucus, III. Dictyota, IV. Porphyra, (a) I, II, and III, (b) I and II, (c) II and III, , (d) All of these, , 67. Air bladders are shown by, (a) Fucus, (b) Laminaria, , (d) All of these, , (c) Dictyota, , 68. How many of the following algae belong to the category of red algae?, , Polysiphonia, Gelidium, Laminaria, Spirogyra, Porphyra, Fucus, Chlamydomonas, (a) 2, (b) 3, (c) 4, (d) 5, 69. Members of phaeophyceae are, (a) Ectocarpus, dictyota, fucus and sargassum, (b) Ectocarpus, dictyota, fucus and porphyra, (c) Chlamydomonas, volvox, ulothrix, (d) Gracilaria and gelidium, 70. Polysulphate esters are present in the cell wall of, (a) Ectocarpus and dictyota, (b) Gelidium and gracilaria, (c) Ectocarpus and sargassum, (d) Spirogyra and chara, 71. Pear-shaped gametes are found in, (a) Ectocarpus, dictyota and fucus, (c) Ectocarpus, gelidium and gracilaria, , (b) Ulothrix, spirogyra, and ectocarpus, (d) None of these
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3.6, , Plant Kingdom, , 72. The complex post-fertilization events are seen in, (a) Chlorella and spirullina, (b) Gracilaria and porphyra, (c) Volvox and ulothrix, (d) All of these, Bryophytes, 73. Organisms referred to as amphibians of plant kingdom are, (a) Pteridophytes, (b) Bryophytes, (c) Angiosperms, 74. Bryophytes are found in, (a) Rocky places, (c) Moist and shady places, , (d) Gymnosperms, , (b) Hilly areas, (d) Aquatic areas, , 75. Organisms that play an important role in plant succession on base rocks are, (a) Mosses, (b) Pteridophytes, (c) Protist, (d) None of these, 76. Bryophytes requires _______ for fertilization, (a) Nutrients, (b) Water, , (c) Both (a) and (b), , (d) None of these, , 77. Which of the following statement is incorrect with respect to bryophytes?, (a) The plant body is thallus like, more differentiated than algae and attached to substratum, by the help of rhizoids., (b) The antherozoids are released in water for fertilization., (c) Zygote formed undergoes meiotic cell division immediately., (d) They have leaf like, stem like and root like structures., 78. The sporophyte of bryophytes develops after, (a) Reduction division of zygote, (c) Before the formation of zygote, , (b) Multiplication in zygote, (d) None of these, , 79. Sporophyte of bryophytes is, I. Multicellular body, II. Parasite on gametophyte, III. Partially undergoes reduction division to form spores, IV. Derives the water from gametophytes, (a) II and III, (b) III and IV, (c) Only I, , (d) All of these, , 80. _______ forms gametophyte of bryophytes., (a) Zygote, (b) Sporophyte, , (d) Spores, , (c) Gametes, , 81. The organism having more differentiated plant body than algae is, (a) Protist, (b) Mosses, (c) Monera, , (d) None of these, , 82. The gametophyte possessing leaf like, root like and stem like structure is, (a) Gymnosperm, (b) Chlorophyceae, (c) Slime molds, (d) Mosses, 83. The male sex organ of bryophyte is called, (a) Antherozoids, (b) Testes, , (c) Globule, , 84. The sex organ in bryophytes are, (a) Reduced to single celled stage, (c) Net cell developed, , (b) Multicellular, (d) Formed in sporophyte stage, , 85. The main plant body of bryophyte is, (a) Haploid, (b) Diploid, , (c) Polyploid, , (d) None of these, , (d) All of these
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Plant Kingdom3.7, , 86. Female sex organ of bryophytes is, (a) Oval in shape, (c) Flask shaped, , (b) Irregular, (d) Depends on the organism, , 87. Female sex organ of bryophyte is called, (a) Nucleus, (b) Ovary, , (c) Oogonia, , (d) Archegonium, , 88. Archegonium contains _______ egg cells in bryophytes, (a) More than one, (b) Two, (c) Four, , (d) One, , 89. Division in zygote results in the formation of _______ in bryophytes, (a) Gametophyte, (b) Sporophyte, (c) Antherozoids, , (d) Archegonium, , 90. Gametophyte of bryophyte is, (a) Free living and sporophyte, (c) May be free living or autotropic, , (b) Free living and autotrophic, (d) Always pressure, , 91. Peat used in transshipment is a product obtained by, (a) Liverworts, (b) Phaeophyceae, (c) Mosses, , (d) None of these, , 92. Organisms which first colonizes the base rocks is, (a) Mosses, (b) Mycorrhiza, (c) Lichens, , (d) Both (a) and (c), , 93. Mosses are ecologically important because, I. The first organism to colonize base rocks., II. It decompose rocks making suitable for the growth of higher plant., III. It forms dense mats on soil., IV. It reduces the impact of falling rain and soil erosion., (a) Only I, (b) Only II, (c) III and IV, (d) All of these, 94. Peat which is long used as fuel is a product obtained from, (a) Gelidium, (b) Species of sphagnum, (c) All mosses, (d) All liverworts, 95. Organisms participating as pioneers in ecological succession belongs to, (a) Lichens, (b) Mosses, (c) Liverworts, (d) Both (a) and (b), 96. Liverworts are found in, (a) Moist shady places, (b) Banks of steams, marshy ground, (c) Damp soil, bard of trees and deep in the woods, (d) All of the above, 97. The thallus of liverworts are, (a) Sexual multiplication of the formation of sex organs called gemmae., (b) Dorsiventral and appressed to substrate., (c) Found in xeric habitats., (d) Diploid, 98. Asexual reproduction in liverworts means, (a) Fragmentation of thalli, (b) Formation of specialized structure called gemmae, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) None of these
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3.8, , Plant Kingdom, , 99. Gemmae in liverworts are formed during, (a) Sexual reproduction, (c) Spore formation, 100. Marchantia is, (a) An algae, , (b) Gymnosperm, , (b) Asexual reproduction, (d) Adverse conduction, (c) Fern, , (d) Bryophyte, , 101. Sexual reproduction in liverworts takes place by, (a) Formation of sex organs always on the same thallus., (b) Formation of male and female sex organs on different thallus., (c) Sexual reproduction is absent., (d) Male and female sex organs may be present on same or different thalli., 102. The sporophyte in liverworts, (a) Is the dominant and main phase of the plant body., (b) Is differentiated into foot, seta and capsule., (c) Parasite on the gametophyte, (d) Both (b) and (c), 103. Spore in bryophytes are formed, (a) On the gametophyte, (c) In the seta of sporophyte, , (b) On the sporophyte, (d) In the capsule of sporophyte, , 104. The gametophyte of bryophyte develops from, (a) A haploid spore, (b) A diploid spore, (c) Zygote, , (d) None of these, , 105. Zygote of bryophyte, (a) Multiply and forms gametophyte, (b) Multiply and forms sporophyte, (c) Undergoes reduction division just after formation, (d) All are correct, 106. The dominant stage of gametophyte of mosses consists of, (a) Protonema which develops from the lateral bud, (b) A leafy stage developing from a spore, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) A leafy stage developing from the secondary protonema, 107. Protonema is found in, (a) Liverworts, (b) Selaginella, , (c) Funaria, , (d) None, , 108. Which one is correct about protonema?, (a) It is a dominant stage mosses, (b) Develops from spore, (c) It is creeping, green, branched and frequently filamentous, (d) All are correct, 109. Leafy stage in bryophytes, (a) Develops from secondary protonema., (b) Consist of upright, slender axis and bears consist of alternately arranged leaves., (c) Attached to the soil through unicellular and branched rhizoids., (d) All of these
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Plant Kingdom3.9, , 110. Sex organs in mosses develops on, (a) Secondary protonema, (c) On capsule of sporophyte, , (b) Leafy stage, (d) None of these, , 111. Vegetative reproduction in mosses takes place by, (a) Fragmentation and budding in secondary protonema, (b) Binary fission, (c) Spore dispersal, (d) All of these, 112. Sporophyte of mosses is more elaborated from, (a) Ferns, (b) Pinus, (c) Polytrichum, 113. Spores in bryophytes are formed by, (a) Mitosis, (c) Mitosis in zygote, , (d) Marchantia, , (b) Meiosis in gametophyte, (d) Meiosis in zygote, , 114. Elaborate mechanism of spore dispersal is found in, (a) Ferns, (b) Mosses, (c) Liverworts, , (d) None of these, , 115. Sphagnum belongs to, (a) Ferns, (b) Liverworts, , (d) None of these, , (c) Mosses, , 116. The plants frequently grown as ornamentals and are used for medicinal purpose belong to, (a) Angiosperms, (b) Pteridophytes, (c) Algae, (d) Some protist, 117. The first terrestrial plants to posses vascular tissues are, (a) Gymnosperms, (b) Bryophyte, (c) Pteridophytes, 118. The main plant body of pteridophytes is, (a) Gametophytes as well as sporophyte, (c) None of these, , (d) All of these, , (b) Sporophyte, (d) Both (a) and (b), , 119. The plant body of pteridophyte is, (a) Not well-developed, (b) Lacks vascular tissue, (c) Is thalloid, (d) Posses true root, leaves and stem, 120. Pteridophytes have only, (a) Small microphyllous leaves, (b) Large macrophyllous leaves, (c) Both microphyllous as well as macrophyllous in some of the ferns, (d) All of the above, 121. Which one is false about pteridophyte?, (a) They flourish well moist and shady condition, (b) They are found in cool damp and shady place, (c) The xylem posses vessels, (d) None of these, 122. Prothallus is the gametophyte of, (a) Bryophytes, (b) Algae, , (c) Pteridophyte, , (d) Gymnosperm
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3.10, , Plant Kingdom, , 123. The gametophyte of pteridophyte grows in damp, moist and shady places because, (a) They are limited and restricted to a narrow geographical region., (b) They need water for fertilization of gametes formed on the gametophyte., (c) Water is required for gametogenesis., (d) Egg cell swims in water to reach to the antheridia., 124. Gametophyte of pteridophyte, (a) Parasite on sporophyte, (c) Photosynthetical and free living, , (b) Not a free living stage, (d) Is unicellular, , 125. Vascular plants which do not bear seeds is, (a) Angiosperms, (b) Pteridophytes, , (c) Gymnosperms, , (d) None of these, , 126. Macrophylls leaves are characteristics of, (a) Mosses, (b) Ferns, , (c) Funaria, , (d) None of these, , 127. Pteridophyte having microphylls is, (a) Ferns, (b) Psilotum, , (c) Selaginella, , (d) All of these, , 128. The production of spores by the spore mother cells is the result of, (a) Mitosis, (b) Meiosis, (c) Mitosis and meiosis both, (d) Amitosis, 129. The leaves bearing sporangia are called, (a) Sporophylls, (b) Fronds, , (c) Tropophylls, , 130. Cones in pteridophytes are formed in, (a) Salvinia, (c) Dryopteris, , (b) Selaginella and lycopodium, (d) Selaginella and Equisetum, , 131. Spores in pteridophytes give rise to, (a) Sporophyte, (c) Free living gametophyte, , (b) Parasite gametophyte, (d) Free living sporophyte, , (d) Scaly leaves, , 132. Which of the following are correct about pteridophytes?, I. The sporophytes bear sporangia that are formed on the sporophylls., II. They are frequently grown as ornamentals., III. They are the first terrestrial plants to forms seeds., IV. Vascular tissues are absent in pteridophytes., V. some species flourish well in sandy soil conditions., (a) V and IV, (b) I, II and IV, (c) III, IV and V, (d) I and II, 133. Sex organs in pteridophytes are formed on the, (a) Multicellular well-developed sporophyte., (b) Multicellular main gametophyte phase of the plant., (c) Photosynthetic, free living gametophyte., (d) Parasite, gametophyte dependent on sporophyte., 134. The male and female sex organs of pteridophyte are called, (a) Globule and nucule respectively, (b) Antheridia and archegonia respectively, (c) Spermatangia and oogonia respectively, (d) Tests and ovary respectively
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Plant Kingdom3.11, , 135. Zygote of pteridophyte, (a) Undergoes reduction division just often formation, (b) Produces multicellular gametophyte, (c) Produces multicellular sporophyte, (d) Remains dormant, 136. Majority of the pteridophytes are, I. Homosporous and produce only one kind of spores., II. Aquatic in nature., III. Heterosporus and produce small and large spores., IV. Restricted to narrow geographical zone because of specific requirement of water., (a) I and II, (b) II and III, (c) III and IV, (d) IV and I, 137. Heterosporous pteridophytes are, (a) Dryopteris and pteris, (c) Selaginella and salvinia, , (b) Selaginella and lycopodium, (d) Equisetum and Adiantum, , 138. Heterosporous plants are, (a) Plants producing one kind of spores., (b) Plants producing large and small spores., (c) Plants producing two type of spores which are similar in size., (d) None of these, 139. Megaspore germinate into, (a) Female gametophyte, (b) Gametophyte having both male and female sex organs, (c) Male gametophyte, (d) Male sporophyte, 140. The female gametophytes are retained on the parent sporophyte in, (a) Homosporous species of pteridophytes, (b) Heterosporous species of pteridophytes, (c) Both are correct, (d) Both are incorrect, 141. Process similar to seed habit considerably is observed in, (a) Homosporous species of pteridophytes, (b) Heterosporous species of pteridophyte, (c) All the members of pteridophytes, (d) Not seen in pteridophyte, 142. Vascular plants, with seeds but no fruits are, (a) Bryophyte, (b) Angiosperms, , (c) Gymnosperms, , (d) Pteridophytes, , 143. In heterosporous pteridophyte, (a) Zygote develops into young embryo in the female gametophyte., (b) Zygote multiples and develop into sporophyte in the soil., (c) All spores are similar, (d) None of these, 144. Naked seed plants are, (a) Algae, (b) Bryophyte, , (c) Angiosperms, , (d) Gymnosperms
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3.12, , Plant Kingdom, , 145. Ovules are not enclosed by the ovaries in, (a) Pteridophytes, (c) Gymnosperms, , (b) Angiosperms, (d) All of these, , 146. The tallest gymnosperms is, (a) Sequoia (red wood tree), (c) Cycas, , (b) Pinus, (d) Ginkgo, , 147. Coralloid roots having association with N2 fixing bacteria are found in, (a) Pinus, (b) Cedrus, (c) Sequoia, (d) Cycas, 148. In gymnosperms, the mycorrhizal association are found in, (a) Cycas, (b) Pinus, (c) Cedrus, 149. Gymnosperms, (a) Are naked seeds plants, (c) Are heterosporous, , (d) All of these, , (b) Have tap roots, (d) All of these, , 150. Which of the following are correct for gymnosperms?, I. Have adventitious root system., II. The leaves in gymnosperms can withstand extreme temperature, humidity and wind., III. Microspores are produced in microsporangia., IV. They include medium or tall sized trees and shrubs., (a) I and III, (b) I, II and II, (c) II, III and IV, (d) I and IV, 151. In cycas, (a) The stems are unbranched., (b) The pinnately compound leaves persist for years., (c) Have symbiotic association with n2 fixing cynobacteria., (d) All are correct., 152. Which of the following statements are correct for conifers?, I. Needle like leaves to reduce surface area., II. Thick cuticle on leaves., III. Sunken stomata to reduce water loss., IV. The main plant body is gametophyte., (a) II and III, (b) IV only, (c) I only, , (d) II, I and III, , 153. Which of the following are correct for gymnosperms?, I. They are heterosporous., II. They are the first vascular plants., III. Posses fruits, IV. Requires water for fertilization., (a) I, (b) I and II, (c) II and III, , (d) I, II, III and IV, , 154. Which of the following sequence is correct?, (a) Strobili–Sporophylls→Sporangia→Spores, (b) Strobili–Sporangia→Sporophylls→Spores, (c) Sporophylls–Strobili→Sporangia→Spores, (d) Spores–Sporangia→Strobili→Cones
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Plant Kingdom3.13, , 155. Male gametophyte which is highly reduced and confined to only limited numbers of cells is, called, (a) Antherozoid, (b) Spermatozoid, (c) Pollen grain, (d) All of these, 156. Male and female cones are formed on the same tree of, (a) Cycas, (b) Pinus, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (d) None of these, , 157. In gymnosperms, (a) Pollen grains germinate inside the ovary., (b) The development of pollen grain takes place within the microsporangia., (c) The cones barring megasporophylls are called male cones or male strobili., (d) All are correct, 158. Megaspore mother cell, (a) Develops from one of the cell of nucleus, (c) Formed in the megasporangium, , (b) Forms four megaspore after meiosis, (d) All of these, , 159. The female gametophyte of gymnosperms, (a) Bear two archegonia, (c) Is unicellular, , (b) Retained within megasporangium, (d) Both (a) and (b), , 160. In gymnosperms, the male and female gametophyte, I. Do not have independent free living existence., II. Remain within the sporangia retained on parent sporophyte., III. May be born on same or different tree., IV. Perform meiosis to produce gametes., (a) I and II, (b) II and III, (c) III and IV, , (d) All, , 161. Pollination in gymnosperms takes place by, (a) Wind , (c) Only physical factors like wind and water , , (b) Water, (d) All of these, , 162. Angiosperms include, (a) Vascular plants with naked seeds, (b) Vascular plants with covered seeds, (c) Few vascular plants with naked seeds, (d) Few vascular plants with covered seeds, 163. Microscopic angiosperm is, (a) Sequoia, (c) Wolfia, , (b) Eucalyptus, (d) Never microscopic, , 164. Angiosperms include, (a) Massive woody trees, (b) Shrubs and herbs, (c) Ranges from tiny microscopic plants to tall trees, (d) None of these, 165. The height of eucalyptus tree is approximately, (a) 100 m, (b) 1000 m, (c) 10 m, , (d) 10‒20 m
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3.14, , Plant Kingdom, , 166. Male sex organ in angiosperm is located in, (a) Male cone, (b) Sporophyll, , (c) Flower, , (d) Carpel, , 167. Male sex organ in flower is, (a) Antheridia, (b) Stamens, , (c) Spermatangia, , (d) Nucule, , 168. The female sex organ of flower is called, (a) Archegonia, (b) Nucule, , (c) Oogonia, , (d) Pistil, , 169. The pistil in flower encloses, (a) One ovule, (b) Only two ovules, (c) Three ovules, (d) One too many ovules, 170. Embryo sacs in angiosperms is, (a) Male gametophyte, (c) Highly reduced female gametophyte, , (b) Well-developed female gametophyte, (d) Well-developed female sporophyte, , 171. Embryo sac of angiosperms posses, (a) Egg apparatus, (b) Synergids, , (c) Antipodal, , 172. Egg apparatus of angiosperms contain, (a) One egg cell, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (b) Two synergids, (d) Two antipodals, , 173. The cells of embryo sac are, (a) Diploid, (c) May be haploid or diploid, , (b) Haploid, (d) None of these, , (d) All of these, , 174. Diploid secondary nucleus in embryo sac of angiosperm is the product of, (a) Fusion of two synergid cells, (b) Fusion of two antipodal cells, (c) Fusion of two polar nuclei, (d) Fusion of egg cell and antipodal cell, 175. The pistil in angiosperm is made up of, (a) Ovary, (b) Stigma, , (c) Style, , (d) All of these, , 176. Ovary is the characteristic feature of, (a) Gymnosperms, (b) Angiosperm, , (c) Pteridophyte, , (d) All of these, , 177. In double fertilization, (a) Male gamete fuses with egg cell to form zygote., (b) Male gamete fuses with diploid endosperm nucleus to produce triploid primary endosperm, nucleus., (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) Fertilization takes place in two plants simultaneously., 178. Synergids and antipodals, (a) Develop into new plants, (c) Degenerate after fertilization, 179. Fruit formation in angiosperm takes place by, (a) Development of ovule after fertilization, (b) Development of ovary after fertilization, (c) Axillary bud, (d) Terminal bud, , (b) Are diploid, (d) Are produced in male gametophyte
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Plant Kingdom3.15, , 180. Double fertilization is the unique characterisitic feature of, (a) Angiosperm, (b) Gymnosperm, (c) Pteridophyte, (d) Dicotyledons only, 181. Zygote after multiplication in angiosperm develop in, (a) Endosperm (n), (b) Embryo (n), (c) Endosperm, (d) Embryo (2n), 182. Endosperm in angiosperm is formed, (a) Before fertilization, (c) Vary from species to species, , (b) After fertilization, (d) All of these, , 183. Meiosis in plants can take place in, (a) Only haploid species, (b) Only diploid species, (c) Both in haploid as well as diploid species, (d) None of these, 184. The haploid plant body produces _______ and is referred to as _______, (a) spores, sporophyte, (b) gametes, gametophyte, (c) zoospores, zoosporangia, (d) conidia, conidiophores, 185. Haploid spore divides by _______ to form haploid plant body, (a) Mitosis, (b) Meiosis, (c) Amitosis, , (d) Any of these, , 186. In haplontic life cycle, the sporophytic generation is seen by, (a) Well-developed multicellular sporophyte, (b) Zygote, (b) Embryo, (d) None of these, 187. In haplontic life cycle, the zygote divides by, (a) Mitosis, (b) Meiosis, , (c) Any of these, , (d) Amitosis, , 188. Volvox, spirogyra chlamydomonas come under, (a) Haplodiplontic life cycle organism, (b) Diplohaplontic organism, (c) Haplontic life cycle, (d) Diplontic life cycle, 189. Sporophyte, dominant, photosynthetic and independent phase of plant represents, (a) Haplontic, (b) Diplontic, (c) Diplohaplontic life cycle, (d) Both (b) and (c), 190. Diplontic life cycle is seen in, (a) Angiosperms and gymnosperms, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (b) Spermatophytes, (d) Pteridophyte, , 191. When both the phases of life cycle are multicellular, i.e., haploid and diploid phases are more, than one celled, (a) Life cycles are called haplodiplontic, (b) They differ in the dominant phase, (c) They are in pteridophytes and bryophytes, (d) All of these
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3.18, , Plant Kingdom, , 205. Identify the A, B and C shown in this figure?, B, A, , C, , (a), (b), (c), (d), , A–Branches, B–Antheridial branch, C–Archegonial branch, A–Antheridial branch, B–Branches, C–Archegonial branch, A–Branches, B–Archegonial branch, C–Antheridial branch, A–Archegonial branch, B–Archegonial branch, C–Branches, , 206. What indicates A to E in the below figure?, , A, , B, C, , D, , E
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3.20, , Plant Kingdom, , 209. What indicates A, B and C in this figure., , A, , B, , C, , (a), (b), (c), (d), , A–Dwarf shoot, B–Long shoot, C–Seeds, A–Long shoot, B–Seeds, C–Dwarf shoot, A–Long shoot, B–Dwarf shoot, C–Seeds, A–Seeds, B–Long Shoot, C–Dwarf Shoot, , Assertion and Reason Questions, Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given, below:, (a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the, assertion., (b) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the, assertion., (c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false., (d) If both the assertion and reason are false, 210. Assertion: The earliest systems of classification used only superficial morphological, characters., Reason: Artificial system gave equal weightage to vegetative and sexual characterstics., 211. Assertion: Cytotaxonomy is based on the cytological information like chromosome number,, structure and behaviour., Reason: Chemotaxonomy that uses the chemical constituents of the plants., 212. Assertion: In some species of Chlamydomonas, the fusion of gamete is termed as anisogamous., Reason: Because gametes which undergo fusion in these species are of dissimilar in size., 213. Assertion: Bryophytes are called amphibian of plant kingdom., Reason: These plants live in soil but are dependent on water for sexual reproduction.
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Plant Kingdom3.21, , 214. Assertion: Mosses along with lichens are the first organisms to colonize rocks., Reason: They decompose rocks by scereting acid substances., 215. Assertion: Pteridophytes are used for medicinal purposes and soil binders., Reason: They are the first terrestrial plants to possess vascular tissues., 216. Assertion: Only the red algae is able to flourish at the great depth of sea., Reason: Red algae has the pigments r-phycoerythrin and r-phycocyanin., 217. Assertion: Gymnosperms are heterosporous., Reason: They produce haploid microspores and megaspores., 218. Assertion: PEN is triploid in angiosperm., Reason: PEN is formed by fusion of haploid male gamete with the dipoid secondary nucleus., 219. Assertion: The cells of highly reduced female gametophyte (embryo sac in angiosperm) is, haploid., Reason: The embryosac is formed by meiosis., 220. Assertion: In pinus the coralloid roots are associated with nitrogen fixing cynobacteria., Reason: In Cycas, mycorrhiza is present., 221. Assertion: Cyanobacteria included in kingdom Plantae., Reason: Cyanobacteria belong to algae., 222. Assertion: Algae are autotrophic., Reason: Algae contain chlorophyll pigments., 223. Assertion: Half of the total CO2 fixation on earth is carried out by algae., Reason: Algae increases the level of dissolved oxygen in their nearby environment., 224. Assertion: Pyrenoids are storage bodies., Reason: Pyrenoids contains starch and proteins., 225. Assertion: Rhodophytes of shallow water body do not appear reddish., Reason: Rhodophytes of shallow water body have lesser synthesis of phycoerythrin., 226. Assertion: Phaeophyceae are brown algae., Reason: Phaeophyceae contain large amount of xanthophyll pigment called fucoxanthin, which gives brown colour., 227. Assertion: Chlorella used as a food supplement by space travellers., Reason: Chlorella is unicellular green algae., 228. Assertion: Sphagnum is used for transhipment of living material like seedlings., Reason: Sphagnum has capacity of water retention., 229. Assertion: Pteridophytes evolutionarily, are first terrestrial vascular plants., Reason: Pteridophytes are soil binders, 230. Assertion: Development of zygote into young embryo takes places within the female gametophytes in Pteridophytes, Reason: This event is a precursor to seed habit, considered an important step in evolution., 231. Assertion: Algae are useful to man., Reason: At least half of the total CO2 fixation on earth is carried out by algae.
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3.22, , Plant Kingdom, , 232. Assertion: Algae increases level of dissolved oxygen in their immediate environment., Reason: They show oxygenic photosynthesis, 233. Assertion: Rhodophyceae commonly known as red algae., Reason: Their body predominantly contain red pigment r-prycoerythrin., 234. Assertion: The spread of living Pteridophytes is restricted to narrow geographical region., Reason: They require cool, damp and shady place to grow and require water for fertilization., 235. Assertion: Sexual reproduction in volvox is oogamous type., Reason: Both of fusing gamete of volvox is non flagellated and similar in size., 236. Assertion: Bryophytes are of great ecology importance., Reason: Bryophytes play important role in plant succession on bare rocks., 237. Assertion: Leaves of gymnosperm can’t withstand extremes of temperature., Reason: Leaves of gymnosperm posses’ large surface area with thin cuticle., 238. Assertion: Volvox show diplontic type of life cycle., Reason: They show free living sporophyte., 239. Assertion: Most algae show haplontic type of life cycle., Reason: They show free living sporophyte, 240. Assertion: Most algae show haplontic type of life cycle., Reason: A Fucus alga shows diplontic type of life cycle., 241. Assertion: Pollination in angiosperm is occurred by means of wind only., Reason: Pollen grains in angiosperm are developed from filament., , previous year questions, 1. Examine the figures A, B, C and D. In which one of the four options all the items A, B, C and, D are correct?, , [AIPMT MAINS 2010], , A, , , , B
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Plant Kingdom3.23, , C, , (a), (b), (c), (d), , , , D, , A: Chara, B; Marchantia, C: Fucus, D: Pinus, A: Equisetum, B: Ginkgo, C: Selaginella, D: Lycopodium, A: Selaginella, B: Equisetum, C; Salvinia, D: Ginkgo, A: Funaria, B: Adiantum, C: Salvinia, D: Riccia, , 2. Male and female gametophytes are independent and free-living in, , (a) Mustard, (b) Castor, (c) Pinus, (d) Sphagnum, 3. Algae have cell wall made up of, , (a) Cellulose, galactans and mannans, (b) Hemicellulose, pectins and proteins, (c) Pectins, cellulose and proteins, (d) Cellulose, hemicellulose and pectins, , [AIPMT PRE 2010], , [AIPMT PRE 2010], , 4. Consider the following four statements and specify whether they are correct or wrong., , [AIPMT MAINS 2011], (A) The sporophyte in liverworts is more elaborate than that in mosses., (B) Salvinia is heterosporous., (C) The life-cycle in all seed-bearing plants is diplontic., (D) In Pinus, the male and female cones are born on different trees., The two wrong statements together are, (a) A and C, (b) A and D, (c) B and C, (d) A and B, 5. Selaginella and Salvinia are considered to represent a significant step towards the evolution, of seed habit because, , [AIPMT MAINS 2011], (a) Female gametophyte is free and gets dispersed like seeds., (b) Female gametophyte lacks archegonia., (c) Megaspores possess endosperm and embryo surrounded by seed coat., (d) Embryo develops in the female gametophyte which is retained on parent sporophyte.
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3.26, , Plant Kingdom, , 20. Read the following statements (A to E) and answer the question which follows them., (A) In liverworts, mosses, and ferns the gametophytes are free-living., (B) Gymnosperms and some ferns are heterosporous., (C) Sexual reproduction in Fucus, Volvox and Albugo is oogamous., (D) The sporophyte in liverworts is more elaborate than that in mosses., (E) Both, Pinus and Marchantia are dioecious., How many of the above statements are correct?, , [AIPMT 2013], (a) One, (b) Two, (c) Three, (d) Four, 21. Which one of the following shows isogamy with non-flagellated gametes?, , (a) Sargassum, (b) Ectocarpus, (c) Ulothrix, (d) Spirogyra, 22. Which one of the following is responsible for peat formation?, , (a) Marchantia, (b) Riccia, (c) Funaria, (d) Sphagnum, , [AIPMT 2014], , [AIPMT 2014], , 23. Read the following given statements (A to E) and select the option with all correct statements:, (A) Mosses and Lichens are the first organisms., [AIPMT 2015], (B) Selaginella a homosporous pteridophyte., (C) Coralloid roots in Cycus have VAM., (D) The main plant body in bryophytes is gametophyte where as in pteridophytes it is, saprophytic., (E) In gymnosperms, the male and female gametophytes are present within sporangia located, to sporophyte., (a) (A), (C) and (D), (b) (B), (C) and (D), (c) (A), (D) and (E), (d) (B), (C) and (E), 24. Which of the following gametophyte is not independent free living?, , (a) Funaria , (b) Marchantia, (c) Pteris , (d) Pinus, , [AIPMT 2015], , 25. Which one of the following statements is wrong?, , [AIPMT 2015], (a) Algin and carrageen are products of algae., (b) Agar–agar is obtained from Gelidum and Gmeilaria., (c) , Chlorella and Spirulina are used as space food Mannitol and is stored food in, Rhodophyceae., (d) Mannitol is the stored food in Rhodophyceae, 26. Male gametes are flagellated in, (a) Polysiphonia , (c) Ectocarpus , , [AIPMT 2015], (b) Anabaena, (d) Spirogyra
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Plant Kingdom3.27, , 27. Which one is a wrong statement?, , [RE-AIPMT 2015], (a) Mucor has biflagellate zoospores, (b) Haploid endosperm is typical feature of gymnosperms, (c) Brown algae have chlorophyll a and c, and fucoxanthin, (d) Archegonia are found in Bryophyta, Pteridophyta and Gymnosperms, 28. Select the correct statement:, [NEET - I, 2016], (a) Gymnosperms are both homosporous and heterosporous, (b) Salvinia, ginkgo and Pinus all are gymnosperms, (c) Sequoia is one of the tallest trees, (d) The leaves of gymnosperms are not well adapted to extremes of climate, 29. Conifers are adapted to tolerate extreme environmental conditions because of, , [NEET - II, 2016], (a) Superficial stomata, (b) Thick cuticle, (c) Presence of vessels, (d) Broad hardy leaves, 30. Which one of the following statements is wrong?, [NEET - II, 2016], (a) Algin is obtained from red algae, and carrageen an from brown algae, (b) Agar-agar is obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria, (c) Laminaria and Sargassum are used as food, (d) Algae increase the level of dissolved oxygen in the immediate environment, , NCERT Exemplar Questions, 1. Cyanobacteria are classified under, (a) Protista, (c) Monera, , (b) Plantae, (d) Algae, , 2. Fusion of two motile gametes which are dissimilar in size is termed as, (a) Oogamy, (b) Isogamy, (c) Anisogamy, (d) Zoogamy, 3. Holdfast, stipe and frond constitutes the plant body in case of, (a) Rhodophyceae, (b) Chlorophyceae, (c) Phaeophyceae, (d) All of the above, 4. A plant shows thallus level of organization. It shows rhizoids and is haploid. It needs water, to complete its life cycle because the male gametes are motile. Identify the group to which it, belong to, (a) Pteridophytes, (b) Gymnosperms, (c) Monocots, (d) Bryophytes, 5. A prothallus is, (a) A structure in pteridophytes formed before the thallus develops., (b) A sporophytic free living structure formed in pteridophytes., (c) A gametophytic free living structure formed in pteridophytes., (d) A primitive structure formed after fertilization in pteridophytes.
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3.28, , Plant Kingdom, , 6. Plants of this group are diploid and well adapted to extreme conditions. They grow bearing, sporophylls in compact structures called cones. The group in reference is, (a) Monocots, (b) Dicots, (c) Pteridophytes, (d) Gymnosperms, 7. The embryo sac of an Angiosperm is made up of, (a) 8 cells, (b) 7 cells and 8 nuclei, (c) 8 nuclei, (d) 7 cells and 7 nuclei., 8. If the diploid number of a flowering plant is 36. What would be the chromosome number in its, endosperm?, (a) 36, (b) 18, (c) 54, (d) 72, 9. Protonema is, (a) Haploid and is found in mosses., (b) Diploid and is found in liverworts., (c) Diploid and is found in pteridophytes., (d) Haploid and is found in pteridophytes., 10. The giant Redwood tree (Sequoia sempervirens) is a/an, (a) Angiosperm, (b) Free fern, (c) Pteridophyte, , (d) Gymnosperm, , Answer Keys, Previous Year Questions, 1. (d), 11. (c), 21. (d), 31. (b), 41. (b), 51. (c), 61. (d), 71. (a), 81. (b), 91. (c), 101. (d), 111. (a), 121. (c), 131. (c), 141. (b), 151. (d), 161. (a), 171. (d), 181. (d), 191. (d), 201. (a), , 2. (c), 12. (d), 22. (d), 32. (c), 42. (b), 52. (d), 62. (c), 72. (b), 82. (d), 92. (d), 102. (d), 112. (d), 122. (c), 132. (b), 142. (c), 152. (d), 162. (b), 172. (c), 182. (b), 192. (b), 202. (c), , 3. (b), 13. (c), 23. (b), 33. (d), 43. (d), 53. (b), 63. (d), 73. (b), 83. (a), 93. (d), 103. (d), 113. (d), 123. (b), 133. (c), 143. (a), 153. (a), 163. (c), 173. (b), 183. (b), 193. (a), 203. (c), , 4. (b), 14. (d), 24. (c), 34. (d), 44. (d), 54. (c), 64. (a), 74. (c), 84. (b), 94. (b), 104. (a), 114. (b), 124. (c), 134. (c), 144. (d), 154. (a), 164. (c), 174. (c), 184. (b), 194. (d), 204. (d), , 5. (d), 15. (b), 25. (c), 35. (b), 45. (b), 55. (c), 65. (a), 75. (a), 85. (a), 95. (d), 105. (c), 115. (c), 125. (b), 135. (c), 145. (c), 155. (c), 165. (a), 175. (d), 185. (a), 195. (b), 205. (a), , 6. (a), 16. (b), 26. (c), 36. (c), 46. (c), 56. (c), 66. (d), 76. (b), 86. (c), 96. (d), 106. (d), 116. (b), 126. (b), 136. (d), 146. (a), 156. (b), 166. (c), 176. (b), 186. (b), 196. (b), 206. (b), , 7. (c), 17. (c), 27. (a), 37. (b), 47. (b), 57. (c), 67. (a), 77. (c), 87. (d), 97. (b), 107. (c), 117. (c), 127. (c), 137. (c), 147. (d), 157. (b), 167. (b), 177. (c), 187. (a), 197. (c), 207. (b), , 8. (b), 18. (a), 28. (c), 38. (c), 48. (c), 58. (a), 68. (b), 78. (b), 88. (d), 98. (c), 108. (d), 118. (b), 128. (b), 138. (b), 148. (b), 158. (d), 168. (d), 178. (c), 188. (c), 198. (a), 208. (c), , 9. (c), 19. (a), 29. (b), 39. (b), 49. (b), 59. (b), 69. (a), 79. (d), 89. (b), 99. (b), 109. (a), 119. (d), 129. (a), 139. (a), 149. (d), 159. (d), 169. (d), 179. (b), 189. (b), 199. (b), 209. (a), , 10. (d), 20. (c), 30. (a), 40. (d), 50. (c), 60. (c), 70. (b), 80. (d), 90. (b), 100. (d), 110. (b), 120. (c), 130. (d), 140. (b), 150. (c), 160. (d), 170. (c), 180. (a), 190. (c), 200. (a)
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Plant Kingdom3.29, , Assertion and Reason Questions, 210. (b), 220. (d), 230. (b), 240. (b), , 211. (b) 212. (a) 213. (a) 214. (a) 215. (b) 216. (a) 217. (a) 218. (a) 219. (a), 221. (d) 222. (a) 223. (b) 224. (a) 225. (a) 226. (a) 227. (b) 228. (a) 229. (b), 231. (a) 232. (a) 233. (a) 234. (a) 235. (c) 236. (a) 237. (d) 238. (d) 239. (c), 241. (d), Previous Year Questions, , 1. (c), 11. (c), 21. (d), , 2. (d), 12. (d), 22. (d), , 3. (a), 13. (a), 23. (c), , 4. (b), 14. (b), 24. (d), , 5. (d), 15. (d), 25. (d), , 6. (a), 16. (c), 26. (c), , 7. (c), 17. (b), 27. (a), , 8. (c), 18. (b), 28. (c), , 9. (d), 19. (d), 29. (b), , 10. (a), 20. (c), 30. (a), , 8. (c), , 9. (a), , 10. (d), , NCERT Exemplar Questions, 1. (c), , 2. (c), , 3. (c), , 4. (d), , 5. (c), , 6. (d), , 7. (b)
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Animal, Classification, , CHAPTER, , 4, , prACtiCe Questions, Basis of Classification, 1. Living organism differ in, (a) Shape, (b) Form, , (c) Size and habit, , 2. Which is not a character of sponges?, (a) Multicellular, (c) Cellular level of organization, , (b) Cells are functionally independent, (d) Tissue level of organization, , (d) All of these, , 3. Which phylum shows tissue level of organization?, (a) Protozoa, (b) Porifera, (c) Coelenterate, , (d) All of these, , 4. Organ system level of organization is not found in, (a) Annelida, (b) Arthropod, (c) Molluscs, , (d) Platyhelminthes, , 5. Incomplete digestive tract (blind sac body plan) is found in, (a) Annelida, (b) Arthropod, (c) Molluscs, , (d) Platyhelminthes, , 6. Closed type of circulatory system is present in, (a) Annelida and arthropod, (b) Arthropod and mollusc, (c) Annelida and cephalopods, (d) Mollusc and echinodermates, 7. In open type of circulatory system, (a) Blood flow in sinuses, (b) Blood pressure is low and irregular, (c) It is found in arthropods and molluscs (except cephalopods), (d) All are true, 8. Closed type of circulatory system is found in, (a) Annelida, (b) Cephalopods, , (c) Vertebrate, , (d) All of these, , 9. What is false about closed circulatory system?, (a) Blood pressure is high and regular, (b) Amount of blood is limited, (c) Blood circulates through arteries, veins and capillaries, (d) Blood pressure is low and irregular, 10. When the body of an animal can be divided into equal left and right halves by one plane, symmetry. It is known as, (a) Bilateral, (b) Radial, (c) Biradial, (d) Asymmetric
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4.2, , Animal Classification, , 11. Radial symmetry is shown by, (a) Coelenterate, (c) Adult echinodermates, , (b) Platyhelminthes, (d) Both (a) and (c), , 12. Most of the sponges are, (a) Bilateral, (b) Radial, , (c) Biradial, , (d) Asymmetric, , 13. The first diploblastic animal is, (a) Coelenterates, (b) Platyhelminthes, , (c) Aschelminthes, , (d) Annelida, , 14. The first triploblastic animal is, (a) Coelenterates, (b) Platyhelminthes, , (c) Aschelminthes, , (d) Annelida, , 15. Triploblastic animal contains, (a) Ectoderm, (b) Mesoderm, , (c) Endoderm, , (d) All of these, , 16. Aschelminthes are, (a) Eucoelomate, , (b) Pseudocoelomate (c) Acoelomate, , (d) None of these, , 17. Which of the following is acoelomate?, (a) Porifera, (b) Coelenterates, , (c) Platyhelminthes, , (d) All of these, , 18. Metameric segmentation is found in, (a) Annelida, (b) Arthropod, , (c) Both (a) and (b), , (d) Platyhelminthes, , 19. Notochord is derived from which layer?, (a) Ectoderm, (b) Mesoderm, , (c) Endoderm, , (d) All of these, , 20. Which of the following is correct about notochord?, (a) Dorsally situated, (b) Mesodermal in origin, (c) Rod like, (d) All of these, 21. Radial symmetry is shown by, (a) Ctenophores, (c) Adult echinodermates, , (b) Coelenterates, (d) All of these, , 22. The undifferentiated layer present between the ectoderm and endoderm in coelenterate is, (a) Mesophyll, (b) Gastral layer, (c) Archenteron, (d) Mesoglea, 23. Which of the following is correct about metamerism (true segmentation)?, (a) Every organ shows serial repetition., (b) The body is divided externally as well as internally, (c) Each segment is not supplied with separate nerve and blood vessels., (d) All of these, 24. In some animals, the body cavity is not lined by mesoderm. Instead the mesoderm is present, as scattered pouches in between the ectoderm and endoderm. Such a body cavity is called, (a) Eucoelom, (b) Pseudocoelom, (c) Acoelom, (d) Any of the above, 25. The following are coelomates except (true coelom), (a) Annelida, (b) Platyhelminthes, (c) Mollusca, (d) Chordata
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Animal Classification4.3, , 26. Select the total number of organism from the following which are sessile:, , Amoeba, Euglena, Adamsia, Spongilla, Hydra, Jelly fish, Earthworm, (a) 1, (b) 2, (c) 3, (d) 4, 27. Which of the following is incorrect about Porifera?, (a) It is a solitary or colonial organism, (b) Majority live in sea and some live in fresh water, (c) Most of them are asymmetric, (d) All of the above, 28. Members of phylum Porifera are commonly known as, (a) Flatworms, (b) Roundworms, (c) Sponges, 29. Water path in sponges is, (a) Ostia → Spongocoel → Osculum, (c) Ostia → Spongocoel → Ostia, , (d) Corals, , (b) Osculum → Spongocoel → Osculum, (d) Spongocoel → Ostia → Osculum, , 30. The unique character of sponges is, (a) Choanocytes or collar cells line, the spongocoel and the canals., (b) That they are hermaphrodite., (c) That they live in marine water., (d) It reproduces by asexual means only., 31. The character possessed by all sponges are, (a) That all are fresh water, (c) External fertilization, , (b) All possess tissue level of organization, (d) Hermaphrodite, , 32. Select the total number of statements belonging to sponges:, (1) Cellular level of organization., (2) Body is supported by endoskeleton made up of spicules or sponging fibres., (3) Larva stage is morphologically different from adult., (4) Pathway of water transport is helpful in gathering of food, respiratory exchange and, removal of waste., (5) Hermaphrodite organism., (6) They show the power of regeneration., (a) 5, (b) 6, (c) 4, (d) 3, 33. Select the fresh water sponge from the following:, (a) Sycon, (b) Euspongia, (c) Spongilla, , (d) Hyalonema, , 34. Another name of sycon is, (a) Scypha, (b) Euspongia, , (c) Spongilla, , (d) Hyalonema, , 35. Match the following:, Column I, A. Sycon, B. Spongilla, C. Euspongia, (a) A–2, B–3, C–1, (c) A–3, B–2, C–1, , Column II, 1. Bath sponge, 2. Scypha, 3. Fresh water sponge, (b) A–1, B–2, C–3, (d) A–3, B–1, C–2, , –, –, –
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4.4, , Animal Classification, , 36. Select the total number of marine sponges from the following:, , Leucosolenia, Euspongia, Spongilla, Sycon, Hyalonema, (a) 3, (b) 4, (c) 5, , (d) 2, , 37. The primitive multicellular animals having cellular level of organization are, (a) Ctenophores, (b) Sponges, (c) Corals, (d) Crustacean, 38. Water enters through minute pores in the body wall into central cavity in sponges. These, minute pores are known as, (a) Osculum, (b) Ostia, (c) Spongocoel, (d) Any of the above, 39. In sponge, the sperm and ova are produced by the same individual. Such types of organisms, are called, (a) Asexual, (b) Unisexual, (c) Hermaphrodite, (d) Dioecious, 40. Canal system and choanocytes are characteristic of, (a) Ctenophora, (b) Coelenterates, (c) Platyhelminthes, , (d) Porifera, , 41. In sponges, the commonly seen larva are, (a) Amphiblastula, (b) Parenchymula, , (c) Planula, , (d) Both (a) and (b), , 42. Digestion in sponges is, (a) Intracellular, (b) Extracellular, , (c) Both (a) and (b), , (d) None of these, , 43. Which of the following is correct about reproduction in sponges?, (a) The mode of asexual reproduction such as gemmule formation, budding and fragmentation., (b) Fertilization is internal, (c) Development is indirect, (d) All of these, 44. Exogenous budding is seen in case of, (a) Scypha, (b) Euspongia, , (c) Spongilla, , (d) Hyalonema, , 45. The following characters are related to phylum:, (1) Aquatic, mostly marine, (2) Sessile or free swimming, (3) Radially symmetrical animals, (4) They show polymorphism, (a) Porifera, (b) Ctenophora, (c) Echinodermata, (d) Coelenterata, 46. Cnidoblast is a characteristic feature of, (a) Porifera, (b) Coelenterata, , (c) Ctenophora, , (d) Arthropoda, , 47. The first diploblastic animal showing tissue level of organization is, (a) Sycon, (b) Gorgonia, (c) Taenia, , (d) Locust, , 48. Cnidoblast is used for, (a) Anchorage, (b) Defense, , (d) All of these, , (c) Capture of prey, , 49. Select the total number of organisms from the following which shows both intra and extra, cellular digestion., , Physalia, Pleurobrachia, Taenia, Culex, Apis, Neries, Echinus, Salpa, Meandrina, Pennatula,, Doliolum, Catla, Hyla, Adamsia, Gorgonia, Ctenoplana., (a) 6, (b) 8, (c) 7, (d) 10
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Animal Classification4.5, , 50. Select the correct matching:, (a) Petromyzon, –, (b) Echinus, –, (c) Apis, –, (d) Pennatula, –, , Hag fish, Brittle star, Silkworm, Sea pen, , 51. Select incorrect matching:, (a) Locusta, –, (b) Cucumaria, –, (c) Meandrina, –, (d) Echinus, –, , Locust, Sea cucumber, Sea anemone, Sea urchin, , 52. Some cnidarians examples corals have a skeleton composed of, (a) Spongin fibres, (b) Silica, (c) Calcium carbonate, (d) Any of these, 53. Metagenesis is shown by, (a) Hydra, (b) Adamsia, , (c) Aurelia, , (d) Obelia, , 54. Which of the following is not true fish?, (a) Exocoetus, (b) Betta, , (c) Saw fish, , (d) Jelly fish, , 55. The umbrella shape and free swimming form of coelenterate reproduced by sexual reproduction is, (a) Polyp, (b) Medusa, (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these, 56. Sessile, cylindrical form of coelenterate reproduced by asexual reproduction is, (a) Polyp, (b) Medusa, (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these, 57. Polyp → Asexually → Medusa → Sexually → Polyp, , The above cycle is shown by, (a) Physalia, (b) Aurelia, , (c) Obelia, , (d) Hydra, , 58. Select from the following total number of organisms which contain the word ‘sea’ in their, common names., , Physalia, Adamsia, Pennatula, Gorgonia, Meandrina, Hydra, Aurelia, Obelia, (a) 2, (b) 3, (c) 4, (d) 5, 59. Which of the following is known as Portuguese man-of-war?, (a) gorgonia, (b) aurelia, (c) physalia, , (d) obelia, , 60. The phylum in which first time nerve net arises, (a) Porifera, (b) Coelenterate, (c) Platyhelminthes, , (d) Protozoa, , 61. Gastro-vascular cavity with single opening is found in, (a) Porifera, (b) Coelenterate, (c) Aschelminthes, , (d) Annelida, , 62. Coelenterates asexually reproduce by, (a) Budding, (b) Gametes, , (d) Gemmules, , (c) Conidia, , 63. The larva stage shown by coelenterate is called, (a) Amphiblastula, (b) Parenchymula, (c) Planula, , (d) All of these
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4.6, , Animal Classification, , 64. Match the following:, Column I, Column II, A. Physalia, –, 1. Brain coral, B. Adamsia, –, 2. Sea fan, C. Pennatula, –, 3. Sea pen, D. Gorgonia, –, 4. Sea anemone, E. Meandrina, –, 5. Portuguese man-of-war, F. Aurelia, –, 6. Jellyfish, (a) A−5, B−4, C−2, D−3, E−1, F–6, (b) A–5, B–4, C–3, D–2, E–1, F–6, (c) A–5, B–4, C–2, D–1, E–2, F–6, (d) A–5, B–3, C–4, D–2, E–1, F–6, 65. Ctenophores are commonly known as, (a) Sea walnut, (b) Comb jellies, , (c) Both (a) and (b), , (d) None of these, , 66. The following features belongs to which phylum?, (1) Exclusively marine , (2) Radial symmetry, (3) Diploblastic , (4) Tissue level organization, (a) Coelentrata, (b) Porifera, (c) Ctenophora, (d) Platyhelminthes, 67. Body bears eight external rows of ciliated comb plates present in phylum _____., (a) Coelentrata, (b) Porifera, (c) Ctenophora, (d) Platyhelminthes, 68. Ctenophores show, (a) Extra and intracellular digestion, (c) Bioluminescence, , (b) Sexual reproduction only, (d) All of these, , 69. Example of ctenophores is, (a) Pleurobrachia, (b) Ctenoplana, , (c) Both (a) and (b), , (d) None of these, , 70. The following features belong to which phylum?, (1) Bilateral symmetry, (2) Triploblastic, Acoelomate, (3) Organ level of organization, (4) Dorsoventrally flattened body, (a) Platyhelminthes (b) Aschelminthes, (c) Annelida, (d) Arthropoda, 71. Platyhelminthes are called flat worms because, (a) They are triploblastic, (b) They are without coelom, (c) They have organ level of organization, (d) Their body is dorsoventrally flattened, 72. Which of the following are characters present in platyhelminthes?, (1) Some absorb nutrients from the host directly through their body surface., (2) Digestive system is incomplete, branched and without anus., (3) Flame cells/solenocyte protonephridia help in the excretion and osmoregulation., (4) Hooks and suckers are present in parasitic form., (5) Hermaphrodites, (6) Fertilization is internal., (7) Indirect development through many larva stages., (a) 1, 2, 3, 5, 6, (b) 2, 3, 4, 5, 7, (c) All except 1, (d) All
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Animal Classification4.7, , 73. Which platyhelminthes posses high power of regeneration?, (a) Planaria/Dugesia (b) Taenia, (c) Fasciola, , (d) Liver fluke, , 74. Flame cells helps in excretion and osmoregulation in, (a) Earthworm, (b) Hookworm, (c) Roundworm, , (d) Tapeworm, , 75. Internal fertilization is seen in, (a) Pleurobrachia, (b) Fasciola, , (d) All of these, , (c) Ctenoplana, , 76. (1) Fertilization ______., (2) Development ______., (3) Excretion and osmoregulation by ______., Fill in the blanks for organism given in the figure., (a) Internal, direct, rennett cells, (b) Internal, indirect, flame cells, (c) External, direct, nephridia, (d) External, indirect, protonephridia, 77. Phylum whose organism are mostly endoparasites is, (a) Platyhelminthes (b) Annelida, (c) Arthropoda, , (d) Mollusca, , 78. Which of the following are pseudocoelomate?, (a) Roundworm, (b) Hookworm, (c) Filarial worm, , (d) All of these, , 79. The body of the aschelminthes is circular in cross section. Hence, it is named as, (a) Tapeworm, (b) Earthworm, (c) Hookworm, (d) Roundworm, 80. Roundworms/Nematodes are, (a) Free living, (c) Parasitic on animals and plants, , (b) Aquatic or terrestrial, (d) All of these, , 81. Select the total number of organism which shows internal fertilization., , Ascaris, Wuchereria, Ancylostoma, Taenia, Fasciola, Sycon, Euspongia, Spongilla,, pleurobrachia, ctenoplana, (a) 6, (b) 7, (c) 8, (d) 5, 82. Which character does not belong to phylum Aschelminthes?, (a) Excretory tube (branched ducts) removes body waste form the body cavity through, excretory pore., (b) Usually sexes are separate (unisexual or dioecious)., (c) Development may be direct or indirect., (d) Alimentary canal is incomplete with a well-developed muscular pharynx., 83. Match the following:, Column I, A. Ascaris, –, B. Wuchereria, –, C. Ancylostoma, –, D. Pheretima, –, (a) A–2, B–4, C–3, D–1, (c) A–4, B–3, C–1, D–2, , Column II, 1. Intestinal round worm, 2. Filarial worm, 3. Hook worm, 4. Earth worm, (b) A–1, B–2, C–3, D–4, (d) A–2, B–1, C–4, D–3
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4.8, , Animal Classification, , 84. Which of the following is correct about ascaris?, (a) Females are smaller than males, (b) Posterior end of male curved dorsally, (c) Females are longer than males, (d) Fertilization is external, 85. Select the total number of organism from the following which contains well-developed, muscular pharynx with complete alimentary canal., , Taenia, Fasciola, Planaria, Ascaris, Filarial worm, Hookworm, (a) 1, (b) 3, (c) 4, (d) 2, 86. Metamerism is found in, (a) Ascaris, (b) Leech, , (c) Loligo, , (d) Octopus, , 87. Nephridia helps in the excretion and osmoregulation in, (a) Nereis, (b) Pheretima, (c) Hirudinaria, , (d) All of these, , 88. Closed circulatory system is present in, (a) Nereis, (b) Pheretima, , (d) Both (a) and (b), , (c) Ascaris, , 89. Animals having cylindrical body having an organ system level of organization showing, metamerism belongs to phylum, (a) Arthropoda, (b) Mollusca, (c) Annelida, (d) Platyhelminthes, 90. Annelids may be, (a) Aquatic (marine and fresh water), terrestrial, (b) Free living, (c) Parasite, (d) All of the above, 91. The neural system consists of paired ganglia connected by lateral nerve to a double ventral, nerve cord present in, (a) Fasciola, (b) Ancylostoma, (c) Nereis, (d) Taenia, 92. Which of the following are monoecious?, , Ascaris, Wuchereria, Ancylostoma, Neries, Pheretima, Hirudinaria, (a) 3, (b) 2, (c) 3, 93. The first true coelomates are, (a) Nereis, (b) Centipede, , (c) Crab, , 94. The following features belong to which of the following phylum?, (1) Triploblastic, (2) Bilateral symmetry, (3) Eucoelomate, (4) Metamerism, (a) Mollusca, (b) Aschelminthes, (c) Platyhelminthes, (d) Annelida, 95. Which of the following is correct about parapodia?, (a) They are longitudinal muscles which help in locomotion., (b) They are circular muscles which help in locomotion., (c) It helps in swimming., (d) It is the dorsal appendages of nereis., , (d) 4, (d) Wuchereria
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Animal Classification4.9, , 96. Which of the following is the largest phylum?, (a) Mollusca, (b) Echinodermata, (c) Arthropoda, 97. How many species named on earth is arthropoda?, 2, 1, 1, (b), (c), (a), 3, 2, 4, , (d) Annelida, , (d), , 3, 4, , 98. In which of the following phylum the body is generally divided into head, thorax and abdomen?, (a) Mollusca, (b) Echinodermata, (c) Arthropoda, (d) Annelida, 99. Which of the following phylum shows segmentation?, (a) Annelida, (b) Arthropoda, (c) Both (a) and (b), 100. The following features are seen in which of the below options?, (1) Exoskeleton of chitin, (2) Malpighian tubules as excretory organ, (3) Tracheal system for respiration, (4) Three pair of legs in thoracic region, (a) Limulus, (b) Prawn, (c) Spider, , (d) Platyhelminthes, , (d) Cockroach, , 101. Respiration occurs through organs like gills, book gills, book lungs or tracheal system found, in phylum., (a) Mollusca, (b) Annelida, (c) Arthropoda, (d) Echinodermata, 102. Which of the following are sensory organs in phylum Arthropoda?, (1) Simple or compound eye, (2) Statocyst or balance organ, (3) Malpighian tubules, (4) Antennae, (a) All except (4), (b) All except (1), (c) All except (3), , (d) All except (2), , 103. Which of the following is correct about reproduction in Arthropods?, (a) Usually dioecious, mostly oviparous, (b) Internal fertilization, (c) Some exhibit parthenogenesis, (d) All of these, 104. Ecdysis is seen in case of, (a) Nereis, (c) Sea urchin, , (b) Pila, (d) Cockroach, , 105. Exoskeleton of Arthropods are chitinous and it sheds at interval for the growth and development process known as, (a) Autotomy, (b) Metamerism, (c) Ecdysis (moulting), (d) Aestivation, 106. The presence of joint appendages is the speciality of phylum _____, (a) Mollusca, (b) Echinodermata, (c) Arthropoda, (d) Annelidia, 107. Bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic, segmented, coelomate and covered by chitinous, exoskeleton are features of, (a) Anneldia, (b) Vertebrata, (c) Amphibia, (d) Arthropoda
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4.10, , Animal Classification, , 108. Which of the following is true for Arthropoda?, (a) Development may be direct or indirect., (b) Open circulatory system., (c) Excretion takes place by green gland, coxal gland and Malpighian tubules., (d) All of these, 109. Select from the following the total number of useful insects., , Apis, Bombyx, Laccifer, Anopheles, Culex, Aedes, Prawn, Scorpion, Locust, Limulus., (a) 3, (b) 4, (c) 3, (d) 5, 110. Select from the following the total number of organism that belongs to phylum arthropoda., Locust, Butterfly, Scorpion, Prawn, Salpa, doliolums, Pila, Chiton, Antedon, Hyla, Myxine,, Locust, Loligo, Culex, Cucumaria, Cuttle fish., (a) 4, (b) 6, (c) 8, (d) 12, 111. Select the living fossil from the following:, (a) Culex, (b) Silkworm, , (c) Lac insect, , (d) Limulus, , 112. Following mosquitoes used as vector for various diseases:, (a) Culex, (b) Anopheles, (c) Aedes, , (d) All of these, , 113. Other name of limulus is, (a) Laccifer, (b) Locust, , (c) King crab, , (d) Gregarious pest, , 114. Which of the following is a gregarious pest?, (a) Laccifer, (b) Locusta, , (c) King crab, , (d) Both (a) and (b), , 115. Match the following:, Column I, A. Locusta, B. Honey bee, C. Silkworm, D. Lac insect, (a) A–4, B–1, C–3, D–4, (c) A–2, B–1, C–3, D–4, , Column II, 1. Apis, 2. Locust, 3. Bombyx, 4. Laccifer, (b) A–2, B− 1, C–4, D–3, (d) A–4, B–3, C–1, D–4, , –, –, –, –, , 116. Which of the following belongs to arthropods?, (a) Peripatus and crab, (b) Prawn and scorpion, (c) Centipede and cockroach, (d) All of these, 117. Animals with soft body, bilateral symmetry, triploblastic and unsegmented, usually protected, by a shell made up of calcium carbonate belongs to phylum _____, (a) Porifera, (b) Echinodermata, (c) Mollusca, (d) Arthropoda, 118. The mouth which has file-like rasping organ for feeding called radula is found in, (a) Mollusca, (b) Hemichordata, (c) Echinodermata, (d) Arthropoda, 119. The body of ___ is unsegmented with a distinct head, muscular foot and visceral mass, (a) Asterias, (b) Ophiura, (c) Balanoglossus, (d) Devil fish, 120. A. A soft and spongy layer of skin forms a _(i)_ over the visceral hump., B. A _(ii)_ cavity containing _(iii)_ like gills., C. The anterior head region has sensory _(iv)_.
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Animal Classification4.11, , Fill in the blanks in the above respective places about mollusca., (a) Mantle, Mantle, Comb, Papilla, (b) Mantle, Mesoglea, Feather, Papilla, (c) Mantle, Mantle, Feather, Tentacles, (d) Mantle, Mantle, Comb, Tentacles, 121. Which of the following is true about reproduction in mollusca?, (1) Mostly dioecious, (2) Oviparous, (3) Mainly indirect development, (4) Fertilization is external or internal, (a) All except (4), (b) All except (3), (c) All except (2), (d) All of these, 122. Which of the following is not a fish?, (a) Devil fish, (b) Cuttle fish, , (c) Jelly fish, , 123. Match the following:, Column I , A. Pila, –, B. Chiton, –, C. Dentalium, –, D. Sepia, –, (a) A–2, B–1, C–4, D–3, (c) A–4, B–2, C–3, D–1, , Column II, 1. Tusk shell, 2. Apple snail, 3. Cuttle fish, 4. Chaetopleura, (b) A–2, B–4, C–1, D–3, (d) A–4, B–3, C–2, D–1, , 124. Devil fish is called, (a) Pearl oyster, , (b) Tusk shell, , (c) Sepia, , (d) Octopus, , 125. Majority of mollusca are, (a) Aquatic, (b) Terrestrial, , (c) Aerial, , (d) Any of the above, , (d) All of these, , 126. Select the total number of organism from the following which are mollusca:, , Pila, Pinctada, Sepia, Loligo, Aplysia, Echinus, Antedon, Salpa, Bufo, Chelone, Neophron,, Pteropus, Elephas, Pavo, (a) 7, (b) 6, (c) 5, (d) 9, 127. Mantle cavity is a site of, (a) Excretion, (b) Respiration, , (c) Both (a) and (b), , (d) None of these, , 128. Shell in molluscs is, (a) External, , (c) Any of the above, , (d) Shell is absent, , (c) Pila, , (d) All of these, , (b) Internal, , 129. Unsegmented, triploblastic, eucoelomate is, (a) Pheretima, (b) Laccifer, 130. Select the incorrect matching:, (a) Aurelia, –, (b) Sepia, –, (c) Octopus, –, (d) Loligo, –, , Jelly fish, Cuttle fish, Devil fish, Fighting fish, , 131. Select the incorrect matching:, (a) Gorgonia, –, (b) Adamsia, –, (c) Aplysia, –, (d) Antedon, –, , Sea fan, Sea anemone, Sea cucumber, Sea lily
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4.12, , 132. Pinctada is a, (a) Sea hare, , Animal Classification, , (b) Cuttle fish, , (c) Pearl oyster, , 133. The common name of which organism contains ‘sea’ in their name?, (a) Chaetopleura, (b) Dentalium, (c) Sepia, , (d) Apple snail, (d) Aplysia, , 134. Animals having calcareous endoskeleton with organ-system level of organization, completely, marine are, (a) Arthropoda, (b) Mollusca, (c) Hemichordates, (d) Echinodermates, 135. In which phylum, the larva is bilaterally symmetrical and the adult have radial symmetry?, (a) Arthropoda, (b) Mollusca, (c) Hemichordata, (d) Echinodermata, 136. The most distinctive feature of echinoderm is, (a) Gastro vascular cavity, (b) Choanoctyes, (c) Water vascular system/ambulacral system, (d) Canal system, 137. Water vascular system helps in, (a) Locomotion, (c) Respiration, , (b) Capture and transport of food, (d) All of these, , 138. Which of the following is true about reproduction in echinoderms?, (a) Unisexuality, (b) Usually external fertilization, (c) Indirect development through free swimming larva, (d) All of the above, 139. Find out the number of spiny-bodied animals from the following:, , Pila, Pinctada, Asterias, Echinus, Antedon, Cucumaria, Brittle star, Octopus, (a) 4, (b) 5, (c) 6, (d) 3, 140. Select the correct matching:, (a) Asterias, –, (b) Pila, –, (c) Ophiura, –, (d) Loligo, –, , Sea urchin, Pearl oyster, Brittle star, Cuttle fish, , 141. Select the incorrect matching:, (a) Asterias, –, (b) Echinus, –, (c) Antedon, –, (d) Cucumaria, –, , Star fish, Sea urchin, Sea lily, Sea fan, , 142. Sea urchin belongs to the class phylum, (a) Echinodermata, (b) Hemichordata, , (c) Ctenophora, , (d) Mollusca, , 143. Another name of cucummaria is, (a) Sea urchin, (b) Sea mouse, , (c) Sea pen, , (d) Sea cucumber, , 144. Which phylum shows regeneration in the lost part?, (a) Mollusca, (b) Annelida, (c) Arthropoda, , (d) Echinodermata
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Animal Classification4.13, , 145. Which phylum has the following features?, (1) Digestive track is complete, straight or U shape., (2) Worm like, unsegmented marine animal., (3) Respiration is done by gills., (4) Excretion by single proboscis gland., (5) Circulatory system is naturally open., (a) Arthropoda, (b) Mollusca, (c) Hemichordata, , (d) Urochordata, , 146. Which is a phylum?, (a) Hemichordata, , (c) Cephalochordata, , (d) All of these, , (c) Ammocoete, , (d) Planula, , (b) Urochordata, , 147. Larva of hemichordate is, (a) Amphiblastula, (b) Torneria, , 148. Which of the following is correct about reproduction in hemichordata?, (a) Internal fertilization, (b) Usually direct development, (c) Sexes are separate, (d) Monoecious organism, 149. The body which is cylindrical and composed of anterior proboscis and a collar and a long trunk, is found in, (a) Ascidia, (b) Salpa, (c) Doliolum, (d) Saccoglossus, 150. The excretory organ of proboscis gland is present in, (a) Ascidia, (b) Salpa, (c) Doliolum, 151. The fundamental character of chordate is, (a) Notochord, (c) Paired pharyngeal gill slits, , (d) Saccoglossus, , (b) Dorsal hollow nerve cord, (d) All of these, , 152. Which is not a distinctive character of non-chordata?, (a) Notochordal is absent, (b) Ventral and double nerve cord, (c) Heart is ventral, (d) Post-anal tail is absent, 153. Which of the following are the features of chordates?, (1) Notrchord is present., (2) CNS is dorsal, hollow and single., (3) Pharynx is perforated by gill slits., (4) Heart is ventral., (5) A post-anal is present, (a) All except (4), (b) All except (2), (c) All of these, , (d) All except (5), , 154. Animal belonging to phylum chordata shows, (a) Bilateral symmetry, triploblastic and the coelom, (b) Organ system level of organization, (c) Closed circulatory system, (d) All of these, 155. Urochordata and cephalochordate are referred as, (a) Non-chordates, (b) Vertebrates, (c) Protochordates, , (d) All of these, , 156. In which subphyla, the notochord is present in tail of larva only?, (a) Hemichordata, (b) Urochordata, (c) Cephalochordata, , (d) All of these
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4.14, , Animal Classification, , 157. Notochord is extended from head to tail region and is persistent throughout their life in, (a) Hemichordata, (b) Urochordata, (c) Cephalochordata, (d) All of these, 158. How many of the following belongs to the subphylum cephalochordate?, , Ascidia, Salpa, Doliolum, Branchiostoma, (a) 1, (b) 2, (c) 3, (d) 4, 159. The other name of Branchiostoma is, (a) Amphioxus, (b) Lancelet, , (c) Both (a) and (b), , (d) None of these, , 160. Select the incorrect statement from the following:, (a) In vertebrates, the notochord is replaced by cartilaginous or bony vertebral column., (b) In cephalochordates, the notochord is extended from head to tail region and is persistent, throughout life., (c) Protochordates are exclusively marine., (d) Notochord is present in tail of adult in urochordata., 161. Vertebrates have, (a) Ventral muscular heart with 3, 2 or 4 chamber., (b) Kidneys for excretion and osmoregulation., (c) Paired appendages which may be fins or limbs., (d) All of these, 162. Which of the following is exoskeleton in vertebrates?, (a) Scales, (b) Feathers, (c) Hair, , (d) Any of the above, , 163. All living members of which class is ectoparasite on fishes?, (a) Turbellaria, (b) Chondrichthyes, (c) Cephalopoda, , (d) Cyclostomata, , 164. Which of the following are characters of cyclostomata?, (a) 6–15 pairs of gill slits is present for respiration, (b) Sucking and circular mouth without jaws, (c) Body is devoid of scales and paired fins, (d) All of these, 165. Which of the following organism possess cartilaginous cranium, vertebral column, closed, type of circulatory system, which helps them migrate to fresh water for spawning?, (a) Ascidia, (b) Scoliodon, (c) Petromyzon, (d) All of these, 166. Which of the following are marine but migrate for spawning to fresh water. After spawning,, within a few days, they die. Their larvae, after metamorphosis, return to ocean. Specify, the correct one., (a) Petromyzon (Lamprey), (b) Myxine (Hagfish), (c) Scoliodon, (d) Both (a) and (b), 167. Which of the following is correct about cyclostomes?, (a) Ectoparasite on fishes during their adult stage., (b) Skin with scales and contain unicellular mucous gland., (c) One kidney for excretion., (d) Heart is two chambered and possess 4 pair of gill slits for respiration.
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Animal Classification4.15, , 168. The class name ‘cyclostomata’ means, (a) Marine, but reproduction takes place in fresh water, (b) Mouth is anterio ventral, suctorial and circular, (c) Ectoparasite of fishes, (d) Jaws are absent, 169. The study of fishes is called, (a) Ichthyology, (b) Serpentology, 170. (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), , (c) Saurology, , (d) Chonchology, , Marine with streamlined body, Cartilaginous endoskeleton, Mouth is ventral, Caudal fin in Heterocercal, Notochord is persistent throughout life, , , The above characters belong to which of the following organism (select the total number)?, , Dog fish, Saw fish, Flying fish, Fighting fish, Angle fish, Jelly fish, Star fish, Trygon, Torpedo,, Rohu, Catla, Magur, (a) 3, (b) 4, (c) 6, (d) 7, 171. The scales found in chondrichthyes is/are, (a) Placoid, (b) Cycloid, , (c) Ctenoid, , (d) All of these, , 172. Which of the following is incorrect about cartilaginous fish?, (a) Teeth are modified with placoid scales which are backwardly directed., (b) 5 to 7 pair of gills for respiration but without operculum (i.e., gill cover)., (c) Air bladder is absent so they have to swim constantly to avoid sinking., (d) In males, the pelvie fins claspers are absent., 173. Select the total number of organism which posses two chambered heart and are poikilothermal., , Scoliodon, Pristis, Clarias, Betta, Pterophyllum, Echinus, Devil Fish, Cuttle fish, Sea lily,, Hyla, Labeo, catla, Torpedo, Trygon, (a) 7, (b) 9, (c) 11, (d) 13, 174. Select the difference which is wrongly written:, Cartilaginous fish, (a) Operculum is absent, –, (b) Fertilization is internal, –, (c) Posses 5–7 pair of gills, –, (d) Mostly oviparous, –, , Bony fishes, Operculum is present, Fertilization is external, Posses 4 pair of gills, Mostly viviparous, , 175. Which fish possess poison sting?, (a) Scoliodon (dog fish), (c) Torpedo, , (b) Trygon, (d) Pristis (saw fish), , 176. Which fish possess electric organs?, (a) Scoliodon (dog fish), (c) Torpedo, , (b) Trygon, (d) Pristis (saw fish), , 177. Males possess claspers in pelvic fins in class _____, (a) Cyclostomata, (b) Chondrichthyes, (c) Osteicthyes, , (d) Amphibia
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4.16, , 178. Select the correct matching:, (a) Petromyzon, –, (b) Myxine, –, (c) Carcharodon, –, (d) Trygon, –, , Animal Classification, , Hagfish, Lamprey, Great white shark, Torpedo, , 179. (1) Stream-lined body, (2) Both marine and fresh water, (3) Mouth is terminal, (4) Caudal fin homocercal, (5) 4 pair of gills with operculum, , Which class has the above characters?, (a) Cyclostomata, (b) Chondrichthyes, , (c) Osteichthyes, , (d) Amphibia, , 180. Osteicthyes possess which kind of scales?, (a) Placoid, (b) Cycloid, , (c) Ctenoid, , (d) Both (b) and (c), , 181. External fertilization is found in, (a) Sting ray, (b) Flying fish, , (c) Saw fish, , (d) Dog fish, , 182. Select the total number of bony fishes from the following:, , Exocoetus, Hippocampus, Labeo, Catla, Clarias, Betta, Pterophyllum, Trygon, Torpedo,, Pristis, Scolidon, Carcharodon., (a) 6, (b) 7, (c) 8, (d) 12, 183. Air bladder which regulates buoyancy is present in, (a) Cyclostomata, (b) Cartilaginous fish (c) Bony fishes, 184. Select the correct matching:, (a) Betta, –, (b) Hippocampus, –, (c) Pterophyllum, –, (d) Clarias, –, , Fighting fish, Flying fish, Fighting fish, Labeo, , 185. Select the incorrect matching:, (a) Scoliodon, –, (b) Pterophyllum, –, (c) Clarias, –, (d) Trygon, –, , Dog fish, Angel fish, Magur, Torpedo, , 186. Select the correct matching:, (a) Cyclostomata, –, (b) Chondrichthyes, –, (c) Osteichthyes, –, (d) All are correct, , (d) Amphibians, , gills (6–15 pairs), gills (5–7 pairs), gills (4 pairs), , 187. Which of the following is a marine bony fish?, (a) Exocoetus (flying fish), (b) Hippocampus (sea-horse), (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) Saw fish (pristis), 188. Which of the following is a fresh water bony fish?, (a) Labeo (rohu), (b) Catla (katla), (c) Clarias (magur), , (d) All of these
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Animal Classification4.17, , 189. Which of the following is a fresh water cartilaginous fish?, (a) Scoliodon (dog fish), (b) Trygon (sting ray), (c) Torpedo (electric ray), (d) None of these, 190. The name ‘amphibian’ indicates that they can live in, (a) Aquatic habitat, (b) Terrestrial habitat, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) Aerial habitat, 191. Amphibian belong to super class, (a) Pisces, (b) Agnatha, , (c) Gnathostomata, , (d) Tetrapoda, , 192. The following features belong to which class?, (1) Body is divisible into head and trunks, tail may be present in some., (2) Skin is moist and act as respiratory organ., (3) External skeleton is absent., (4) Eye have eyelids., (a) Cyclostomata, (b) Amphibia, (c) Reptilia, (d) Osteichthyes, 193. Respiration in adult frog is by, (a) Buccopharyngeal cavity, (c) Lungs, , (b) Skin, (d) All of these, , 194. Respiration in tadpole larva is by, (a) Gills, (b) Lungs, , (c) Skin, , (d) All of these, , 195. Which of the following tract open into a common chamber cloaca in amphibians?, (a) Alimentary canal, (b) Urinary tract, (c) Reproductive tract, (d) All of these, 196. Which type of dentition is found in amphibian?, (a) Homodont, (b) Thecodont, (c) Heterodont, , (d) Monophyodont, , 197. Three chambered heart, cold blooded, external fertilization and indirect development is seen in, (a) Labeo, (b) Salpa, (c) Frog, (d) Myxine, 198. Skin is moist and a tympanum representing ear is found in, (a) Hyla, (b) Frog, (c) Ichthyophis, 199. Select the correct matching:, Column I, A. Bufo, –, B. Frog, –, C. Hyla, –, D. Salamandra, –, E. Ichthyophis, –, (a) A–2, B–5, C–4, D–1, E–3, (b) A–5, B–2, C–4, D–1, E–3, (c) A–2, B–4, C–5, D–1, E–3, (d) A–5, B–4, C–2, D–1, E–3, 200. Limbless amphibian is, (a) Frog, (b) Tree frog, , (d) All of these, , Column II, 1. Salamander, 2. Rana, 3. Limbless amphibian, 4. Tree frog, 5. Toad, , (c) Ichthyophis, , (d) Bufo
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4.18, , Animal Classification, , 201. First class of vertebrate, which are fully adopted for terrestrial life is, (a) Amphibia, (b) Reptilia, (c) Aves, , (d) Mammals, , 202. Reptilia means, (a) Flying mode of locomotion, (c) Saltation mode of locomotion, , (b) Swim mode of locomotion, (d) Creeping or crawling mode of locomotion, , 203. Which of the following is incorrect about reptilia?, (a) Body is covered by dry and cornified skin, epidermal scales or scutes., (b) Body is divisible into head, neck, trunk and tail., (c) Heart is usually three chambered., (d) Respiration occur through lungs and skin., 204. Four chambered heart is present in all except, (a) Crocodilus, (b) Alligator, , (c) Corvus, , 205. Which of the following shed their scales as skin cast?, (a) Snakes, (b) Lizards, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (d) Calotes, (d) Testudo, , 206. Sexes is separate, internal fertilization, oviparous and direct development is seen in case of, (a) Chelone, (b) Testudo, (c) Bangarus, (d) All of these, 207. Cloaca is seen in case of, (a) Amphibia, (b) Reptiles, 208. Select the incorrect matching:, (a) Chelone, –, (b) Testudo, –, (c) Chameleon, –, (d) Calotes, –, , Turtle, Tortoise, Tree lizard, Wall lizard, , 209. Select the incorrect matching:, (a) Naja, –, (b) Krait, –, (c) Vipera, –, (d) Hemidactylus, –, , Cobra, Bangarus, Viper, Garden lizard, , (c) Aves, , (d) All of these, , 210. Select the total number of lizards from the following:, , Chelone, calotes, chameleon, crocodylus, hemidactylus, columba, neophron, (a) 2, (b) 3, (c) 4, (d) 5, 211. Which of the following is a poisonous snake?, (a) Cobra, (b) Krait, (c) Viper, , (d) All of these, , 212. Limbless reptile is, (a) Chameleon, , (d) Snake, , (b) Crocodile, , 213. In birds, The forelimbs are modified into _(1)_, Jaw is modified into _(2)_, Bones are _(3)_, Heart is _(4)_, , (c) Chelone
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Animal Classification4.19, , Fill in the blanks correctly:, (a) Wings, beak, solid, 3 chambered, (b) Wings, beak, pneumatic, 4 chambered, (c) Claws, beak, pneumatic, 3 chambered, (d) Wings, beak, solid, incompletely 4 chambered, 214. The first vertebrate which are warm-blooded, (a) Reptilia, (b) Amphibian, , (c) Birds, , (d) Mammals, , 215. The aves have additional chamber in digestive tract and of which ____ is for food storage and, ____ for food grinding., (a) crop, gizzard, (b) gizzard, crop, (c) crop, pharynx, (d) pharynx, gizzard, 216. All are flying birds from the following except, (a) Corvus, (b) Columba, (c) Psittacula, 217. Pneumatic bones are present in, (a) Corvus, (c) Pavo (peacock), , (d) Aptenodytes, , (b) Neophron (vulture), (d) All of these, , 218. Which of the following is incorrect about birds?, (a) Air sacs is connected to lungs which help in respiration., (b) Hind limb posses scales and are modified for walking, swimming or clasping., (c) Separate sexes, internal fertilization, oviparous and direct development., (d) Endoskeleton consists of feathers, scales, beak and claws., 219. Mammalia means organism which possess, (a) Exoskeleton, (c) Mammary gland, , (b) Endoskeleton of bone, (d) Two pair of limbs, , 220. The following features belong to, (1) Exoskeleton include hairs on body, horns and nail., (2) Pinna is present., (3) Heart is four chambered., (4) Warm-blooded (homoiotherm)., (5) Thecodont and heterodont teeth., (a) Reptilians, (b) Aves, (c) Mammals, (d) Amphibians, 221. Mammals are adapted for, (a) Walking and running, (c) Swimming and flying, , (c) Climbing and burrowing, (d) Any of the above, , 222. Mammals are mostly, (a) Viviparous, , (c) Ovoviviparous, , (b) Oviparous, , 223. Oviparous mammal is, (a) Canis (dog), (c) Pteropus (flying fox, , (d) All of these, , (b) Felis (cat), (d) Ornithorhynchus (platypus)
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4.20, , Animal Classification, , 224. Select the incorrect matching:, (a) Kangaroo, –, (b) Blue whale, –, (c) Monkey, –, (d) Elephas, –, , Macropus, Balaenoptera, Macaca, Camel, , 225. Find out the incorrect matching:, (a) Reptiles, –, (b) Aves, –, (c) Mammals, –, (d) Amphibian, –, , Chelone, Testudo, Chameleon, Psittacula, Aptenodytes, Neophron, Elephas, Rattus, Delphinus, Naja, bangarus, Calotes, , 226. Aquatic mammal is, (a) Panthera tigris, , (b) Balaenoptera, , 227. Which of the following is a ‘rat’?, (a) Felis, (b) Canis, , (c) Pteropus, , (d) Macropus, , (c) Camelus, , (d) Rattus, , 228. Which of the following mammal have aerial adaptation?, (a) Felis, (b) Canis, (c) Bat, , (d) Macropus, , 229. The basic fundamental feature which enables us to broadly classify the animal kingdom are, (a) Level of organisation, symmetry, (b) Cell organization, coelom, (c) Segmentation of notochord, (d) All the above, 230. Select the total number of correct statement from the following:, (1) Coelenterates have tentacles and bear cnidoblasts., (2) Ctenophores are marine animals with comb plates., (3) Annelids are metamerically segmented animals with a true coelom., (4) The echinoderm posses water vascular system., (5) Hemichordates are a small group of worm like marine animals characterized by cylindrical, body with proboscis, collar and trunk., (a) 2, (b) 3, (c) 4, (d) 5, 231. The most primitive chordates and are ectopariste on fishes belongs to the class, (a) Chondrichthyes, (b) Amphibia, (c) Cyclostomata, (d) Osteichthyes, 232. Select the incorrect matching: [A: Phylum, B: Segmentation, C: Circulatory system,, D: Distinctive features] [A: Absent, P: Present], A, B, C, D, (a) Ctenophore, A, A, Comb plates for locomotion, (b) Aschelminthes, A, P, Often worm shaped, elongated, (c) Annelid, P, P, Body segmentation like rings, (d) Arthropoda, P, P, Jointed appendages, 233. The below figure shows which type of symmetry, , (a) Bilateral, , (b) Radial, , (c) Biradial, , (d) Asymmetry
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Animal Classification4.21, , 234. The below diagram shows ____ symmetry, which is also found in the following group of, organism, Ectoderm, Endoderm, , Mesoderm, , (a) Adamsia, Asterias, Aplysia, (c) Taenia, Ctenoplana, Antedon, , (b) Salpa, Hyla, Calotes, (d) Doliolum, Gorgonia, Sycon, , 235. The excretory organ present in the organism given in figure is, , (a) Rennet cells, (c) Malpighian tubules, , (b) Protonephridia or flame cells, (d) Kidney, , 236. All the features are present in the organism which is shown below in the diagram except, , (a), (b), (c), (d), , It belongs to the second largest animal phylum., Body is segmented and covered by calcareous shell., Triploblastic, coelomate, Mantle cavity is present
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4.22, , Animal Classification, , 237. Find out the total number of organism given in following figure that belongs to marine habitat:, , A, , D, , (a) 1, , B, , , , , , (b) 3, , , , C, , E, , (c) 4, , (d) 5, , 238. Organism given in figure is respire by, , (a) Lungs, (c) Buccopharyngeal cavity, , (b) Skin, (d) All, , Assertion and Reason Questions, Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given, below:, (a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the, assertion., (b) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the, assertion ., (c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false., (d) If both the assertion and reason are false., 239. Assertion: A closed circulatory system is found in annelids., Reason: Annelids posses true coelom., 240. Assertion: Fertilization in sponge is internal., Reason: Sponges are aquatic organisms., 241. Assertion: The skeleton of sponges is made up of spicules., Reason: Composition of spicules help in classification of sponges.
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Animal Classification4.23, , 242. Assertion: Acraniata is a group of organisms which do not have distinct cranium., Reason: It includes small marine forms without head., 243. Assertion: Cold blooded animals do not have fat layer., Reason: Cold blooded animals use their fat for metabolic process during hibernation., 244. Assertion: Cyclostomes are marine but migrate for spawning to fresh water., Reason: Larvae of cyclostome is metamorphosed in marine water., 245. Assertion: Sponges belong to Porifera., Reason: Sponges have canal system., 246. Assertion: A shark can stay at a desired level in water without swimming., Reason: It has a buoyancy-regulating organ called as the swim bladder., 247. Assertion: Birds have one ovary., Reason: This reduces the body weight for flight., 248. Assertion: Plasmodium vivax is responsible for malaria., Reason: Malaria is caused by polluted water., 249. Assertion: Birds are warm blooded., Reason: Birds are able to maintain a constant body temperature., 250. Assertion: Systematics is the branch of biology that deals with classification of living, organisms., Reason: The aim of classification is to group the organisms., 251. Assertion: All birds, except the ones like koel (cuckoo) build nests for retiring and taking rest, during night time (day time for nocturnal)., Reason: Koel lays its eggs in the nests of tailor bird., 252. Assertion: Bats and whales are classified as mammals., Reason: Bats and whales have four-chambered heart., 253. Assertion: Tapeworm, roundworm and pinworm are endoparasites of human intestine., Reason: Improperly cooked food is the source of all intestinal infections., 254. Assertion: The duck-billed Platypus and the spiny ant-eater, both are egg-laying animals yet, they are grouped under mammals., Reason: Both of them have seven cervical vertebrae and 12 pairs of cranial nerves., 255. Assertion: Coelenterates are triploblastic., Reason: Coelenterates contain mesoderm in between ectoderm and endoderm., 256. Assertion: Digestive system of platyhelminthes is incomplete., Reason: They have single opening to outside of the body, serve as both mouth as well as anus., 257. Assertion: Coelenterates, Ctenophores and adult Echinoderms are said to be radial, symmetrical., Reason: Their body can be dived into two equal halves in any plane passing through central, axis of the body., 258. Assertion: Obelia shows metagenesis., Reason: Obelia is polymorphic organism.
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4.24, , Animal Classification, , 259. Assertion: Metagenesis in Obelia is equivalent to alternation of generation in plant, Reason: Polyp is haploid and medusa phase is diploid in Obelia, 260. Assertion: Ascidia belong to sub - phylum urochordata., Reason: Notochord is present in tail of larva stage., 261. Assertion: Fertilisation in bony fishes is usually external., Reason: In males in bony fishes pelvic fins bear claspers., 262. Assertion: Birds have pneumatic bones., Reason: This reduce weight for flight, 263. Assertion: Snake shed their scale as skin cast., Reason: It allow continue growth of snake., 264. Assertion: All vertebrates are chordates., Reason: Vertebrates posses notochord during the embryonic period., 265. Assertion: Most sponge’s body are said to be asymmetrical., Reason: Body of most sponge can’t be divided into two equal half by any plane pass through, the centre of body., 266. Assertion: Aschelminthes are pseudocoelomate., Reason: Body cavity in these organisms is not lined with mesoderm., 267. Assertion: Porifera to Echinoderms are non-chordates., Reason: Notochord is not formed during embryonic development in these animals., 268. Assertion: Coelenterates are called cnidarians., Reason: They possess cnidoblasts on tentacles and the body., 269. Assertion: Bioluminescence is well marked in ctenophores., Reason: All ctenophores are exclusively marine., 270. Assertion: Annelids shows metameric segmentation., Reason: Body of annelids divided externally as well as internally., 271. Assertion: Platyhelminthes are known as flat worms., Reason: Platyhelminthes have laterally compressed body., 272. Assertion: In amphibian skin is generally moist., Reason: They shows cutaneous respiration., 273. Assertion: All mammals are viviparous., Reason: All mammals show external fertilisation., , previous year questions, 1. The crocodile and penguin are similar to whale and dogfish in which one of the following, features?, , [AIPMT MAINS 2010], (a) It possess a solid single stranded central nervous system., (b) Lay eggs and guard them till they hatch., (c) Possess bony skeleton., (d) Have gill slits at some stage.
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Animal Classification4.25, , 2. One example of animals having a single opening to the outside that serves both as mouth as, well as anus is, , [AIPMT PRE 2010], (a) Octopus, (b) Asterias, (c) Ascidia, (d) Fasciola, 3. Which one of the following statements about all the four of Spongilla, leech, dolphin and, penguin is correct?, , [AIPMT PRE 2010], (a) Penguin is homoiothermic while the remaining three are poikilothermic., (b) Leech is a fresh water form while all others are marine., (c) Spongilla has special collared cells called choanocytes, not found in the remaining three., (d) All are bilaterally symmetrical., 4. Which one of the following kinds of animals are triploblastic?, , (a) Flat worms, (b) Sponges, (c) Ctenophores, , [AIPMT PRE 2010], (d) Corals, , 5. Which one of the following statements about certain given animals is correct?, , [AIPMT PRE 2010], (a) Round worms (Aschelminthes) are pseudocoelomates, (b) Molluscs are acoelomates, (c) Insects are pseudocoelomates, (d) Flat worms (Platyhelminthes) are coelomates, 6. Which one of the following statements is totally wrong about the occurrence of notochord,, while the other three are correct?, , [AIPMT MAINS 2011], (a) It is present only in larval tail in ascidian., (b) It is replaced by a vertebral column in adult frog., (c) It is absent throughout life in humans from the very beginning., (d) It is present throughout life in Amphioxus., 7. Frogs differ from humans in possessing, , (a) Paired cerebral hemispheres, (c) Nucleated red blood cells, , [AIPMT MAINS 2011], (b) Hepatic portal system, (d) Thyroid as well as parathyroid, , 8. The figures (A-D) show four animals. Select the correct option with respect to a common, characteristic of two of these animals., , , , (A), , (B)
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4.26, , Animal Classification, , (C), , , , (a), (b), (c), (d), , , , (D), , [AIPMT MAINS 2011], A and D respire mainly through body wall, B and C show radial symmetry, A and B have cnidoblasts for self-defence, C and D have a true coelom, , 9. Which one of the following have the highest number of species in nature?, , [AIPMT PRE 2011], (a) Insects, (b) Birds, (c) Angiosperms, (d) Fungi, 10. What will you look for to identify the sex of the following?, , (a), (b), (c), (d), , Male frog, Female cockroach, Male shark, Female ascaris, , –, –, –, –, , [AIPMT PRE 2011], , A copulatory pad on the first digit of the hind limb, Anal cerci, Claspers borne on pelvic fin, Sharply curved posterior end, , 11. In which one of the following the genus name, its two characters and its class/phylum are, correctly matched?, , [AIPMT PRE 2011], Genus, (a) Salamander, (b) Pteropus, (c) Aurelia, (d) Ascaris, , Two characters, (1) A tympanum represents ear, (2) Fertilization is external, (1) Skin possesses hair, (2) Oviparous, (1) Cnidoblast, (2) Organ level of organization, (1) Body segmented, (2) Males and females distinct, , Class/phylum, Amphibian, Mammalian, Coelenterate, Annelid, , 12. Which one of the following animals is correctly matched with its particular named taxonomic, category?, , [AIPMT PRE 2011]
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Animal Classification4.27, , (a), (b), (c), (d), , Cuttlefish, Humans, Housefly, Tiger, , – Mollusca, a class, – Primata, the family, – Musca, an order, – tigris, the species, , 13. Which one of the following groups of animals is correctly matched with its one characteristic, feature without even a single exception?, , [AIPMT PRE 2011], (a) Chordate, – Possess a mouth provided with an upper and a lower jaw, (b) Chondrichthyes – Possess cartilaginous endoskeleton, (c) Mammalian, – Give birth to young ones, (d) Reptilian, – Possess 3 chambered heart with one incompletely divided, ventricle, 14. Which one of the following categories of animals is correctly described with no single exception in it?, , [AIPMT MAINS 2012], (a) All bony fishes have four pairs of gills and an operculum on each side., (b) All sponges are marine and have collared cells., (c) All mammals are viviparous and possess diaphragm for breathing., (d) , All reptiles possess scales, have a three chambered heart and are cold blooded, (poikilothermal)., 15. Which one of the following pairs of animals are similar to each other pertaining to the feature, stated against them?, , [AIPMT MAINS 2012], (a) Garden lizard and crocodile, , – Three chambered heart, , (b) Ascaris and ancylostoma, , – Metameric segmentation, , (c) Sea horse and flying fish, , – Cold blooded (poikilothermal), , (d) Pteropus and ornithorhyncus, , – Viviparity, , 16. In which one of the following, the genus name, its two characters and its phylum are not, correctly matched, whereas the remaining three are correct?, , [AIPMT PRE 2012], Genus name, (a) Pila, (b) Asterias, (c) Sycon, (d) Periplaneta, , Two characters, (1) Body is segmented, (2) Mouth with radula, (1) Spiny skinned, (2) Water vascular system, (1) Pore bearing, (2) Canal system, (1) Jointed appendages, (2) Chitinous exoskeleton, , Phylum, Mollusca, Echinodermata, Porifera, Arthropoda
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4.28, , Animal Classification, , 17. Match the name of the animal (column I), with one characteristics (column II), and the p hylum/, class (column III) to which it belongs:, , [AIPMT 2013], Column-I, , Column-II, , Column-III, , (a) Petromyzon, , Ectoparasite, , Cyclostomata, , (b) Icthyophis, , Terrestrial, , Reptilian, , (c) Limulus, , Body covered by chitinous exoskeleton, , Pisces, , (d) Adamsia, , Radially symmetrical, , Porifera, , 18. Which of the following are correctly matched with respect to their taxonomic classification?, , [AIPMT 2013], (a) Flying fish, cattle fish, silverfish, Pisces, (b) Centipede, millipede, spider, scorpion Insecta, (c) House fly, butterfly, tsetse fly, silverfish Insecta, (d) Spiny anteato, sea urchin, sea cucumber echinodermata, 19. Which group of animals belong to the same phylum?, , (a) Malarial parasite, Amoeba, Mosquito, (b) Earthworm, Pinworm, Tapeworm, (c) Prawn, Scorpion, Locusta, (d) Sponge, Sea anemone, Starfish, 20. One of the representatives of Phylum Arthropoda is, , (a) Cuttlefish, (b) Silverfish, (c) Pufferfish, (d) Flying fish, , [AIPMT 2013], , [AIPMT 2013], , 21. Select the Taxon mentioned that represent both marine and fresh water species:, , [AIPMT 2014], (a) Echinoderms, (b) Ctenophora, (c) Cephalochordata, (d) Cnidaria, 22. Which one of the following living organisms completely lack a cell wall?, , (a) Cyanobacteria, (b) Sea fan (Gorgonia), (c) Saccharomyces, (d) Blue-green algae, 23. Planaria posses high capacity of, , (a) Metamorphosis, (c) Alternation of generation, , [AIPMT 2014], , [AIPMT 2014], (b) Regeneration, (d) Bioluminescence, , 24. A marine cartilaginous fish that can produce electric current is, , (a) Pristis, (b) Torpedo, (c) Trygon, (d) Scoliodon, , [AIPMT 2014]
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Animal Classification4.29, , 25. Which of the following represents the correct combination without any exception?, , [AIPMT 2015], Characteristics , Class, (a) Mammary gland, hair on body pinnate two pairs of limbs. , (b) Mouth ventral, gills without operculum skin with placoid scales; , persistent notochord., (c) Sucking and circular mouth laws absent integument without scales; , paired appendages., (d) Body covered with feathers, skin most and glandular, fore limbs , than wings; lungs with air sacs., 26. Which of the following animals is not viviparous?, (a) Flying fox (Bat) (b) Elephant, (c) Platypus, 27. Metagenesis refers to, , (a), (b), (c), (d), , Mammalian, Chondrichthyes, Cyclostomata, Aves, , [AIPMT 2015], (d) Whale, [RE-AIPMT 2015], , Alternation of generation between asexual and sexual phases of an organism., Occurrence of a drastic change in form during post-embryonic development., Presence of a segmented body and parthenogenetic mode of reproduction., Presence of different morphic forms., , 28. A jawless fish, which lays eggs in fresh water and whose ammocoetes larvae after metamorphosis return to the ocean is, , [RE-AIPMT 2015], (a) Myxine, (b) Neomyxine, (c) Petromyzon, (d) Eptatretus, 29. Body having meshwork of cells, internal cavities lined with food filtering flagellated cells and, indirect developments are the characteristics of phylum, , [RE-AIPMT 2015], (a) Porifera, (b) Mollusca, (c) Protozoa, (d) Coelenterata, 30. Which of the following features is not present in the Phylum – Arthropoda?, , (a) Chitinous exoskeleton, (c) Parapodia, , [NEET - I, 2016], (b) Metameric segmentation, (d) Jointed appendages, , 31. Which of the following characteristic features always holds true for the corresponding group, of animals?, [NEET - I, 2016], (a) Cartilaginous endoskeleton, , − Chondrichthyes, , (b) Viviparous, , − Mammalia, , (c) Possess a mouth with an upper and a lower jaw, , − Chordata, , (d) 3-chambered heart with one incompletely divided ventricle., , − Reptilia, , 32. Which one of the following characteristics is not shared by birds and mammals?, , [NEET - I, 2016]
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4.30, , Animal Classification, , (a) Ossified endoskeleton, (c) Viviparity, , (b) Breathing using lungs, (d) Warm blooded nature, , 33. Choose the correct statement, (a) All cyclostomes do not possess jaws and paired fins, (b) All reptiles have a three-chambered heart., (c) All pisces have gills covered by an operculum, (d) All mammals are viviparous, , [NEET - II, 2016], , NCERT Exemplar Questions, 1. In some animal groups, the body is found divided into compartments with at least some, organs/organ repeated. This characteristic feature is named as, (a) Segmentation, (b) Metamerism, (c) Metagenesis, (d) Metamorphosis, 2. Given below are types of cells present in some animals. Each one is specialized to perform a, single function except, (a) Choanocytes, (b) Interstitial cells, (c) Gastrodermal cells (d) Nematocytes, 3. Which one of the following sets of animals share a four chambered heart?, (a) Amphibians, Reptiles, Birds, (b) Crocodiles, Birds, Mammals, (c) Crocodiles, Lizards, Turtles, (d) Lizards, Mammals, Birds, 4. Which of the following pairs of animals has non-glandular skin?, (a) Snake and Frog, (b) Chameleon and Turtle, (c) Frog and Pigeon, (d) Crocodile and Tiger, 5. Birds and mammals share one of the following characteristics as a common feature, (a) Pigmented skin, (b) Alimentary canal with some modification, (c) Viviparity, (d) Warm blooded nature, 6. Which one of the following sets of animals belongs to a single taxonomic group?, (a) Cuttlefish, Jellyfish, Silverfish, Dogfish, Starfish, (b) Bat, Pigeon, Butterfly, (c) Monkey, Chimpanzee, Man, (d) Silkworm, Tapeworm, Earthworm, 7. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?, (a) Mesoglea is present in between ectoderm and endoderm in Obelia., (b) Radial symmetry is found in Asterias., (c) Fasciola is a pseudocoelomate animal., (d) Taenia is a triploblastic animal., 8. Which of the following statements is incorrect?, (a) In cockroaches and prawns, the excretion of waste material occurs through malpighian, tubules., (b) In ctenophores, locomotion is mediated by comb plates., (c) In Fasciola, flame cells take part in excretion., (d) Earthworms are hermaphrodite and yet cross fertilization takes place among them.
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Animal Classification4.31, , 9. Which one of the following is oviparous?, (a) Platypus, (c) Elephant, , (b) Flying fox (Bat), (d) Whale, , 10. Which one of the following is not a poisonous snake?, (a) Cobra, (b) Viper, (c) Python, (d) Krait, 11. Match the following list of animals with their level of organization., a., b., c., d., , Division of Labour, Organ level, Cellular aggregate level, Tissue level, Organ system level, , i., ii., iii., iv., , Animal, Pheritima, Fasciola, Spongilla, Obelia, , Choose the correct match showing the division of labour with animal example., (a) (i)–(b), (ii)–(c), (iii)–(d) and (iv)–(a), (b) (i)–(b), (ii)–(d), (iii)–(c) and (iv)–(a), (c) (i)–(d), (ii)–(a), (iii)–(b) and (iv)–(c), (d) (i)–(a), (ii)–(d), (iii)–(c) and (iv)–(b), 12. Body cavity is the cavity present between body wall and gut wall. In some animals the body, cavity is not lined by mesoderm. Such animals are called, (a) Acoelomate, (b) Pseudocoelomate, (c) Coelomate, (d) Haemocoelomate, 13. Match the column A with column B and choose the correct option., Column A, a. Porifera, b. Aschelminthes, c. Annelida, d. Arthropoda, e. Echinodermata, (a), (b), (c), (d), , Column B, i. Canal system, ii. Water–vascular, system, iii. Muscular Pharynx, iv. Jointed appendages, v. Metameres, , (a)–(ii), (b)–(iii), (c)–(v), (d)–(iv), (e)–(i), (a)–(ii), (b)–(v), (c)–(iii), (d)–(iv), (e)–(i), (a)–(i), (b)–(iii), (c)–(v), (d)–(iv), (e)–(ii), (a)–(i), (b)–(v), (c)–(iii), (d)–(iv), (e)–(ii)
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4.32, , Animal Classification, , Answer Keys, Practice Questions, 1. (d), 11. (d), 21. (d), 31. (d), 41. (d), 51. (c), 61. (b), 71. (d), 81. (c), 91. (c), 101. (c), 111. (d), 121. (d), 131. (c), 141. (d), 151. (d), 161. (d), 171. (a), 181. (b), 191. (d), 201. (b), 211. (d), 221. (d), 231. (c), , 2. (d), 12. (d), 22. (d), 32. (b), 42. (a), 52. (c), 62. (a), 72. (d), 82. (d), 92. (b), 102. (c), 112. (d), 122. (d), 132. (c), 142. (a), 152. (c), 162. (d), 172. (d), 182. (b), 192. (b), 202. (d), 212. (d), 222. (a), 232. (b), , 3. (c), 13. (a), 23. (b), 33. (c), 43. (d), 53. (d), 63. (c), 73. (a), 83. (b), 93. (a), 103. (d), 113. (c), 123. (b), 133. (d), 143. (d), 153. (c), 163. (d), 173. (b), 183. (c), 193. (d), 203. (d), 213. (b), 223. (d), 233. (b), , 4. (d), 14. (b), 24. (b), 34. (a), 44. (a), 54. (d), 64. (b), 74. (d), 84. (c), 94. (d), 104. (d), 114. (b), 124. (d), 134. (d), 144. (d), 154. (d), 164. (d), 174. (d), 184. (a), 194. (a), 204. (d), 214. (c), 224. (d), 234. (b), , 5. (d), 15. (d), 25. (b), 35. (a), 45. (d), 55. (b), 65. (c), 75. (b), 85. (b), 95. (c), 105. (c), 115. (c), 125. (a), 135. (d), 145. (c), 155. (c), 165. (c), 175. (b), 185. (d), 195. (d), 205. (c), 215. (a), 225. (d), 235. (b), , 6. (c), 16. (b), 26. (c), 36. (b), 46. (b), 56. (a), 66. (c), 76. (b), 86. (b), 96. (c), 106. (c), 116. (d), 126. (c), 136. (c), 146. (a), 156. (b), 166. (d), 176. (c), 186. (d), 196. (a), 206. (d), 216. (d), 226. (b), 236. (b), , 7. (d), 17. (c), 27. (d), 37. (b), 47. (b), 57. (c), 67. (c), 77. (a), 87. (d), 97. (b), 107. (d), 117. (c), 127. (c), 137. (d), 147. (b), 157. (c), 167. (a), 177. (b), 187. (c), 197. (c), 207. (d), 217. (d), 227. (d), 237. (c), , 8. (d), 18. (a), 28. (c), 38. (b), 48. (d), 58. (c), 68. (d), 78. (d), 88. (d), 98. (c), 108. (d), 118. (a), 128. (c), 138. (d), 148. (c), 158. (a), 168. (b), 178. (c), 188. (d), 198. (d), 208. (d), 218. (d), 228. (c), 238. (d), , 9. (d), 19. (b), 29. (a), 39. (c), 49. (c), 59. (c), 69. (c), 79. (d), 89. (c), 99. (c), 109. (a), 119. (d), 129. (c), 139. (b), 149. (d), 159. (c), 169. (a), 179. (c), 189. (d), 199. (b), 209. (d), 219. (c), 229. (d), , 10. (a), 20. (d), 30. (a), 40. (d), 50. (d), 60. (b), 70. (a), 80. (d), 90. (d), 100. (d), 110. (b), 120. (c), 130. (d), 140. (c), 150. (d), 160. (d), 170. (b), 180. (d), 190. (c), 200. (c), 210. (b), 220. (c), 230. (d), , Assertion and Reason Questions, 239. (b), 249. (a), 259. (d), 269. (b), , 240. (b), 250. (b), 260. (a), 270. (a), , 241. (b), 251. (b), 261. (d), 271. (c), , 242. (b), 252. (b), 262. (a), 272. (a), , 243. (b) 244. (c) 245. (b) 246. (d) 247. (a) 248. (c), 253. (b) 254. (a) 255. (d) 256. (a) 257. (a) 258. (a), 263. (a) 264. (a) 265. (a) 266. (a) 267. (a) 268. (a), 273. (d), , Previous Year Questions, 1. (d), 11. (a), 21. (d), 31. (a), , 2. (d), 12. (d), 22. (b), 32. (c), , 3. (c), 13. (b), 23. (b), 33. (a), , 4. (a), 14. (a), 24. (b), , 5. (a), 15. (c), 25. (b), , 6. (c), 16. (a), 26. (c), , 7. (c), 17. (a), 27. (a), , 8. (d), 18. (c), 28. (c), , 9. (a), 19. (c), 29. (a), , 10. (c), 20. (b), 30. (c), , 8. (a), , 9. (a), , 10. (c), , NCERT Exemplar Questions, 1. (b), 11. (c), , 2. (b), 12. (b), , 3. (b), 13. (c), , 4. (b), , 5. (d), , 6. (c), , 7. (c)
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Unit, , Structural, Organization in, Plants and Animals, , II, , Chapter 5: Plant Morphology, Chapter 6: Anatomy of Flowering Plants, Chapter 7: Structural Organization in Animals, , Students Note, Unit II includes morphology and anatomy of living organism, mainly higher plants and, animals. In this unit, the chapter on plant morphology is the most important chapter and, demands special attention. It should be studied in more detail then the rest of the chapters, in this book because of the variety of questions (for example, how many of the following, have marginal type of placentation and then with the given examples, you have to find out, the numbers of plants having that type of placentation) that can be prepared. Hence, pay, careful attention to all the questions of this unit. You should also focus a lot on diagram of, family, placentaion and aestivation. For structural organization and anatomy of plant, this, book is more than sufficient. and by solving the questions present in this book, you should, have excellent command on these chapters.
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Plant, Morphology, , CHAPTER, , 5, , prACtiCe Questions, The Root, 1. Angiosperms are characterized by the presence of, (a) Roots and stem, (b) Leaf and flowers (c) Fruit, , (d) All of these, , 2. In majority of dicot, the direct elongation of the radicle leads to the formation of, (a) Primary root, (b) Secondary root, (c) Tertiary root, (d) None of these, 3. The primary root and its branches constitute, (a) Fibrous root system, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (b) Tap root system, (d) None of these, , 4. In wheat (monocot), (a) Primary root is short lived, (b) Primary root replaced by fibrous roots, (c) Fibrous roots arises from the base of stem, (d) All are correct, 5. Adventitious roots are found in, (a) Grass, (b) Monestra, , (c) Banyan tree, , (d) All of these, , 6. Adventitious roots arise from part other than, (a) Hypocotyl, (b) Epicotyl, , (c) Plumule, , (d) Radicle, , 7. Functions of root are, (a) Absorption of water and mineral from soil, (b) Anchoring of plant in soil, (c) Storage of food material and synthesis of plant growth regulator, (d) All of these, 8. What is the number of regions in which a root is divided?, (a) 1, (b) 2, (c) 3, , (d) 4, , 9. Root is covered at the apex by a thimble-like structure called, (a) Root cap, (b) Radicle, (c) Coleorhiza, , (d) Coleoptile, , 10. The root region is arranged proximal to distal part in the following manner, (a) Zone of cell elongation‒ Zone of cell maturation ‒ Zone of cell division, (b) Zone of cell division ‒ Zone of cell elongation ‒ Zone of cell maturation, (c) Zone of cell maturation‒ Zone of cell elongation ‒ Zone of cell division, (d) Zone of cell maturation ‒ Zone of cell division ‒ Zone of cell elongation
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5.4, , 11. Root hairs arise from, (a) Zone of cell division, (c) One of cell maturation, , Plant Morphology, , (b) Zone of cell elongation, (d) All of these, , 12. Find out the incorrect statement:, (a) Root hair absorbs water and mineral from the soil., (b) Root increases in length due to region of elongation., (c) Meristematic region have thin walled cell with dense cytoplasm., (d) Root cannot synthesize plant growth regulators., 13. Which of the following is an exception for the modification of the tap root?, (a) Carrot, (b) Turnip, (c) Sweet potato, (d) All of these, 14. Prop or pillar roots are found in, (a) Carrot, (b) Sweet potato, , (c) Banyan tree, , 15. Maize and sugarcane contain, (a) Storage root, (c) Pneumatophores, , (b) Stilt root, (d) Prop roots, , (d) Maize, , 16. Find out the incorrect statement:, (a) Sweet potato has root modification for storage of food., (b) Still root arises from lower nodes of the stem., (c) Rizophora posses pneumatophores., (d) Pneumatophores are meant for anaerobic respiration., The Stem, 17. Which of the following is incorrect of stem?, (a) It is developed from the plumule of embryo of a germinating seed., (b) It bears nodes and internodes., (c) It bears only terminal bud not axillary bud., (d) Its main function is spreading of branches and bear leaves, flowers and fruits., 18. Functions of stem are, (a) Conduct water, mineral and photosynthates., (b) Some perform storage food, support and protection., (c) Some perform function of vegetative propagation., (d) All of these, 19. Young stems are generally, (a) Woody, (c) Green and photosynthetic, , (b) Dark brown in color, (d) All of these, , 20. Underground stem stores food in the following except, (a) Zaminkand, (b) Colocasia, (c) Ginger, , (d) Sugarcane, , 21. Which stem act as an organ of perennation?, (a) Potato, (b) Ginger, , (c) Colocasia, , (d) All of these, , 22. Which of the following is a gourd?, (a) Cucumber, (b) Pumpkins, , (c) Watermelon, , (d) All of these
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Plant Morphology5.5, , 23. Which of the following is correct about gourds?, (a) Stem tendril develops from apical bud., (b) Stem tendril are slender and spirally coiled., (c) Stem tendril doesn’t help in climbing., (d) Stem tendril develops from radicle., 24. Select the incorrect matching:, (a) Thorn ‒ Citrus, Bougainvillea, (c) Underground stem ‒ Turmeric, , (b) Flattened stem ‒ Opuntia, (d) Stem tendril ‒ Colocasia, , 25. The lateral branches original from basal and underground portion of the main stem, grow, horizontally beneath the soil and then come out obliquely upward giving rise to leafy shoots, seen in case of, (a) Banana, (b) Pineapple, (c) Chrysanthemum (d) All of these, 26. A slender lateral branch arises from the base of the main axis and after growing aerially for, sometime arch downward to touch the ground seen in case of, (a) Mint, (b) Jasmine, (c) Pistia, (d) Both (a) and (b), 27. A lateral branch with short internodes and each node bearing a rosette of leaves and a tuft of, roots are found in aquatic plants like, (a) Pistia, (b) Eichhornia, (c) Wolffia, (d) Both (a) and (b), 28. Select the correct statement from the following:, A. Fleshy cylindrical stem in Euphorbia carry out photosynthesis., B. Pistia and eichhornia are example of offset., C. Underground stem of grass and strawberry spread to new niche and when older part die, new plants are formed., D. Thorns are woody, straight and pointed., (a) A and B only, (b) B and D only, (c) B and C only, (d) All of these, 29. The most important vegetative organ for photosynthesis is, (a) Stem, (b) Leaf, (c) Root, , (d) All of these, , The Leaf, 30. Which of the following is correct about leaf?, (a) It has originated from root apical meristem., (b) It is arranged in basipetal order., (c) It arises from axillary bud., (d) It bears a bud in its axil., 31. Which of the following is incorrect about leaf?, (a) It is arranged in acropetal order, (b) It develops from node, (c) It is generally flattened in shape, (d) It is arranged in basipetal order, 32. Typical leaf consist of, (a) Petiole, (b) Leaf base, , (c) Lamina, , (d) All of these, , 33. The leaf is attached to the stem by the leaf base and may bear two lateral small leaf like, structure called, (a) Leaflet, (b) Lamina, (c) Stipule, (d) Leaf blade
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5.6, , Plant Morphology, , 34. Select the correct statement from the following:, A. In monocot leaf, the base expands into a sheath covering the stem partially or wholly., B. In all leguminous plants, the leaf base may become swollen, which is called the pulvinus., C. The lamina or leaf blade is the green expanded part of the leaf with veins and veinlets., D. Veins provide rigidity to leaf blade., (a) A and B only, (b) C and D only, (c) All except B, (d) All except D, 35. Leaf can be differentiated by, (a) Shape, (b) Margin and apex, , (c) Surface, , (d) All of these, , 36. Long thin _________ petiole allows the leaf blade to flutter in wind, thereby cooling of the leaf, and bringing _________ air to leaf surfaces., (a) Hard, fresh, (b) Flexible, fresh, (c) Hard, fresh, (d) Rigid, fresh, 37. The arrangement of arteries and arterioles in the lamina of leaf is termed as, (a) Venation, (b) Phyllotaxy, (c) Inflorescence, (d) None of these, 38. Which of the following is correct about venation?, A. Parallel venation is generally found in monocot., B. Parallel venation is generally found in dicot., C. Reticulate venation is generally found in monocot., D. Reticulate venation is generally found in dicot., (a) A and D only, (b) B and C only, (c) B and D only, , (d) A and C only, , 39. Bud is present in axil, (a) Simple leaf, , (c) Leaflet, , (d) Both (a) and (b), , 40. Pinnately compound leaf found in, (a) Lemon, (b) Bombax, , (c) Desmodium, , (d) Neem, , 41. Palmately compound leaf is found in, (a) Neem, (b) Rose, , (c) Silk cotton, , (d) Mimosa pudica, , (b) Compound leaf, , 42. Find out the correct matching:, A. Palmately compound leaves – Leaf let attached to common axis rachis, B. Phyllotaxy, – Pattern of arrangement of leaves on stemor branch, C. Pinnately compound leaves – Leaflet attached to a common point i.e. at the tip of petiole, D. Venation, – Arrangement of veins and veinlets in the lamina of leaf, (a) A and B only, (b) B and C only, (c) C and D only, (d) B and D only, 43. Phyllotaxy is usually of three types, namely,, (a) Alternate, (b) Whorled, , (c) Opposite, , 44. Select the correct matching:, Column I, Column II, A. Alternate, X. Single leaf arises at each node, B. Whorled, C. Opposite, , Y. More than 2 leaf arises at node, Z. Pair of leaf arises at node, , (a) A–X–1, B–Y–2, C–Z–3, (c) A–Y–3, B–Z–1, C–Y–2, , (d) All of these, , Column II, 1. China Rose, mustard,, sunflower, 2. Alstonia, 3. Calotropis and guava, , (b) A–Y–3, B–Z–2, C–X–1, (d) A–Z–3, B–Y–2, C–X–1
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Plant Morphology5.7, , 45. Which of the following posses alternate phyllotaxy except?, (a) Mustard, (b) China rose, (c) Sunflower, , (d) Calotropis, , 46. In which plant the leaves are small and short-lived. The petiole in these plant expand, become, green and synthesize food, such petiole is known as phyllode?, (a) Sweat pea, (b) Clematis, (c) Australian acacia (d) Eichhornia, 47. Select the incorrect matching:, (a) Leaf into tendril ‒ Pea, (c) Fleshy leaf ‒ Onion and garlic, , (b) Leaf into spine ‒ Cacti, (d) Whorled phyllotaxy ‒ Calotropis, , 48. Which of the following pair represent insectivorous plant?, (a) Pitcher plant, australian acacia, (b) Venus fly trap, calotropis, (c) Pitcher plant, venus fly trap, (d) Silk cotton, neem, 49. In pitcher plant, the pitcher is modified into, (a) Root, (b) Stem, , (c) Leaf, , (d) Flower, , 50. In floral meristem, (a) Internode does not elongate, (b) Axis get condensed, (c) The apex produced different kinds of floral appendages laterally at successive nodes, instead of leaves., (d) All of these, The Inflorescence, 51. The arrangement of flowers on the floral axis is termed as, (a) Phyllotaxy, (b) Aestivation, (c) Inflorescence, , (d) Placentation, , 52. In cymose the type of inflorescence is, A. Main axis terminates into flower., B. Flower born in basipetal order., C. Main axis not terminates into flower., D. Flower born in acropetal order., (a) A and B only, (b) C and D only, , (c) A and C only, , (d) B and C only, , 53. In racemose type of inflorescence,, A. Main axis terminates into flower., B. Flower born in basipetal order., C. Main axis not terminates into flower., D. Flower born in acropetal order., (a) A and B only, (b) C and D only, , (c) A and C only, , (d) B and C only, , 54. Which of the following is correct about flower?, A. Reproductive unit in angiosperm., B. Calyx and corolla are reproductive organs., C. Typical flower has four kinds of whorls., D. Whorls arranged successively on thalamus or receptacle., (a) All except C, (b) All except D, (c) All except B, , (d) All except A, , The Flower
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5.8, , Plant Morphology, , 55. Select the incorrect matching:, A. Actinomorphic – When flower can be divided into two equal radial halves in any radial, plane passing through the centre., B. Zygomorphic – When flower can be divided into two similar halves only in one, particular vertical plane., C. Asymmetric, – When flower cannot be divided into two similar halves by any vertical, plane passing through centre., D. All are correct, 56. Asymmetric flower is found in, (a) Pea, (b) Datura, , (c) Bean, , (d) Canna, , 57. How many of the following contains zygomorphic flower?, Pea, Gulmohur, Bean, Cassia, Mustard, Datura, Chilli, Sesbania, Lupin, Muliathi, (a) 6, (b) 7, (c) 4, (d) 8, 58. The reduced leaf found at the base of the pedicel is known as, (a) Leaflet, (b) Stipule, (c) Bract, , (d) Calyx, , 59. Based on the position of calyx, the corolla and androecium in respect of the ovary on thalamus, the flower is of how many types, (a) 1, (b) 2, (c) 3, (d) 4, 60. Select the correct matching:, Column I, Column II, 1. Hypogynous A. Gynoecium occupies the highest, position, 2. Epigynous B. Gynoecium is situated in the centre, 3. Perigynous C. Margin of thalamus grows upward, enclosing ovary completely, (a) 1‒A‒X, 2‒B‒Y, 3‒C‒Z, (c) 1‒B‒Y, 2‒A‒X, 3‒C‒Z, , Column III, X. Mustard, Brinjal, China rose, Y. Plum, peach, rose, Z. Guava, cucumber, ray florets, of sunflower, , (b) 1‒A‒X, 2‒C‒Z, 3‒B‒Y, (d) 1‒A‒X, 2‒B‒Z, 3‒C‒Y, , 61. Which flower posses superior ovary?, (a) Mustard, (b) China rose, , (c) Brinjal, , 62. Select the correct matching:, (a) Gamosepalous ‒ Sepal is united, (c) Gamopetalous ‒ Petals are united, , (b) Polysepalous ‒ Sepals are free, (d) All of these, , 63. The shape of corolla may be, (a) Tubular, (b) Funnel-shaped, , (c) Bell-shaped, , (d) All of these, , (d) All of these, , 64. The mode of arrangement of sepals or petals in floral bud with respect to its other members of, the same whorl are known as, (a) Phyllotaxy, (b) Inflorescence, (c) Aestivation, (d) Hibernation, 65. Sepals or petals in a whorl just touch one another at the margin, without overlapping is found in, (a) China rose, (b) Pea, (c) Cassia, (d) Calotropis, 66. Twisted aestivation is found in all except, (a) Cotton, (b) China rose, , (c) Lady’s finger, , (d) Gulmohar
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Plant Morphology5.9, , 67. If the margins or sepals or petals overlap one another but not in any particular direction is, known as _________ aestivation., (a) Vexillary, (b) Twisted, (c) Imbricate, (d) Gulmohar, 68. Which is false for vexillary or papilionaceous aestivation?, (a) Two smallest anterior petals are known as keel., (b) Two lateral petals are known as wing., (c) The largest standard petal is posterior., (d) The largest standard petal is anterior and overlaps wing., 69. Select the correct matching:, Aestivation, (a) Valvate, (b) Twisted, (c) Imbricate, (d) Vexillary, 70. Stamen consists of, (a) Stalk or filament, , –, –, –, –, –, , (b) Stigma, , Example, Cassia, China rose, ladyfinger, calotropis, Cassia and Gulmohar, Pea, Bean, Aloe, Tulip, (c) Anther, , (d) Both (a) and (c), , 71. Anther usually posses, (a) One sac, (b) Two sacs, , (c) Three sacs, , (d) Four sacs, , 72. A sterile stamen is called, (a) Monadelphous, (b) Epipetalous, , (c) Epiphyllous, , (d) Staminode, , 73. Epiphyllous stamens are found in, (a) Sunn hemp, (b) Ashwagandha, , (c) Mustard, , (d) Lily, , 74. Epipetalous stamens are found in, (a) Trifolium, (b) Brinjal, , (c) Asparagus, , (d) Indigofera, , 75. The stamens are united into one bunch (Monoadelphous) condition is found in, (a) Pea, (b) Citrus, (c) Arhar, (d) China rose, 76. Diadelphous condition is found in, (a) Citrus, (b) Pea, , (c) China rose, , (d) Tomato, , 77. A carpet consists of, (a) Stigma, , (c) Style, , (d) All of these, , (b) Ovary, , 78. Which of the following is incorrect about carpet?, (a) Ovary is enlarged basal portion, (b) Stigma is usually at tip of style, (c) Style is elongated tube over ovary, (d) Style is the receptive surface for pollen grains, 79. Apocarpous condition is found in, (a) Mustard, (b) Tomato, , (c) Lotus, , (d) All of these, , 80. Syncarpous condition is found in, (a) Mustard, (b) Lotus, , (c) Rose, , (d) All of these, , 81. After fertilization, (a) Ovule develops into seed, (c) Ovary wall changes to fruit wall, , (b) Ovary matures to fruit, (d) All of these
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5.10, , Plant Morphology, , 82. Arrangement of ovules within the ovary is known as, (a) Placentation, (b) Aestivation, (c) Fragmentation, 83. Match the column:, Column I, A. Marginal, B. Parietal, C. Axile, D. Central and free central, E. Basal, , –, –, –, –, –, –, , (d) Hibernation, , Column II, 1. Pea, 2. Mustard and argemone, 3. Dianthus and primrose, 4. China rose, tomato, lemon, 5. Sunflower and marigold, , (a) A‒1, B‒2, C‒4, D‒3, E‒5, (c) A‒4, B‒1, C‒3, D‒5, E‒4, , (b) A‒2, B‒1, C‒3, D‒4, E‒5, (d) A‒5, B‒2, C‒4, D‒2, E‒3, , 84. Ovary is one-chambered but it becomes two chambered due to the formation of false septum, is found in, (a) Argemone and mustard, (b) Dianthus and primrose, (c) Rose and tomato, (d) Pea, 85. A placentation in which ovule are born on central axis and septa are absent, is found in, (a) Argemone and mustard, (b) Dianthus and primrose, (c) Rose and tomato, (d) Pea, 86. A placentation, in which placenta develops at the base of ovary and a single ovule is attached,, is found in, (a) Argemone and mustard, (b) Dianthus and primrose, (c) Rose and tomato, (d) Sunflower and marigold, The Fruit, 87. Fruit is, (a) The resultant ripened ovary, (c) A characteristic feature of flowing plant, , (b) Formed generally after fertilization, (d) All of these, , 88. What is the name of the pericarp when it is thick and fleshy?, (a) Epicarp, (b) Mesocarp, (c) Endocarp, , (d) All of these, , 89. In which fruit the mesocarp is fibrous?, (a) Mango, (b) Coconut, , (c) Both (a) and (b), , (d) None of these, , 90. Which is the edible part in mango?, (a) Thin epicarp, (c) Stony hard endocarp, , (b) Fleshy mesocarp, (d) All of these, , 91. In coconut and mango, the fruit is known as, (a) Legume, (b) Pod, , (c) Drupe, , (d) Samara, , 92. If fruit is developed without fertilization of the ovary, it is called, (a) Parthenocarpic fruit, (b) Apomictic fruit, (c) Fleshly fruit, (d) Polyembryonic fruit, 93. Mango is developed from, (a) Monocarpellary inferior ovary, (c) Multicarpellary inferior ovary, , (b) Monocarpellary superior ovary, (d) Multicarpellary superior ovary
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Plant Morphology5.11, , The Seed, 94. Seed is made up of, (a) Seed coat, , (b) Embryo, , (c) Both (a) and (b), , (d) None of these, , 95. Embryo is made up of, (a) A radicle, (c) One or two cotyledons, , (b) Embryonal axis, (d) All of these, , 96. The following are monocots except, (a) Wheat, (b) Maize, , (c) Sugarcane, , (d) Gram, , 97. The following are dicots except, (a) Bean, (b) Gram, , (c) Pea, , (d) Maize, , 98. Which of the following is correct about dicot seed?, A Micropyle is present above the hilum., B. At the ends of embryonal axis the radicle and plumule is present., C. Seed coat has 3 layers., D. Cotyledons are generally without food reserve., (a) A and B only, (b) B and C only, (c) C and D only, , (d) A and D only, , 99. Following are the non-endospermic seed except, (a) Bean, (b) Gram, (c) Pea, , (d) Castor, , 100. Which layer is called aleurone layer?, (a) Protein, (b) Carbohydrate, , (c) Lipid, , (d) All of these, , 101. The plumule and radical in monocot seed are enclosed in sheaths which are called _________, and _________ respectively., (a) Coleoptile and scutellum, (b) Scutellum and coleorhiza, (c) Coleoptile and coleorhiza, (d) Coleorhiza and coleoptile, 102. Select the incorrect statement among the following:, A. Monocot seeds are generally endospermic., B. In maize, the seed coat is membranous and is generally fused with fruit wall., C. In monocot seed, the single large shield shape cotyledon is known as scutellum., D. In orchids, the seeds are non-endospermic., (a) A and B only, (b) C only, (c) D only, (d) None of these, 103. Which family is known as the ‘potato’ family?, (a) Fabaceae, (b) Solanaceae, (c) Liliaceae, (d) Cruciferae (Brassicaceae), Technical Description of Flowering Plant, 104. Find out the correct matching:, A. Br, –, B. K, –, C. C, –, D. A, –, E. G, –, F. G, –, –, G.⊕ +, –, H.⊕ +, I. ⊕, –, , 1., 2., 3., 4., 5., 6., 7., 8., 9., , Bracteate, Calyx, Corolla, Gynoecium, Androecium, Superior ovary, Male, Bisexual, Actinomorphic
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5.14, , Plant Morphology, , 126. Which of the following is a source of medicine?, (a) Petunia, (b) Asparagus, (c) Gloriosa, 127. Floral formula of solanaceae is, (a) ⊕ + C(5) A(5)G(2)K(5), (c), , ⊕+, , K(5)C(5) A(5)G(2), , 128. The floral formula of fabaceae is, (a) ⊕ + K(5)C1+2+(2)A(9)+1G1, (c) ⊕ + K(5)C1+2A9+1G1, , (d) Aloe, , (b), , ⊕+, , K(5)C(5) A(5)G(2), , (d), , ⊕+, , K(5)C(5) A(5)G(2), , (b), (d), , ⊕+, , K(5)C1+2-(2)A(9)+1G1, K(5)C1+2+2A(9)‒1G1, , ⊕+, , 129. Select the incorrect statement for liliaceae from the following:, (a) Bisexual, zygomorphic flower, (b) Bisexual, actinomorphic flower, (c) Leaves are mostly basal, exstipulate with parallel venation, (d) Tepal shows valvate aestivation, 130. Tomato, Brinjal and potato belongs to the family called, (a) Brassicaceae, (b) Solanaceae, (c) Liliaceae, 131. The botanical name of makoi is, (a) Solanum tuberosum, (c) Solanum lycopersicum, , (d) Fabaceae, , (b) Solanum melongena, (d) Solanum nigrum, , 132. What indicates A to E in the below figure., B, A, C, D, , E, , (a) A–Region of maturation, B–Root cap, C–Region of meristematic activity, D–Root hair,, E–Region of elongation, (b) A–Root hair, B–Region of maturation, C–Region of elongation, D–Root cap, E–Region, of meristematic activity, (c) A–Root cap, B–Region of maturation, C–Region of elongation, D–Root hair, E–Region, of meristemetic activity, (d) A–Region of meristematic activity, B–Region of elongation, C–Region of maturation,, D–Root hair, E–Root cap, Diagram Based Questions, 133. Identify the parts of A to E in the below figure?, A, E, , D, B, C
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Plant Morphology5.15, , (a), (b), (c), (d), , A–Leaf base, B–Petiole, C–Stipule, D–Lamina, E–Axillary bud, A–Stipule, B–Axillary bud, C–Leaf base, D–Petiole, E–Lamina, A–Lamina, B–Stipule, C–Petiole, D–Leaf base, E–Axillary bud, A–Stipule, B–Leaf base, C–Axillary bud, D–Lamina, E–Petiole, , 134. What indicates A to E in the below figure., , A, B, , C, D, , E, , (a), (b), (c), (d), , A–Gynoecium, B–Calyx, C–Corolla, D–Pedicel, E–Androecium, A–Corolla, B–Calyx, C–Gynoecium, D–Androecium, E–Pedicel, A–Androecium, B–Gynoecium, C–Corolla, D–Calyx, E–Pedicel, A–Calyx, B–Gynoecium, C–Pedicel, D–Androecium, E–Corolla, , 135. Identify the A to C in dicotyledonous seed., C, , B, , (a) A–Hilum, B–Micropyle, C–Seed coat, (c) A–Micropyle, B–Seed coat, C–Hilum, , A, , (b) A–Seed coat, B–Hilum, C–Micropyle, (d) A–Micropyle, B–Hilum, C–Seed coat, , 136. Identify the A to F in this figure., , A, B, C, , E, F
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5.16, , Plant Morphology, , (a), (b), (c), (d), , A–Stem, B–Secondary root, C–Bud, D–Primary root, E–Leaf, F–Fruit, A–Fruit, B–Stem, C–Leaf, D–Bud, E–Primary root, F–Secondary root, A–Bud, B–leaf, C–Primary root, D–Fruits, E–Secondary root, F–Stem, A–Fruit, B–Leaf, C–Stem, D–Bud, E–Secondary root, F–Primary root, , 137. Identify the A, B and C in this figure., A, , B, , C, , (a), (b), (c), (d), , A–Plumule, B–Cotyledon, C–Radicle, A–Radicle, B–Cotyledon, C–Plumule, A–Cotyledon, B–Plumule, C–Radicle, A–Radicle, B–Plumule, C–Cotyledon, , 138. Identify the A to D in this figure., , A, , (a), (b), (c), (d), , B, , C, , D, , A–Petals, B–Carpel, C–Basal, D–Androecium, A–Androecium, B–Basal, C–Carpel, D–Petals, A–Basal, B–Androecium, C–Petals, D–Carpel, A–Carpel, B–Basal, C–Androecium, D–Petals, , Assertion and Reason Questions, Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given, below:, (a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the, assertion., (b) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the, assertion ., (c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false., (d) If both the assertion and reason are false., 139. Assertion: Old root hairs are replaced by new ones., Reason: Outer cells of root gives rise to root hairs., 140. Assertion: Adventitious roots develop from any part of plant., Reason: In such plants, the tap root is not developed.
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Plant Morphology5.17, , 141. Assertion: Generally,the dicotyledonous plants have tap roots while monocotyledonous plants, having fibrous roots., Reason: The roots in some plants get modified for storage of food, mechanical support and, respiration., 142. Assertion: Assimilatory roots can photosynthesize., Reason: Asimilatory roots possess chlorophyll., 143. Assertion: Epiphytes are called space parasites., Reason: Epiphytic roots possess velamen tissue., 144. Assertion: The flower is modified shoot meant for sexual reproduction., Reason: Flowers are arranged in different types of inflorescence., 145. Assertion: The plumule enclosed in sheath are called coleoptile., Reason: The radicle enclosed in sheath are called coleorhiza., 146. Assertion: In plants such as bean,gram and pea seeds are called non-endospermous., Reason: The endosperm inis not present in mature seeds of above plants., 147. Assertion: Sucker is an underground stem., Reason: Sucker stem never comes above the ground., 148. Assertion: In mango and coconut , the fruit is known as drupe., Reason: The fruit develope in above plant are monocarpellary superior ovary and are one seeded., 149. Assertion: Actinomorphic flowers show radial symmetry., Reason: Zygomorphic flowers have bilateral symmetry., 150. Assertion: Maize is an albuminous seed., Reason: Endosperm is completely absorbed by its growing embryo., 151. Assertion: Pneumatophores are respiratory roots., Reason: Pneumatophores help to get oxygen for respiration, 152. Assertion: Petals are usually bright coloured, Reason: Petals attract insect for pollination., 153. Assertion: Thorns are found in plants such as citrus and bougainvillea., Reason: Thorns protect plant from grazing animals, 154. Assertion: Phylloclade (flattened stem of plant like opuntia) helps the plant to grow in dry, habitats., Reason: Very low transpiration occurs from stems., 155. Assertion: Parallel venation is the characteristics of most of monocots., Reason: In parallel venation veins run parallel to each other with in a leaf lamina., 156. Assertion: Phyllode in Australian acacia is a flattened petiole not stem., Reason: Phyllode doesn’t contain nodes and internodes., 157. Assertion: Leaves are modified into spines in Cacti., Reason: It protect plant from grazing animals and excessive transpiration, 158. Assertion: The ovary is binocular in family Brassicaceae, Reason: True septum called replum develops between two parietal placentas in member of, family Brassicaceae.
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5.18, , Plant Morphology, , 159. Assertion: Banana is seedless fruit., Reason: Banana is developed by parthenocarpy., 160. Assertion: Flower is zygomorphic in family Fabaceae, Reason: Corolla shows vexillary aestivation., 161. Assertion: Maize has stilt roots., Reason: They give additional support and allow better absorption of water and mineral salts, 162. Assertion: Stem bears nodes and internodes, Reason: Stem is always aerial., 163. Assertion: Calyx and corolla are accessory organs of the flower., Reason: They do not directly involve in sexual reproduction., 164. Assertion: In hypogynous flower ovary is always inferior., Reason: Parts of flower in hypogynous condition arises above ovary., 165. Assertion: Vexillary aestivation is known as papilionaceous aestivation, Reason: It is found in family papilionaceae, 166. Assertion: Formation of phyllode is a mechanism to reduce transpiration., Reason: It is vertically placed and has fewer stomata, 167. Assertion: In China rose stamens said to be monadelphous., Reason: In China rose fusion of filament of stamens forms a single group., 168. Assertion: In tetradynamous condition stamens are of unequal length., Reason: In didynamous condition all stamens are of equal length., 169. Assertion: Custard apple is example of aggregate fruit, Reason: It is developed from flower having polycarpellary apocarpous gynoecium., , previous year questions, 1. Which one of the following is a xerophytic plant in which the stem is modified into the flat, green and succulent structure?, , [AIPMT MAINS 2010], (a) Opuntia, (b) Casuarina, (c) Hydrilla, (d) Acacia, 2. Aestivation of petals in the flower of cotton is correctly shown in, , (a), , (b), , (c), , (d), , [AIPMT MAINS 2010]
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Plant Morphology5.19, , 3. The correct floral formula of soyabean is, , (a) ⊕ + K(5)C1+(2)+2 A(9) +1 G1, (c) ⊕ + K(5)C1+2+(2) A(9) +1 G1, , (b), (d), , ⊕+, ⊕+, , [AIPMT MAINS 2010], K5C1+(2)+2A(9) +1 G1, K(5)C1+2+(2)A1+ (9) G1, , 4. Consider the following four statements (A), (B), (C) and (D) and select the right option for two, correct statements., Statements:, (A) In vexillary aestivation, the large posterior petal is called standard, two lateral ones are, wings and two small anterior petals are termed keel., (B) The floral formula for liliaceae is ⊕ + P3+3A3+3G3, (C) In pea flower, the stamens are monadelphous., (D) The floral formula for Solanaceae is ⊕ + K(3)C(3) A(4) G(2), The correct statements are, , [AIPMT MAINS 2010], (a) (a) and (c), (b) (a) and (b), (c) (b) and (c), (d) (c) and (d), 5. In unilocular ovary with a single ovule, the placentation is, , (a) Marginal, (b) Basal, (c) Free central, , [AIPMT PRE 2010], (d) Axile, , 6. Keel is the characteristic of the flowers of, , (a) Gulmohar, (b) Cassia, , (c) Calotropis, , [AIPMT PRE 2010], (d) Bean, , 7. Ovary is half-inferior in the flowers of, , (a) Guava, (b) Plum, , (c) Brinjal, , [AIPMT PRE 2010], (d) Cucumber, , 8. The technical term used for the androecium in a flower of China rose (Hibiscus rosa sinensis), is, , [AIPMT PRE 2010], (a) Monadelphous, (b) Diadelphous, (c) Polyandrous, (d) Polyadelphous, 9. Coiling of garden pea tendrils around any support is an example of, , (a) Thigmotaxis, (b) Thigmonasty, (c) Thigmotropism, (d) Thermotaxis, , [AIPMT PRE 2010], , 10. Which one of the following figures represents the placentation in dianthus?, , [AIPMT MAINS 2011], (a), , (b), , (c), , (d)
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5.20, , Plant Morphology, , 11. Whorled, simple leaves with reticulate venation are present in, , (a) Calotropis, (b) Neem, (c) China rose, (d) Alstonia, 12. Which one of the following statements is correct?, , (a) Seeds of orchids have oil-rich endosperm., (b) Placentation in primrose is basal., (c) Flower of tulip is a modified shoot., (d) In tomato, the fruit is a capsule., , [AIPMT PRE 2011], , 13. The ‘Eyes’ of the potato tuber are:, , (a) Flower buds, (c) Axillary buds, , (b) Shoot buds, (d) Root buds, , 14. Flowers are zygomorphic in, , (a) Gulmohar, (c) Datura, , (b) Tomato, (d) Mustard, , 15. A drupe is developed in, , (a) Wheat, (c) Tomato, , (b) Pea, (d) Mango, , [AIPMT PRE 2011], , [AIPMT PRE 2011], , [AIPMT PRE 2011], , 16. Which one of the following is wrongly matched?, , (a) Puccinia, - Smut, (b) Root, - , Exarch protoxylem, (c) Cassia, - , Imbricate aestivation, (d) Root pressure, - , Guttation, 17. The ovary is half inferior in flowers of, , (a) Cucumber, (c) Guava, , [AIPMT MAINS 2011], , [AIPMT PRE 2011], , [AIPMT PRE 2011], (b) Cotton, (d) Peach, , 18. The correct floral formula of chilli is:, (a), , ⊕+, , K(5)C(5) A5G(2), , (b), , ⊕+, , K(5)C(5)A(5)G2, , (c), , , ⊕+, , K5C5 A(5)G2, , (d), , ⊕+, , K(5)C5A5G(2), , [AIPMT PRE 2011], , 19. How many plants in the list given below have composite fruits that develop from an, inflorescence?, Walnut, poppy, radish, fig, pineapple, apple, tomato, mulberry., , [AIPMT PRE 2012], (a) Four, (b) Five, (c) Two, (d) Three
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5.22, , Plant Morphology, , 29. Placenta and pericarp are both edible portions in, , (a) Apple, (b) Banana, (c) Tomato, (d) Potato, , [AIPMT 2014], , 30. When the margins of sepals or petals overlap one another without any particular direction, the, condition is termed as, , [AIPMT 2014], (a) Vexillary, (b) Imbricate, (c) Twisted, (d) Valvate, 31. Which one of the following statements is correct?, , (a) The seed in grasses is not endospermic., (b) Mango is a parthenocarpic fruit., (c) A proteinaceous aleurone layer is present in maize grain., (d) A sterile pistil is called a staminode., 32. An example of edible underground stem is, , (a) Carrot, (c) Sweet potato, , [AIPMT 2014], (b) Groundnut, (d) Potato, , 33. An aggregate fruit is one which develops from, , (a) Multicarpellary syncarpous gynoecium, (b) Multicarpellary apocarpous gynoecium, (c) Complete inflorescence, (d) Multicarpellary superior ovary, 34., , ⊕+, , [AIPMT 2014], , K(5) C(5) A(5) G(2) is the floral formula of , , (a) Alium , (c) Petunia , , [AIPMT 2014], , [AIPMT 2015], (b) Serbia, (d) Brassica, , 35. Keel is the characteristic feature flower of , (a) Tulip, (c) Aloe, , (b) Indigofera, (d) Tomato, , 36. Perigynous flowers are found in, (a) Guava, (c) China rose, , (b) Cucumber, (d) Rose, , 37. A hilum is a scar on the , (a) Seed, where funicle was attached., (c) Fruit, where style was present., , [AIPMT 2015], (b) Fruit, where it was attached to pedicel., (d) Seed, where micropyle was present., , [AIPMT 2015], , [AIPMT 2015], , 38. Among china rose, mustard, brinjal, potato, guava, cucumber, onion and tulip, how many, plants have superior ovary?, , [RE-AIPMT 2015], (a) Six, (b) Three, (c) Four, (d) Four
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Plant Morphology5.23, 39. The wheat grain has an embryo with one large, shield-shaped cotyledon known as, , [RE-AIPMT 2015], (a) Coleorrhiza, (b) Scutellum, (c) Coleoptile, (d) Epiblast, 40. Axile placentation is present in, , (a) Lemon, (c) Argemone, , (b) Pea, (d) Dianthus, , 41. Flowers are unisexual in, , (a) Cucumber, (c) Onion, , (b) China rose, (d) Pea, , [RE-AIPMT 2015], , [RE-AIPMT 2015], , 42. The standard petal of a papilionaceous corolla is also called:, (a) Carina, (b) Pappus, (c) Vexillum, (d) Corona, , [NEET - I, 2016], , 43. Tricarpellary, syncarpous gynoecium is found in flowers of:, (a) Liliaceae, (b) Solanaceae, (c) Fabaceae, (d) Poaceae, , [NEET - I, 2016], , 44. Which of the following is not a stem modification?, [NEET - I, 2016], (a) Pitcher of Nepenthes, (b) Thorns of citrus, (c) Tendrils of cucumber, (d) Flattened structures of Opuntia, 45. Cotyledon of maize grain is called:, (a) Plumule, (c) Coleoptile, , [NEET - I, 2016], (b) Coleorhiza, (d) Scutellum, , 46. Stems modified into flat green organs performing the functions of leaves are known as:, , [NEET - I, 2016], (a) Cladodes, (b) Phyllodes, (c) Phylloclade’s, (d) Scales, 47. The term ‘polyadelphous’ is related to, (a) Androecium, (c) Calyx, , [NEET - II, 2016], (b) Corolla, (d) Gynoecium, , 48. How many plants among Indigofera, Sesbania, Salvia, Allium, Aloe, Mustard, Groundnut,, radish, gram and turnip have stamen with different lengths in their flowers? [NEET - II, 2016], (a) Four, (b) Five, (c) Six, (d) Three, 49. Radial symmetry is founding the flowers of, (a) Trifolium, (c) Cassia, , (b) Pisum, (d) Brassica, , 50. Free-central placentation is found in, (a) Argemone, (c) Citrus, , (b) Brassica, (d) Dianthus, , [NEET - II, 2016], , [NEET - II, 2016]
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5.24, , Plant Morphology, , NCERT Exemplar Questions, 1. Rearrange the following zones as seen in the root in vertical section and choose the correct, option., (a) Root hair zone, (b) Zone of meristem, (c) Rootcap zone, (d) Zone of maturation, (e) Zone of elongation, (a) c, b, e, a, d, (b) a, b, c, d, e, (c) d, e, a, c, b, (d) e, d, c, b, a, 2. In an inflorescence where flowers are borne laterally in an acropetal succession, the position, of the youngest floral bud shall be, (a) Proximal, (b) Distal, (c) Intercalary, (d) Anywhere, 3. The mature seeds of plants such as gram and pea, possess no endosperm, because, (a) These plants are not angiosperms., (b) There is no double fertilization in them., (c) Endosperm is not formed in them., (d) Endosperm gets used up by the developing embryo during seed development., 4. Roots developed from parts of the plant other than radicle are called, (a) Tap roots, (b) Fibrous roots, (c) Adventitious roots, (d) Nodular roots, 5. Venation is a term used to describe the pattern of arrangement of, (a) Floral organs, (b) Flowers in inflorescence, (c) Veins and veinlets in a lamina, (d) All of them, 6. Endosperm, a product of double fertilization in angiosperms is absent in the seeds of, (a) Gram, (b) Orchids, (c) Maize, (d) Castor, 7. Many pulses of daily use belong to one of the families below (tick the correct answer), (a) Solanaceae, (b) Fabaceae, (c) Liliaceae, (d) Poaceae, 8. The placenta is attached to the developing seed near the, (a) Testa, (b) Hilum, (c) Micropyle, (d) Chalaza, 9. Which of the following plants is used to extract the blue dye?, (a) Trifolium, (b) Indigofera, (c) Lupin, (d) Cassia, 10. Match the followings and choose the correct option., Group A, (a) Aleurone layer, (b) Parthenocarpic fruit, (c) Ovule, (d) Endosperm, , Group B, (i) Without fertilization, (ii) Nutrition, (iii) Double fertilization, (iv) Seed
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Plant Morphology5.25, , Options:, (a) (a)–(i), (b)–(ii), (c)–(iii), (d)–(iv), (b) (a)–(ii), (b)–(i), (c)–(iv), (d)–(iii), (c) (a)–(iv), (b)–(ii), (c)–(i), (d)–(iii), (d) (a)–(ii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(i), (d)–(iii), , Answer Keys, Practice Questions, 1. (d), 11. (c), 21. (d), 31. (d), 41. (c), 51. (c), 61. (d), 71. (d), 81. (d), 91. (c), 101. (c), 111. (a), 121. (d), 131. (d), , 2. (a), 12. (d), 22. (d), 32. (d), 42. (d), 52. (a), 62. (d), 72. (d), 82. (a), 92. (a), 102. (d), 112. (b), 122. (b), 132. (b), , 3. (b), 13. (c), 23. (b), 33. (c), 43. (d), 53. (b), 63. (d), 73. (d), 83. (a), 93. (b), 103. (b), 113. (d), 123. (d), 133. (b), , 4. (d), 14. (c), 24. (d), 34. (c), 44. (a), 54. (c), 64. (c), 74. (b), 84. (a), 94. (c), 104. (d), 114. (a), 124. (a), 134. (c), , 5. (d), 15. (b), 25. (d), 35. (d), 45. (d), 55. (d), 65. (d), 75. (d), 85. (b), 95. (d), 105. (a), 115. (d), 125. (a), 135. (a), , 6. (d), 16. (d), 26. (d), 36. (b), 46. (c), 56. (d), 66. (d), 76. (b), 86. (d), 96. (d), 106. (a), 116. (b), 126. (d), 136. (b), , 7. (d), 17. (c), 27. (d), 37. (d), 47. (d), 57. (b), 67. (c), 77. (d), 87. (d), 97. (d), 107. (c), 117. (c), 127. (b), 137. (c), , 8. (c), 9. (a) 10. (c), 18. (d) 19. (c) 20. (d), 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (d), 38. (a) 39. (d) 40. (d), 48. (c) 49. (c) 50. (d), 58. (c) 59. (c) 60. (b), 68. (d) 69. (c) 70. (d), 78. (d) 79. (c) 80. (a), 88. (d) 89. (b) 90. (b), 98. (a) 99. (d) 100. (a), 108. (c) 109. (b) 110. (d), 118. (c) 119. (a) 120. (b), 128. (a) 129. (a) 130. (b), 138. (d), , Assertion and Reason Questions, 139. (b) 140. (c) 141. (c) 142. (a) 143. (b) 144. (b) 145. (b) 146. (a) 147. (c) 148. (b), 149. (b) 150. (c) 151. (a) 152. (a) 153. (a) 154. (a) 155. (b) 156. (a) 157. (a) 158. (c), 159. (a) 160. (a) 161. (a) 162. (c) 163. (a) 164. (d) 165. (a) 166. (a) 167. (a) 168. (c), 169. (a), Previous Year Questions, 1. (a), 11. (d), 21. (b), 31. (c), 41. (a), , 2. (d), 12. (c), 22. (a), 32. (d), 42. (c), , 3. (b), 13. (c), 23. (c), 33. (b), 43. (a), , 4. (b), 14. (a), 24. (d), 34. (c), 44. (a), , 5. (b), 15. (d), 25. (a), 35. (b), 45. (d), , 6. (d), 16. (a), 26. (c), 36. (d), 46. (c), , 7. (b), 17. (d), 27. (a), 37. (a), 47. (a), , 8. (a), 18. (a), 28. (a), 38. (a), 48. (a), , 9. (c), 19. (d), 29. (c), 39. (b), 49. (d), , 10. (b), 20. (b), 30. (b), 40. (a), 50. (d), , 8. (b), , 9. (b), , 10. (b), , NCERT Exemplar Questions, 1. (a), , 2. (b), , 3. (d), , 4. (c), , 5. (c), , 6. (b), , 7. (b)
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CHAPTER, , 6, , Anatomy of, Flowering Plants, prACtiCe Questions, , The Tissues, 1. The branch of biology deals with internal structure of plants is called, (a) Morphology, (b) Physiology, (c) Anatomy, , (d) Biochemistry, , 2. Find out the incorrect statement:, (a) Monocot and dicot are anatomically different., (b) Internal structures also show adaptations to diverse environment., (c) The basic unit of plant is made up of cells., (d) Different organs of plants are similar in their internal structure., 3. A tissue is a group of cells having a, (a) Common origin and always a common function., (b) Common origin and always a different function., (c) Common origin and usually a common function., (d) Different origin and a different function., 4. Depending on whether the cells being formed are capable of dividing or not, the plant tissues, are classified into how many types?, (a) 1, (b) 2, (c) 3, (d) 4, 5. Find the example of primary meristem., (a) Apical meristem, (c) Lateral meristem, , (b) Intercalary meristem, (d) Both (a) and (b), , 6. Apical meristem is present at, (a) Root and shoot apex, (c) Vascular cambium, , (b) Place between mature tissue, (d) Cork cambium, , 7. Axillary bud is, (a) Present in axil of leaf, (c) Capable of forming flower, , (b) Capable of forming branch, (d) All of these, , 8. Which tissue occurs in grasses and regenerate parts removed by the grazing herbivores?, (a) Apical meristem, (b) Lateral meristem, (c) Intercalary meristem, (d) All of these, 9. The meristem that occurs in the mature regions of roots and shoots of many plants, particularly, those that produce woody axis and appear later than primary meristem, is called, (a) Intercalary meristem, (b) Apical meristem, (c) Secondary or lateral meristem, (d) All the above
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6.2, , 10. Find the example of lateral meristem., (a) Fascicular cambium, (c) Cork-cambium, , Anatomy of Flowering Plants, , (b) Interfascicular cambium, (d) All of these, , 11. The newly-formed cells from primary and secondary meristem, which becomes structurally, and functionally specialized and lose the ability to divide are known as, (a) Permanent cells, (b) Mature cells, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) None of these, 12. During the formation of the primary plant body, the specific regions of the apical meristem, produces, (a) Dermal tissues, (b) Ground tissues, (c) Vascular tissues, (d) All of these, 13. Permanent tissues, which have all cell similar in structure and function are called, (a) Complex tissues, (b) Simple tissues, (c) Meristematic tissues, (d) All of these, 14. Permanent tissues, which have many different types of cells are called, (a) Complex tissues, (b) Simple tissues, (c) Meristematic tissues, (d) All of these, 15. Which tissue is the most abundant in plant organ?, (a) Parenchyma, (b) Collenchyma, (c) Sclerenchyma, (d) Sclereids, 16. The following features belong to, I. Cells are generally isodiametric. They may be spherical, oval, round, polygonal, or, elongated in shape., II. Cells have thin wall and are made up of cellulose., III. Cells may be closely packed or may have intercellular spaces., IV. Tissue perform various kind of functions like photosynthesis, storage and secretion., (a) Collenchyma, (b) Parenchyma, (c) Xylem, (d) Sclerenchyma, 17. The following features belong to, I. Cells are thick at corner due to the deposition of cellulose, hemicelluloses and pectin., II. Cells may contain chloroplast and gets assimilated., III. Intercellular spaces are absent., IV. Provide mechanical support to growing parts of the plant such as young stem and petiole of, leaf., (a) Collenchyma, (b) Parenchyma, (c) Xylem, (d) Sclerenchyma, 18. Which simple tissue is characterized by pits?, (a) Collenchyma, (c) Sclerenchyma, , (b) Parenchyma, (d) All of these, , 19. _________ are spherical, oval, cylindrical, highly thickened dead cell with very narrow, cavities., (a) Sieve tube, (b) Companion cell, (c) Fibres, (d) Sclereids, 20. Secondary thickening in collenchyma is of, (a) Cellulose, (b) Hemicellulose, , (c) Pectin, , (d) All of these
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Anatomy of Flowering Plants6.3, , 21. On what basis we classify sclerenchyma into fibres or sclereids?, (a) Structure, (b) Origin, (c) Development, , (d) All of these, , 22. Sclereids are present in the pulp of, (a) Guava, (b) Pear, , (c) Sapodilla, , (d) All of these, , 23. Sclereids are present in, (a) Fruit wall of nuts, (c) Leaves of tea, , (b) Seed coat of legumes, (d) All of these, , 24. Which tissue is usually dead and without protoplast?, (a) Parenchyma, (b) Collenchyma, (c) Sclerenchyma, , (d) All of these, , 25. The collenchyma tissue is characterized by, (a) Elongated cells with thickness at the corners., (b) Isodiametric cells with deposits of cellulose and pectin at the corners., (c) Elongated cells with deposits of cellulose and pectin all over the wall., (d) Isodiametric cells with thickness all over the cell wall., 26. In which way collenchyma differs from sclerenchyma?, (a) Retaining protoplasm at maturity, (b) Having thick walls, (c) Having wide lumen, (d) Being meristematic, 27. Walls of sclerenchyma are, (a) Rigid, (b) Lignified, , (c) Pectinized, , (d) Suberized, , 28. Collenchyma differs from parenchyma in having, (a) Living protoplasm, (b) Cellulose walls, (c) Vacuoles, (d) Pectin deposits at corners, 29. Which of the following are simple tissues?, (a) Parenchyma, xylem and phloem, (b) Parenchyma, collenchyma and sclerenchyma, (c) Parenchyma, xylem and collenchymas, (d) Parenchyma, xylem and sclerenchyma, 30. What is the most common type of permanent tissue found in almost all plants?, (a) Sclerenchyma, (b) Collenchyma, (c) Parenchyma, (d) Xylem, 31. Which of the following tissues gives tensile strength against bending and swaying?, (a) Parenchyma, (b) Collenchyma, (c) Sclereids, (d) All of these, 32. A simple mechanical tissue devoid of lignin is, (a) Parenchyma, (b) Collenchymas, (c) Sclerenchyma, 33. The primary plant body is made up of, (a) Meristematic tissues, (c) Complex tissues, , (d) Chlorenchyma, , (b) Simple tissues, (d) All the above, , 34. Hard lignified thick-walled long and pointed cells of a plant are, (a) Parenchyma, (b) Sclerenchyma fibers, (c) Collenchymas, (d) Sclereids
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6.4, , Anatomy of Flowering Plants, , 35. A thick-walled lignified simple mechanical tissue is, (a) Parenchyma, (b) Collenchymas, (c) Sclerenchyma, , (d) Chlorenchyma, , 36. How many types of cells are present in complex tissue?, (a) More than one, (b) More than three, (c) One type, (d) Three type, 37. The functions of xylem are, (a) Conduct water from root to stem and leaves, (b) Conduct mineral from root to stem and leaves, (c) Provide mechanical strength to plant, (d) All of these, 38. Xylem is composed of how many different elements?, (a) 1, (b) 2, (c) 3, , (d) 4, , 39. Gymnosperm lacks _________ in their xylem., (a) Tracheids, (b) Vessels, (c) Xylem fibres, (d) Xylem parenchyma, 40. Select the correct matching:, Column I, A. Tracheids, –, B. Vessels, , –, , C., D., (a), (c), , –, –, , Xylem fibre, Xylem parenchyma, A–2, B–1, C–3, D–4, A–1, B–2, C–3, D–4, , Column II, 1. Elongated and tube like cells with thick and lignified, wall and tapering ends., 2. Tube like structure made up of many cells, each cell, with lignified wall and large central cavity., 3. Highly thickened walls and obliterated central humans., 4. Living cell with thin cell wall made up of cellulose., (b) A–3, B–1, C–2, D–4, (d) A–3, B–2, C–1, D–4, , 41. Xylem parenchyma stores, (a) Starch, (b) Fat, , (c) Tannins, , (d) All of these, , 42. Phloem parenchyma stores, (a) Resins, (b) Latex, , (c) Mucilage, , (d) All of these, , 43. Select the incorrect statement from the following:, (a) Vessel members are interconnected through perforations in their common walls., (b) Presence of vessel is a characteristic feature of angiosperms., (c) Radial conduction of water takes place by the ray parenchymatous cells., (d) Tracheids, vessel, xylem sclerenchyma and parenchyma are without protoplast., 44. Protoplast is absent in all except, (a) Tracheids, (c) Xylem sclerenchyma, , (b) Vessels, (d) Xylem parenchyma, , 45. The primary xylem elements formed are called _________ and the secondary xylem formed, is called _________., (a) protoxylem, protoxylem, (b) metaxylem, metaxylem, (c) protoxylem, metaxylem, (d) metaxylem, protoxylem
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Anatomy of Flowering Plants6.5, , 46. In stem, (a) Protoxylem lies towards pith (centre), (b) Metaxylem lies towards periphery of the organs, (c) Endarch arrangement is present, (d) All the above, 47. In root, (a) Endarch arrangement is present, (c) Protoxylem lies towards the centre, , (b) Exarch arrangement is present, (d) Metaxylem lies towards the periphery, , 48. Phloem transports, (a) Water, , (c) Food materials, , (b) Mineral, , 49. How many elements are composed in phloem in angiosperm?, (a) 1, (b) 2, (c) 3, 50. Phloem is composed of all except, (a) Sieve tube elements, (c) Phloem parenchyma and sclerenchyma, , (b) Companion cells, (d) Vessels, , 51. Gymnosperm posses, (a) Sieve tubes, (c) Albuminous cell and sieve cells, , (b) Companion cells, (d) All of these, , (d) All of these, (d) 4, , 52. Select the incorrect statement from the following:, (a) End walls of sieve tube have sieve plates., (b) , Sieve tube and companion cells are connected by pit present between common, longitudinal wall., (c) Companion cells are specialized parenchymatous cells having nucleus which controls the, function of sieve tubes, (d) Phloem parenchyma is present in most of the monocots., 53. The following are live components of phloem except, (a) Sieve tube, (b) Companion cell, (c) Phloem parenchyma, (d) Phloem fibre (bast fibre), 54. The following are dead components of xylem except, (a) Tracheids, (b) Vessels, (c) Xylem sclerenchyma (wood fibres), (d) Xylem parenchyma, 55. Select the correct statement from the following:, (a) Companion cells help in maintaining pressure gradients in the sieve tubes., (b) Phloem parenchyma stores food material., (c) Bast fibres are generally absent in the primary phloem but are found in secondary phloem., (d) All of these, 56. Following are the features of phloem fibres except, (a) Pointed apices, (b) More elongated, (c) Branched, , (d) Unbranched, , 57. Phloem fibre, which is commercially used is actually, (a) Jute, (b) Flax, (c) Hemp, , (d) All of these
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6.6, , 58. Select the incorrect matching:, (a) Protophloem, (b) Metaphloem, (c) Gymnosperm, (d) Gymnosperm, , Anatomy of Flowering Plants, , –, –, –, –, , 59. A mature sieve tube differs from vessel in, (a) Being nearly dead, (c) Lacking a functional nucleus, , Narrow sieve tubes, Bigger sieve tubes, Albuminous cells and sieve cells, Vessels in xylem, (b) Lacking cytoplasm, (d) Absence of lignified walls, , 60. In pteridophyta and gymnosperms, which cells are present in place of companion cell?, (a) Sclereids, (b) Albuminous cells, (c) Idioblasts, (d) None of these, 61. Both vessels and companion cells are absent in, (a) Angiosperms, (b) Pteridophyta, (c) Gymnosperms, , (d) Both (b) and (c), , 62. The only plant cells without nuclei among the following are, (a) Cambium cells, (b) Cells of pericycle, (c) Xylem parenchyma, (d) Sieve tubes, 63. Vessels differ from tracheids, (a) In being derived from single cell, (b) In having vertical rows of cells with cross walls dissolved, (c) In being alive, (d) In helping in the conduction of water, 64. Companion cells are usually seen associated with, (a) Fibres, (b) Vessels, (c) Tracheids, , (d) Sieve tubes, , 65. Sieve tubes are better suited for translocation because they, (a) Possess broader lumen and perforated cross walls, (b) Are broader than long, (c) Possess bordered pits, (d) Possess no end walls, 66. Lignified cell wall is the characteristic feature of, (a) Phloem cells, (b) Epidermal cells, (c) Cambial cells, (d) Xylem cells, 67. The chief function of sieve tube is, (a) To translocate the organic materials manufactured in the leaves, (b) To conduct minerals, (c) To transport water from root to leaves, (d) To help the plant in forming wood, 68. The function of storage is performed by, (a) Parenchyma, (b) Sclerenchyma, , (c) Phloem, , 69. Which is present in the vascular bundles of gymnosperms?, (a) Tracheids, (b) Vessels, (c) Companion cells, , (d) All of these, (d) All of these
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Anatomy of Flowering Plants6.7, , 70. How many types of tissue systems are present in plant depending on their structure and, function?, (a) 1, (b) 2, (c) 3, (d) 4, The Tissue System, 71. Tissue system include, (a) Epidermal tissue system, (b) Ground tissue system or fundamental tissue system, (c) Vascular tissue system, (d) All the above, 72. Epidermal tissue system is made up of, (a) Epidermal cells, (c) Epidermal appendages, , (b) Stomata, (d) All of these, , 73. Which of the following is epidermal appendage?, (a) Trichome, (b) Guard cell, (c) Sclereid, , (d) Subsidiary cell, , 74. Select T/F (True/False)., (a) Epidermis is usually single-layered., (b) Epidermal cells are parenchymatous cell with abundant cytoplasm., (c) Vessel members of xylem are interconnected through perforation in their common walls., (d) Sclerenchyma provides mechanical support to organs., (a) TTTT, (b) TFFT, (c) TFTT, (d) FFTT, 75. The epidermis is generally covered with a waxy thick layer called the _________ which, prevents the loss of water., (a) Suberin, (b) Tunicin, (c) Cuticle, (d) Chitin, 76. Which of the following is true about stomata?, (a) Formed by guard cells, (b) Regulate the process of transpiration and gaseous exchange, (c) Mainly present on epidermis of leaves, (d) All of these, 77. Which of the following is true about guard cells?, (a) Outer wall is thin, (b) Inner wall (towards stomatal pore) is thick, (c) Bean-shaped in dicots and dumb-bell-shaped in grasses, (d) All of these, 78. Which of the following cell posses chloroplast?, (a) Mesophyll cells of leaf, (b) Guard cells, (c) Sometimes in cells of collenhcyma, (d) All of these, 79. Stomatal apparatus consists of, (a) Subsidiary cells, (c) Stomatal aperture, , (b) Guard cells, (d) All of these, , 80. Stem hairs are, (a) Unicellular, , (c) Multicellular, , (b) Acellular, , (d) Any of them
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6.8, , 81. Trichomes are, (a) Epidermal hair of stem, (c) Branched or unbranched, , Anatomy of Flowering Plants, , (b) Either soft or stiff, (d) All of these, , 82. Select the incorrect statement from the following:, (a) Trichomes help in preventing water loss due to transpiration, (b) Cuticle prevents loss of water, (c) Cuticle is absent in roots, (d) Epidermis is made up of elongated, loosely arranged cell, which forms continuous layer, 83. Ground tissue is made up of, (a) Parenchyma, (b) Collenchyma, , (c) Sclerenchyma, , 84. Parenchymatous cells are usually present in, (a) Cortex, pericycle, (c) Primary stem and roots, , (b) Pith and medullary rays, (d) All of these, , (d) All of these, , 85. Thin-walled chloroplast containing mesophyll cells are present in, (a) Root, (b) Stem, (c) Leaf, , (d) All of these, , 86. Vascular system consists of, (a) Simple tissue, (b) Complex tissue, , (c) Xylem, , (d) Phloem, , 87. Closed vascular bundle is present in, (a) Monocot, (b) Dicot, , (c) Both (a) and (b), , (d) None of these, , 88. Conjoint vascular bundle is present in, (a) Monocot stem, (b) Dicot stem, , (c) Leaf, , (d) All of these, , 89. A root hair is formed by, (a) Epidermal cell, (b) Endodermal cell, , (c) Cortical cell, , (d) Pericycle cell, , 90. Epidermal outgrowths are known as, (a) Stomata, (b) Leaves, , (c) Trichomes, , (d) Flower buds, , 91. Vascular bundles having xylem and phloem which lie at the same radius is termed as, (a) Concentric, (b) Radial, (c) Collateral, (d) Amphicribral, 92. Which of the following would not secrete a cuticle?, (a) Root epidermis, (b) Leaf epidermis, (c) Xerophytes, , (d) Stem epidermis, , 93. Which one of the following is a type of tissue system?, (a) Parenchyma, (b) Sclerenchyma, (c) Vascular, , (d) All of these, , 94. Root hairs are, (a) Acellular, (c) Multicellular, , (b) Unicellular, (d) Multicellular and unicellular, , 95. Vascular bundles of roots are, (a) Conjoint, (b) Concentric, , (c) Bicollateral, , (d) Radial, , 96. Radial vascular bundle can be seen in, (a) Leaf, (b) Dicot root, , (c) Stem, , (d) Flower
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Anatomy of Flowering Plants6.9, , 97. When xylem and phloem are separated by a strip of cambium it is called, (a) Collateral and open, (b) Collateral and closed, (c) Bicollateral and open, (d) Concentric and closed, 98. Vascular bundle is closed when, (a) Cambium is present, (c) Pericycle is absent, , (b) Cambium is absent, (d) None of these, , 99. The following features belong to which option?, I. Cortex is made up of several layers of thin-walled parenchyma cells with intercellular spaces., II. Endoderm is made up of single layer of barrel-shaped cells without any intercellular spaces., III. Few layers of thick-walled parenchymatous cell forms pericycle., IV. Pith is small or inconspicuous., V. Conjuctive tissue present is 2 to 4 xylem and phloem patches., (a) Dicot root, (b) Dicot stem, (c) Monocot root, (d) Monocot stem, 100. Stele is made up of (in dicot root), (a) Pericycle, (b) Vascular bundle, , (c) Pith, , (d) All of these, , 101. Outside to inside the layer of monocot root are, (a) Endodermis ‒ Epidermis ‒ Cortex ‒ Pith‒Vascular bundle‒Pericycle, (b) Pith‒Epidermis‒Endodermis‒Cortex‒Pericycle‒Vascular bundle, (c) Epidermis‒Cortex‒Endodermis‒Pericycle‒Vascular bundle‒Pith, (d) Pericycle‒Vascular bundle‒Cortex‒Pith‒Epidermis‒Endodermis, 102. The following features belong to which option?, I. Epidermis may bear trachoma and few stomata., II. Cortex is divided into three sub-zones., III. Hypodermis is made up of collenchymas starch sheath., IV. Pericycle above phloem is in the form of semilunar patches of sclerenchyma., (a) Dicot root, (b) Dicot stem, (c) Monocot root, (d) Monocot stem, 103. Select the incorrect statement among the following:, (a) Ring arrangement of vascular bundle is a characteristic of dicot stem., (b) Phloem parenchyma is absent in monocot stem., (c) Monocots have sclerenchymatous hypodermis., (d) In monocot, peripheral, vascular bundle, which are generally large and centrally located, are small and water containing cavities are present within the vascular bundle., 104. Which of the following is correct about dorsiventral leaf?, (a) The veins vary in thickness in the reticulate venation., (b) Palisade parenchyma is abaxially placed., (c) Abaxial surface bears no stomata., (d) The size of vascular bundles are independent on the size of veins., 105. Which of the following is incorrect about isobilateral leaf?, (a) Stomata is present on both surfaces, (b) Undifferentiated mesophyll, (c) Nearly the same size of vascular bundle is present all over leaf, (d) It is a monocot leaf
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6.10, , Anatomy of Flowering Plants, , Secondary Growth, 106. The growth of the roots and stems in length with the help of apical meristem is called, (a) Secondary growth, (b) Primary growth, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) None of these, 107. Dicot plant exhibits an increase in girth. It is an example of, (a) Secondary growth, (b) Primary growth, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) None of these, 108. Cells of cambium present between primary xylem and primary phloem forms, (a) Interfascicular cambium, (b) Intrafascicular cambium (fascicular cambium), (c) Cork cambium, (d) None of these, 109. Vascular cambium is formed by, I. Interfascicular cambium, II. Intrafascicular cambium., III. Cork cambium, (a) I and III only, (b) II and III only, , (c) I, II and III only, , 110. Cambium wing forms cells towards, (a) Inner side of ring, (c) Both side of ring, , (b) Outer side of ring, (d) They do not form cells, , 111. The vascular cambium activity is, (a) More on inner side than outer, (c) Equal on outer and inner side, , (b) More on outer side than inner, (d) None of these, , (d) I and II only, , 112. The following will not happen during secondary growth by cambium ring:, (a) Secondary xylem produced is more than secondary phloem., (b) Primary and secondary phloem is crushed due to continued formation and accumulation, of secondary xylem., (c) Primary xylem remains more or less intact in or around centre., (d) The cells cut off towards pith mature into secondary phloem and cells cut off towards, periphery mature into secondary xylem., 113. During secondary growth all occur except, (a) Secondary medullar rays forms, (c) Primary phloem forms, , (b) Phloem crushed, (d) Secondary xylem forms, , 114. The activity of cambium is under control of, (a) Physiological factor, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (b) Environmental factor, (d) None, , 115. Select the total number of correct statements from the following:, (1) In spring season cambium is active and produces a large number of xylary elements, having vessels with wider lumen., (2) The spring wood is also known as early wood., (3) In winter, the cambium is less active and forms few xylary elements having narrow, vessels this is called autumn wood or late wood.
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Anatomy of Flowering Plants6.11, , (4), (5), (6), (a), , The spring wood is lighter in colour and has lower density., Autumn wood is darker and has higher density., Annual ring (autumn wood and spring wood) used to estimate the age of plant., 3, (b) 4, (c) 5, (d) 6, , 116. In older trees, the greater part of secondary xylem is dark brown due to the deposition of, (a) Tannins and resins, (b) Oil and gums, (c) Aromatic substance and essential oil, (d) All of these, 117. The dark brown deposition of organic compound in heartwood will make it, (a) Hard, (b) Durable, (c) Resistant to microbes and pest, (d) All of these, 118. Heartwood contains, (a) Live lignified element, (c) Live non-lignified element, , (b) Dead highly lignified element, (d) Dead non-lignified elements, , 119. The function of heartwood is, (a) Conduction of water, (c) Conduction of food, , (b) Conduction of mineral, (d) Mechanical support, , 120. Peripheral region of secondary xylem, which is light in color is known as, (a) Heartwood (duramen), (b) Sapwood (alburnum), (c) Spring wood, (d) Autumn wood, 121. The cells of secondary cortex are, (a) Parenchymatous, (c) Collenchymatous, , (b) Sclerenchymatous, (d) Meristems, , 122. Bark refers to, (a) Periderm, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (b) Secondary phloem, (d) None of these, , 123. At certain region, the phellogen cuts off closely arranged parenchymatous cells on the outer, side instead of cork cells. These parenchymatous cells soon rupture epidermis, forming a lensshaped opening called, (a) Hydathodes, (b) Stomata, (c) Lenticels, (d) None of these, 124. Which of the following is correct about lenticels?, (a) It is present in most of the woody trees, (b) It helps in gaseous exchange, (c) It is formed by the activity of phellogen, (d) All of these, 125. In dicot root, the vascular cambium is, (a) Completely primary in origin, (c) Completely secondary in origin, , (b) Partly primary and partly secondary, (d) None of these, , 126. Initially formed cambium in dicot root is, (a) Circular, (b) Rectangular, , (c) Oval, , 127. Secondary growth occur in, (a) Dicot root, (c) Stem and root of gymnosperm, , (b) Dicot stem, (d) All of these, , (d) Wavy
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6.12, , Anatomy of Flowering Plants, , 128. Which of the following is incorrect?, (a) Wood is actually a secondary xylem., (b) Different type of woods are found on basis of their composition and time of production., (c) Monocot and dicot show marked variation in their internal structure., (d) Increase in girth of dicot stem by vascular cambium only., 129. Main functions of plant tissues are, (a) Assimilation of food and its storage, (b) Transportation of water, mineral and photosynthates, (c) Mechanical support, (d) All of these, 130. Cambium causes growth in, (a) Circumference, (c) Leaves, , (b) Width (diameter), (d) Length, , 131. The function of cork cambium (phellogen) is to produce, (a) Cork and secondary cortex, (b) Secondary xylem and secondary phloem, (c) Cork, (d) Secondary cortex and phloem, 132. Other names of secondary cortex, cork cambium and cork are, (a) Phellem, phelloderm and phellogen, (b) Phellogen, phellem and phelloderm, (c) Phelloderm, phellogen and phellem, (d) Phellogen, phelloderm and phellem, 133. In dicot roots, the vascular cambium is derived from, (a) Epidermis, (b) Hypodermis, (c) Cortex, , (d) Pericycle, , 134. Periderm is made up of, (a) Phellem, (b) Phellogen, , (c) Phelloderm, , (d) All of these, , 135. Cork cells are, (a) Dead, (c) Elongated and participates in movement, , (b) Photosynthetic, (d) Meristematic, , 136. Annual rings are distinct in plants growing in, (a) Tropical regions, (c) Grasslands, , (b) Arctic region, (d) Temperate region, , 137. Xylem, which is functional in a dicot tree is, (a) Spring wood, (b) Sap wood, , (c) Autumn wood, , (d) Heart wood, , 138. External protective tissues of plants (of dicot stem are), (a) Cork and pericycle, (b) Cortex and epidermis, (c) Pericycle and cortex, (d) Epidermis and cork, 139. Cork cambium is a, (a) Secondary meristem, (c) Intercalary meristem, , (b) Apical meristem, (d) Primary meristem, , 140. Cambium, which produces cork is known as, (a) Phelloderm, (b) Phellogen, , (c) Periblem, , (d) Periderm
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Anatomy of Flowering Plants6.13, , 141. Dendrochronology is the study of, (a) Height of a tree, (b) Diameter of a tree, (c) Age of a tree by counting the number of annual rings in the main stem, (d) None of these, 142. The tissue made up of thin-walled rectangular cells responsible for the secondary growth is, (a) Cortex, (b) Xylem, (c) Cambium, (d) Pith, 143. In old dicot stems, a major part of the wood is filled up with tannins, resins, gums, etc. This, part of wood is called, (a) Hard wood, (b) Heart wood, (c) Sap wood, (d) Soft wood, 144. Lenticel develops through the activity of, (a) Vascular cambium, (c) Phellogen, , (b) Dermatogens, (d) Intercalary meristem, , 145. The waxy substance associated with cell walls of cork cells are impervious to water because, of the presence of _________, which gets deposited on cork cells, (a) Cutin, (b) Suberin, (c) Lignin, (d) Hemicellulose, 146. Growth rings determines the, (a) Age, (c) Breadth, , (b) Length, (d) Number of branches of a plant, , 147. Lenticels are formed in bark, which are, (a) Aerating pores, (c) Made up of xylem, , (b) Made up of phloem, (d) Found in monocot plants, , 148. Heart wood or duramen is the, (a) Outer region of secondary xylem, (c) Outer region of secondary phloem, , (b) Inner region of secondary xylem, (d) Inner region of secondary phloem, , 149. The bark of tree comprises of, (a) All the tissues outside the vascular cambium, (b) All the tissues outside the cork cambium, (c) Only the cork, (d) The cork and secondary cortex, 150. The layer of cells between endodermis and vascular bundles is called, (a) Epidermis, (b) Pericycle, (c) Hypodermis, 151. Bulliform or motor cells are present in, (a) Dicot stem, (c) Lower epidermis of monocot leaves, , (b) Upper epidermis of dicot leaves, (d) Upper epidermis of monocot leaves, , 152. Exarch and polyarch vascular bundles occur in, (a) Monocot stem, (b) Monocot root, (c) Dicot stem, 153. In root, the xylem is, (a) Mesarch, (b) Exarch, (c) Placed at different places in different plants, (d) Endarch, , (d) Pith, , (d) Dicot root
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6.14, , Anatomy of Flowering Plants, , 154. In monocot leaf, (a) Bulliform cells are absent from the epidermis, (b) Veins form a network, (c) Mesophyll is well differentiated into these parts, (d) Mesophyll is not differentiated into palisade and spongy parenchyma, 155. In dicot root, (a) Vascular bundles are scattered and with cambium, (b) Vascular bundles are arranged in a ring and have cambium, (c) Xylem and phloem are radially arranged, (d) Xylem is always endarch, 156. Well-developed pith is found in, (a) Monocot stem and dicot root, (c) Dicot stem and dicot root, , (b) Monocot and dicot stems, (d) Dicot stem and monocot root, , 157. The correct situation of mesophyll in isobilateral grass leaf is shown by, (a) Palisade towards adaxial surface, (b) Palisade towards abaxial surface, (c) Undifferentiated mesophyll, (d) Palisade along both the surface, 158. Monocot root differs from dicot root in having, (a) Open vascular bundles, (b) Scattered vascular bundles, (c) Well-developed pith, (d) Radially arranged vascular bundles, 159. Vascular bundles are scattered in, (a) Bryophytes, (b) Dicot root, , (c) Dicot stem, , (d) Monocot stem, , 160. Generally hypodermis in monocots is composed of, (a) Parenchyma , (b) Sclerenchyma, (c) Collenchymas , (d) Chlorenchyma, 161. The polyarch condition is seen in, (a) Monocot stem , (c) Dicot root, , (b) Monocot root, (d) Dicot stem, , 162. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of the anatomy of dicotyledonous root?, (a) Radial vascular bundles, (b) Secondary growth, (c) Pith is little or absent, (d) Conjoint collateral, 163. Endodermis of dicot stem is also called, (a) Bundle sheath, (b) Starch sheath, , (c) Mesophyll, , (d) Pith, , 164. The cell layer located at the periphery in the cross-section of the root is called, (a) Endodermis, (b) Epiblema, (c) Pericycle, (d) Xylem, 165. Exarch xylem is found in, (a) Root, (b) Stem, , (c) Leaf, , (d) Rachis, , 166. Two to four xylem bundle are found in, (a) Monocot root, (b) Monocot stem, , (c) Dicot stem, , (d) Dicot root, , 167. Collenchymatous hypodermis is characteristics of, (a) Dicot stem, (b) Monocot stem, (c) Monocot as well as dicot stem, (d) Hydrophytes
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Anatomy of Flowering Plants6.15, , 168. Vascular bundles in dicot stem are, (a) Conjoint and collateral, (c) Conjoint, collateral and open, , (b) Conjoint and closed, (d) Collateral and open, , 169. Cortex and pith are not distinguished in, (a) Dicot stem, (c) Dicot root, , (b) Monocot stem, (d) Monocot root, , 170. In a dorsiventral leaf, the location of palisade tissue and phloem are known as, (a) Abaxial and abaxial, (b) Adaxial and abaxial, (c) Adaxial and adaxial, (d) Abaxial and adaxial, 171. Which of the following is seen in a monocot root?, (a) Large pith, (b) Vascular cambium, (c) Endarch xylem, (d) Medullary ray, 172. With respect to which factor, the pericycle of a root differs from that of the stem?, (a) Sclerenchymatous in root and collenchymatous in stem., (b) Collenchymatous in root and parenchymatous in stem., (c) Parenchymatous in root and sclerenchymatous in stem., (d) Parenchymatous in root and collenchymatous in stem., 173. Collenchyma generally occurs, (a) In scattered dicot roots, (b) In a ring in monocot roots, (c) In patches under epidermis in dicot stem, (d) All the above, 174. Phloem parenchyma is absent in, (a) Dicot root , (c) Monocot stem , , (b) Dicot leaf, (d) Dicot stem, , 175. Collenchyma tissue is present in, (a) Dicot stem , (c) Dicot root , , (b) Monocot stem, (d) Flowers, , 176. The vascular bundles in the stem of monocots are typically, (a) Collateral , (b) Bicollateral, (c) Concentric , (d) Radial, 177. Sclerenchymatous sheath is present in vascular bundles of, (a) Monocot root , (b) Dicot root, (c) Dicot stem , (d) Monocot stem, 178. In monocot roots which types of vascular bundles are found?, (a) Collateral, conjoint and closed, (b) Radial vascular bundle with exarch xylem, (c) Bicollateral, conjoint and closed, (d) Radial vascular bundle with endarch xylem, 179. Lateral roots arise from, (a) Pericycle, (b) Pith, , (c) Stem, , (d) Root
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6.16, , Anatomy of Flowering Plants, , 180. In dicot roots, the cells of which region show casparian strips?, (a) Cambium, (b) Endodermis, (c) Pericycle, , (d) Hypodermis, , 181. In the diagram of T.S. of Stele of Dicot Root, the different parts have been indicated by alphabets., Choose the answer in which these alphabets correctly match with the parts they indicate., A, B, E, C, D, F, , (a) A – Endodermis, B – Conjunctive tissue, C – Metaxylem, D – Protoxylem, E – Phloem,, F – Pith, (b) , A – Endodermis, B – Pith, C – Protoxylem, D – Metaxylem, E – Protoxylem,, F – Conjuctive tissue, (c) A – Pericycle, B – Conjuctive tissue, C – Metaxylem, D – Protoxylem, F – Endodermis, (d) A – Endodermis, B – Conjuctive tissue, C – Protoxylem, D – Metaxylem, E – Phloem,, F – Pith, 182. In grasses,, (a) Certain adaxial epidermal cells along the veins modify themselves into large, empty,, colourless cells. These are called bulliform cells., (b) When the bulliform cells in the leaves absorb water and are turgid, the leaf surface is, exposed., (c) When bulliform cells are flaccid due to water stress, they make the leaves curl inwards to, minimize the water loss., (d) All are correct, , Assertion and Reason Questions, Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given, below:, (a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the, assertion., (b) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the, assertion ., (c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false., (d) If both the assertion and reason are false., 183. Assertion: All tissues lying inside vascular cambium are called as bark., Reason: Bark is made up of phellogen, phellem and phelloderm lying inside secondary phloem., 184. Assertion: Stomata are absent in submerged hydrophytes., Reason: Respiration occurs by means of air chambers in submerged plants., 185. Assertion: Cambium is a lateral meristem and cause growth in width., Reason: Cambium is made up of fusiform and ray initials in stem.
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Anatomy of Flowering Plants6.17, , 186. Assertion: Higher plants have meristematic regions for indefinite growth., Reason: Higher plants have root and shoot apices., 187. Assertion: In collateral vascular bundles, the phloem is situated towards inner side., Reason: In monocot stem, cambium is present., 188. Assertion: Thick cuticle is mostly present in disease resistant plants., Reason: Disease causing agents cannot grow on cuticle and cannot invade the cuticle., 189. Assertion: Quiescent centre is found in the centre of the root apex., Reason: It consists of actively dividing cells., 190. Assertion: Permanent tissue is composed of mature cells., Reason: Meristematic tissue is a group of actively dividing cells., 191. Assertion: Intercalary meristem increases the length of plant like apical meristems., Reason: Intercalary meristem originates from the apical meristems., 192. Assertion: The lenticel is meant for gaseous exchange., Reason: Lenticel checks for excessive evaporation of water., 193. Assertion: Xerophytic leaves may contain stomatal crypts or sunken stomata., Reason: Spongy parenchyma is more in xerophytic leaves., 194. Assertion: Isobilateral leaves are amphistomatic., Reason: Mesophyll is not differentiated into palisade and spongy., 195. Assertion: Trichomes helps in preventing water loss due to transpiration., Reason: On the stem, the epidermal hairs are called trichomes., 196. Assertion: Growth rings are also called as annual rings., Reason: Generally the growth ring is formed in each year., 197. Assertion: Heartwood is more durable than the sapwood., Reason: Heartwood contains organic compound like tannins, resins, oil, gumsaromatic substances and essential oils make it hard and more durable., 198. Assertion: Sugarcane shows Kranz anatomy., Reason: In diocot leaves, the bundle sheath cells lack chloroplasts., 199. Assertion: Tracheids are dead cells., Reason: Tracheids have lignified cell wall., 200. Assertion: Xylem provides mechanical strength to plant parts., Reason: Xylem conducts water and mineral from root to stems and leaves., 201. Assertion: Stomata regulate the process of transpiration and gaseous exchange, Reason: Stomata are present in the cortex of stem, 202. Assertion: Secondary growth won’t occur in monocot stem., Reason: Vascular bundles are closed in monocot stem., 203. Assertion: Vessels become dead at maturity, Reason: Initially cell possesses living protoplasm but due to lignin deposition in wall along, with other thickening material they become dead., 204. Assertion: Cork cambium and vascular cambium are lateral meristem., Reason: Both are involved in secondary growth of plant by addition of cells in lateral direction, of main axis.
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6.18, , Anatomy of Flowering Plants, , 205. Assertion: Intrafascicular cambium is primary lateral meristem., Reason: It is found in lateral side of plant main axis and derived from meristem of embryo., 206. Assertion: Aerenchyma found in aquatic plant., Reason: It contains air cavities and provides buoyancy to aquatic plant., 207. Assertion: Collenchyma provides mechanical strength as well as elasticity., Reason: Wall thickening in collenchymas is not uniform., 208. Assertion: Apical and intercalary meristems are primary meristem., Reason: Both appear early in life and contribute to the formation of primary plant body., 209. Assertion: Lateral meristems are generally referred as secondary meristem., Reason: These are responsible for production of secondary tissue., 210. Assertion: Parenchyma is simple tissue, Reason: It is made of only one type of cell., 211. Assertion: Xylem is complex tissue, Reason: Xylem is made up of more than one type of cells, 212. Assertion: Sieve tube member and companion cells are called sister cells, Reason: Both derived from same mother cells and death of one results in death of other as, well., 213. Assertion: Function of sieve tubes is controlled by nucleus of companion cells., Reason: Companion cells help in maintaining the pressure gradient in sieve tubes., 214. Assertion: Cuticle prevent loss of water from epidermis, Reason: Cuticle is made up of waxy thick layer and cover epidermis, 215. Assertion: Vascular bundle of dicot stem said to be open, Reason: Such vascular bundle contain cambium which possess ability to form secondary, xylem and phloem tissue, 216. Assertion: In dicot stem endodermis is referred as starch sheath, Reason: Cells of endodermis are rich in starch grains., 217. Assertion: Bulliform cells in grasses use to minimise water loss under water stem condition., Reason: They are flaccid due to water stress and make the leaf curl inside thus minimise, surface area for transpiration., , previous year questions, 1. Kranz anatomy is one of the characteristics of the leaves of, , (a) Potato, (b) Wheat, (c) Sugarcane, (d) Mustard, , [AIPMT MAINS 2010], , 2. Give below is the diagram of a stomatal apparatus. In which of the following, all the four parts, labelled as A, B, C, D are correctly identified?
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Anatomy of Flowering Plants6.19, , A, B, D, C, , , (a), (b), (c), (d), , [AIPMT MAINS 2010], A: Subsidiary cell, B: Epidermal cell, C: Guard cell, D: Stomatal aperture, A: Guard cell, B: Stomatal aperature, C: Subsidiary cell, D: Epidermal cell, A: Epidermal cell, B: Guard cell, C: Stomatal aperture, D: Subsidiary cell, A: Epidermal cell, B: Subsidiary cell, C: Guard cell, D: Stomatal aperture, , 3. The chief water conducting elements of xylem in gymnosperms are, , (a) Vessels, (b) Fibres, (c) Transfusion tissue, (d) Tracheids, , [AIPMT PRE 2010], , 4. Which one of the following is not a lateral meristem?, , [AIPMT PRE 2010], (a) Intrafascicular cambium, (b) Interfascicular cambium, (c) Phellogen, (d) Intercalary meristem, 5. Heartwood differs from sapwood in, , (a) Presence of rays and fibres, (b) Absence of vessels and parenchyma, (c) Having dead and non-conducting elements, (d) Being susceptible to pests and pathogens, 6. Some vascular bundles are described as open because these, , (a) Are surrounded by pericycle but no endodermis., (b) Are capable of producing secondary xylem and phloem., (c) Possess conjunctive tissue between xylem and phloem., (d) Are not surrounded by pericycle., , [AIPMT PRE 2010], , [AIPMT MAINS 2011], , 7. In Kranz anatomy, the bundle sheath cells have, , [AIPMT MAINS 2011], (a) Thin walls, many intercellular spaces and no chloroplasts., (b) Thick walls, no intercellular spaces and large number of chloroplasts., (c) Thin walls, no intercellular spaces and several chloroplasts., (d) Thick walls, many intercellular spaces and few chloroplasts., 8. Ground tissue includes:, , (a) All tissues except epidermis and vascular bundles, (b) Epidermis and cortex, (c) All tissues internal to endodermis, (d) All tissues external to endodermis, , [AIPMT PRE 2011]
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6.20, , Anatomy of Flowering Plants, , 9. In land plants, the guard cells differ from other epidermal cells in having, , [AIPMT PRE 2011], (a) Mitochondria, (b) Endoplasmic reticulum, (c) Chloroplasts, (d) Cytoskeleton, 10. The cork cambium, cork and secondary cortex are collectively called, , (a) Phellogen, (b) Periderm, (c) Phellem, (d) Phelloderm, 11. As compared to a dicot root, a monocot root has, , (a) Many xylem bundles, (b) Inconspicuous annual rings, (c) Relatively thicker periderm, (d) More abundant secondary xylem, , [AIPMT PRE 2011], , [AIPMT MAINS 2012], , 12. The common bottle cork is a product of, , (a) Dermatogen, (c) Xylem, , (b) Phellogen, (d) Vascular Cambium, , 13. Closed vascular bundles lack, , (a) Ground tissue, (c) Cambium, , (b) Conjunctive tissue, (d) Pith, , [AIPMT PRE 2012], , [AIPMT PRE 2012], , 14. Water containing cavities in vascular bundles are found in, , (a) Sunflower, (b) Maize, (c) Cycas, (d) Pinus, , [AIPMT PRE 2012], , 15. Gymnosperms are also called soft wood spermatophytes because they lack, , [AIPMT PRE 2012], (a) Cambium, (b) Phloem fibres, (c) Thick walled tracheids, (d) Xylem fibres, 16. Interfascicular cambium develops from the cells of, , (a) Medullary rays, (b) Xylem parenchyma, (c) Endodermis, (d) Pericycle, , [AIPMT 2013], , 17. Lenticels are involved in:, , (a) Transpiration, (c) Food transport, , (b) Gaseous exchange, (d) Photosynthesis, , 18. Age of a tree can be estimated by:, , (a) Its height and girth, (c) Number of annual rings, , [AIPMT 2013], (b) Biomass, (d) Diameter of its heartwood, , [AIPMT 2013]
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Anatomy of Flowering Plants6.21, , 19. You are given a fairly old piece of dicot stem and a dicot root. Which of the following anatomical structures will you use to distinguish between the two?, , [AIPMT 2014], (a) Secondary xylem, (b) Secondary phloem, (c) Protoxylem, (d) Cortical cells, 20. Tracheids differ from other tracheary element in:, , (a) Having casparian strips, (b) Being imperforate, (c) Lacking nucleus, (d) Being lignified, 21. Vascular bundles in monocotyledons are considered closed because:, , (a) A bundle sheath surrounds each bundles, (b) Cambium is absent, (c) There are no vessels with perforations, (d) Xylem is surrounded all around by phloem, 22. A major characteristic of the monocot root is the presence of:, , (a) Open vascular bundles, (b) Scattered vascular bundles, (c) Vasculature without cambium, (d) Xylem along the radius, , [AIPMT 2014], , [AIPMT 2015], , [AIPMT 2015], , 23. Read the different components from (a) to (d) in the list given below and tell the correct order, of the components with reference to their arrangement from outer side to inner side in a woody, dicot stem:, (a) Secondary cortex, (b) Wood, (c) Secondary cortex, (d) Phellem, The correct order is:, , [RE-AIPMT 2015], (a) (A), (b), (d), (c), (b) (d), (a), (c), (b), (c) (d), (c), (a), (b), (d) (c), (d), (b), (a), 24. Specialized epidermal cells surrounding the guard cells are called:, (a) Complementary cells, (b) Subsidiary cells, (c) Bulliform cells, (d) Lenticels, , [NEET - I, 2016], , 25. Cortex is the region found between:, (a) Pericycle and endodermis, (b) Endodermis and pith, (c) Endodermis and vascular bundle, (d) Epidermis and stele, , [NEET - II, 2016], , 26. The balloon-shaped structures called tyloses, (a) Characterize the sapwood, (b) Arte extensions of xylem parenchyma cells into vessels, (c) Are linked to the ascent of sap through xylem vessels, (d) Originate in the lumen of vessels, , [NEET - II, 2016]
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6.22, , Anatomy of Flowering Plants, , NCERT Exemplar Questions, 1. A transverse section of stem is stained first with safranin and then with fast green following, the usual schedule of double staining for the preparation of a permanent slide. What would be, the colour of the stained xylem and phloem?, (a) Red and green, (b) Green and red, (c) Orange and yellow, (d) Purple and orange, 2. Match the followings and choose the correct option from below., (a), (b), (c), (d), (e), , Meristem, Parenchyma, Collenchyma, Sclerenchyma, Epidermal tissue, , (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v), , Photosynthesis, storage, Mechanical support, Actively dividing cells, Stomata, Sclereids, , Options:, (a) (a)–(i), (b)–(iii), (c)–(v), (d)–(ii), (e)–(iv), (b) (a)–(iii), (b)–(i), (c)–(ii), (d)–(iv), (e)–(v), (c) (a)–(ii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(v), (d)–(i), (e)–(iii), (d) (a)–(v), (b)–(iv), (c)–(iii), (d)–(ii), (e)–(i)., 3. Match the followings and choose the correct option from below, (a), (b), (c), (d), , Cuticle, Bulliform cells, Stomata, Epidermis, , (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), , Guard cells, Single layer, Waxy layer, Empty colourless cell, , Options:, (a) (a)–(iii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(i), (d)–(ii), (b) (a)–(i), (b)–(ii), (c)–(iii), (d)–(iv), (c) (a)–(iii), (b)–(ii), (c)–(iv), (d)–(i), (d) (a)–(iii), (b)–(ii), (c)–(i), (d)–(iv)., 4. Identify the tissue system from among the following, (a) Parenchyma, (b) Xylem, (c) Epidermis, (d) Phloem, 5. Cells of this tissue are living and show angular wall thickening. They also provide mechanical, support. The tissue is, (a) Xylem, (b) Sclerenchyma, (c) Collenchyma, (d) Epidermis, 6. The epiblema of roots is equivalent to, (a) Pericycle, (b) Endodermis, , (c) Epidermis, , (d) Stele, , 7. A conjoint and open vascular bundle will be observed in the transverse section of, (a) Monocot root, (b) Monocot stem, (c) Dicot root, (d) Dicot stem
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Anatomy of Flowering Plants6.23, , 8. Interfascicular cambium and cork cambium are formed due to, (a) Cell division, (b) Cell differentiation, (c) Cells dedifferentiation, (d) Redifferentiation, 9. Phellogen and phellem respectively denotes the, (a) Cork and cork cambium, (b) Cork cambium and cork, (c) Secondary cortex and cork, (d) Cork and secondary cortex, 10. In which of the following pairs of parts of a flowering plant is epidermis absent?, (a) Root tip and shoot tip, (b) Shoot bud and floral bud, (c) Ovule and seed, (d) Petiole and pedicel, 11. How many shoot apical meristems are likely to be present in a twig of a plant possessing, 4 branches and 26 leaves?, (a) 26, (b) 1, (c) 5, (d) 30, 12. A piece of wood having no vessels (tracheae) must belong to, (a) Teak, (b) Mango, (c) Pine, (d) Palm., 13. A plant tissue, when stained, showed the presence of hemicellulose and pectin in the cell wall, of its cells. The tissue represents, (a) Collenchyma, (b) Sclerenchyma, (c) Xylem, (d) Meristem., 14. In conifers, the fibres are likely to be absent in, (a) Secondary phloem, (b) Secondary Xylem, (c) Primary phloem, (d) Leaves., 15. When we peel the skin of a potato tuber, we remove, (a) Periderm, (b) Epidermis, (c) Cuticle, (d) Sapwood, 16. A vesselless piece of stem possessing prominent sieve tubes would belong to, (a) Pinus, (b) Eucalyptus, (c) Grass, (d) Trochodendron, 17. Which one of the following cell types always divides by anticlinal cell division?, (a) Fusiform initial cells, (b) Root cap, (c) Protoderm, (d) Phellogen, 18. What is the fate of primary xylem in a dicot root showing extensive secondary growth?, (a) It is retained in the centre of the axis., (b) It gets crushed., (c) May or may not get crushed., (d) It gets surrounded by primary phloem.
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6.24, , Anatomy of Flowering Plants, , Answer Keys, Practice Questions, 1. (c), 11. (c), 21. (d), 31. (b), 41. (d), 51. (c), 61. (d), 71. (d), 81. (d), 91. (c), 101. (c), 111. (a), 121. (a), 131. (a), 141. (c), 151. (d), 161. (b), 171. (a), 181. (d), , 2. (d), 12. (d), 22. (d), 32. (b), 42. (d), 52. (d), 62. (d), 72. (d), 82. (d), 92. (a), 102. (b), 112. (d), 122. (c), 132. (c), 142. (c), 152. (b), 162. (d), 172. (c), 182. (d), , 3. (c), 13. (b), 23. (d), 33. (d), 43. (d), 53. (d), 63. (b), 73. (a), 83. (d), 93. (c), 103. (d), 113. (c), 123. (c), 133. (d), 143. (b), 153. (b), 163. (b), 173. (c), , 4. (b), 14. (a), 24. (c), 34. (b), 44. (d), 54. (d), 64. (d), 74. (c), 84. (d), 94. (b), 104. (a), 114. (c), 124. (d), 134. (d), 144. (c), 154. (d), 164. (b), 174. (c), , 5. (d), 15. (a), 25. (b), 35. (c), 45. (c), 55. (d), 65. (a), 75. (c), 85. (c), 95. (d), 105. (c), 115. (d), 125. (c), 135. (a), 145. (b), 155. (c), 165. (a), 175. (a), , 6. (a), 16. (b), 26. (a), 36. (a), 46. (d), 56. (c), 66. (d), 76. (d), 86. (b), 96. (b), 106. (b), 116. (d), 126. (d), 136. (d), 146. (a), 156. (d), 166. (d), 176. (a), , 7. (d), 17. (a), 27. (b), 37. (d), 47. (b), 57. (d), 67. (a), 77. (d), 87. (a), 97. (a), 107. (a), 117. (d), 127. (d), 137. (b), 147. (a), 157. (c), 167. (a), 177. (d), , 8. (c), 18. (c), 28. (d), 38. (d), 48. (c), 58. (d), 68. (a), 78. (d), 88. (d), 98. (b), 108. (b), 118. (b), 128. (d), 138. (d), 148. (b), 158. (c), 168. (c), 178. (b), , 9. (c), 19. (d), 29. (b), 39. (b), 49. (d), 59. (d), 69. (a), 79. (d), 89. (a), 99. (a), 109. (d), 119. (d), 129. (d), 139. (a), 149. (a), 159. (d), 169. (b), 179. (a), , 10. (d), 20. (d), 30. (c), 40. (c), 50. (d), 60. (b), 70. (c), 80. (c), 90. (c), 100. (d), 110. (c), 120. (b), 130. (b), 140. (b), 150. (b), 160. (b), 170. (b), 180. (b), , Assertion and Reason Questions, 183. (d), 193. (c), 203. (a), 213. (b), , 184. (b), 194. (b), 204. (a), 214. (a), , 185. (b), 195. (b), 205. (a), 215. (a), , 186. (a), 196. (a), 206. (a), 216. (a), , 187. (d) 188. (a) 189. (c) 190. (a) 191. (a) 192. (b), 197. (a) 198. (c) 199. (a) 200. (b) 201. (c) 202. (a), 207. (a) 208. (a) 209. (a) 210. (a) 211. (a) 212. (a), 217. (a), , Previous Year Questions, 1. (c), 11. (a), 21. (b), , 2. (d), 12. (b), 22. (c), , 3. (d), 13. (c), 23. (b), , 4. (d), 14. (b), 24. (b), , 5. (c), 15. (c), 25. (d), , 6. (b), 16. (a), 26. (b), , 7. (b), 17. (b), , 8. (a), 18. (c), , 9. (c), 19. (c), , 10. (b), 20. (b), , 8. (c), 18. (a), , 9. (b), , 10. (a), , NCERT Exemplar Questions, 1. (a), 11. (c), , 2. (b), 12. (c), , 3. (a), 13. (a), , 4. (a), 14. (b), , 5. (c), 15. (a), , 6. (c), 16. (d), , 7. (d), 17. (c)
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Structural, Organization, in Animals, , CHAPTER, , 7, , prACtiCe Questions, Animal Tissue, 1. What do you call an organization of group of similar cells along with intercellular substances?, (a) Organ, (b) System, (c) Tissue, (d) Cell membrane, 2. To establish a system of organ system what kind of interaction occurs to form a common function?, (a) Physical, (b) Chemical, (c) Both, (d) Symbiotic, 3. Which of the following is correct for epithelial tissue?, (a) It is present only as inner lining, (b) It is present only as outer lining, (c) Contains very less intracellular matrix, (d) All of these, 4. Which of the following contains simple epithelium as their lining?, (a) Ducts, (b) Tubes, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (d) Skin of mouth, , 5. Which of the following tissue has a free surface?, (a) Connective tissue (b) Muscular tissue, (c) Epithelial tissue, , (d) Neural tissue, , 6. Which of the following is not a simple epithelium?, (a) Squamous, (b) Cuboidal, (c) Columnar, , (d) None of these, , 7. Which of the following sites contain squamous epithelium as its living?, (a) Blood vessel, (b) Air sac in lungs, (c) Nasal cavity, (d) Both (a) and (b), 8. Secretion and absorption is done by what kind of epithelium?, (a) Squamous epithelium, (b) Cuboidal epithelium, (c) Columnar epithelium, (d) Ciliated columnar epithelium, 9. Which of the following epithelium is irregularly shaped?, (a) Squamous epithelium, (b) Cuboidal epithelium, (c) Columnar epithelium, (d) Ciliated columnar epithelium, 10. Cuboidal epithelium can be found in, (a) Distal convoluted tubule, (c) Henle’s loop, , (b) Proximal convoluted tubule, (d) Both (a) and (b), , 11. In columnar epithelium, where is nucleus located?, (a) At the base, (b) In the middle, (c) At the top, (d) No nucleus is present
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7.2, , Structural Organization in Animals, , 12. If the cuboidal epithelium turns out to have microvilli on it, what will it be called?, (a) Ciliated columnar epithelium, (b) Pseudo ciliated epithelium, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) Ciliated epithelium, 13. Where is columnar epithelium found?, (a) Lining of intestine, (c) Proximal convoluted tubule, , (b) Outer wall of stomach, (d) All of these, , 14. Where is ciliated epithelium found?, (a) Bronchioles, (b) Fallopian tubes, , (c) Both (a) and (b), , (d) Lungs, , 15. Cuboidal or columnar epithelium which is specialized for secretion are called _________., (a) Ciliated epithelium, (b) Glandular epithelium, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) None, 16. Which of the following is unicellular glandular epithelium?, (a) Salivary gland, (b) Islets of langer han’s, (c) Goblet cells, (d) All of these, 17. Which of the following is not secreted by exocrine glands?, (a) Earwax, (b) Oil, (c) Milk, , (d) None of these, , 18. Whose products are called hormone and where are they secreted?, (a) Exocrine, blood, (b) Endocrine, blood, (c) Exocrine, lymph, (d) Endocrine, fluid bathing the gland, 19. Which of the following functions of compound epithelium is minimal?, (a) Protection, (b) Secretion, (c) Absorption, (d) Both (b) and (c), 20. Where we will not find the compound epithelium?, (a) Dry skin surface, (b) Moist surface of mouth, (c) Pharynx, (d) Pancreas, 21. What is the function of tight junction?, (a) Protects from bacterial infection, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (b) Stop substance leaking across the tissue, (d) Elasticity to the tissue, , 22. What is the function of Adhering junction?, (a) Cementing to keep neighbouring cells together, (b) Give rigidity to tissue, (c) Stop leaking substance across the tissue, (d) All of these, 23. Which of the following junctions facilitate the cells to communicate with each other by, connecting the cytoplasm of adjoining cells?, (a) Tight junction, (b) Adhering junction, (c) Gap junction, (d) Both (b) and (c), 24. Big molecules can be transported to the neighbouring cell by which of the following junction?, (a) Adhering junction, (b) Gap junction, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) Not possible for big molecules, 25. Which tissue links and supports other tissues/organs of the body?, (a) Epithelial tissue (b) Connective tissue (c) Neural tissue, , (d) All of these
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Structural Organization in Animals7.3, , 26. In which of the following connective tissues, the elastin fibres are absent?, (a) Bone, (b) Cartilage, (c) Blood, (d) Both (a) and (b), 27. The matrix or ground substance in connective tissues are made up of _________ ., (a) Thick proteins, (b) Elastin fibres, (c) Modified polysaccharides, (d) Modified triglycerides, 28. Which of the following possess semi-fluid ground substance?, (a) Aerolar tissue, (b) Adipose tissue, (c) Blood, , (d) Both (a) and (b), , 29. Which of the following is not a part of aerolar tissue?, (a) Fibroblasts, (b) Mast cells, (c) Fibro clasts, , (d) All of these, , 30. Where is the excess unused nutrition stored in our body?, (a) Aerolar tissue, (b) Adipose tissue, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (d) Blood, , 31. In which tissue, the fibres and fibroblasts are completely packed?, (a) Dense regular connective tissue, (b) Dense irregular connective tissue, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) Cartilage, 32. Which structures are joined by tendons?, (a) Skeletal muscles to bones, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (b) Skeletal muscles to ligaments, (d) Bones to ligaments, , 33. Which of the following tissue is not present in skin?, (a) Epithelial tissue (b) Dense connective (c) Aerolar tissue, , (d) All of these, , 34. Which of the following is/are example of dense connective tissue?, (a) Tendon, (b) Cartilage, (c) Ligament, , (d) All of these, , 35. What kind of tissue is goblet cells?, (a) Epithelial tissue (b) Connective tissue (c) Neural tissue, , (d) All of these, , 36. Which portion of cartilage provides it with solidity, pliability and resistance to compression?, (a) Collagen fibres, (b) Calcium content, (c) Intracellular material, (d) Chondrocytes, 37. What provides bone with hard and non-pliable properties?, (a) Collagen fibres, (b) Calcium salts, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (d) None of these, , 38. Where are osteocytes located?, (a) Entire bone, (b) In lacunae, , (d) None of these, , (c) Both (a) and (b), , 39. Which of the following is not true?, (a) Limb bones are long bones., (b) The function of long bones is weight bearing and bringing out movement., (c) Bone marrows in all such long bones are site of blood cells production., (d) All of these, 40. What is the main function of blood?, (a) Protection of body, (c) pH buffering, , (b) Transport of various substances, (d) Maintaining osmolarity balance, , 41. The long cylindrical fibres that form a muscle is made up of_________ ., (a) Tinofibriles, (b) Collagen fibres, (c) Fibroblasts, (d) Myofibrils
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7.4, , Structural Organization in Animals, , 42. When muscle cells receive stimulus, they get _________ ., (a) Shortened, (b) Lengthened, (c) Elongated, , (d) All of these, , 43. Muscular movement are intended to _________ ., (a) Move the body to adjust to changes in environment, (b) Maintain the position of various body parts, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) None of these, 44. Which of the following is a typical skeletal muscle?, (a) Biceps, (b) Triceps, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (d) None of these, , 45. The sheath enclosing the several bundles of muscle fibres is _________ tissue., (a) epithelial, (b) connective, (c) both, (d) neural, 46. Which of the following is a fusiform muscle?, (a) Cardiac muscle, (b) Smooth muscle, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (d) Skeletal muscle, , 47. Smooth muscles are held together by _________ ., (a) Connective tissue (b) Cell junctions, (c) Epithelial tissue, , (d) None of these, , 48. Where can we find smooth muscles?, (a) Artery, (b) Vein, , (d) All of these, , (c) Stomach, , 49. Fusion of what sticks the cardiac muscles together?, (a) Cell junctions, (b) Plasma membranes, (c) Intercalated disc, (d) All of these, 50. Intercalated discs in cardiac muscles provide _________ ., (a) Tight junctions, (b) Communication junction, (c) Flexible junction, (d) All of these, 51. Which of the following is not true for intercalated discs?, (a) Found only in heart, (b) All the fusion points form intercalated disc, (c) One stimulus is enough for multiple muscle, (d) None of these, 52. Which of the following are excitable cells?, (a) Muscle cells, (b) Neural cells, , (c) Both (a) and (b), , (d) None of these, , 53. Which of the following cells are found in neural tissue?, (a) Neuron, (b) Neuroglia, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (d) None of these, , 54. What is the function of Neuroglia?, (a) Protect and support neurons, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (b) Act as intracellular matrix, (d) None of these, , 55. The electrical disturbance generated in neurons travels through _________ ., (a) Neuroglial cell, (b) Cytoplasm, (c) Plasma membrane, (d) All of these, 56. What kind of action can be caused by neurons?, (a) Stimulatory, (b) Inhibitory, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (d) Excitatory
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Structural Organization in Animals7.5, , Organ and Organ System, 57. What is the importance of organized organ system?, (a) Optimum efficiency of cells, (b) Coordinated activity of cells, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) None of these, 58. Heart contains which of the following kind of tissue?, (a) Epithelial tissue, (b) Cardiac muscular tissue, (c) Connective tissue, (d) All of these, 59. What is discernable trend?, (a) Complexity of organ system, (c) Inheritance trend, , (b) Evolutionary trend, (d) All of these, , 60. What do you call the study of form or externally visible features?, (a) Physiology, (b) Morphology, (c) Anthropology, , (d) None of these, , 61. What do you call the study of morphology of internal organs in the animals?, (a) Physiology, (b) Anatomy, (c) Internal morphology, (d) None of these, 62. Earthworm can be traced by faecal deposits. What are they called?, (a) Worm deposits, (b) Worm castings, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (d) None of these, , 63. Which of the following type are of Indian earthworms?, (a) Pheretima, (b) Lumbricus, (c) Lumbricoidus, , (d) Both (a) and (b), , 64. Size of cockroach ranges from, (a) ¼” to 3”, (b) 1 to 3”, , (c) 2 to 3”, , (d) ¼” to ¾”, , 65. Cockroach is, (a) Omnivores, , (c) Cursorial, , (d) All of these, , (b) Nocturnal, , 66. Which one is correct about cockroach?, (a) Generally brown and black color, (c) Found in damp places, , (b) Pest and vectors of several disease, (d) All of these, , 67. Zoological name of cockroach is, (a) Periplaneta americana, (c) Rana tigrina, , (b) Pheretima posthuma, (d) Maja maja, , 68 In each segment the exoskeleton has hardened plates in cockroach known as, (a) Sclerites, (b) Sternum, (c) Carapace, (d) All of these, 69 Body of cockroach is segmented and divisible into three distinct region known as, (a) Head, (b) Thorax, (c) Abdomen, (4) All of these, 70. The head of cockroach is formed by fusion of how many segments, (a) 4, (b) 5, (c) 6, , (d) 8, , 71. The cockroach has which type of mouth parts?, (a) Biting and chewing type, (b) Siphoning type, (c) Sponging type, (d) All of these, 72. How many filamentous Malpighian tubules are found in cockroach?, (a) 100 to 150, (b) 50 to 100, (c) 150 to 200, , (d) 200 to 250
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7.6, , Structural Organization in Animals, , 73. A ring of 6 to 8 blind tubules that are present at the junction of foregut and midgut in cockroach is known as, (a) Hepatic caecae, (b) Gastric caecae, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) Malpighian tubules, 74. The midgut of cockroach contains, (a) Ileum, (b) Colon, , (c) Rectum, , 75. Heamolymph of cockroach consists of, (a) Plasma, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (b) Haemocyte, (d) None of these, , 76. Alary muscles are found in, (a) Frog, (c) Cockroach, , (b) Earthworm, (d) Hookworm, , 77. How many pairs of spiracles is present on the surface of cockroach?, (a) 5 pairs, (b) 15 pairs, (c) 10 pairs, , (d) All of these, , (d) 20 pairs, , 78. In cockroach which of the following organ helps in excretion?, (a) Fat body, (b) Nephrocyte, (c) Urecose gland, (d) All of these, 79. How many ganglia lies in thorax and in the abdomen of cockroach?, (a) 3 and 6, (b) 6 and 3, (c) 2 and 1, , (d) 1 and 2, , 80. If the head of cockroach is cut off, it will live for as long as, (a) 2 weeks, (b) 1 week, (c) 3 weeks, , (d) 4 weeks, , 81. Mosaic vision means, (a) More sensitivity and less resolution, (c) Less sensitivity and less resolution, , (b) More sensitivity and more resolution, (d) Less sensitivity and more resolution, , 82. A pair of testes in cockroach lies in, (a) 2 to 4 abdominal segment, (c) 4 to 7 abdominal segment, , (b) 4 to 6 abdominal segment, (d) 6 to 8 abdominal segment, , 83. External genitalia in cockroach is represented by, (a) Male gonophysis, (b) Phallomere, (c) Ejaculatory duct, (d) Both (a) and (b), 84. Each ovary in cockroach is made up of how many ovarian tubules or ovarioles, (a) 6, (b) 4, (c) 8, (d) 10, 85. Match the column:, Column I, 1. Pair of spermatheca, , 2. Ovary, 3. Mushroom shaped accessory reproductive gland, 4. Anal cerci, (a) 1–B, 2–A, 3–C, 4–D, (c) 1–D, 2–C, 3–A, 4–B, , –, –, –, –, , Column II, A. 2 to 6th segment (Abdominal), B. 6th segment (Abdominal), C. 6 to 7th segment (Abdominal), D. 10th segment, , (b) 1–C, 2–B, 3–D, 4–A, (d) 1–A, 2–D, 3–B, 4–C
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Structural Organization in Animals7.7, , 86. How many oothecae is produced by female cockroach?, (a) 9 to 10, (b) 14 to 16, (c) 13, , (d) 1 to 2, , 87. The nymph of cockroach is grown by moulting for about _______ times to reach the adult, form., (a) 12, (b) 11, (c) 13, (d) 10, 88. Which one of the following is incorrect statement about cockroach?, (a) They are pest because they destroy food and contaminate it with their smelly excreta., (b) All species have economic importance., (c) Development in Periplanta Americana is paurometabolus type., (d) Next to last nymphal stage has wing pads., 89. Which one of the following is the correct statement about cockroach?, (a) Anal style is present only in male cockroach., (b) Anal cerci are present only in female cockroach., (c) Each eye consists of about 1000 hexagonal ommatidia., (d) Each oothecae contain 12 to 14 eggs., 90. What indicates A to C in the below given figure?, , A, B, C, , (a), (b), (c), (d), , A–Nucleus, B–Fat storage area, C–Plasma membrane, A–Fat storage area, B–Nucleus, C–Plasma membrane, A–Plasma membrane, B–Fat storage area, C–Nucleus, A–Plasma membrane, B–Nucleus, C–Fat storage area, , 91. Identify A to D given in the figure., D, A, C, , B, , (a), (b), (c), (d), , A–Collagen fibres, B–Macrophage, C–Mast cell, D–Fibroblast, A–Macrophage, B–Fibroblast, C–Mast cell, D–Collagen fibres, A–Mast cell, B–Collagen fobres, C–Macrophage, D–Fibroblast, A–Fibroblast, B–Mast cell, C–Collagen fibres, D–Macrophage
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7.8, , Structural Organization in Animals, , 92. Identify A, B, C, D, E and F given in the figure., E, , B, , A, , D, , F, , C, , (a) A–Blood glands, B–Ducts of pharyngeal nephridia, C–Septal nephridia, D–Tufts of, pharyngeal nephridia, E–Buccal cavity, F–Ingergumentary nephridia, (b) , A–Ingergumentary nephridia, B–Blood glands, C–Tufts of pharyngeal nephridia,, D–Buccal cavity, E–Septal nephridia, F–Ducts of pharyngeal nephridia, (c) , A–Ducts of pharyngeal nephridia, B–Ingergumentary nephridia, C–Blood gland,, D–Septal nephridia, E–Buccal cavity, F–Tufts of pharyngeal nephridia, (d) A–Blood glands, B–Septal nephridia, C–Buccal cavity, D–Ducts of pharngeal nephridia,, E–Ingergumentary nephridia, F–Tufts of pharyngeal nephridia, 93. Identify A, B and C given in the figure., A, B, , C, , (a), (b), (c), (d), , A–Chambers of heart, B–Anterior aorta, C–Alary muscles, A–Alary muscles, B–Chembers of heart, C–Anerior aorta, A–Anterior aorta, B–Chambers of heart, C–Alary muscles, A–Anterior aorta, B–Alary muscles, C–Chambers of heart, , 94. Identify the A, B, C, D and E in this figure., A, E, , C, D, , B
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Structural Organization in Animals7.9, , (a) A–Vasa efferentia, B–Cloacal aperture, C–Adrenal gland, D–Urino genital duct,, E–Fat bodies, (b) A–Urini genital duct, B–Vasa efferentia, C–Fat bodies, D–Clocal aperture, E–Adrenal, gland, (c) A–Adrenal gland, B–Urino genital duct, C–Cloacal aperture, D–Vasa efferentia,, E–Fat bodies, (d) A–Fat bodies, B–Adrenal gland, C–Cloacal aperture, D–Vasa efferentia, E–Urino, genital duct, , Assertion and Reason Questions, Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given, below:, (a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the, assertion., (b) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the, assertion., (c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false., (d) If both the assertion and reason are false., 95. Assertion: Ciliated epithelium mainly present in the inner surface of hollow organs like, bronchioles and fallopian tube., Reason: Cilia are microvilli., 96. Assertion: Muscle fibres are said to be contractile in nature., Reason: Cells of muscle tissues can shorten forcefully and again return to the relaxed state., 97. Assertion: Gap junctions facilitate the cells to communicate with each other., Reason: Gap junction connects the cytoplasm of adjoining cells ., 98. Assertion: Smooth muscle fibres appear to be striated., Reason: This is due to regular alternate arrangement of thick and thin filaments in Skeletal, muscle fibres., 99. Assertion: Non-striated muscles are said to be voluntary in nature., Reason: Non-striated muscles can be moved according to will., 100. Assertion: Intercalated discs are important regions of cardiac muscle cells., Reason: Intercalated discs function as communication junction for muscle contraction waves., 101. Assertion: Neurons are said to possess the property of excitability., Reason: Neurons can get excited by a given stimulus., 102. Assertion: Extracellular materials help in separation of cells., Reason: Cell junctions are formed by extra cellular materials., 103. Assertion: Epithelial tissues protect the under lying and over lying tissues., Reason: Materials are exchanged at the surfaces across the epithelial tissues., 104. Assertion: The cells of columnar epithelium in absorptive surfaces often bears microvilli on, their free ends., Reason: Microvilli on their free ends., 105. Assertion: Ciliated epithelium helps in the movement of particles., Reason: Cilia helps in the movement.
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7.10, , Structural Organization in Animals, , 106. Assertion: Extracellular materials are important for cells., Reason: Intercellular materials surround the cells and bind them together., 107. Assertion: Urinary bladder can considerably expand to accommodate urine., Reason: It is lined by stretchable transitional epithelium., 108. Assertion: Head of cockroach shows great mobility in all direction, Reason: Cockroach possess flexible neck, 109. Assertion: Cockroach is uricotelic, Reason: Fat bodies, nephrocyte and urecose glands help in excretion in cockroach, 110. Assertion: Cockroach possesses mosaic vision., Reason: Eye of cockroach contains several ommatidia., 111. Assertion: Development in P. americana is paurometabolous type., Reason: Development in cockroach occurs through nymphal stage., 112. Assertion: Sperm glue together and form spermatophores in vas deferens in cockroach., Reason: Sperm stores in vas deferens in cockroach, 113. Assertion: Cockroach is pest., Reason: Cockroach destroys food and contaminates it with their excreta., 114. Assertion: Cockroach is monoecious., Reason: Male and female sex organ is present in single organism., 115. Assertion: Earthworm possess moist body surface, Reason: Earthworm respire through body surface, 116. Assertion: Earthworm known as friend of farmers, Reason: They make soil porous which helps in respiration and penetration of the developing, plant roots., 117. Assertion: Development of earthworm is direct type., Reason: There is no larva stage in development., 118. Assertion: Cockroaches are harmful to humans., Reason: They are vector of several diseases., 119. Assertion: If head of cockroach is cut off, it will still live for as long as one week., Reason: Head contain a bit of a nervous system., 120. Assertion: Frogs shows hibernation and aestivation, Reason: This protect frog from extreme heat and cold respectively., 121. Assertion: Frogs are said to be cold blooded., Reason: Their body temperature varies with the temperature of environment., 122. Assertion: Frog shows sexual dimorphism, Reason: Male frog can be distinguished from female by presence of vocal sacs, 123. Assertion: Frog maintain ecological balance, Reason: Frog serves as important link in flood web and food chain in the ecosystem., 124. Assertion: Frogs are beneficial to humans, Reason: Frogs eat insect and protect our crops, 125. Assertion: Cardiac muscle cell contract as a unit, Reason: Communication junction (intercalated disc) present between the adjacent cells.
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Structural Organization in Animals7.11, , 126. Assertion: Blood is connective tissue, Reason: In blood, cells use to secrete fibres of structural proteins called collagen or elastin., 127. Assertion: Cells of Adipose tissue are specialised to store carbohydrates, Reason: Excess of fat which is not used immediately converted in carbohydrates and is stored, in this tissue., 128. Assertion: Tendons are used to attach bone to bone, Reason: Ligaments are used to attach muscle to bone., , previous year questions, 1. The kind of epithelium which forms the inner walls of blood vessels is, , [AIPMT PRE 2010], (a) Cuboidal epithelium, (b) Columnar epithelium, (c) Ciliated columnar epithelium, (d) Squamous epithelium, 2. If for some reason our goblet cells are non-functional, this will adversely affect, , [AIPMT PRE 2010], (a) Production of somatostatin, (b) Secretion of sebum from the sebaceous glands, (c) Maturation of sperms, (d) Smooth movement of food down the intestine, 3. The cells lining the blood vessels belong to the category of, , [AIPMT MAINS 2011], (a) Smooth muscle tissue, (b) Squamous epithelium, (c) Columnar epithelium, (d) Connective tissue, 4. Consider the following four statements (A to D) related to the common frog Rana tigrina,, select the correct option stating which ones are true (T) and which ones are false (F) statement?, (A) On dry land it would die due to lack of O2 if its mouth is forcibly kept closed for a few, days., (B) It has four-chambered heart., (C) On dry land it turns uricotelic from ureotelic., (D) Its life history is carried out in pond water., , [AIPMT MAINS 2011], A, B, C, D, (a), T, F, F, T, (b) T, T, F, F, (c), F, F, T, T, (d) F, T, T, F, 5. Which one of the following structures in Pheretima is correctly matched with its function?, , [AIPMT MAINS 2011], (a) Clitellum – Secretes cocoon, (b) Gizzard – Absorbs digested food, (c) Setae – Defence against predators, (d) Typhlosole – Storage of extra nutrients
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7.12, , Structural Organization in Animals, , 6. Ureters act as urinogenital ducts in, , (a) Human males, (c) Both male and female frogs, , [AIPMT MAINS 2011], (b) Human females, (d) Male frogs, , 7. The type of muscle present in our, , (a) Heart is involuntary and unstriated smooth muscle., (b) Intestine is striated and involuntary., (c) Thigh is striated and involuntary., (d) Upper arm is smooth muscle and fusiform in shape., , [AIPMT MAINS 2011], , 8. One very special feature in the earthworm Pheretima is that, , [AIPMT PRE 2011], (a) The typhlosole greatly increases the effective absorption area of the digested food in the, intestine., (b) The S-shaped setae embedded in the integument are the defensive weapons used against, the enemies., (c) It has a long dorsal tubular heart., (d) Fertilization of eggs occurs inside the body., 9. The ciliated columnar epithelial cells in humans are known to occur in, , [AIPMT PRE 2011], (a) Bronchioles and fallopian tubes, (b) Bile duct and oesophagus, (c) Fallopian tubes and urethra, (d) Eustachian tube and stomach lining, 10. Which of the following is correctly states as it happen in the common cockroach?, , [AIPMT PRE 2011], (a) Oxygen is transported by haemoglobin in blood., (b) The nitrogenous excretory product is urea., (c) The food is ground by mandibles and gizzard., (d) Malpighian tubules are excretory organs projecting out from the colon., 11. The supportive skeletal structures in the human external ears and in the nose tip are examples of, , [AIPMT MAINS 2012], (a) Areolar tissue, (b) Bone, (c) Cartilage, (d) Ligament, 12. Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of a certain type of connective tissue identify the parts, labelled A, B, C and D and select the right option about them, , , , [AIPMT MAINS 2012]
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Structural Organization in Animals7.13, , Options:, (a) A: Mast cell, B: Marcophage, C: Fibroblast, D: Collagen fibres, (b) A: Macrophage, B: Collagen fibres, C: Fibroblast, D: Mast cell, (c) A: Mast cell, B: Collagen fibres, C: Fibroblast, D: Macrophage, (d) A: Macrophage, B: Fibroblast, C: Collagen fibres, D: Mast cell, 13. Which one of the following characteristics is common both in humans and adult frogs?, , [AIPMT MAINS 2012], (a) Internal fertilization, (b) Nucleated RBCs, (c) Ureotelic mode of excretion, (d) Four chambered heart, 14. The four sketches (A, B, C and D) given below, represent four different types of animal tissues., Which one of these is correctly identified in the options given, along with its correct location, and function?, , [AIPMT MAINS 2012], , (a), , (b), , (c), , (d), , Tissue, , Location, , Function, , (a), , (C) Collagen fibres, , Cartilage, , Attach skeletal muscles to bones, , (b), , (D) Smooth muscle tissue, , Heart, , Heart contraction, , (c), , (A) Columnar epithelium, , Nephron, , Secretion and absorption, , (d), , (B) Glandular epithelium, , Intestine, , Secretion, , 15. Pheretima and its close relatives derive nourishment from, , (a) Sugarcane roots, (b) Decaying fallen leaves and soil organic matter, (c) Soil insects, (d) Small pieces of fresh fallen leaves of maize, etc., 16. Compared to those of humans, the erythrocytes in frog are, , (a) Without nucleus but with haemoglobin, (b) Nucleated and with haemoglobin, (c) Very much smaller and fewer, (d) Nucleated and without haemoglobin, , [AIPMT PRE 2012], , [AIPMT PRE 2012]
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7.14, , Structural Organization in Animals, , 17. Select the correct statement from the ones given below with respect to Periplaneta americana., , [AIPMT PRE 2012], (a) Nervous system is located dorsally, it consists of segmentally arranged ganglia joined by, a pair of longitudinal connectives., (b) Males bear a pair of short thread like anal styles., (c) There are 16 very long Malpighian tubules present at the junctions of midgut and hindgut., (d) Grinding of foods is carried out only by the mouth parts., 18. What external changes are visible after the last moult of a cockroach nymph?, , [AIPMT 2013], (a) Mandibles become harder, (b) Anal cerci develops, (c) Both forewings and hindwings develop, (d) Labium develops, 19. Choose the correctly matched pair:, , (a) Tendon – Specialized connective tissue, (b) Adipose tissue – Dense connective tissue, (c) Areolar tissue – Loose connective tissue, (d) Cartilage – Loose connective tissue, 20. Choose the correctly matched pair:, (a) Inner lining of salivary ducts – Ciliated epithelium, (b) Moist surface of buccal cavity – Glandular epithelium, (c) Tubular parts of nephrons – Cuboidal epithelium, (d) Inner surface of bronchioles – Squamous epithelium, 21. The terga, sterna and pleura of cockroach body are joined by, , (a) Cementing glue, (b) Muscular tissue, (c) Arthrodial membrane, , [AIPMT 2014], , [AIPMT 2014], , [AIPMT 2015], (d) Cartilage, , 22. The function of the gap junction is to, , [RE-AIPMT 2015], (a) Facilitate communication between adjoining cells by connecting the cytoplasm for rapid, transfer of ions, small molecules and some large molecules., (b) Separate two cells from each other., (c) Stop substance from leaking across a tissue., (d) Performing cementing to keep neighboring cells together., 23. The body cells in cockroach discharge tier nitrogenous waste in the haemolymph mainly in the, form of:, , [RE-AIPMT 2015], (a) Potassium urate, (b) Urea, (c) Calcium carbonate (d) Ammonia, 24. Which of the following features is not present in Periplaneta americana? [NEET - I, 2016], (a) Schizocoelom as body cavity, (b) Indeterminate and radial cleavage during embryonic development, (c) Exoskeleton composed of N – acetyl glucosamine, (d) Metamerically segmented body
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Structural Organization in Animals7.15, , 25. Which type of tissue correctly matches with its location?, Tissue, Location, (a) Smooth muscle, Wall of intestine, (b) Areolar tissue, Tendons, (c) Transitional epithelium, Tip of nose, (d) Cuboidal epithelium, Lining of stomach, , [NEET - I, 2016], , 26. In male cockroaches, sperms are stored in which part of the reproductive system?, , [NEET - II, 2016], (a) Mushroom glands, (b) Testes, (c) Vas deferens, (d) Seminal vesicles, 27. Smooth muscles are, (a) Voluntary, multinucleate, cylindrical, (c) Voluntary, spindle-shaped, uninucleate, , [NEET - II, 2016], (b) Involuntary, cylindrical, striated, (d) Involuntary, fusiform, non-straited, , NCERT Exemplar Questions, 1. Which one of the following types of cell is involved in making of the inner walls of large blood, vessels?, (a) Cuboidal epithelium, (b) Columnar epithelium, (c) Squamous epithelium, (d) Stratified epithelium, 2. To which one of the following categories does the adipose tissue belong?, (a) Epithelial, (b) Connective, (c) Muscular, (d) Neural, 3. Which one of the following is not a connective tissue?, (a) Bone, (b) Cartilage, (c) Blood, (d) Muscles, 4. The clitellum is a distinct part in the body of earthworm, it is found in, (a) Segments 13–14–15, (b) Segments 14–15–16, (c) Segments 12–13–14, (d) Segments 15–16–17, 5. Setae helps the earthworm but are not uniformly present in all the segments. They are present in, (a) 1st segment, (b) Last segment, (c) Clitellar segment, (d) 20th to 22nd segment, 6. Which one of the following statements is true for cockroach?, (a) The number of ovarioles in each ovary is ten., (b) The larval stage is called caterpillar., (c) Anal styles are absent in females., (d) They are ureotelic., 7. Match the following and choose the correct option, (a) Adipose tissue (i), (b) Stratified epithelium, (ii), (c) Hyaline cartilage, (iii), (d) Fluid connective tissue (iv), , Nose, Blood, Skin, Fat storage
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7.16, , Structural Organization in Animals, , Options:, (a) (a)–(i), (b)–(ii), (c)–(iii), (d)–(iv), (b) (a)–(iv), (b)–(iii), (c)–(i), (d)–(ii), (c) (a)–(iii), (b)–(i), (c)–(iv), (d)–(ii), (d) (a)–(ii), (b)–(i), (c)–(iv), (d)–(iii), 8. Match the following and choose the correct answer., (a), (b), (c), (d), , Hermaphrodite, Direct development, Chemoreceptor, Blood gland in earthworm, , (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), , Options:, (a) (a)–(ii), (b)–(iii), (c)–(iv), (d)–(i), (c) (a)–(i), (b)–(iii), (c)–(ii), (d)–(iv), , Produces blood cells and haemoglobin., Testis and ovary in the same animal., Larval form is absent., Sense of chemical substances., (b) (a)–(iii), (b)–(ii), (c)–(iv), (d)–(i), (d) (a)–(ii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(iii), (d)–(i), , 9. Match the following with reference to Cockroach and choose the correct option:, (a), (b), (c), (d), , Phallomere, Gonopore, Spermatophore, Ovarioles, , (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), , Chain of developing ova., Bundles of sperm., Opening of the ejaculatory duct., The external genitalia., , Options:, (a) (a)–(iii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(ii), (d)–(i), (b) (a)–(iv), (b)–(iii), (c)–(ii), (d)–(i), (c) (a)–(iv), (b)–(ii), (c)–(iii), (d)–(i), (d) (a)–(ii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(iii), (d)–(i), 10. Match the following and choose the correct answer., (a), (b), (c), (d), , Touch, Smell, Cranial nerves, Medulla oblongata, , (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), , Nasal epithelium, Foramen magnum, Sensory papillae, Peripheral nervous system, , (a), (b), (c), (d), , (a)–(iii), (b)–(i), (c)–(ii), (d)–(iv), (a)–(ii), (b)–(i), (c)–(iv), (d)–(iii), (a)–(iii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(ii), (d)–(i), (a)–(iii), (b)–(i), (c)–(iv), (d)–(ii)
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Structural Organization in Animals7.17, , Answer Keys, Practice Questions, 1. (c), 11. (a), 21. (b), 31. (c), 41. (d), 51. (b), 61. (b), 71. (a), 81. (a), 91. (d), , 2. (c), 12. (d), 22. (a), 32. (a), 42. (a), 52. (b), 62. (b), 72. (a), 82. (b), 92. (a), , 3. (c), 13. (a), 23. (c), 33. (c), 43. (c), 53. (c), 63. (d), 73. (c), 83. (d), 93. (d), , 4. (c), 14. (c), 24. (b), 34. (a), 44. (c), 54. (c), 64. (a), 74. (d), 84. (c), 94. (a), , 5. (c), 15. (b), 25. (b), 35. (a), 45. (b), 55. (c), 65. (d), 75. (c), 85. (a), , 6. (d), 16. (c), 26. (c), 36. (c), 46. (b), 56. (c), 66. (d), 76. (c), 86. (a), , 7. (d), 17. (d), 27. (c), 37. (c), 47. (b), 57. (c), 67. (a), 77. (c), 87. (c), , 8. (b), 18. (d), 28. (d), 38. (b), 48. (d), 58. (d), 68. (a), 78. (d), 88. (b), , 9. (a), 19. (d), 29. (c), 39. (c), 49. (b), 59. (b), 69. (d), 79. (a), 89. (a), , 10. (b), 20. (d), 30. (b), 40. (b), 50. (b), 60. (b), 70. (c), 80. (b), 90. (b), , Assertion and Reason Questions, 95. (c) 96. (a) 97. (a) 98. (a) 99. (d) 100. (a) 101. (a) 102. (b) 103. (c) 104. (a), 105. (a) 106. (a) 107. (a) 108. (a) 109. (b) 110. (a) 111. (a) 112. (d) 113. (a) 114. (d), 115. (a) 116. (a) 117. (a) 118. (a) 119. (a) 120. (a) 121. (a) 122. (a) 123. (a) 124. (a), 125. (a) 126. (c) 127. (d) 128. (d), Previous Year Questions, 1. (d), 11. (c), 21. (c), , 2. (d), 12. (d), 22. (a), , 3. (b), 13. (c), 23. (a), , 4. (a), 14. (d), 24. (b), , 5. (a), 15. (b), 25. (a), , 6. (d), 16. (b), 26. (d), , 7. (c), 17. (b), 27. (d), , 8. (a), 18. (c), , 9. (a), 19. (c), , 10. (c), 20. (c), , 8. (a), , 9. (b), , 10. (d), , NCERT Exemplar Questions, 1. (c), , 2. (b), , 3. (d), , 4. (b), , 5. (d), , 6. (c), , 7. (b)
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Unit, , Cell: Structures, and Functions, , III, , Chapter 8: Cell: The Unit of Life, Chapter 9: Biomolecules, Chapter 10: Cell Cycle and Cell Division, , Students Note, Unit III includes cytology and biomolecules. This unit is more important in AIPMT, because its contribution in the exam is more than plant physiology. Diagrams like, biomolecules and chemical structures are very important. If you can solve all problems, given in this book, then you can crack various questions of this unit.
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Cell: The Unit, of Life, , CHAPTER, , 8, , prACtiCe Questions, Cell and Cell Theory, 1. Which of the following organisms are not composed of cells?, (a) Amoeba, (b) Paramecium, (c) Euglena, (d) None of these, 2. Unicellular organisms are not capable of, (a) Independent existence, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (b) Performing essential functions of life, (d) None of these, , 3. Who was the first one to see a live cell?, (a) Robert Hook, (c) Robert Brown, , (b) Leeuwenhoek, (d) None of these, , 4. Who was the German botanist to study the different cells forming plant tissues?, (a) Schleiden, (b) Schwann, (c) Rudolf Virchow, (d) None of these, 5. In which year Matthias Schleiden examined a large number of plants and observed that all, plants are composed of different kinds of cells which form the tissues of the plant?, (a) 1638, (b) 1738, (c) 1838, (d) 1938, 6. In which year Schwann studied different types of animal cells?, (a) 1839, (b) 1739, (c) 1639, , (d) 1938, , 7. The cell has a thin outer layer which is known as ‘Plasma membrane’. Who reported this?, (a) Schleiden, (b) Schwann, (c) Virchow, (d) Robert Hooke, 8. ‘Cell wall is a unique structure of plant cells’. Who concluded this?, (a) Schleiden, (b) Schwann, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) None of these, 9. Who proposed the hypothesis that the bodies of animals and plants are composed of cells and, product of cells?, (a) Schleiden, (b) Schwann, (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these, 10. Who formulated the cell theory?, (a) Schleiden, (b) Schwann, , (c) Both (a) and (b), , 11. ‘Omnis cellula e cellula’ was given in the year _________, (a) 1756, (b) 1855, (c) 1945, , (d) None of these, (d) 1839
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8.4, , Cell: The Unit of Life, , 12. Who was the one to describe that cells divided and new cells are formed from pre-existing, cells?, (a) Schleiden, (b) Schwann, (c) Virchow, (d) All of these, 13. Which of the following statement is not a part of final cell theory?, (a) Cell has a thin outer layer called plasma membrane., (b) All living organisms are made up of cells and products of cells, (c) All cells arise from pre-existing cells., (d) All of these, 14. What is the outer covering of typical plant cell?, (a) Cell wall externally, (b) Plasma membrane externally, (c) Cell wall internally, (d) Cell wall externally, plasma membrane internally, 15. Identify the A, B, C and D in the given figure., , A, , (a), (b), (c), (d), , B, , C, , D, , A–WBC, B–Mesophyll cell, C–RBC, D–Columnar Epithelial cells, A–Columnar epithelial cells, B–Mesophyll cell, C–WBC, D–RBC, A–Mesophyll cell, B–WBC, C–Columnar epithelial cells, D–WBC, A–RBC, B–Columnar epithelial cells, C–Mesophyll Cell, D–WBC, , 16. In each cheek cell, there is a dense membrane bound structure which contains chromosome., This structure is, (a) Endoplasmic reticulum, (b) Golgi bodies, (c) Nucleus, (d) Mitochondria, 17. What does a nucleus of a typical animal cell contain?, (a) Chromosomes, (b) Genes, (c) DNA, , (d) All of these, , Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cells, 18. The cell containing membrane bound nucleus can be called, (a) Eukaryotic, (b) Prokaryotic, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (d) None of these, , 19. Identify the figure given below., , (a) Tracheid, , (b) Nerve Cell, , (c) Lipid bilayer, , (d) None of these
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Cell: The Unit of Life8.5, , 20. If volume of the cell is filled with semi-fluid matrix called cytoplasm, what kind of cell is it?, (a) Eukaryotic, (b) Prokaryotic, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) None of these, 21. Identify the given below figure., , (a) A tracheid, (c) A parenchyma cell, , (b) A vessel, (d) A sieve cell, , 22. What is the main arena of cellular activities in eukaryotic cells?, (a) Nucleus, (b) Cytoplasm, (c) Plasma membrane, (d) All of these, 23. In an eukaryotic cell, where does the various chemical reactions occur to keep the cell in living, state?, (a) Nucleus, (b) Cytoplasm, (c) Mitochondria, (d) All of these, 24. How many of the following organelles are found in prokaryotic cells?, , ER, Golgi complex, Lysosome, Mitochondria, Microbodies, Vacuoles, (a) 1, (b) 3, (c) 4, (d) 0, 25. Where are the ribosomes found in prokaryotic cells?, (a) Cytoplasm, (b) Mitochondria, (c) Chloroplast, (d) All of these, 26. Where are ribosomes found in eukaryotic cells?, (a) Cytoplasm, (b) Mitochondria, (c) Chloroplast, (d) All of these, 27. How many of the following are membrane bound organelles?, , Lysosomes, Ribosomes, Mitochondria, Vacuoles, (a) 2, (b) 3, (c) 4, , (d) 0, , 28. Which of the following organelle is exclusively found in animal cells?, (a) Mitochondria, (b) Chloroplast, (c) Vacuole, (d) Centriole, 29. Which of the following is incorrect?, (a) Smallest cell → Mycoplasma, (c) Largest single cell → Ostrich’s egg, , (b) Smallest cell → Bacteria, (d) None of these, , 30. What is the length of mycoplasm cell?, (a) 300 mm, (b) 0.3 μm, , (c) 3000 cm, , (d) All of these
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8.6, , Cell: The Unit of Life, , 31. What could be the length of bacterial cell?, (a) 3 to 5 mm, (c) 3.5 cm, , (b) 3 to 5 μm, (d) None of these, , 32. Diameter of an RBC is, (a) 7 μm, (c) 6 μm, , (b) 700 mm, (d) 6000 mm, , 33. The longest cells in human body are, (a) Muscle cells, (c) Neurons, , (b) Cardiac muscle cells, (d) None of these, , 34. Which of the following is incorrect matching?, (a) Round and biconcave – RBC, (b) Amoeboid – WBC, (c) Elongated – Tracheid, (d) Long and narrow - Nerve cells, 35. Identify the A, B, C, D and E in this figure., A, B, E, D, , C, , (a) A–Rough endoplasmic reticulum, B–Smooth endoplasmic reticulum, C–Nuclear, envelope, D–Microtubule, E–Nucleolus, (b) A–Smooth endoplasmic reticulum, B–Rough endoplasmic reticulum, C–Microtubule,, D–Nuclear envelope, E–Nucleolus, (c) A–Nucleolus, B–Microtubule, C–Smooth endoplasmic reticulum, D–Nuclear envelope,, E–Rough endoplasmic reticulum, (d) A–Rough endoplasmic reticulum, B–Nucleolus, C–Microtubule, D–Smooth endoplasmic, reticulum, E–Microtubule, 36. Which of the following cells are round and oval?, (a) RBCs, (b) WBCs, (c) Columnar cells, (d) Mesophyll cells, 37. Which of the following are long and narrow cells?, (a) Nerve cells, (b) WBC, (c) Columnar epithelial cells, (d) Tracheid, 38. Which of the following represent prokaryotic cell?, (a) Blue-green algae, (b) PPLO, (c) Bacteria, (d) All of these
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Cell: The Unit of Life8.7, , 39. Identify the A, B, C, D and E in this figure., C, A, B, D, E, , (a) , A–Smooth endoplasmic reticulum, B–Centriole, C–Golgi apparatus, D–Rough, endoplasmic reticulum, E–Ribosomes, (b) , A–Centriole, B–Smooth endoplasmic reticulum, C–Golgi apparatus, D–Ribosomes,, E–Rough endoplasmic reticulum, (c) , A–Rough endoplasmic reticulum, B–Smooth endoplasmic reticulum, C–Ribosomes,, D–Centriole, E–Golgi apparatus,, (d) , A–Centriole, B–Rough endoplasmic reticulum, C–Golgi apparatus, D–Smooth, endoplasmic reticulum, E–Ribosomes, 40. What is true for a prokaryotic cell?, (a) They are smaller in size, (c) Greatly vary in shape and size, , (b) Multiply much rapidly than eukaryotes, (d) All of these, , 41. What is the size of a typical eukaryotic cell?, (a) 1-2 μm, (b) 10-20 μm, , (c) 10-20 mm, , (d) 1-2 mm, , 42. How much is the size of typical bacteria?, (a) 1-2 μm, (b) 10-20 μm, , (c) 10-20 mm, , (d) 1-2 mm, , 43. How much is the size of viruses?, (a) 0.02-0.2 μm, (b) 0.2-0.4 μm, , (c) 0.02-0.04 μm, , (d) None, , 44. What is a genomic DNA of bacteria?, (a) Circular DNA, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (b) Single stranded DNA, (d) ds DNA, linear, , 45. Where is the genetic material located in prokaryotes?, (a) Nucleus, (b) Enveloped by nuclear membrane, (c) Naked in cytoplasm, (d) None of these, 46. What are plasmids?, (a) Naked genomic DNA, (c) Enveloped DNA, , (b) Smaller DNA than genomic DNA, (d) None of these, , 47. Resistance to antibiotics is conferred by, (a) Plasmid DNA, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (b) Chromosome, (d) None of these, , 48. Which is the common organelles that are found in both eukaryotes and prokaryote?, (a) Lysosome, (b) Ribosome, (c) Vacuole, (d) Mitochondria
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8.8, , Cell: The Unit of Life, , 49. What is a specialized differentiated form of cell membrane?, (a) Plasmid, (b) Nucleosome, (c) Mesosome, (d) All of these, 50. Infoldings of cell membrane in prokaryotic is called, (a) Mesosomes, (b) Lysosomes, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) None of these, 51. What is external to cell wall in a prokaryotic cell?, (a) Glycocalyx layer, (b) Plasma membrane, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) None of these, 52. Select the incorrect statement:, (a) Glycocalyx differs in composition and thickness among different bacteria., (b) All organism are made of cells or aggregates of cells., (c) ER helps in synthesis of proteins, lipoproteins and glycogen., (d) Cells of all living organisms have nuclues., 53. What is external to the plasma membrane in a prokaryotic cell like bacteria?, (a) Glycocalyx layer, (b) Cell wall, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) None of these, 54. What is external to glycocalyx layer in prokaryotic cell like bacteria?, (a) Cell wall, (b) Plasma membrane, (c) Both, (d) None of these, 55. What is external to plasma membrane and internal to glycocalyx layer?, (a) Capsule, (b) Cell wall, (c) Cellular matrix, (d) None of these, 56. What is the basis of classification of bacteria’s into gram +ve or gram -ve?, (a) Cell wall, (b) Glycocalyx layer, (c) Plasma membrane, (d) All of these, 57. A bacterial cell was taken and gram staining was done and observed that it did not take up, gram stain such a bacteria is known as, (a) Gram positive, (b) Gram negative, (c) Non-effective to gram stain, (d) None of these, 58. Which of the following statement is not true?, (a) Response to gram stain is due to the cell envelop., (b) The cell envelope act as a single protective unit., (c) The glycocalyx layer is similar in all the bacteria., (d) None of these, 59. A loose sheath of glycocalyx layer is called, (a) Plasma membrane, (c) Slime layer, , (b) Capsule, (d) Cell wall, , 60. What is a thick, tough, layer of glycocalyx known as?, (a) Slime layer, (b) Capsule, (c) Cell wall, (d) Cell envelope
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Cell: The Unit of Life8.9, , 61. Which of the following is not the function of cell wall?, (a) Interaction with outside world, (b) Provide structural support and shape, (c) Prevent from bursting and collapsing, (d) Exchange of nutrition takes place through it, 62. Which of the following is a form of mesosome?, (a) Vesicles, (b) Tubules, (c) Lamellae, (d) All of these, 63. Which of the following is a function of mesosome?, (a) Cell wall formation, (b) DNA replication and its distribution to daughter cells, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) None of these, 64. Which of the following helps in respiration, secretion process,and increase the surface area for, enzymatic content?, (a) Plasma membrane, (b) Cell wall, (c) Mesosomes, (d) Glycocalyx layer, 65. In which organisms the pigment containing chromatophores are found?, (a) Algae, (b) Cyanobacteria, (c) Green algae, (d) Amoeba, 66. A thin, filamentous extension of cell wall required for a bacterial motility is called _________., (a) Hook, (b) Flagella, (c) Tail, (d) Mesosome, 67. Which of the following is not a part of bacteria flagellum?, (a) Filament, (b) Hook, (c) Basal body, (d) None, 68. Of all the parts of flagellum, which one is the longest?, (a) Filament, (b) Hook, (c) Basal body, , (b) Fimbriae, , 69. Which of the following surface structure of bacteria does not take part in motility?, (a) Flagella, (b) Pilli, (c) Fimbriae, (d) Both (b) and (c), 70. Which is the elongated tubular structure made of special protein on the surface of bacterial, cell?, (a) Flagella, (b) Fimbriae, (c) Pilli, (d) All of these, 71. What is the small bristle like structures or fibres sprouting out of the cell?, (a) Flagella, (b) Fimbriae, (c) Pilli, (d) All of these, 72. In prokaryotes, the ribosomes are associated with which structure of cell?, (a) Cell wall, (b) Mesosome, (c) Lysosomes, (d) Plasma membrane, 73. What is the size of ribosomes?, (a) 10-20 μm, (b) 15-20 nm, , (c) 10-20 nm, , (d) 15-20 cm, , 74. In 70S prokaryotic ribosomes, what are the sub units present in them?, (a) 50S and 20S, (b) 50S and 30S, (c) 40S and 30S, (d) 60S and 30S
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8.10, , Cell: The Unit of Life, , 75. A polysome is a chained structure of which organelle?, (a) Lysosome, (b) Mesosome, (c) Ribosome, , (d) All of these, , 76. In polyribosome, the ribosomes attach to which RNA?, (a) m-RNA, (b) t-RNA, (c) r-RNA, , (d) All of these, , 77. In what form, the reserve material in prokaryotic cells are stored in cytoplasm?, (a) Lysosome, (b) Mesosome, (c) Ribosome, (d) Inclusion bodies, 78. Which of the following are not inclusion bodies?, (a) Phosphate granules, (b) Cyanophycean granules, (c) Glycogen granules, (d) Glucose granules, 79. Gas vacuoles are found in, (a) Blue-green bacteria, (c) Green photosynthetic bacteria, , (b) Purple bacteria, (d) All of these, , 80. Which of the following does not belong to eukaryote?, (a) Protists, (b) Bacteria, (c) Fungi, , (d) All of these, , 81. In eukaryotic cells, why there is an extensive compartmentalization of cytoplasm?, (a) Due to the presence of fibres, (b) Due to the presence of so many organelles, (c) Due to the presence of membranous organelles, (d) All of these, 82. The chemical studies on cell membrane that was deduced to its possible structure was mostly done, on which cells?, (a) WBC, (b) Human erythrocytes, (c) Platelets, (d) Cheek cells, 83. In plasma membrane, the lipids have their polar heads facing, (a) Outer side, (b) Inner side, (c) In the middle, (d) Stable facing nowhere, 84. The lipid component of plasma membrane will be mainly constituted of, (a) Glycolipids, (b) Glycogen, (c) Phosphoglycerides (d) All of these, 85. Identify the A, B, C and D in this figure., A, , Integral, protein, , B, C, , D
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Cell: The Unit of Life8.11, , (a), (b), (c), (d), , A–Lipid bilayer, B–Protein, C–Sugar, D–Cholesterol, A–Protein, B–Lipid bilayer, C–Cholesterol, D–Sugar, A–Protein, B–Sugar, C–Lipid bilayer, D–Cholesterol, A–Cholesterol, B–Protein, C–Sugar, D–Lipid bilayer, , 86. Which of the following are not the component of plasma membrane?, (a) Sugar, (b) Protein, (c) Cholesterol, , (d) None of these, , 87. What is the percentage of proteins and lipids in an RBC membrane respectively?, (a) 52%, 40%, (b) 50%, 40%, (c) 50%, 42%, (d) 52%, 42%, 88. Which of the following membrane proteins lie on the surface of the cell?, (a) Integral proteins, (b) Peripheral proteins, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) Glycoproteins, 89. Which of the following membrane proteins are partially or totally buried in cell membrane?, (a) Integral proteins, (b) Peripheral proteins, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) Glycoproteins, 90. The fluid mosaic model was given by Singer and Nicolson in the year _________, (a) 1972, (b) 1976, (c) 1982, (d) 1986, 91. The ability of proteins to move laterally within the membrane is measured as, (a) Mobility, (b) Flexibility, (c) Fluidity, (d) None of these, 92. For what reason, the fluid nature of membrane is important?, (a) Cell growth, (b) Secretions, (c) Endocytosis, , (d) All of these, , 93. The most important function of plasma membrane is that it, (a) Divides the cell, (b) Gives shape to the cell, (c) Transports the molecules across, (d) Both (a) and (b), 94. In which kind of transport, the molecules move across without the utilization of energy?, (a) Passive transport, (b) Osmosis, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) Active transport, 95. Movement of water across the plasma membrane occurs by, (a) Passive transport (b) Osmosis, (c) Active transport, , (d) All of these, , 96. In which kind of transport, the molecules will go against the concentration gradient?, (a) Passive transport, (b) Active transport, (c) Facilitated transport, (d) All of these, 97. In which of the following does active transport take place?, (a) Pumps, (b) Carrier protein transport, (c) Ion channels, (d) Diffusion, 98. The functions of cell wall in eukaryotic cells, (a) Give shape to cell, (c) Protects from infection, , (b) Prevent from mechanical damage, (d) All of these, , 99. Which of the following organisms have cell wall made up of cellulose, galactans, mannans,, and minerals like calcium carbonates?, (a) Fungi, (b) Plants, (c) Algae, (d) All of these
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8.12, , Cell: The Unit of Life, , 100. Which of the following organisms have cell wall made up of cellulose, hemicelluloses, pectins, and proteins?, (a) Fungi, (b) Plants, (c) Algae, (d) All of these, 101. Which of the following wall is capable of growth in a plant cell?, (a) Primary wall, (b) Secondary wall, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) Middle lamella, 102. What is the component of middle lamella that puts the different binds neighbouring cells together?, (a) Calcium phosphate, (b) Sodium pectate, (c) Calcium pectate, (d) Sodium phosphate, 103. A structure that is traversing the middle lamella and connecting the cytoplasm of neighbouring, cells is called, (a) Primary wall junction, (b) Plasmodesmata, (c) Desmosomes, (d) Secondary wall, 104. Identify the A, B, C, D and E in this figure., A, B, , C, , D, , E, , (a) A–Nuclear pore, B–Nucleus, C–Ribosome, D–Smooth endoplasmic reticulum, E–Rough, endoplasmic reticulum, (b) A–Rough endoplasmic reticulum, B–Nuclear pore, C–Ribosome, D–Smooth endoplasmic, reticulum, E–Nucleus, (c) A–Ribosome, B–Nuclear pore, C–Nucleus, D–Smooth endoplasmireticulum, E–Rough, endoplasmic reticulum, (d) A–Nucleus, B–Nuclear pore, C–Rough endoplasmic reticulum, D–Ribosome, E–Smooth, endoplasmic reticulum, 105. How many of the following are not included in endomembrane system?, , Endoplasmic Reticulum, Golgi complex, Lysosome, Mitochondria, Chloroplast, Vacuoles,, Peroxisomes, (a) 2, (b) 3, (c) 4, (d) 5, 106. What is the network of tiny tubular structures scattered in cytoplasm as seen from electron, microscope?, (a) Golgi complex, (b) Microtubules, (c) Endoplasmic reticulum, (d) Mitochondria
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Cell: The Unit of Life8.13, , 107. What indicates A in the figure?, A, , (a) Cisternae, , (b) Nuclear pore, , (c) Crista, , (d) Thylakoid, , 108. Which side in a cell does luminal and extra luminal compartments are situated respectively?, (a) Cytoplasm, inside ER, (b) Inside ER, cytoplasm, (c) cytoplasm, plasma membrane, (d) Nucleus, cytoplasm, 109. Rough endoplasmic reticulum is called so due to the presence of, (a) Lysosome, (b) Golgi granules, (c) Ribosomes, (d) Protein granules, 110. RER is frequently seen in cells associated with frequent synthesis and secretion of, (a) Lipid, (b) Glucose, (c) Protein, (d) All of these, 111. SER is frequently associated with the synthesis of, (a) Lipid, (b) Glucose, (c) Protein, 112. What is the diameter of cisternae?, (a) 0.5 to 1 μm, (b) 0.5 to 1 mm, , (c) 0.5 to 2 μm, , (d) All of these, (d) 5 to 11 μm, , 113. Cis and trans face of golgi body are ____ and ____ respectively., (a) Convex, Concave, (b) Concave, Convex, (c) Convex, Convex, (d) Concave, Concave, 114. Which face of golgi apparatus receives the materials packaged in the form of vesicles from, the ER?, (a) Cis, (b) Trans, (c), Both (a) and (b), (d) None of these, 115. Golgi apparatus is an important site for the formation of, (a) Protein and lipids, (b) Glycoproteins and glycolipids, (c) Carbohydrates and proteins, (d) Glucose and lipids, 116. Which structure is formed by the process of packaging in golgi apparatus?, (a) Ribosomes, (b) Protein granules (c) Lysosomes, (d) Centrosomes, 117. Which of the following are not hydrolytic enzyme?, (a) Lipase, (b) Proteases, (c) Carbohydrases, , (d) Ligases, , 118. Hydrolytic enzymes are activated at _______ pH., (a) Acidic, (b) Neutral, (c) 0 basic, , (d) All of these, , 119. Which of the following cannot be digested by hydrolytic enzymes?, (a) DNA, (b) Immunoglobulins, (c) Glucose, (d) Insulin
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8.14, , Cell: The Unit of Life, , 120. Which of the following are not the contents of vacuole?, (a) Water, (b) Enzymes, (c) Sap, (d) Excretory products, 121. Which of the following is correct about vacoule?, (a) Vacuole contain water sap, excretory product and other material not useful for the cell ., (b) In plant cell the vacuole can occupy up to 90 per cent of the volume of the cell., (c) The vacuole is bounded by tonoplast., (d) All of these, 122. Tonoplast membrane is important for, (a) Transporting ions along concentration gradient., (b) Transporting ions against concentration gradient., (c) Providing rigidity to structure, (d) All of these, 123. The contractile vacuole present in amoeba is useful for, (a) Ingestion, (b) Locomotion, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (d) Excretion, , 124. The amount or number of mitochondria in a cell depends on, (a) Anatomical structure of cell, (b) Size of the cell, (c) Colour and contour of the cell, (d) Physiological activity of cell, 125. What is the main function of cristae?, (a) To hold the vesicles formed, (c) Increase the density of organelle, , (b) Increase the surface area, (d) All of these, , 126. What kind of ribosome is seen in mitochondria?, (a) 80S, (b) 70S, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (d) None of these, , 127. How is a new mitochondria formed by the pre-existing ones?, (a) Mitosis, (b) Fission, (c) Conjugation, , (d) Budding, , 128. What does a chloroplast contain?, (a) Chlorophyll, (b) Carotenoid, , (c) Both (a) and (b), , (d) Anthocyanin, , 129. Select the incorrect pair from the following:, (a) Leucoplast-Carotene, (c) Elaioplast-Oils, , (b) Amyloplast-Starch, (d) Aleuroplasts–Proteins, , 130. In 30S and 40S ribosomes, ‘S’ stands for, (a) Sub-unit, (b) Svedberg’s unit, , (c) Single unit, , 131. Identify A, B, C, D and E in the given figure., B, , D, E, A, , C, , (d) Size
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Cell: The Unit of Life8.15, , (a), (b), (c), (d), , A–Matrix, B–Outer membrane, C–Crista, D–Inner membrane, E–Inner-membrane space, A–Crista, B–Outer membrane, C–Inner-membrane space, D–Inner membrane, E–Matrix, A–Matrix, B–Inner membrane, C–Inner-membrane space, D–Crista, E–Outer membrane, A–Inner-membrane space, B–Outer membrane, C–Matrix, D–Crista, E–Inner membrane, , 132. What kind of ribosome is present in mitochondria?, (a) 70S, (b) 80S, (c) 40S, , (d) 60S, , 133. Plastids are found in, (a) All plant cells, , (d) Both (a) and (c), , (b) All animal cells, , (c) Euglenoids, , 134. Based on the type of pigments, the plastid can be classified into how many types?, (a) 1, (b) 2, (c) 3, (d) 4, 135. Which of the following is a type of plastid?, (a) Chloroplast, (b) Chromoplast, , (d) Leucoplast, , (d) All of these, , 136. Select the correct matching:, Column I, Column II, (Type of leucoplast), (Stored food), A. Amyloplast, 1. Oil and fat, B. Elaioplast, 2. Protein, C. Aleuroplasts, 3. Carbohydrate, (a) A–3, B–1, C–2, (b) A–1, B–2, C–3, (c) A–3, B–2, C–1, , (d) A–2, B–3, C–1, , 137. Select the incorrect statement:, (a) The chloroplast contains chlorophyll and carotenoid pigments., (b) Chromoplast contains water soluble carotenoid pigments like carotene, xanthophylls., (c) Plastid is easily observed under microscope., (d) Chloroplast is a double membrane bound organelle., 138. The number of chloroplast in alga chlamydomonas is, (a) 2, (b) 1, (c) 20 to 40, , (d) 5 to 10, , 139. Identify A to F in the given figure., C, E, B, F, D, A, , (a) A–Outer membrane, B–Thylakoid, C–Stroma lamella, D–Inner membrane, E–Granum,, F–Stroma, (b) A–Thylakoid, B–Outer membrane, C–Stroma lamella, D–Inner membrane, E–Stroma,, F–Granum, (c) A–Stroma, B–Granum, C–Outer membrane, D–Stroma lamella, E–Inner membrane,, F–Thylakoid, (d) A–Inner membrane, B–Thylakoid, C–Stroma lamella, D–Outer membrane, E–Stroma,, F–Granum
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8.16, , Cell: The Unit of Life, , 140. Number of chloroplast present in a mesophyll cell, (a) 5–10, (b) 10–15, (c) 20–40, , (d) > 100, , 141. Chlorophyll pigments are present in, (a) Thylakoid, (c) Outer membrane, , (b) Stroma, (d) Inner membrane, , 142. Ribosomes are the granular structure first observed under the electron microscope as dense, particle by which scientist, (a) Robert Brown (1831) , (b) George Palade (1953), (c) Camillo Golgi (1898) , (d) Singer and Nicolson (1972), 143. The types of ribosome present in eukaryote cell is, (a) 70S, (b) 80S, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) None of these, 144. An elaborate network of filamentous proteinaceous structures present in the cytoplasm is, collectively known as, (a) Cilia, (b) Flagella, (c) Cytoskeleton, (d) ER, 145. Cytoskeleton helps in, (a) Mechanical support to cell, (c) Maintenance of shape of cell, , (b) Providing mobility to cell, (d) All of these, , 146. The central part of the proximal region of the centriole is also proteinaceous and is called, (a) Spokes, (b) Doublet, (c) Hub, (d) Linkers, 147. Find out the incorrect statement:, (a) Centrioles forms basal bodies of cilia or flagella., (b) Centriole gives rise to spindle fibres at the time of cell division in animal cell., (c) Centrosome is an organelle usually containing two cylindrical structures called centrioles., (d) Peripheral fibril of centriole is doublet., 148. Identify A, B, C, D, E and F given in the figure., B, C, A, , F, , D, , E, , (a) A–Interdoublet bridge, B–Peripheral microtubules (doublets), C–Central microtubule, D–, Plasma membrane, E–Central bridge, F–Radial spoke, (b) A–Central sheath, B–Radial spoke, C–Interdoublet bridge, D–Central microtubule, E–, Plasma membrane, F–Peripheral microtubules (doublets), (c) A–Central sheath, B–Plasma membrane, C–Peripheral microtubules (doublets), D–Radial, spoke, E–Central microtubule, F–Interdoublet bridge, (d) A–Plasma membrane, B–Radial spoke, C–Peripheral microtubules (doublets), D–Central, sheath, E–Central microtubule, F–Interdoublet bridge
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Cell: The Unit of Life8.17, , 149. Select the incorrect statement:, (a) Cilia and flagella are hair-like outgrowths of the cell membrane., (b) Cilia causes the movement of either the cell or the surrounding medium., (c) Bacterial flagella are structurally similar to eukaryotic flagella., (d) Flagella is responsible for cell movement., 150. Which of the following is true about the internal structure of axoneme?, (a) Central sheath is connected to one of the tubule of each peripheral doublets by a radial, spoke., (b) Axoneme is not covered by plasma membrane at all., (c) Then are only and radial spokes are found., (d) Peripheral doublets are not connected with each other., 151. Both cilium and flagellum emerges from centriole like structure which is called, (a) Basal granules, (b) Basal bodies, (c) Basal lamina, (d) Basal ganglion, 152. The name ‘chromatin’ was given by, (a) Robert Brown, (b) Fleming, , (c) Schwann, , (d) Ramchandran, , 153. The outer membrane of nucleus remains continuous with which cell organelle, (a) ER, (b) Golgi body, (c) Lysosome, (d) All of these, 154. The perinuclear space is about, (a) 1–5 nm, (b) 5–10 nm, , (c) 10–50 nm, , 155. The following cells are without nucleus, (a) Erythrocytes of many mammals, (c) Bacterial cell , , (b) Sieve tube cells of vascular plant, (d) All of these, , 156. The site of active ribosomal RNA synthesis is, (a) Nucleolus, (b) Mitochondria, (c) Cytoplasm, 157. Chromatin contains, (a) DNA , (c) Some non-histone protein and RNA, , (d) > 100 nm, , (d) All of these, , (b) Basic protein histone, (d) All of these, , 158. How long a DNA is distributed in our forty six chromosomes?, (a) 1 metre, (b) 3 metre, (c) 2 metre, , (d) 4 metre, , 159. Based on the position of centromere, the chromosomes are classified into how many types?, (a) 1, (b) 3, (c) 2, (d) 4, 160. Identify A, B, C and D given in the figure., , A, B, C, D
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8.18, , Cell: The Unit of Life, , (a), (b), (c), (d), , A–Nucleoplasm, B–Nucleolus, C–Nuclear pore, D–Nuclear membrane, A–Nucleolus, B–Nucleoplasm, C–Nuclear membrane, D–Nuclear pore, A–Nuclear pore, B–Nuclear membrane, C–Nucleoplasm, D–Nucleolus, A–Nuclear membrane, B–Nucleoplasm, C–Nuclear pore, D–Nuclear membrane, , 161. Match the column:, Column I, A. Metacentric chromosomal, B. Sub-metacentric , C. Acrocentric , D. Telocentric , (a) A–1, B–2, C–3, D–4, (c) A–1, B–2, C–4, D–3, , Column II, 1. Middle centromere, 2. Centromere slightly way from middle, 3. Centromere close to its end, 4. Terminal centromere, (b) A–2, B–1, C–3, D–4, (d) A–4, B–3, C–2, D–1, , 162. The following diagram shows a chromosome. Label A represents:, , A, , (a) Chromosomes, (c) Centromere, , (b) Kinetichore, (d) Acrocentric, , 163. Select the incorrect statement:, (a) Micro bodies contain various enzyme and are present in both plant and animal cells., (b) Few chromosomes have non-staining secondary constriction of constant location. This, give the appearance of a small fragment called the satellite., (c) Nuclei are spherical structures present in nucleoplasm and it is a site for ribosomal RNA, synthesis., (d) Every chromosome essentially has a secondary constriction or the centromere on the sides, of which disc shaped structures called kinetochores are present., 164. Identify A, B, C, D, E, F and G given in the figure., A, , E, C, , D, , B
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Cell: The Unit of Life8.19, , (a), (b), (c), (d), , A–Satellite, B–Secondary constriction, C–Centromere, D–Long arm, E–Short arm, A–Secondary constriction, B–Satellite, C–Long arm, D–Centromere, E–Short arm, A–Centromere, B–Satellite, C–Long arm, D–Short arm, E–Secondary constriction, A–Satellite, B–Short arm, C–Long arm, D–Centromere, E–Secondary constriction, , Assertion and Reason Questions, Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given, below:, (a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the, assertion., (b) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the, assertion., (c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false., (d) If both the assertion and reason are false., 165. Assertion: Bacterial cells may be motile or non motile., Reason: Bacterial cells may or may not posses cilia., 166. Assertion: Bacterial cell walls are not like the plant cell., Reason: Bacterial cell wall is not made up of cellulose., 167. Assertion: Membrane transport occurs through the carrier proteins., Reason: The transport carried by carrier proteins is always passive., 168. Assertion: Cristae are the infoldings of outer membrane of mitochondria., Reason: Electron transport occurs in mitochondrial stroma., 169. Assertion: Eukaryotic cells have more DNA than prokaryotic cells., Reason: Eukaryotes are genetically more complex than prokaryotes., 170. Assertion: Schleiden and Schwann were the first to observe the cells and to put forward the, cell theory., Reason: The cells are always living unit., 171. Assertion: In animal cells, the lipid-like steroidal hormones are synthesized in SER., Reason: The smooth ER is the major site for synthesis of lipid., 172. Assertion: Lysosomes help in photorespiration., Reason: Lysosome have basic enzyme., 173. Assertion: Mitochondria is known as the power house of cell., Reason: ATP production takes place here., 174. Assertion: DNA is associated with proteins., Reason: DNA binds around histone protein that form a pool and the entire structure is called, a nucleosome., 175. Assertion: Cell wall is not found in animal cell., Reason: Animal cells are covered by cell membrane.
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8.20, , Cell: The Unit of Life, , 176. Assertion: It is important that the organisms should have cell., Reason: A cell keeps its chemical composition steady within its boundary., 177. Assertion: The number of cells in a multicellular organism is inversely proportional to the, size of body., Reason: All the cells in the biological world are of same size., 178. Assertion: A cell membrane shows fluid behaviour., Reason: A membrane is a mosaic or composite of diverse lipids and proteins., 179. Assertion: Mitochondria and chloroplasts are semi-autonomous organelles., Reason: Mitocondria and chloroplast are devoid of ribosomes., 180. Assertion: Cell is fundamental structural and functional unit of life., Reason: Anything less than a complete structure of a cell does not ensure independent life., 181. Assertion: Na+/K+ pump is an active transport., Reason: Na+/K+ pump utilize energy of ATP, 182. Assertion: Calcium pectate is referred as plant cement., Reason: It glues neighbouring plant cells together., 183. Assertion: Cell wall help in cell to cell interaction., Reason: Cell wall provide barrier to undesirable macromolecules., 184. Assertion: Lateral movement of protein lipid bilayer of plasma membrane is possible, Reason: Lipid bilayer is of quasi fluid nature., 185. Assertion: Lysosomes posses’ acidic pH., Reason: Lysosomes are rich in hydrolytic enzymes which are activated by acidic pH., 186. Assertion: Mitochondria are the sites of aerobic respiration, Reason: Mitochondria contain 80s type of ribosomes., 187. Assertion: Carbohydrate synthesis occurs in stroma of chloroplast., Reason: Enzyme required for carbohydrate synthesis present in stroma of chloroplast., 188. Assertion: Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic flagella are structurally similar., Reason: Cilia are longer than flagella., 189. Assertion: ‘s’ in ‘80s’ represent sedimentation coefficient, Reason: Sedimentation coefficient is direct measure of density and size of ribosome., 190. Assertion: Lysosomes have acidic pH., Reason: It is maintain by pumping proton into interior of lysosome., 191. Assertion: Mitochondria and chloroplast are semi-autonomous cell organelle., Reason: Both contain DNA, RNA and ribosome., 192. Assertion: Unicellular organisms are capable of independent existence., Reason: Single cell in these organisms can perform essential function of life., 193. Assertion: Cell is fundamental structural and functional unit of all living organisms., Reason: A complete structure of cell does not ensure independent life.
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Cell: The Unit of Life8.21, , 194. Assertion: Cell wall is unique character of the plant cells, Reason: Cell membrane is only found in animal cells., 195. Assertion: Cells have different shapes, Reason: Shapes of cells vary with function they perform, 196. Assertion: Genetic material in prokaryotic is said to be naked., Reason: Genetic material in prokaryotic is not associated with histone proteins and absence, of nuclear envelope around it., 197. Assertion: Certain bacteria possess resistance to antibiotic., Reason: Certain bacteria possess plasmid, 198. Assertion: Mesosome in bacteria help in respiration, Reason: Mesosome contain respiratory enzyme, 199. Assertion: Polysomes are found in prokaryote as well as eukaryotes, Reason: Polysomes use to produce more protein replica from single mRNA., 200. Assertion: Ribosomes are found in both prokaryote and eukaryotes., Reason: Ribosomes are protein factories which is required for both types of cells., 201. Assertion: In lipid bilayer in membrane, lipid are arranged with polar head towards outer side, and the hydrophobic tail towards the inner part, Reason: This ensures that the nonpolar tail of saturated hydrocarbon is protected from, aqueous environment., 202. Assertion: Integral proteins can’t be extracted easily from plasma membrane, Reason: Integral proteins are partially or totally embedded in the membrane., 203. Assertion: RER is rough., Reason: This endoplasmic reticulum bears ribosomes., 204. Assertion: Golgi apparatus remain in close association with the endoplasmic reticulum., Reason: Material to be packaged in form of vesicle from the ER fuse with the cis face of the, Golgi apparatus and move towards maturing face., 205. Assertion: Lysosomes are capable of digesting carbohydrate, protein, lipids and nucleic acids., Reason: Lysosomes contain almost all type of hydrolytic enzymes., 206. Assertion: Some ion concentration is higher in the vacuole than in the cytoplasm of plant cell., Reason: In the plant tonoplast facilitate the transport of some ions against concentration, gradient into the vacuole., 207. Assertion: Chloroplast can synthesize proteins, Reason: Chloroplast contains ribosomes., 208. Assertion: Ribosomes were discovered after discovery of electron microscope., Reason: Ribosomes can be observed by electron-microscope.
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8.22, , Cell: The Unit of Life, , previous year questions, 1. Identify the components labelled A, B, C and D in the diagram below from the list (i) to (vii), given along with:, C, A, , D, B, , Components:, (i) Cristae of mitochondria, (iii) Cytoplasm , (v) Rough endoplasmic reticulum, (vii) Cell vacuole , , , The correct components are:, , A, B, (a), (v), (iv), (b), (i), (iv), (c), (vi), (v), (d), (v), (i), , C, (viii), (viii), (iv), (iii), , (ii) Inner membrane of mitochondria, (iv) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum, (vi) Mitochondrial matrix, (viii) Nucleus, [AIPMT MAINS 2010], D, (iii), (vi), (vii), (ii), , 2. Membrane-bound organelles are absent in, , (a) Saccharomyces, (c) Chlamydomonas, , [AIPMT PRE 2010], (b) Streptococcus, (d) Plasmodium, , 3. Which one of the following has its own DNA?, , (b) Dictyosome, (a) Mitochondria, (d) Peroxisome, (c) Lysosome, 4. The main arena of various types of activities of a cell is, , (a) Plasma membrane, (b) Mitochondrion, (c) Cytoplasm, (d) Nucleus, 5. The plasma membrane consists mainly of, , (a) Phospholipids embedded in a protein bilayer., (b) Proteins embedded in a phospholipid bilayer., , [AIPMT PRE 2010], , [AIPMT PRE 2010], , [AIPMT PRE 2010]
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Cell: The Unit of Life8.23, , (c) Proteins embedded in a polymer of glucose molecules., (d) Proteins embedded in a carbohydrate bilayer., 6. The figure below shows the structure of a mitochondrion with its four parts labelled as A, B,, C and D. Identify the parts:, D, , B, A, , , (a), (b), (c), (d), , C, , [AIPMT MAINS 2011], D (outer membrane) – gives rise to inner membrane by splitting, B (inner membrane) – forms infolding called cristae, C (crista) – possesses single circular DNA molecule and ribosomes, A (matrix) – major site for respiratory chain enzymes, , 7. In mitochondria, protons accumulate in the, , (a) Outer membrane, (c) Intermembrane space, , [AIPMT MAINS 2011], (b) Inner membrane, (d) Matrix, , 8. Which one of the following is not considered as a part of the endomembrane system?, , [AIPMT MAINS 2011], (a) Golgi complex, (b) Peroxisome, (c) Vacuole, (d) Lysosome, , , 9. Which one of the following organisms is not an example of eukaryotic cells?, [AIPMT PRE 2011], (a) Escherichia coli, (b) Euglena viridis, (c) Amoeba proteus, (d) Paramecium caudatum, 10. The important site for the formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids is, , [AIPMT PRE 2011], (a) Golgi apparatus, (b) Plastid, (c) Lysosome, (d) Vacuole, 11. In eubacteria, a cellular component that resembles eukaryotic cells is, , [AIPMT PRE 2011], (a) Nucleus, (b) Ribosomes, (c) Cell wall, (d) Plasma membrane, 12. Peptide synthesis inside a cell takes place in, , (a) Mitochondria, (c) Ribosomes, , [AIPMT PRE 2011], (b) Chromoplast, (d) Chloroplast
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8.24, , Cell: The Unit of Life, , 13. Which one of the following cellular parts is correctly described?, , (a) Centrioles, (b) Ribosomes, (c) Lysosomes, (d) Thylakoids, , [AIPMT MAINS 2012], , −, Sites for active RNA synthesis, − Those on chloroplasts are larger (80S) while, those in the cytoplasm are smaller (70S), −, Optimally active at a pH of about 8.5, − Flattened membranous sacs forming the grana, of chloroplasts, , 14. Which one of the following structures is an organelle within an organelle?, , [AIPMT MAINS 2012], (a) Peroxisome, (b) ER, (c) Mesosome, (d) Ribosome, 15. Ribosomal RNA is actively synthesized in, , (a) Lysosomes, (c) Nucleoplasm, , [AIPMT PRE 2012], (b) Nucleolus, (d) Ribosomes, , 16. What is true about ribosomes?, , [AIPMT PRE 2012], (a) The prokaryotic ribosomes are 80S, where ‘S’ stands for sedimentation coefficient., (b) These are composed of ribonucleic acid and proteins., (c) These are found only in eurkaryotic cells., (d) These are self-splicing introns of some RNAs., 17. Nuclear membrane is absent in, , (a) Penicillium, (b) Agaricus, , (c) Volvox, , [AIPMT PRE 2012], (d) Nostoc, , 18. Select the correct statement from the following regarding cell membrane., , [AIPMT PRE 2012], (a) NA+ and K+ ions move across cell membrane by passive transport., (b) Proteins make up 60 to 70 per cent of the cell membrane., (c) Lipids are arranged in a bilayer with polar heads towards the inner part., (d) Fluid mosaic model of cell membrane was proposed by Singer and Nicolson., 19. A major site for synthesis of lipids is, , (a) RER, (c) Symplast, , [AIPMT 2013], (b) SER, (d) Nucleoplasm, , 20. The Golgi complex plays a major role, , [AIPMT 2013], (a) In trapping the light and transforming it into chemical energy., (b) In digesting proteins and carbohydrates., (c) As energy transferring organelles., (d) In post translational modification of proteins and glycosidation of lipids.
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Cell: The Unit of Life8.25, , 21. Which one of the following organelle in the figure correctly matches with its function?, Nucleus, , Rough endoplasmic, reticulum, Golgi apparatus, , , (a), (b), (c), (d), , [AIPMT 2013], Rough endoplasmic reticulum, formation of glycoproteins, Golgi apparatus, protein synthesis, Golgi apparatus, formation of glycolipids, , Rough endoplasmic reticulum, protein synthesis, , 22. Which structures perform the function of mitochondria in bacteria?, , (a) Nucleoid, (b) Ribosomes, (c) Cell wall, (d) Mesosomes, , [AIPMT 2014], , 23. The solid linear cytosketetal elements having a diameter of 6 nm and made up of a single type, of monomer are known as, , [AIPMT 2014], (a) Microtubules, (b) Microfilaments, (c) Intermediate filaments, (d) Lamins, 24. Match the following and select the correct answer:, , [AIPMT 2014], (A) Centriole, (1) Infoldings in mitochondria, (B) Chlorophyll, (2) Thylakoids, (C) Cristae, (D) Ribozymes, , (3) Nucleic acids, (4) Basal body cilia or flagella, , (a) A : 4, B : 2, C : 1, D : 3, (c) A : 1, B : 3, C : 2, D : 4, , (b) A : 1, B : 2, C : 4, D : 3, (d) A : 4, B : 3, C : 1, D : 2, , 25. The motile bacteria are able to move by, , (a) Fimbriae, (c) Cilia, , [AIPMT 2014], (b) Flagella, (d) Pili, , 26. The chromosomes in which the centromere is situated close to one end are, , (a) Metacentric , (b) Acrocentric, (c) Telocentric , (d) Sub-metacentric, , [AIPMT 2015]
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8.26, , Cell: The Unit of Life, , 27. Nuclear envelope is a derivative of, (a) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum, (c) Microtubules , , (b) Membrane of Golgi complex, (d) Rough endoplasmic reticulum, , 28. The structures that are formed by the stacking of organized flattened membranous sacs in the, chloroplast are , [AIPMT 2015], (a) Cristae , (b) Grana, (c) Stroma lamellae , (d) Stroma, 29. Select the correct matching in the following pairs:, (a) Smooth ER, Oxidation of phospholipids, (b) Smooth ER, Synthesis of lipids, (c) Rough ER, Synthesis of glycogen, (d) Rough ER, Oxidation of fatty acid, , [AIPMT 2015], , 30. True nucleus is absent in, (a) Anabaena , (c) Vaucheria , , [AIPMT 2015], (b) Mucor, (d) Volvox, , 31. Which one of the following is not an inclusion body found in prokaryotes?, , , [AIPMT 2015], (a) Phosphate granule , (c) Glycogen granule , , (b) Cyanophycean granule, (d) Polysome, , 32. DNA is not present in, (a) Chloroplast , (c) Nucleus , , (b) Ribosomes, (d) Mitochondria, , 33. Which of the following are not membrane-bound?, , (a) Ribosomes, (b) Lysosomes, (c) Mesosomes, (d) Vacuoles, 34. Which of the following structures is not found in a prokaryotic cell?, , (a) Ribosome, (b) Mesosome, (c) Plasma membrane, (d) Nuclear envelope, , [RE-AIPMT 2015], , [RE-AIPMT 2015], , 35. The structures that help some bacteria to attach to rocks and/or host tissues are, , [RE-AIPMT 2015], (a) Fimbriae, (b) Mesosomes, (c) Holdfast, (d) Rhizoids, 36. Match the columns and identify the correct option., , Column I, , Column II, , (a) Thylakoids, , (i) Disc-shaped sacs in Golgi apparatus, , (b) Cristae, , (ii) Condensed structure of DNA, , (c) Cisternae, , (iii) Flat membranous sacs in stroma, , (d) Chromatic, , (iv) Infoldings in mitochondria, , [RE-AIPMT 2015]
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Cell: The Unit of Life8.27, , , (a), (b), (c), (d), , (a), (iii), (iii), (iii), (iv), , (b), (iv), (i), (iv), (iii), , (c), (i), (iv), (ii), (i), , (d), (ii), (ii), (i), (ii), , 37. Cellular organelles with membranes are, , (a) Chromosomes, ribosomes and endoplasmic reticulum, (b) Endoplasmic reticulum, ribosomes and nuclei, (c) Lysosomes, golgi apparatus and mitochondria, (d) Nuclei, ribosomes and mitochondria, , [RE-AIPMT 2015], , 38. Mitochondria and chloroplast are:, [NEET - I, 2016], (i) Semi-autonomous organelles., (ii) Formed by division of pre-existing organelles and they contain DNA but lack protein, synthesizing machinery., Which one of the following options is correct?, (a) Both (i) and (ii) are correct, (b) (ii) is true and (i) is false, (c) (i) is true and (ii) is false, (d) Both (i) and (ii) are false, 39. Microtubules are the constituents of:, (a) Cilia, Flagella and Peroxisomes, (b) Spindle fibres, Centrioles and Cilia, (c) Centrioles, Spindle fibres and Chromatin, (d) Centrosome, Nucleosome and Centrioles, , [NEET - I, 2016], , 40. A complex of ribosome attached to a single strand of RNA is known as:, (a) Polysome, (b) Polymer, (c) Polypeptide, (d) Okazaki fragment, , [NEET - I, 2016], , 41. Which one of the following cell organelles is enclosed by a single membrane?, , [NEET - I, 2016], (a) Mitochondria, (b) Chloroplasts, (c) Lysosomes, (d) Nuclei, 42. Water soluble pigments found in plant cell vacuoles are:, (a) Xanthophylls, (b) Chlorophylls, (c) Carotenoids, (d) Anthocyanins, , [NEET - I, 2016], , 43. Select the mismatch, (a) Large central vacuoles – Animal cells, (b) Protists-Eukaryotes, (c) Methanogens-Prokaryotes, (d) Gas vacuoles-Green bacteria, , [NEET - II, 2016], , 44. Select he wrong statement., (a) Pili and fimbriae are mainly involved in monthly of bacteria cells, (b) Cyanobacteria lack flagellated cells, (c) Mycoplasma is a wall-less microorganism, (d) Bacterial cell wall is made up of peptidoglycan, , [NEET - II, 2016]
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8.28, , Cell: The Unit of Life, , 45. A cell organelle containing hydrolytic enzymes is, (a) Microsome, (b) Ribosome, (c) Mesosome, (d) Lysosome, , [NEET - II, 2016], , NCERT Exemplar Questions, 1. A common characteristic feature of plant sieve tube cells and most of the mammalian, erythrocytes is, (a) Absence of mitochondria, (b) Presence of cell wall, (c) Presence of haemoglobin, (d) Absence of nucleus, 2. Select one which is not true for ribosome, (a) Made of two sub–units, (c) May attach to mRNA, , (b) Form polysome, (d) Have no role in protein synthesis., , 3. Which one of these is not a eukaryote?, (a) Euglena, (c) Spirogyra, , (b) Anabena, (d) Agaricus., , 4. Which of the following dyes is not used for staining chromosomes?, (a) Basic Fuchsin, (b) Safranin, (c) Methylene blue, (d) Carmine, 5. Different cells have different sizes. Arrange the following cells in an ascending order of their, size. Choose the correct option among the followings:, (i) Mycoplasma (ii) Ostrich eggs, (iii) Human RBCs, (iv) Bacteria, Options:, (a) (i), (iv), (iii) and (ii), (b) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv), (c) (ii), (i), (iii) and (iv), (d) (iii), (ii), (i) and (iv), 6. Which of the following features is common to prokaryotes and many eukaryotes?, (a) Chromosomes are present, (b) Cell wall is present, (c) Nuclear membrane is present, (d) Membrane bound sub–cellular organelles are present., 7. Who proposed the fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane?, (a) Camillo Golgi, (b) Schleiden and Schwann, (c) Singer and Nicolson, (d) Robert Brown, 8. Which of the following statements is true for secretory cells?, (a) Golgi apparatus is absent., (b) Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER) is easily observed in the cell., (c) Only Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER) is present., (d) Secretory granules are formed in nucleus.
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Cell: The Unit of Life8.29, , 9. What is a tonoplast?, (a) Outer membrane of mitochondria., (b) Inner membrane of chloroplast., (c) Membrane boundary of the vacuole of plant cells., (d) Cell membrane of plant cell., 10. Which of the following is not true of a eukaryotic cell?, (a) Cell wall is made up of peptidoglycans., (b) It has 80 S type of ribosome present cytoplasm., (c) Mitochondria contain circular DNA., (d) Membrane bound organelles are present., 11. Which of the following statements is not true for plasma membrane?, (a) It is present in both plant and animal cells., (b) Lipid is present as a bilayer in it., (c) Proteins are present in integrated as well as loosely associated with the lipid bilayer., (d) Carbohydrate is never found in it., 12. Plastid differs from mitochondria on the basis of one of the following features. Mark the right, answer., (a) The presence of two layers of membrane, (b) The presence of ribosome, (c) The presence of thylakoids, (d) The presence of DNA, 13. Which of the following is not a function of cytoskeleton in a cell?, (a) Intracellular transport, (b) Maintenance of cell shape and structure, (c) Support of the organelles, (d) Cell motility, 14. The stain used to visualize mitochondria is, (a) Fast green, (b) Safranin, , (c) Acetocarmine, , (d) Janus green, , Answer Keys, Practice Questions, 1. (d), 2. (d), 3. (b), 4. (a), 5. (c), 6. (a), 7. (b), 8. (b), 9. (b) 10. (c), 11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (d) 15. (d) 16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (c), 21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (d) 25. (a) 26. (d) 27. (b) 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (b), 31. (b) 32. (a) 33. (c) 34. (d) 35. (a) 36. (d) 37. (c) 38. (d) 39. (b) 40. (d), 41. (b) 42. (a) 43. (a) 44. (a) 45. (c) 46. (b) 47. (a) 48. (b) 49. (c) 50. (a), 51. (a) 52. (d) 53. (c) 54. (d) 55. (b) 56. (d) 57. (b) 58. (c) 59. (c) 60. (b), 61. (d) 62. (d) 63. (c) 64. (c) 65. (b) 66. (b) 67. (d) 68. (a) 69. (d) 70. (c), 71. (b) 72. (d) 73. (b) 74. (b) 75. (c) 76. (a) 77. (d) 78. (d) 79. (d) 80. (b), 81. (c) 82. (b) 83. (a) 84. (c) 85. (a) 86. (d) 87. (a) 88. (b) 89. (a) 90. (a), 91. (c) 92. (d) 93. (c) 94. (c) 95. (b) 96. (b) 97. (a) 98. (d) 99. (c) 100. (b), 101. (a) 102. (c) 103. (b) 104. (d) 105. (b) 106. (c) 107.(a) 108. (b) 109. (c) 110. (c)
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8.30, , 111. (a), 121. (d), 131. (a), 141. (a), 151. (b), 161. (a), , Cell: The Unit of Life, , 112. (a), 122. (b), 132. (a), 142. (b), 152. (b), 162. (b), , 113. (a), 123. (d), 133. (d), 143. (c), 153. (a), 163. (d), , 114. (a), 124. (d), 134. (c), 144. (c), 154. (c), 164. (a), , 115. (b), 125. (b), 135. (d), 145. (d), 155. (d), , 116. (c), 126. (b), 136. (a), 146. (c), 156. (a), , 117. (d), 127. (b), 137. (b), 147. (d), 157. (d), , 118. (a), 128. (c), 138. (b), 148. (c), 158. (c), , 119. (c), 129. (a), 139. (c), 149. (c), 159. (d), , 120. (b), 130. (b), 140. (c), 150. (a), 160. (a), , 172. (d), 182. (a), 192. (a), 202. (a), , 173. (a), 183. (b), 193. (c), 203. (a), , 174. (a), 184. (a), 194. (c), 204. (a), , 8. (b), 18. (d), 28. (b), 38. (c), , 9. (a), 19. (b), 29. (b), 39. (b), , 10. (a), 20. (d), 30. (a), 40. (a), , 8. (b), , 9. (c), , 10. (a), , Assertion and Reason Questions, 165. (c), 175. (a), 185. (a), 195. (a), 205. (a), , 166. (a), 176. (a), 186. (c), 196. (a), 206. (a), , 167. (c), 177. (d), 187. (a), 197. (a), 207. (a), , 168. (d), 178. (a), 188. (d), 198. (a), 208. (a), , 169. (a), 179. (c), 189. (c), 199. (a), , 170. (d), 180. (a), 190. (a), 200. (a), , 171. (b), 181. (b), 191. (a), 201. (a), , Previous Year Questions, 1. (a), 11. (d), 21. (d), 31. (d), 41. (c), , 2. (b), 12. (c), 22. (d), 32. (b), 42. (d), , 3. (a), 13. (d), 23. (b), 33. (a), 43. (a), , 4. (c), 14. (d), 24. (a), 34. (d), 44. (a), , 5. (b), 15. (b), 25. (b), 35. (a), 45. (d), , 6. (b), 16. (b), 26. (b), 36. (a), , 7. (c), 17. (d), 27. (d), 37. (c), , NCERT Exemplar Questions, 1. (d), 11. (d), , 2. (d), 12. (c), , 3. (b), 13. (a), , 4. (b), 14. (d), , 5. (a), , 6. (b), , 7. (c)
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CHAPTER, , 9, , Biomolecules, prACtiCe Questions, , Analyzing the Chemical Composition, 1. Which elements are abundantly found in living organism with comparison to earth’s crust?, (a) Carbon, (b) Hydrogen, (c) Oxygen, (d) All of these, 2. To analyse the chemical composition of living tissue we solubilize them in, (b) HCl, (c) CF3COOH, (d) CCI3COOH, (a) HNO3, 3. The percentage of oxygen in human body is, (a) 65%, (b) 46.6%, 4., , (c) 18.5%, , (d) 3.3%, , Chemical analysis of living tissue, (Vegetable or piece of liver + CCl3COOH), , Acid soluble pool (Filterate), 1. mol. wt (a), , Acid insoluble pool (retentate), 1. It contain 4 type of organic, compound, a. Protein, b. Polysaccharides, c. (b), d. Lipids, , Fill in the blanks in (1) and (2) in the above flowchart., (a) a → greater than 1000 Dalton, b → Nucleotide, (b) a → 18–800 Da, b → Nucleic acid, (c) a → greater than 10,000 Da, b → Oligosaccharides, (d) a → greater than 1000 Dalton, b → Nucleoside, 5. All the carbon compounds that we get from the living tissues can be called, (a) Bioresource, (b) Bioinformatics, (c) Biowar, (d) Biomolecules, 6. Select the incorrect compounds that we get from living tissues can be called:, (a) Elemental analysis of living tissues gives elemental composition of living tissue., (b) Analysis of chemical compound of living tissue gives idea of organic and inorganic, constituent of living tissue., (c) Weight of small amount of living fresh tissue is known as wet weight., (d) Acid soluble pool contain lipids, nucleic acid, polysaccharide only.
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9.2Biomolecules, , 7. The biomolecule whose weight is less than____ dalton (Da) is referred to as biomicromolecule., (a) 800, (b) 18, (c) 1000, (d) 10,000, 8. Which of the following is not a macromolecule?, (a) Nucleic acid, (b) Polysaccharides, (c) Lipids, (d) Proteins, 9. Lipids are extracted with acid insoluble fraction because, (a) Its molecular weight is less than 800 Da, (b) It form vesicle or micelle which are not water soluble, (c) It is a polymer, (d) It is not a polymer, 10. Select the incorrect matching for component percentage in living cell:, (a) Water, –, 70 to 90%, (b) Proteins, –, 10 to 15%, (c) Carbohydrate, –, 2%, (d) Nucleic Acid, –, 5 to 7%, 11. _________ of the total cell mass is formed by ions., (a) 1%, (b) 2%, (c) 3%, , (d) 4%, , 12. Monomeric unit of cellulose is, (a) Glucose, (b) Fructose, , (c) Mannose, , (d) Ribose, , 13. Monomeric unit of inulin is, (a) Glucose, (b) Fructose, , (c) Mannose, , (d) Ribose, , 14. Which of the following is homopolysaccharide?, (a) Cellulose, (b) Inulin, (c) Starch, , (d) All of these, , 15. Starch forms helical _________ structure that can hold _________ molecule and gives blue, colour., (b) secondary, I2, (c) tertiary, I2, (d) quaternary, I2, (a) primary, I2, 16. Select the incorrect statement from the following:, (a) Cellulose does not contain complex helices., (b) Cellulose does not give colour with I2., (c) Cotton fibre, plant cell wall are made up of cellulose., (d) Cellulose is heteropolysaccharide., 17. Which of the following is amino-sugar?, (a) Glucosamine, (b) Galactosamine, , (c) Both (a) and (b), , 18. Chitin is a, (a) Homopolysaccharide, (c) Oligosaccharide, , (b) Heteropolysaccharide, (d) Monosaccharide, , 19. Chitin is present in, (a) Exoskeleton of arthropods, (c) Setae of earthworm, , (b) Cell wall of fungus, (d) All of these, , (d) None of these, , 20. In glycogen, which kind of linkage is found between adjacent glucose molecule?, (a) 1, 4, (b) 1, 6, (c) both, (d) 1, 2
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Biomolecules9.3, , 21. Which of the following is incorrect about glycogen?, (a) It is a stored form of glucose in animals., (b) In glycogen, the right end is reducing and the left end is non-reducing., (c) It is a branched polymer of glucose., (d) It is a stored form of glucose in plants., 22. The bond formed between two adjacent monosaccharide is, (a) Peptide bond, (b) Ester bond, (c) Glycosidic bond, , (d) Ionic bond, , 23. Blood concentration of glucose in normal healthy individual is, (a) 2–3 mM, (b) 4.5–5 mM, (c) 6–7 mM, , (d) 1 mM, , 24. Which is the correct Haworth structure of glucose?, HOCH2, , HOCH2, HO, , O, , HOCH2, O, , O, , (b), , (a), OH, , OH, OH, , OH, , OH, , OH, , (c), OH, , (d) All of these, OH, , OH, , OH, , OH, , 25. Which is the correct representation of ribose?, CH2OH, , (a), , HO OH, , O, , HOCH2, , O, , OH, , (b), , OH, , OH, , OH, , OH, , O, NH2, N, , (c), , N, , HN, , (d), O, N, , N, , N, H, , 26. Which of the following is a stored form of energy in plant?, (a) Starch, (b) Cellulose, (c) Glycogen, , (d) Chitin, , 27. Lipids are, (a) Compounds of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen, (b) Compounds of glycerol and fatty acid, (c) Insoluble in water, (d) All of these, 28. Lipids may be, (a) Fatty acid, (c) Compound respectively of both, , (b) Glycerol, (d) All of these, , 29. What is the number of carbon atoms which the palmitic and arachidonic acid contain (including, carboxyl carbon)?, (a) 16, 19, (b) 15, 19, (c) 16, 20, (d) 18, 20
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9.4Biomolecules, , 30. Fats or oils are, (a) Monoglycerides, , (b) Diglycerides, , (c) Triglycerides, , (d) Any of the above, , 31. Which of following is an example of phospholipid?, (a) Palmitic acid, (b) Arachidonic acid, (c) Lecithin, (d) Glycerol, 32. Which of the following is correct about lipids?, (a) On the basis on melting points they are divided into fats and oils., (b) Neural tissues are made up of simple lipids only., (c) Phospholipids never forms a part of cell membrane., (d) Lipids are strictly macromolecule., 33. Select the incorrect matching regarding the following diagram:, —, —, , O, O, , Adenine, , —, , HO—P—OCH2, OH, , OH, , (a), (b), (c), (d), , Purine, Uracil, Adenylic acid, Cholesterol, , –, –, –, –, , OH, , Its metabolism forms uric acid, It is exclusively found in RNA only, Monomer of both RNA and DNA, Forms a part of cell membrane, , 34. Which of the following is correct about amino acid?, (a) It is a compound containing amino and acidic group (–COOH)., (b) It is a substitute and is methane., (c) It is based on the nature of ‘R’ group they are of many types., (d) All the above, 35. How many amino-acids are used to form protein?, (a) 18, (b) 20, (c) 21, , (d) 22, , COOH, —, —, , 36. H—C—NH2 is a structure of α–amino acid. Based on different ® groups the following amino, , , acids are formed. Select the correct amino acid according to different ® group., (a) R→H (glycine),, (b) R→CH3 (alanine),, (c) R→CH2OH (serine), (d) All the above, 37. The chemical and physical property of amino acid is based on, (b) –COOH group, (a) –NH2 group, (c) –R group, (d) All of these
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Biomolecules9.5, , 38. Match the column:, Column I , A. Acidic, –, B. Basic, –, C. Neural, –, D. Aromatic, –, (a) A–3, B–2, C–1, D–4, (c) A–4, B–1, C–2, D–3, , Column II, 1. Valine, 2. Lysine, 3. Glutamic acid, 4. Tyrosine, phenylalanine, tryptophan, (b) A–2, B–3, C–4, D–1, (d) A–1, B–2, C–2, D–4, , 39. Which of the following is a Zwitter-ionic form of amino acid?, R, , R, +, , R, , (c), , H3N—CH—COO–, , +, , —, , H3N—CH—COOH, , (b), , —, , +, , —, , (a), , (d) All of these, , H2N—CH—COO–, , Proteins, 40. Protein is, (a) Homopolymer, , (b) Heteropolymer, , 41. Essential amino acids are those which are, (a) Not synthesized by our body, (c) Synthesized by our body, , (c) Polypeptide, , (d) Both (b) and (c), , (b) Not required by our body, (d) Only used to form proteins, , 42. The most abundant protein in animal world is, (a) RuBisCo, (b) Collagen, (c) Elastin, , (d) Albumin, , 43. The most abundant protein in whole biosphere is, (a) RuBisCo, (b) Collagen, (c) Elastin, , (d) Albumin, , 44. Protein acts as a, (a) Enzyme, , (d) All of these, , (b) Receptor, , 45. Match the column:, Column I, A. Collagen, –, B. Trypsin, –, C. Insulin, –, D. Receptor, –, E. GLUT–4, –, F. Antibody, –, (a) A–3, B–2, C–4, D–1, E–6, F–5, (c) A–1, B–4, C–2, D–5, E–3, F–6, , (c) Antibody, , Column II, 1. Hormone, 2. Enzyme, 3. Fight Infectious agent, 4. Enable glucose transport into cells, 5. Sensory reception (smell, taste hormone), 6. Intercellular ground substance, (b) A–6, B–2, C–1, D–5, E–4, F–3, (d) A–2, B–4, C–5, D–3, E–1, F–6, , 46. The macromolecular fraction is comprised by which of the following?, (a) Polynucleotides, (b) Polypeptides, (c) Polysaccharides, (d) All of these, 47. Protein is described by biologists at _________ levels., (a) 1, (b) 2, (c) 3, , (d) 4, , 48. Sequence or positional information of amino acid is given by the, (a) 2° structure, (b) 1° structure, (c) Tertiary structure, (d) Quaternary structure
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9.6Biomolecules, , 49. In the primary structure of protein, (a) Left end represents → 1st amino acid (C-terminal amino acid), (b) Right end represents → Last amino acid (N terminal amino acid), (c) Left end represents → 1st amino acid (N-terminal amino acid), (d) Right end represents → 1st amino acid (C-terminal amino acid), 50., , N, C, , —, , OH, , SH, , —, , CH2, , —, , —, CH2, , —, , —, CH2, , —, , —, , CH2OH, , CH2, , —HN—CH—CO—NH—CH—CO—NH—CH—CO—NH—CH—CO—, , Name the used amino acid in the above diagram., (a) Serine–Cysteine–Tyrosine–Glutamic acid, (b) Serine–Methionin–Tryptophan–Glutamic acid, (c) Serine–Methionin–Tyrosine–Aspartic acid, (d) Serine–Cysteine–Tyrosine–Aspartic acid, 51. Which of the following is correct about secondary structure?, , N, , C, , (a), (b), (c), (d), , Helix is a primary structure., In proteins only left handed helices are observed., In proteins only right handed helices are observed., None of these, , 52. Which structure is absolutely necessary for the many biological activities of proteins?, (a) 1°, (b) 3°, (c) 2°, (d) 4°, 53. When an assembly of more than one polypeptide occurs then it is known as _____ structure of, protein., (a) 1°, (b) 2°, (c) 3°, (d) 4°
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Biomolecules9.7, , 54. Which of the following is correct about human Haemoglobin (Hb)?, (b) Present in RBC, (a) Made up to 2-a and 2-b subunits, (d) All of these, (c) Use to carry O2 and CO2, 55. Select the incorrect statement from the following:, (a) Most of the enzymes are protein., (b) ‘Hb’ is an example of quaternary structure of protein., (c) In the primary structure of protein, the left hand is N-terminal and the right hand is, C-terminal., (d) In protein or polypeptide, the amino acids are linked by glycosidic bond., 56. Which of the following possess heterocyclic ring?, (a) Adenine, (b) Guanine and Cytosine, (c) Thymine and Uracil, (d) All of these, 57. Identify the nucleoside from the following:, A. Adenosine, B. Uridylic acid, C. Uridine, D. Cytidylic acid, (a) A and B only, (b) A and C only, , (c) C and D only, , (d) B and C only, , 58. Which of the following acts as a genetic material?, (a) DNA and RNA, (b) Uridylic acid, (c) Adenylic acid, , (d) Guanylic acid, , 59. Sugar + Nitrogen bases form, (a) Nucleoside, (b) Nucleotide, , (c) Peptide, , (d) Glycoside, , 60. Sugar + Nitrogen bases + Phosphate forms, (a) Nucleoside, (b) Nucleotide, , (c) Peptide, , (d) Glycoside, , 61. How many Nitrogen atoms are present in adenine?, (a) 3, (b) 4, (c) 5, 62., , —, , (d) 6, , Thymine, , Adenine, , —, , O, O, , OCH2, , O, , CH2, , O, —, , —, , HO—P —, —O, O, , O, , O Guanine, , Cytosine O, , CH2, , O, —, , CH2, , —, , O, , —, , O—, —P—OH, , —, , —, , O
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9.8Biomolecules, , The linkage represented by arrow is, (a) Peptide linkage, (c) Glycosidic linkage, 63. DNA and RNA are, (a) Polypeptides, (c) Polysaccharides, , (b) Phosphodiester linkage, (d) N-glycosidic linkage, (b) Polynucleotides, (d) All of these, , 64. How much percentage of total cellular mass is formed by nucleic acid?, (a) 3, (b) 2, (c) 5 to 7, (d) 10 to 15, 65. Which of the following are purines?, (a) Adenine, (c) Cytosine, , (b) Guanine, (d) Both (a) and (b), , 66. Which of the following are pyramidine (substituted)?, (a) Cytosine, (b) Thymine, (c) Uracil, (d) All of these, 67. DNA contains, (a) Ribose, (c) 5’ deoxyribose, , (b) 3’ deoxyribose, (d) 2’ deoxyribose, , 68. The bond present between two nucleotides is known as, (a) Phosphoester linkage, (b) Phosphodiester linkage, (c) Glycosidic linkage, (d) Peptide linkage, 69. The Watson-Crick Structure of DNA is, (a) 1° structure, (c) 3° structure, , (b) 2° structure, (d) 4° Structure, , 70. Which of the following is correct about DNA?, (a) Double helical structure in which two strands of polynucleotide runs antiparallel., (b) Backbone is formed by Sugar–Phosphate–Sugar chain., (c) N2-bases projected more or less perpendicular to back bone and faces inside., (d) All of these, 71., , NH2, , O, N, , N, , HN, , N, , N, , O, , N, H, , The diagrams represent the nitrogenous bases. Identify the correct combination., (a) A→Adenine; B→Thymine, (b) A→Guanine; B→Uracil, (c) A→Adenine; B→Uracil, (d) A→Guanine; B→Thymine
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Biomolecules9.9, , 72. Which one of the following is the diagrammatic representation of a nucleotide?, NH2, , HOCH2, , N, , O, , Adenine, , N, , (a), , (b), N, , N, , OH, , OH, , O, , HO—P—OCH2, , Uracil, , O, , Adenine, , —, , HOCH2, , —, —, , O, , OH, , (c), , (d), OH, , OH, , OH, , OH, , 73. Which one is correct about the following diagram?, HOCH2, , OH, , O, , Adenine, , OH, , (a) It is a nucleotide., (c) It is used to form DNA., , (b) It contains pyrimidine nitrogen base., (d) It is used to form RNA., , 74. Which one is correct about DNA?, (a) DNA exist as double helix., (b) Two strands of polynucleotide in DNA are antiparallel., (c) The nitrogen bases are projected more or less perpendicular to this backbone but face, inside., (d) All the above, 75. At each step of an ascent in a B-DNA double helical structure, the strand turns _________., (a) 36°, (b) 72°, (c) 90°, (d) 18°, 76. One full turn of B-DNA helix strand would involve how many base pairs?, (a) 12, (b) 8, (c) 10, (d) 20, 77. Select the incorrect statement from the following:, (a) N2-bases (A, G, C, T, U) have heterocyclic rings., (b) In most of the organisms, the DNA is genetic material., (c) Adenylic acid is nucleoside., (d) The rise per base pair in B-DNA is 3.4A°.
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9.10Biomolecules, , 78. There are _____ hydrogen bond between A and T, and _____ hydrogen bond between G and C., (a) 2, 2, (b), 3, 3, (c), 2, 3, (d), 3, 2, 79. Plants produce an enormous diversity of substances that have no apparent roles in growth and, development processes and are classified under the heading of, (a) Primary metabolites, (b) Secondary metabolites, (c) Necessary metabolites, (d) Tertiary metabolites, 80. Which one of the following is a secondary metabolite?, (a) Amino acid, (b) Sugar, (c) Flavonoides and antibiotics, (d) Protein, 81. Which one of the following statement is incorrect?, (a) Primary metabolites have identifiable functions., (b) Some secondary metabolites have ecological importance., (c) Secondary metabolites like rubber, drugs, spices, scents and pigments are useful to human, welfare., (d) Secondary metabolites are not found in fungi, microbes and plants., 82. Which of the following are pigments?, (a) Morphine, (c) Carotenoids and anthocyanin, , (b) Vinblastine, (d) Ricin, , 83. Which one of the following is not a polymeric substance?, (a) Rubber, (b) Morphine, (c) Protein, , (d) Cellulose, , 84. Which of the following secondary metabolites are used as drugs?, (a) Abrin + Ricin, (b) Vinblastin + Curcumin, (c) Anthocyanins, (d) Monoterpenes, 85. Which one of the following is a secondary metabolite?, (a) Lemon oil grass (b) Sucrose, (c) Lactose, , (d) Glycine, , 86. Match the Column, Column I, Column II, (Category), (Secondary Metabolites), A. Pigments, –, 1. Concanavalin A, B. Terpenoids, –, 2. Monoterpenes, Diterpenes, C. Alkaloids, –, 3. Morphine, Codeine, D. Lectins, –, 4. Carotenoids, Anthocyanine, E. Toxins, –, 5. Abrin and Ricin, F. Drugs, –, 6. Vinblastin, Curcumin, (a) A–1, B–2, C–6, D–4, E–5, F–6, (b) A–4, B–2, C–3, D–1, E–5, F–6, (c) A–3, B–4, C–6, D–5, E–1, F–2, (d) A–2, B–1, C–4, D–6, E–5, F–6, 87. Which one of the following are secondary metabolites?, (a) Flavonoids and rubber, (b) Antibiotics, coloured pigments and essential oils, (c) Scents, gums, spices, (d) All the above
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Biomolecules9.11, , 88. Select the incorrect statement from the following:, (a) All biomolecules have turnover in cell., (b) Metabolic reaction does not occur in isolation., (c) Metabolic pathways are either linear or circular., (d) Metabolites flow is a steady state of body constituent., 89. Select the incorrect statement from the following:, (a) Acetic acid becoming cholesterol is an example of biosynthetic or anabolic pathway., (b) Glucose becoming lactic acid in our skeletal muscles is an example of degradation or, catabolic pathway., (c) The flow of metabolite through metabolic pathway does not have a definite rate and, direction., (d) Anabolic pathway requires energy whereas catabolic pathway releases energy., 90. Bond energy, which is stored in our body in the form of ATP is utilized in, (a) Biosynthetic phase, (b) Osmotic work, (c) Mechanical work, (d) All of these, 91. Living state is, (a) Non-equilibrium, non-steady state, (c) Non-equilibrium, steady state, , (b) Equilibrium, steady state, (d) Equilibrium, non-steady state, , 92. Select the correct statement from the following:, (A) Biomolecules are in metabolic flux in living state., (B) Living process is a constant effort to prevent falling into equilibrium., (C) Metabolism provides a mechanism for the production of energy., (D) Living state and metabolism is synonymous., (a) All except A, (b) All except B, (c) All except D, (d) All of these, 93. In how many metabolic steps the degradation of glucose to lactic acid occurs?, (a) 8, (b) 9, (c) 10, (d) 2, 94. How do living organisms derive their energy? What strategies have they evolved? How do, they store this energy and in what form? How do they convert this energy into work? These, aspects are studied under a sub-discipline called, (a) Biowar, (b) Bioinformatics, (c) Bioenergetics, (d) Biosynthesis, 95. Almost all enzymes are, (a) Proteins, (b) Nucleic acid, , (c) Carbohydrates, , (d) Vitamins, , 96. There are some nucleic acids that behaves like enzymes and are called, (a) DNase, (b) RNase, (c) Endonuclease, (d) Ribozymes, 97. _________ of an enzyme is a crevices or pocket into which substrate fit., (a) Inactive site, (b) Active site, (c) Allosteric site, (d) Any of these, 98. Select the incorrect statement from the following:, (a) Active enzyme has tertiary structure having many active sites (substrate binding sites)., (b) Enzymes are biocatalyst., (c) Enzymes occur in viruses., (d) Enzymes are mainly protein in nature.
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9.12Biomolecules, , 99. Select the correct statement from the following:, (a) Inorganic catalysts work efficiently at high temperature and high pressure while enzymes, get damaged at high temperature (above 40°C)., (b) Ribozymes are nucleic acids behaving like enzyme., (c) Thermophilic organisms living in hot vents and sulphur springs have enzymes that are, stable and retain their catalytic power even at high temperatures (80–90°C)., (d) All of these, 100. Select the incorrect statement from the following:, (a) A physical change simply refers to a change in shape without breaking of bonds., (b) Change is a state of matter and it is also a physical change., (c) Hydrolysis of starch into glucose is an inorganic chemical reaction., (d) Catalyzed reactions proceed at rates vastly higher than that of uncatalyzed ones., 101. CO2 + H2O ⇐ H2CO3, Carbonic acid, Which one of the following statement is incorrect about the above reaction?, (a) In the absence of enzyme, the rate of H2CO3 formation is about 200 molecules per hour., (b) When carbonic anhydrase catalyses the same reaction, there is no change in the rate of, H2CO3 formation., (c) The reaction catalyzed by the enzyme shows dramatically higher decrease speed about, 600,000 molecules being formed every second (rate becomes 10 million times more)., (d) The enzymes carbonic anhydrase occurs in abundance of RBC’s., 102. Fill in the blanks in the below statements:, A. A multistep chemical reaction, when each of the steps is catalyzed by the same enzyme, complex or different enzymes is called a _________ 1 _________ pathway., B. In our skeletal muscle, under anaerobic conditions, _________ 2 _________ is formed., C. In yeast, during fermentation, the gylcolytic pathway leads to the production of _________, 3 _________., (a) 1-metabolic pathway, 2-acetic acid, 3-ethanol, (b) 1-glycolytic pathway, 2-lactic acid, 3-ethanol, (c) 1-glycolytic pathway, 2-ethanol , 3-ethanol, (d) 1-metabolic pathway, 2-lactic acid, 3-ethanol, 103. There could be many more altered structural states (like transition state) between the stable, substrate and the product in enzymatic reaction. These structural states are, (a) Stable, (b) Unstable, (c) Metastable, (d) Of lower energy than both substrate and product, 104. Which one of the following statements about enzymes is true?, 1. Enzymes are proteins whose three dimensional shape is key to their functions., 2. Enzymes speed up reactions by lowering the activation energy., 3. Enzymes are highly specific for reactions., 4. Enzyme activity is affected by the change in temperature and pH., (a) All except 2, (b) All except 1, (c) All except 3, (d) All of these
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Biomolecules9.13, , 105. Which of the following is a unique feature about the enzyme?, (a) They are not consumed by the enzyme-mediated reaction., (b) They are not altered by the enzyme-mediated reaction., (c) They lower the activation energy., (d) All of these, 106. The catalytic cycle of an enzyme action can be described in the following steps. Arrange them, in sequence accordingly., 1. The binding of the substrate induces the enzyme to alter its shape, fitting more tightly, around the substrate., 2. The substrate binds to the active site of the enzyme, fitting into the active site., 3. The enzyme releases the products of the reaction and the free enzyme is ready to bind to, another molecule of the substrate and run through the catalytic cycle once again., 4. The active site of the enzyme, now in close proximity of the substrate breaks the chemical, bonds of the substrate and the new enzyme product complex is formed., (a) 1 → 2 → 3 → 4, (b) 2 → 1 → 4 → 3, (c) 1 → 2 → 4 → 3, (d) 2 → 1 → 3 → 4, 107. The activation energy for given reaction is (i.e., reactant → product):, (a) Energy of transition state, –, Energy of substrate, (b) Energy of transition state, –, Energy of product, (c) Threshold energy, –, Energy of transition state, (d) All are correct, 108. Which one is correct?, (a) E + S → ES → EP → EP, (c) E + S → ES → EP → E – P, , (b) E + S → ES → EP → E + P, (d) E + S → ES → EP → E – P, , 109. Which one of the graphs shows the effect of pH on the enzymatic activity (EA)?, , (b) EA, , (a) EA, , pH, , pH, , (c) EA, , (d) EA, pH, , pH, , 110. Which one of the graphs shows the effect of temperature on the enzymatic activity?, , (b) EA, , (a) EA, Temperature, , Temperature
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9.14Biomolecules, , (d) EA, , (c) EA, , Temperature, , Temperature, , 111. Which one of the following graphs show the relationship between the of an (EA) and substrate, conc.(S)?, (a), , (b), , EA, , EA, , S, , S, , (c), , (d), , EA, , S, , EA, , S, , (1), 112. Each enzyme shows its highest activity at particular temperature and pH called the ______, (2) pH., temperature and ______, (a) optimum, optimum, (b) minimum, minimum, (c) maximum, maximum, (d) minimum, maximum, 113. Select the correct statement:, (a) Low temperature preserves the enzyme in a temporarily inactive state., (b) Higher temperature destroys enzymatic activity because proteins are denatured by heat., (c) The activity of enzymes declines both below and above the optimum value., (d) All of these, 114. Select the correct statement:, (a) Increase in substrate concentration, increases the velocity of enzymatic reaction at first, then it reaches maximum and further increment does not occur., (b) In competitive inhibition, the inhibitor closely resembles the substrate in its molecular, structure., (c) Competitive inhibition are often used in the control of bacterial pathogens., (d) All of these, 115. The activity of an enzyme is also sensitive to the presence of specific chemicals that bind to, the enzyme. When the binding of the chemical shuts off enzyme activity, the process is called, _________ and the chemical is called an _________ ., (a) activation, activator, (b) inhibition, inhibitor, (c) Inhibition, promoter, (d) activation, inhibitor, 116. Inhibition of succinate dehydrogenase by malonate is an example of, (a) Non-competitive inhibition, (b) Negative feed back, (c) Allosteric inhibition, (d) Competitive inhibition
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Biomolecules9.15, , Enzymes, 117. Enzymes are divided into, (a) 6 classes, each with 4–13 subclasses and named accordingly by a four-digit number., (b) 7 classes, each with 3–13 subclasses and named accordingly by a four-digit number., (c) 7 classes, each with 4–13 subclasses and named accordingly by a three-digit number., (d) 6 classes, each with 4–20 subclasses and named accordingly by a four-digit number., 118. Enzymes which catalyse oxidoreduction between two substrate belongs to the class, (a) Oxidoreductase, (b) Transferase, (c) Hydrolase, (d) Ligase, 119. Enzymes which catalyse transfer of group other than hydrogen belongs to the class, (a) Oxidoreductase, (b) Transferase, (c) Hydrolase, (d) Ligase, 120. Enzymes which catalyse hydrolysis of ester, ether, peptide, glycosidic bond belongs to the, class, (a) Oxidoreductase, (b) Transferase, (c) Hydrolase, (d) Ligase, 121. Enzymes that catalyse removal of groups from substrates by mechanisms other than, hydrolysis leaving double bonds is known as, (a) Oxidoreductase, (b) Transferase, (c) Hydrolase, (d) Lyase, 122. Enzymes which catalyse the inter-conversion of optical, geometric or positional isomers, belongs to the class of class, (a) Isomerase, (b) Transferase, (c) Hydrolase, (d) Ligase, 123. Enzymes catalysing the linking together of two compounds, for example enzymes which, catalyse the joining of C-O, C-S, C-N, P-O, etc., bonds, belongs to the class of, (a) Isomerases, (b) Transferases, (c) Hydrolases, (d) Ligases, 124. How many types of cofacter can be identified?, (a) 1, (b) 2, (c) 3, , (d) 4, , 125. The suffix ‘–’ added to substrate for naming the enzyme is, (a) –ase, (b) –in, (c) –zyme, , (d) –ose, , 126. Ptylin is an example of, (a) Oxidoreductase, (b) Transferase, , (d) Ligase, , (c) Hydrolase, , 127. When Apoenzyme is separated from its metal component, its activity is, (a) Decreased, (b) Increased, (c) Lost, (d) Remains unaffected, 128. Cofactors are, (a) Prosthetic groups, (c) Metallic ions, , (b) Co-enzymes, (d) All of these, , 129. Which of the following combinations is correct?, (a) Metal ions loosely attached with Apoenzyme–Activators., (b) Non-protein organic part attached tightly to the Apoenzyme–Prosthetic group., (c) Non-protein organic part attached loosely to the Apoenzyme–Coenzyme., (d) All of these
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9.16Biomolecules, , 130. Which one of the following is not a cofactor?, (a) Coenzyme, (b) Metal ions, , (c) Prosthetic group, , 131. Haem is a prosthetic group of _________ enzyme, (a) Peroxidase, (b) Catalase, (c) Both (a) and (b), 132. Zn is an activator of _________ enzyme., (a) Carbonic anhydrase, (c) Carboxylases, , (d) Apoenzyme, (d) None of these, , (b) Carboxypeptidase, (d) All of these, , 133. Which of the following statement is correct?, (1) Catalytic activity is lost when the co-factor is removed from the enzyme., (2) Coenzyme nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD) and NADP contains the vitamin, niacin., (3) Biomacromolecules have a hierarchy of structures such as primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary., (4) Enzymes lower the activation energy of reactions and enhance greatly the rate of the, reactions., (5) Nucleic acids carry hereditary information and are passed on from parental generation to, progeny., (a) 1 and 5 only, (b) 2 and 3 only, (c) 2 and 5 only, (d) All of these, 134. The figure given below shows the conversion of a substrate into product by an enzyme. In, which one of the options (a to d) the components of reaction labelled as A, B, C and D are, identified correctly?, B, , D, , C, A, , Substrate (s), , Product (p), Progress of reaction, , A, , B, , C, , D, , (a) Potential energy, , Transition state Activation energy Activation energy without, with enzyme, enzyme, , (b) Transition state, , Potential energy Activation energy Activation energy with enzyme, without enzyme, , (c) Potential energy, , Transition state Activation energy Activation energy with enzyme, without enzyme, , (d) Activation energy Transition state Activation energy Potential energy, with enzyme, without enzyme
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Biomolecules9.17, , Assertion and Reason Questions, Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given, below:, (a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the, assertion., (b) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the, assertion., (c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false., (d) If both the assertion and reason are false., 135. Assertion: Arachidonic acid is an unsaturated fatty acid., Reason: There are one or more double bonds which are present between the carbon atoms in, unsaturated fatty acids., 136. Assertion: Amino acids are amphoteric in their function., Reason: All amino acids are necessary for our body., 137. Assertion: Coenzyme is a nonprotein group without which enzymes are inactive or incomplete., Reason: Coenzymes not only provide a point of attachment for the chemical group being, transformed but also influence the properties of the group., 138. Assertion: Activity of an enzyme is pH dependent., Reason: Change in pH, affects the solubility of the enzyme in water., 139. Assertion: The coenzymes or metal ions that is very tightly bound to enzyme protein is called, prosthetic group., Reason: A complete, catalytically active enzyme together with its bound prosthetic group is, called apoenzyme., 140. Assertion: Enzymes are proteins which catalyse the biochemical reactions., Reason: The enzymes itself is unchanged in the reaction, its presence allows the reaction to, take place., 141. Assertion: Simple carbohydrates having free aldose or ketose group are called reducing, sugars., Reason: They can reduce cupric ion to cuprous state., 142. Assertion: Protein amino acids possess an amino group attached to a carbon (α amino acid)., Reason: Proline and hydroxyproline have NH (imino group) so they are imino acids., 143. Assertion: Linolenic acid is the precursor of arachidonic acid., Reason: Ascorbic acid is a sugar acid having NH2 group., 144. Assertion: Protein is a heteropolymer., Reason: Protein is made up of amino acid., 145. Assertion: Watson–Crick model of DNA is the secondary structure of DNA., Reason: It contains covalent as well as hydrogen bond., 146. Assertion: The total number of amino acids involved in protein synthesis in plants is 20., Reason: Only 20 amino acids have been discovered so far.
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9.18Biomolecules, , 147. Assertion: In human body ‘collagen’ is the most abundant protein., Reason: Scleroproteins occurs in hard parts of animals body for providing support and, protection., 148. Assertion: Living state is a non–equilibrium steady state to be able to perform work., Reason: System at equilibrium cannot perform work., 149. Assertion: ATP is energy currency of cell., Reason: ATP is formed in catabolic pathway., 150. Assertion: There are two hydrogen bond exist between A&T., Reason: There are three hydrogen bond exist between G&C., 151. Assertion: The distance between adjacent base pair in B- DNA is 3.4 A°., Reason: One full turn of helical strand of B-DNA contain 10 bp and the length of this pitch, is 34 A°., 152. Assertion: In proteins only left handed helix are observed exists in nature., Reason: Protein found only in secondary structure., 153. Assertion: Tertiary structure is necessary for the many biological activities of proteins., Reason: Tertiary structure in 3-dimentional view of protein., 154. Assertion: DNA is called deoxyribonucleic acid., Reason: DNA is nucleic acid containing deoxyribose sugar., 155. Assertion: RuBisCO is most abundant protein in the whole biosphere., Reason: RuBisCO is present in all animal cells., 156. Assertion: Starch forms complex with I2., Reason: Starch forms secondary helical structure., 157. Assertion: Cellulose is homo polymer., Reason: Cellulose formed of only one type of monosaccharide viz. glucose, 158. Assertion: Co-factor play sepical role in the catalytic activity of enzyme., Reason: Catalytic activity is lost when co-factor is removed., 159. Assertion: Living organism contain only biomolecules, Reason: Biomolecules are made up of carbon atoms only, 160. Assertion: DNA and RNA consists of nucleotides only, Reason: Nucleotides are monomer of Nucleic acid, 161. Assertion: Biomacromolecules are those which are found in acid soluble fraction, Reason: Biomacromolecules gave molecular weight less than 1000 dalton., 162. Assertion: Starch with I2 gives blue colour because of starch I2 complex., Reason: Starch Can hold I2 in their helical portion, 163. Assertion: Cellulose doesn’t give colour with I2, Reason: Cellulose doesn’t contain helix which can hold I2
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Biomolecules9.19, , 164. Assertion: In polysaccharide chain the right end is reducing, Reason: The right end contain free anomeric -OH group., 165. Assertion: Chitin is homopolymer., Reason: Chitin is made up of only one type of monomer i.e. N-acetylglucosamine., 166. Assertion: The first amino acid in primary structure protein is called as N-terminal amino, acid., Reason: NH2 group of first amino acid is free, not bound to form peptide bond., 167. Assertion: Oil containing PUFA are good for health., Reason: They reduce blood cholesterol level. Thus, decreases chance of heart diseases., 168. Assertion: A B-DNA structure proposed by Watson and Crick is secondary structure., Reason: B- DNA contains hydrogen bond in addition to covalent bond., 169. Assertion: Conversion of glucose to lactic acid in our skeletal muscle is catabolic pathways., Reason: In this metabolic pathway complex structure is degraded to simpler one., 170. Assertion: All enzymes are protein., Reason: RNA can’t act as enzyme ., 171. Assertion: Enzymes isolated from thermophilic organisms are thermally stable., Reason: They retain their catalytic power even at higher temperature., 172. Assertion: Enzyme increases the rate of biochemical reactions., Reason: Enzymes lower down the energy of activation., , previous year questions, 1. The figure given below shows the conversion of a substrate into product by an enzyme. In, which one of the four options (a to d) the components of reaction labelled as A, B, C and D are, identified correctly?, , [AIPMT MAINS 2010], A, C, D, B, , Substrate, , Product, Progress of reaction
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9.20Biomolecules, , (a) A: Potential energy, B: Transition state, C: Activation energy with enzyme, D: Activation, energy without enzyme, (b) , A: Transition state, B: Potential energy, C: Activation energy without enzyme,, D: Activation energy with enzyme, (c) A: Potential energy, B: Transition state, C: Activation energy with enzyme, D: Activation, energy without enzyme, (d) A: Activation energy with enzyme, B: Transition state, C: Activation energy without, enzyme, D: Potential energy, 2. Three of the following statements about enzymes are correct and one is wrong. Which one is, wrong?, , [AIPMT MAINS 2010], (a) Enzymes require optimum pH for maximal activity., (b) Enzymes are denatured at high temperature but in certain exceptional organisms they are, effective even at temperatures from 80°–90°C., (c) Enzymes are highly specific., (d) Most of the enzymes are proteins but some are lipids., 3. Which one of the following structural formulae of two organic compounds is correctly identified along with its related function?, , [AIPMT PRE 2011], O, , CH2, , O, R2, , C, , O, , O, , NH2, R, , N, , O, , CH, CH2, , C, , O, , P, , N, O, , CH2, , OH, , CH2, N, , CH3, , CH, CH2 3, , (A), , (a) A: Triglyceride, , Major source of energy, , (b) B: Uracil, , A component of DNA, , (c) A: Lecithin, , A component of cell membrane, , (d) B: Adenine, , A nucleotide that makes up nucleic acids, , NH, , N, (B), , 4. Select the correct option with respect to mitosis., , [AIPMT PRE 2011], (a) Chromatids start moving towards opposite poles in telophase., (b) Golgi complex and endoplasmic reticulum are still visible at the end of prophase., (c) Chromosomes move to the spindle equator and get aligned along the equatorial plate in, metaphase., (d) Chromatids separate but remains at the centre of the cell in anaphase., 5. The curve given below shows enzymatic activity with relation to three conditions (pH, temperature and substrate concentration)
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Y-axis, , Biomolecules9.21, , X-axis, , What do the two axes (X and Y) represent?, , X-axis, , [AIPMT PRE 2011], , Y-axis, , (a) Temperature, , Enzyme activity, , (b) Substrate concentration, , Enzymatic activity, , (c) Enzymatic activity, , Temperature, , (d) Enzymatic activity, , pH, , 6. Which one of the following biomolecules is correctly characterized?, , [AIPMT MAINS 2012], (a) Palmitic acid - An unsaturated fatty acid with 18 carbon atoms., (b) Adenylic acid - Adenosine with a glucose phosphate molecule., (c) Alanine amino acid - Contains an amino group and an acidic group anywhere in the, molecule., (d) Lecithin - A phosphorylated glyceride found in cell membrane., 7. Given below is the diagrammatic representation of one of the categories of small molecular, weight organic compounds in the living tissues. Identify the category shown and the one blank, component ‘X’ in it., HOCH2, , OH, , O, , “X”, , OH, , , (a), (b), (c), (d), , [AIPMT PRE 2012], Category, Cholesterol, Amino acid, Nucleotide, Nucleoside, , Component, Guanin, NH2, Adenine, Uracil, , 8. Which one is the most abundant protein in the animal world?, , (a) Trypsin, (b) Haemoglobin, (c) Collagen, (d) Insulin, , [AIPMT PRE 2012]
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9.22Biomolecules, , 9. Which one out of A to D given below correctly represents the structural formula of the basic, amino acid?, , H, , (A), , (B), , (C), , (D), , NH2, , NH2, , CH2OH, , NH2, , C, , COOH, , H, , C, , COOH, , CH2, , H, , C, , COOH, , CH2, , CH2, , CH2, , CH2, , COOH, , OH, , NH2, , CH2, CH2, CH2, NH2, , , Options:, (a) C, , [AIPMT PRE 2012], (b) D, , (c) A, , (d) B, , 10. The transition state structure of the substrate formed during an enzymatic reaction is, , [AIPMT AIPMT 2013], (a) Transient but stable, (b) Permanent but unstable, (c) Transient and unstable, (d) Permanent and stable, 11. A phosphoglyceride is always made up of, , [AIPMT AIPMT 2013], (a) Only a saturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is, also attached., (b) Only an unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate, group is also attached., (c) A saturated or unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate, group is also attached., (d) A saturated or unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a phosphate group which is also attached, to a glycerol molecule., 12. Macromolecule chitin is, , (a) Nitrogen containing polysaccharide, (b) Phosphorus containing polysaccharide, (c) Sulphur containing polysaccharide, (d) Simple polysaccharide, 13. The essential chemical components of many coenzymes are, , (a) Proteins, (b) Nucleic acids, (c) Carbohydrates, (d) Vitamins, , [AIPMT 2013], , [AIPMT 2013]
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Biomolecules9.23, , 14. Select the option which is not correct with respect to enzyme action, , [AIPMT 2014], (a) Substrate binds with enzyme at its active site, (b) Addition of lot of succinate does not reverse the inhibition of Succinic dehydrogenase by, malonate, (c) A non – competitive inhibitor binds the enzyme at a site distinct from that which binds the, substrate, (d) Malonate is a competitive inhibitor of Succinic dehydrogenase, 15. Which one of the following is non reducing carbohydrate?, , [AIPMT 2014], (a) Maltose, (b) Sucrose, (c) Lactose, (d) Ribulose 5 – phosphate, 16. Which one of the following statement is incorrect?, , [AIPMT 2015], (a) A competitive inhibitor reacts reversibly with the enzyme to form an enzyme inhibitor, complex, (b) In competitive inhibition, the inhibitor molecule is not chemically change by the enzyme, (c) The competitive inhibitor does not affect the rate of breakdown of the enzyme subtract, complex, (d) The present of the competitive inhibitor decreases the Km of the enzyme for the substrate., 17. The chitinous exoskeleton of arthropods is formed by the polymerization of:, , [RE-AIPMT 2015], (a) D – glucosamine, (b) N – acetyl glucosamine, (c) Lipoglycans, (d) Keratin sulphate and chondroitin sulphate, 18. Which of the following biomolecules does have a phosphodiester bond?, , [RE-AIPMT 2015], (a) Monosaccharides in a polysaccharide, (b) Amino acids in a polypeptide, (c) Nucleis acids in a nucleotide, (d) Fatty acids in a diglycerides, 19. One of the major components of cell wall of most fungi is:, (a) Chitin, (b) Peptidoglacan, (c) Cellulose, (d) Hemicellulose, , [NEET - I, 2016], , 20. Which one of the following statements is wrong?, (a) Sucrose is a disaccharide, (b) Cellulose is a polysaccharide, (c) Uracil is a pyrimidine, (d) Glycine is a sulphur containing amino acid, , [NEET - I, 2016], , 21. A typical molecule is made up of:, (a) Three glycerol molecules and one fatty acid molecule, (b) One glycerol and three fatty acid molecules, (c) One glycerol and one fatty acid molecule, (d) Three glycerol and three fatty acid molecules, , [NEET - I, 2016], , 22. A non-proteinaceous enzyme is, (a) Ribozyme, (c) Deoxyribonuclease, , [NEET - II, 2016], (b) Ligase, (d) Lysozyme
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9.24Biomolecules, , 23. Which of the following is the least likely to be involved in stabilizing the three-dimensional, folding of most proteins?, [NEET - II, 2016], (a) Electrostatic interaction, (b) Hydrophobic interaction, (c) Ester bonds, (d) Hydrogen bonds, 24. Which of the following describes the given graph correctly?, , [NEET - II, 2016], , Potential energy, , B, A, Substrate, , Product, Reaction, , (a), (b), (c), (d), , Exothermic reaction with energy A in presence of enzyme and B in absence of enzyme, Endothermic reaction with energy A in absence of enzyme and B in presence of enzyme, Exothermic reaction with energy A in absence of enzyme and B in presence of enzyme, Endothermic reaction with energy A in presence of enzyme and B in absence of enzyme, , NCERT Exemplar Questions, 1. lt is said that the elemental composition of living organisms and that of inanimate objects (like, earth’s crust) are similar in the sense that all the major elements are present in both. Then what, would be the difference between these two groups? Choose a correct answer from among the, following:, (a) Living organisms have more gold in them than inanimate objects., (b) Living organisms have more water in their body than inanimate objects., (c) Living organisms have more carbon, oxygen and hydrogen per unit mass than inanimate, objects., (d) Living organisms have more calcium in them than inanimate objects., 2. Many elements are found in living organisms either free or in the form of compounds. One of, the following is not found in living organisms., (a) Silicon, (b) Magnesium, (c) Iron, (d) Sodium, 3. Amino acids, as the name suggests, have both an amino group and a carboxyl group in their, structure. In addition, all naturally occurring amino acids (those which are found in proteins), are called L–amino acids. From this, can you guess from which compound can the simplest, amino acid be made?, (a) Formic acid, (b) Methane, (c) Phenol, (d) Glycine
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Biomolecules9.25, , 4. Many organic substances are negatively charged, for e.g., acetic acid, while others are positively charged for e.g., ammonium ion. An amino acid under certain conditions would have, both positive and negative charges simultaneously in the same molecule. Such a form of amino, acid is called, (a) Positively charged form, (b) Negatively charged form, (c) Neutral form, (d) Zwitterionic form, 5. Sugars are technically called carbohydrates referring to the fact that their formulae are only, multiple of C(H2O). Hexoses therefore have six carbons, twelve hydrogen’s and six oxygen, atoms. Glucose is a hexose. Choose another hexose from among the following., (a) Fructose, (b) Erythrose, (c) Ribulose, (d) Ribose, 6. When you take cells or tissue pieces and grind them with an acid in a mortar and pestle, all, the small biomolecules dissolves in the acid. Proteins, polysaccharides and nucleic acids are, insoluble in mineral acid and get precipitated. The acid soluble compounds include amino, acids, nucleosides, small sugars, etc. When one adds a phosphate group to a nucleoside one, gets another acid soluble biomolecule called, (a) Nitrogen base, (b) Adenine, (c) Sugar phosphate, (d) Nucleotide, 7. When we homogenize any tissue in an acid, the acid soluble pool represents, (a) Cytoplasm, (b) Cell membrane, (c) Nucleus, (d) Mitochondria, 8. The most abundant chemical in living organisms could be, (a) Protein, (b) Water, (c) Sugar, (d) Nucleic acid, 9. A homopolymer has only one type of building block called monomer repeated ‘n’ number of, times. A heteropolymer has more than one type of monomers. Proteins are heteropolymers, made of amino acids. While a nucleic acid like DNA or RNA is made of only 4 types of, nucleotide monomers, proteins are made of, (a) 20 types of monomers, (b) 40 types of monomers, (c) 3 types of monomers, (d) Only one type of monomer, 10. Proteins perform many physiological functions. For example, some functions as enzymes., One of the following represents an additional function that some proteins discharge, (a) Antibiotics, (b) Pigments conferring colour to skin, (c) Pigments making colours of flowers, (d) Hormones, 11. Glycogen is a homopolymer made of, (a) Glucose units, (c) Ribose units, , (b) Galactose units, (d) Amino units, , 12. The number of ‘ends’ in a glycogen molecule would be, (a) Equal to the number of branches plus one., (b) Equal to the number of branch points., (c) One, (d) Two, one on the left side and another on the right side.
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9.26Biomolecules, , 13. The primary structure of a protein molecule has two ends., (a) Two ends, (b) One end, (c) Three ends, (d) No ends, 14. Enzymes are biocatalysts. They catalyse biochemical, reactions. In general they reduce the, activation energy of reactions. Many physicochemical processes are enzyme mediated. Some, examples of enzyme mediated reactions are given below. Tick the wrong entry., (a) Dissolving CO2 in water, (b) Unwinding the two strands of DNA, (c) Hydrolysis of sucrose, (d) Formation of peptide bond, , Answer Keys, Practice Questions, 1. (d), 11. (a), 21. (d), 31. (c), 41. (a), 51. (c), 61. (c), 71. (c), 81. (d), 91. (c), 101. (b), 111. (d), 121. (d), 131. (c), , 2. (d), 12. (a), 22. (c), 32. (a), 42. (b), 52. (b), 62. (b), 72. (d), 82. (c), 92. (d), 102. (d), 112. (a), 122. (a), 132. (d), , 3. (a), 13. (b), 23. (b), 33. (c), 43. (a), 53. (d), 63. (b), 73. (d), 83. (b), 93. (c), 103. (b), 113. (d), 123. (d), 133. (d), , 4. (b), 5. (d), 6. (d), 7. (c), 8. (c), 9. (b) 10. (c), 14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (d) 17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (d) 20. (c), 24. (c) 25. (b) 26. (a) 27. (d) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (d), 34. (d) 35. (b) 36. (d) 37. (d) 38. (a) 39. (b) 40. (d), 44. (d) 45. (b) 46. (d) 47. (d) 48. (b) 49. (c) 50. (a), 54. (d) 55. (d) 56. (d) 57. (b) 58. (a) 59. (a) 60. (b), 64. (c) 65. (d) 66. (d) 67. (d) 68. (b) 69. (b) 70. (d), 74. (d) 75. (a) 76. (c) 77. (c) 78. (c) 79. (b) 80. (c), 84. (b) 85. (a) 86. (b) 87. (d) 88. (d) 89. (c) 90. (d), 94. (c) 95. (a) 96. (d) 97. (b) 98. (c) 99. (d) 100. (c), 104. (d) 105. (d) 106. (b) 107. (a) 108. (b) 109. (c) 110. (c), 114. (d) 115. (b) 116. (d) 117. (a) 118. (a) 119. (b) 120. (c), 124. (c) 125. (a) 126. (c) 127. (c) 128. (d) 129. (d) 130. (d), 134. (a), Assertion and Reason Questions, , 135. (a), 145. (a), 155. (c), 165. (a), , 136. (b), 146. (c), 156. (a), 166. (a), , 137. (a), 147. (b), 157. (a), 167. (a), , 138. (a), 148. (a), 158. (a), 168. (a), , 139. (c), 149. (b), 159. (d), 169. (a), , 140. (b), 150. (b), 160. (a), 170. (d), , 141. (a), 151. (a), 161. (d), 171. (a), , 142. (b) 143. (c) 144. (b), 152. (d) 153. (b) 154. (a), 162. (a) 163. (a) 164. (a), 172. (a), , Previous Year Questions, 1. (b), 11. (c), 21. (b), , 2. (d), 12. (a), 22. (a), , 3. (c), 13. (d), 23. (c), , 4. (c), 14. (b), 24. (a), , 5. (a), 15. (b), , 6. (d), 16. (d), , 7. (d), 17. (b), , 8. (c), 18. (c), , 9. (b), 19. (a), , 10. (c), 20. (d), , 8. (b), , 9. (a), , 10. (d), , NCERT Exemplar Questions, 1. (c), 11. (a), , 2. (a), 12. (a), , 3. (b), 13. (a), , 4. (d), 14. (a), , 5. (a), , 6. (d), , 7. (a)
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Cell Cycle and, Cell Division, , CHAPTER, , 10, , prACtiCe Questions, Cell Cycle, 1. All organism starts its life with, (a) Single cell, (b) Many cells, (c) Few cells, (d) Few organs, 2. The sequence of events by which a cell duplicates its genome, synthesize the other constituent, of cells and eventually divides itself into two daughter cells is termed as, (a) Cytology, (b) Cell division, (c) Cell cycle, (d) Cell biology, 3. Which of the following is correct about cell cycle?, (a) All events occur in coordinated manner., (b) All events are under genetic control., (c) DNA synthesis occurs only during one specific stage in the cell cycle., (d) All of these, 4. Cell growth (increase in cytoplasm) is a, (a) Continuous process, (b) Discontinuous process, (c) Irregular process, (d) Retrogressive process, 5. Our cell can divide itself once approximately in, (a) 24 hours, (b) 24 minutes, (c) 24 seconds, (d) 24 days, 6. Duration of a cell cycle in yeast is approximately, (a) 90 seconds, (b) 90 minutes, (c) 20 minutes, 7. Identify A, B, C and D in the below diagram:, A, , B, , G0, , D, , (a) A–G1, B–S, C–G2, D–M Phase, (c) A–S, B–G2, C–G1, D–M Phase, M Phase, 8. M-phase in human cell lasts for, (a) 1 hour, (b) 2 hours, , C, , Pr, , op, ha, , se, , sis, kine, Cyto, se, pha se, Telo pha ase, a, h, An tap, e, M, , (d) 45 minutes, , (b) A–G2, B–M Phase, C–G1, D–S, (d) A–M Phase, B–G1, C–G1, D–S, , (c) 23 hours, , (d) 4 hours
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10.2, , Cell Cycle and Cell Division, , 9. Which of the following is correct about Interphase?, (a) It is the phase present between two successive M-phase., (b) It lasts for more than 95 per cent in the duration of cell cycle in human cell., (c) It is also known as resting phase., (d) All the above, 10. Select the correct matching:, Column I, –, A. G1 Phase, B. Cytokinesis, –, C. Karyokinesis, –, D. S phase, –, (a) B‒1, C‒2, A‒3, D‒4 , (c) D‒1, C‒2, B‒3, A‒4 , , 1., 2., 3., 4., , Column II, Gap 1 Phase, Nuclear division, Cytoplasmic division, Synthesis phase, (b) A‒1, C‒2, B‒3, D‒4, (d) A‒1, D‒2, B‒3, C‒4, , 11. G1 phase is not characterized by, (a) Continuous growth, (c) DNA replication, , (b) Active metabolism, (d) Non-replication of DNA, , 12. S-phase is not characterized by, (a) DNA duplication, (b) No increase in chromosome number, (c) DNA replication, (d) Duplication of centriole in nucleus of eukaryotic animal cell, 13. What occurs continuously when cell is divided into G1, S and G2 phase?, (a) DNA Replication, (b) DNA Duplication, (c) Centriole duplication, (d) Growth of cell, 14. If a cell has 2n number of chromosome in G1 phase, what is the number of chromosome in, cell after S-phase?, (a) n, (b) 4n, (c) 2n, (d) 8n, 15. Identify A, B and C in the below diagram., , A, , (a), (b), (c), (d), , B, , C, , A–Interphase, B–Telophase, C–Anaphase, A–Anaphase, B–Telophase, C–Interphase, A–Telophase, B–Interphase, C–Anaphase, A–Interphase, B–Anaphase, C–Telophase, , 16. The cells which do not divide enter ____ phase from G1 phase., (a) S-phase, (b) Directly G2-phase (c) G0-phase, , (d) Any one of these
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Cell Cycle and Cell Division10.3, , 17. G0 phase is characterized by, (a) DNA duplication, (c) S-phase, , (b) Active metabolism, (d) M-phase, , 18. Select the incorrect statement from the following:, (a) In animals, mitotic cell division is only seen in the diploid somatic cells., (b) Plants can show mitotic division in both haploid and diploid cells., (c) In an adult’s heart, the cells does not divide., (d) All organisms starts their life cycle from multiple cell., 19. Mitosis is further divided in ____ stages of cytoplasmic division?, (a) 1, (b) 2, (c) 3, , (d) None of these, , 20. Prophase is characterized by, (a) Initiation of condensation of chromosomal material., (b) Centrioles moving towards opposite pole., (c) Initiation of the assembly of mitotic spindle., (d) All of these, 21. Cells at the end of prophase, when viewed under the microscope, do not show, (a) Golgi body and ER, (b) Nucleolus, (c) Nuclear envelop, (d) All of these, 22. Which of the following initiates the start of metaphase?, (a) Completion of bivalent chromosome formation, (b) Assemblage of microtubules of nucleoplasm, (c) Complete disintegration of nuclear envelope, (d) Duplication of chromosome, 23. Metaphase is not characterized by, (a) Complete condensation of chromosome, (b) Alignment of chromosome on metaphase plants, (c) Attachment of spindle fibre to kinetochore, (d) Splitting of chromosome, 24. Indentify A, B, C and D in the below mitosis diagram., , (a), (b), (c), (d), , A, , B, , C, , D, , A–Transition to Metaphase, B–Metaphase, C–Early Prophase, D–Late Prophase, A–Late Prophase, B–Transition to Metaphase, C–Metaphase, D–Early Prophase, A–Early Prophase, B–Late Prophase, C–Transition to Metaphase, D–Metaphase, A–Metaphase, B–Early Prophase, C–Late Prophase, D–Transition to Metaphase
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10.4, , Cell Cycle and Cell Division, , 25. Anaphase is characterized by, (a) Splitting of centromere, (b) Separation of chromatids, (c) Movement of chromatid to opposite pole, (d) All of these, 26. Events of telophase are, (a) Chromosomes cluster at opposite spindle poles and their identity is lost as discrete, elements., (b) Nuclear envelope assembles around the chromosome cluster., (c) Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER reforms, (d) All the above, 27. Furrow formation does not occur in plant cell during cytokinesis because of, (a) Extensible cell wall, (b) Inextensible cell wall, (c) Extensible plasma membrane, (d) Inextensible plasma membrane, 28. Select the total number of correct statement:, I. Cell-plate formation occurs in plant cell during cytokinesis., II. During cytokinesis mitochondria and plastid gets distributed between two daughter cells, in mitosis., III. Liquid endosperm in coconut is syncytium., IV. Furrow formation occurs in Animal cell during cytokinesis, (a) 1, (b) 2, (c) 3, (d) 4, 29. Cell which divides by mitosis is, (a) Upper layer of epidermis, (c) Stem cells, , (b) Cells lining gut, (d) All of these, , 30. Plant shows continuous growth throughout their life because of, (a) Mitosis, (b) Amitosis, (c) Meiosis, 31. Mitosis helps, (a) Growth, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (d) All of these, , (b) Repair, (d) None of these, , 32. Which of the following holds true about meiosis?, I. It ensures the production of haploid phase in the life cycle of sexually reproducing, organism where fertilization restores the diploid phase., II. It involves the two sequential cycle of nuclear and cell division called meiosis I and II but, only a single cycle of DNA replication., III. It involves the pairing of homologous chromosomes and recombination between them., IV. Four haploid cells are formed at the end of meiosis., (a) I, II, IV only, (b) IV only, (c) I and III only, (d) All of these, 33. Prophase I is divided into how many phases based on the chromosomal behaviour?, (a) 1, (b) 2, (c) 4, (d) 5, 34. Synaptonemal complex formes in, (a) Zygotene, (b) Pachytene, , (c) Diplotene, , (d) Diakinesis
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Cell Cycle and Cell Division10.5, , 35. Select the correct statement from the following:, (a) In leptotene stage the chromosomes become gradually visible under light microscope., (b) During zygotene the heterologous chromosome shows pairing., (c) Chiasmata is a J-shape structure formed in diplotene., (d) Pachytene is characterized by the formation of synaptonemal complex., 36. Recombination is seen in, (a) Diplotene, (c) Pachytene, , (b) Zygotene or synaptotene, (d) Diakinesis, , 37. Synaptonemal complex is visible in, (a) Compound microscope, (c) Hand lens, , (b) Simple microscope, (d) Electron microscope, , 38. Crossing over is an exchange of genetic material between, (a) Homologous chromosome, (b) Heterologus chromosome, (c) Non-homologous chromosome, (d) All of these, 39. The beginning of diplotene is characterized by, (a) Recombination, (c) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex, , (b) Synapsis, (d) Formation of tetrad, , 40. Diakinesis is characterized by, (a) Condensation of chromosome, (b) Assemblage of spindle, (c) Disappearance of nucleous and nuclear membrane, (d) All the above, 41. Homologous chromosomes gets separate during, (a) Metaphase-I, (b) Anaphase-I, (c) Anaphase-II, , (d) Telophase-I, , 42. The stage between two meiosis is, (a) M-phase, (b) Interphase, , (d) Interkinesis, , (c) S-phase, , 43. Which of the following statement is incorrect?, (a) Prophase II is simpler than prophase I., (b) Prophase I is longer and complex than prophase of mitosis., (c) Nuclear membrane reappears in telophase I., (d) Anaphase II is not characterized by the splitting of centromere., 44. Meiosis is significant because it, (a) Increases genetic variability, (b) Helps in the conservation of specific chromosome number, (c) Is important for evolution, (d) All of these, 45. Most of the cell organelle duplicates during, (b) S-phase, (a) G1 phase, 46. Reduction of the division is, (a) Meiosis, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (c) G2 phase, (b) Mitosis, (d) None of these, , (d) M-phase
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10.6, , Cell Cycle and Cell Division, , 47. The main difference between dividing an animal and plant cell lies in, (a) Cell plate formation, (b) Chromosome movement, (c) Coiling of chromosome, (d) Chromosome division, 48. Which of the following cells do not divide once it is differentiated?, (a) Interstitial cells, (b) Nerve cells, (c) Myeloid cells, 49. Mitosis occurs in, (a) Haploid cells only, (c) Triploid cells only, , (d) Glial cells, , (b) Diploid cells only, (d) Both (a) and (b), , 50. Interphase is also called resting stage because, (a) Cell has stopped differentiation, (b) Cell is metabolically inactive, (c) No visible changes occur in the nucleus, (d) Cell does not grow, 51. Diploid somatic cells is divided by, (a) Meiosis, (c) Both meiosis and mitosis., , (b) Mitosis only, (d) None of these, , 52. Cell division takes place when the cell, (a) Is haploid, (c) Attains optimum growth, , (b) Becomes diploid, (d) Any time, , 53. Before cell division, the entire DNA content of the cell gets doubled during interphase.This, doubling takes place, (a) Throughout the interphase, (b) At the beginning of the interphase, (c) At the end of the interphase, (d) Somewhere during the middle of the interphase, 54. Cell cycle is divisible into, (a) karyokinesis and cytokinesis, (c) Interphase and mitotic phase, , (b) Interphase and prophase, (d) M-phase and S-phase, , 55. The correct sequence of stages in cell cycle is, (b) G1, G2, S, M, (c) M, S, G1, G2, (a) G1, S, G2, M, , (d) G2, G1, M, S, , 56. Condensation of chromosome with visible centromere occurs during, (b) G2 phase, (c) S-phase, (a) G1 phase, , (d) M-phase, , 57. Synthesis of RNA and proteins takes place in, (a) M-phase, (c) G1 phase, , (b) S-phase, (d) G1 and G2 phases, , 58. Mitosis is, (a) Karyokinesis, (c) Reduction in chromosome number, , (b) Cytokinesis, (d) Both (a) and (b), , 59. As compared to meiosis, in mitosis, (a) Homologous chromosomes form pairs, (b) Daughters have half chromosome number, (c) Telophase stage is absent, (d) Prophase is shorter
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Cell Cycle and Cell Division10.7, , 60. The cellular structure which always disappears during mitosis or meiosis is, (a) Plastids, (b) Plasma membrane, (c) Nucleolus and nuclear envelope., (d) None of these, 61. Chromosomes are arranged at equatorial plate of division spindle in, (a) Prophase, (b) Metaphase, (c) Anaphase, , (d) Telophase, , 62. Chromosomes can be counted best at the stage of, (a) Prophase, (b) Anaphase, (c) Metaphase, , (d) Telophase, , 63. The best stage to observe the shape, size and number of chromosomes is, (a) Interphase, (b) Metaphase, (c) Prophase, (d) Telophase, 64. Spindle fibres are made up of, (a) Proteins, (b) Lipids, , (c) Cellulose, , 65. Mitotic spindle is mainly composed of the protein, (a) Actin, (b) Actomyosin, (c) Tubulin, , (d) Pectin, (d) Myoglobin, , 66. The separation of daughter chromosomes occurs in, (a) The beginning of anaphase, (b) Metaphase, (c) Late prophase, (d) Early prophase, 67. At which stage of mitosis, the chromatids separate and start moving towards poles?, (a) Prophase, (b) Metaphase, (c) Anaphase, (d) Telophase, 68. Mitotic anaphase differs from metaphase in possessing, (a) Same number of chromosomes and half number of chromatids., (b) Half the number of chromosomes and same number of chromatids., (c) Half the number of chromosomes and half number of chromatids., (d) Same number of chromosomes and same number of chromatids., 69. Animal cells undergo cytokinesis by, (a) Furrowing, (b) Cell plate, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) Furrowing and followed by the deposition of special materials, 70. Significance of mitosis lies in, (a) Producing cells genetically similar to parent cell, (b) Occurrence in energy tissue of body, (c) Increasing cellular mass, (d) Swift division, 71. Mitosis differs from meiosis in, (a) Forming four haploid cells., (b) Pairing of homologous chromosomes and their subsequent separation., (c) Doubling of each chromosome and each pair showing four chromatids., (d) Duplication of chromosomes and subsequent separation of the duplicates., 72. The number of chromosomes present in pollen grains is six. What shall be their number in leaf, cells?, (a) 12, (b) 24, (c) 6, (d) 3
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10.8, , Cell Cycle and Cell Division, , 73. Meiosis occurs in, (a) Liver, , (b) Kidney, , (c) Gonad, , 74. Meiosis is, (a) Disjunctional division, (c) Multiplicational division, , (d) Brain, , (b) Equational division, (d) Reductional division, , 75. The following diagram shows modification of the meiosis I. Identify A, B, C, D., , A, , (a), (b), (c), (d), , B, , C, , D, , A–Telophase I, B–Anaphase I, C–Metaphase I, D–Prophase I, A–Prophase I, B–Metaphase I, C–Anaphase I, D–Telophase I, A–Metaphase I, B–Telophase I, C–Prophase I, D–Anaphase I, A–Anaphase I, B–Prophase I, C–Telophase I, D–Metaphase I, , 76. Meiosis involves, (a) Two nuclear divisions and two chromosome divisions, (b) Two nuclear divisions and one chromosome division, (c) One nuclear division and one chromosome division, (d) One nuclear division and two chromosome divisions, 77. Meiosis occurs in, (a) Haploid cells, (c) Both haploid and diploid cells, , (b) Diploid cells, (d) Triploid cells, , 78. Which of the following statements is correct for meiosis?, (a) First division is equational and the second is reductional, (b) First division is reductional and the second is equational, (c) Both divisions are equational, (d) Both divisions are reductional, 79. Meiosis can be studied in angiosperm in, (a) Root apical meristem, (c) Dividing cells of vascular cambium, , (b) Shoot apical meristem, (d) Dividing pollen mother cells in anther, , 80. How many meiotic divisions are necessary to produce 600 pollen grains?, (a) 50, (b) 100, (c) 150, (d) 300, 81. Before undergoing meiosis, the amount of DNA of a cell, (a) Halves, (b) Doubles, (c) Remains the same, (d) Quadruples
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10.10, , Cell Cycle and Cell Division, , 96. In meiosis I, the centromere undergoes, (a) No division, (b) Division between anaphase and interphase, (c) Division between prophase and metaphase, (d) Division but the daughter chromosomes do not separate, 97. Meiosis II performs, (a) Synthesis of DNA and centromere, (b) Separation of sex chromosomes, (c) Separation of chromatids, (d) Separation of homologous chromosomes, 98. Significance of meiosis lies in the, (a) Reduction of chromosome number to one half., (b) Maintaining the consistency of chromosome number during sexual reproduction., (c) Production of genetic variability., (d) All of these, 99. 200 egg cells are produced by (in meiosis), (a) 50 divisions, (c) 200 divisions, , (b) 100 divisions, (d) 400 divisions, , 100. A cell has 23 pairs of chromosomes just after the completion of mitotic telophase. The number, of chromatids at the preceding metaphase was, (a) 23, (b) 46, (c) 69, (d) 92, 101. In plant cells, cytokinesis occurs by, (a) Furrowing, (c) Anticlinal division, , (b) Invagination, (d) Cell plate formation, , 102. The phase of cell cycle during which ‘DNA polymerase’ is functionally active is, (a) S, (b) G2, (c) G1, (d) M, 103. The number of mitotic divisions required to produce 128 cells from a single cell is, (a) 7, (b) 14, (c) 8, (d) 36, 104. Which statement is correct for meiosis?, (a) Meiosis I is reduction division, (b) Meiosis II is reduction division, (c) Meiosis I and II are both reduction divisions, (d) Meiosis I and II both are not reduction divisions, 105. Which of the following is the longest phase of meiosis?, (a) Prophase I, (b) Anaphase I, (c) Prophase II, (d) Metaphase II
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Cell Cycle and Cell Division10.11, , 106. The following diagram shows modification of the meiosis II for storage. Identify A, B, C, D, from the below figure., A, , B, , C, , D, , (a), (b), (c), (d), , A–Prophase II, B–Metaphase II, C–Anaphase II, D–Telophase II, A–Anaphase II, B–Prophase II, C–Telophase II, D–Metaphase II, A–Metaphase II, B–Telophase II, C–Prophase II, D–Anaphase II, A–Telophase II, B–Anaphase II, C–Metaphase II, D–Prophase II, , 107. G1 phase is, (a) End of mitosis and the start of S-phase, (b) End of S-phase and the start of mitosis, (c) Start of S-phase and the start of mitosis, (d) End of S-phase and the end of mitosis, 108. At which stage of mitosis the chromatids separate and pass to different poles?, (a) Prophase, (b) Metaphase, (c) Anaphase, (d) Telophase, 109. During meiosis, the crossover occurs between, (a) Sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes, (b) Non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes, (c) Sister chromatids of non-homologous chromosomes, (d) Non-homologous chromatids of homologous chromosomes, 110. Which of the following is not true for anaphase?, (a) Golgi body and ER are reformed, (b) Spindle poles move further apart, (c) Chromosomes move to opposite poles, (d) Centromeres split and chromatids separate, 111. The longest phase of meiosis I is, (a) Metaphase I, (b) Prophase I, , (c) Anaphase I, , (d) Telophase I, , 112. Cyclin protein is required for cell cycle. Which other molecule is essential for the completion, of cell cycle?, (a) CCK, (b) CKC, (c) CDK, (d) CKD
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10.12, , Cell Cycle and Cell Division, , 113. Which is the correct statements from the following:, I. Synapsis of homologous chromosomes takes place during prophase I of meiosis., II. Division of centromeres takes place during anaphase I of meiosis., III. Spindle fibres disappear completely in telophase of mitosis., IV. Nucleoli reappear at telophase I of meiosis., (a) I only, (b) III only, (c) I and II only, (d) I, III and IV only, , Assertion and Reason Questions, Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given, below:, (a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the, assertion., (b) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the, assertion., (c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false., (d) If both the assertion and reason are false., 114. Assertion: The complex formed by a pair of synapsed homologous chromosome is called a, bivalent or a tetrad., Reason: The first two stages of prophase I are relatively short lived when compared to the next, stage that is pachytene., 115. Assertion: In oocytes of some vertebrates, the diplotene can last for months or years., Reason: The final stage of meiotic prophase I is diakinesis., 116. Assertion: Variartions are are very important for the process of evolution., Reason: Most of the organelle duplication occur in G1 phase of cell cycle., 117. Assertion: Liquid endosperm in coconut is multinucleated., Reason: Karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis., 118. Assertion: Karyokinesis occurs in S-phase, Reason: Cell division stops in M-phase, 119. Assertion: Interphase is the resting stage., Reason: The interphase cell is metabolically inactive., 120. Assertion: DNA synthesis occurs in G1 and G2 periods of cell cycle., Reason: During G1 and G2 phase the DNA contents become double., 121. Assertion: Mitosis maintains the genetic similarity of somatic cells., Reason: Chromosomes do not undergo crossing over., 122. Assertion: Chiasmata is formed during diplotene., Reason: Chiasmata are formed due to the deposition of nucleoproteins., 123. Assertion: During zygotene, chromosomes show bivalent stage., Reason: Bivalent is half the number of chromosomes., 124. Assertion: Meiosis takes place in pollen mother cells., Reason: Each pollen mother cell produces 4 haploid pollen grains., 125. Assertion: Meiotic division results in the production of haploid cells., Reason: Synapsis occurs during zygotene of meiosis.
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Cell Cycle and Cell Division10.13, , 126. Assertion: Plant shows open growth., Reason: Plant contains meristmetic tissues., 127. Assertion: Prophase is characterised by formation of mitotic chromosome., Reason: Chromosomal material condenses in prophase stage., 128. Assertion: Morphology of chromosome is studied in metaphase stage., Reason: Condensation of chromosome is completed in this stage and can be easily visualised, under microscope., 129. Assertion: Chromatid separation occurs in anaphase stage., Reason: Centromere splitting occurs in anaphase stage., 130. Assertion: In some social insect haploid cells divide by mitosis, Reason: Growth of multicellular organism is due to mitosis, 131. Assertion: Stage between two meiotic divisions (I & II) is referred as interkinesis., Reason: Interkinesis is short lived phase., 132. Assertion: Meiotic division help in evolution process., Reason: Meiosis increases genetic variability in the population., 133. Assertion: The complex formed by a pair of synapsed homologous chromosome is called as, tetrad., Reason: Each of the homologous chromosomes in meiotic prophase I consists a two closely, apposed sister chromatids., 134. Assertion: In oocytes, diplotene can last for months or years, Reason: It is at this stage that chromosome decondense and engage in RNA synthesis, 135. Assertion: Mitosis is called equational division., Reason: Mitosis is the division of parent cell into two identical daughter cells having the same, amount of DNA as in parent cell., 136. Assertion: The interphase is considered as the most active stage of cell cycle., Reason: This phase is a period of intense synthesis and growth, 137. Assertion: Disappearance of nuclear membrane is generally essential for karyokinesis., Reason: Forward movement of chromosomes is dependent on spindle apparatus, which, organise is cytoplasm., 138. Assertion: Kinetochore is essential for cell division., Reason: Kinetochore serves as the sites of attachment of spindle fibres to the chromosome., 139. Assertion: Meiosis is also known as reduction division., Reason: Meiosis reduces the number of chromosome in daughter cells., 140. Assertion: Meiosis produces four genetically dissimilar cells., Reason: Crossing over or gene exchange takes place in meiosis., 141. Assertion: In mitotic metaphase, morphology of chromosomes can most easily study., Reason: Condensation of chromosomes is completed in this stage., 142. Assertion: Cell growth results into division., Reason: Cell growth leads to change in nucleocytoplasmic ratio.
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10.14, , Cell Cycle and Cell Division, , 143. Assertion: During pachytene crossing over takes place which is dependent on recombinase., Reason: Recombinase is the group of enzymes involved in crossing over and crossing over is, an enzyme dependent process., 144. Assertion: Colchicine is a mitotic poison., Reason: Colchicine interferes in the arrangement of spindle fibres., , previous year questions, 1. An elaborate network of filamentous proteinaceous structures present in the cytoplasm which, helps in the maintenance of cell shape is called, , [AIPMT MAINS 2010], (a) Thylakoid, (b) Endoplasmic reticulum, (c) Plasmalemma, (d) Cytoskeleton, 2. During mitosis the ER and nucleolus begins to disappear at, , (a) Late prophase, (b) Early metaphase, (c) Late metaphase, (d) Early prophase, , [AIPMT PRE 2010], , 3. Which stages of cell division do the following figures A and B represent respectively?, , A, , A B, (a) Metaphase, Telophase, (b) Telophase, Metaphase, (c) Late anaphase Prophase, (d) Prophase, Anaphase, , B, , , , [AIPMT PRE 2010], , 4. At metaphase, the chromosomes are attached to the spindle fibres by their, , [AIPMT MAINS 2011], (a) Satellites, (b) Secondary constrictions, (c) Kinetochores, (d) Centromeres, 5. Identify the meiotic stage in which the homologous chromosomes separate while the sister, chromatids remain associated at their centromeres:, , [AIPMT MAINS 2012], (a) Metaphase II, (b) Anaphase I, (c) Anaphase II, (d) Metaphase I
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Cell Cycle and Cell Division10.15, , 6. During gamete formation the enzyme recombinase participates during, , (a) Metaphase I, (b) Anaphase II, (c) Prophase I, (d) Prophase II, , [AIPMT PRE 2012], , 7. Given below is the representation of a certain event at a particular stage of a type of cell division. What is this stage?, , , , , (a) Prophase I during meiosis, (c) Prophase of mitosis, , [AIPMT PRE 2012], , (b) Prophase II during meiosis, (d) Both prophase and metaphase of mitosis, , 8. The complex formed by a pair of synapsed homologous chromosomes is called, , [AIPMT 2013], (a) Equatorial plate, (b) Kinetochore, (c) Bivalent, (d) Axoneme, 9. A stage of cell division is shown in the below figure. Select the answer which gives the correct, identification of this stage with its characteristics., , , , , , [AIPMT 2013], , (a) Telophase, , Nuclear envelope reforms, Golgi complex reforms., , (b) Late anaphase, , Chromosomes move away from the equatorial plate, Golgi complex is, not present., , (c) Cytokinesis, , Cell plate formed by mitochondria is distributed between two daughter, cells., , (d) Telophase, , Endoplasmic reticulum and nucleolus is not reformed yet.
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10.16, , Cell Cycle and Cell Division, , 10. During which phase(s) of cell cycle, the amount of DNA in a cell remains at 4C level if the, initial amount is denoted as 2C?, , [AIPMT 2014], (b) G1 and S, (a) G0 and G1, (d) G2 and M, (c) Only G2, 11. In ‘S’ phase of the cell cycle, , (a) The amount of DNA doubles in each cell., (b) The amount of DNA remains same in each cell., (c) The chromosome number is increased., (d) The amount of DNA is reduced to half in each cell., 12. The enzyme recombinase is required at which state of meiosis, , (a) Pachytene, (b) Zygotene, (c) Diplotene, (d) Diakinesis, 13. Select the correct option., Column I Column II, A. Synapsis aligns homologous, chromosomes, – 1. Anaphase II, B. Synthesis of RNA and protein, –, 2. Zygotene, C. Action of enzyme recombinase, –, 3. G2 phase, D. Centromeres do not separate but chromatids, move towards opposite poles, –, 4. Anaphase I, , (a) A : 2, B : 1, C : 3, D : 4, (b) A : 2, B : 3, C : 1, D : 4, (c) A : 1, B : 2, C : 3, D : 4, (d) A : 2, B : 3, C : 4, D : 1, , [AIPMT 2014], , [AIPMT 2014], , [AIPMT 2015], , 14. A somatic cell that has just completed the S phase of its cell cycle when compared to the gamete of the same species has, , [AIPMT 2015], (a) Twice the number of chromosomes and twice the amount of DNA., (b) Same number of chromosomes but twice the amount of DNA., (c) Twice the number of chromosomes and four times the amount of DNA., (d) Four times the number of chromosomes and twice the amount of DNA., 15. Arrange the following events of meiosis in correct sequence:, , (A) Crossing over, (B) Synapsis, (C) Terminalization of chiasmata, (D) Disappearance of nucleolus, (a) (B), (A), (C), (D), (b) (A), (B), (C), (D), (c) (B), (C), (D), (A), (d) (B), (A), (D), (C), , [RE-AIPMT 2015]
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Cell Cycle and Cell Division10.17, , 16. Spindle fibres attach on to:, (a) Telomere of the chromosome, (c) Centromere of the chromosome, , [NEET - I, 2016], (b) Kinetochore of the chromosome, (d) Kinetosome of the chromosome, , 17. In meiosis crossing over is initiated at:, (a) Pachytene, (c) Zygotene, , (b) Leptotene, (d) Diplotene, , [NEET - I, 2016], , 18. Which of the following is not characteristic feature during mitosis in somatic cells?, , [NEET - I, 2016], (a) Spindle fibres, (b) Disappearance of nucleolus, (c) Chromosome movement, (d) Synapsis, 19. During cell growth, DNA synthesis takes place in, (b) G2 phase, (a) G1 phase, (c) M phase, (d) S phase, , [NEET - II, 2016], , 20. Match the stage of meiosis in Column – I to their characteristic features in Column – II and, select the correct option using the codes given below:, [NEET - II, 2016], Column – I, Column – II, A. Pachytene, 1. Pairing of homologous chromosomes, B. Metaphase I, 2. Terminalisation of chiasmata, C. Diakinesis, 3. Crossing over takes place, D. Zygotene, 4. Chromosomes align at equatorial plate, (a) A : 1, B : 4, C : 2, D : 3, (b) A : 2, B : 4, C : 3, D : 1, (c) A : 4, B : 3, C : 2, D : 1, (d) A : 3, B : 4, C : 2, D : 1, 21. When cell has stalled DNA replication fork which checkpoint should be predominantly activated?, [NEET - II, 2016], (b) M, (a) G2/M, (d) G1/S, (c) Both G2/M and M, , NCERT Exemplar Questions, 1. Meiosis results in, (a) Production of gametes, (c) Introduction of variation, , (b) Reduction in the number of chromosomes, (d) All the above, , 2. At which stage of meiosis does the genetic constitution of gametes is finally decided?, (a) Metaphase I, (b) Anaphase II, (c) Metaphase II, (d) Anaphase I, 3. Meiosis occurs in organisms during, (a) Sexual reproduction, (b) Vegetative reproduction, (c) Both sexual and vegetative reproduction, (d) Pairing of homologous chromosomes
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10.18, , Cell Cycle and Cell Division, , 4. During anaphase–I of meiosis, (a) Homologous chromosomes separate, (b) Non-homologous autosomes separate, (c) Sister chromatids separate, (d) Non-sister chromatids separate, 5. Mitosis is characterized by, (a) Reduction division, (b) Equal division, (c) Both reduction and equal division, (d) Pairing of homologous chromosomes, 6. A bivalent of meiosis-I consists of, (a) Two chromatids and one centromere, (b) Two chromatids and two centromeres, (c) Four chromatids and two centromeres, (d) Four chromatids and four centromeres., 7. Cells which are not dividing are likely to be at, (b) G2, (a) G1, (d) S phase, (c) G0, 8. Which of the events listed below is not observed during mitosis?, (a) Chromatin condensation., (b) Movement of centrioles to opposite poles., (c) Appearance of chromosomes with two chromatids joined together at the centromere., (d) Crossing over, 9. Identify the wrong statement about meiosis, (a) Pairing of homologous chromosomes., (b) Four haploid cells are formed., (c) At the end of meiosis the number of chromosomes are reduced to half., (d) Two cycles of DNA replication occur., 10. Select the correct statement about G1 phase., (a) Cell is metabolically inactive., (b) DNA in the cell does not replicate., (c) It is not a phase of synthesis of macromolecules., (d) Cell stops growing.
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Cell Cycle and Cell Division10.19, , Answer Keys, Practice Questions, 1. (a), 2. (c), 3. (d), 4. (a), 5. (a), 6. (b), 7. (a), 8. (a), 9. (d) 10. (b), 11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (d) 19. (d) 20. (d), 21. (d) 22. (c) 23. (d) 24. (c) 25. (d) 26. (d) 27. (b) 28. (d) 29. (d) 30. (a), 31. (c) 32. (d) 33. (d) 34. (a) 35. (a) 36. (c) 37. (d) 38. (a) 39. (c) 40. (d), 41. (b) 42. (d) 43. (d) 44. (d) 45. (a) 46. (a) 47. (a) 48. (b) 49. (d) 50. (c), 51. (b) 52. (c) 53. (d) 54. (c) 55. (a) 56. (d) 57. (d) 58. (d) 59. (d) 60. (c), 61. (b) 62. (c) 63. (b) 64. (a) 65. (c) 66. (a) 67. (c) 68. (a) 69. (a) 70. (a), 71. (d) 72. (a) 73. (c) 74. (d) 75. (b) 76. (b) 77. (b) 78. (b) 79. (d) 80. (c), 81. (b) 82. (c) 83. (a) 84. (a) 85. (d) 86. (c) 87. (d) 88. (b) 89. (a) 90. (a), 91. (b) 92. (d) 93. (a) 94. (b) 95. (d) 96. (a) 97. (c) 98. (d) 99. (c) 100. (d), 101. (d) 102. (a) 103. (a) 104. (a) 105. (a) 106. (d) 107. (a) 108. (c) 109. (b) 110. (a), 111. (b) 112. (c) 113. (d), Assertion and Reason Questions, 114. (b) 115. (b) 116. (b) 117. (a) 118. (d) 119. (c) 120. (d) 121. (a) 122. (c) 123. (b), 124. (a) 125. (a) 126. (a) 127. (a) 128. (a) 129. (a) 130. (b) 131. (b) 132. (a) 133. (a), 134. (a) 135. (a) 136. (a) 137. (a) 138. (a) 139. (a) 140. (a) 141. (a) 142. (a) 143. (a), 144. (a), Previous Year Questions, 1. (d), 11. (a), 21. (a), , 2. (a), 12. (a), , 3. (c), 13. (b), , 4. (c), 14. (c), , 5. (b), 15. (a), , 6. (c), 7. (a), 16. (b ) 17. (a), , 8. (c), 18. (d), , 9. (a) 10. (d), 19. (d ) 20. (d), , NCERT Exemplar Questions, 1. (d), , 2. (d), , 3. (a), , 4. (a), , 5. (b), , 6. (c), , 7. (c), , 8. (d), , 9. (d), , 10. (b)
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Unit, , Plant, Physiology, , IV, , Chapter 11: Transport in Plants, Chapter 12: Mineral Nutrition, Chapter 13: Photosynthesis in Higher Plants, Chapter 14: Respiration in Plants, Chapter 15: Plant Growth and Development, , Students Note, Unit IV includes plant physiology. In this unit, more questions are asked from the chapter on, plant water relationship and mineral nutrition. In AIPMT, three to five questions are asked, from this unit. For these chapters, the textbook is more than sufficient.
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Transport, in Plants, , CHAPTER, , 11, , prACtiCe Questions, Means of Transport, 1. In flowering plant, we need to transport, (a) Water and mineral nutrients, (c) Plant growth regulators, , (b) Organic nutrients, (d) All of these, , 2. For covering a small distance, the substances move by, (a) Diffusion, (b) Cytoplasmic streaming, (c) Active transport, (d) All of these, 3. Transport over longer distance is known as, (a) Translocation, (b) Transformation, , (c) Transduction, , (d) Diffusion, , 4. Which of the following undergoes multidirectional transport?, (a) Water, (b) Mineral nutrients, (c) Organic nutrients, (d) Both (b) and (c), 5. Transport of which substance is essentially unidirectional in xylem?, (a) Water, (b) Mineral nutrients, (c) Organic nutrients, (d) Both (a) and (b), 6. Select the correct statement from the following:, (a) Mineral nutrients taken up by the roots and transported upward into stem, leaves and, growing region., (b) When a plant part undergoes senescence, the nutrient always remain in the senescence, part and gets lost from the plant., (c) In flowering plant the complex traffic of compound in unorderly manner moving in, different direction., (d) All hormones shows polarised movement., 7. Diffusion can occur between, (a) One part of cell to other part, (b) Cell to cell, (c) Intercellular space to outside of leaf, (d) All of these, 8. The only mode of gaseous movement in plant body is, (a) Diffusion, (b) Osmosis, (c) Facilitated transport, (d) All of these
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11.4, , Transport in Plants, , 9. Which of the following is incorrect about diffusion?, (1) Molecules move in random fashion., (2) It occurs from higher to lower concentration., (3) It is a slow process., (4) It does not depend on living system., (5) Protein carriers are required., (6) It is a passive process., (a) Only 1 and 5, (b) Only 5, (c) 1, 3 and 5 only, , (d) Only 4, , 10. Diffusion rate is affected by, (a) Concentration gradient, (b) Membrane permeability through which it occur, (c) Pressure and temperature, (d) All of these, 11. Find out the total number of false statements from the following., (1) The diffusion rate depends on the size of substrate., (2) Diffusion across membrane depends upon the solubility of lipids., (3) Membrane protein provide sites for hydrophilic substance to cross membrane., (4) Facilitated diffusion do not require concentration gradient., (a) 1, (b) 2, (c) 3, (d) 4, 12. Facilitated diffusion requires _________ to transport substance across membrane., (a) Special membrane protein, (b) ATP, (c) Protein inhibitor, (d) All of these, 13. Which process undergoes saturation?, (a) Facilitated diffusion, (c) Simple diffusion, , (b) Active transport, (d) Both (a) and (b), , 14. Which of the following transport is not highly selective?, (a) Facilitated diffusion, (b) Active transport, (c) Simple diffusion, (d) All of these, 15. Identify A, B and C in the given figure., , A, B, , C, , (a), (b), (c), (d), , A–Transported molecule, B–Inner side of cell, C–Transport protein, A–Transport protein, B–Transported molecule, C–Membrane, A–Inner side of cell, B–Membrane, C–Transported molecule, A–Membrane, B–Transport protein, C–Transported molecule
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Transport in Plants11.5, , 16. Where are poring proteins present?, (a) Outer membrane of plastid, (c) Inner membrane of some bacteria, , (b) Inner membrane of mitochondria, (d) Outer membrane of ribosomes, , 17. Choose the total number of correct statements from the following:, (1) Some channels in membrane are always open., (2) Porins allow the passage of molecule of size up to small protein., (3) Water channel made up of eight different type of aquaporins., (4) Facilitated diffusion is very specific., (a) 1, (b) 2, (c) 3, , (d) 4, , 18. Some transport proteins allow diffusion only. If two type of molecules move together in the, same direction. Such type of transport is known as, (a) Symport, (b) Antiport, (c) Uniport, (d) All of these, 19. If two type of molecules move together in opposite direction. Such type of transport is known, as, (a) Symport, (b) Antiport, (c) Uniport, (d) All of these, 20. When the molecule move across in a membrane independent of other molecules through, carrier protein the process is known as, (a) Symport, (b) Antiport, (c) Uniport, (d) All of these, 21. A transport which uses energy to pump molecules against a concentration gradient is known as, (a) Diffusion, (b) Facilitated diffusion, (c) Active transport, (d) All of these, 22. Proteins in the membrane, responsible for facilitated diffusion and active transport, show some, common characteristic like., (1) Being highly selective, (2) Being liable to saturate, (3) Responding to inhibitor, (4) Being regulated by hormones, (a) 1 and 2 only, (b) 2 and 3 only, (c) 3 and 4 only, (d) All of these, 23. Identify the parts A to E given in the figure., A, , D, , E, , B, , C, , Membrane
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11.6, , Transport in Plants, , (a), (b), (c), (d), , A–Antiport B, B–Uniport A, C–Antiport A, D–Symport B, E–Carrier point, A–Carrier point, B–Antiport A, C–Uniport A, D–Symport B, E–Antiport B, A–Carrier point, B–Antiport B, C–Symport B, D–Uniport A, E–Antiport A, A–Symport B, B–Antiport A, C–Antiport B, D–Carrier point, E–Uniport A, , 24. Identify A, B and C shown in this table:, Simple, Diffusion, , Facilitated, Transport, , Active, Transport, , Requires special membrane proteins, Highly selective, Transport Saturates, Uphill transport, Requires ATP energy, , A, No, No, No, No, , Yes, Yes, B, No, No, , Yes, Yes, Yes, C, Yes, , (a) A–Yes, B–Yes, C–Yes, (c) A–No, B–Yes, C–Yes, , (b) A–Yes, B–No, C–Yes, (d) A–No, B–No, C–Yes, , Property, , 25. Select the incorrect statement from the following:, (1) A watermelon has over 92 per cent water., (2) Most herbaceous plants have only about 10–15% of its fresh water as dry matter., (3) Woody parts of the plant have very little water., (4) Seed is without water., (5) Mature corn plant absorbs almost three litres of water per day., (6) Mustered plant absorbs water epical to its own weight in about 5 hours., (a) All except 6, (b) All except 5, (c) Only 4, (d) Only 3, 26. Water is often a limitary factor for plant growth and _________ in both _________ and, _________ environments., (a) productivity, agricultural, natural, (b) movement, agricultural, artificial, (c) photosynthesis, aquatic, terrestrial, (d) senescence, agricultural, natural, 27. The major similarity between active transport and facilitated diffusion is that, (a) Both consume ATP, (b) Both are passive, (c) Both are non-selective, (d) Both require membrane proteins, 28. A watermelon has approximately _________ of water., (a) 20%, (b) 80%, (c) 100%, 29. Which of the following has minimum amount of water?, (a) Leaf, (b) Flower, (c) Epidermal cell of root, (d) Cork, 30. Select from the following which one is moved by active transport, (1) Na+ amino acid, in proximal convoluted tubules., (2) Absorption of most minerals by epidermal cells of root., (3) Na+ K+ pump., (4) Loading of sucrose from companion cell to sieve tube cells., (a) All except 4, (b) All except 3, (c) All except 1, (d) All of these, , (d) 92%
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Transport in Plants11.7, , Plant Water Relations, 31. The two main components which determine water potential are, (a) Solute potential, (b) Pressure potential, (c) Matric potential, (d) Both (a) and (b), 32. Which of the following has the maximum water potential?, (a) 1 M of NaCl, (b) 0.5 M of glucose, (c) Pure water, (d) 0.001 M of HCl, 33. Three solutions in the container are given under one similar condition. Which solution posses, greater kinetic energy in water molecules?, 1 M NaCl, , 1 M Glucose, , 2 M BaCl2, , a, , b, , c, , (a) A, (c) C, , (b) B, (d) All solution possess same energy, , 34. What is the condition for pure water having zero water potential?, (a) Standard temperature, (b) No pressure, (c) At 1 atm pressure, (d) Only (a) and (b), 35. Which is always negative (under natural condition)?, (2) ψw of solution, (1) ψs, (4) ψp of solution, (3) ψp, (a) 1, 2 only, , (b) 1 only, , (c) 4 only, , 36. The relationship between ψw, ψs and ψp can be given as:, (a) ψs = ψw + ψp, (b) ψp = ψw + ψs, (c) ψw = ψp + ψs, , (d) 3 only, (d) All of these, , 37. Which of the following is important to determine that what is going in or out of the plant cell?, (a) Cell membrane only, (b) Tonoplast only, (c) Both together, (d) Cell wall only, 38. Cell wall is, (a) Permeable, (c) Semi-permeable, 39. Osmosis means diffusion of water across, (a) Semi-permeable membrane, (b) Differentially permeable membrane, (c) Permeable membrane, (d) Both (a) and (b), 40. Water will move from, (a) Higher pressure potential to lower, (b) Higher solute potential to lower, (c) Higher water potential to lower, (d) Lower water potential to higher, , (b) Impermeable, (d) Selectively permeable
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11.8, , Transport in Plants, , 41., , A, , B, , Solute, molecule, Water, , Semi-permeable, membrane, , Answer the question with respect to the above diagram:, (1) The solution of which chamber has a lower water potential?, (a) A (b) B (c) Both have same (d) Cannot predict, (2) The solution of which chamber has a lower solute potential?, (a) A (b) B (c) Both have same (d) Cannot predict, (3) In which direction will osmosis occur?, (a) None (b) B to A (c) Both the direction (d) A to B, 42. How we can get the egg membrane?, (a) Remove yolk and albumin through a small hole at one end of the egg, (b) Place the shell in dilute HCl for few hours, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) None of these, 43. Identify A to D in the given figure., B, , A, D, C, , (a), (b), (c), (d), , A–Pressure, B–Membrane, C–Water, D–Sucrose solution, A–Sucrose solution, B–Pressure, C–Water, D–Membrane, A–Membrane, B–Sucrose solution, C–Pressure, D–Water, A–Sucrose solution, B–Membrane, C–Water, D–Pressure
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Transport in Plants11.9, , 44. Select the correct statement from the following:, (a) Osmotic pressure is the negative pressure applied., (b) Osmotic potential is positive., (c) More is the solute concentration of solution, more will be the pressure required to prevent, water from diffusing in., (d) The net direction and the rate of osmosis does not depend on the pressure gradient nor on, concentration gradient., 45. Which portion of the root absorbs both water and minerals?, (a) Terminal portion of roots, (b) Zone of cell elongation, (c) Zone of cell formation, (d) Zone of cell differentiation, 46. Meaningful girdling (ringing) experiments cannot be done on sugarcane because, (a) Phloem is present inside the xylem, (b) It cannot tolerate the injury, (c) Vascular bundles are scattered, (d) Plants are very delicate, 47. Some leaves are removed from the stem cuttings planted for vegetative propagation. This is, done, (a) To increase water uptake, (b) Because it helps in rooting of cuttings, (c) To reduce water loss, (d) Because the cuttings need less food, 48. In terms of permeability, the cell wall and plasmalemma are, (a) Permeable and differentially permeable respectively, (b) Both semi-permeable, (c) Semi-permeable and differentially permeable, (d) Both differentially permeable, 49. The process of osmosis involves, (a) Movement of solute through semi-permeable membrane, (b) Movement of solvent through a semi-permeable membrane, (c) Movement of solution through a semi-permeable membrane, (d) None of these, 50. Dry seeds when placed in water swells due to, (a) Imbibitions, (b) Absorption, , (c) Diffusion, , (d) Adsorption, , 51. A cell placed in strong solution will shrink because, (a) Cytoplasm will decompose, (b) Mineral salt will break the cell wall, (c) Salt water enter the cell, (d) Water comes out by exosmosis, 52. A cell increases in volume if the external medium is, (a) Hypotonic, (b) Hypertonic, (c) Isotonic, , (d) None of these, , 53. All the following involves osmosis except, (a) Water from soil entering a root hair, (b) Water passing from root hair to adjacent cells, (c) Water passing up a xylem vessel element to xylem vessel element above it, (d) Water entering a mesophyll cell from xylem vessel element, 54. A cell is plasmolysed after being kept in a hypertonic solution. What will be present between, the cell wall and plasmalemma?
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11.10, , Transport in Plants, , (a) Isotonic solution, (c) Air, 55. Wilting of a plant results from excessive, (a) Respiration, (c) Absorption, , (b) Hypertonic solution, (d) Hypotonic solution, (b) Photosynthesis, (d) Transpiration, , 56. Water moves across a selectively permeable membrane:, (a), (b), (c), (d), , From, , To, , Region of higher water potential, Lower water concentration, Higher solute concentration, Region of higher osmotic potential, , Region of lower water potential, Higher water concentration, Lower solute concentration, Region of lower osmotic potential, , 57. In seed germination, the first phenomenon which takes place is called, (a) Diffusion, (b) Osmosis, (c) Imbibitions, (d) All of these, 58. Deplasmolysis occurs in a cell when it is placed in, (a) Hypotonic solution, (b) Hypertonic solution, (c) Isotonic solution, (d) Buffer solution, 59. Grapes immersed in water would shrink if, (a) Water contains salts, (c) Water is cold, , (b) Water contains starch, (d) Water is hot, , 60. Plant cells submerged in distilled water will become, (a) Turgid, (b) Flaccid, (c) Plasmolysed, , (d) Impermeable, , 61. The plants face water stress due to the use of excessive fertilizers because of, (a) Exosmosis, (b) Endosmosis, (c) Imbibitions, (d) None of these, 62. You are given three cells such as a root hair, a cell of the inner cortical layer and a cell of the, mesophyll. Arrange them in the ascending order of DPD., (a) Root hair < Cortical cell < Mesophyll, (b) Cortical cell < Mesophyll < Root hair, (c) Mesophyll < Root hair < Cortical cell, (d) Root hair < Mesophyll < Cortical cell, 63. What will be the direction of movement of water, when solution A having water potential of, –9 bars and another solution B of –4 bars is separated by a semi-permeable membrane?, (a) B to A, (b) A to B, (c) Both directions, (d) None, 64. If the external solution is more dilute than cytoplasm, then the external solution is said to be, (a) Hypotonic, (b) Hypertonic, (c) Isotonic, (d) Isothermal, 65. During plasmolysis, (a) Cell membrane of a plant cell shrinks away from its cell wall, (b) Water first lost from the cytoplasm and then from the vacuoles, (c) Area between cell wall and shrunken protoplast is occupied by outer solution, (d) All the above
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Transport in Plants11.11, , 66. What happens when plant cell is put in hypotonic solution?, (a) Cell swells up, (b) Cell undergoes plasmolysis, (c) Cell wall shrinks, (d) Cell will burst, 67. The pressure exerted by the protoplast due to the entry of water against the rigid cell wall is, called, (a) Osmotic potential, (b) Pressure potential, (c) Water potential, (d) Matrix potential, 68. Imbibition is, (a) Special type of diffusion, (c) Facilitated diffusion, , (b) Osmosis, (d) Active transport, , 69. Imbibition is characterized by, (a) Increase in volume, (c) Increase in pressure, , (b) Release of energy, (d) All of these, , 70. The best example of imbibition is, (a) Absorption of water by seed, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (b) Absorption of water by dry wood, (d) None of these, , 71. Which of the following is correct about imbibitions?, (a) It requires ψw gradient between the absorbent and the liquid imbibed., (b) It requires affinity between the absorbent and the liquid., (c) Imbibition pressure is produced by the swelling of wood and in turn used by prehistoric, man to split rocks and boulders., (d) All the above, 72. The path of the movement of water is demonstrated by using, (a) Solution containing pure water, (b) Solution of water and mineral, (c) Dye (colour) dissolved in water, (d) All of these, 73. Simple long distance transport cannot be achieved by, (a) Diffusion, (b) Facilitated diffusion, (c) Active transport, (d) All of these, 74. Water, mineral and food are generally moved by over large distance by, (a) Simple diffusion, (b) Facilitated diffusion, (c) Active transport, (d) Bulk flow or mass flow, 75. Identify A to D in the given figure., D, , B, , A, , Cortex, , Endodermis, , Pericycle, , Xylem, C
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11.12, , (a), (b), (c), (d), , Transport in Plants, , A–Plasma membrane, B–Plasmodesmata, C–Epidermis, D–Casparian strip, A–Casparian strip, B–Epidermis, C–Plasmodesmata, D–Plasma membrane, A–Plasmodesmata, B–Epidermis, C–Casparian strip, D–Plasma membrane, A–Epidermis, B–Plasma membrane, C–Casparian strip, D–Plasmodesmata, , 76. Bulk flow can be achieved by, (a) Positive hydrostatic pressure gradient, (b) Negative hydrostatic pressure gradient (suction), (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) None of these, Long Distance Transport of Water, 77. Xylem is associated with the translocation of, (a) Water, (c) Some organic nitrogen and hormone, , (b) Mineral, (d) All of these, , 78. Which of the following is incorrect about apoplastic pathway?, (a) Movement of water takes place through intercellular spaces and the walls of cells., (b) Movement depends on the gradient., (c) Mass flow occurs due to adhesive and cohesive property of water., (d) This pathway provides barrier to water movement., 79. During symplastic pathway water moves through, (a) Cytoplasm, (b) Plasmodesmata, (c) Cell membrane, , (d) All of these, , 80. Which of the following is incorrect about symplastic pathway?, (a) Movement of water is relatively slower., (b) Movement is down the concentration gradient., (c) It may be aided by cytoplasmic streaming., (d) Most of the water flow in root occurs by this pathway., 81. Cytoplasmic streaming is easily seen in, (a) Leaf of hydrilla, (c) Stem cells of sunflower, , (b) Leaf of mango, (d) Pollen grains, , 82. Movement of water is correctly represented by, (a) Cortex → Root hair (Epidermis) → Xylem → Endodermis → Pericycle, (b) Root hair (Epidermis) → Endodermis → Xylem → Pericycle → Cortex, (c) Root hair (Epidermis) → Cortex → Endodermis → Pericycle → Xylem, (d) Xylem → Cortex → Endodermis → Pericycle → Root hair (Epidermis), 83. Where is apoplastic movement shifted to symplastic pathway?, (a) Cortex, (b) Endodermis, (c) Pericycle, , (d) Xylem, , 84. Which of the following is true about mycorrhizae?, (a) Association between roots and fungus., (b) Fungal hyphae have very large surface area that absorb water and mineral from the soil., (c) Roots provide sugar and N-containing compound to the fungus., (d) All the above, 85. Which plant seeds cannot be germinated and established without the presence of mycorrhizae?, (a) Mango, (b) Pulses, (c) Pinus, (d) Selaginella
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Transport in Plants11.13, , 86. Root pressure develops due to, (a) Passive absorption of ions, (c) Active absorption of glucose, , (b) Active absorption of ions, (d) None of these, , 87. Effect of root pressure is visible, (a) At night, (c) When evaporation is low, , (b) At early morning, (d) All of these, , 88. Guttation is seen in, (a) Vein opening near the tip of grass blade, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (b) Leaves of many herbaceous plant, (d) Leaves of trees, , 89. Root pressure contributes to the, (a) Ascent of sap in small herbaceous plants., (b) Re-establishment of continuous chains of water molecules in the xylem which often, breaks down under the enormous tension created by transpiration., (c) Guttation, (d) All the above, 90. What is the approximate rate of the ascent of sap?, (a) 5 m/hr, (b) 15 m/hr, (c) 40 m/hr, , (d) 2 m/hr, , 91. How much percentage of water is used for photosynthesis?, (a) 1%, (b) 2%, (c) 3%, , (d) 4%, , Transpiration, 92. Stomata helps in, (a) Transpiration, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (b) Exchange of gases, (d) None of these, , 93. Transpiration is affected by, (a) Humidity, (c) Light and temperature, , (b) Wind speed, (d) All of these, , 94. The plant factor which affects the transpiration are, (a) Number and distribution of stomata, (b) Number of stomata open, (c) Water status of plant, (d) All of these, 95. Transpiration driven ascent of sap depends mainly on the _________ physical properties of, water., (a) Cohesion, (b) Adhesion, (c) Surface tension, (d) All of these, 96. Properties of water which provide high tensile strength (i.e., ability to resist a pulling force), are:, (a) Cohesion, (b) Adhesion, (c) Surface tension, (d) All of these, 97. Force generated by transpiration creates pressure sufficient to lift a xylem sized column of, water over _________ meters., (a) 130, (b) 200, (c) 400, (d) 500, 98. Sap ascends in woody stems because of the root pressure and, (a) Transpiration pull, (b) Capillarity, (c) Molecular adhesion, (d) Photosynthesis
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11.14, , Transport in Plants, , 99. Identify the parts A to F in the given figure., , F, , D, A, , C, B, , E, , (a) A–Phloem, B–Diffusion into surrounding air, C–Guard cell, D–Xylem, E–Stomatal pore,, F–Palisade, (b) , A–Palisade, B–Guard cell, C–Phloem, D–Xylem, E–Diffusion into surrounding air,, F–Stomatal pore, (c) A–Stomatal pore, B–Xylem, C–Palisade, D–Diffusion into surrounding air, E–Guard cell,, F–Phloem, (d) A–Guard cell, B–Phloem, C–Xylem, D–Stomatal pore, E–Diffusion into surrounding air,, F–Palisade, 100. The most widely accepted explanation for the ascent of sap in tree is, (a) Capillarity, (b) Roll of atmospheric pressure, (c) Pulsating action of living cells, (d) Transpiration cohesion theory of Dixon, 101. The path of water from soil up to secondary xylem is, (a) Soil → Root hair cell wall → Cortex → Endodermis → Pericycle → Protoxylem →, Metaxylem, (b) Metaxylem → Protoxylem → Cortex → Soil → Root hair, (c) Cortex → Root hair → Endodermis → Pericycle → Protoxylem → Metaxylem, (d) Pericycle → Soil → Root hair → Cortex → Endodermis → Protoxylem → Metaxylem, 102. A plant with well-washed roots is placed in a beaker of water diluted with red ink. The red, colour travels up the stem and into the leaf veins. Which of the following should be the correct, explanation of the uptake of red ink into the roots?, (a) The red ink entered the root hairs by osmosis., (b) The molecules of red ink is diffused into the root hairs., (c) The membranes of the root hairs are destroyed and the red ink could enter., (d) The molecules of red ink passed from a region of low concentration to one of high, concentration., 103. Exudation of xylem is due to, (a) Passive absorption, (c) Guttation, , (b) Root pressure, (d) Presence of transpiration, , 104. By what mechanism does water moves through vessels and tracheids of root stem and leaves?, (a) Osmotic flow, (b) Bulk flow, (c) Gravity flow, (d) Imbibition, 105. When the cut end of a shoot is placed in a solution of safranin, the presence of dye could be, located in
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Transport in Plants11.15, , (a) Cortex, (c) Phloem, 106. Bulk flow of water occurs through, (a) Living cells, (c) Apparent free spaces, , (b) Tracheid elements, (d) Pith, (b) Cell vacuoles, (d) Plasmodesmata, , 107. The continuity of water column in xylem is maintained due to the, (a) Presence of air bubbles, (b) Cohesive property of water, (c) Evaporation power of water, (d) None of these, 108. The chief role of transpiration in plants is to cause, (a) Loss of surplus water, (b) Cooling of the plant, (c) Rapid ascent of sap, (d) Rapid rise of minerals, 109. The loss of water in the form of vapour from the aerial plant parts is known as, (a) Osmosis, (b) Respiration, (c) Photosynthesis, (d) Transpiration, 110. Guard cells are found in, (a) Stomata, (b) Root tips, , (c) Ovary, , (d) Lenticels, , 111. The position and frequency of stomata can be determined by, (a) Calculating the loss of water, (b) Cobalt chloride paper method, (c) Photometer, (d) Porometer, 112. In both transpiration and evaporation, water is lost in the form of vapour yet they differ,, because, (a) Both transpiration and evaporation are similar but the rate of water loss differs., (b) Frequency of water loss is different in both of them., (c) Transpiration is a physical process and evaporation is a physiological process., (d) Transpiration is a physiological process and evaporation is a physical process., 113. Out of the following, which one is the most common type of transpiration?, (a) Foliar, (b) Stomatal, (c) Lenticular, (d) Cuticular, 114. In a hot summer day, a plant cools itself due to, (a) Loss of water vapours from leaf, (b) Transport of water in plant, (c) Loss of liquid water, (d) Loss of water from entire plant, 115. Guard cells are surrounded by, (a) Epidermal hairs, (c) Palisade cells, , (b) Mesophyll cells, (d) Subsidiary cells, , 116. Which of the following is an adaptation to reduce water loss?, (a) Presence of thick cuticle, (b) Change of leaf into spine, (c) Change of leaf into phylloclade, (d) All of these, 117. Which of the following is called necessary evil?, (a) Osmosis, (b) Absorption, (c) Transpiration, , (d) Photosynthesis, , 118. Which of the following plants economizes the transpirational loss of water?, (b) C4, (c) Both equally, (d) C2, (a) C3
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11.16, , Transport in Plants, , 119. The condition under which transpiration would be most rapid is, (a) High humidity, (b) Excess of water in soil, (c) Low humidity, high temperature, guard cells are turgid (open) and moist soil, (d) Low velocity of wind, 120. The transpiration in plants will be the lowest, (a) When there is high humidity in the atmosphere, (b) High wind velocity, (c) There is excess of water in the cell, (d) Environmental conditions are very dry, 121. Under what conditions the rate of transpiration increases?, (a) Increase of humidity, (b) Increase of atmospheric pressure, (c) Decrease of temperature, (d) Decrease of humidity, 122. Transpiration increases with an increase in, (a) Humidity, (b) Temperature, , (c) Minerals, , (d) Soil moisture, , 123. Stomata in angiosperms open and close due to, (a) Their genetic constitution, (b) Effect of hormones, (c) Changes of turgor pressure in guard cells, (d) Pressure of gases inside the leaves, 124. Stomata opens because of, (a) Oxygen in the air, (b) Increased turgidity of the guard cells brought about by the exposure to light, (c) Vacuoles in guard cells, (d) All the above, 125. The transpiration is regulated by the movements of, (a) Subsidiary cells of the leaves, (b) Guard cells of the stomata, (c) Mesophyll tissue cells, (d) Epidermal cells of the leaves, 126. Guttation is caused due to, (a) Imbibitions, (c) Positive root pressure, , (b) Osmosis, (d) Transpiration, , 127. Guttation usually occurs when the plant is put in a, (a) More saturated atmosphere, (b) More humid soil, (c) Dry condition, (d) Desert, 128. Guttation is the process of elimination of water from plants. It occurs from the pores in leaves, through which water comes out in the form of droplets or a specialized multicellular structure, in leaves which excretes water droplets. The pores are called, (a) Stomata, (b) Hydathodes, (c) Lenticels, (d) Wounds, 129. Guttation is found mostly in, (a) Herbaceous plants, (c) Wood plants, , (b) Shrubs, (d) None of these
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Transport in Plants11.17, , 130. Water lost by guttation is, (a) Pure, (c) Sometimes pure and sometimes impure, , (b) Mixed with salts, (d) None of these, , 131. Guttation occurs in, (a) Morning, (c) Evening, , (b) Night, (d) Morning 10 a.m., , 132. Select from the following (in numbers) the correct function which are performed by, transpiration., (1) Creates transpiration pull for absorption and transport of water in plant., (2) Transport minerals from the soil to all parts of the plant., (3) Cools the leaf surface (sometime 10–15oC)., (4) Supplies water for photosynthesis., (5) Maintains the shape and structure of plants by keeping the cells turgid., (a) 1, (b) 3, (c) 4, (d) 5, 133. C4 plants are more evolved than C3 plants because, (a) C4 plants are twice efficient in terms of carbon fixing., (b) C4 plants loose only half of its water as C3 plants for same amount of CO2 fixed., (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) None of these, 134. Plants obtain most of its carbon from, (a) Atmosphere, (b) Water, , (c) Soil, , 135. Minerals are mostly absorbed by, (a) Active transport, (c) Simple diffusion, , (b) Facilitated diffusion, (d) All of these, , 136. Ions are absorbed from soil by, (a) Active transport, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (b) Passive transport, (d) None of these, , (d) All of these, , 137. Where is the control point for minerals, where a plant adjusts the quantity and types of solutes, that reach the xylem?, (a) Epidermal cell, (b) Cortical cell, (c) Endodermal cell, (d) Pericycle cell, 138. Endodermis actively transports ion in one direction because, (a) It is inner to epidermis, (b) Cell wall is suberized, (c) Cell wall is lignified, (d) Its cell membrane has special transport proteins, 139. Chief sink of minerals are, (a) Apical and lateral meristem, (b) Young leafs and storage organs, (c) Developing flower, fruits and seeds, (d) All of these
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11.18, , Transport in Plants, , 140. Unloading of mineral occurs at the fine vein endings through, (a) Diffusion, (b) Active uptake, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (d) None of these, , 141. All elements are remobilized except, (a) P, (b) N, , (d) Ca, , (c) K, , 142. Which of the following helps in the transportation of minerals?, (a) Xylem, (b) Phloem, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (d) None of these, , 143. Sink and source in sucrose transport may be reversed depending on, (a) Plant’s need, (b) Season, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (d) None of these, , 144. Phloem sap is mainly composed of, (a) Water + Glucose, (c) Water + Cellulose, , (b) Water + Fructose, (d) Water + Sucrose, , 145. Which of the following is translocated through phloem?, (a) Sugar, (b) Amino acid, (c) Hormone, , (d) All of these, , 146. The accepted mechanism for the translocation of sugar from source to sink is called, (a) Pressure flow hypothesis, (b) Mass flow hypothesis, (c) Transpiration pull hypothesis, (d) Both (a) and (b), 147. What is the means of transport through which sucrose moves into sieve tube of source and out, of sieve tube at sink?, (a) Simple diffusion, (b) Facilitated diffusion, (c) Active transport, (d) Passive transport, 148. When sugar is added to the source water potential of sucrose _________ and when sugar is, removed from sink, the water potential of sink _________., (a) ↑es, ↑es, (b) ↑es, ↓es, (c) ↓es, ↓es, (d) ↓es, ↑es, 149. Which of the following experiment showed that food in plant is transported through phloem?, (a) Avena curvature experiment, (b) Girdling experiment, (c) Bell-jar experiment, (d) None, 150. Select the incorrect statement from the following:, (a) The portion of bark above the ring in girdling experiment gets swollen after few weeks., (b) Translocation in phloem is bidirectional., (c) Phloem tissue is composed of sieve tube cells, which form long coloumns with holes in, the walls called sieve plates., (d) The process of loading at the source which produces a hypotonic condition in the phloem., , Assertion and Reason Questions, Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given, below:, (a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the, assertion., (b) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the, assertion., (c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false., (d) If both the assertion and reason are false.
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Transport in Plants11.19, , 151. Assertion: Phloem is the principal food conducting tissue., Reason: It has been recognized by girdling or ringing experiment., 152. Assertion: The water and mineral uptake by root hairs from the soil occurs through apoplast, until it reaches the endodermis., Reason: Casparian strips in endodermis are suberized., 153. Assertion: Imbibition is also diffusion., Reason: The movement of water in the above process is along a concentration gradient., 154. Assertion: Pinus seeds cannot germinate and established without the presence of mycorrhaizae., Reason: Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic association of a fungus with a root system., 155. Assertion: Water potential is new term for diffusion pressure deficit., Reason: Both diffusion pressure deficit and water potential have a positive value., 156. Assertion: Most of the minerals must enter the root by active transport., Reason: The concentration of minerals in the soil is usually lower than the concentration of, minerals in roots., 157. Assertion: Plasmolysis will be severe if the process is in the order of limiting → incipient →, evident., Reason: Plasmolysis is endosmosis., 158. Assertion: The more the solute molecules in solution ,the lower (more negative) is the solute, potential of solution., Reason: For a solution at atmospheric pressure, water potential = solute potential., 159. Assertion: In apoplast, the water movement is through mass flow., Reason: The apoplast does not provide any barrier to water movement., 160. Assertion: Transport saturates in facilitated diffusion., Reason: Facilitated diffusion occurs through protien molecule., 161. Assertion: Light is a very important factor in transpiration., Reason: It induces stomatal opening and darkness closing. Therefore, transpiration increases, in light and decreases in dark., 162. Assertion: In rooted palnt, the transport in xylem of water and minerals is essentially, multidirectional., Reason: Organic compound and nutrient undergoes unidirectional transport only., 163. Assertion: Guttation liquid is found on the margins of leaves of herbaceous plants., Reason: Hydathodes are found on the margins of herbaceous plant., 164. Assertion: Transpiration occurs when stomata are open., Reason: Transpiration occurs only through stomata., 165. Assertion: Transport of sucrose from leaf to root is called translocation., Reason: This is long distance transport through vascular system of plant., 166. Assertion: Movement by diffusion is passive process., Reason: No energy expenditure takes place during diffusion.
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11.20, , Transport in Plants, , 167. Assertion: Molecules up to small size of protein can pass through outer membrane of plastids., Reason: Outer membrane of plastids contain porins, 168. Assertion: Water is often the limiting factor for plant growth and productivity., Reason: Large amount of water is required by plants., 169. Assertion: Pure water has greatest water potential., Reason: Pure water contain maximum free water molecule., 170. Assertion: All solutions have lower water potential than pure water., Reason: All solutions have fewer free water molecule., 171. Assertion: Wood is use to split rocks by prehistoric man., Reason: Imbibition of water by wood increases pressure by swelling help in splitting., 172. Assertion: Phloem translocates variety of organic and inorganic soluble., Reason: Phloem is conducting tissue of plant., 173. Assertion: Most water flow in the root occurs through apoplast., Reason: Cortical cells in root are loosely packed and offer no resistance to water movement., 174. Assertion: Endodermis is impervious to water, Reason: Endodermis contain band of suberised matrix called casparian strip., 175. Assertion: when soft herbaceous stem cut near the base from sharp blade, early in the morning, drop of solution ooze out from cut stem., Reason: Root pressure develops in herbaceous stem., 176. Assertion: Root pressure does not account for the majority of water transport in tall trees., Reason: They need transpiration pull for ascent of water., , previous year questions, 1. Transport of food material in higher plants takes place through, , [AIPMT MAINS 2010], (a) Companion cells, (b) Transfusion tissues, (c) Tracheids, (d) Sieve elements, 2. Which one of the following structures between two adjacent cells is an effective transport, pathway?, , [AIPMT PRE 2010], (a) Plasmodesmata, (b) Plastoquinones, (c) Endoplasmic reticulum, (d) Plasmalemma, 3. Function of companion cells is, , (a) Providing energy to sieve elements for active transport., (b) Providing water to phloem., (c) Loading of sucrose into sieve elements by passive transport., (d) Loading of sucrose into sieve elements., , [AIPMT MAINS 2011]
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Transport in Plants11.21, , 4. Guttation is the result of, , (a) Diffusion, (c) Osmosis, , [AIPMT MAINS 2011], (b) Transpiration, (d) Root pressure, , 5. Which one of the following is correctly matched?, , (a) Passive transport of nutrients – ATP, (b) Apoplast – Plasmodesmata, (c) Potassium – Readily immobilization, (d) Bakane of rice seedlings – Folke K. Skoog, 6. Which of the following criteria does not pertain to facilitated transport?, , (a) Requirement of special membrane proteins, (b) High selectivity, (c) Transport saturation, (d) Uphill transport, 7. The osmotic expansion of a cell kept in water is chiefly regulated by, , (a) Mitochondria, (b) Vacuoles, (c) Plastids, (d) Ribosomes, , [AIPMT PRE 2012], , [AIPMT 2013], , [AIPMT 2014], , 8. Transpiration and root pressure cause water to rise in plants by, , [AIPMT 2015], (a) Pulling it upward, (b) Pulling and pushing it respectively, (c) Pushing it upward, (d) Pushing and pulling it respectively, 9. In a ring girdled plant:, , (a) The shoot dies first, (c) The shoot and root dies together, , [AIPMT 2015], (b) The root dies first, (d) Neither root nor shoot will die, , 10. A column of water within xylem vessels of tall trees does not break under its weight because, of:, , [RE-AIPMT 2015], (a) Tensile strength of water, (b) Lignification of xylem vessels, (c) Positive root pressure, (d) Dissolved sugars in water, 11. Root pressure develops due to:, , (a) Low osmotic potential in soil, (c) Increase in transpiration, , (b) Passive absorption, (d) Active absorption, , 12. A protoplast is a cell:, , (a) Without nucleus, (c) Without cell wall, , [RE-AIPMT 2015], (b) Undergoing division, (d) Without plasma membrane, , [RE-AIPMT 2015], , 13. Water vapour comes out from the plant leaf through the stomatal opening. Through the same, stomatal opening carbon dioxide diffuses into the plant during photosynthesis. Reason out the, above statements using one of following options:, [NEET - I, 2016]
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11.22, , Transport in Plants, , (a) Both processes cannot happen simultaneously, (b) Both processes can happen together because the diffusion coefficient of Water and CO2 is, different, (c) The above processes happen only during night time, (d) One process occurs during time and the other at night, 14. A few drops of sap were collected by cutting across a plant stem by a suitable method. The, sap was tested chemically. Which one of the following test results indicates that it was phloem, sap?, [NEET - II, 2016], (a) Alkaline, (b) Low refractive index, (c) Absence of sugar, (d) Acidic, , NCERT Exemplar Questions, 1. Which of the following statements does not apply to reverse osmosis?, (a) It is used for water purification., (b) In this technique, the pressure greater than osmotic pressure is applied to the system., (c) It is a passive process., (d) It is an active process., 2. Which one of following will not directly affect transpiration?, (a) Temperature, (b) Light, (c) Wind speed, (d) Chlorophyll content of leaves, 3. The lower surface of leaf will have more number of stomata in a, (a) Dorsiventral leaf, (b) Isobilateral leaf, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) None of the above, 4. The form of sugar transport through phloem is, (a) Glucose, (b) Fructose, (c) Sucrose, 5. The process of guttation takes place, (a) When the root pressure is high and the rate of transpiration is low., (b) When the root pressure is low and the rate of transpiration is low., (c) When the root pressure equals the rate of transpiration., (d) When the root pressure as well as rate of transpiration are high., 6. Which of the following is an example of imbibition?, (a) Uptake of water by root hair., (b) Exchange of gases in stomata., (c) Swelling of seed when put in soil., (d) Opening of stomata., 7. When a plant part undergoes senescence, the nutrients may be, (a) Exported, (b) Withdrawn, (c) Translocated, (d) None of the above, 8. Water potential of pure water in standard temperature is equal to, (a) 10, (b) 20, (c) Zero, (d) None of these, , (d) Ribose
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Transport in Plants11.23, , 9. Choose the correct option: mycorrhiza is a symbiotic association of fungus with root system, which helps in, (A) Absorption of water, (B) Mineral nutrition, (C) Translocation, (D) Gaseous exchange, (a) Only A, (b) Only B, (c) Both A and B, (d) Both B and C, 10. Based on the figure given below which of the following statements is not correct?, a, , b, , Solute, molecule, Water, , Semi-permeable, membrane, , (a) Movement of solvent molecules will take place from chamber a and b., (b) Movement of solute will take place from a and b., (c) Presence of semipermeable membrane is a prerequisite for this process to occur., (d) The direction and rate of osmosis depends on both the pressure gradient and concentration, gradient., 11. Match the following and choose the correct option, (a), (b), (c), (d), (e), , Leaves, Seed, Roots, Aspirin, Plasmolysed cell, , (i), (ii), (iii), (vi), (v), , Anti-transpirant, Transpiration, Negative osmotic potential, Imbibition, Absorption, , Options:, (a) (a)–(iii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(i), (d)–(ii), (e)–(v), (b) (a)–(ii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(v), (d)–(i), (e)–(iii), (c) (a)–(iii), (b)–(ii), (c)–(iv), (d)–(i), (e)–(v), (d) (a)–(iii), (b)–(ii), (c)–(i), (d)–(iv), (e)–(v), 12. Mark the mismatched pair., (a) Amyloplast – Store protein granule, (b) Elaioplast – Store oils or fats, (c) Chloroplasts – Contain chlorophyll pigments, (d) Chromoplasts – Store proteins
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11.24, , Transport in Plants, , Answer Keys, Practice Questions, 1. (d), 11. (a), 21. (c), 31. (d), 41. (b),, 50. (a), 60. (a), 70. (c), 80. (d), 90. (b), 100. (d), 110. (a), 120. (a), 130. (b), 140. (c), 150. (d), , 2. (d), 12. (a), 22. (d), 32. (c), (a), (d), 51. (d), 61. (a), 71. (d), 81. (a), 91. (a), 101. (a), 111. (b), 121. (d), 131. (a), 141. (d), , 3. (a), 13. (d), 23. (c), 33. (b), 42. (c), 52. (a), 62. (a), 72. (c), 82. (c), 92. (c), 102. (a), 112. (d), 122. (b), 132. (d), 142. (c), , 4. (d), 14. (c), 24. (c), 34. (d), 43. (b), 53. (c), 63. (a), 73. (d), 83. (b), 93. (d), 103. (b), 113. (b), 123. (c), 133. (c), 143. (c), , 5. (d), 15. (b), 25. (c), 35. (a), 44. (c), 54. (b), 64. (a), 74. (d), 84. (d), 94. (d), 104. (b), 114. (a), 124. (b), 134. (a), 144. (d), , 6. (a), 16. (a), 26. (a), 36. (c), 45. (d), 55. (d), 65. (d), 75. (d), 85. (c), 95. (d), 105. (b), 115. (d), 125. (b), 135. (a), 145. (d), , 7. (d), 17. (d), 27. (d), 37. (c), 46. (c), 56. (a), 66. (a), 76. (c), 86. (b), 96. (d), 106. (c), 116. (d), 126. (c), 136. (c), 146. (d), , 8. (a), 18. (a), 28. (d), 38. (a), 47. (c), 57. (c), 67. (b), 77. (d), 87. (d), 97. (a), 107. (b), 117. (c), 127. (a), 137. (c), 147. (c), , 9. (b), 19. (b), 29. (d), 39. (a), 48. (a), 58. (a), 68. (a), 78. (d), 88. (c), 98. (a), 108. (c), 118. (b), 128. (b), 138. (b), 148. (d), , 10. (d), 20. (c), 30. (d), 40. (c), 49. (b), 59. (a), 69. (d), 79. (d), 89. (d), 99. (a), 109. (d), 119. (c), 129. (a), 139. (d), 149. (b), , Assertion and Reason Questions, 151. (a) 152. (a) 153. (a) 154. (b) 155. (c) 156. (a) 157. (c) 158. (b) 159. (b) 160. (a), 161. (a) 162. (d) 163. (a) 164. (c) 165. (a) 166. (a) 167. (a) 168. (a) 169. (a) 170. (a), 171. (a) 172. (a) 173. (a) 174. (a) 175. (a) 176. (b), Previous Year Questions, 1. (d), 11. (d), , 2. (a), 12. (c), , 3. (d), 13. (b), , 4. (d), 14. (a), , 5. (c), , 6. (d), , 7. (b), , 8. (b), , 9. (b), , 10. (a), , 8. (c), , 9. (c), , 10. (b), , NCERT Exemplar Questions, 1. (c), 11. (b), , 2. (d), 12. (a), , 3. (a), , 4. (c), , 5. (a), , 6. (c), , 7. (b)
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Mineral, Nutrition, , CHAPTER, , 12, prACtiCe Questions, Essential Mineral Elements, , 1. In 1860, ___________ for the first time demonstrated the concept of hydroponics., (a) Van Neil, (b) Von Sachs, (c) Arnon, (d) Lundergarth, 2. Hydroponics require, (a) Purified water, (c) Mineral nutrient salt, , (b) Impure water, (d) Both (a) and (c), , 3. Hydroponic is a successfully employed technique for the commercial production of vegetables, like, (a) Tomato, (b) Seedless cucumber (c) Lettuce, (d) All of these, 4. Find the true/false statement from the following:, (a) Only 50 elements are found in different plants., (b) In hydroponics, the nutrient solution must be adequately aerated to obtain optimum growth., (c) Some plant species accumulate selenium., (d) By hydroponics essential elements were identified and their deficiency symptoms were, also discovered., (a) FTTT, , (b) FFTT, , (c) FTFT, , (d) FFFT, , 5. Which one of the following is Arnon’s criterion for the essentiality of element?, (a) In the absence of element, plants do not complete their life cycle or set the seeds., (b) Deficiency of element cannot be met by supplying other element., (c) The element must be directly involved in the metabolism of the plant., (d) All the above, 6. What indicates A to D in the given figure?, , A, , C, , B, , D
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12.2, , Mineral Nutrition, , (a), (b), (c), (d), , A: Cotton, B: Aerating tube, C: Funnel for adding water and nutrients, D: Nutrient solution, A: Funnel for adding water and nutrients, B: Aerating tube, C: Cotton, D: Nutrient solution, A: Nutrient solution, B: Cotton, C: Funnel for adding water and solution, D: Aerating tube, A: Cotton, B: Aerating tube, C: Nutrient solution, D: Funnel for adding water and nutrients, , 7. By some techniques ___________ are able to detect the mineral at very low concentration., (b) 10–15 gm/ml, (c) 10–10 gm/ml, (d) 10–8 gm/ml, (a) 10–12 gm/ml, 8. On which basis the nutrients are divided into macro and micro nutrients?, (a) Quantitative requirement, (b) Qualitative requirement, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) None of these, 9. The following are macronutrients except, (a) N, (b) P, 10. The following are micronutrients except, (a) Zn, (b) B, , (c) S, , (d) Mn, , (c) Mo, , (d) Ca, , 11. Select the total number of macronutrients from the following:, C, H, O, N, P, S, Cu, Zn, B, Cl, Mn, Ni, K, Ca, Mg, Mo, (a) 8, (b) 9, (c) 10, , (d) 11, , 12. C, H, O is mainly obtained from, (b) Soil only, (a) Soil and H2O, , (d) CO2 only, , (c) H2O and CO2, , 13. What is the number of the absolutely essential elements for growth and metabolism of all, plants?, (a) 14, (b) 17, (c) 21, (d) 23, 14. Some beneficial elements required by higher plants are, (a) Na, Si, Co, Se, (b) Na, Si, Os, I, (c) Na, Co, Ir, At, , (d) Na, Si, W, Ag, , 15. The structural elements of cell are, (a) C, H, O, N, (b) N, P, K, Ca, , (d) Ca, Mg, Fe, O, , 16. Select the correct match:, Column I, A., B., C., D., (a), (c), , –, Mg, P, –, Zn, –, Mo, –, A–2, B–1, C–3, D–4, A–4, B–1, C–2, D–3, 2+, , (c) Ca, Mg, K, , Column II, 1., 2., 3., 4., , Chlorophyll, ATP, Alcohol dehydrogenase, Nitrogenase, (b) A–1, B–2, C–3, D–4, (d) A–4, B–3, C–2, D–1, , Metabolism of Nitrogen, 17. Which element plays an important role in opening and closing of stomata?, (a) P, (b) N, (c) K, (d) Ca, 18. In how many broad categories can the essential elements be grouped on the basis of their, diverse function?, (a) 1, (b) 2, (c) 3, (d) 4, 19. Which essential nutrient in plant is required in greatest amount?, (a) N, (b) P, (c) K, , (d) Ca
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Mineral Nutrition12.3, , 20. Nitrogen is one of the major constituents of, (a) Protein, (c) Vitamins and hormones, 21. Select the incorrect match:, Element, (a) Nitrogen, –, (b) Sulphur, –, (c) Iron, –, (d) Boron, –, , (b) Nucleic acid, (d) All of these, , Absorbable form, NO-3 , NO-2, NH+4,, S2Fe3+, BO3, B4O723, , 22. Which of the following is required for all phosphorylation reaction?, (a) N, (b) Ca, (c) P, , (d) K, , 23. Which of the following is the function of potassium?, (1) Cation–anion balance in cell, (2) Involved in protein synthesis, (3) Activation of enzyme, (4) Opening and closing of stomata, (5) Maintenance of turgidity of cell, (a) All except 1, (b) All except 1 and 2 (c) All except 3, , (d) All of these, , 24. Which element is involved in the formation of mitotic spindle?, (a) N, (b) P, (c) Ca, , (d) K, , 25. The following functions are related to which element mainly?, (1) Activated enzyme of photosynthesis and respiration., (2) Involved in synthesis of DNA and RNA., (3) Helps to maintain the structure of ribosome., (a) Ca, (b) Mg, (c) S, , (d) Fe, , 26. Which of the following group contains sulphur in all members?, (a) Thiamine, ferredoxin, aspartic acid, (b) Biotin, coenzyme A, methionine, (c) Methionine, proline, leucine, (d) DNA and RNA, 27. Which of the following is true about iron?, (a) It is a constituent of ferredoxin and cytochrome., (b) It activates catalase enzyme., (c) It is essential for the formation of chlorophyll., (d) All the above, 28. Which element is related to the splitting of water in light reaction of photosynthesis?, (a) Mn, (b) Mo, (c) Fe, (d) B, 29. Match the column:, Column I, A. Zinc, B. Copper, C. Boron, D. Molybdenum, E. Chlorine, , –, –, –, –, –, , Column II, 1. Needed for the synthesis of Auxin, 2. Essential for water splitting reaction, 3. Pollen germination, 4. Component of nitrate reductase, 5. Associated with enzyme involved in Redox reaction
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12.4, , Mineral Nutrition, , (a) A–2, b–3, c–1, d–5, e–4, (c) a–1, b–5, c–3, d–4, e–2, , (b) a–1, b–2, c–3, d–4, E–5, (d) a–5, b–4, C–3, d–2, e–1, , 30. Which element generally activates the carboxylase enzyme?, (a) Mo, (b) Mn, (c) Mg, , (d) Zn, , 31. The following functions are related to, (1) Uptake and the utilization of calcium, (2) Carbohydrate translocation, (3) Cell elongation and maturation, (4) Membrane functioning, (a) Ca, (b) B, , (c) Mo, , (d) Zn, , 32. The element involved in splitting of water is, (a) Mn, (b) Ca, , (c) Cl, , (d) All of these, , 33. Mn induced the deficiency of, (a) Fe, (b) Mg, , (c) Ca, , (d) All of these, , 34. Which one of the following statement is incorrect?, (a) The first phase of mineral absorption is the rapid uptake of ions into free or outer space., (b) In the second phase of uptake, the ions are slowly taken into inner space, the symplast of, the cells., (c) The movement of ion is usually called flux., (d) The inward movement of ion outflux and outword movement of ion is called influx., 35. Ascent of mineral is mainly due to, (a) Xylem, (b) Phloem, , (c) Pericycle, , (d) Cortex, , 36. The mineral available to plants is mainly obtained from, (a) Decay of other plants, (b) Decay of other animals, (c) Weathering of rocks, (d) None of these, 37. The function of soil is to, (a) Supply mineral to plants, (c) Hold water and supply air to root, , (b) Harbour the nitrogen fixing bacteria, (d) All of these, , 38. Fertilizer contains, (a) Micronutrient, , (c) Both (a) and (b), , (b) Macronutrient, , 39. Nitrogen is limiting mineral for, (a) Natural ecosystem, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (b) Agro-ecosystem, (d) None of these, , 40. Conversion of N2 to ammonia is known as, (a) Nitrogen fixation (b) Nitrification, , (c) Denitrification, , (d) None of these, , (d) Ammonification, , 41. Lightening and UV radiation can cause a reaction between nitrogen and oxygen and produces, (c) N2O, (d) All of these, (a) NO, (b) NO2, 42. Decomposition of organic nitrogen of dead plants and animals into ammonia is called, (a) Nitrogen fixation, (b) Nitrification, (c) Denitrification, (d) Ammonification
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Mineral Nutrition12.5, , 43. What happens to ammonia formed by ammonification?, (a) Some gets volatilized, (b) Most of it gets converted into nitrate by soil bacteria, (c) Some will undergo biological nitrogen fixation, (d) Both (a) and (b), 44. 2NH3 + 3O2 → 2NO2- + 2H+ + 2H2O, The reaction can be caused by, (1) Nitrosomonas, (2) Nitrococcus, (4) Pseudomonas, (5) Thiobacillus, (a) 1 and 5 only, (b) 1 and 2 only, , (3) Nitrobacter, (c) 4 and 5 only, , (d) Only 3, , 45. 2NO2- + O2 → 2NO3This process of nitrification is done by ___________ bacteria., (a) Pseudomonas, (b) Thiobacillus, (c) Nitrobacter, , (d) Nitrococcus, , 46. Nitrifying bacteria are, (a) Photoautotroph, (b) Chemoautotroph, , (d) All of these, , (c) Heterotrophy, , 47. Nitrate present in the soil is also reduced to nitrogen by the process of denitrification it is, carried out by, (a) Pseudomonas, (b) Thiobacillus, (c) Rhizobium, (d) Both (a) and (b), 48. Reduction of nitrogen to ammonia by living organism is called, (a) Nitrification, (b) Denitrification, (c) Biological nitrogen fixation, (d) Ammonification, 49. N ≡ N → NH3, This reaction is catalyzed by the enzyme, (a) Isomerase, (c) Carbonic anhydrase, , (b) Nitrogenase, (d) Higase, , 50. Frankia produced nitrogen by fixing nodule on, (a) Lentils, (b) Garden pea, (c) Alnus, , (d) Broad bean, , 51. Which of the following statement is incorrect?, (a) Rhizobium and frankia are free living bacteria of soil., (b) Rhizobium is rod shaped (Bacillus)., (c) Root nodule of pulse are pink due to the presence of leg-haemoglobin., (d) Rhizobium and frankia can fix nitrogen as free living bacteria, 52. Leg-haemoglobin means, (a) Low grade haemoglobin, (c) Leguminous haemoglobin, , (b) Luminous haemoglobin, (d) Low level haemoglobin, , 53. The sequential stage for principal stages of nodule formation are, (1) Rhizobia multiply and colonies the surrounding roots., (2) Rhizobia attached to epidermal and root hair cells., (3) Root hair curl and bacteria invades root hair., (4) Initiation of nodule formation in cortex., (5) Infection thread is produced carrying bacteria to cortex.
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12.6, , Mineral Nutrition, , (6) Bacteria released from thread into cells and causes their differentiation in specialized, nitrogen fixing cells., (7) Nodule formed is establish, a direct vascular connection with the host for exchange of, nutrient., (a) I → VII → II → VI → III → V → IV, (b) II → III → IV → I → VII → V → VI, (c) VII → VI → IV → I → III → V → II, (d) I → II → III → V → IV → VI → VII, 54. Root nodule of leguminous plant contains, (a) Nitrogenase, (b) Leg-haemoglobin (c) Both (a) and (b), , (d) None of these, , 55. The enzyme nitrogenase is, (a) Mo-Fe protein, (b) Mo-Mn protein, , (d) Cu-Fe protein, , (c) Mn-Fe protein, , 56. Which cells are divided for nodule formation?, (a) Inner cortex, (b) Pericycle, (c) Endodermis, , (d) Both (a) and (b), , 57. For the production of 2 mol. NH3 how much ATP is required in biological nitrogen fixation, reaction (i. e., N2 → 2NH3)?, (a) 4, (b) 8, (c) 16, (d) 32, 58. Nitrogenase requires ___________ condition for its activity., (a) Aerobic, (b) Anaerobic, (c) Ozonized environment, (d) CO2, 59. Which of the following is incorrect about nitrogen fixation in nodule?, (a) It is a high energy process., (b) Leg-haemoglobin acts as oxygen scavenger., (c) Mg is required as a cofactor for nitrogenase enzyme., (d) This process uses atmospheric nitrogen but not atmospheric hydrogen directly., 60. Fats of NH3 formed during biological nitrogen fixation is, (a) NH3 protonated to form, (b) The NH4+ ion formed is used for reductive amination, (c) Glutamic acid is formed under reductive amination to undergo transamination., (d) All of these, 61. Which is the main amino acid that is used for transamination?, (a) Tyrosine, (b) Proline, (c) Glutamic acid, , (d) Alanine, , A, → glumate + H2O + NADP, 62. (i) α-ketoglutaric acid + NH4+ + NADPH , , H, , O, , +, , O, , What is A and B put on arrow?, (a) A–Glutamate dehydrogenase, B–Transaminase, (b) A–Transaminase, B–Glutamate dehydrogenase, (c) A–Nitrogenase, B–Transaminase, (d) A–Glumate aminase, B–Dehydrogenase, , —, , —, —, , NH3, , R1—C—COO– + R2—C—COO–, —, —, , —, , R—C—COO– + R2—C—COO–, , B, , —, , H, —, , (ii), , NH⊕3
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Mineral Nutrition12.7, , 63. Select the incorrect statement from the following:, (a) The amides ‒ aspargine and glutamine are found in plants as structural part of protein., (b) Amides contain less nitrogen than amino acid., (c) NH2 radicle is transported to other parts via xylem., (d) In soyabean, the fixed nitrogen is transported as ureides., 64. Ureides have, (a) High N/C ratio, , (b) Low N/C ratio, , (c) Any of these, , (d) None of these, , 65. Which of the following is incorrect about NH4+ ion?, (a) It is formed by the protonation of NH3., (b) Less toxic so it can be accumulated in plants., (c) It is used to synthesize amino acid in plants., (d) All the above, 66. Select the order of true and false statements:, (a) Boron deficiency leads to stout axis., (b) Every mineral element that is present in a cell is needed by the cell., (c) Nitrogen as a nutrient element is highly immobile in the plants., (d) It is very easy to establish the essentiality of micronutrients because they are required only, in trace quantities., (a) FFFT, (b) FFTT, (c) TTFF, (d) TTTF, 67. What is critical concentration?, (a) Concentration of essential element which causes flowering in plants., (b) Concentration of essential element which is easily absorbed by plants., (c) Concentration of essential element below which the plant growth is retarded., (d) All the above, 68. Select the order of true and false statements:, (1) Morphological changes which are indicative of certain element deficiencies are known as, deficiency symptoms., (2) For actively mobilized element, the deficiency symptoms first appear in older tissues., (3) When element is relatively immobile, the deficiency symptom first appear in younger, tissue., (4) Mineral nutrition study of plant have great significance to agriculture and horticulture., (a) FFFT, (b) FFTT, (c) TTFF, (d) TTTT, 69. Deficiency symptom of N, K and Mg appears in, (a) Young leaf, (b) Meristematic tissue, (c) Young stem, (d) Senescent leaves, 70. Which elements are relatively immobilized?, (a) N and P, (b) K and Mg, , (c) S and Ca, , 71. Deficiency symptom of plants includes, (a) Chlorosis and necrosis, (b) Stunted plant growth and inhibition of cell division, (c) Premature fall of leaves and buds, (d) All of these, , (d) N and Mg
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12.8, , Mineral Nutrition, , 72. Chlorosis is caused due to the deficiency of, (a) N, K, Mg, (b) S, Fe, Mn, , (c) Zn and Me, , (d) All of these, , 73. Necrosis particularly leaf tissue is caused by, (a) Ca and Mg, (b) Cu, , (c) K, , (d) All of these, , 74. Low level of N, K, S, Mo is caused by, (a) Chlorosis, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (b) Inhibition of cell division, (d) None of these, , 75. Delay in flowering occurs due to the deficiency of, (a) N, (b) S, (c) Mo, , (d) All of these, , 76. The technique of growing plants without soil in nutrient solutions is called, (a) Parthenogenesis (b) Hydroponics, (c) Aquaculture, (d) Tissue culture, 77. Which of the following element is not essential for plants?, (a) Iron, (b) Zinc, (c) Potassium, , (d) Iodine, , 78. Inorganic nutrients are present in soil in the form of, (a) Molecules, (b) Atoms, (c) Electrically charged ions, (d) Parasite, 79. Tracer elements are, (a) Microelements, (c) Radioisotopes, , (b) Macroelements, (d) Vitamins, , 80. The death of stem and root tips occur due to the deficiency of, (a) Phosphorus , (b) Calcium, (c) Nitrogen , (d) Carbon, 81. The plants requiring two metallic compounds (minerals) for chlorophyll synthesis are, (a) Fe and Ca , (b) Fe and Mg, (c) Cu and Ca , (d) Ca and K, 82. Calcium can affect the, (a) Permeability of plasma membrane, (b) Hydration of colloids, (c) Translocation of carbohydrates and amino acids, (d) Development of root, 83. Which of the following is not absorbed through soil?, (a) Carbon, (b) Nitrogen, (c) Potassium, , (d) All of these, , 84. Which of the following is considered to be the elements between macronutrients and, micronutrients?, (a) Iron , (b) Nitrogen, (c) Phosphorus , (d) Manganese, 85. The major role of phosphorus in plant metabolism is, (a) To generate metabolic energy, (b) To evolve oxygen during photosynthesis, (c) To evolve carbon dioxide during respiration, (d) To create anaerobic conditions
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Mineral Nutrition12.9, , 86. Phosphorus is a structural element in, (a) Fat, (b) Starch, , (c) Nucleotide, , 87. The most abundent element present in the plants is, (a) Manganese, (b) Iron, (c) Carbon, , (d) Carbohydrate, (d) Nitrogen, , 88. Photosynthetic photolysis of water takes place in the presence of, (a) Mn, (b) Cl, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) None of these, 89. Copper is the component of, (a) Cytochrome oxidase, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (b) Plastocyanin, (d) None of these, , 90. Which of the following element is a component of ferredoxin?, (a) Cu, (b) Mn, (c) Zn, 91. Function of zinc is, (a) Synthesis of chlorophyll, (c) Closing of stomata, , (d) Fe, , (b) Biosynthesis of IAA, (d) Oxidation of carbohydrate, , 92. The process by which minerals are absorbed is, (a) Active absorption, (b) Passive absorption, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) None of these, 93. The active uptake of minerals by roots mainly depends on the, (a) Availability of oxygen, (b) Light, (c) Temperature, (d) Availability of carbon dioxide, 94. Identify A to D in the given figure., Atmospheric N2, , Biological, N2 fixation, , Industrial, N2 fixation, , A, , Denitrification, , –, , NO2, soil ‘N’ pool, , NH3, , B, , (Uptake), , C, , D, , Animal biomass
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12.10, , (a), (b), (c), (d), , Mineral Nutrition, , A–Decaying biomass, B–Electrical N2 fixation, C–Plant biomass, D–Ammonification, A–Plant biomass, B–Decaying biomass, C–Ammonification, D–Electrical N2 fixation, A–Electrical N2 fixation, B–Ammonification, C–Decaying biomass, D–Plant biomass, A–Ammonification, B–Plant biomass, C–Electrical N2 fixation, D–Decaying biomass, , 95. Nitrogen is a component of, (a) Protein , (c) Nucleic acid , , (b) Chlorophyll, (d) All of these, , 96. Which one of the following can fix atmospheric nitrogen directly?, (a) Pea , (b) Brassica, (c) Castor , (d) Petunia, 97. Knot like bodies known as ‘nodules’ are found in the roots of groundnut plant it is produced, by, (a) Azospirillum , (b) Azotobacter, (c) Pseudomonas , (d) Rhizobium, 98. Nitrogen fixation means, (a) N2 changes in NO-3, (c) N2 change into nitrates, , (b) N2 changes in NH3, (d) None of these, , 99. Nif genes occur in, (a) Rhizobium , (c) Penicillium , , (b) Aspergillus, (d) Streptococcus, , 100. Identify A to C in the given figure., , A, , C, , B, , (a), (b), (c), (d), , A–Bacteria, B–Root hair, C–Soil particles, A–Root hair, B–Bacteria, C–Soil particles, A–Root hair, B–Soil particles, C–Bacteria, A–Soil particles, B–Bacteria, C–Root hair, , 101. Which of the following pigments is essential for the nitrogen fixation by leguminous plants?, (a) Anthocyanin, (b) Phycocyanin, (c) Phycoerythrin, (d) Leghaemoglobin
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Mineral Nutrition12.11, , Assertion and Reason Questions, Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given, below:, (a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the, assertion., (b) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the, assertion., (c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false., (d) If both the assertion and reason are false., 102. Assertion: Biological nitrogen fixation is a very high energy input process., Reason: One molecule of ammonia formation requires 8 ATP during biological nitrogen, fixation., 103. Assertion: Leguminous plants are nitrogen fixers., Reason: Leguminous plants have rhizobium in their root nodules., 104. Assertion: The use of fertilizers greatly enhances the crop productivity., Reason: Irrigation is very important in increasing crop productivity., 105. Assertion: Hydroponics is used for solution culture., Reason: A balanced nutrient solution contains both essential and non-essential elements., 106. Assertion: Nitrogen is very essential for sustenance of life., Reason: Plants cannot use atmospheric nitrogen directly., 107. Assertion: The movement of ion is usually called flux., Reason: The concentration of essential elements below which the plant growth is retarded is, termed as critical concentration., 108. Assertion: Iron takes part in the electron transport system of mitochondria., Reason: Iron has no role in chlorophyll synthesis., 109. Assertion: Decomposition of organic nitrogen of dead plants and animals into ammonia is, called ammonification., Reason: Nitrate present in the soil is also reduced to nitrogen by the process of denitrification., 110. Assertion: Rhizobium fixes nitrogen in the symbiotic association with root nodules of, leguminous plants only., Reason: Biological nitrogen fixation is anaerobic process., 111. Assertion: Nitrogen fixing bacteria in legume root nodules survive in oxygen depleted cells, of nodules., Reason: Leghaemoglobin completely removes oxygen from the nodule cells., 112. Assertion: Deficiency of sulphur causes chlorosis in plants., Reason: Sulphur is a constituent of chlorophyll, proteins and nucleic acids., 113. Assertion: S and Ca are immobile., Reason: S and Ca are part of the structural component of cell and hence it is not easily, released.
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12.12, , Mineral Nutrition, , 114. Assertion: Boron is required for the uptake and utilization of calcium ion., Reason: Boron is not required for carbohydrate translocation., 115. Assertion: Iron is essential for the formation of chlorophyll., Reason: It activates the catalase enzyme., 116. Assertion: Calcium is a constituent of middle lamella., Reason: Calcium is required in mitotic division., 117. Assertion: Sulphur is present in two amino acids such as cysteine and methionine., Reason: Vitamin (thiamine, biotin, coenzyme-A) and ferredoxin also contains sulphur., 118. Assertion: Deficiency of nitrogen is visible first in young leaves., Reason: Nitrogen is relatively immobile., 119. Assertion: Nutritional adaptation is found in insectivorous plants., Reason: They grow in N2 deficient soil so to obtain nitrogen they eat and digest insect., 120. Assertion: Hydroponics is useful technique., Reason: Hydroponics is use for identification of essential element and their deficiency, symptoms., 121. Assertion: K+ is useful for transpiration process., Reason: K+ ion help in opening and closing of stomata., 122. Assertion: Water splitting reaction in photosynthesis is essential for oxygen evolution., Reason: Mn2+, Cl–, Ca2+ ions required for photolysis of water during photosynthesis., 123. Assertion: Sulphur is important constituent of amino acid eg. thiamine, biotin and coenzyme, A., Reason: Sulphur is use to form vitamin eg. cysteine and methionine, 124. Assertion: Manganese toxicity leads to deficiency of iron and magnesium., Reason: Manganese competes with iron and magnesium for uptake., 125. Assertion: Nitrogen is limiting nutrient for both natural and agricultural ecosystems., Reason: Plant competes with microbes for limited nitrogen available in soil., 126. Assertion: Absorption of mineral is inhibited by anaerobic environment., Reason: Absorption of mineral is mainly active absorption require oxygenic respiration for, more energy., 127. Assertion: Calcium is essential for meristmetic cells, Reason: It involve in formation of spindle apparatus., 128. Assertion: Some prokaryotes can fix atmospheric nitrogen, Reason: Nitrogenase is exclusively present in some prokaryotes, 129. Assertion: Rhizobium lives as aerobes under free living condition., Reason: Nitrogenase is operational under aerobic condition.
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Mineral Nutrition12.13, , previous year questions, 1. Leguminous plants are able to fix atmospheric nitrogen through the process of symbiotic, nitrogen fixation. Which one of the following statements is not correct during this process of, nitrogen fixation?, , [AIPMT MAINS 2010], (a) Leghaemoglobin scavenges oxygen and it is pinkish in colour., (b) Nodules act as sites for nitrogen fixation., (c) The enzyme nitrogen catalyses the conversion of atmospheric N2 to NH3., (d) Nitrogenase is insensitive to oxygen., 2. Study the cycle shown below and select the option which gives the correct word for all the four, blanks A, B, C and D., , [AIPMT MAINS 2010], Atmospheric N2, , Biological, N2 fixation, , Industrial, N2 fixation, , Electrical, N2 fixation, –, , NO3, soil ‘N’ pool, , NH3, , B, , A, , NO3, , (Uptake), , Decaying blossom, , C, , D, , (a), (b), (c), (d), , A: Nitrification, B: Ammonification, C: Animals, D: Plants, A: Denitrification, B: Ammonification, C: Plants, D: Animals, A: Nitrification, B: Denitrification, C: Animals, D: Plants, A: Denitrification, B: Nitrification, C: Plants, D: Animals, , 3. The genetically-modified (GM) brinjal in India has been developed for, , [AIPMT PRE 2010], (a) Insect-resistance, (b) Enhancing Shelf life, (c) Enhancing mineral content, (d) Drought-resistance, 4. An element playing important role in nitrogen fixation is, , , [AIPMT PRE 2010]
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12.14, , (a) Molybdenum, (c) Manganese, , Mineral Nutrition, , (b) Copper, (d) Zinc, , 5. Which one of the following is not a micronutrient?, , (a) Molybdenum, (b) Magnesium, (c) Zinc, (d) Boron, 6. The free-living, anaerobic nitrogen-fixer is, , (a) Beijerinckia, (c) Rhizobium, , (b) Rhodospirillum, (d) Azotobacter, , 7. The common nitrogen-fixer in paddy fields is, , (a) Rhizobium, (c) Oscillatoria, , (b) Azospirillum, (d) Frankia, , [AIPMT PRE 2010], , [AIPMT PRE 2010], , [AIPMT PRE 2010], , 8. Which one of the following is not an essential mineral element for plants while the remaining, three are?, , [AIPMT MAINS 2011], (a) Iron, (b) Manganese, (c) Cadmium, (d) Phosphorus, 9. The function of leghaemoglobin in the root nodules of legumes is, , [AIPMT PRE 2011], (a) Oxygen removal, (b) Nodule differentiation, (c) Expression of nif gene, (d) Inhibition of nitrogenase activity, 10. Nitrifying bacteria, , (a) Convert free nitrogen to nitrogen compounds, (b) Convert proteins into ammonia, (c) Reduce nitrates to free nitrogen, (d) Oxidize ammonia to nitrates, 11. Which one of the following elements in plants is not remobilized?, , (a) Calcium, (b) Potassium, (c) Sulphur, (d) Phosphorus, 12. An organism used as a biofertilizer for raising soyabean crop is, , (a) Azospirillum, (b) Rhizobium, (c) Nostoc, (d) Azotobacter, 13. For its action, nitrogenase requires, , (a) Light, (c) Super oxygen radicals, 14. For its activity, carboxypeptidases requires, , , [AIPMT PRE 2011], , [AIPMT PRE 2011], , [AIPMT PRE 2011], , [AIPMT MAINS 2012], (b) Mn2+, (d) High input of energy, [AIPMT MAINS 2012]
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Mineral Nutrition12.15, , (a) Iron, (c) Copper, , (b) Niacin, (d) Zinc, , 15. Read the following four statements (A to D):, (A) Both, photophosphorylation and oxidative phosphorylation involves the uphill transport, of protons across the membrane., (B) In dicot stems, a new cambium originates from the cells of pericycle at the time of, secondary growth., (C) Stamens in flowers of Gloriosa and Petunia are polyandrous., (D) Symbiotic nitrogen-fixers occur in free-living state also in soil., , [AIPMT MAINS 2012], How many of the above statements are right?, (a) Three, (b) Four, (c) One, (d) Two, 16. The best defined function of Manganese in green plants is, , (a) Photolysis of water, (b) Calvin cycle, (c) Nitrogen fixation, (d) Water absorption, , [AIPMT PRE 2012], , 17. Which one of the following is a wrong statement?, , [AIPMT PRE 2012], (a) Anabaena and Nostoc are capable of fixing nitrogen in free-living state also., (b) Root nodule forming nitrogen fixers live as aerobes under free-living conditions., (c) Phosphorus is a constituent of cell membranes, certain nucleic acids and all proteins., (d) Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter are chemoautotrophs., 18. The most abundant intracellular cation is, , (b) ca+, (a) Na+, , (c) H+, , [AIPMT PRE 2012], (d) K+, , 19. The first stable product of fixation of atmospheric nitrogen in leguminous plants is, , [AIPMT PRE 2012], (b) Ammonia, (a) NO–2, (d) Glutamate, (c) NO–3, 20. Deficiency symptoms of nitrogen and potassium are visible first in, , (a) Senescent leaves, (b) Young leaves, (c) Roots, (d) Buds, , [AIPMT 2014], , 21. A few normal seedlings of tomato were kept in a dark room. After a few days they were found, to have become white coloured like albinos. Which of the following terms will you use to, describe them?, , [AIPMT 2014], (a) Mutated, (b) Embolised, (c) Etiolated, (d) Defoliated, 22. Mineral known to be required in large amounts for plant growth include:, , (a) Phosphorus, potassium, sulphur, calcium, (b) Calcium, magnesium, manganese, copper, , [AIPMT 2015]
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12.16, , Mineral Nutrition, , (c) Potassium, phosphorus, selenium, boron, (d) Magnesium, sulphur, iron, zinc, 23. Which one gives the most valid and recent explanation for stomatal movements?, , [AIPMT 2015], (a) Transpiration , (b) Potassium influx and efflux, (c) Starch hydrolysis , (d) Guard cell photosynthesis, 24. The oxygen evolved during photosynthesis comes from water molecules. Which one of the, following pairs of elements is involved in this reaction?, , [RE-AIPMT 2015], (a) Manganese and Potassium, (b) Magnesium and Molybdenum, (c) Magnesium and Chlorine, (d) Manganese and Chlorine, 25. During biological nitrogen fixation, inactivation of nitrogenase by oxygen poisoning is prevented by:, , [RE-AIPMT 2015], (a) Xanthophyll, (b) Carotene, (c) Cytochrome, (d) Laghaemoglobin, 26. In which of the following all three are macronutrients?, [NEET - I, 2016], (a) Boron, zinc, manganese, (b) Iron, copper, molybdenum, (c) Molybdenum, magnesium, manganese, (d) Nitrogen, nickel, phosphorus, 27. Which is essential for the growth of root tip?, (a) Fe, (b) Ca, (c) Mn, (d) Zn, , [NEET - II, 2016], , NCERT Exemplar Questions, 1. Which one of the following roles is not the characteristic of an essential element?, (a) Being a component of biomolecules., (b) Changing the chemistry of soil., (c) Being a structural component of energy related chemical compounds., (d) Activation or inhibition of enzymes., 2. Which one of the following statements can best explain the term critical concentration of an, essential element?, (a) Essential element concentration below which the plant growth is retarded., (b) Essential element concentration below which the plant growth becomes stunted., (c) Essential element concentration below which the plant remains in the vegetative phase., (d) None of these, 3. Deficiency symptoms of an element tend to appear first in young leaves. It indicates that the, element is relatively immobile. Which one of the following elemental deficiency would show, such symptoms?, (a) Sulphur, (b) Magnesium, (c) Nitrogen, (d) Potassium
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Mineral Nutrition12.17, , 4. Which one of the following symptoms is not due to manganese toxicity in plants?, (a) Calcium translocation in shoot apex is inhibited, (b) Deficiency in both Iron and Nitrogen is induced, (c) Appearance of brown spot surrounded by chlorotic veins., (d) None of these, 5. Reaction carried out by N2 metabolising microbes include, → 2NO 2− + 2H + + 2H 2O (i), (A) 2NH 3 + 3O 2 ⎯⎯, → 2NO3− (ii), (B) 2NO 2 + O 2 ⎯⎯, Which of the following statements about these equations is not true?, (a) Step (i) is carried out by Nitrosomonas or Nitrococcus, (b) Step (ii) is carried out by Nitrobacter, (c) Both steps (i) and (ii) can be called nitrification, (d) bacteria carrying out these steps are usually photoautotrophs., 6. With regard to the Biological Nitrogen Fixation by Rhizobium in association with soyabean,, which one of the following statement/statements does not hold true, (a) Nitrogenase may require oxygen for its functioning, (b) Nitrogenase is Mo–Fe protein, (c) Leghaemoglobin is a pink coloured pigment, (d) Nitrogenase helps to convert N2 gas into two molecules to ammonia., 7. Match the element with its associated functions/roles and choose the correct among given, below., (A) Boron, (B), (C), (D), (E), , Manganese, Molybdenum, Zinc, Iron, , (i) Splitting of H2O to liberate O2, during photosynthesis, (ii) Needed for synthesis of auxins, (iii) Component of nitrogenase, (iv) Pollen germination, (v) Component of ferredoxin, , Options:, (a) (A)–(i), (B)–(ii), (C)–(iii), (D)–(iv), (E)–(v), (b) (A)–(iv), (B)–(i), (C)–(iii), (D)–(ii), (E)–(v), (c) (A)–(iii), (B)–(ii), (C)–(iv), (D)–(v), (E)–(i), (d) (A)–(ii), (B)–(iii), (C)–(v), (D)–(i), (E)–(iv), 8. Plants can be grown in (Tick the incorrect option), (a) Soil with essential nutrients, (b) Water with essential nutrients, (c) Either water or soil with essential nutrients, (d) Water or soil without essential nutrients
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12.18, , Mineral Nutrition, , Answer Keys, Practice Questions, 1. (b), 11. (b), 21. (b), 31. (b), 41. (d), 51. (d), 61. (c), 71. (d), 81. (b), 91. (b), 101. (d), , 2. (d), 12. (c), 22. (c), 32. (d), 42. (d), 52. (c), 62. (a), 72. (d), 82. (a), 92. (c), , 3. (d), 13. (b), 23. (d), 33. (d), 43. (d), 53. (d), 63. (b), 73. (d), 83. (a), 93. (a), , 4. (a), 14. (a), 24. (c), 34. (d), 44. (b), 54. (c), 64. (a), 74. (c), 84. (a), 94. (c), , 5. (d), 15. (a), 25. (b), 35. (a), 45. (c), 55. (a), 65. (b), 75. (d), 85. (a), 95. (d), , 6. (b), 16. (b), 26. (b), 36. (c), 46. (b), 56. (d), 66. (a), 76. (b), 86. (c), 96. (a), , 7. (d), 17. (c), 27. (d), 37. (d), 47. (d), 57. (c), 67. (c), 77. (d), 87. (c), 97. (d), , 8. (a), 18. (d), 28. (a), 38. (c), 48. (c), 58. (b), 68. (d), 78. (c), 88. (c), 98. (b), , 9. (d) 10. (d), 19. (a) 20. (d), 29. (c) 30. (d), 39. (c) 40. (a), 49. (b) 50. (c), 59. (c) 60. (d), 69. (d) 70. (c), 79. (c) 80. (b), 89. (c) 90. (d), 99. (a) 100. (d), , Assertion and Reason Questions, 102. (a) 103. (a) 104. (b) 105. (c) 106. (b) 107. (b) 108. (c) 109. (b) 110.(a) 111. (d), 112. (c) 113. (a) 114. (a) 115. (b) 116. (b) 117. (b) 118. (d) 119. (a) 120. (a) 121. (a), 122. (b) 123. (d) 124. (b) 125. (a) 126. (a) 127. (a) 128. (a) 129. (c), Previous Year Questions, 1. (d), 11. (a), 21. (c), , 2. (b), 12. (b), 22. (a), , 3. (a), 13. (d), 23. (b), , 4. (a), 14. (d), 24. (d), , 5. (b), 15. (d), 25. (d), , 6. (b), 16. (a), 26. (b), , 7. (c), 17. (c), 27. (b), , 8. (a), 18. (d), , NCERT Exemplar Questions, 1. (b), , 2. (a), , 3. (a), , 4. (b), , 5. (d), , 6. (a), , 7. (b), , 8. (d), , 9. (a), 19. (b), , 10. (d), 20. (a)
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CHAPTER, , 13, , Photosynthesis, in Higher Plants, prACtiCe Questions, , Photosynthesis, 1. Photosynthesis is a, (a) Physical process, (c) Physico–chemical process, , (b) Chemical process, (d) Physiological process, , 2. All living forms on earth depend on _________ for energy., (a) Sun, (b) Hydrothermal vent (c) Volcanic eruption (d) Moon, 3. During photosynthesis, light energy is used to synthesize, (a) Inorganic compound, (b) Organic compound, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) None of these, 4. Photosynthesis is important because, (a) It is the primary source of all food on earth, (b) It is responsible for the release of O2, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) None of these, 5. Select the incorrect statement from the following:, (a) All animals including human depend on plant for their food., (b) The use of energy from sunlight by plants doing photosynthesis is the basis of life on, earth., (c) Green plants carry out photosynthesis., (d) None of the above, 6. Which of the following is required for photosynthesis?, (b) Chlorophyll, (c) Light, (a) CO2, , (d) All of these, , 7. An experiment using two leaves, a variegated leaf or a leaf that was covered with black paper, and one that was exposed to light on testing these leaves for starch shows that photosynthesis, occurs only in _________ part of leaf in the_________ of sunlight, (a) non-green, presence, (b) green, presence, (c) non-green, absence, (d) green, absence, 8. Half leaf experiment proved that _________ is required for photosynthesis., (a) Carbon dioxide, (b) Chlorophyll, (c) Light, (d) Oxygen, 9. Which of the following substance is used in half leaf experiment to absorb CO2?, (d) H2SO4, (a) HCl, (b) KOH, (c) HNO3
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13.2, , Photosynthesis in Higher Plants, , 10. _________ in 1770 performed a series of experiments that revealed the essential role of air in, growth of green plants., (a) Jan Ingenhousz, (b) Joseph Priestley, (c) Von Sachs, (d) Cornelius Van Niel, 11. Bell Jar experiment was performed by, (a) Jan Ingenhousz, (c) Von Sachs, , (b) Joseph Priestley, (d) Cornelius Van Niel, , 12., , (a), , (b), , (c), , (d), , Priestley’s experiment, , Which of the following does Priestly conclude on the basis of above experiment?, (a) Burning candle or animal that breathes air, somehow, damages the air., (b) Plants restore to the air, whatever breathing animal and burning candles remove., (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) Light is essential for it., 13. Find the method used to light the candle in bell jar experiment without disturbing the setup., (a) Removing bell jar slowly and light the candle, (b) Creating a hole in bell jar, (c) Using hand lens, (d) Through a sudden replacement by another enlightened candle, 14. Who proved that light is essential for plant process that purifies foul air by placing priestly and, setup once in light and once in dark?, (a) Jan Ingenhousz, (b) Joseph Priestley, (c) Von Sachs, (d) Cornelius Van Niel, A, B, 15. _______, performed an elegant experiment with an _______, plant to show that in bright sunC, light, small bubble, were formed around the _______, parts, while in dark they do not die., A , B, C, (a) Ingenhousz, Aquatic, Green, (b) Ingenhousz, Terrestrial, Green, (c) Priestly, Aquatic, Green, (d) Priestly, Aquatic, Non-green, 16. Which of the following proved that green part could release O2 by his experiment on an, acquatic plant?, (a) Jan Ingenhousz, (b) Joseph Priestley, (c) Von Sachs, (d) Cornelius Van Niel, 17. The stored form of glucose in plant is, (a) Inulin, (b) Sucrose, , (c) Starch, , (d) Glycogen
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Photosynthesis in Higher Plants13.3, , 18. Who provided the evidence for the production of glucose when plants grow?, (a) Jan Ingenhousz, (b) Joseph Priestley, (c) Von Sachs, (d) Cornelius Van Niel, 19. Von Sachs studies shows that, (a) Green substance in plants is located in special bodies within the plant cell., (b) Glucose is made in green part of plant., (c) Glucose is usually stored as starch., (d) All the above, 20. The first action spectrum of photosynthesis is described often as an experiment of, (a) Jan Ingenhousz, (b) Joseph Priestley, (c) Von Sachs, (d) Engelmann, 21. Which of the following is incorrect about the experiment performed by T. W. Engelmann?, (a) Cladophora (a green algae) is used., (b) Suspension of aerobic bacteria is used., (c) Bacteria accumulated mainly in the region of orange and green part of the light spectrum., (d) Prism was used to split light into its spectral component., 22. A first action spectrum of photosynthesis was described on the basis of experiment performed, by T. W. Engelmann on _________ algae., (a) Green, (b) Red, (c) Brown, (d) All of these, 23. Which of the following pigments resemble the action spectrum produced on the basis of, Engelmann experiment?, A. Chlorophyll a, B. Chlorophyll b, C. Xanthophyll, D. Carotenoids, (a) A and C only, (b) A and B only, (c) Only A, (d) C and D only, 24. Who demostrated that photosynthesis is essentially a light-dependent reaction in which, hydrogen from a suitable oxidizable compound reduces CO2 to carbohydrates?, (a) Engelmann, (b) Von Sachs, (c) C. B. Van Niel, (d) Jan Ingenhousz, 25. Van Neil performed the experiment O2 on, (a) Purple and Green bacteria, (c) Green plants, , (b) Green algae, (d) Fungus, , 26. Van Neil was a, (a) Physicist, , (c) Biochemist, , (b) Microbiologist, , (d) Chemist, , 27. Which of the following reaction expresses Van Niel reaction for photosynthesis?, Light, (a) CO2 + H2O , → [CH2O] + O2, Light, (b) 2H2A + CO2 , → 2A + CH2O + H2O, Light, → C6H12O6 + 6H2O + 6O2, (c) 6CO2 + 12H2O , Light, → C6H12O6 + 6O2, (d) 6CO2 + 6H2O , , 28. What are the probable oxidation production of H2S in purple and green sulphur bacteria?, (a) Sulphur, (b) Sulphate, (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
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13.4, , Photosynthesis in Higher Plants, , 29. The correct equation of photosynthesis is, Light, (a) CO2 + H2O , → [CH2O] + O2, Light, (b) 2H2A + CO2 , → 2A + CH2O + H2O, Light, → C6H12O6 + 6H2O + 6O2, (c) 6CO2 + 12H2O , Light, → C6H12O6 + 6O2, (d) 6CO2 + 6H2O , , 30. By using a _________ isotope it can be proved that O2 is released from water during, photosynthesis, (a) Radioactive, (b) Heavy, (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these, 31. Photosynthesis is a, (a) Single-step process, (c) Three-step process, , (b) Two-step process, (d) Multi-step process, , 32. Photosynthesis occurs in, (a) Green leaf, (b) Green stem, , (c) Guard cells, , (d) All of these, , 33. Within chloroplast, the membranous system is made up of, (a) Grana, (b) Stroma lamellae, (c) Stroma, (d) Both (a) and (b), 34. Calvin cycle is termed as dark reaction because it, (a) Is not dependent on light for CO2 fixation in stroma, (b) Occurs in dark, (c) Is by convention only, (d) Requires light, 35. Where does light reaction occur in chloroplast?, (a) Membrane system (grana), (b) Stroma, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) None of these, 36. Identify A to H in the given figure., G, F, D, B, A, E, C, H, , (a) , A–Stroma, B–Grana, C–Starch granule, D–Stromal lamella, E–Ribosomes, F–Inner, membrane, G–Outer membrane, H–Lipid droplet, (b) A–Lipid droplet, B–Stroma, C–Ribosomes, D–Outer membrane, E–Grana, F–Stromal, lamella, G–Starch granule, H–Inner membrane
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Photosynthesis in Higher Plants13.5, , (c) , A–Starch granule, B–Ribosomes, C–Outer membrane, D–Lipid droplet, E–Grana,, F–Stroma, G–Stromal lamella, H–Inner membrane, (d) A–Inner membrane, B–Outer membrane, C–Stroma, D–Stromal lamella, E–Ribosomes,, F–Grana, G–Lipid droplet, H–Starch granule, 37. Which of the following is correct about light reaction?, (a) Light is required, (b) ATP is produced during reaction, (c) NADPH is produced during reaction, (d) All of these, 38. Find out the incorrect statement from the following:, (a) Dark reaction depends on the product formed by light reaction., (b) In stroma, enzymatic reactions incorporates CO2 into the plant leading to the synthesis of, sugar., (c) Purple and green sulphur bacteria use H2S as hydrogen donor., (d) There is no division of labour in chloroplast., 39. Match the column:, Pigment, , Colour (in chromatogram), , A., , Chlorophyll a, , –, , i), , Bright or blue green, , B., , Chlorophyll b, , –, , ii) Yellow, , C., , Xanthophylls, , –, , iii) Yellow to Green, , D., , Carotenoids, , –, , iv), , (a) A–i, B–ii, C–iii, D–iv, (c) A–ii, B–i, C–iii, D–iv, , Yellow to yellow–orange, (b) A–i, B–iii, C–ii, D–iv, (d) A–iii, B–ii, C–i, D–iv, , 40. The chief pigment associated with photosynthesis is, (a) Chlorophyll b, (b) Chlorophyll a, (c) Xanthophyll, , (d) Carotenoid, , 41. Which light is absorbed more by Chlorophyll ‘a’?, (a) Yellow and green , (b) Red and blue, (c) Yellow and orange , (d) Yellow and red, 42. Which light shows higher rate of photosynthesis?, (a) Yellow and green , (b) Red and blue, (c) Yellow and orange , (d) Yellow and red, 43. Light reaction and photochemical phase includes, (a) Light absorption, (b) Water splitting and release of oxygen, (c) ATP and NADPH formation, (d) All of these, 44. Which of the following is incorrect about photosystem?, (a) There are two photosystem (PS I and PS II)., (b) PS I and PS II are named in sequence of their discovery., (c) LHC is made up of hundred of pigment molecules which are bounded proteins., (d) Each photosystem has all the pigments (Except one molecule of chlorophyll ‘b’).
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13.6, , Photosynthesis in Higher Plants, , 45. Select the correct sequence of electron transfer in Z-scheme of light reaction:, (a) e- Acceptor → ETS (made of cytochrome) → PSII → NADP+ → PSI → e- Acceptor, (b) PSII → e- Acceptor → ETS (made of cytochrome) → PSI → e- Acceptor → NADP+, (c) ETS (made of cytochrome) → PSI → e- Acceptor → PSII → e- Acceptor → NADP+, (d) e- Acceptor → PSI → PSII → e- Acceptor → ETS (made of cytochrome) → NADP+, 46. In Z-scheme, Z-shape is formed when, (a) Carriers are placed uphill, (b) Carriers are placed downhill, (c) Carriers are placed in sequence on a redox potential scale, (d) None of the above, 47. Where water splitting complex associated with PS II is situated?, (a) Inner side of chloroplast outer membrane, (b) Inner side of thylakoid membrane, (c) Outer side of thylakoid membrane, (d) Inner side of chloroplast outer membrane, 48. Where are the protons and O2 formed likely to be released?, (a) Lumen of thylakoid, (b) Outside of thylakoid membrane, (c) In stroma, (d) None of these, 49. Phosphorylation occurs in, (a) Mitochondria, (b) Chloroplast, , (c) Cytoplasm, , (d) All of these, , 50. Oxidative phosphorylation occurs in, (a) Mitochondria, (b) Chloroplast, , (c) Cytoplasm, , (d) All of these, , 51. The place where cyclic flaw of electrons occur:, (a) Thylakoid of grana, (b) Stroma, (c) Stroma lamellae, (d) All of these, 52. Stroma lamellae lacks all except, (a) PS II, (c) PS I, , (b) NADP reductase, (d) Water splitting complex, , 53. Which of the following is incorrect about cyclic photophosphorylation?, (a) Only PS I is involved., (b) It occurs only when light of wavelength beyond 680 nm is available for excitation., (c) Only synthesis of ATP occurs., (d) Synthesis of NADPH + H+ occurs., 54. What is the processes that creates proton gradient across thylakoid membrane?, (a) Splitting of water molecule on inner side of membrane (towards lumen)., (b) H+ carrier transport H+ ion from stroma to lumen., (c) NADH reductase removes H+ ion from stroma for reduction of NADP+., (d) All the above, 55. During light reaction, (a) pH of stroma ↓es, (c) pH of lumen ↓es, , (b) pH of lumen ↑es, (d) pH of stroma has no effect
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Photosynthesis in Higher Plants13.7, , 56. Which acts as a transmembrane channel?, (a) F0 of ATPase, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (b) F1 of ATPase, (d) None of these, , 57. Chemiosmosis requires, (a) Membrane, (c) Proton gradient, , (b) Proton pump, (d) All of these, , 58. Which type of phosphorylation takes place in photosynthesis?, (a) Cyclic, (b) Non-cyclic, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) None of these, 59. Unidirectional flow of electrons in photophosphorylation takes place in, (a) Cyclic, (b) Non-cyclic, (c) Pseudocyclic, (d) All of these, 60. In light reaction of photosynthesis, the chlorophyll is subjected to, (a) Destruction, (b) Permanent reduction, (c) Oxidation and reduction, (d) Neutralization, 61. Photosynthetic pigments in chloroplast are embedded in the membrane of, (a) Thylakoids, (b) Photoglobin, (c) Matrix, (d) Envelope of chloroplast, 62. Identify A to D in the given figure., A, , C, , D, , B, , (a), (b), (c), (d), , A–Primary acceptor, B–Pigment molecules, C–Photon, D–Reaction centre, A–Photon, B–Primary acceptor, C–Reation centre, D–Pigment molecules, A–Pigment molecules, B–Primary acceptor, C–Photon, D–Reaction centre, A–Reaction centre, B–Primary acceptor, C–Pigment molecules, D–Photon, , 63. Which of the following wavelength occurs in red part of the spectrum?, (a) 470 nm, (b) 390 nm, (c) 680 nm, (d) 830 nm, 64. The process for which manganese and chloride ions are required in, (a) Photolysis of water, (b) For transfer of H+ ion to NADP, (c) For transfer of charge of hydroxyl ion to chlorophyll, (d) None of the above
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13.8, , Photosynthesis in Higher Plants, , 65. What is the absorption maxima of P-700?, (a) 700 Å, (b) 683 nm, , (c) 700 cm, , 66. NADPH2 is generated through, (a) Glycolysis, (c) Photosystem II, , (b) Photosystem I, (d) Anaerobic respiration, , (d) 700 nm, , 67. Identify A to D in the given figure., Photosystem 1, , IP, AD, , P+, , A, , ATP, , C, , B, , D, , (a), (b), (c), (d), , A–e– acceptor, B–Light, C–Chlorophyll P700, D–Electron transport system, A–Light, B–Electron transport system, C–e– acceptor, D–Chlorophyll P700, A–Electron transport system, B–e– acceptor, C–Chlorophyll P700, D–Light, A–Chlorophyll P700, B–Electron transport system, C–Light, D–e– acceptor, , 68. Quantasomes are present in, (a) Pigment system I, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (b) Pigment system II, (d) None of these, , 69. Which of the chlorophyll type ejects the electron during photophosphorylation?, (a) Chlorophyll ‘b’, (b) Chlorophyll ‘a’, (c) Chlorophyll ‘a’ and ‘b’, (d) Xanthophyll, 70. In cyclic photophosphorylation which one of the following is formed?, (a) ATP, (b) NADP and ATP, (d) NADPH2, ATP and O2, (c) NADH2 and O2, 71. Where does the primary photochemical reaction occur in chloroplast/Where does the light, reaction of photosynthesis takes place?, (a) Stroma, (b) Edoplasmic reticulum, (c) Quantasome or thylakoids (Grana), (d) Inner membrane of chloroplast, 72. The trapping centre of light energy in photosystem I is, (a) P-660, (b) P-680, (c) P-700, (d) P-720
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Photosynthesis in Higher Plants13.9, , 73. What indicates A to D in the given figure?, Photosystem 1, , IP, AD, , P+, , A, , ATP, , C, , B, , D, , (a), (b), (c), (d), , A–e– acceptor, B–Electron transport system, C–Chlorophyll P700, D–Light, A–Electron transport system, B–e– acceptor, C–Light, D–Chlorophyll P700, A–Chlorophyll P700, B–Electron transport system, C–Light, D–e– acceptor, A–Light, B–Electron transport system, C–e– acceptor, D–Chlorophyll P700, , 74. Pigment system I conducts, (a) Cyclic photophosphorylation, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (b) Non-cyclic photophosphorylation, (d) None of these, , 75. Pigment system II is concerned with, (a) Photolysis of water, (c) Flowering, , (b) Reduction of CO2, (d) None of these, , 76. Photophosphorylation is a process in which, (a) Light energy is converted into chemical energy in the form of ATP., (b) NADP is formed, (c) Chemical energy is used to produce ATP, (d) CO2 is reduced to carbohydrate, 77. The reaction centre for PS I and PS II are, (a) P700 and P680 respectively, (c) P580 and P700 respectively, , (b) P680 and P700 respectively, (d) P700 and P580 respectively, , 78. Results of light reaction is/are, (a) Only ATP, (c) ATP and NADPH2, , (b) Only NADPH2, (d) Only FAD, , 79. Biosynthetic phase of life uses all except _________ that is produced in photochemical phase., (d) None of these, (a) ATP, (b) NADPH, (c) O2, 80. If light is available for a given duration and then again made unavailable, the biosynthetic, process will, (a) Continue for long duration, (b) Continue for unlimited time, (c) Continue for short duration, (d) Will stop immediately
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13.10, , Photosynthesis in Higher Plants, , 81. Which of the following is correct about biosynthetic phase?, (a) C14 isotope is used to find out this pathway, (b) Calvin worked on this pathway, (c) Melvin Calvin used photosynthetic algae for this pathway, (d) All the above, 82. The similarity between C3 and C4 pathway is:, (a) Both are equally efficient., (b) Organic acid is formed as the first product of CO2 fixation., (c) Both requires one type of cell to occur., (d) Both takes place in all the plants., 83. Which pathway takes place in all photosynthetic plant?, (b) C4, (c) Both (a) and (b), (a) C3, , (d) None of these, , 84. For easy understanding, the Calvin cycle is divided into how many stages?, (a) 1, (b) 2, (c) 3, (d) 4, 85. Calvin cycle includes, (a) Carboxylation, (c) Regeneration of RuBP, , (b) Reduction, (d) All of these, , 86. Which process of Calvin cycle requires RuBP?, (a) Carboxylation, (b) Reduction, (c) Regeneration, , (d) None of these, , 87. Reduction process of Calvin cycle requires how many ATP and NADPH for the reduction of, one molecule of CO2?, (a) 2 mole ATP and 3 mole NADPH, (b) 2 mole ATP and 2 mole NADPH, (c) 1 mole ATP and 2 mole NADPH, (d) 3 mole ATP and 2 mole NADPH, 88. How many moles of ATP is required to regenerate one mole of RuBP?, (a) 1, (b) 2, (c) 3, (d) 4, 89. The first stable product of Calvin cycle has, (a) 2 carbon atoms, (b) 3 carbon atoms, , (c) 4 carbon atoms, , (d) 6 carbon atoms, , 90. In dark reaction, the first reaction is, (a) Carboxylation, (b) Decarboxylation, , (c) Dehydrogenation, , (d) Deamidation, , 91. In C4 plants, CO2 combines with PEP in the presence of, (a) PEP carboxylase (b) RuBP carboxylase (c) RuBP oxygenase, , (d) Hydrogenase, , 92. Dark reaction of photosynthesis is called so because it, (a) Can also occur in dark, (b) Does not require light energy, (c) Cannot occur during day time, (d) Occurs more rapidly at night, 93. The initial enzyme of Calvin cycle is, (a) Ribulose 1, 5 diphosphate carboxylase, (c) Phosphofructokinase, , (b) Triose phosphate dehydrogenase, (d) Cytochrome oxidase, , 94. During photosynthesis, when PGA is changed into phosphoglyceraldehyde, which of the, following reaction occurs?, (a) Oxidation, (b) Reduction, (c) Electrolysis, (d) Hydrolysis
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Photosynthesis in Higher Plants13.11, , 95. Ribulose diphosphate carboxylase enzyme catalyses the carboxylation reaction between, (a) Oxaloacetic acid and acetyl CoA, (b) CO2 and ribulose 1, 5 diphosphate, (c) Ribulose diphosphate and phosphoglyceraldehyde, (d) PGA and dihydroxyacetone phosphate, 96. Calvin cycle occurs in, (a) Chloroplasts, (b) Cytoplasm, , (c) Mitochondria, , (d) Glyoxysomes, , 97. In C3 plants, the first stable product of photosynthesis during dark reaction is, (a) 3-phosphoglyceric acid, (b) Phosphoglyceraldehyde, (c) Maleic acid, (d) Oxaloacetic acid, 98. How many Calvin cycle forms one hexose molecule?, (a) 2, (b) 6, (c) 4, , (d) 8, , 99. In which plant Calvin experimented the radioactive isotopy to discover the stable product of, C3 cycle?, (a) Chlorella, (b) Cycas, (c) Carrot, (d) Tobacco, 100. Mesophyll chloroplast of which plant alone is capable of synthesizing starch or sucrose?, (b) C4 plant, (a) C3 plant, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) Neither C3 nor C4, 101. The enzymes of dark reaction in C4 plants are found in, (a) Bundle sheath chloroplast, (b) Mesophyll chloroplast, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) None of these, 102. In C4 plants, the mesophyll cells are connected with bundle sheath cells with the help of, (a) Cytoplasmic connection, (b) Special connecting tissues, (c) Plasmodesmata, (d) Connection is not essential, 103. In case of C4 pathway, CO2 combines with, (a) PGA, (c) RuDP, , (b) PEP, (d) RMP, , 104. Which one is a C4 plant?, (a) Papaya, (b) Pea, , (c) Potato, , 105. C4 plants are also known as, (a) Hatch and Slack type, (c) Calvin and Bassham type, , (b) Calvin type, (d) Emerson type, , (d) Maize, , 106. In C4 plants, Calvin cycle occurs in, (a) Stroma of bundle sheath chloroplast, (b) Mesophyll chloroplast, (c) Grana of bundle sheath chloroplast., (d) Does not occur as CO2 is fixed mainly by PEP and no CO2 is left for the Calvin cycle., 107. Tropical plant like sugarcane show high efficiency of CO2 fixation because of, (a) Calvin cycle, (b) Hatch and Slack cycle, (c) EMP pathway, (d) TCA cycle
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13.12, , Photosynthesis in Higher Plants, , 108. Which of the following cycle shows oxaloacetic acid as the first stable product?, (a) Calvin cycle, (b) Hatch and Slack cycle, (d) None of these, (c) C2 cycle, 109. Kranz type of anatomy is found in, (b) C3 plants, (a) C2 plants, , (c) C4 plants, , 110. C4 plants are adapted to, (a) Hot and dry climate, (c) Cold and dry climate, , (b) Temperate climate, (d) Hot and humid climate, , (d) CAM plants, , 111. Which one of the following is wrong in relation to photorespiration?, (b) It occurs in chloroplasts, (a) It is a characteristic of C3 plants, (c) It occurs in day time only, (d) It is a characteristic of C4 plants, 112. How many types of photosynthetic cells occur in C4 plant?, (a) One type, (b) Two types, (c) Four types, , (d) Eight types, , 113. Which of the following cells of C4 plants are prominently loaded with starch?, (a) Epidermal cells, (b) Mesophyll cells, (c) Bundle sheath cells, (d) All of these, 114. The number of carboxylation in C4 cycle is/are, (a) 1, (b) 2, (c) 5, , (d) 3, , 115. Photorespiration takes place in, (a) Chloroplast, mitochondria, (b) Mitochondria, peroxisome, (c) Chloroplasts, peroxisome, mitochondria, (d) Chloroplasts, cytoplasm, mitochondria, 116. Photorespiration is called, (b) C3 cycle, (a) C2 cycle, , (c) C4 cycle, , (d) None of these, , 117. The first reaction in photorespiraton is, (a) Carboxylation, (b) Decarboxylation, , (c) Oxygenation, , (d) Phosphorylation, , 118. C4 plant is characterized by, (a) High tolerance to temperature, (c) Greater productivity of biomass, , (b) Lacks process of photorespiration, (d) All of these, , 119. Bundle sheath cells have these following characters except, (a) Large in size, (b) Large number of chloroplast, (c) Thick wall impervious to gaseous exchange, (d) With intercellular spaces, 120. Primary CO2 acceptor in C4 plant occurs in, (a) Inner layer cells of bundle sheath, (c) Mesophyll cells, , (b) Outer layer cells of bundle sheath, (d) None of these, , 121. Bundle sheath cells are rich in, (a) RuBisCO, (b) PEP case, , (c) Both (a) and (b), , (d) None of these
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Photosynthesis in Higher Plants13.13, , 122. Which of the following is correct about photorespiration?, (a) Wasteful process (b) ATP is utilized, (c) Release of CO2, , (d) All of these, , 123. During photorespiration, (a) RuBisCo binds with O2, (b) Phosphoglycerate and phosphoglycolate is formed, (c) Sugar is not synthesized, (d) All the above, 124. Photorespiration does not takes place in C4 plant because, (a) O2 is not released in C4 plant during photosynthesis., (b) Intracellular concentration of CO2 is high in bundle sheath and it ensures RuBisCo, function as carboxylase., (c) They are found in cold environment., (d) Stomata in them opens during night., 125. External factor affecting photosynthesis are, (a) Sunlight and temperature, (c) Water, , (b) CO2 concentration, (d) All of these, , 126. Internal factor affecting photosynthesis are, (a) Number and size of leaf, (b) Age of leaf and orientation, (c) Internal CO2 concentration and amount of chlorophyll, (d) All the above, 127. Internal factor of plant depends on, (a) Growth of plant, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (b) Genetic predisposition, (d) None of these, , 128. Which is a limiting factor?, (a) Green leaf, (c) Optimal CO2, , (b) Optimal light, (d) Low temperature, , 129. Photosynthesis is affected by, (a) Quality of light, (b) Intensity of light, , (c) Duration of light, , 130. Light saturation occurs at _______ of the fall sunlight., (a) 2%, (b) 5%, (c) 10%, 131. Light may be a limiting factor for, (a) plants in dense forest, (c) plant in grassland, , (d) All of these, (d) 20%, , (b) plant in temperate forest, (d) all, , 132. What is the relationship between CO2 fixation and incident light at low intensities?, (a) Linear, (b) Parabola, (c) Hyperbola, (d) None, 133. Select the incorrect statement from the following:, (a) At high intensities, both C3 and C4 plants shows increase in the rate of photosynthesis by, increasing CO2 concentration., (b) C4 plants shows saturation at 360 μl/L., (c) C3 plant shows saturation beyond 450 μl/L., (d) Productivity of tomatoes and ball papers cannot be increased by enriching environment, by CO2.
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13.14, , Photosynthesis in Higher Plants, , 134. Select the incorrect statement from the following:, (a) Dark reaction is more sensitive to temperature., (b) Light reaction is less sensitive to temperature., (c) C4 plant responds to higher temperature and C3 plant have lower optimum temperature., (d) Tropical plant have lower optimum temperature for photosynthesis., 135. Water stress leads to, (a) Closing of stomata, (c) Reduced activity of leaf, , (b) Wilting of leaves, (d) All of these, , 136. Which factor indirectly affects the process of photosynthesis?, (a) Light, (b) Temperature, (d) Water, (c) CO2 concentration, 137. Photosynthesis takes place, (a) Only in sunlight, (b) Only in yellow light, (c) In the visible light obtained from any source, (d) Only in very high intensity of light, 138. Photo-oxidation of chlorophyll is called, (a) Intensification , (c) Solarization , , (b) Chlorosis, (d) Defoliation, , 139. Which one of the following is not a limiting factor for photosynthesis?, (a) Oxygen , (b) Carbon dioxide, (c) Chlorophyll , (d) Light, 140. If a plant is kept in 300 ppm CO2 concentration, what will happen to it?, (a) The plant will die soon., (b) The plant will grow but will not die., (c) The plant will show normal photosynthesis., (d) Respiration will be greatly decreased., 141. What will be the effect of intermittent light on photosynthesis?, (a) It will increase, (b) It will decrease, (c) Nothing will happen, (d) Process will stop, 142. The diagram below shows three plants with identical leaf surface areas:, , 10°C, Day light, X, , 20°C, Red light, Y, , 30°C, Green light, Z
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Photosynthesis in Higher Plants13.15, , Assuming all other conditions were identical for all three plants, which of the plants would, likely to photosynthesize slowest and fastest., (a) Y slowest, Z fastest, (b) Z slowest, X fastest, (c) X slowest, Z fastest, (d) Z slowest, Y fastest, 143. Main factor which limits the rate of photosynthesis on a clear day is, (a) chlorophyll, (b) light, (c) CO2, , (d) water, , 144. Blackman’s law of limiting factor is applied to, (a) growth, (b) respiration, (c) transpiration, (d) photosynthesis, 145. Which factor is not limited to normal conditions for photosynthesis?, (a) Air , (b) CO2, (c) Water , (d) Chlorophyll, 146. The first product of CO2 fixation in Hatch and Slack (C4) cycle in plants is formation of, (a) oxaloacetate by carboxylation of phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) in bundle sheath cells, (b) phosphoglyceric acid in mesophyll cells, (c) bundle sheath cells, (d) oxaloacetate by carboxylation of phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) in the mesophyll cells, , Assertion and Reason Questions, Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given, below:, (a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the, assertion., (b) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the, assertion., (c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false., (d) If both the assertion and reason are false., 147. Assertion: C4 pathway of CO2 fixation is found in some tropical plants., Reason: In this pathway CO2 is fixed by 3C compound., 148. Assertion: Six molecules of CO2 and twelve molecules of NADPH+ + H+ and 18 ATP are used, to form one hexose molecule., Reason: Light reaction results in the formation of ATP and NADPH2 and oxygen., 149. Assertion: The first CO2 fixation product was a C–organic compound., Reason: The use of radioactive C14 in algal photosynthesis studied led to this discovery.
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13.16, , Photosynthesis in Higher Plants, , 150. Assertion: There is a decrease in photosynthesis, if the photosynthetic cells are illuminated, by light of P680 nm or more wavelength., Reason: In red drop phenomenon the rate of photosynthesis decreases., 151. Assertion: CAM plants lack structural compartmentation of leaf, as found in C4 plants., Reason: Stomata of CAM plants are open during the night., 152. Assertion: Plants utilizing the first RuBP in CO2 fixations are called C3 plants., Reason: Plants utilizing the first PEP in CO2 fixations are called C2 plants., 153. Assertion: Cyclic pathway of photosynthesis first appeared in some eubacterial species., Reason: Oxygen started accumulating in the atmosphere after the non-cyclic pathway of, photosynthesis evolved., 154. Assertion: The stromal thylakoids are rich in both PS I and PS II., Reason: The granal membranes are rich in ATP synthetase., 155. Assertion: Cyclic photophosphorylation synthesizes NADPH., Reason: NADPH synthesized in cyclic photophosphorylation is not associated with ATP, formation., 156. Assertion: Oxidative phosphorylation requires oxygen., Reason: Oxidative photophosphorylation occurs in chloroplast., 157. Assertion: Each molecule of ribulose-1, 5-bisphosphate fixes one molecule of CO2., Reason: Three molecules of NADPH and two ATP are required for the fixation of one, molecule of CO2., 158. Assertion: Regeneration of CO2 acceptor molecule RuBP is crucial if the cycle is to c ontinue, uninterrupted., Reason: The regeneration steps require one ATP for phosphorylation to form RuBP., 159. Assertion: C4 photosynthetic pathway is more efficient than the C3 pathway., Reason: Photorespiration is suppressed in C4 plants., 160. Assertion: Dark reaction is light independent reaction., Reason: Dark reaction doesn’t require product formed in light reaction., 161. Assertion: Accessory pigment helps to make photosynthesis more efficient., Reason: Accessory pigment helps to absorb different wavelengths of light., 162. Assertion: Photolysis of water occur on inner side of the membrane of thylakoid., Reason: Water splitting complex is associated with PSII which is physically located on inner, side of thylakoid Membrane., 163. Assertion: Synthesis of ATP from ADP in chloroplast is called photophosphorylation., Reason: This phosphorylation in chloroplast occurs in presence of light.
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Photosynthesis in Higher Plants13.17, , 164. Assertion: Proton produced by the splitting of water accumulate with in the lumen of, thylakoid., Reason: Spitting of water molecule takes place on inner side of the membrane of thylakoid., 165. Assertion: Calvin cycle is referred as C3 pathway, Reason: In Calvin cycle the first product of CO2 fixation is a C3 acid (PGA)., 166. Assertion: To make one molecule of glucose 6 turns of the Calvin cycle required, Reason: One turn of Calvin cycle fix one molecule of CO2, 167. Assertion: Photorespiration is a wasteful process., Reason: It results in CO2 release with the utilization of ATP and there is no synthesis of ATP, or NADPH, 168. Assertion: Light is rarely a limiting factor in most of plant., Reason: Light saturation occur at 10% of the full sunlight., 169. Assertion: Current availability of CO2 in atmosphere is limiting to C4 plant., Reason: C3 plants more efficiently fix CO2 than C4 plants., 170. Assertion: Dark reaction is controlled by temperature., Reason: Dark reaction is enzymatic reaction., 171. Assertion: Photosynthesis occurs only in green parts of plants., Reason: Green part of plant contains chlorophyll., 172. Assertion: Chemosynthetic pathway occur in stroma of chloroplast, Reason: Enzyme required for chemosynthetic pathway present in stroma., , previous year questions, 1. Read the following four statements (1), (2), (3) and (4) and select the right option having both, correct statements., , [AIPMT MAINS 2010], Statements:, (1) Z scheme of light reaction takes place in the presence of PS I only., (2) Only PS I is functional in cyclic photophosphorylation., (3) Cyclic photophosphorylation results into synthesis of ATP and NADPH2, (4) Stromal lamellae lacks PS II as well as NADP., (a), (b), (c), (d), , (2) and (4), (1) and (2), (2) and (3), (3) and (4), , 2. Study the pathway given below:, , , [AIPMT MAINS 2010]
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13.18, , Photosynthesis in Higher Plants, , Atmospheric CO2, Plasma, membrane, , Mesophyll, cell, , Cell wall, HCO3–, , Phosphoenolpyruvate, , A, Plasmodesmata, , C4 acid, , C, C3 acid, , Bundle, sheath cell, Transport, , Transport, Fixation, calvin cycle, , C4 acid, CO2, B, , C3 acid, , In which of the following options, correct words for all the three blanks A, B and C are, indicated?, (a) A: Decarboxylation, B: Reduction, C: Regeneration, (b) A: Fixation, B: Transamination, C: Regeneration, (c) A: Fixation, B: Decarboxylation, C: Regeneration, (d) A: Carboxylation, B: Decarboxylation, C: Reduction, 3. PGA as the first CO2 fixation product was discovered in the photosynthesis of, , [AIPMT PRE 2010], (a) Bryophyte, (b) Gymnosperm, (c) Angiosperm, (d) Alga, 4. C4 plants are more efficient in photosynthesis than C3 plants due to, , (a) Higher leaf area, (b) Presence of larger number of chloroplasts in the leaf cells, (c) Presence of thin cuticle, (d) Lower rate of photorespiration, 5. CAM helps the plants in, , , [AIPMT PRE 2010], , [AIPMT PRE 2011]
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Photosynthesis in Higher Plants13.19, , (a) Secondary growth, (c) Reproduction, , (b) Disease resistance, (d) Conserving water, , 6. Which one of the following is essential for photolysis of water?, , (a) Manganese, (b) Zinc, (c) Copper, (d) Boron, , [AIPMT MAINS 2011], , 7. A process that makes more important difference between C3 and C4 plants is, , [AIPMT PRE 2012], (a) Transpiration, (b) Glycolysis, (c) Photosynthesis, (d) Photorespiration, 8. The correct sequence of cell organelles during photorespiration is, , (a) Chloroplast, Golgibodies, Mitochondria, (b) Chloroplast, Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum, Dictyosomes, (c) Chloroplast, Mitochondria, Peroxisome, (d) Chloroplast, Vacuole, Peroxisome, , [AIPMT PRE 2012], , 9. In photosynthesis, the light-independent reactions take place at, , (a) Photosystem I, (b) Photosystem II, (c) Stromal matrix, (d) Thylakoid lumen, , [RE-AIPMT 2015], , 10. Emerson’s enhancement effect and Red drop have been instrumental in the discovery of:, , [NEET - I, 2016], (a) Photophosphorylation and non-cyclic electron transport, (b) Two photosystems operating simultaneously, (c) Photophosphorylation and cyclic electron transport, (d) Oxidative phosphorylation, 11. In a chloroplast the highest number of protons is found in:, , (a) Stoma, (b) Lumen of thylakoids, (c) Inter membrane space, (d) Antennae complex, , [NEET - I, 2016], , 12. A plant in your garden avoids photorespiratory losses, has improved water use efficiency, shows high rates of photosynthesis at high temperatures and has improved efficiency of nitrogen utilization. In which of the following physiological groups would you assign this plant?, , [NEET - I, 2016], (b) C4, (a) C3, (c) CAM, (d) Nitrogen, 13. The process which makes major difference between C3 and C4 plants is, , (a) Calvin cycle, (b) Photorespiration, (c) Respiration, (d) Glycolysis, , [NEET - II, 2016]
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13.20, , Photosynthesis in Higher Plants, , NCERT Exemplar Questions, 1. Which metal ion is a constituent of chlorophyll?, (a) Iron, (b) Copper, (c) Magnesium, (d) Zinc, 2. Which pigment acts directly to convert light energy into chemical energy?, (a) Chlorophyll a, (b) Chlorophyll b, (c) Xanthophyll, (d) Carotenoid, 3. Which range of wavelength (in nm) is called Photosynthetically Active Radiation (PAR)?, (a) 100 to 390, (b) 390 to 430, (c) 400 to 700, (d) 760 to 10000, 4. Which light range is most effective in photosynthesis?, (a) Blue, (b) Green, (c) Red, (d) Violet, 5. Chemosynthetic bacteria obtain energy from, (a) Sun, (c) Organic substances, , (b) Infra-red rays, (d) Inorganic chemicals, , 6. Energy required for ATP synthesis in PSII comes from, (a) Proton gradient, (b) Electron gradient, (c) Reduction of glucose, (d) Oxidation of glucose, 7. During light reaction in photosynthesis, which of the following are formed?, (a) ATP and sugar, (b) Hydrogen, O2 and sugar, (d) ATP, hydrogen and O2 donor, (c) ATP, hydrogen donor and O2, 8. Dark reaction in photosynthesis is so called because, (a) It can occur in dark also., (b) It does not depend on light energy., (c) It cannot occur during day light., (d) It occurs more rapidly at night., 9. PEP is a primary CO2 acceptor in, (a) C4 plants, (c) C2 plants, 10. Splitting of water is associated with, (a) Photosystem I, (c) Both photosystems I and II, , (b) C3 plants, (d) Both C3 and C4 plants, (b) Lumen of thylakoid, (d) Inner surface of thylakoid membrane, , 11. The correct sequence of flow of electrons in the light reaction is, (a) PS II, plastoquinone, cytochromes, PS I ferredoxin, (b) PS I, plasotquinone, cytochromes, PS II ferredoxin, (c) PS I, ferredoxin, PS II, (d) PS I, plastoquinone, cytochromes, PS II ferredoxin., 12. The enzyme that is not found in a C3 plant is, (a) RuBP carboxylase, (c) NADP reductase, , (b) PEP carboxylase, (d) ATP synthase
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Photosynthesis in Higher Plants13.21, , 13. The reaction that is responsible for the primary fixation of CO2 is catalysed by, (a) RuBP carboxylase, (b) PEP carboxylase, (c) RuBP carboxylase and PEP carboxylase, (d) PGA synthase, 14. When CO2 is added to PEP, the first stable product synthesised is, (a) Pyruvate, (b) Glyceraldehyde–3–phosphate, (c) Phosphoglycerate, (d) Oxaloacetate, , Answer Keys, Practice Questions, 1. (c), 11. (b), 21. (c), 31. (d), 41. (b), 51. (c), 61. (a), 71. (c), 81. (d), 91. (a), 101. (c), 111. (d), 121. (a), 131. (a), 141. (a), , 2. (a), 12. (c), 22. (a), 32. (d), 42. (b), 52. (c), 62. (a), 72. (c), 82. (b), 92. (b), 102. (c), 112. (b), 122. (d), 132. (a), 142. (d), , 3. (b), 13. (c), 23. (b), 33. (d), 43. (d), 53. (d), 63. (c), 73. (d), 83. (a), 93. (a), 103. (b), 113. (c), 123. (d), 133. (d), 143. (c), , 4. (c), 14. (a), 24. (c), 34. (c), 44. (d), 54. (d), 64. (a), 74. (c), 84. (c), 94. (b), 104. (d), 114. (b), 124. (b), 134. (d), 144. (d), , 5. (d), 15. (a), 25. (a), 35. (a), 45. (b), 55. (c), 65. (d), 75. (a), 85. (d), 95. (b), 105. (a), 115. (c), 125. (d), 135. (d), 145. (d), , 6. (d), 16. (a), 26. (b), 36. (a), 46. (c), 56. (a), 66. (b), 76. (a), 86. (a), 96. (a), 106. (a), 116. (a), 126. (d), 136. (d), 146. (d), , 7. (b), 17. (c), 27. (b), 37. (d), 47. (b), 57. (d), 67. (b), 77. (a), 87. (b), 97. (a), 107. (b), 117. (c), 127. (c), 137. (c), , 8. (a), 18. (c), 28. (c), 38. (d), 48. (a), 58. (c), 68. (c), 78. (c), 88. (a), 98. (b), 108. (b), 118. (d), 128. (d), 138. (c), , 9. (b), 19. (d), 29. (c), 39. (b), 49. (b), 59. (b), 69. (b), 79. (c), 89. (b), 99. (a), 109. (c), 119. (d), 129. (d), 139. (a), , 10. (b), 20. (d), 30. (a), 40. (b), 50. (a), 60. (b), 70. (a), 80. (c), 90. (a), 100. (a), 110. (a), 120. (c), 130. (c), 140. (c), , Assertion and Reason Questions, 147. (b) 148. (b) 149. (a) 150. (b) 151. (b) 152. (c) 153. (b) 154. (d) 155. (d) 156. (c), 157. (c) 158. (b) 159. (a) 160. (d) 161. (a) 162. (a) 163. (a) 164. (a) 165. (a) 166. (a), 167. (a) 168. (a) 169. (d) 170. (a) 171. (a) 172. (a), Previous Year Questions, 1. (a), 11. (b), , 2. (c), 12. (b), , 3. (d), 13. (b), , 4. (d), , 5. (d), , 6. (a), , 7. (d), , 8. (c), , 9. (c), , 10. (b), , 8. (a), , 9. (a), , 10. (d), , NCERT Exemplar Questions, 1. (c), 11. (a), , 2. (a), 12. (b), , 3. (c), 13. (c), , 4. (c), 14. (d), , 5. (d), , 6. (a), , 7. (c)
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Respiration, in Plants, , CHAPTER, , 14, , prACtiCe Questions, Glycolysis, 1. Partial oxidation of glucose without the help of oxygen into pyruvic acid is known as, (a) Glycolysis, (b) Kreb’s cycle, (c) ETS, (d) All of these, 2. The scheme of glycolysis is given by, (a) Embden, (b) Meyerhof, , (c) Parnas, , (d) All of these, , 3. Which of the following is correct about glycolysis (EMP pathway)?, (a) It is a common path for aerobic and anaerobic respiration., (b) It occurs in cytoplasm., (c) O2 is not required for this process., (d) All the above, 4. Number of controlled steps required in glycolysis are:, (a) 1, (b) 5, (c) 10, , (d) 15, , 5. In plant the end product of photosynthesis is, (a) Sucrose, (b) Starch, , (d) Glucose, , (c) Glycogen, , 6. The enzyme which converts sucrose to glucose and fructose., (a) Maltase, (b) Invertase, (c) Lactase, , (d) Hexokinase, , 7. Glucose → Glu-6-phosphate occurs due to the enzyme, (a) Hexokinase, (b) Oxidase, (c) Hydrolase, , (d) Lysase, , 8. Common to all living organism is, (a) Kreb’s cycle, (b) EMP pathway, , (d) All of these, , (c) ETC, , 9. 1 molecule of glucose on glycolysis produces, (a) 2 molecule of pyruvic acid, (b) 1 molecule of pyruvic acid, (d) 2 molecule of O2, (c) 2 molecule of CO2, 10. Which of the following is a energy yielding process?, (a) 2-phosphoglycerate to 2-phosphoenolpyruvate, (b) Frutose to fructose-6-phosphate, (c) Phosphoenolpyruvic acid to pyruvic acid, (d) Fructose 1, 6-bisphosphate to PGAL and DHAP, Fermentation, 11. Yeast poisons themselves to death when alcohol concentration reaches to ________ in, alcoholic fermentation., (a) 2%, (b) 10%, (c) 13%, (d) 20%
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14.2, , Respiration in Plants, , 12. Lactic acid fermentation occurs in, (a) Some bacteria, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (b) Muscle cell under anaerobic condition, (d) Aerobic condition, , 13. How much percentage of energy is released in fermentation?, (a) < 1%, (b) < 7%, (c) > 10%, , (d) > 20%, , 14. Which of the following relation shows substrate level phosphorylation?, (a) Citric acid, → α-ketoglutaric acid, (b) Malic acid, → oxaloacetic acid, (c) α-ketoglutaric acid → Succinyl-CoA, (d) Succinyl-CoA, → Succinic acid, 15. Which of the following is a ‘5C’ compound?, (a) Oxaloacetic acid, (c) α-ketoglutaric acid, , (b) Citric acid, (d) Succinic acid, , 16. At how many places in Kreb’s cycle NADH + H+ is formed?, (a) 1, (b) 2, (c) 3, , (d) 4, , 17. At how many places in Kreb’s cycle FADH2 is formed?, (a) 1, (b) 2, (c) 3, , (d) 4, , 18. ETS is present in, (a) Stroma, (c) Inner membrane of mitochondria, 19. Match the column:, Column I, A. NADH dehydrogenase, B. Cytochrome bc1, C. Cytochrome aa3, D. ATP synthase, (a) A–1, B–2, C–3, D–4 (b), (c) A–4, B–1, C–3, D–2 (d), , –, –, –, –, , 20. Ubiquinone transfer its electron to, (a) Complex II, (b) Complex I, , (b) Matrix of mitochondria, (d) Outer membrane of mitochondria, Column II, 1. Complex IV, 2. Complex III, 3. Complex I, 4. Complex V, A–3, B–2, C–1, D–4, A–1, B–4, C–2, D–3, (c) Cytochrome c, , (d) Matrix, , 21. Which of the following is correct about cytochrome?, (a) Small protein attaches to the outer surface of inner membrane of mitochondria., (b) Act as mobile carrier., (c) Transfers electron between complex III and IV., (d) All the above, The Respiratory Balance Sheet, 22. 1 molecule of NADH gives rise to ________ molecules of ATP, while 1 molecule of FADH2, gives ________ molecule of ATP, (a) 3, 2, (b) 2, 3, (c) 2, 2, (d) 3, 3, 23. O2 acts as, (a) Terminal hydrogen acceptor, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (b) Terminal electron acceptor, (d) None of these
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Respiration in Plants14.3, , 24. Which type of phosphorylation occurs in mitochondria?, (a) Oxidative phosphorylation, (b) Substrate level phosphorylation, (c) Photophosphorylation, (d) Both (a) and (b), 25. When 12H+ pass through F0-F1 particle, how many ATPs are produced?, (a) 6 ATP, (b) 4 ATP, (c) 8 ATP, (d) 10 ATP, 26. Identify A, B, C and D in the given figure., , A–, , D, , 2H+, F0, , B–, , F1, , ADP, , C, Pi, , Matrix, , (a), (b), (c), (d), , A–Outer side, B–Inner mitochondrial membrane, C–Inner membrane part, D–ATP, A–Inner membrane part, B–Outer side, C–Inner mitochondrial membrane, D–ATP, A–ATP, B–Inner membrane part, C–Outer side, D–Inner mitochondria membrane, A–Inner mitochondrial membrane, B–ATP, C–Outer side, D–Inner membrane part, , 27. To form a respiratory balance sheet, the calculations can be made on certain assumptions like, (a) There is a sequential pathway functioning like glycolysis, TCA cycle and ETS following, one after another., (b) NADH formed in glycolysis is transferred to mitochondria and undergoes oxidative, phosphorylation., (c) None of the intermediates in the pathway are utilized to synthesize any other compound, and glucose is being respired no other alternative substrate are entering in the pathway at, any of the intermediary stages., (d) All the above, 28. How many molecules of ATP are produce by oxidation of 1 molecule of glucose?, (a) 30, (b) 36, (c) 4, (d) 40, 29. Which of the following is incorrect about fermentation?, (a) It accounts for the partial breakdown of glucose., (b) Net gain is only 2 ATP., (c) The NADH to NAD+ formation reaction is vigorous., (d) It occurs in cytoplasm., 30. Respiratory pathway is best defined as, (a) Catabolic pathway, (c) Amphibolic pathway, , (b) Anabolic pathway, (d) None of these
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14.4, , Respiration in Plants, , 31. Glycerol enters the respiratory pathway at, (a) Glu-6‒phosphate (b) PGA, , (c) PGAL, , (d) PEP, , 32. Amino acid enters in the respiratory pathway at, (a) Kreb’s cycle, (b) Pyruvate, (c) Acetyl CoA, (d) Any of these, 33. Fatty acid for entry into Kreb’s cycle is degraded to, (a) Pyruvate, (b) Citric acid, (c) Acetyl-CoA, , (d) PGA, , 34. RQ for tripalmitin is, (a) 0.8, , (b) 0.7, , (c) 0.9, , (d) 0.5, , 35. RQ for protein is, (a) 0.8, , (b) 0.7, , (c) 0.9, , (d) 0.5, , (c) 1, , (d) 0.4, , 36. RQ for carbohydrate is, (a) 0.7, (b) 0.9, , 37. Conversion of pyruvic acid into ethyl alcohol is facilitated by, (a) Carboxylase, (b) Dehydrogenase, (c) Decarboxylase and dehydrogenase, (d) Phosphatase, 38. Fermentation is represented by the equation, (a) C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O + 673 k cal, (b) C6H12O6 → 2C2H5OH + 2CO2 + 18 k cal, Light, → C6H12O6 + 6H2O + 6O2, (c) 6CO2 + 12H2O , Chlorophyll, , (d) 6CO2 + 6H2O → C6 H12O6 + 6O2, 39. Anaerobic respiration takes place in the, (a) Mitochondria, (b) Cytoplasm, , (c) Lysosomes, , (d) ER, , 40. What is the total gain of energy during anaerobic respiration?, (a) One molecule of ATP, (b) Two molecules of ATP, (c) Four molecules of ATP, (d) Eight molecules of ATP, 41. Cyanide resistant pathway is, (a) Anaerobic respiration, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (b) Aerobic respiration, (d) None of these, , 42. Energy accumulating in ATP is, (a) Disulphide bond, (c) High energy phosphate bond, , (b) Hydrogen bonds, (d) Ester bond, , 43. In plants, respiration takes place, (a) Only in leaves during night, (c) In all living cells, , (b) Only in leaves during day, (d) None of these, , 44. In both aerobic and anaerobic respiration which same product is formed?, (a) Lactic acid, (b) Pyruvic acid, (c) Citric acid, (d) Organic acid, 45. Which of the following is the reverse of photosynthesis?, (a) Respiration, (b) Protein synthesis (c) Fat synthesis, , (d) All of these
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Respiration in Plants14.5, , 46. The process of phosphorylation takes place in, (a) Glycolysis, (b) Kreb’s cycle, (c) HMP pathway, , (d) All of these, , 47. Match the given below organelles with their function:, Column I, Column II, A. Kreb’s cycle, –, 1. Stalked particles of mitochondria, B. Photorespiration, –, 2. Cytoplasm, C. Oxidative phosphorylation, –, 3. Peroxisomes, D. Glycolysis, –, 4. Inner surface of membrane of mitochondria, (a) A‒2, B‒3, C‒4, D‒1, (c) A‒4, B‒3, C‒1, D‒2, 48. Match the name of scientist with his work:, Column I, A. PPP (Pentose Phosphate Pathway), B. Demonstration of fermentation, C. TCA cycle, D. Glycolysis, (a) A‒1, B‒2, C‒3, D‒4, (c) A‒1, B‒2, C‒4, D‒3, , (b) A‒1, B‒2, C‒3, D‒4, (d) A‒3, B‒2, C‒4, D‒1, , –, –, –, –, , Column II, 1. Kuhne, 2. Kreb’s, 3. Warburg‒Dickens, 4. Embden Mayerhof Parnas, (b) A‒2, B‒4, C‒3, D‒1, (d) A‒3, B‒1, C‒2, D‒4, , 49. Match the correct answers with the type of respiration and respiratory substrates:, Column I, Column II, A. Respiration, –, 1. Proteins, B. Floating respiration, –, 2. Starch, C. Cytoplasmic respiration, –, 3. Carbohydrates, D. Protoplasmic respiration, –, 4. Lactose, (a) A‒3, B‒2, C‒1, D‒4, (c) A‒1, B‒2, C‒3, D‒4, , (b) A‒2, B‒3, C‒4, D‒1, (d) A‒2, B‒4, C‒1, D‒3, , 50. The energy yielded as a result of total oxidation of one glucose molecule during cellular, respiration is to convert, (a) 34 molecules of ADP into 34 molecules of ATP, (b) 30 molecules of ADP into 30 molecules of ATP, (c) 36 molecules of ADP into 36 molecules of ATP, (d) 32 molecules of ADP into 32 molecules of ATP, 51. The connecting link among glycolysis, Kreb’s cycle and beta-oxidation of fatty acid is, (a) Pyruvic acid, (b) Acetyl-CoA, (c) Acetaldehyde, (d) Citric acid, 52. Which of the following is the source of respiration?, (a) Stored food, (b) RNA, (c) DNA, , (d) ATP, , 53. From the substrate level, how many phosphorylation ATP are produced?, (a) 2, (b) 6, (c) 10, (d) 8, 54. Select the incorrect statement:, (a) Plants have no special system for breathing or gaseous exchange., (b) Acetyl-CoA enter in TCA cycle running in matrix of mitochondria., (c) The RQ depends upon the type of respirarory substance used during respiration., (d) In fermentation, the complete oxidation of glucose occur in some bacteria.
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Respiration in Plants14.7, , 62. The total ATP production during EMP pathway is, (a) 24 ATP molecules, (b) 8 ATP molecules, (c) 38 ATP molecules, (d) 6 ATP molecules, 63. Glycolysis takes place in, (a) Mitochondria, (c) Both mitochondria and cytoplasm, , (b) Cytoplasm, (d) Vacuole, , 64. Pyruvate (pyruvic acid) dehydrogenase is used in converting, (a) Pyruvate to glucose, (b) Glucose to pyruvate, (c) Pyruvic acid to lactic acid, (d) Pyruvate (pyruvic acid) to acetyl-CoA, 65. The number of molecules of pyruvic acid formed from one molecule of glucose at the end of, glycolysis is, (a) 1, (b) 2, (c) 3, (d) 4, 66. What is the other name of glycolysis?, (a) EMP pathway, (c) HMS pathway, , (b) TCA pathway, (d) None of these, , 67. The common phase between aerobic and anaerobic respiration is called, (a) Tricarboxylic acid cycle, (b) Oxidative phosphorylation, (c) Embden, Meyerhoff, Parnas cycle, (d) Kreb’s cycle, 68. The oxidation of one NADH2 yields, (a) 18 ATP, (b) 6 ATP, , (c) 3 ATP, , (d) 2 ATP, , 69. The end product of glycolysis is, (a) acetyl-CoA, (b) Citric acid, , (c) Pyruvic acid, , (d) Fumaric acid, , 70. The first step of glycolysis is:, (a) Breakdown of glucose, (b) Phosphorylation of glucose, (c) Conversion of glucose into fructose, (d) Dehydrogenation of glucose, 71. Which of the following is the correct sequence of glycolysis?, (a) G 6–P → PEP → 3–PGAL → 3–PGA, (b) G 6–P → 3–PGAL → 3–PGA → PEP, (c) G 6–P → PEP → 3–PGA → 3–PGAL, (d) G 6–P → 3–PGA → 3–PGAL → PEP, 72. Which intermediate compound is involved in the synthesis of amino acids?, (a) Malic acid, (b) Citric acid, (c) α-ketoglutaric acid, (d) Isocitric acid, 73. In ATP molecule, the energy is stored in, (a) Chemical bonds, (c) Carbon bonds, , (b) Hydrogen bonds, (d) Pyrophosphate bonds
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Respiration in Plants14.9, , 80. The link between glycolysis and Kreb’s cycle is, (a) Citric acid, (b) Acetyl-CoA, (c) Succinic acid, , (d) Oxaloacetic acid, , 81. The reaction of Kreb’s cycle take place, (a) In cytoplasm, (c) In matrix of mitochondria, , (b) In endoplasmic reticulum, (d) On the surface of mitochondrion, , 82. Oxidative phosphorylation occurs in the, (a) Outer membrane of mitochondria, (c) Stroma of chloroplast, , (b) Inner membrane of mitochondria, (d) Grana of chloroplast, , 83. Which of the following is the correct sequence in Kreb’s cycle?, (a) Isocitric acid → Oxalosuccinic acid → α–ketoglutaric acid, (b) Oxalosuccinic acid → Isocitric acid → α–ketoglutaric acid, (c) α–ketoglutaric acid → Isocitric acid → Oxalosuccinic acid, (d) Isocitric acid → α–ketoglutaric acid → Oxalosuccinic acid, 84. In how many steps, CO2 is released in aerobic respiration of pyruvic acid?, (a) One, (b) Six, (c) Three, (d) Twelve, 85. The formation of acetyl coenzyme–A from pyruvic acid is the result of its, (a) Reduction, (b) Dehydration, (c) Dephosphorylation, (d) Oxidative decarboxylation, 86. Oxidative phosphorylation and photophosphorylation both require the electron carrier, (a) Cytochrome, (b) Oxygen, (c) Carbon dioxide, (d) Water, 87. In an electron transport chain, in terminal oxidation, the cytochrome which donates electrons, to O2 is, (d) Cytochrome a, (a) Cytochrome b, (b) Cytochrome c, (c) Cytochrome a3, 88. The last or terminal cytochrome in respiratory chain is, (c) Cyt a, (a) Cyt b, (b) Cyt a3, , (d) Cyt c, , 89. The correct sequence of electron acceptor in ATP synthesis is, (b) Cyt b c a a3, (c) Cyt b c a3 a, (a) Cyt a a3 b c, , (d) Cyt c b a a3, , 90. In Kreb’s cycle, the FAD precipitates as electron acceptor during the conversion of, (a) Succinyl CoA to succinic acid, (b) α-ketoglutarate to succinyl CoA, (c) Fumaric acid to maleic acid, (d) Succinic acid to fumaric acid, 91. RQ for glucose is, (a) 1, , (b) 0.5, , (c) 2, , (d) 0.05, , Respiratory Quotient, 92. With which of the following fatty acid the value of RQ is one?, (a) Acetic acid, (b) Oleic acid, (c) Stearic acid, 93. RQ is defined as, (a) Ratio between CO2 liberated and O2 taken, (b) Volume of oxygen taken, (c) Volume of carbon dioxide liberated, (d) Ratio between oxygen taken and fat utilized, , (d) Palmitic acid
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14.10, , Respiration in Plants, , 94. RQ of fatty substances is generally, (a) Unity, (c) Greater than one, , (b) Less than one, (d) Zero, , 95. RQ of sprouting potato tubers will be, (a) 1, (b) < 1, , (c) > 1, , (d) 0, , 96. RQ in anaerobic respiration is, (a) 0, (b) ∝, , (c) 1, , (d) > 1, , 97. What do alphabets A to E indicates in following figures?, , B, , Proteins, , Simple sugars, e.g. Glucose, , A, , Fats, E, , C, , D, Dihydroxy acetone phosphate, , Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate, , Pyruvic acid, Acetyl CoA, H 2O, , Krebs’, cycle, , CO2, , (a) A–Glucose 6-phosphate, B–Fatty acids and glycerol, C–Carbohydrate, D–Amino acid,, E–Fructose 1, 6-bisphosphate, (b) A–Fatty acids and glycerol, B–Glucose 6-phosphate, C–Amino acid, D–Carbohydrates,, E–Fructose 1, 6-bisphosphate, (c) A–Fructose 1, 6-bisphosphate, B–Amino acid, C–Glucose 6-phosphate, D–Fatty acids, and glycerol, E–Carbohydrate, (d) A–Amino acid, B–Carbohydrate, C–Glucose 6-phosphate, D–Fructose 1, 6-bisphosphate,, E–Fatty acids and glycerol
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Respiration in Plants14.11, , Assertion and Reason Questions, Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given, below:, (a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the, assertion., (b) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the, assertion., (c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false., (d) If both the assertion and reason are false., 98. Assertion: Glycolysis occurs in cytoplasm., Reason: Enzymes for glycolysis are found in cytoplasm., 99. Assertion: Power house of cell is mitochondria., Reason: ATP is produced in mitochondria., 100. Assertion: The inner membrane of mitochondria contains enzymes of Kreb’s cycle, Reason: The mitochondrial matrix contains systems involving electron transport., 101. Assertion: Respiration is an amphibolic pathway., Reason: Respiratory pathway is involved in both catabolism and anabolism., 102. Assertion: The breakdown of glucose to pyruvic acid is called glycolysis., Reason: For complete oxidation of glucose organism adopt Kreb’s cycle., 103. Assertion: Substrate level phosphorylation is present in glycolysis., Reason: Substrate level phosphorylation causes synthesis of ATP., 104. Assertion: Under anaerobic conditions, pyruvate gives rise to lactate in some bacteria., Reason: Under anaerobic condition, pyruvate gives rise to acetyl-CoA., 105. Assertion: When carbohydrates are used as substrate and are completely oxidized, the RQ, will be 1., Reason: Equal amount of CO2 and O2 are evolved and consumed during the above process., 106. Assertion: In ETS the ultimate acceptor of electrons is O2., Reason: Substrate level phosphorylation also occurs in Kreb’s cycle., 107. Assertion: F1 particles are present in the inner mitochondrial membrane., Reason: The passage of protons through the channel is coupled to the catalytic site of the F1, component for the production of ATP., 108. Assertion: Food has to be translocated to all non green parts of plant., Reason: Non-green part can’t synthesize their food., 109. Assertion: Glucose is a respiratory substrate., Reason: Glucose is oxidised during process of cellular respiration., 110. Assertion: In cellular respiration, energy from respiratory substrate released in single step., Reason: Only one enzyme is used for respiration., 111. Assertion: ATP acts as energy currency of cell., Reason: ATP broken down whenever and wherever energy needs to be utilized.
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14.12, , Respiration in Plants, , 112. Assertion: Plants only posses lenticels for gaseous exchange., Reason: Plants are devoid of stomata., 113. Assertion: Oxidation of glucose occurs in multiple steps., Reason: It enables released energy can be coupled to ATP synthesis., 114. Assertion: Glycolysis is referred as EMP pathway, Reason: The scheme of glycolysis was given by Embden, Meyerhof and Parnas., 115. Assertion: In glycolysis glucose undergo partial oxidation, Reason: In glycolysis CO2 is formed at the end., 116. Assertion: Kerb’s cycle is referred as aerobic respiration, Reason: In Kerb’s cycle glucose is completely oxidised to CO2 and H2O, 117. Assertion: Oxidation of one molecule of NADH gives rise to 3 ATP molecules., Reason: Oxidation of one molecule of FADH2 gives rise to 2 ATP molecules., 118. Assertion: Fermentation and aerobic respiration generate different amount of ATP., Reason: Fermentation leads to partial breakdown of glucose where as aerobic respiration lead, to complete breakdown of glucose into CO2 and H2O which generate more amount of energy., 119. Assertion: Respiratory pathway now a day called as amphibolic pathway., Reason: Respiratory pathway is involved in both catabolism and anabolism., , previous year questions, 1. The energy releasing metabolic process in which the substrate is oxidized without an external, electron acceptor is called, , [AIPMT PRE 2010], (a) Glycolysis, (b) Fermentation, (c) Aerobic respiration, (d) Photorespiration, 2. The three boxes in this diagram represent the three major biosynthetic pathways in aerobic, respiration. Arrows represent net reactions or products., 1, , Glucose, , 5, , Pathway A, , 2, , 9 10, , Pathway B, , 4, , Arrows numbered 4, 8 and 12 can all be:, (a) NADH, (b) ATP, , 3, , 6, 7, , 8, , (c) H2O, , Pathway C, , 11, , 12, , [AIPMT 2013], (d) FAD+ or FADH2, , 3. Which of the metabolites is common to respiration mediated breakdown of fats, c arbohydrates, and proteins?, , [AIPMT 2013], (a) Glucose 6 - phosphate, (b) Fructose 1,6–bisphosphate, (c) Pyruvic acid, (d) Acetyl-CoA
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Respiration in Plants14.13, , 4. In which one of the following processes CO2 is not released?, , [AIPMT 2014], (a) Aerobic respiration in plants, (b) Aerobic respiration in animals, (c) Alcoholic fermentation, (d) Lactate fermentation, 5. Cytochromes are found in, , (a) Matrix of mitochondria , (c) Cristae of mitochondria , , [AIPMT 2015], (b) Outer wall of mitochondria, (d) Lysosomes, , 6. Which of the following biomolecules is common to respiration mediated breakdown of fats,, carbohydrates and proteins?, [NEET - I, 2016], (a) Fructose 1, 6 bisphosphate, (b) Pyruvic acid, (c) Acetyl Co-A, (d) Glucose -6-phosphate, , NCERT Exemplar Questions, 1. The ultimate electron acceptor of respiration in an aerobic organism is, (a) Cytochrome, (b) Oxygen, (c) Hydrogen, (d) Glucose, 2. Phosphorylation of glucose during glycolysis is catalysed by, (a) Phosphoglucomutase, (b) Phosphoglucoisomerase, (c) Hexokinase, (d) Phosphorylase, 3. Pyruvic acid, the key product of glycolysis, can have many metabolic fates. Under aerobic, condition it forms, (a) Lactic acid, (b) CO2 + H2O, (d) Ethanol + CO2, (c) Acetyl CoA + CO2, 4. Electron Transport System (ETS) is located in the mitochondrial, (a) Outer membrane, (b) Inter membrane space, (c) Inner membrane, (d) Matrix, 5. Which of the following exhibits the highest rate of respiration?, (a) Growing shoot apex, (b) Germinating seed, (c) Root tip, (d) Leaf bud, 6. Choose the correct statement:, (a) Pyruvate is formed in the mitochondrial matrix., (b) During the conversion of succinyl Co-A to succinic acid a molecule of ATP is synthesized., (c) Oxygen is vital in respiration for removal of hydrogen., (d) There is complete breakdown of glucose in fermentation, 7. Mitochondria are called powerhouses of the cell. Which of the following observations s upports, this statement?, (a) Mitochondria synthesise ATP., (b) Mitochondria have a double membrane., (c) The enzymes of the Krebs cycle and the cytochromes are found in mitochondria., (d) Mitochondria are found in almost all plants and animal cells.
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14.14, , Respiration in Plants, , 8. The end product of oxidative phosphorylation is, (a) NADH, (b) Oxygen, (c) ADP, , (d) ATP + H2O, , 9. Match the following and choose the correct option from those given., Column A, (A) Molecular oxygen, (B) Electron acceptor, (C) Pyruvate, dehydrogenase, (D) Decarboxylation, , Column B, (i) α – Ketoglutaric acid, (ii) Hydrogen acceptor, (iii) Cytochrome C, (iv) Acetyl CoA, , (a) (A) – (ii), (B) – (iii), (C) – (iv), (D) – (i), (c) (A) – (ii), (B) – (i), (C) – (iii), (D) – (iv), , (b) (A) – (iii), (B) – (iv), (C) – (ii), (D) – (i), (d) (A) – (iv), (B) – (iii), (C) – (i), (D) – (ii), , Answer Keys, Practice Questions, 1. (a), 11. (c), 21. (d), 31. (c), 41. (a), 51. (b), 61. (c), 71. (b), 81. (c), 91. (a), , 2. (d), 12. (c), 22. (a), 32. (d), 42. (c), 52. (a), 62. (b), 72. (c), 82. (b), 92. (a), , 3. (d), 13. (b), 23. (c), 33. (c), 43. (c), 53. (b), 63. (b), 73. (d), 83. (a), 93. (a), , 4. (c), 14. (d), 24. (d), 34. (b), 44. (b), 54. (d), 64. (d), 74. (c), 84. (c), 94. (b), , 5. (a), 15. (c), 25. (a), 35. (c), 45. (a), 55. (b), 65. (b), 75. (c), 85. (d), 95. (a), , 6. (b), 16. (c), 26. (a), 36. (c), 46. (d), 56. (b), 66. (a), 76. (b), 86. (a), 96. (b), , 7. (a), 17. (a), 27. (d), 37. (c), 47. (c), 57. (b), 67. (c), 77. (b), 87. (c), 97. (d), , 8. (b), 18. (c), 28. (b), 38. (b), 48. (d), 58. (a), 68. (c), 78. (c), 88. (b), , 9. (a), 19. (b), 29. (c), 39. (b), 49. (b), 59. (b), 69. (c), 79. (c), 89. (b), , 10. (c), 20. (c), 30. (c), 40. (b), 50. (c), 60. (c), 70. (b), 80. (b), 90. (d), , Assertion and Reason Questions, 98. (a) 99. (a) 100. (d) 101. (a) 102. (b) 103. (b) 104. (c) 105. (a) 106. (b) 107. (b), 108. (a) 109. (a) 110. (d) 111. (a) 112. (d) 113. (a) 114. (a) 115. (c) 116. (a) 117. (b), 118. (a) 119. (a), Previous Year Questions, 1. (b), , 2. (b), , 3. (d), , 4. (d), , 5. (c), , 6. (c), , NCERT Exemplar Questions, 1. (b), , 2. (c), , 3. (c), , 4. (c), , 5. (b), , 6. (c), , 7. (a), , 8. (d), , 9. (a)
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Plant, Growth and, Development, , CHAPTER, , 15, , prACtiCe Questions, Growth, 1. What occurs due to the plants growth and development?, (a) Leaves, flowers, fruits, etc., arise in an orderly pattern, (b) Increase in girth, (c) Falling of leaves and fruits, (d) All the above, 2. Development consists of, (a) Growth, (b) Differentiation, , (c) Both (a) and (b), , (d) None of these, , 3. Which of the following is correct about the development of a mature plant from a zygote?, (a) Follows a precise and ordered succession of events, (b) Only differentiation occurs, (c) Occurs due to environmental effect only, (d) None of the above, 4. What kinds of factors govern a plant’s developmental process?, (a) Intrinsic factors, (b) Extrinsic factors (c) Both (a) and (b), , (d) None of these, , 5. All cells of the plants are descendants of, (a) Zygote, (b) Seeds, , (c) gametes, , (d) Both (b) and (c), , 6. Appearance and fall of fruits occurs due to, (a) Hormonal influence, (c) Differentiation, , (b) Growth and development, (d) Both (a) and (b), , 7. Which is one of the most fundamental and conspicuous characteristic of living being?, (a) Development, (b) Differentiation, (c) Maturation, (d) Growth, 8. What is an irreversible permanent increase in size of an organ or its part or even of an individual, cell?, (a) Development, (b) Differentiation, (c) Growth, (d) Maturation, 9. Growth is accompanied by, (a) Anabolism, (b) Catabolism, 10. Metabolism occurs on the expense of, (a) Nutrition, (b) Water, , (c) Both (a) and (b), , (d) None of these, , (c) Energy, , (d) Hormones
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15.2, , 11. If expansion of leaf occurs, it is known as, (a) Swelling, (b) Imbibitions, , Plant Growth and Development, , (c) Differentiation, , (d) Growth, , 12. Why the growth of a plant is unique?, (a) The plant retains the capacity of unlimited growth., (b) The plant can regenerate the same characters., (c) There is no change in offspring’s characters., (d) None of the above, 13. The unique ability to retain the capacity of growth in plants is due to the presence of, (a) Lifetime differentiation, (b) Activator hormones, (c) Chlorophyll to utilize energy lifetime, (d) Meristems at certain locations, 14. What is the special feature of meristem?, (a) It is present in every tissue, (c) Its capacity to self-perpetuate, , (b) Its capacity to divide, (d) Both (b) and (c), , 15. Cells that further make up the plant body ________ ., (a) Loose capacity to divide, (b) Loose capacity to grow, (c) Loose capacity to differentiate, (d) None of these, 16. Continued growth due to activity of meristem is which type of growth?, (a) Closed growth, (b) Open growth, (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these, 17. Meristems are found in, (a) Root apex, (b) Shoot apex, , (c) Both (a) and (b), , (d) None of these, , 18. Meristems are responsible for ________, (a) Secondary growth (b) Primary growth, , (c) Both (a) and (b), , (d) None of these, , 19. What is the contribution of meristem in growth of plant?, (a) Elongation along the axis, (b) Differentiation, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) None of these, 20. Secondary growth of plant occurs due to ________, (a) Lateral meristems, (b) Vascular cambium, (c) Cork cambium, (d) All of these, 21. At cellular level, growth is an, (a) Increase in cytoplasm, (c) Increase in nuclear size, , (b) Increase in size, (d) Increase in protoplasm, , 22. Which of the following is not the parameter for measuring growth?, (a) Wet weight, (b) Dry weight, (c) Volume, , (d) Cell member, , 23. One single maize root apical meristem can give rise to how many cells per hour?, (a) 17500, (b) >17500, (c) <17500, (d) None of these, 24. By how many times, the cells of watermelon increase in size?, (a) 3,15,000, (b) 3,50,000, (c) 3,25,000, , (d) 3,17,000
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Plant Growth and Development15.3, , 25. In question 23 and 24 respectively growth can be expressed as increase in cell., (a) Size, number, (b) Volume, size, (c) Number, size, (d) Size, volume, 26. Growth of pollen tube is measured in terms of, (a) Weight, (b) Width, (c) Volume, , (d) Length, , 27. Growth of a dorsiventral leaf can be measured in terms of ________, (a) Length, (b) Width, (c) Volume of cells, , (d) Surface area, , 28. Which of the following are phases of growth?, (a) Meristemation, (b) Elongation, (c) Maturation, , (d) All of these, , 29. Identify A, B, C, D and E in the given figure., , D, A, , B, , Cotyledon, , Hypocotyl, , (a), (b), (c), (d), , C, , Epicoty1, , E, , A–Epicotyl hook, B–Soil line, C–Cotyledons, D–Hypocotyl, E–Seed coat, A–Soil line, B–Seed coat, C–Hypocotyl, D–Epicotyl hook, E–Cotyledons, A–Seed coat, B–Soil line, C–Cotyledons, D–Epicotyl hook, E–Hypocotyl, A–Hypocotyl, B–Seed coat, C–Epicotyl hook, D–Cotyledons, E–Soil line, , 30. Which of the following represent meristematic phase of growth?, (a) Root apex, (b) Shoot apex, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) None of these, 31. Which of the following are characteristics of the cells in meristematic region?, (a) Rich in protoplasm, (b) Large nuclei, (c) Thin plasma membrane, (d) Both (a) and (b), 32. Which of the following is not the characteristics of cell wall of meristematic cells?, (a) Primary in nature, (b) Cellulosic, (c) Abundant plasmodesmata, (d) None of these
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15.4, , Plant Growth and Development, , 33. Where can we find cells representing the phases of elongation?, (a) Root Apex, (b) Shoot Apex, (c) Cells proximal to both, (d) All of these, 34. Which of the following is not the characteristic of the cells in elongation phase?, (a) Cell enlargement, (b) New cell wall deposition, (c) Decrease in volume, (d) Both (a) and (b), 35. Cells proximal to the phase of elongation show ________ ., (a) Meristematic phase, (b) Maturative phase, (c) Elongation phase, (d) All of these, 36. What is A, B and C in the given figure?, B, , A, , C, , (a), (b), (c), (d), , A–Shoot apical meristem, B–Root apical meristem, C–Vascular cambium, A–Vascular cambium, B–Root apical meristem, C–Shoot apical meristem, A–Root apical meristem, B–Vascular cambium, C–Shoot apical meristem, A–Vascular cambium, B–Shoot apical meristem, C–Root apical meristem, , 37. Cells of maturative phase show, (a) Thickening of walls, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (b) Protoplasmic modification, (d) None of these, , 38. Increased growth per unit time is called, (a) Growth rate, (b) Growth speed, , (c) Both (a) and (b), , 39. The growth rate shows an increase that can be, (a) Mathematical, (b) Arithmetic, (c) Geometrical, , (d) None of these, (d) Both (b) and (c), , 40. In arithmetic growth, other than daughter cells, what happens to the other cells?, (a) They undergo maturation, (b) They undergo differentiation, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) They undergo continuous cell division, 41. Examples of arithmetic growth is/are, (a) Root elongation (b) Increase in girth, , (c) Both (a) and (b), , (d) None of these
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Plant Growth and Development15.5, , 42. Slow initial growth is called, (a) Log phase, (c) Exponential phase, , (b) Lag phase, (d) None of these, , 43. The rapidly increase in growth after showing initial period is called, (a) Log phase, (b) Leg phase, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (d) None of these, , 44. What is the speciality of the cells after mitotic cell division in geometric growth?, (a) Thickened cell wall, (b) Occurring of well organized growth, (c) Retaining the ability to divide, (d) None of these, 45. Stationary phase occurs due to, (a) Increase in distance, (c) Thickening of cell wall, , (b) Limited nutrient supply, (d) None of these, , 46. Geometrical growth graphically shows, (a) Linear curve, (b) Sigmoid curve, , (c) Both one by one, , (d) Straight line, , 47. Living organism growing in a natural environment can be found graphically by the presence, of, (a) Sigmoid curve, (b) Linear curve, (c) Straight line, (d) All of these, 48. Sigmoid curve is typical for which components of plant body?, (a) Cells, (b) Tissue, (c) Organs, , (d) All of these, , 49. Exponential growth can be expressed as, (b) W0 = W1 ert, (a) W1 = W0 ert, , (d) None of these, , (c) W1 = W0 eΔrt, , 50. In the expression of exponential growth ‘e’ stands for (Question number 50-52 with respect to, equation in question number 49), (a) Exponential growth rate, (b) Base of natural log, (c) Relative growth rate, (d) Change in size, 51. In expression of exponential growth ‘r’ is referred to as, (a) Growth rate, (b) Efficiency index, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) Time of growth, 52. The final size, i.e., W1 depends principally on, (b) r, (a) W0, , (c) t, , 53. Quantitative comparisons can be made by, (a) Absolute growth rate, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (b) Relative growth rate, (d) None of these, , (d) e, , 54. Measurement and comparison of total growth per unit time is called, (a) Absolute growth rate, (b) Relative growth rate, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) None of these, 55. The growth of the given system per unit time which is expressed on a common basis or per, unit initial parameter is known as, (a) Absolute growth rate, (b) Relative growth rate, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) None of these
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15.6, , Plant Growth and Development, , 56. Which of the following are not essential elements for growth?, (a) Water, (b) Oxygen, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (d) None of these, , 57. Cell enlargement mainly requires, (a) Oxygen, (b) Water, , (c) Nutrients, , (d) None of these, , 58. Extension of growth is supported by, (a) Oxygen, (b) Turgidity, , (c) Osmosis, , (d) Imbibitions, , 59. Plant growth and further development is intimately linked to, (a) Oxygen requirement, (b) Maintaining temperature, (c) Water status, (d) None of these, 60. How does water help enzymatic activities needed for growth?, (a) Water maintains pH, (b) Water maintains temperature, (c) Water provides ions, (d) Water provides medium, 61. What helps in releasing the metabolic energy essential for growth activities?, (a) Oxygen, (b) Water, (c) Nutrients, (d) None of these, 62. What are required for the synthesis of protoplasm and act as source of energy?, (a) Oxygen, (b) Micronutrients, (c) Macronutrients, (d) Both (b) and (c), 63. What can affect phases/stages of growth?, (a) Temperature, (b) Light, , (c) Gravity, , (d) All of these, , 64. The process of derivation of cells from meristems and maturation to perform specific function, is known as ________, (a) Regeneration, (b) Dedifferentiation, (c) Redifferentiation, (d) differentiation, 65. During differentiation, what kind of changes take place?, (a) Structural, (b) Functional, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) None of these, 66. What changes would occur in a cell to form a treachery element?, (a) Loose their protoplasm, (b) Strong, elastic, lignocelluloses secondary cell wall, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) None of these, 67. What is the phenomenon of dedifferentiation?, (a) Regaining the capacity to divide, (b) Loosing the capacity to divide, (c) Loosing the capacity to divide after regaining, (d) All of these, 68. What is re-differentiation?, (a) Regaining the capacity to divide, (b) Loosing the capacity to divide, (c) Loosing the capacity to divide after regaining, (d) All of these
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Plant Growth and Development15.7, , 69. Identify A, B, C and D in the given figure., Cell division, , Death, Senescence, , Meristematic, cell, , Plasmatic growth, , Differentiation, , Expansion, (Elongation), , Maturation, , Mature, cell, , Sequence of developmental process in a plant cell., , (a), (b), (c), (d), , A–Cell division, B–Senescence, C–Plasmatic growth, D–Mature cell, A–Meristematic cell, B–Plasmatic growth, C–Maturation, D–Senescence, A–Mature cell, B–Maturation, C–Senescence, D–Meristematic cell, A–Maturation, B–Cell division, C–Meristematic cell, D–Differentiation, , 70. What kind of differentiation is seen in plants?, (a) Open, (b) Close, (c) Primary, , (d) All of these, , 71. Identify the part of A, b and C in this figure., , A, , (a), (b), (c), (d), , B, , C, , A–Water habitat, B–Juvenile, C–Terrestrial habitat, A–Juvenile, B–Terrestrial habitat, C–Water habitat, A–Terrestrial habitat, B–Juvenile, C–Water habitat, A–Juvenile, B–Water habitat, C–Terrestrial habitat, , 72. Cells positioned away from root apical meristems, differentiate as, (a) Epidermis, (b) root cap, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (d) None of these, , 73. All those changes which an organism goes through during its life cycle from germination of, the seed to senescence is termed as, (a) Growth, (b) Differentiation, (c) Development, (d) None of these, 74. On whose response the plasts follow different pathways to form different kind of structures?, (a) Environment, (b) Phases of life, (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these, 75. The ability of plants to follow different pathways in response to environment or phases of life, to form different kind of structures is called?, (a) Adaptation, (b) Differentiation, (c) Maturation, (d) Plasticity, 76. In which of the following plant the leaves of juvenile plant are different in shape than those in, mature plants?, (a) Cotton, (b) Coriander, (c) Larkspur, (d) All of these
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15.8, , Plant Growth and Development, , 77. Leaves of which plant show environmental heterophylly?, (a) Cotton, (b) Coriander, (c) Larkspur, , (d) Buttercup, , 78. The phenomenon of environmental heterophyll is also called, (a) Adaptation, (b) Maturation, (c) Plasticity, , (d) Growth, , 79. What is the sum of growth and differentiation?, (a) Plasticity, (b) Development, (c) Maturation, , (d) All of these, , 80. Development in plants is mainly controlled by ________, (a) Intrinsic factor, (b) Extrinsic factor, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (d) None of these, , 81. Intrinsic factor for plant development includes, (a) Intercellular, (b) Intracellular, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (d) None of these, , 82. Inter cellular factor required for development in plant include ________, (a) Chemical regulators, (b) Genetic, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) None of these, 83. Intracellular factor required for development in plant include, (a) Chemical regulators, (b) Genetic, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) None of these, 84. Extrinsic factor for plant development includes ________, (a) Light, (b) Temperature, (c) Water, , (d) All of these, , 85. Nutrition is included in which phase of plant development?, (a) Former, (b) Latter, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) None of these, 86. Oxygen is exchanged in which phase of plant development?, (a) Former, (b) Latter, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (d) None of these, , 87. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a PGR?, (a) They are large, (b) Simple molecules, (c) They are of diverse chemical composition, (d) None of the above, 88. Match the following for PGR., Column I, A. IAA, –, B. Kinetin, –, C. ABA, –, –, D. GA3, (a) (A–iii) (B–iv) (C–i) (D–ii), (c) (A–iv) (B–ii) (C–iii) (D–i), , Column II, i. Carotenoids, ii. Terpenes, iii. Indole compounds, iv. Adenine derivatives, (b) (A–i) (B–iii) (C–ii) (D–iv), (d) (A–ii) (B–i) (C–iv) (D–iii), , 89. N6–furfurylamino purine is which derivative?, (a) Indole compounds, (c) Terpenes, , (b) Adenine, (d) Carotenoids
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Plant Growth and Development15.9, , 90. How many of the following are phytohormones?, ABA, C2H4, IAA, GA3, ABA, (a) 2, (b) 3, (c) 4, , (d) 5, , 91. Which of the following is not a plant growth promoter?, (a) Auxins, (b) Gibberellins, (c) Ethylene, , (d) Abscisic acid, , 92. Who initiated the discovery of plant growth hormones?, (a) Charles Darwin, (b) Francis Darwin, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (d) None of these, , 93. According to Charles Darwin, which plant would help in the discovery of PGH?, (a) Larkspur, (b) Buttercup, (c) Canary grass, (d) All of these, 94. Coleoptiles responded to ________, (a) Light, (b) Water, , (c) Touch, , 95. As a response to stimuli the coleoptiles caused ________, (a) Bending, (b) Flowering, (c) Budding, 96. Auxins are discovered by, (a) Charles Darwin, (c) F. W. Went, , (d) All of these, (d) All of these, , (b) Francis Darwin, (d) Both (a) and (b), , 97. Gibberella fujikuroi causes what disease in rice plants?, (a) Foolish seeding, (b) Bikaner, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (d) None of these, , 98. Who repotted that the symptoms reappeared in uninfected plants treated with sterile filtrate of, giberella fungus?, (a) E. Kurosawa, (b) F. Skoog, (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these, 99. Callus from which plant was observed by miller?, (a) Tomato, (b) Tobacco, (c) Rice plant, , (d) None of these, , 100. Addition of what to auxins in nutrients medium causes proliferation of callus?, (a) DNA, (b) Yeast extract, (c) Coconut milk, (d) All of these, 101. Who crystallized cytokinin?, (a) Skoog and miller (b) Charles Darwin, , (c) Both (a) and (b), , (d) F. W. Went, , 102. Skoog and miller termed cytokinin as, (a) Cytokinesis, (b) Kinetin, , (c) Both (a) and (b), , (d) None of these, , 103. Which three different kinds of inhibitors were found in mid-1960s?, (a) Inhibitor–A, Abscission–II and dormin, (b) Inhibitor–B, Abscission–II and dormin, (c) Inhibitor–A, Abscission–III and dormin, (d) Inhibitor–B, Abscission–III and dormin, 104. All individually found inhibitors in mid-1960s were later named as, (a) Gibberellic acid (b) Auxin, (c) Abscisic acid, , (d) None of these, , 105. The volatile substance causing ripening of unripened bananas?, (a) Abscisic acid, (b) Auxin, (c) Ethylene, , (d) Terpenes
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15.10, , Plant Growth and Development, , 106. The only gaseous PGR is ________, (a) IBA, (b) Kinetin, , (c) Terpenes, , (d) Ethylene, , 107. The Greek meaning of ‘Auxein’ is ________, (a) To flower, (b) To seed, , (c) To grow, , (d) To enlarge, , 108. Auxin was first isolated from ________, (a) Frog’s wine, (b) Zeatin, , (c) Human wine, , (d) None of these, , 109. The name ‘Auxin’ was given to which chemical?, (a) Indole-3-acetic acid, (b) Indole-6-acetic acid, (c) Indole-3-butyric acid, (d) Indole-6-butyric acid, 110. How many of the following auxins are obtained from plants?, IAA, IBA, NAA, 2, 4–D, (a) 1, (b) 2, (c) 3, , (d) 4, , 111. NAA stands for ________., (a) Nitroacetic acid, (c) Naphthaleneacetic acid, , (b) Nitro aceto acetate, (d) Naphthaloaceto acetic acid, , 112. 2, 4–D stands for ________, (a) 2, 4–Dichlorophenoxy acetate, (c) 2, 4–Diphosphenoxy acetate, , (b) 2, 4–Dextrophenoxy acetate, (d) 2, 4–Dichloromethoxy acetate, , 113. Synthetic auxins are extesively used in, (a) Agriculture, (b) Horticulture, , (c) Both (a) and (B), , (d) None of these, , 114. Natural auxins are extensively used in, (a) Agriculture, (b) Horticulture, , (c) Both (a) and (B), , (d) None of these, , 115. Which effect of auxin is applied worldwide for plant propagation?, (a) Apical dominance, (b) Herbicidal action, (c) Initiate rooting in stem cutting, (d) None of these, 116. Auxins promote flowering in, (a) Tomatoes, (b) Pineapples, , (c) Oranges, , (d) None of these, , 117. What prevents the fruit and leaf to drop in early?, (a) ABA, (b) IAA, (c) NAA, , (d) Both (b) and (c), , 118. What promotes the abscission of older mature leaf?, (a) Abscisic acid, (b) Auxin, (c) Ethylene, , (d) Cytokinins, , 119. In most of the higher plants, the growing apical bud inhibits the growth of lateral bud. This, phenomena is called, (a) Apical tolerance, (b) Axial intolerance, (c) Apical ordinance, (d) Apical dominance, 120. What can help removing apical dominance?, (a) Removal of shoot tips, (c) Both (a) and (B), , (b) Provide plants with a lot of auxin, (d) None of these
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Plant Growth and Development15.11, , 121. The process of removal of shoot tip to avoid apical dominance is called _______, (a) Autotomy, (b) Decapitation, (c) Both (a) and (B) (d) Capitation, 122. Decapitation is widely used for, (a) Tea plantation, (b) Hedge making, , (c) Both (a) and (B), , (d) None of these, , 123. Which of the following PGR can induce parthenocarpy?, (a) IBA, (b) 2, 4–D, (c) Terpenes, , (d) Kinetin, , 124. Auxins induce parthenocarpy in which plants?, (a) Tomato, (b) Pineapple, (c) Apple, , (d) All of these, , 125. Which of the following PGR is widely used as herbicide?, (a) Auxin, (b) Gibberellic acid (c) Cytokinins, , (d) All of these, , 126. Which of the following PGR is widely used to kill dicotyledonous weeds?, (a) IAA, (b) NAA, (c) 2, 4–D, (d) ABA, 127. 2, 4–D does not show herbicidal action on, (a) Chicory led ones, (c) Mature dicotyledonous, , (b) Monocotyledonous, (d) Mature monocotyledonous, , 128. Auxin 2, 4–D is used for what?, (a) To remove weeds from farms by formers, (b) To remove weeds from lawn by gardeners, (c) To induce flowering in horticulture, (d) All of these, 129. Auxin helps in what?, (a) Controlling phloem differentiation, (c) Cell division, , (b) Controlling xylem differentiation, (d) Both (b) and (c), , 130. How many varieties of gibberellins reported from widely different variety of organisms?, (a) 100, (b) 120, (c) 145, (d) 140, 131. Different types of gibberellins is reported from what kind of organisms?, (a) Fungi, (b) Higher plants, (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these, 132. Which of the following was first reported gibberellins to be discovered?, (b) GA2, (c) GA3, (d) GA4, (a) GA1, 133. What is the chemical natural of all the gas?, (a) Basic, (b) Acidic, , (c) Neutral, , 134. Gibberellins bring about what kind of change in plants?, (a) Morphological, (b) Physiological, (c) Genetical, , (d) Slightly basic, (d) None of these, , 135. Which ability of gibberellins is used to increase the length of grape stalks?, (a) Ability to increase apically, (b) Ability to increase in length of axis, (c) Ability to avoid apical dominance, (d) All of these, 136. How does gibberellins not change the quality of an apple?, (a) Make it sweeter, (b) Elongate it in size, (c) Improve its shape, (d) All of these
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15.12, , Plant Growth and Development, , 137. How can gibberellins help to extend the market period?, (a) It delays senescence, (b) Increases ripening period, (c) Increases flowering time, (d) All of these, 138. In the form of sugar, sugarcane stores what?, (a) Proteins, (b) Carbohydrates, , (c) Glycoproteins, , (d) None of these, , 139. On spraying gibberellins on sugarcane crops what major change will it bring?, (a) Increase sweetness, (b) Increase length of stem, (c) Increase root strength, (d) All of these, 140. Spraying of gibberellins over sugarcane can increase the yield by how much?, (a) 20 tonnes/acre, (b) 20 kg/acre, (c) 20 quintet/acre, (d) None of these, 141. What change does it bring in juvenile conifers when sprayed with gas?, (a) Hastens maturity period, (b) Hastens germination period, (c) Hastens dormancy period, (d) None of these, 142. Spraying of gas on juvenile conifers causes, (a) Early flowering, (c) Early seed production, , (b) Early germination, (d) All of these, , 143. Cytokinins have specific effects on, (a) Cytokinosis, (b) cytokinesis, , (c) Cytoketosis, , (d) Cytolysis, , 144. In what form the cytokinins were discovered?, (a) Terpenes, (b) Toluenes, (c) Kinetin, , (d) None of these, , 145. Gibberellins promotes bolting in which plants?, (a) Beet, (b) Cabbage, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (d) None of these, , 146. Kinetin is ________, (a) Cytokinins, (c) Purine, , (b) Modified form of adenine, (d) All of these, , 147. Kinetin was first discovered from, (a) Corn kernels, (c) Coconut milk, , (b) Autoclaved herring sperm DNA, (d) All of these, , 148. Naturally kinetin occurs in, (a) Coconut milk, (b) Pineapple, , (c) Corn, , (d) None of these, , 149. The naturally available cytokinin like substance is, (a) Kinetin, (b) Zeatin, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (d) None of these, , 150. Zeatin was isolated from what?, (a) Corn kernels, (b) Coconut milk, , (c) Both (a) and (b), , (d) None of these, , 151. Where are natural cytokinins synthesized?, (a) Areas of rapid cell division, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (b) Areas undergoing differentiation, (d) None of these
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Plant Growth and Development15.13, , 152. How many of the following PGRs help to overcome apical dominance?, Auxins, Gibberellins, Cytokinins, Ethylene, (a) 1, (b) 2, (c) 3, (d) 4, 153. How many of the following PGRs help in delay of senescence?, Auxins, Gibberellins, Cytokinins, Ethylene, (a) 1, (b) 2, (c) 3, , (d) 4, , 154. A plant tissue is undergoing senescence, which PGR would be found in it?, (a) Auxins, (b) Gibberellins, (c) Cytokinins, (d) Ethylene, 155. Large amounts of ethylene is synthesized in, (a) Ripening fruit, (c) Apex, , (b) Newly grown leaf, (d) Axial bud, , 156. What are the influences of ethylene on plants?, (a) Horizontal growth of seedlings, (b) Swelling of the axis, (c) Apical hook formation in dicot seedling (d) All of these, 157. What is the of effect of ethylene on plant organs, especially leaves and flowers?, (a) Promotes abscission, (b) Promotes senescence, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) None of these, 158. What is the effect of ethylene on ripening fruit?, (a) Increases rate of growth, (b) Increase in rate of respiration, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) None of these, 159. Rise in the rate of respiration is called, (a) Respiratory climax, (c) Respiratory climactic, , (b) Respiratory rise, (d) None of these, , 160. Which of the following PGR is used to break seed and bud dormancy?, (a) Auxins, (b) Gibberellins, (c) Cytokinins, (d) Ethylene, 161. Ethylene initiates germination in which seed?, (a) Mustard, (b) Peanut, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (d) None of these, , 162. Sprouting of potato tubers is initiated by which of the following PGR?, (a) Cytokinin, (b) Ethylene, (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these, 163. How does ethylene help plants to increase their absorption surface?, (a) Promotes growth of root, (b) Promotes formation of root hair, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) None of these, 164. Ethylene is used to initiate flowering and for synchronizing fruit set in which fruit?, (a) Apple, (b) Pineapple, (c) Banana, (d) All of these, 165. Ethylene induces flowering in which fruit?, (a) Mango, (b) Apple, , (c) Pineapple, , 166. Which of the following is the most widely used PGR in agriculture?, (a) IAA, (b) ABA, (c) GA3, , (d) All of these, (d) Ethylene
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15.14, , Plant Growth and Development, , 167. Which of the following is a characteristic of ethephon?, (a) Readily absorbed, (b) Transported within the plant, (c) Releases ethylene slowly, (d) All of these, 168. Ethephon hastens fruit ripening in, (a) Mango, (c) Apple, , (b) Tomato, (d) Both (b) and (c), , 169. Ethephon accelerates abscission in flowers and fruits like, (a) Cherry, (b) Walnut, (c) Cotton, , (d) All of these, , 170. How does ethephon increase the yield of cucumber?, (a) Promotes senescence, (b) Promotes female flowers, (c) Promotes male flowers, (d) Both (a) and (b), 171. For which role ABA was discovered?, (a) Abscission, (b) Dormancy, , (c) Both (a) and (b), , (d) Ripening fruits, , 172. What are the actions of ABA?, (a) General plant growth inhibitor, (b) Inhibitor of plant metabolism, (c) Stimulates the closure of stomata in epidermis, (d) All of these, 173. Why is ABA called stress hormone?, (a) Removes various stresses from plant, (b) Increase tolerance of plant to various kind of stresses, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) None of these, 174. ABA plays an important role in all except, (a) Seed development (b) Maturation, , (c) Dormancy, , (d) Germination, , 175. What is/are the factors that depicts unfavorable growth of seeds?, (a) Desiccation, (b) Air, (c) Carbon dioxide, , (d) All of these, , 176. ABA is antagonist to, (a) IBA, , (c) GA2, , (d) All of these, , (c) Both (a) and (b), , (d) None of these, , (b) IAA, , 177. All are types of roles played by PGR except, (a) Individualistic, (b) Synergistic, , 178. Which of the following events are controlled by extrinsic factors via PGR?, (a) Vernalisation, (b) Flowering, (c) Dormancy, (d) All of these, 179. All are extrinsic factors for growth and development except, (a) Temperature, (b) Light, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (d) Nutrition, , 180. What kind of plants require the exposure to light for a period exceeding a well defined critical, duration?, (a) Short day plants (b) Day-neutral plants, (c) Long day plants (d) None of these
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Plant Growth and Development15.15, , 181. What kind of plants require the exposure to light for a period less than critical duration?, (a) Short day plants (b) Day-neutral plants, (c) Long day plants (d) None of these, 182. Plants with no such correlation between exposure to light duration and induction of flower, response are called, (a) Long day plant (b) Day-neutral plants, (c) Short day plant (d) None of these, 183. What is more important of these?, (a) Light period , (c) Both (a) and (b) , , (b) Dark period, (d) None of these, , Photoperiodism, 184. According to Hypothesis, which substances are responsible for photoperiodism?, (a) Hormonal substance (b) Abscisic acid, (c) Gibberellins (d) All of these, 185. When flowering is either quantitatively or qualitatively dependent or exposure to low, temperature it is called ____ phenomenon., (a) Photoperiodism, (b) Thermoperiodism, (c) Vernalization, (d) Dormancy, 186. Which of the plants don’t have winter and spring varieties?, (a) Wheat, (b) Rice, (c) Barley, , (d) Rye, , 187. When are winter varieties planted?, (a) Spring, (b) Winter, , (d) All of these, , (c) Autumn, , 188. When is the harvesting of winter varieties done?, (a) Spring, (b) Winter, (c) Mid-summer, , (d) Autumn, , 189. Biennials are what kind of plants?, (a) Dicarpous, (b) Monocarpic, , (d) None of these, , (c) Polycarpic, , 190. Which of the following are examples of common biennials?, (a) Carrot, (b) Cabbages, (c) Sugarbeet, , (d) All, , 191. Cold treatment to biennial plants will stimulate what kind of response?, (a) Photo hastens, (b) Photoropism, (c) Photoperiodism, (d) All, , Assertion and Reason Questions, Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given, below:, (a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the, assertion., (b) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the, assertion., (c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false., (d) If both the assertion and reason are false.
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15.16, , Plant Growth and Development, , 192. Assertion: Plant retains the capacity for unlimited growth throughout their life., Reason: This ability of the plants is due to the presence of meristem at certain location of, body., 193. Assertion: A sigmoid curve is a characterstic of living organism growing in a natural, environment., Reason: Sigmoid curve is an S shaped curve., 194. Assertion: Auxin induces parthenocarpy in tomatoes., Reason: 2,4 –D is used as herbicides., 195. Assertion: GA increase the yield in sugarcane., Reason: GA causes increase in length of sugarcane stem., 196. Assertion: Cytokinin delays the leaf senescence., Reason: Cytokinin promotes nutrient mobilization., 197. Assertion: ABA increases the tolerance of plant to various kinds of stresses., Reason: ABA stimulates the closure of stomata in the epidermis., 198. Assertion: Ethylene increases the yield in cucumber., Reason: Ethylene promotes female flower in cucumber., 199. Assertion: Ethylene is a simple liquid PGR., Reason: Etylene inhibits sprouting of potato tuber., 200. Assertion: The pigment which causes photoperiodic stimulus is called phytochrome., Reason: Chemically phytochrome is a starch and lipid., 201. Assertion: Floral initiation is done by hormonal substance., Reason: Hormonal substance is translocated from flowers to leaves., 202. Assertion: Vernalization refers specially to the promotion of flowering by a period of low, temprature., Reason: Vernalization also seen in biennial plants., 203. Assertion: Auxins have been used extensively in agriculture and horticulture., Reason: They help to initiate rooting in stem cuttings., 204. Assertion: A plant hormone is a growth regulator., Reason: Growth regulators promote or inhibit the growth., 205. Assertion: Expansion of a leaf is growth., Reason: It is irreversible process, 206. Assertion: Plant posses open form of growth, Reason: Plant has meristmetic tissues, 207. Assertion: Growth in plant is measurable, Reason: We can measure growth of pollen tube in terms of its length, 208. Assertion: Secondary xylem is example of redifferentiated cells., Reason: Secondary xylem develops from dedifferentiated cells.
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Plant Growth and Development15.17, , 209. Assertion: Discovery of all 5 PGRs have been accidental, Reason: PGRs are simple molecules of diverse chemical composition, 210. Assertion: Auxins used for plant propagation., Reason: They help to initiate rooting in stem cuttings., 211. Assertion: In tea plantation hedge making is occur by decapitation., Reason: Removal of apical bud usually results in the growth of lateral buds., 212. Assertion: GA3 is used to speed up the melting process in brewing industries, Reason: GA3 leads to synthesis of α-amylase hydrolysing enzyme which is responsible for, partial hydrolysis of starch., 213. Assertion: Ripened banana inhibit the ripening of stored unripe banana., Reason: Ripened banana release ethylene which inhibit ripening process, 214. Assertion: Generally plant without leaf is unable to produce flower, Reason: Leaves are site of perception of light for flowering, 215. Assertion: ABA is known as stress hormone, Reason: ABA increases the tolerance of plants to several kinds of stresses., 216. Assertion: 2, 4 D is selective weedicide, Reason: 2, 4 D is widely used to kill dicotyledonous weeds and doesn’t affect mature, monocotyledonous plant., 217. Assertion: GAs leads to early seed production in conifers, Reason: GAs hastens maturity period in juvenile conifers., 218. Assertion: Ethylene helps the plants to increase their surface area for absorption., Reason: Ethylene promotes root growth and root hair formation., , previous year questions, 1. One of the commonly used plant growth hormone in tea plantation is, , [AIPMT MAINS 2010], (a) Ethylene, (b) Abscisic acid, (c) Zeatin, (d) Indole-3-acetic acid, 2. Root development is promoted by, , (a) Abscisic acid, (b) Auxin, , (c) Gibberellins, , 3. Phototropic curvature is the result of uneven distribution of, , (a) Gibberellin, (b) Phytochrome, (c) Cytokinins, (d) Auxin, 4. Photoperiodism was first characterized in, , (a) Tobacco, (b) Potato, , (c) Tomato, , [AIPMT MAINS 2010], (d) Ethylene, [AIPMT PRE 2010], , [AIPMT PRE 2010], (d) Cotton
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15.18, , Plant Growth and Development, , 5. Through their effect on plant growth regulators, what do the temperature and light control in, the plants?, , [AIPMT MAINS 2012], (a) Flowering, (b) Closure of stomata, (c) Fruit elongation, (d) Apical dominance, 6. Vernalization stimulates flowering in, , (a) Turmeric, (c) Ginger, , [AIPMT MAINS 2012], (b) Carrot, (d) Zamikand, , 7. Which one of the following generally acts as an antagonist to gibberellins?, , [AIPMT MAINS 2012], (a) Ethylene, (b) ABA, (c) IAA, (d) Zeatin, 8. During seed germination its stored food is mobilized by, , (a) Ethylene, (b) Cytokinin, (c) ABA, (d) Gibberellin, , [AIPMT 2013], , 9. Dr F. Went noted that if coleoptiles tips were removed and placed on agar for one hour, the, agar would produce a bending when placed on one side of freshly cut coleoptile stumps. Of, what significance is this experiment?, , [AIPMT 2014], (a) It made possible the isolation and exact identification of auxin., (b) It is the basis for quantitative determination of small amounts of growth promoting, substances., (c) It supports the hypothesis that IAA is auxin., (d) It demonstrated polar movement of auxins., 10. Which one of the following growth regulators is known as ‘stress hormone’?, , [AIPMT 2014], (a) Abscisic acid, (b) Ethylene, (c) GA3, (d) Indole acetic acid, 11. What causes a green plant exposed to the light on only one side, to bend toward the source of, light as it grows?, , [AIPMT 2015], (a) Green plants need the right light to perform photosynthesis., (b) Green plants seek light because they are phototropic., (c) Light stimulates plant cells on the lighted side to grow faster., (d) Auxin accumulates on the shaded side, stimulating greater cell elongation there., 12. Typical growth curve in plants is, , (a) Sigmoid, (c) Stair steps shaped, , [AIPMT 2015], (b) Linear, (d) Parabolic, , 13. Which of the following enhances or induces fusion of protoplast?, , (a) Sodium chloride and potassium chloride, (b) Polyethylene glycol and sodium nitrate, , [AIPMT 2015]
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Plant Growth and Development15.19, , (c) IAA and kinetin, (d) IAA and gibberellins, 14. Auxin can be bioassayed by, , (a) Hydroponics, (c) Lettuce hypocotyl elongation, , [RE-AIPMT 2015], (b) Potometer, (d) Avena coleoptile curvature, , 15. The Avena curvature is used for bioassay of:, (a) ABA, (c) IAA, , (b) GA3, (d) Ethylene, , [NEET - I, 2016], , 16. Oxidative phosphorylation is, [NEET - II, 2016], (a) oxidation of phosphate group in ATP, (b) addition of phosphate group to ATP, (c) Formation of ATP by energy released from electrons removed during substrate oxidation, (d) Formation of ATP by transfer of phosphate group from a substrate to ADP, , NCERT Exemplar Questions, 1. Ethylene is used for, (a) Retarding ripening of tomatoes, (c) Slowing down ripening of apples, , (b) Hastening of ripening of fruits, (d) Both (b) and (c), , 2. Coconut milk contains, (a) ABA, (c) Cytokinin, , (b) Auxin, (d) Gibberellin, , 3. The effect of apical dominance can be overcome by which of the following hormone, (a) IAA, (b) Ethylene, (c) Gibberellin, (d) Cytokinin, 4. Match the following:, (A) IAA (i), (B) ABA, (ii), (C) Ethylene, (iii), (D) GA (iv), (E) Cytokinins, (v), , Herring sperm DNA, Bolting, Stomatal closure, Weed–free lawns, Ripening of fruits, , Options:, (a) (A) – (iv), (B) – (iii), (C) – (v), (D) – (ii), (E) – (i), (b) (A) – (v), (B) – (iii), (C) – (iv), (D) – (ii), (E) – (i), (c) (A) – (iv), (B) – (i), (C) – (v), (D) – (iii), (E) – (ii), (d) (A) – (v), (B) – (iii), (C) – (ii), (D) – (i), (E) – (iv), 5. Apples are generally wrapped in waxed paper to, (a) Prevent sunlight for changing its colour., (b) Prevent aerobic respiration by checking the entry of O2., (c) Prevent ethylene formation due to injury., (d) Make the apples look attractive.
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15.20, , Plant Growth and Development, , 6. Growth can be measured in various ways. Which of these can be used as parameters to measure growth?, (a) Increase in cell number, (b) Increase in cell size, (c) Increase in length and weight, (d) All the above, 7. The term synergistic action of hormones refers to, (a) When two hormones act together but bring about opposite effects., (b) When two hormones act together and contribute to the same function., (c) When one hormone affects more than one function., (d) When many hormones bring about any one function., 8. Plasticity in plant growth means that, (a) Plant roots are extensible, (b) Plant growth is dependent on the environment, (c) Stems can extend, (d) None of these, 9. To increase the sugar production in sugarcanes, they are sprayed with, (a) IAA, (b) Cytokinin, (c) Gibberellin, (d) Ethylene, 10. ABA acts antagonistic to, (a) Ethylene, (c) Gibberellic acid, , (b) Cytokinin, (d) IAA, , 11. Monocarpic plants are those which, (a) Bear flowers with one ovary, (c) Bear only one flower, , (b) Flower once and die, (d) All the above, , 12. The photoperiod in plants is perceived at, (a) Meristem, (c) Floral buds, , (b) Flower, (d) Leaves, , Answer Keys, Practice Questions, 1. (d), 2. (c), 3. (a), 4. (c), 5. (a), 6. (d), 7. (d), 8. (c), 9. (c) 10. (c), 11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (d) 14. (d) 15. (a) 16. (d) 17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (a) 20. (d), 21. (d) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (b) 25. (c) 26. (d) 27. (d) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (c), 31. (d) 32. (d) 33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (b) 36. (d) 37. (c) 38. (a) 39. (d) 40. (c), 41. (a) 42. (b) 43. (a) 44. (c) 45. (b) 46. (b) 47. (a) 48. (d) 49. (a) 50. (b), 51. (c) 52. (a) 53. (c) 54. (a) 55. (b) 56. (d) 57. (b) 58. (b) 59. (c) 60. (d), 61. (a) 62. (d) 63. (d) 64. (d) 65. (c) 66. (c) 67. (a) 68. (c) 69. (b) 70. (a), 71. (c) 72. (b) 73. (c) 74. (c) 75. (d) 76. (d) 77. (d) 78. (c) 79. (b) 80. (c), 81. (c) 82. (a) 83. (b) 84. (d) 85. (b) 86. (a) 87. (a) 88. (a) 89. (b) 90. (d), 91. (d) 92. (c) 93. (c) 94. (a) 95. (a) 96. (c) 97. (c) 98. (a) 99. (b) 100. (d), 101. (a) 102. (b) 103. (b) 104. (c) 105. (c) 106. (d) 107. (c) 108. (c) 109. (a) 110. (b), 111. (c) 112. (a) 113. (c) 114. (c) 115. (c) 116. (b) 117. (d) 118. (b) 119. (d) 120. (a)
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Plant Growth and Development15.21, , 121. (b), 131. (c), 141. (a), 151. (a), 161. (d), 171. (b), 181. (c), 191. (d), , 122. (c), 132. (c), 142. (c), 152. (d), 162. (b), 172. (c), 182. (a), , 123. (b), 133. (b), 143. (b), 153. (b), 163. (b), 173. (d), 183. (b), , 124. (a), 134. (b), 144. (c), 154. (b), 164. (c), 174. (b), 184. (d), , 125. (a), 135. (b), 145. (c), 155. (d), 165. (b), 175. (d), 185. (a), , 126. (c), 136. (a), 146. (d), 156. (a), 166. (a), 176. (a), 186. (c), , 127. (b), 137. (a), 147. (b), 157. (d), 167. (d), 177. (c), 187. (b), , 128. (b), 138. (b), 148. (d), 158. (c), 168. (d), 178. (d), 188. (c), , 129. (d), 139. (b), 149. (c), 159. (b), 169. (d), 179. (d), 189. (c), , 130. (a), 140. (a), 150. (c), 160. (c), 170. (d), 180. (d), 190. (b), , Assertion and Reason Questions, 192. (c) 193. (a) 194. (b) 195. (b) 196. (a) 197. (a) 198. (a) 199. (a) 200. (d) 201. (c), 202. (c) 203. (b) 204. (b) 205. (a) 206. (a) 207. (a) 208. (a) 209. (b) 210. (a) 211. (a), 212. (a) 213. (d) 214. (a) 215. (a) 216. (a) 217. (a) 218. (a), Previous Year Questions, 1. (c), 11. (d), , 2. (b), 12. (a), , 3. (d), 13. (b), , 4. (a), 14. (d), , 5. (a), 15. (c), , 6. (b), 16. (c), , 7. (b), , 8. (d), , 9. (b), , 10. (a), , 8. (b), , 9. (c), , 10. (c), , NCERT Exemplar Questions, 1. (b), 11. (b), , 2. (c), 12. (d), , 3. (d), , 4. (a), , 5. (b), , 6. (d), , 7. (b)
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Unit, , Human, Physiology, , V, , Chapter 16: Digestion and Absorption, Chapter 17: Breathing and Exchange of Gases, Chapter 18: Body Fluids and Circulation, Chapter 19: Excretory Products and Their Elimination, Chapter 20: Locomotion and Movement, Chapter 21: Neural Control and Co-ordination, Chapter 22: Chemical Co-ordination and Integration, , Students Note, Unit V includes human physiology. This unit includes topics which fascinates all biology, students. In this section you need to focus on anatomy and physiology of organ system., Concentrate on data related to various organ systems like heart rate respiratory rate, cardiac, output, and the amount of urea excreted in 24 hours. Special emphasis is given to nervous, and endocrine system. Since the last two years, diagram based questions are frequently, asked .from this unit, so do carefully study the diagram-based questions given in this book., This unit comprises an equivalent of 10–14 questions in AIPMT paper.
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Digestion and, Absorption, , CHAPTER, , 16, , prACtiCe Questions, Digestive System, 1. The process of conversion of complex food substances to simple absorbable forms is called, (a) Egestion, (b) Digestion, (c) Ingestion, (d) Assimilation, 2. The major components of our food are, (a) Carbohydrates, (b) Proteins, , (c) Fats, , (d) All of these, , 3. Which of the following substances do not get digested in our digestive system?, (a) Carbohydrates, (b) Proteins and fats, (c) Vitamins and minerals, (d) All of these, 4. Which of the following are important for our body but required in less amount?, (a) Vitamins and minerals, (b) Proteins, (c) Fats, (d) Carbohydrates, 5. Which of the following is a function of food?, (a) Providing energy to the body, (b) Providing organic materials for growth and repair of tissues, (c) Providing organic materials for repair of tissues, (d) All of these, 6. Digestion in our body takes place by means of, (a) Biochemical method, (b) Mechanical method, (c) Both of the above, (d) Chemical method, 7. Which of the following molecules are not utilized by our body in their original form?, (a) All biomacromolecule, (b) All biomicromolecule, (c) Biomolecules having molecular weight less than 1000 dalton, (d) All of these, 8. Human digestive system consists of, (a) Alimentary canal, (c) Both (a) and (b), 9. The role of water in our body is to, (a) Act as medium for transport of substances, (b) Provide medium for all metabolic reactions, (c) Prevent dehydration of body, (d) All of these, , (b) Associated glands, (d) Gastrointestinal tract only
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16.4, , Digestion and Absorption, , 10. The anterior opening of alimentary canal is, (a) Anus, (b) Mouth, , (c) Vestibule, , (d) Pupil, , 11. The posterior opening of alimentary canal is, (a) Anus, (b) Mouth, , (c) Vestibule, , (d) Pupil, , 12. Teeth of human are, (a) Thecodont, , (c) Heterodont, , (d) All of these, , 13. If tooth is embedded in a socket of jaw bone then it is known as, (a) Thecodont, (b) Diphyodont, (c) Heterodont, , (d) All of these, , 14. Marasmus is found in, (a) Infant, (b) Adult, , (d) All of these, , (b) Diphyodont, , (c) Old age person, , 15. In majority of mammals, including human, two sets of teeth get formed during their life time., These teeth are called, (a) Thecodont, (b) Hetrodont, (c) Diphyodont, (d) Lophodont, 16. An adult human has 32 permanent teeth which are of four different types and are called, (a) Thecodont, (b) Heterodont, (c) Diphyodont, (d) Lophodont, 17. Arrangement of teeth in each half of the upper and lower jaw in the order I, C, PM, M is, represented by, (a) Dental formula, (b) Odontology, (c) Dentology, (d) Enamel, 18. The dental formula of human is, 0033, 1003, (b), (a), 3133, 1003, , (c), , 2123, 2123, , (d), , 19. Identify A, B, C, D and E in the given figure., , D, 3, , E, 4, , A, , 2, , 1, , 1, 3, 4, , 5, 6, B, , C, 7, 8, , (a), (b), (c), (d), , A–Molars, B–Incisor, C–Premolars, D–Canine, E–Socket of jaw, A–Premolars, B–Socket of jaw, C–Canine, D–Molars, E–Incisor, A–Premolars, B–Molars, C–Socket of jaw, D–Incisor, E–Canine, A–Socket of jaw, B–Canine, C–Premolars, D–Molars, E–Incisor, , 3131, 3121
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Digestion and Absorption16.5, , 20. Dental formula is given to show, (a) The structure of molars, (c) Homodont condition, , (b) Number and types of teeth in both jaws, (d) Diphyodont condition, , 21. Dental formula of human being is, (a) I2, C2, P1, M3, , (b) I2, C1, P2, M3, , 22. The hardest substance in vertebrate body is, (a) Keratin, (b) Dentine, , (c) I3, C1, P2, M2, , (d) I2, C2, P3, M1, , (c) Chondrin, , (d) Enamel, , 23. Select the incorrect statement among the following about human tongue., (a) The human tongue has freely movable muscular organ., (b) It is attached to the floor of the oral cavity by the frenulum., (c) The upper surface of the tongue has small projections called papillae., (d) All papillae of human tongue bear taste buds., 24. The tongue is attached to the floor of oral/buccal cavity by, (a) Epiglottis, (b) Frenulum, (c) Gubernaculums, , (d) Mesentery, , 25. Which of the following acts as a common passage for food and air?, (a) Larynx, (b) Pharynx, (c) Oesophagus, , (d) Glottis, , 26. A cartilaginous flap called __________ prevents the entry of food into the glottis (opening of, the wind pipe) during swallowing., (a) Capsule, (b) Epiglottis, (c) Glottis, (d) Gullet, 27. Select the total number of correct statement from the following:, A. The esophagus and the trachea (wind pipe) open into the pharynx., B The hard chewing surface of the teeth, made up of dentine, helps in the mastication of food., C. The oral cavity leads into a long pharynx which serves as a common passage for food and air., D. The tongue is a freely movable muscular organ attached to the roof of the oral cavity by, the frenulum., (a) 1, (b) 2, (c) 3, (d) 4, 28. Stomach is divided into how many major parts?, (a) 1, (b) 2, (c) 3, , (d) 4, , 29. Which part of stomach opens into the first part of small intestine?, (a) Cardiac, (b) Fundic, (c) Pyloric, , (d) Any of these, , 30. Which of the following is a highly coiled part of small intestine?, (a) Duodenum, (b) Jejunum, (c) Ileum, , (d) All of these, , 31. Identify A to E in the given figure., A, C, E, D, B
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16.6, , Digestion and Absorption, , (a), (b), (c), (d), , A–Oesophagus, B–Pyloric, C–Fundus, D–Superior portion of duodenum, E–Cardiac, A–Pyloric, B–Cardiac, C–Fundus, D–Oesophagus, E–Superior protein of duodenum, A–Superior protein of duodenum, B–Oesophagus, C–Cardiac, D–Fundus, E–Pyloric, A–Oesophagus, B–Fundus, C–Pyloric, D–Superior protein of duodenum, E–Cardiac, , 32. A muscular sphincter that regulates the opening of oesophagus into stomach is, (a) Pyloric sphincter, (b) Gastroesophageal sphincter, (c) Sphincter of Oddi, (d) Cervical sphincter, 33. Select the incorrect organ and its shape from the following., (a) J-shape–stomach, (b) U-shape–duodenum, (c) Bean-shape–kidney, (d) O-shape–vasa recta, 34. A muscular sphincter that regulates the opening of stomach into duodenum is, (a) Pyloric sphincter, (b) Gastroesophageal sphincter, (c) Sphincter of Oddi, (d) Cervical sphincter, 35. Large intestine consists of, (a) Caecum, (b) Colon, , (c) Rectum, , (d) All of these, , 36. A part of large intestine which is a blind sac and it harbours some symbiotic micro organism is, (a) Colon, (b) Caecum, (c) Rectum, (d) Ileum, 37. Colon is divided into, (a) Ascending colon, (c) Transverse colon, , (b) Descending colon, (d) All of these, , 38. Which of the following is true about appendix?, (a) Narrow finger-like tubular projection, (b) Arises from the caecum, (c) Vestigial organ, (d) All of these, 39. The wall of alimentary canal from oesophagus to rectum possesses how many histological, layers?, (a) 1, (b) 2, (c) 3, (d) 4, 40. Identify the order of the following histological layers which are present in the wall of human, alimentary canal from esophagus to rectum., A. Serosa, B. Bowman’s layer, C. Muscularis, D. Sub-mucosa, E. Mucosa, F. Ganglion layer, (a) A,B,C,D, (b) B,C,D,E, (c) A,B,D,F, (d) A,C,D,E, 41. Which of the following is the outermost histological layer of alimentary canal?, (a) Serosa (thin mesothelium), (b) Mucosa, (c) Sub mucosa, (d) Muscularis, 42. Where does the oblique muscle layer situated in human alimentary canal?, (a) Oesophagus, (b) Stomach, (c) Large intestine, (d) Small intestine
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Digestion and Absorption16.7, , 43. Select the total number of false statements from the following., A. Muscularis is formed by smooth muscles usually arranged into an inner circular and an, outer longitudinal layer., B. Submucosal layer is formed of loose connective tissues containing nerves, blood and, lymph vessels, C. Serosa is the outermost layer and is made up of a thin mesothelium (epithelium of visceral, organs) with some connective tissues., D. The innermost layer lining the lumen of the alimentary canal is the mucosa., E. Mucosal epithelium has goblet cells which secrete mucus that helps in lubrication., (a) 3, (b) 4, (c) 5, (d) All are true, 44. Mucosal layer that forms irregular folds in the stomach is called, (a) Rugae, (b) Villi, (c) Microvilli, , (d) Papilla, , 45. Mucosal layer that forms small finger like projections in intestine is called, (a) Villi, (b) Microvilli, (c) Crypts, (d) Papilla, 46. Mucosal layer that forms depressions in between villi in intestine is called, (a) Villi, (b) Microvilli, (c) Crypts, (d) Papilla, 47. In the wall of alimentary canal which are/is true sequence from outer to inner?, (a) Serosa, longitudinal muscle, mucosa, sub mucosa, (b) Mucosa, serosa, long muscle, (c) Serosa, long muscle, circular, sub-mucosa, mucosa, (d) Serosa, long muscle, sub-mucosa, mucosa, 48. The narrow distal end of stomach is called, (a) Cardiac, (b) Duodenum, , (c) Pharynx, , (d) Pylorus, , 49. Intestinal villi are mainly concerned with, (a) Assimilation, (b) Secretion, , (c) Ultrafilteration, , (d) Absorption, , 50. Pylorus is situated at the junction of, (a) Oesophagus and stomach, (c) Duodenum and ileum, , (b) Stomach and duodenum, (d) Ileum and rectum, , 51. Brush bordered epithelium is found in, (a) Trachea, (b) Stomach, , (c) Small intestine, , 52. Vermiform appendix is a part of, (a) Alimentary canal, (c) Vascular system, , (b) Nervous system, (d) Reproductive system, , 53. Crypt of Lieberkuhn is an example for, (a) Simple tubular gland, (c) Compound alveolar gland, , (b) Coiled tubular gland, (d) Compound tubular gland, , 54. Serosa is made up of, (a) Mesothelium, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (b) Some connective tissue, (d) None of these, , 55. In duodenum, glands are present in, (a) Mucosa, (b) Sub-mucosa, , (c) Muscular layer, , Absorption of Digested Products, , (d) Fallopian tube, , (d) Both (a) and (b)
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16.8, , Digestion and Absorption, , 56. Which is responsible for the increase in surface area of small intestine?, (a) Villi, (b) Microvilli, (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Bigger lumen, 57. Which of the following is true about villi?, (a) They are small finger like folding in small intestine., (b) They are supplied with network of capillaries., (c) They are supplied with large lymph vessel called lacteals., (d) All the above, 58. Goblet cells are an example of, (a) Multicellular gland, (c) Alveolar gland, , (b) Unicellular gland, (d) Tubular gland, , 59. Select the incorrect statement from the following., (a) Mucosal epithelium has goblet cells which secrete mucous that helps in lubrication., (b) Mucosa form gastric gland in stomach and crypts of Lieberkuhn in Intestine., (c) All the four histological layers shows modification in different parts of alimentary canal., (d) Muscularis layer is formed by outer circular and inner longitudinal muscle layer., 60. Which of the following are digestive glands associated with alimentary canal?, (a) Salivary gland, (b) Liver, (c) Pancreas, (d) All of these, 61. How many salivary glands are present in the human body?, (a) 3, (b) 4, (c) 5, 62. The following are salivary glands, except, (a) Parotid, (c) Sub-lingual, , (b) Sub-maxillary/sub-mandibular, (d) Brunner gland, , 63. The gland which is situated below the tongue is, (a) Parotid, (b) Sub-maxillary, (c) Sub-lingual, 64. Select the incorrect match:, Position, (a) Cheeks, (b) Lower jaw, (c) Below tongue, (d) Pineal gland, , –, –, –, –, , 65. Which is the largest gland of our body?, (a) Parotid, (b) Pancreas, , (d) 6, , (d) Sub-mandibular, , Gland, Parotid, Sub-maxillary/sub-mandibular, Sub-lingual, Dorsal side of mid brain, (c) Liver, , (d) Adrenal, , 66. What is the approximate weight of an adult human liver?, (a) 1.2–1.5 kg, (b) 2.5–3.5 kg, (c) 0.5–1.0 kg, (d) 200 grams, 67. Liver is situated in, (a) Thoracic cavity, (c) Pelvic cavity, , (b) Abdominal Cavity, (d) Cranial cavity, , 68. Liver is majorly divided into how many lobes?, (a) 1, (b) 2, (c) 3, , (d) 4
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Digestion and Absorption16.9, , 69. Each lobule in liver is covered by a thin connective tissue sheath called, (a) Hepatic Fascia, (b) Glisson’s Capsule, (c) Falciform ligament, (d) Coronary ligament, 70. Structural and functional unit of liver is, (a) Cystic duct, (b) Hepatocyte, , (c) Hepatic lobules, , 71. The function of gall bladder is, (a) Storage of bile, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (b) Concentration of bile, (d) Formation of bile, , (d) Kupffer cells, , 72. Common bile duct is formed by the joining of, (a) Hepatic ducts, (b) Cystic duct, (c) Duct of Wirsung, , (d) Both (a) and (b), , 73. Cystic duct is located in, (a) Urinary bladder, (b) Gall Bladder, , (c) Liver, , (d) Pancreas, , 74. Bile is secreted by, (a) Glisson’s Capsule, (c) Hepatic Cells, , (b) Gall bladder, (d) Kupffer cells, , 75. The bile duct and pancreatic duct opens together into the duodenum as hepato-pancreatic duct, which is guarded by sphincter called, (a) Sphincter of Boyden, (b) Hepato pancreatic ampulla, (c) Sphincter of Oddi, (d) Cardiac Sphincter, 76. Pancreas secretes, (a) Insulin, , (b) Glucagon, , (c) Enzymes, , (d) All of these, , 77. Identify A to F in the given figure., F, D, C, A, , E, B, , (a) A–Common bile duct, B–Gall bladder, C–Pancreatic duct, D–Duodenum, E–Hepatopancreatic duct, F–Ducts from liver, (b) A–Pancreatic duct, B–Hepato-pancreatic duct, C–Common bile duct, D–Ducts from liver,, E–Duodenum, F–Gall bladder, (c) , A–Hepato-pancreatic duct, B–Ducts from liver, C–Pancreatic duct, D–Gall bladder,, E–Duodenum, F–Common bile duct, (d) A–Gall bladder, B–Common bile duct, C–Duodenum, D–Pancreatic duct, E–Hepatopancreatic duct, F–Ducts from liver, 78. All are secretion of pancreas, except, (a) Insulin, (c) Chymotrypsinogen, , (b) Glucagon, (d) Enterokinase
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16.10, , Digestion and Absorption, , 79. Mixed Gland (endocrine + exocrine) is obtained from, (a) Liver, (b) Parotid, (c) Pancreas, (d) Adrenal, 80. The major function performed by buccal cavity is, (a) Mastication of food, (b) Facilitation of swallowing, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) None of these, 81. The bolus formed in buccal cavity conveyed into pharynx and then esophagus by the process, is called, (a) Peristalsis, (b) Emesis, (c) Deglutition/swallowing, (d) Dysagglutination, 82. Mucus in saliva helps in lubricating and adhering the masticate food particle into a, ____________ in buccal cavity, (a) Chyme, (b) Chyle, (c) Bolus, (d) Any of these, 83. Saliva contains, (a) Salivary amylase / Ptyalin, (c) Lysozyme, , (b) Electrolyte (Na+, K+ ,Cl-, HCO3- etc.), (d) All of these, , 84. Lysozyme, (a) Anti-viral agent, (c) Acts on lipid, , (b) Anti-bacterial agent, (d) Acts on carbohydrates, , 85. Lysozyme, (a) Cellular barrier, (c) Physiological barrier, , (b) Cytokine barrier, (d) Physical barrier, , 86. How much percentage of starch is hydrolyzed in mouth?, (a) 30, (b) 50, (c) 70, , (d) 90, , 87. The optimum pH for salivary enzyme is, (a) 6.2, (b) 5.8, , (c) 6.8, , (d) 8.8, , 88. Salivary amylase acts on, (a) Slightly basic pH, (c) Slightly acidic pH, , (b) Highly acidic pH, (d) Highly basic pH, , Salivery amylase A . A is, 89. Starch , →, pH 6.8, (a) Sucrose, (b) Galactose, , (c) Maltose, , Salivery amylase, 90. Starch , → A . A is, pH 6.8, (a) Monosaccharide, (c) Disaccharide, , (b) Polysaccharides, (d) Amylopectin, , 91. Gastric glands are situated in, (a) Sub-mucosa, (c) Muscularis, , (b) Mucosa, (d) Serosa, , (d) Glucose
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Digestion and Absorption16.11, , 92. Match the column:, A B, A. Mucus neck cells, –, 1. HCI, B. Peptic or Chief cells, –, 2. Intrinsic factor, C. Parietal/Oxyntic cells, –, 3. Pepsinogen, , 4. Mucus, (a) A → 4, B → 3, C → 1, 2, (b) A → 1, 4, B → 2, C → 3, (c) A → 4, B → 1, 3, C → 2, (d) A → 4, B → 2, 3, C → 1, 93. Which is required for the absorption of Vitamin B12?, (a) HCl, (b) Pepsin, (c) Intrinsic factor, , (d) Amylase, , 94. The stomach stores food for, (a) 1 hr, (b) 2–3hr, , (c) 4–5 hrs, , (d) 30 min, , 95. Digestion of carbohydrates starts from, (a) Buccal cavity, (b) Stomach, , (c) Small intestine, , (d) Large intestine, , 96. Select the total number of true statement from the following., A. In stomach the bolus is converted to chyme., B. Chief cells secrets intrinsic factor required for absorption of Vit B12, HCl pepsin, C. Pepsinogen , →, D. Pepsin converts protein into amino acids., (a) 1, (b) 2, (c) 3, (d) 4, 97. Protection of mucosal epithelium from highly concentrated HCl in stomach is performed by, A. HCO3- Ion, B. Mucus, C. Pepsin, D. Intrinsic factor, (a) A and C only, (b) B only, (c) A and B only, (d) A, B and C only, 98. Optimal pH for pepsin is, (a) 6.8, (b) 1.8, , (c) 3.8, , (d) 6.0, , 99. Which of the following is incorrect about gastric juice?, (a) Gastric juice of an infant contain Rennin., (b) Small amount of lipase is present., (c) Gastric juice is secreted by gastric glands., (d) Rennin doesn’t help in digestion of milk protein present in gastric juice of infant., 100. Which of the following is released in small intestine?, (a) Bile juice, (b) Pancreatic juice, (c) Intestinal juice, (d) All of these, 101. Bile and pancreatic juice is released in small intestine by, (a) Cystic duct, (b) Bile duct, (c) Pancreatic duct, (d) Hepatic–pancreatic duct
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Digestion and Absorption16.13, , 112. Select the incorrect statement from the following:, (a) Succus entericus act on end products produced by pancreatic enzyme., (b) Final steps of digestion occur far away from the mucosal epithelial cells of the intestine., (c) The breakdown of biomacromolecule generally occurs in the duodenum region of small, intestine., (d) Simple substance forms after digestion is absorbed mainly by jejunum and ileum., 113. Action of which enzyme produces glucose?, (a) Maltase, (b) Lactase, , (c) Sucrase, , (d) All of these, , 114. Action of which enzyme produces only glucose?, (a) Maltase, (b) Lactase, (c) Sucrase, , (d) All of these, , 115. Where we use term feaces for undigested and unabsorbed food particle in alimentary canal., (a) Jejunum, (b) Colon, (c) Rectum, (d) End of ileum, 116. Where faecal matters are temporarily stored till defecation?, (a) Colon, (b) Caecum, (c) Ileum, , (d) Rectum, , 117. The activities of gastrointestinal are under, (a) Neural control only, (b) Hormonal control only, (c) Neither hormonal nor neural control, (d) Neural and hormonal control, 118. The muscular activities of different parts of alimentary canal also be regulated by, (a) Local neural control, (b) CNS neural control, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) None of these, 119. Absorption is a process by which the end product of digestion pass through the intestinal, mucosa into _______, (a) Blood/lymph, (b) Liver, (c) CSF, (d) Heart, 120. Secretion of saliva can be stimulated by, (a) Sight of food, (c) Presence of food in oral cavity, , (b) Smell of food, (d) All of these, , 121. In addition to controlling the neurons, hormones also influence the, (a) Gastric secretions, (b) Intestinal secretions, (c) Muscular activities of different parts of alimentary canal, (d) All of these, 122. Hormonal control of the secretion of digestive juice is carried out by local ______, produced, by __________ and _____ mucosa., (a) Neurotransmitters, liver, pancreas, (b) Hormones, Liver, pancreas, (c) hormones, Gastric, intestinal, (d) Neurotransmitters, gastric, intestinal, 123. Absorption of digested food is carried out by, (a) Passive method, (c) Facilitated transport, , (b) Active transport, (d) All of these
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16.14, , Digestion and Absorption, , 124. Glucose and amino acids are absorbed in the intestine by, (a) Active transport, (b) Passive transport, (c) Selective absorption, (d) Osmosis, 125. Which of the following statements is incorrect?, A. Absorption of simple sugar, alcohol, some water and medicines take place in stomach., B. Maximum water absorption occurs in small intestine., C. Small intestine is the major site of digestion and absorption of food., D. Fatty acid and glycerol are absorbed by lacteals., E. Nothing is absorbed in mouth and large intestine., (a) A, D and E only (b) D and E only, (c) D only, (d) B and C only, 126. Fructose and some amino acids are absorbed by, (a) Active transport, (b) Diffusion, (c) Facilitated transport, (d) Osmosis, 127. A small amount of monosaccharide like glucose, amino acids and some electrolytes like, chloride ions are generally absorbed by, (a) Active transport, (b) Simple diffusion, (c) Facilitated transport, (d) Osmosis, 128. Carrier ions is generally used for facilitated transport of fructose and some amino acids, (b) Cl(c) K+, (d) Na+, (a) Ca2+, 129. Amino acids, monosaccharide, electrolytes like Na+ are mainly absorbed by, (a) Osmosis, (b) Passive transport, (c) Facilitated transport, (d) Active transport, 130. Which of the following statement is wrong about Chylomicrons?, A. Chylomicrons are produced in the epithelial cells of small intestine., B. It contain triglycerides, cholesterol and phospholipids., C. It is protein coated small vesicles., D. Chylomicrons released from the epithelial cell into lacteals., (a) A and D only, (b) B and C only, (c) All of these, (d) None of these, 131. Chylomicrons are concerned with the, (a) Digestion of fats, (c) Digestion of protein, , (b) Absorption of proteins, (d) Absorption of fats, , 132. The absorbed substances finally reach the tissues which utilize them for their activities., This process is called, (a) Assimilation, (b) Emulsification, , (c) Catabolism, , (d) Digestion, , (c) Cerebellum, , (d) Medulla, , Disorder of Digestive System, 133. Vomit center is situated at, (a) Pons, (b) Mid-brain, , 134. Defecation, (a) Is a voluntary process, (b) Is carried out by a mass peristaltic movement, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) Is otherwise known as ingestion
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Digestion and Absorption16.15, , 135. Which of the following statements is incorrect?, (a) Faecal accumulation in the rectum initiates a neural reflex causing an urge for its removal., (b) Reflex of vomiting is controlled by medulla., (c) Irregular bowel movements cause constipation., (d) In diarrhea the absorption of food is increased., 136. Marasmus is characterized by, (a) Thinning of limbs, (c) Decreases growth rate, , (b) Skin becomes dry, thin and wrinkled, (d) All the above, , 137. Maximum absorption of digested food takes place in, (a) Mouth, (b) Stomach, (c) Small intestine, (d) Large intestine, 138. Absorption of simple sugar, water and alcohol takes place in, (a) Mouth, (b) Stomach, (c) Small intestine, (d) Large intestine, 139. Mouth can absorb, (a) Fatty acid, , (b) Certain drugs, , 140. Jaundice occurs due to the increasing level of, (b) HCO3, (a) CaCO3, , (c) Alcohol, , (d) All of these, , (c) Bile pigments, , (d) CO2, , 141. Which of the following are parasites of intestine?, (a) Tapeworm and Roundworm, (b) Threadworm and Hookworm, (c) Pinworm, (d) All of these, 142. Jaundice is a disorder of, (a) Excretory system, (c) Digestive system, , (b) Skin and eyes, (d) Circulatory system, , 143. The cause(s) of indigestion is/are, (a) Inadequate enzyme secretion, (b) Anxiety, (c) Food poisoning, over eating and spicy food, (d) All the above, 144. The abnormal frequent bowel movement and increased liquidity of faecal discharge is, known as, (a) Constipation, (b) Vomiting, (c) Diarrhoea, (d) Indigestion, 145. Swelling of gut is the most common ailment due to, (a) Bacterial infections, (b) Viral infections, (c) Infection of intestinal parasites (e.g., different types of worms), (d) All the above, 146. Which of the following is correct about vomiting?, (a) Ejection of stomach content through mouth., (b) It is a reflex action., (c) A feeling of nausea precedes vomiting., (d) All of the above
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16.16, , Digestion and Absorption, , 147. One gram of fat produces, (a) 4.1 kcal of chemical energy, (c) 7.0 kcal of chemical energy, , (b) 9.45 kcal of chemical energy, (d) 5.0 kcal of chemical energy, , 148. The amount of heat liberated from the complete combustion of 1 gm of food in a bomb, calorimeter is known as its______________, (a) gross caloric value, (b) gross energy value, (c) physiological value, (d) both (a) and (b), , Assertion and Reason Questions, Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given, below:, (a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the, assertion., (b) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the, assertion., (c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false., (d) If both the assertion and reason are false., 149. Assertion: Process of conversion of complex food substances to simple absorbable forms is, called digestion., Reason: Biomacromolecules in food cannot be utilized by our body in their original form., 150. Assertion: Tounge contains receptor for taste., Reason: The upper surface of the tounge has small projections called papillae, all of which, bear taste buds which act as receptor for taste., 151. Assertion: Large intestine also shows the presence of villi like small intestine., Reason: Absorption of most substance takes place in large intestine., 152. Assertion: Lipases of bile helps in the emulsification of fats., Reason: Lipases can break large fat droplets into smaller ones., 153. Assertion: Presence of HCl in stomach is necessary for the process of digestion., Reason: HCl kills and inhibits the growth of bacteria in the stomach., 154. Assertion: Facilitated diffusion is more rapid than simple diffusion., Reason: Facilitated diffusion involves the expenditure of energy unlike simple diffusion., 155. Assertion: Mucosal epithelium secretion helps in lubrication., Reason: Mucosal epithelium has goblet cells which secretes mucus., 156. Assertion: The vermiform appendix which is a vestigeal organ arises from ileum., Reason: Appendix is a small blind sac which hosts some non symbiotic bacteria., 157. Assertion: Pancreas is a compound organ., Reason: Pancreas contains both exocrine and endocrine tissues., 158. Assertion: The chemical process of digestion is initiated in the oral cavity., Reason: Saliva contains the hydrolytic enzyme salivary amylase.
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Digestion and Absorption16.17, , 159. Assertion: Jaundice is the yellowish discolouration of eye and skin., Reason: It occurs due to the deposition of bile pigments., 160. Assertion: Faeces are retained with in rectum in constipation., Reason: Bowel movement are regular in constipation., 161. Assertion: In human teeth is thecodont type., Reason: Tooth in human embedded in a socket of jaw bone, 161. Assertion: Pharynx serves as common passage for air and food, Reason: Trachea and oesophagus open into pharynx, 163. Assertion: Saliva is antibacterial in nature, Reason: Saliva contain lysozyme, 164. Assertion: Chemical process of digestion is initiated in oral cavity, Reason: Protein digestion starts in mouth, 165. Assertion: Absorption of vitamin B12 is affected by gastric secretion, Reason: Gastric secretion contain intrinsic factor which is essential for B12 absorption, 166. Assertion: Large amount of lipases are secreted in gastric juice, Reason: Lipid digestion mainly occur in stomach, 167. Assertion: Pepsin converts proteins into dipeptide and amino acid, Reason: Pepsin is exopeptidase, 168. Assertion: Brunner’s gland helps in protection of intestinal mucosa from acid, Reason: Brunner’s gland also secretes mucus, 169. Assertion: No significant digestive activity occur in large intestine, Reason: Function of large intestine is absorption of some water, minerals and certain drugs., 170. Assertion: Various type of movements are generated by muscularis layer of the small intestine, Reason: These movements help in a through mixing up of the food with various secretions, in intestine, 171. Assertion: Villi is supplied with a large lymph vessels called the lacteals., Reason: Chylomicrons transported via lacteals, 172. Assertion: Bile is required for effective digestion of fat., Reason: Bile helps in emulsification of fats., 173. Assertion: Diarrhoea reduces the absorption of food., Reason: During diarrhoea frequency of bowel movement decreases., 174. Assertion: Vomit is a cranial reflex action, Reason: It is controlled by vomit centre in the medulla of brain., 175. Assertion: Defecation is a voluntary process., Reason: External anal sphincter is under voluntary control., 176. Assertion: Bile helps in emulsification of fats., Reason: Bile juice contains bile salts require for emulsification process.
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16.18, , Digestion and Absorption, , previous year questions, 1. If for some reason the parietal cells of the gut epithelium become partially non-functional,, what is likely to happen?, , [AIPMT MAINS 2010], (a) The pancreatic enzymes and specially the trypsin and lipase will not work efficiently., (b) The pH of stomach will fall abruptly., (c) Steapsin will be more effective., (d) Proteins will not be adequately hydrolyzed by pepsin into proteoses and peptones., 2. Jaundice is a disorder of, , (a) Excretory system, (c) Digestive system, , [AIPMT MAINS 2010], (b) Skin and eyes, (d) Circulatory system, , 3. Carrier ions like Na+ facilitates the absorption of substance like, , [AIPMT PRE 2010], (a) Amino acids and glucose, (b) Glucose and fatty acids, (c) Fatty acids and glycerol, (d) Fructose and some amino acids, 4. Which of the following enzymes carries out the initial step in the digestion of milk in humans?, , [AIPMT PRE 2011], (a) Rennin, (b) Lipase, (c) Trypsin, (d) Pepsin, 5. One of the constituents of the pancreatic juice which is poured into the duodenum in humans, is, , [AIPMT MAINS 2011], (a) Trypsinogen, (b) Chymotrypsin, (c) Trypsin, (d) Enterokinase, 6. Which one of the following correctly represents the normal adult human dental formula?, , [AIPMT MAINS 2011], 3 1 3 1, 2 1 3 3, (b) , , ,, (a) , , ,, 3 1 2 1, 2 1 2 3, 2 1 2 3, 3 1 3 3, (c) , , ,, (d) , , ,, 2 1 2 3, 3 1 3 3, 7. Where do certain symbiotic microorganisms normally occur in human body?, , [AIPMT MAINS 2012], (a) Oral lining and tongue surface, (b) Vermiform appendix and rectum, (c) Duodenum, (d) Caecum, 8. Anxiety and eating spicy food together otherwise normal human, may lead to, , [AIPMT PRE 2012], (a) Indigestion, (b) Jaundice, (c) Diarrhoea, (d) Vomiting
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Digestion and Absorption16.19, , 9. Select the correct match of the digested products in humans given in column I with their, absorption site and mechanism in column II., , [AIPMT 2013], Column-I, Column-II, (a) Glycine, glucose, Small intestine and active absorption, Small intestine and passive absorption, (b) Fructose, Na+, (c) Glycerol and fatty acids, Duodenum, move as chilomicrons, (d) Cholesterol and maltose, Large intestine and active absorption, 10. The initial step in the digestion of milk in humans is carried out by, , (a) Lipase, (b) Trypsin, (c) Rennin, (d) Pepsin, , [AIPMT 2014], , 11. Fructose is absorbed into the blood through mucosa cells of intestine by the process called, , [AIPMT 2014], (a) Active transport, (b) Facilitated transport, (c) Simple diffusion, (d) Co transport mechanism, 12. The primary dentition in human differs from permanent dentition in not having one of the following type of teeth, , [AIPMT 2015], (a) Premolars, (b) Molars, (c) Incisors, (d) Canine, 13. The enzyme that is not present in succus entericus is, , (a) Nucleases, (b) Nucleosidase, (c) Lipase, (d) Maltase, , [AIPMT 2015], , 14. Which of the following statement is not incorrect?, , [AIPMT 2015], (a) Brunner’s glands are present in the submucosa of stomach and secrete pepsinogen., (b) Goblet cells are present in the mucosa of intestine and secrete mucus., (c) Oxyntic cells are present in the mucosa of stomach and secrete HCI., (d) Acini are present in the pancreas and secrete Carboxypeptidase., 15. Gastric juice of infants contains, , (a) Maltase, pepsinogen, rennin, (c) Pepsinogen, lipase, rennin, , [AIPMT 2015], (b) Nuclease, pepsinogen, lipase, (d) Amylase, rennin, pepsinogen, , 16. The primary dentition in human differs from permanent dentition in not having one of the, following type of teeth, , [RE-AIPMT 2015], (a) Premolars, (b) Molars, (c) Incisors, (d) Canine, 17. The enzyme that is not present in succus entericus is, , (a) Nucleases, (b) Nucleosidase, (c) Lipase, (d) Maltase, , [RE-AIPMT 2015]
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16.20, , Digestion and Absorption, , 18. In the stomach, gastric acid is secreted by the:, , (a) gastrin secreting cells, (b) parietal cells, (c) peptic cells, (d) acidic cells, , [NEET - I, 2016], , 19. Which of the following guards the opening of hepatopancreatic duct into the duodenum?, , [NEET - I, 2016], (a) Semilunar valve, (b) Ileocaecal valve, (c) Pyloric sphincter, (d) Sphincter of Oddi, 20. Which hormones do stimulate the production of pancreatic juice and bicarbonate?, , [NEET - II, 2016], (a) Gastrin and insulin, (b) Cholecystokinin and secretin, (c) Insulin and glucagon, (d) Angiotensin and epinephrine, , NCERT Exemplar Questions, 1. Select what is not true about intestinal villi among the following:, (a) They possess microvilli., (b) They increase the surface area., (c) They are supplied with capillaries and the lacteal vessels., (d) They only participate in digestion of fats., 2. Hepato–pancreatic duct opens into the duodenum and carries, (a) Bile, (b) Pancreatic juice, (c) Both bile and pancreatic juice, (d) Saliva, 3. Which of the following is not a common disorder associated with digestive system?, (a) Tetanus, (b) Diarrhoea, (b) Jaundice, (d) Dysentery, 4. A gland not associated with the alimentary canal is, (a) Pancreas, (b) Adrenal, (c) Liver, (d) Salivary glands, 5. Match the two columns and select the correct among the options given:, (A), (B), (C), (D), (E), (a), (b), (c), (d), , Column I, Biomacromolecules of food, Human digestive system, Stomach, Thecodont, Serosa, , (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v), , Column II, Alimentary canal and associated gland, Embedded in jaw bones, Outer wall of visceral organs, Converted into simple substances, J-shaped bag like structure, , (A) – (ii), (B) – (i), (C) – (v), (D) – (iii), (E) – (iv), (A) – (iv), (B) – (i), (C) – (v), (D) – (ii), (E) – (iii), (A) – (i), (B) – (ii), (C) – (iii), (D) – (iv), (E) – (v), (A) – (i), (B) – (iii), (C) – (ii), (D) – (iv), (E) – (v)
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Digestion and Absorption16.21, , 6. Match the two columns and select the right one among the options given:, Column I, (A) Duodenum, (B) Epiglottis, (C) Glottis, (d) Caecum, , Column II, (i) A cartilaginous flap, (ii) Small blind sac, (iii) ‘U’ shaped structure emerging from the, stomach, (iv) Opening of wind pipe, , Options:, (a) (A) – (i), (B) – (ii), (C) – (iii), (D) – (iv), (b) (A) – (iv), (B) – (iii), (C) – (ii), (D) – (i), (c) (A) – (iii), (B) – (i), (C) – (iv), (D) – (ii), (d) (A) – (ii), (B) – (iv), (C) – (i), (D) – (iii), 7. Match the enzymes with their respective substrate and choose the right one among options, given:, (A), (B), (C), (D), , Column I, Lipase, Nuclease, Carboxypeptidase, Dipeptidases, , (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), , Column II, Dipeptides, Fats, Nucleic acids, Proteins, peptones and proteoses., , Options:, (a) (A) – (ii), (B) – (iii), (C) – (i), (D) – (iv), (b) (A) – (iii), (B) – (iv), (C) – (ii), (D) – (i), (c) (A) – (iii), (B) – (i), (C) – (iv), (D) – (ii), (d) (A) – (ii), (B) – (iii), (C) – (iv), (D) – (i), 8. Dental formula in human beings is, 3223, (a), 3223, 1232, (c), 1232, , 2123, 2123, 2233, (d), 2233, , (b), , 9. Liver is the largest gland and is associated with various functions. Choose one of the options, below which is not correct., (a) Metabolism of carbohydrate, (b) Digestion of fat, (c) Formation of bile, (d) Secretion of hormone called gastrin, 10. Mark the right statement among the following., (a) Trypsinogen is an inactive enzyme., (b) Trypsinogen is secreted by intestinal mucosa., (c) Enterokinase is secreted by pancreas., (d) Bile contains trypsin.
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16.22, , Digestion and Absorption, , Answer Keys, Practice Questions, 1. (b), 11. (a), 21. (b), 31. (a), 41. (a), 51. (c), 61. (d), 71. (c), 81. (c), 91. (b), 101. (d), 111. (d), 121. (d), 131. (d), 141. (d), , 2. (d), 12. (d), 22. (d), 32. (b), 42. (b), 52. (a), 62. (d), 72. (d), 82. (c), 92. (a), 102. (c), 112. (b), 122. (c), 132. (a), 132. (c), , 3. (c), 13. (a), 23. (d), 33. (d), 43. (d), 53. (a), 63. (c), 73. (b), 83. (d), 93. (c), 103. (a), 113. (d), 123. (d), 133. (d), 143. (d), , 4. (a), 14. (a), 24. (b), 34. (a), 44. (a), 54. (c), 64. (d), 74. (c), 84. (b), 94. (c), 104. (c), 114. (a), 124. (a), 134. (c), 144. (c), , 5. (d), 15. (c), 25. (b), 35. (d), 45. (a), 55. (d), 65. (c), 75. (c), 85. (c), 95. (a), 105. (c), 115. (d), 125. (b), 135. (d), 145. (d), , 6. (c), 16. (b), 26. (b), 36. (b), 46. (c), 56. (c), 66. (a), 76. (d), 86. (a), 96. (b), 106. (d), 116. (d), 126. (c), 136. (d), 146. (d), , 7. (a), 17. (a), 27. (a), 37. (d), 47. (c), 57. (d), 67. (b), 77. (b), 87. (c), 97. (c), 107. (d), 117. (d), 127. (b), 137. (c), 147. (b), , 8. (c), 18. (c), 28. (c), 38. (d), 48. (d), 58. (b), 68. (b), 78. (d), 88. (c), 98. (b), 108. (c), 118. (c), 128. (d), 138. (b), 148. (d), , 9. (d), 19. (c), 29. (c), 39. (d), 49. (d), 59. (d), 69. (b), 79. (c), 89. (c), 99. (d), 109. (d), 119. (a), 129. (d), 139. (b), , 10. (b), 20. (b), 30. (c), 40. (d), 50. (b), 60. (d), 70. (c), 80. (c), 90. (c), 100. (d), 110. (b), 120. (d), 130. (d), 140. (c), , Assertion and Reason Questions, 149. (b) 150. (c) 151. (d) 152. (d) 153. (b) 154. (c) 155. (a) 156. (d) 157. (a) 158. (a), 159. (a) 160. (c) 161. (a) 162. (a) 163. (a) 164. (c) 165. (a) 166. (d) 167. (d) 168. (a), 169. (b) 170. (a) 171. (a) 172. (a) 173. (c) 174. (a) 175. (a) 176. (a), Previous Year Questions, 1. (d), 11. (b), , 2. (c), 12. (a), , 3. (d), 13. (a), , 4. (a), 14. (c), , 5. (a), 15. (c), , 6. (c), 16. (a), , 7. (d), 17. (a), , 8. (a), 18. (b), , 9. (a), 19. (d), , 10. (c), 20. (b), , 8. (b), , 9. (d), , 10. (a), , NCERT Exemplar Questions, 1. (d), , 2. (c), , 3. (a), , 4. (b), , 5. (b), , 6. (c), , 7. (d)
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CHAPTER, , 17, , Breathing and, Exchange of Gases, prACtiCe Questions, , Respiratory Organs, 1. The process of exchange of O2 from the atmosphere with CO2 produced by the cell is called, (a) Cellular respiration, (b) Breathing, (c) Ventilation, (d) Perfusion, 2. The harmful gas produced by catabolic reaction in our body is, (a) Oxygen, (b) Carbon dioxide, (c) Phosphine, (d) Ozone, 3. Oxygen (O2) is utilized by the organisms to __________ break down nutrient molecules like, glucose and to derive energy for performing various activities., (a) Directly, (b) Indirectly, (c) Incompletely, (d) Any of these, 4. Mechanisms of breathing vary among different groups of animals depending mainly on their, ________ and _________., (a) Habitats, (b) Levels of organization, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) None of these, Exchange of Gases, 5. In which of the following, gaseous exchange between O2 and CO2 occurs through the entire, body surface?, (a) Sponges, (b) Flatworms, (c) Coelenterates, (d) All of these, 6. Select the total number of organism from the following which respire through their body surface., Sycon, Spongilla, Admsia, Taenia, Laccifer, Pila, Antedon, Gorgonia, Jelly fish, (a) 4, (b) 5, (c) 6, (d) 8, 7. In which of the following skin serves as an accessory organ of respiration?, (a) Rabbit, (b) Frog, (c) Lizards, (d) Birds, 8. Match the following:, Animals, A. Earthworms, B. Aquatic arthropods/Molluscs, C. Insects, D. Birds/ Reptiles/Mammals, E. Fishes, , –, –, –, –, , Respiratory Organs, 1. Lungs, 2. Tracheal tubes, 3. Gills, 4. Moist cuticle
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17.2, , Breathing and Exchange of Gases, , (a) A–2, B and C–3, D–2, E–1, (c) A–4, B and D–3, D–1, E–2, 9. Amphibians, e.g., frogs respire through, (a) Moist skin, (c) Buccopharyngeal cavity, 10. The adult frog does not respire through, (a) Buccopharyngeal cavity, (c) Skin, , (b) A–4, B and E–3, C–2, D–1, (d) A–3, B and D–1, C–2, E–4, (b) Lungs, (d) All of these, (b) Gills, (d) Lungs, , 11. Which is the correct sequence of the air passage in man?, (a) Nasal cavity → pharynx → trachea → larynx → bronchi → bronchioles → alveoli, (b) Nasal cavity → pharynx → larynx → trachea → bronchi → bronchioles → alveoli, (c) Nasal cavity → larynx → pharynx → trachea → bronchi → bronchioles → alveoli, (d) Nasal cavity → larynx → bronchi → pharynx → trachea → bronchioles → alveoli, 12. In mammals, voice is produced by, (a) Bronchus, (c) Larynx, , (b) Syrinx, (d) Inhalation and exhalation, , 13. Vocal cords occur in, (a) Pharynx, (c) Glottis, , (b) Larynx, (d) Bronchial tube, , 14. Trachea divides into right and left primary bronchi at _________ the thoracic vertebra., (a) 4, (b) 5, (c) 6, (d) 9, 15. Opening of larynx into pharynx is guarded by, (a) Syrinx, (b) Epiglottis, (c) Tracheal valves, , (d) All of these, , 16. Glottis is a passage for, (a) Food, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (b) air, (d) None of these, , 17. Glottis is an opening in the floor of, (a) Mouth, (b) Trachea, , (c) Pharynx, , 18. The Lungs are protected with the help of?, (a) Ribs, (c) Sternum, , (b) Vertebral column, (d) All of these, , 19. Which one has the smallest diameter?, (a) Right bronchus, (c) Secondary bronchiole, , (b) Left bronchus, (d) Respiratory bronchiole, , 20. Lining of trachea is made of, (a) Simple squamous epithelium, (c) Pseudostratified epithelium, , (b) Simple cuboidal epithelium, (d) Stratified cuboidal epithelium, , (d) Diaphragm, , 21. Each terminal bronchiole gives rise to a number of very thin, irregular walled and vascularized, bag like structures called, (a) Alveoli, (b) Respiratory bronchioles, (c) Pleura, (d) Follicles
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Breathing and Exchange of Gases17.3, , 22. Epiglottis is made up of, (a) Fibrous cartilage, (c) Elastic cartilage, , (b) Hyaline cartilage, (d) Calcified cartilage, , 23. Covering of the lungs is called, (a) Perichondrium, (c) Pericardium, , (b) Pleural membrane, (d) Peritoneum, , 24. Read the following statements:, A. It is double layered and covers the lungs., B. Outer layer is in contact with thoracic wall., C. Fluid is present between these layers., D. Inner layer is in contact with the lungs., The above features refer to, (a) Pericardium, (c) Perichondrium, , (b) Peritoneum, (d) Pleura, , 25. The part starting with the external nostrils up to the terminal bronchioles constitute the, (a) Respiratory part of respiratory system, (b) Exchange part of respiratory system, (c) Expiratory part, (d) Conducting part of respiratory system, 26. Respiratory or exchange part of the respiratory system consists of, (a) All bronchi, (b) All bronchioles, (c) All bronchi and terminal bronchioles, (d) Alveoli and their ducts, 27. Sites of gaseous exchange in lungs are, (a) Alveoli, (b) Bronchi, , (c) Bronchioles, , 28. Pleura is a double membrane sac which envelops, (a) Kidneys, (b) Brain, (c) Lungs, , (d) Pleura, (d) Nasal passage, , 29. Which of the following are functions of conducting part of the respiratory system?, (a) Removal of foreign particles from incoming air., (b) Humidifies incoming air, (c) Bring the temperature of incoming air to body temperature., (d) All the above, 30. ___________ is the site of actual diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and atmospheric air., (a) All bronchi, (b) All bronchioles, (c) All bronchi and terminal bronchioles, (d) Alveoli and their ducts, 31. Even when air being absent, the human trachea does not collapse due to the presence of, (a) Bony rings, (b) Turgid pressure, (c) Chitinous rings, (d) Cartilaginous rings, 32. The chambers formed dorsally by the vertebral column, ventrally by sternum, laterally by ribs, and on the lower side by dome-shaped diaphragm is
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17.4, , Breathing and Exchange of Gases, , (a) Abdominal chamber, (c) Pelvic chamber, , (b) Cranial chamber, (d) Thoracic chamber, , 33. Select the incorrect statement from the following:, (a) Pleural fluid reduces friction on the lung surface., (b) The anatomical setup of lungs in thorax is such that any change in the volume of the, thoracic cavity will be reflected in the lung (pulmonary) cavity. Such an arrangement is, essential for breathing, as we cannot directly alter the pulmonary volume., (c) The tracheae, primary, secondary and tertiary bronchi and initial bronchioles are supported, by complete cartilaginous rings., (d) During swallowing, the glottis can be covered by a thin elastic cartilaginous flap called, epiglottis to prevent the entry of food into the larynx., 34. During inspiration, (a) Diaphragm and external intercostals muscle relax., (b) Diaphragm and internal intercostals muscles relax., (c) Diaphragm and external intercostals muscles contract., (d) Diaphragm and internal intercostals muscles contract ., 35. During inspiration, the diaphragm, (a) Relaxes to become dome-shaped, (c) Expands, , (b) Contracts and flattens, (d) Shows no change, , 36. Expiration involves, (a) Relaxation of diaphragm and intercostals muscles, (b) Contraction of diaphragm and intercostals muscles, (c) Contraction of diaphragm muscles, (d) Contraction of intercostals muscles, 37. Which two of the following changes (a to d) usually tend to occur in plain dwellers when they, move to higher altitudes (3500 m or more), (i) Increase in red blood cell size, (ii) Increase in red blood cell production, (iii) Increase in breathing rate, (iv) Increase in thrombocyte count, (a) Both (iii) and (iv), (b) Both (i) and (iv), (c) Both (iii) and (i), (d) Both (ii) and (iii), 38. In alveolar air, the partial pressure of CO2 is, (a) 40 mm Hg, (c) 46 mm Hg, , (b) 44 mm Hg, (d) 42 mm Hg, , 39. Arrange the following steps of respiration properly:, 1. Breathing or pulmonary ventilation by which atmospheric air is drawn in and CO2 rich, alveolar air is released out., 2. Diffusion of gases (O2 and CO2) across alveolar membrane., 3. Transport of gases by the blood., 4. Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and tissues., 5. Utilization of O2, by the cells for catabolic reactions and resultant release of CO2., (a) 1,2,3,4,5, (b) 1,3,2,5,4, (c) 5,4,3,1,2, (d) 3,4,5,2,1
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Breathing and Exchange of Gases17.5, , 40. Expiratory muscles contract at the time of, (a) Deep inspiration, (c) Forceful expiration, , (b) Normal inspiration and expiration, (d) Muscular expansion of lungs, , 41. Which of the following statements is correct?, (a) Inspiration is an active process, (b) Inspiration is a passive process, (c) Expiration is an active process, (d) Both expiration and inspiration are passive processes, 42. Gaseous exchange between blood and alveolar air across respiratory membrane occurs by, (a) Osmosis, (b) Diffusion, (c) Active transport, (d) Phagocytosis, 43. On an average, a healthy human breathes how many times/minute, (a) 20 to 40, (b) 72 to 75, (c) 3 to 5, , (d) 12 to 16, , 44. We can increase the strength of inspiration and expiration by the help of additional muscle in, (a) Abdomen, (b) Neck, (c) Pelvis, (d) Head, 45. Match the following:, 1. Tidal volume, , –, , 2. Inspiratory reserve volume, , –, , 3. Expiratory reserve volume, , –, , 4. Residual volume, , –, , 5. Inspiratory reserve capacity, , –, , 6. Vital capacity, 7. Total lung capacity, , –, –, , (a), (b), (c), (d), , A. , Tidal volume and inspiratory reserve, volume and expiratory reserve volume., B. , Additional volume of air a person can, inspire by a forcible inspiration., C. Volume of air remaining in the lungs even, after a forcible expiration., D. , Tidal volume and inspiratory reserve, volume., E. Volume of air inspirited or expired during, a normal respiration., F. Vital capacity + residual volume, G. , Additional volume of air a person can, expire by a forcible expiration., , 1–E, 2–C, 3–B, 4–G, 5–D, 6–A, 7–F, 1–E, 2–G, 3–B, 4–C, 5–A, 6–D, 7–F, 1–E, 2–C, 3–G, 4–B, 5–D, 6–A, 7–F, 1–E, 2–B, 3–G, 4–C, 5–D, 6–A, 7–F, , 46. Match the following:, 1. Tidal Volume, 2. Inspiratory reserve volume, 3. Expiratory reserve volume, 4. Residual volume, 5. Vital capacity, (a) 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A, 5-E, (c) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-E, 5-B, 47. Total lung capacity is equal to, (a) ERV + TV, (c) VC + RV, , –, –, –, –, –, , A., B., C., D., E., , 2500-3000 ml of air, 1000-1100 ml of air, 500 ml of air, 3500-4600 ml of air, 1100-1200 ml of air, , (b) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-E, 5-D, (d) 1-E, 2-A, 3-B, 4-E, 5-D, (b) IRV+ TV, (d) ERV + TV + IRV
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17.6, , Breathing and Exchange of Gases, , 48. Vital capacity is equal to, (a) ERV + TV, (c) VC + RV, , (b) IRV+ TV, (d) ERV + TV + IRV, , 49. EC (expiratory capacity) is equal to, (a) ERV + TV, (c) VC + RV, , (b) IRV+ TV, (d) ERV + TV + IRV, , 50. IC (Inspiratory capacity) is equal to, (a) ERV + TV, (c) VC + RV, , (b) IRV+ TV, (d) ERV + TV + IRV, , 51. Arrange the following in the order of increasing volume, 1. Tidal volume, 2. Residual volume, 3. Expiratory reserve volume, 4. Inspiratory reserve volume, (a) 1 < 2 < 3 < 4, (b) 1 < 4 < 3 < 2, (c) 1 < 3 < 2 < 4, (d) 1 < 4 < 2 < 3, 52. The largest quantity of air that can be expired after a maximum inspiratory effort is, (a) Residual volume, (b) Tidal volume, (c) Vital capacity, (d) Total lung volume, 53. The vital capacity of adult human lungs is equal to, (a) The maximum volume of air a person can breathe out after a forced inspiration., (b) The maximum volume of air a person can breathe in after a forced expiration., (c) ERV + TV + IRV, (d) All of these, 54. Functional residual capacity can be represented as, (a) TV + ERV, (b) ERV + RV, (c) RV + IRV, (d) ERV + TV + IRV, 55. The volume of air involved in breathing movements can be estimated by using a ________, which helps in clinical assessment of pulmonary functions, (a) Osmometer, (b) Potometer, (c) Spirometer, (d) Sphygmomanometer, 56. A spirometer cannot be used to measure, (a) IC, (b) RV, , (c) ERV, , 57. Inspiratory air in lungs ultimately reaches, (a) Trachea, (c) Bronchi, , (b) Alveoli, (d) Bronchioles, , 58. Which is not true?, (a) pCO2 of deoxygenated blood is 95 mm Hg., (b) pCO2 of alveolar air is 40 mm Hg., (c) pO2 alveolar air is 104 mm Hg., (d) pO2 of oxygenated blood is 95 mm Hg., (e) pO2 of deoxygenated blood is 40 mm Hg., , (d) IRV
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Breathing and Exchange of Gases17.7, , 59. Which of the following factors affect the rate of diffusion of gases?, (a) Partial pressure/concentration gradient of diffusing gases, (b) Solubility of gases, (c) Thickness of diffusion membrane, (d) All the above, 60. Lung alveoli of mammals have a thin wall composed of, (a) Simple cuboidal epithelium, (b) Simple squamous epithelium, (c) Stratified cuboidal epithelium, (d) Stratified squamous epithelium, 61. The mode of respiration in rabbit is, (a) Cutaneous, (b) Mucosal, , (c) Tracheal, , (d) Pulmonary, , 62. The respiratory diffusion membrane is majorly made of _______ layers, (a) 2, (b) 3, (c) 4, (d) 5, 63. The solubility of CO2 is _______ times higher than that of O2., (a) 10-15, (b) 20-25, (c) 30-35 times, , (d) 210 times, , 64. What is the value of [PO2 (in deoxygenated blood) minus PcO2 (in deoxygenated blood)]?, (a) 5, (b) -5, (c) 45, (d) 40, 65. Select the incorrect statement from the following:, (a) Diffusion of O2 occurs from alveoli to tissue., (b) Diffusion of CO2 occurs from tissue to alveoli., (c) Amount of CO2 diffused through membrane is higher than that of O2., (d) Partial pressure of O2 is higher in pulmonary artery than that of pulmonary vein., 66. The total thickness of respiratory diffusion membrane is, (a) Less than fm, (b) Less than micrometer, (c) Much less than mm, (d) Less than nm, 67. Diffusion membrane is made up of, (a) Thin squamous epithelium of alveoli, (b) Endothelium of alveolar capillaries, (c) Basement membrane between the two layers, (d) All the above, 68. Partial pressures (in mmHg) of O2 in atmospheric air, alveoli, deoxygenated blood,, oxygenated blood and tissues are, (a) 159,104,40,95,40, (b) 104,40,40,95,159, (c) 0.3,40,45,40,45, (d) 159,104,45,95,40, 69. Partial pressure (in mmHg) of CO2 in atmospheric air, alveoli, deoxygenated blood,, oxygenated blood and tissues are, (a) 159,104,40,95,40, (b) 104,40,40,95,159, (c) 0.3,40,45,40,45, (d) 159,104,45,95,40, Transport of Gases, 70. The total percentage of O2 transported by haemoglobin or RBC is, (a) 3%, (b) 97%, (c) 70%, , (d) 7%
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17.8, , Breathing and Exchange of Gases, , 71. Besides RBC blood plasma also carries O2 in dissolved state. The percentage is, (a) 3%, (b) 97%, (c) 70%, (d) 7%, 72. CO2 is transported, (a) By RBC, (c) In dissolved state through plasma, , (b) As bicarbonates, (d) All of these, , 73. Blood entering the lung is rich in, (a) Oxygen, (b) Carbon dioxide, , (c) Urea, , 74. The majority of CO2 is transported as, (a) Carbonates, (c) Carbaminohaemoglobin, , (b) Bicarbonates, (d) Dissolved state in blood, , 75. Oxygen is transported in blood mainly by, (a) Blood plasma, (b) Leucocytes, , (c) Thrombocytes, , (d) More RBCs, , (d) Erythrocytes, , 76. Blood transport of CO2 occurs in three forms. The correct percentages of CO2 in these forms, are, As Carbaminohaemoglobin in RBC, As bicarbonates, Dissolved form in plasma, (a) 20-25 %, 70%, 7%, (b) 7%, 20-25%, 70%, (c) 20-25%, 7%, 70%, (d) 70%, 20-25%, 7%, 77. Each molecule of haemoglobin can carry at the maximum of _______ molecules of O2., (a) 1, (b) 2, (c) 3, (d) 4, 78. Under a given oxygen concentration in blood, dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin will increase if, (a) pH of blood falls, (b) pH of blood rises, (c) CO2 concentration in blood falls, (d) Free fatty acid concentration in blood falls, 79. The blood coming out of lungs is richer than that one entering into lungs in, (b) O2, (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these, (a) CO2, 80. When partial pressure of CO2 (pCO2) rises, the oxygen dissociation curve of haemoglobin at, 37°C will, (a) Shift towards right, (b) Shift towards left, (c) Become irregular, (d) Remains unchanged, 81. Dissociation curve is connected with, (a) Myoglobin, (c) O2, , (b) CO, (d) Oxyhaemoglobin, , 82. A large proportion of oxygen is left unused in the human blood even after uptake by the body, tissue. This oxygen, (a) Is enough to keep oxyhaemoglobin saturation at 96%, (b) Helps in releasing more oxygen to epithelial tissues., (c) Acts as reserve during muscular exercise., (d) Raise pCO2 of blood to 75 mm Hg.
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Breathing and Exchange of Gases17.9, , 83. Oxygen dissociation curve is, (a) Parabola, (b) Sigmoid, , (c) Hyperbola, , (d) Straight line, , 84. Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin can be affected by, (b) H+ conc, (c) Temperature, (a) pCO2, , (d) All of these, , 85. The amount of O2 normally carried by 100 ml of pure blood is, (a) 10 ml, (b) 20 ml, (c) 5 ml, , (d) 4 ml, , 86. How much oxygen is delivered to tissue by 100 ml of oxygenated blood under normal, physiological condition?, (a) 10 ml, (b) 20 ml, (c) 5 ml, (d) 4 ml, 87. How much carbon dioxide is delivered to alveoli by 100 ml of deoxygenated blood under, normal physiological condition?, (a) 10 ml, (b) 20 ml, (c) 5 ml, (d) 4 ml, 88. Oxygen binding to haemoglobin is, (a) Directly proportional to CO2 concentration, (b) Directly proportional to CO concentration, (c) Inversely proportional to CO2 concentration, (d) Independent of CO concentration, 89. The most characteristic feature of haemoglobin is, (a) Its red colour, (b) Presence of iron, (c) Its ability to combine reversibly with oxygen, (d) Presence of basic protein globin, 90. Factors at tissue level favours the dissociation of oxygen from oxyhaemoglobin, (a) Low pO2, low pCO2, high H+, low temperature, (b) High pO2, high pCO2, low H+, high temperature, (c) Low pO2, high pCO2, high H+, high temperature, (d) Low pO2, high pCO2, high H+, low temperature, 91. CO2 dissociates from Carbaminohaemoglobin when, (b) High PO2, high PCO2, (a) Low PO2, low PCO2, (d) High PO2, low PCO2, (c) Low PO2, high PCO2, 92. Dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin can be promoted by, (b) High pCO2, (a) Low pCO2, (c) Low body temperature, (d) High blood pH, 93. The enzyme essential for transport of CO2 as bicarbonate in blood is, (a) Carboxypeptidase, (b) Succinic dehydrogenase, (c) Carbonic anhydrase, (d) Thrombokinase, (e) Lactase, 94. What is correct about human respiration?, (a) About 90 per cent of CO2 is carried by haemoglobin as carbaminohaemoglobin., (b) Neural signals from pneumotaxic centre of pons can increase the duration of inspiration., (c) Workers in grinding and stone breaking industries may suffer from lung fibrosis., (d) Cigarette smoking leads to inflammation of bronchi.
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17.10, , Breathing and Exchange of Gases, , 95. Choose the right sequential phenomena during the passage of CO2 from blood to tissues:, (P) Absorption of CO2 by blood., (Q) Reaction of CO2 with water forming H2CO3 inside RBCs and then HCO3- and H+ ions., (R) Reaction of CO2 with water forming H2CO3 inside plasma followed by conversion into H+, and HCO3- ions., (S) Combination of H+ with haeme part of HbO2 to release O2., (T) Combination of HCO3 with haeme part of HbO2 to form reduced haemoglobin and release, of O2., (a) P, R, S, (b) P, Q, T, (c) P, Q, S, (d) P, R, T, 96. The transport of CO2 by the blood is primarily dependent on the, (a) Solubility of CO2 in blood., (b) Presence of carbonic anhydrase in RBCs., (c) Ability of haemoglobin to bind and transport CO2., (d) Ability of other blood proteins., 97. Pick the correct statement:, (a) Contraction of internal intercostals muscles lifts up the ribs and sternum., (b) RBCs transport oxygen only., (c) Thoracic cavity is anatomically an air tight chamber., (d) Healthy man can inspire approximately 500 mL of air per minute., (e) During expiration the interpleural pressure is slightly below the surrounding atmospheric, pressure., 98. Respiratory rhythm centre is present in which part of brain?, (a) Pons, (b) Medulla oblongata, (c) Cerebrum, (d) Cerebellum, 99. Pneumotaxic centre is present in, (a) Pons, (c) Cerebrum, , (b) Medulla oblongata, (d) Cerebellum, , 100. Human beings have a significant ability to maintain and moderate the respiratory rhythm to, suit the demands of the body tissues. This is done by, (a) Endocrine system, (b) Neural system, (c) Excretory system, (d) All of these, 101. A (1) _________ sensitive area is situated adjacent to the rhythm centre which is highly, sensitive to _________ (2) _and _ (3) _________ ions., (b) (1)–chemo, (2)–O2, (3)–hydroxide, (a) (1)–thermo, (2)–CO2, (3)–hydroxide, (d) (1)–chemo, (2)–CO2, (3)–hydrogen, (c) (1)–thigmo, (2)–O2, (3)–hydrogen, 102. All of the following factors play an important role in the regulation of respiratory rhythm, except, (b) H+ conc, (c) O2, (d) None of these, (a) CO2, 103. Select the incorrect statement from the following:, (a) Neural signal from pneumotaxic centre can reduce the duration of inspiration., (b) The role of oxygen in the regulation of respiratory rhythm is quite significant., (c) RBCs contain a very high concentration of the enzyme, carbonic anhydrase and minute, quantities of the same is present in the plasma too., (d) CO2 is carried by haemoglobin as carbamino-haemoglobin (about 20–25 per cent).
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Breathing and Exchange of Gases17.11, , 104. Receptors associated with aortic and carotid artery can recognize changes in ______ and, _____ concentration and send necessary signal to _____ for remedial action., (b) CO2, H+, rhythm centre, (a) O2, CO2, pneumotaxic, +, (c) CO2,H , apneustic centre, (d) O2, H+, pneumotaxic, 105. Carbonic anhydrase is found in high concentration in, (a) Leucocytes, (b) Blood plasma, (c) Erythrocytes, , (d) Lymphocytes, , 106. The controlling centre of normal breathing in mammals lies in, (a) Cerebrum, (b) Cerebellum, (c) Midbrain, (d) Medulla oblongata, 107. Number of RBCs per unit volume of blood is likely to be higher in a person living at high, altitudes, because, (a) Air is clean and unpolluted, (b) More sunshine is available, (c) Air is less dense, (d) Vegetation gives out more O2, Disorder of Respiratory System, 108. Wheezing sound is produced in, (a) Asthma, (b) Emphysema, , (c) Silicosis, , 109. Major cause of emphysema is, (a) Cigarette smoking, (c) Wine consumption, , (b) Allergy, (d) Viral infection, , 110. Match the column:, Column A, 1. Asthma, 2. Emphysema, , 3. Occupational Respiratory Disorders, , (a) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, (c) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 111. Emphysema is a, (a) Cardiovascular disease, (c) Renal disease, , –, –, , –, , (d) Pneumonia, , Column B, A. Inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles., B. Chronic disorder in which alveolar walls, are damaged due to which respiratory, surface is decreased., C. , Long exposure of chemicals can give, rise to inflammation leading to fibrosis, (proliferation of fibrous tissues)., (b) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C, (d) 1-C, 2-B, 3-A, (b) Pulmonary disease, (d) Pain in lungs, , 112. Which of the following is incorrect about occupational respiratory disorder?, (a) It occur in some industries, especially those involving grinding or stone-breaking., (b) Long exposure in such industries leading to fibrosis (proliferation of fibrous tissues)., (c) Workers in such industries can be protected from these disorders by wearing protective, masks., (d) It is an allergic disease always., 113. Respiratory control centre lies in, (a) Pons, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (b) Medulla oblongata, (d) Cerebellum
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17.12, , Breathing and Exchange of Gases, , 114. Two friends are eating together in a dining table. One of them suddenly starts coughing while, swallowing some food. This coughing would have been due to the improper movement of, (a) Tongue, (b) Epiglottis, (c) Diaphragm, (d) Neck, 115. Which one of the following is a possibility for most of us in regard to breathing, by making a, conscious effort?, (a) One can breathe out air totally without oxygen., (b) One can breathe out air through Eustachian tubes by closing both the nose and the mouth., (c) One can consciously breathe out by moving the diaphragm alone without moving the ribs, at all., (d) The lungs can be made fully empty by forcefully breathing out all air from them., 116. Cartilaginous rings in respiratory passage are present in, (a) Trachea only, (b) Trachea and initial bronchioles only, (c) Trachea, bronchi and initial bronchioles, (d) None of these, 117. Which of the following represents a larger volume of air than that is normally found in the, resting tidal volume or a human lung?, (a) Residual volume, (b) Inspiratory reserve volume, (c) Expiratory reserve volume, (d) All the above, 118. Mark the correct statement from the following:, (a) Tracheal rings are of hyaline cartilage., (b) Dorsal side of thoracic chamber is formed by sternum., (c) Expiration occurs when there is negative pressure in lungs., (d) All the above, 119. 6000-8000 ml of air is the, (a) Vital capacity of lungs, (b) Volume of normal expiration per minute, (c) Sum of IRV + ERV, (d) Inspiratory capacity of lungs, 120. The volume of air that remains in the lungs after normal expiration is, (a) Residual volume, (b) Vital capacity, (c) Expiratory capacity, (d) Functional residual capacity, 121. A large proportion of oxygen is left unused in the human blood even after its uptake by the, body tissues. This O2, (a) Helps in releasing more O2 to the epithelium tissues., (b) Acts as a reserve during muscular exercise., (c) Raises the pCO2 of blood to 75 mm of Hg., (d) Is enough to keep oxyhaemoglobin saturation at 96%., 122. Bulk of carbon dioxide (CO2) released from body tissues into blood is present as, (a) Bicarbonate in blood plasma and RBCs, (b) Free CO2 in blood plasma., (c) 70 per cent carbaminohaemoglobin and 30 per cent as bicarbonate., (d) Carbaminohaemoglobin in RBCs.
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Breathing and Exchange of Gases17.13, , 123. Name the blood vessel A to D., Inspired air, , Expired air, , Alveolar, air, O2, CO2, , C, , D, , B, , (a), (b), (c), (d), , A, , A–Pulmonary vein, B–Systemic vein, C–Pulmonary artery, D–Systemic artery, A–Systemic vein, B–Systemic artery, C–Pulmonary vein, D–Pulmonary artery, A–Systemic artery, B–Pulmonary artery, C–Systemic vein, D–Systemic artery, A–Pulmonary artery, B–Systemic vein, C–Systemic artery, D–Pulmonary vein, , 124. Study the accompanying figure., Air, C, , B, , Pulmonary, capillary, , A, , Identify A to C from the above figure., (a) A–Basement substance, B–RBC, C–Alveolar wall, (b) A–Alveolar wall, B–Basement substance, C–RBC, (c) A–RBC, B–Basement substance, C–Alveolar wall, (d) A–RBC, B–Alveolar wall, C–Basement substance, 125. How O2 and CO2 gets transported through blood?, (a) With the help of RBCs and blood plasma, (b) With the help of RBCs and WBCs, (c) With the help of WBCs and blood serum, (d) With the help of platelets and corpuscles, 126. During oxygen transport the oxyhaemoglobin at the tissue level liberates oxygen to the cells, because in tissue, (a) O2 concentration is high and CO2 is low., (b) O2 concentration is low and CO2 is also low., (c) O2 tension is high and CO2 tension is low., (d) O2 tension is low and CO2 tension is high.
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17.14, , Breathing and Exchange of Gases, , 127. The blood leaving the lungs has all its haemoglobin oxygenated and gives up oxygen to the, tissues because, (a) The tissue can absorb O2 from oxyhaemoglobin., (b) O2 concentration in tissues is lower and CO2 concentration is higher as compared to lungs., (c) O2 concentration in tissues is higher and CO2 concentration is lower as compared to lungs., (d) Oxyhaemoglobin undergoes reduction., 128. During one circuit of blood from lungs to the tissues and back through circulatory system, the, percentage of haemoglobin giving up its oxygen to tissues is, (a) 25%, (b) 50%, (c) 75%, (d) 100%, , Assertion and Reason Questions, Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given, below:, (a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the, assertion., (b) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the, assertion., (c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false., (d) If both the assertion and reason are false., 129. Assertion: Fishes use tracheal tubes for respiration., Reason: Fishes are amphibian., 130. Assertion: Humans can directly alter the pulmonary volume without change in the volume of, thoracic cavity., Reason: Our lungs are inelastic., 131. Assertion: We have the ability to increase the strength of inspiration and expiration., Reason: We have some vestigeal abdominal muscles., 132. Assertion: During inspiration, pressure of air falls in the thorax., Reason: There is a rise in volume of thorax during inspiration., 133. Assertion: During inspiration, the volume of thorax increases., Reason: This happens due to the relaxation of diaphragm and inspiratory muscles., 134. Assertion: Forceful expiration occurs through expiratory muscles., Reason: Expiratory muscles expires quickly., 135. Assertion: Vital capacity is higher in athletes than non-athletes., Reason: Vital capacity is about 3.5–4.5 litres in a normal adult person., 136. Assertion: 70 per cent of CO2 is carried as bicarbonate ion in plasma., Reason: If it is transported directly then pH of blood becomes acidic., 137. Assertion: In mammals, complex respiratory system has developed., Reason: Mammalian skin is impermeable to gases., 138. Assertion: Emphysema is a chronic disorder., Reason: One of the major cause of emphysema is cigarette smoking.
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Breathing and Exchange of Gases17.15, , 139. Assertion: Respiratory rhythm is maintained by the respiratory centre in medulla region of, brain., Reason: A chemosensitive area in the medulla can alter the respiratory mechanism., 140. Assertion: The maximum amount of CO2 is converted into bicarbonate ion in RBCs., Reason: RBCs contain a very high concentration of the enzyme, carbonic anhydrase., 141. Assertion: Blood of insects is colourless., Reason: The blood of insect does not play any role in transport of oxygen., 142. Assertion: In mollusca, the circulatory system is of closed type., Reason: The blood of mollusca contains haemoglobin., 143. Assertion: The amount of CO2 that can diffuse through the diffusion membrane per unit, difference in partial pressure is much higher when compared to that of O2., Reason: The solubility of CO2 is 20 to 25 times higher than that of O2., 144. Assertion: Trachea, primary, secondary and tertiary bronchi and terminal bronchioles are, non-collapsible., Reason: They all are supported by incomplete cartilaginous ring, 145. Assertion: Human breathing is negative pressure breathing., Reason: Air drawn in lungs because of pressure less than atmospheric pressure in lungs, during inspiration, 146. Assertion: Functional residual capacity is equal to ERV+RV, Reason: Expiratory capacity is equal to TV+IRV, 147. Assertion: Oxygen dissociation curve is sigmoid., Reason: Affinity of oxygen for Hb increases with addition of each molecule of oxygen one, after another., 148. Assertion: Pneumotaxic centre can alter the respiratory rate., Reason: Neural signal from pneumotaxic centre can reduce the duration of inspiration., 149. Assertion: Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver around 5 ml of O2 to the tissues., Reason: Every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers approx 4 ml of CO2 to the alveoli., 150. Assertion: Oxygen is transported mainly as oxyhaemoglobin in human., Reason: CO2 is transported mainly as carbamino - haemoglobin in human., 151. Assertion: CO2 produced by cells have to be released out of animal body., Reason: CO2 is harmful gas., 152. Assertion: Gills are highly vascularised, Reason: Gills are used for respiration, 153. Assertion: Fishes respire through lungs, Reason: Amphibians respire through gills, 154. Assertion: During swallowing food can’t enter in larynx., Reason: During swallowing open of larynx glottis is covered by epiglottis
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17.16, , Breathing and Exchange of Gases, , 155. Assertion: Larynx is called sound box., Reason: Larynx helps in production of sound., 156. Assertion: Alveoli and their duct form respiratory part of respiratory tract., Reason: This part is actual site of exchange of O2 and CO2 between blood and atmospheric air., 157. Assertion: External nostril to terminal bronchioles constitutes conducting as well as respiratory part of respiratory tract., Reason: It help in conduction of atmospheric air to the alveoli as well as diffusion of O2 and, CO2 between blood and atmospheric air., 158. Assertion: Inspiration during which alveolar air is released out., Reason: Expiration by which atmospheric air is drawn in., 159. Assertion: We can increase strength of inspiration and expiration., Reason: We can use additional muscle of thoracic and abdominal region, 160. Assertion: About 97% of O2 is transported by RBCs, Reason: RBCs has haemoglobin., , previous year questions, 1. Listed below are the four respiratory capacities (1 to 4) and four jumbled respiratory volumes, of a normal human adult, Respiratory capacities, Respiratory volumes, (i) Residual volume, 2500 mL, (ii) Vital capacity, 3500 mL, (iii) Inspiratory reserve volume, 1200 mL, (iv) Inspiratory capacity, 4500 mL, Which one of the following is the correct matching of two capacities and volumes?, , [AIPMT PRE 2010], (a) (ii) 2500 mL, (iii) 4500 mL, (b) (iii) 1200 mL (iv) 2500 mL, (c) (iv) 3500 mL (i) 1200 mL, (d) (i) 4500 mL (ii) 3500 mL, 2. What is true about RBCs in humans?, , [AIPMT PRE 2010], (a) They carry about 20 to 25 per cent of CO2., (b) They transport 99.5 per cent of O2., (c) They transport about 80 per cent oxygen only and the rest 20 per cent of it is transported, in dissolved state in blood plasma., (d) They do not carry O2 at all., 3. Two friends are eating together on a dining table. One of them suddenly starts coughing while, swallowing some food. This coughing would have been due to improper movement of, , [AIPMT PRE 2011], (a) Diaphragm, (b) Neck, (c) Tongue, (d) Epiglottis
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Breathing and Exchange of Gases17.17, , 4. The figure given below shows a small part of human lung where exchange of gas takes place., In which one of the options given below, the one part A, B C or D is correctly identified along, with its function., , [AIPMT PRE 2011], , D, C, , B, , (a), (b), (c), (d), , B: Red blood cell, C: Arterial capillary, A: Alveolar cavity, D: Capillary wall, , Transport of CO2 mainly, Passes oxygen to tissues, Main site of exchange of respiratory gases., Exchange of Q2 and CO2 takes place here, , 5. Which one of the following is a possibility for most of us with regard to breathing by making, a conscious effort?, , [AIPMT MAINS 2011], (a) One can breathe out air totally without oxygen., (b) One can breathe out air through Eustachian tube by closing both nose and mouth., (c) One can consciously breathe in and breathe out by moving the diaphragm alone, without, moving the ribs at all., (d) The lungs can be made fully empty by forcefully breathing out all air from them., 6. The bulk of carbon dioxide CO2 released from body tissues into the blood is present as, , [AIPMT MAINS 2011], (a) Bicarbonate in blood plasma and RBCs., (b) Free CO2 in blood plasma., (c) 70 per cent carbaminohaemogloin and 30 per cent as bicarbonate., (d) Carbaminohaemoglobin in RBCs., 7. A large proportion of oxygen is left unused in the human blood even after its uptake by the, body tissues. This O2, , [AIPMT PRE 2011], (a) Raises the pCO of blood to 75 mm of Hg., (b) Is enough to keep oxyhaemoglobin., (c) Helps in releasing more O2 to the epithelial tissues., (d) Acts as a reserve during muscular exercise., 2, , 8. Which one of the following is the correct statement for respiration in humans?, , [AIPMT PRE 2012], (a) Cigarette smoking may lead to inflammation of bronchi., (b) Neural signals form pneumotoxic centre in pons region of brain can increase the duration, of inspiration., (c) Workers in grinding and stone-breaking industries may suffer from lung fibrosis., (d) About 90 per cent of carbon dioxide CO2 is carried out by haemoglobin as carbamino, haemoglobin.
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17.18, , Breathing and Exchange of Gases, , 9. The figure shows a diagrammatic view of human respiratory system with labels A, B, C, and D. Select the option which gives the correct identification and main function and/or, characteristics., , A, , Bronchus, , Cut end of rib, , B, , heart, , C, Lung, D, , , [AIPMT 2013], (a) A – Trachea – long tube supported by complete cartilaginous rings for conducting inspired, air, (b) B – Pleural membrane – surround ribs on both sides to provide cushion against robbing, (c) C – Alveoli – thin walled vascular bag like structures for exchange of gases, (d) D – Lower end of lungs – diaphragm pulls it down during inspiration, 10. Figure shows the schematic plant of blood circulation in humans with labels A to D. Identify, the label a give its function/s., , D, , A, , B, C, , , (a), (b), (c), (d), , [AIPMT 2013], A – Pulmonary vein – takes impure blood from body parts, pO2 = 60 mm Hg., B – Pulmonary artery – takes blood from heart to lungs pO2 = 90 mm Hg., C – Vena Cava – takes blood from body parts to right auricle, pCO2 = 45 mm Hg., D – Dorsal aorta – takes blood from heart body parts, pO2= 95 mm Hg., , 11. Approximately seventy percent of carbon dioxide absorbed by the blood will be transported to, the lungs, , [AIPMT 2014]
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Breathing and Exchange of Gases17.19, , (a) As bicarbonate ions, (c) By binding to R.B.C., , (b) In the form of dissolved gas molecules, (d) As carbamino – haemoglobin, , 12. When you hold your breath, which of the following gas changes in blood would first lead to, the urge in breathe?, , [AIPMT 2015], (b) Rising CO2 concentration, (a) Falling O2 concentration, (d) Rising CO2 and falling O2 concentration, (c) Falling CO2 concentration, 13. Name the pulmonary disease in which alveolar surface area involved in gas exchange is drastically reduced due to damage in the alveolar walls, , [RE-AIPMT 2015], (a) Emphysema, (b) Pneumonia, (c) Asthma, (d) Pleurisy, 14. Name the chronic respiratory disorder caused mainly by cigarette smoking:[NEET - I, 2016], (a) Emphysema, (b) Asthma, (c) Respiratory acidosis, (d) Respiratory alkalosis, 15. Reduction in pH of blood will:, (a) Reduce the rate of heart beat, (b) Reduce the blood supply to the brain, (c) Decrease the affinity of hemoglobin with oxygen, (d) None of these, 16. The partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli of the lungs is, (a) More than that in the blood, (b) Less than that in the blood, (c) Les than that of carbon dioxide, (d) Equal to that in the blood, , [NEET - I, 2016], , [NEET - II, 2016], , 17. Lungs do not collapse between breaths and some air always remains in the lungs which can, never be expelled because, [NEET - II, 2016], (a) There is a negative intrapleural pressure pulling a the lung walls, (b) There is a positive intrapleural pressure, (c) Pressure in the lungs is higher than the atmospheric pressure, (d) There is a negative pressure in the lungs, , NCERT Exemplar Questions, 1. Respiration in insects is called direct because, (a) The tissues exchanges O2/CO2 directly with the air in the tubes., (b) The tissues exchange O2/CO2 directly with coelomic fluid., (c) The tissues exchange O2/CO2 directly with the air outside through body surface., (d) Tracheal tubes exchange O2/CO2 directly with the haemocoel which then exchanges with, tissues., 2. Regarding the functions of our respiratory system, mark the wrong entry., (a) Humidifies the air, (b) Warms up the air, (c) Diffusion of gases, (d) Cleans up the air
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17.20, , Breathing and Exchange of Gases, , 3. A person suffers punctures in his chest cavity in an accident, without any damage to the lungs., Its effect could be, (a) Reduced breathing rate, (b) Rapid increase in breathing rate, (c) No change in respiration, (d) Cessation of breathing, 4. It is known that exposure to carbon monoxide is harmful to animals because, (b) It reduces O2 transport, (a) It reduces CO2 transport, (d) It destroys haemoglobin, (c) It increases CO2 transport, 5. Mark the true statement among the following with reference to normal breathing, (a) Inspiration is a passive process whereas expiration is active, (b) Inspiration is an active process where as expiration is passive, (c) Inspiration and expiration are active processes, (d) Inspiration and expiration are passive processes., 6. A person breathes in some volume of air by forced inspiration after having a forced expiration., This quantity of air taken in is, (a) Total lung capacity, (b) Tidal volume, (c) Vital capacity, (d) Inspiratory capacity, 7. Mark the incorrect statement in context to O2 binding to Hb, (a) Higher pH, (b) Higher temperature, (d) Higher pO2., (c) Lower pCO2, 8. Mark the correct pair of muscles involved in the normal breathing in humans, (a) External and internal intercostal muscles, (b) Diaphragm and abdominal muscles, (c) Diaphragm and external intercostal muscles, (d) Diaphragm and internal intercostal muscles., 9. Incidence of Emphysema, a respiratory disorder is high in cigarette smokers. In such cases, (a) The bronchioles are found damaged., (b) The alveolar walls are found damaged., (c) The plasma membrane is found damaged., (d) The respiratory muscles are found damaged., 10. Respiratory process is regulated by certain specialized centres in the brain. Which of the, following listed centres can reduce the inspiratory duration upon stimulation?, (a) Medullary inspiratory centre, (b) Pneumotaxic centre, (c) Apneustic centre, (d) Chemosensitive centre, 11. CO2 dissociates from carbaminohemoglobin when, (b) pO2 is high and pCO2 is low, (a) pCO2 is high and pO2 is low, (d) None of these, (c) pCO2 and pO2 are equal, 12. In breathing movements, air volume can be estimated by, (a) Stethoscope, (b) Hygrometer, (c) Sphygmomanometer, (d) Spirometer., 13. From the following relationships, between respiratory volumes and capacities, mark the, correct option.
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Breathing and Exchange of Gases17.21, , (i) Inspiratory capacity (IC) = Tidal Volume + Residual Volume, (ii) , Vital Capacity (VC) = Tidal Volume (TV) + Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV) +, Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV), (iii) Residual Volume (RV) = Vital Capacity (VC) – Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV), (iv) Tidal Volume (TV) = Inspiratory Capacity (IC) – Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV), (a), (b), (c), (d), , (i) Incorrect, (ii) Incorrect, (iii) Incorrect (iv) Correct, (i) Incorrect, (ii) Correct, (iii) Incorrect, (iv) Correct, (i) Correct, (ii) Correct, (iii) Incorrect, (iv) Correct, (i) Correct, (ii) Incorrect, (iii) Correct, (iv) Incorrect, , 14. The oxygen–haemoglobin dissociation curve will, show a right shift in case of, (b) High pO2, (a) High pCO2, (c) Low pCO2, (d) Less H+ concentration, 15. Match the following and mark the correct options., (A), (B), (C), (D), , Animal, Earthworm, Aquatic Arthropods, Fishes, Birds/Reptiles, , (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), , Respiratory Organ, Moist cuticle, Gills, Lungs, Trachea, , Options:, (a) (A)–(ii), (B)–(i), (C)–(iv), (D)–(iii), (b) (A)–(ii), (B)–(iv), (C)–(i), (D)–(iii), (c) (A)–(i), (B)–(iii), (C)–(ii), (D)–(iv), (d) (A)–(i), (B)–(ii), (C)–(iv), (D)–(iii), , Answer Keys, Practice Questions, 1. (b), 2. (b), 3. (b), 4. (c), 5. (d), 6. (c), 7. (b), 8. (b), 9. (d) 10. (b), 11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (d) 19. (d) 20. (c), 21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (d) 25. (d) 26. (d) 27. (a) 28. (c) 29. (d) 30. (d), 31. (d) 32. (d) 33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (b) 36. (a) 37. (d) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (c), 41. (a) 42. (b) 43. (d) 44. (a) 45. (d) 46. (b) 47. (c) 48. (d) 49. (a) 50. (b), 51. (c) 52. (c) 53. (d) 54. (b) 55. (c) 56. (b) 57. (b) 58. (a) 59. (d) 60. (b), 61. (d) 62. (b) 63. (b) 64. (b) 65. (d) 66. (c) 67. (d) 68. (a) 69. (c) 70. (b), 71. (a) 72. (d) 73. (b) 74. (b) 75. (d) 76. (a) 77. (d) 78. (a) 79. (b) 80. (a), 81. (d) 82. (c) 83. (b) 84. (d) 85. (c) 86. (c) 87. (d) 88. (c) 89. (c) 90. (c), 91. (d) 92. (b) 93. (c) 94. (c) 95. (c) 96. (b) 97. (c) 98. (b) 99. (a) 100. (b), 101. (d) 102. (c) 103. (b) 104. (b) 105. (c) 106. (d) 107. (c) 108. (a) 109. (a) 110. (a), 111. (b) 112. (d) 113. (c) 114. (b) 115. (c) 116. (c) 117. (d) 118. (a) 119. (b) 120. (d), 121. (b) 122. (a) 123. (a) 124. (d) 125. (a) 126. (d) 127. (b) 128. (a)
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17.22, , Breathing and Exchange of Gases, , Assertion and Reason Questions, 129. (d), 139. (b), 149. (b), 159. (a), , 130. (d) 131. (b) 132. (a) 133. (c) 134. (c) 135. (c) 136. (a) 137. (b) 138. (b), 140. (a) 141. (c) 142. (d) 143. (a) 144. (a) 145. (a) 146. (c) 147. (a) 148. (a), 150. (c) 151. (a) 152. (a) 153. (d) 154. (a) 155. (a) 156. (a) 157. (d) 158. (d), 160. (a), Previous Year Questions, , 1. (c), 11. (a), , 2. (a), 12. (b), , 3. (d), 13. (a), , 4. (a), 14. (a), , 5. (c), 15. (c), , 6. (a), 16. (a), , 7. (d), 17. (a), , 8. (c), , 9. (c), , 10. (c), , 8. (d), , 9. (b), , 10. (b), , NCERT Exemplar Questions, 1. (d), 11. (b), , 2. (d), 12. (d), , 3. (d), 13. (b), , 4. (d), 14. (b), , 5. (b), 15. (b), , 6. (a), , 7. (d)
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Body Fluids and, Circulation, , CHAPTER, , 18, , prACtiCe Questions, Blood, 1. Select the incorrect statement from the following:, (a) Simple organisms like sponges and coelenterates circulate water from their surroundings, through their body cavities to facilitate the cells to exchange substances., (b) Different groups of animals have evolved the same method for transport., (c) Blood is the most commonly used body fluid by most of the higher organisms for transport., (d) Lymph also helps in the transport of certain substances in human., 2. Blood is a special connective tissue that consists of, (a) Fluid matrix, (b) Plasma, (c) Formed elements, , (d) All of these, , 3. The colour of Plasma is, (a) Straw colour, (b) Red colour, , (c) Colourless, , (d) Blue colour, , 4. How much percentage of plasma is water?, (a) 90 to 92, (b) 80 to 90, , (c) 60 to 65, , (d) 10 to 15, , 5. How much protein is present in plasma (in %)?, (a) 2 to 4%, (b) 6 to 8%, (c) 10%, , (d) 15 to 20%, , 6. Which protein is required for coagulation?, (a) Fibrinogen, (b) Globulin, , (d) All of these, , (c) Albumin, , 7. The formed element constitutes how much per cent of blood?, (a) 55, (b) 45, (c) 35, , (d) 65, , 8. Find out the incorrect statement:, (a) Globulins are primarly involved in the defence mechanism of body., (b) Albumin is mainly the osmotic protein of blood., (c) Plasma without clotting factor is called serum., (d) The factors for coagulation of blood are also present in the plasma in an active form., 9. The most abundant cell in human blood are, (a) Neutrophils, (b) Monocytes, , (c) Lymphocytes, , 10. Number of erythrocyte in mm of blood are, (a) 4.5 to 5 million, (c) 5.5 to 6.5 million, , (b) 5 to 5.5 million, (d) 3 million, , 11. Shape of RBC in mammal is, (a) Oval, (b) Biconvex, , (c) Biconcave, , (d) None of these, , 3, , (d) Flattened
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18.2, , Body Fluids and Circulation, , 12. The true statement about RBC is, (a) RBCs have an average life span of 120 days., (b) RBCs are destroyed in the spleen (graveyard of RBCs)., (c) RBCs are devoid of nucleus in most of the mammals., (d) All the above, 13. Leucocytes are known as WBC as they are colourless due to, (a) Presence of nucleus, (b) White pigment present in them, (c) Lack of haemoglobin, (d) All of these, 14. Basophil secrete, (a) Histamine, , (b) Serotonin, , (c) Heparin, , 15. Which of the following is associated with allergic reactions?, (a) Neutrophils, (b) Monocytes, (c) Eosinophils, , (d) All of these, (d) Lymphocyte, , 16. Which of the following is an incorrect statement about leucocytes?, (a) They are nucleated., (b) They are approximately in an average of 6000–8000 mm-3 of blood cells in numbers., (c) Two main types are found they are granulocytes and agranulocytes., (d) Monocytes are most abundant WBCs., 17. Lymphocyte forms how much per cent of WBCs?, (a) 20 to 25, (b) 2 to 3, (c) 6 to 8, , (d) 60 to 65, , 18. Which of the following cells are responsible for immune responses of the body?, (a) T–lymphocyte, (b) B–lymphocyte, (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Astrocyte, 19. Platelets are, (a) Cell fragments of megakaryocyte, (c) Also called thrombocytes, , (b) 1.5 to 3.5 lac/mm3 in blood, (d) All of these, , 20. ABO grouping is based on how many antigens present or absent on WBCs, (a) 1, (b) 2, (c) 3, (d) None of these, 21. Select the correct statement from the following:, (a) Surface antigen on RBC always induce autoimmune response., (b) Blood grouping (ABO) is an example of multiple allelism., (c) AB blood group is a universal recipient as well as donor., (d) 4 phenotype of blood group (ABO) are possible and 5 genotype of blood group (ABO) are, possible., 22. A patient with blood group ‘A’ was injured in an accident and has lost a lot of blood during, injury. Which blood group the doctor should effectively use in this case?, (a) AB, (b) A/O, (c) B/O, (d) AB/A/B, 23. How many people are Rh +ve in human population?, (a) 80%, (b) 20%, (c) 60%, , (d) 40%, , 24. Rh incompatibility in first pregnancy occurs when, (a) Foetus develop its heart completely, (b) During the delivery of first child, (c) When foetal organs completely develop, (d) Never occur in the first pregnancy
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Body Fluids and Circulation18.3, , 25. Erythroblastosis fetalis is, (a) HDN, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (b) Rh incompatibility, (d) None of these, , 26. There is a vertical transmission of Rh antibody from mother to foetus because they are, _________ type of antibody, (a) Ig M, (b) IgG, (c) Ig A, (d) Ig D, 27. Select the incorrect statement from the following:, (a) Clot or coagulum is formed mainly by a network of fibrin in which the died and damaged, formed element of blood are trapped., (b) Inactive fibrinogen is converted to fibrin by the hormone thrombin., (c) Prothrombin is converted into thrombin by the enzyme complex thrombokinase., (d) Platelet or injured tissue released certain factors which initiate coagulation., 28. Select the incorrect statement from the following:, (a) When platelet releases certain factor which initiate clotting it is known as intrinsic, pathway., (b) When injured tissue releases certain factor which initiate clotting it is known as extrinsic, pathway., (c) Calcium plays a minor role in clotting., (d) Coagulation prevent excessive loss of blood from the body from injured part., 29. Which enzyme causes conversion of prothrombin into thrombin?, (a) Thrombinase, (b) Prothrombinase, (c) Thrombokinase, (d) Rennin, 30. Blood is a special type of connective tissue which, (a) Consists of a fluid matric (Plasma), (b) Forms elements, (c) Is the most commonly used body fluid in most of the higher organism, (d) All the above, 31. How many mechanism are there for clotting in our body?, (a) 1, (b) 2, (c) 3, , (d) 4, , 32. Lymph is known as, (a) Tissue fluid, , (d) Plasma, , (b) Interstitial fluid, , (c) Both (a) and (b), , 33. Lymph, (a) Transports oxygen to brain, (b) Transports CO2 to lungs, (c) Returns interstitial fluid to blood, (d) Returns RBCs and WBCs to lymph nodes, 34. Fill up the gaps given below in the table:, Blood group, A, B, AB, O, , Antigens on RBCs, A, B, AB, __I__, , Antibody in Plasma, Anti-B, __II__, nil, __III__, , Donor groups, A, O, B, O, A,B,ABO,O, __IV__
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18.4, , Body Fluids and Circulation, , (1), (2), (3), (4), , I, Nil, Nil, Nil, Nil, , II, Nil, Nil, Anti-A, B, Anti-A, , III, Nil, Anti-A, B, Nil, Anti-A, B, , IV, O, AB, O, O, , 35. Find the correct descending order to the percentage proportion of leucocytes in human blood., (a) Neutrophils → Basophils → Lymphocytes → Acidophils (Eosinophils) → Monocytes, (b) Neutrophils → Monocytes → Lymphocytes → Acidophils → Basophils, (c) Neutrophils → Lymphocytes → Monocytes → Acidophils → Basophils, (d) Neutrophils → Acidophils → Basophils → Lymphocytes → Monocytes, 36. In case of emergency, which blood group could be safely transfused?, (a) AB R–, (b) AB Rh+, (c) O Rh–, , (d) O Rh+, , 37. Which of the following is expected if husband is Rh+ and wife is Rh-?, (a) No problem in the first pregnancy, (b) Problems in future pregnancies, (c) Both (a) and (b) , (d) No problem in any pregnancy, 38. What is the correct order of these events?, 1. Conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin, 3. Thromoboplastin formation, (a) 3, 2, 1, 4, (b) 3, 4, 1, 2, , 2. Clot retraction and leakage of serum, 4. Conversion of prothrombin to thrombin, (c) 3, 4, 2, 1, (d) 4, 1, 3, 2, , Circulatory Pathways, 39. Open circulatory system is found in, (a) Arthopods and molluscs, (c) Annelids and arthopods, , (b) Annelids and Chordates, (d) Fishes and molluscs, , 40. Closed circulatory system is found in, (a) Arthropod and chordates, (c) Amphibians and molluscs, , (b) Molluscs and chordates, (d) Annelids and chordates, , 41. In an open circulatory system,, (a) There is no heart, (b) There is no need of blood vessels, (c) There are open spaces or sinuses in the body, (d) All the above, 42. Which of the following has a closed type of circulatory system?, (a) Cockroach, (b) Fish, (c) Scorpion, , (d) Mollusc, , 43. Which of the following has a closed blood vascular system?, (a) Cockroach, (b) Hydra, (c) Sponge, , (d) Earthworm, , 44. Single heart circuit occurs in, (a) Fishes, (b) Frogs, , (c) Reptiles, , (d) Man, , 45. Four chambered heart is found in, (a) Cobra, (b) Tortoise, , (c) Salamander, , (d) Crocodile
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Body Fluids and Circulation18.5, , 46. Select the correct matching:, Column I, (A) Fishes, (B) Amphibian, (C) Reptiles, (D) Birds, (E) Mammals, (F) Crocodile, (a) (A), (B)–(iii), (c) (D), (E), (F)–(iv), , Column II, (i) 3 chambered, (ii) 4 chambered, (iii) 1 chambered, (iv) 2 chambered, , (b) (B), (C)–(i), (d) (A), (B), (C)–(ii), , 47. Incomplete double circulation is found in, (a) Amphibia, (c) Fishes, , (b) Reptiles, (d) Both (a) and (b), , 48., Deoxygenated, Heart, , Gills, , Oxygenated, , Body, Deoxygenated, , The given diagram represent circulation in, (a) Fishes, (b) Amphibians, , (c) Birds, , 49., Gills, Lungs, skin, Body parts, , RA, , LA, , Ventricle, Body, , The given diagram shows circulation found in, (a) Amphibian, (b) Reptiles, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) Birds, , (d) Reptiles
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18.6, , Body Fluids and Circulation, , 50. Double circulation is found in, (a) Birds, (c) Mammals, , (b) Crocodile, (d) All of these, , 51. Heart is derived from, (a) Ectoderm, (c) Mesoderm, , (b) Endoderm, (d) All of these, , 52. In fishes, the blood circulation is represented as, Body parts, , Impure blood, , Heart, , Pure blood, , Gill, , The given flow of blood indicates that it is a, (a) Double circulation, (b) Single circulation, (c) Incomplete single circulation, (d) Incomplete double circulation, 53. Which of the following statements is not true?, (a) Heart is ectodermal in origin., (b) In human beings the heart is situated in the thoracic cavity, in between the two lungs, slightly tilted to the left., (c) Human heart has the size of a clenched fist., (d) Heart is protected by a double walled membranous bag (pericardium) with pericardial, fluid., 54. Select the total number of thick structure out of the following:, (A) Interatrial septum (muscular wall), (B) Interventricular septum, (C) Atrioventricular septum (fibrous), (D) Walls of ventricles, (a) 1, (b) 2, (c) 3, (d) 4, 55. How many papillary muscles are present in right ventricle?, (a) 1, (b) 2, (c) 3, 56. Apex of heart is, (a) Upper and tilted toward left, (b) Lower and tilted towards left, (c) Upper and tilted towards right, (d) Lower and tilted towards right, 57. Which of the following organs has papillary muscles?, (a) Ciliary body, (b) Legs, (c) Wall of heart, (d) Mammary glands, , (d) 4
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Body Fluids and Circulation18.7, , 58. The full form of label ‘A’ in the diagram is, , Aorta, Vena cava, A, Right atrium, Atrio-ventricular, node, , Pulmonary, Left atrium, , Bundle of HIS, , Chordae tendinae, Right ventricle, , Left ventricle, Interventricular, septum, Apex, , (a) Sin–Atrial–Node, (c) Sino–Atrial–Node, , (b) Sinu–Atrial–Node, (d) Sinus–Atrial–Node, , 59. Bundle of HIS consists of, (A) Right bundle branch, (C) Purkinje fibres, (a) A, B and C only, (c) B, C and D only, , (B) Left bundle branch, (D) AV bundle, (b) A, B, C, D, (d) C and D only, , 60. Bicuspid valve/mitral valve is found between, (a) Left atrium and left ventricle, (c) Right atrium and left ventricle, , (b) Right atrium and right ventricle, (d) Left atrium and right ventricle, , 61. Tricuspid valve is present between the, (a) Two atria, (c) Left atrium and left ventricle, , (b) Two ventricles, (d) Right atrium and right ventricle, , 62. Chordae tendinae are found in, (a) Joints, (c) Ventricles of heart, , (b) Atria of heart, (d) Ventricles of brain, , 63. Ventricles are thick-walled as compared to atrium because, (a) It is to receive blood from atria, (b) It is present on the posterior side, (c) It has to pump blood, (d) None of these, 64. Papillary muscles are located in, (a) Heart ventricles of human, (c) Orbits of vertebrate eyes, , (b) Dermis of mammalian skin, (d) Pylorus of vertebrate stomach
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18.8, , Body Fluids and Circulation, , 65. Purkinje fibres are found in, (a) Brain, (b) Kidneys, , (c) Skin, , 66. Which of the following has the thickest wall?, (a) Left auricle, (c) Right auricle, , (b) Left ventricle, (d) Right ventricle, , 67. ‘Heart of heart’ is, (a) SA node, (c) Bundle of HIS, , (b) AV node, (d) Purkinje fibres, , 68. SA node is located in, (a) Upper left corner of right atrium, (c) Lower right corner of left atrium, , (b) Lower left corner of left atrium, (d) Upper right corner of right atrium, , 69. Human heart is, (a) Neurogenic, (c) Cardiogenic, , (b) Myogenic, (d) Digenic, , (d) Heart, , 70. Which of the following term does not apply to human heart?, (a) Pacemaker, (b) Four chambered, (c) Mitral valve, (d) Neurogenic, 71. Rate of heartbeat is determined by, (a) SA node, (c) Purkinje fibres, , (b) AV node, (d) Papillary muscles, , 72. In amphibia, the heart has, (a) Two auricles and two ventricles, (b) Two auricles and one ventricle, (c) One auricle and two ventricles, (d) One auricle, one ventricle and one sinus venosus, 73. SA node is called the pace maker of the heart. Why?, (a) It can change contractile activity generated by AV node., (b) It delays the transmission of impulse between the atria and ventricles., (c) It gets stimulated when it receives neural signal., (d) It initiates and maintains the rhythmic contractile activity of heart., 74. Sino-Atrial node (SAN) can generate impulses, (b) 50–55 min–1, (c) 35–40min–1, (a) 70–75 min–1, , (d) 90–100 min–1, , 75. The impulse of heartbeat originates from, (a) SAN, (b) AVN, , (c) Vagus nerve, , (d) Cardiac nerve, , 76. Rate of heart is determined by, (a) SAN, (c) Purkinje fibres, , (b) AVN, (d) Bundle of His, , 77. Bundle of HIS is a group of, (a) Ganglia, (c) Muscular fibres, , (b) Nerve fibres, (d) Connective tissue
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Body Fluids and Circulation18.9, , 78. Bundle of HIS found in, (a) Right atrium, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (b) Left atrium, (d) Interventricular septum, , 79. An atrioventricular valve prevents the back flow or leakage of blood from the, (a) Right ventricle into the right atrium, (b) Left atrium into the left ventricle, (c) Aorta into the left ventricle, (d) Pulmonary vein into the right atrium, 80. How many double circulation are normally completed by the human heart in one minute?, (a) 8, (b) 16, (c) 36, (d) 72, 81. The duration of cardiac cycle in a normal man is, (a) 0.8 seconds, (b) 80 seconds, (c) 60 seconds, , (d) 72 seconds, , 82. During systole of heart, (a) Only atria contracts, (b) Only ventricles contract, (c) Atria and ventricles contract separately, (d) Atria and ventricles contract simultaneously, 83. During diastole, blood, (a) Enters the heart, (c) Leaves the ventricle, , (b) Leaves the heart, (d) Enters into lungs, , 84. During ventricular systole the oxygenated blood is pumped into the, (a) Aorta and deoxygenated blood is pumped into the pulmonary artery., (b) Pulmonary artery and deoxygenated blood is pumped into the artery., (c) Aorta and deoxygenated blood is pumped into pulmonary vein., (d) Pulmonary vein and deoxygenated blood is pumped into pulmonary artery., 85. To reach the left side of heart, the blood must pass through, (a) Lungs, (b) Liver, (c) Kidneys, , (d) Sinus venosus, , 86. Mammals are said to have double circulation. It means, (a) Blood vessels are paired., (b) There are two types of blood vessels attached to every organ., (c) There are two systems, one from the heart to the lungs and back to the rest of the body., (d) Blood circulates twice through the heart., 87. In mammals, veins differs from arteries in having, (a) Thicker walls, (b) Deeply present, (c) Carry blood away from heart, (d) Internal valves, 88. An artery is, (a) Thick walled in which blood flows under low pressure., (b) Thin walled in which blood flows under high pressure., (c) Thick walled in which blood flows under high pressure., (d) Thin walled in which blood flows under low pressure., 89. Cells constituting the wall of capillaries are, (a) Parietal, (b) Endothelial, , (c) Oxyntic, , (d) Haemocytes
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18.10, , 90. A muscular wall is absent in, (a) Venule, (c) Capillary, , Body Fluids and Circulation, , (b) Vein, (d) Arteriole, , 91. Contraction of right ventricle pumps blood into, (a) Dorsal aorta, (b) Pulmonary vein, (c) Coronary artery, (d) Pulmonary artery, 92. Arteries carry oxygenated blood except in, (a) Pulmonary, (b) Cardiac, , (c) Hepatic, , (d) Systemic, , 93. When ventricular systole occurs, (a) Atrial diastole coincides, (b) Tricuspid and bicuspid valves close, (c) Semilunar valves guarding pulmonary artery and aorta are forced to open, (d) All the above, 94. During cardiac cycle, about _________ % of ventricular filling occurs prior to atrial, contraction. _________ % ventricular filling occurs due to atrial contraction, (a) 50, 50, (b) 70, 30, (c) 30, 70, (d) 10, 90, 95. Which of the following events do not occur during joint diastole?, A. All four chambers of heart are in relaxed state., B. Tricuspid and bicuspid valves open., C. Action potential is conducted from SAN to AVN., D. Blood from the pulmonary veins and vena cava flows into the left and right ventricles, respectively through the left and right atria., E. The semilunar valves are closed., (a) Only E, (b) Only C, (c) Only D, (d) Only A and B, 96. The amount of blood to be pumped out by each ventricle/minute is, (a) Stroke volume, (b) Cardiac output, (c) ERV, (d) ZRV, 97. During cardiac cycle each ventricle pumps out about 70 mL of blood which is called, (a) Stroke volume, (b) Cardiac output, (c) Tidal volume, (d) Residual volume, 98. Cardiac output is, (a) Stroke volume (SV) × Heart rate (HR) = 5 L/m, (b) SV × HR = 500 ml, (c) SV × HR = 72 ml/m, (d) SV × HR = 70 ml/m, 99. Which of the following statement is incorrect?, (a) Cardiac output of an athlete is much higher than that of an ordinary man., (b) In each minute a single cardiac cycle is performed., (c) During each cardic cycle two prominent sounds are produced., (d) Cardiac cycle includes atrial systole, ventricular systole and joint diastole.
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Body Fluids and Circulation18.11, , 100. Identify the correct sequence of events in a cardiac cycle:, (a) Diastole, atrial systole, ventricular diastole, (B) Atrial systole, ventricular diastole, ventricular systole, (c) Atrial systole, ventricular systole, joint diastole, (d) Ventricular diastole, diastole, ventricular systole, atrial systole, 101. First cardiac sound (lub) is associated with, (a) Closure of tricuspid and bicuspid valves, (c) Closure of semilunar valves, , (b) Opening of tricuspid valves, (d) Opening of semilunar valves, , 102. Which of the following statement is wrong for second cardiac sound?, (a) It is heard as dup, (b) It is produced due to the closure of semilunar valves, (c) It is clinically significant, (d) It is clinically nonsignificant, 103. Which of the following is correct about human heart?, (a) The volume of both atria > the volume of both ventricles, (b) The volume of both ventricle > the volume of both atria, (c) The volume of both atria = the volume of both ventricles, (d) Ventricles are upper chambers and atria are lower chambers in our heart., 104. Which of the following blood vessels possess semilunar valves?, (a) Vena cava and aorta, (b) Aorta and pulmonary artery, (c) Pulmonary artery and pulmonary vein, (d) Pulmonary vein and vena cava, 105. The heartbeat of a person increases at the time of an interview due to the secretion of, (a) Renin, (b) Adrenaline, (c) ADH, (d) ACTH, 106. Which of the following set is correct?, (a) Sebum, – Analgesic, (b) Vitamin, – Nicotine, (c) Corpus callosum – Graafian follicle, (d) Bundle of His, – Purkinje fibres, 107. Cardiac centre lies in, (a) Medulla oblongata, (c) Cerebrum, , (b) Pons, (d) Epithalamus, , 108. Cardiac centre can moderate the cardiac functions through, (a) Somatic neural system, (b) Parasympathetic nervous system only, (c) Autonomic nervous system (ANS), (d) Sympathetic nervous system only, 109. Neural signal through the sympathetic nervous (part of ANS) increases the cardiac output, because of, (a) Increasing the rate of heatbeat, (b) Increasing the strength of ventricular contraction, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) Increasing the stimulation of vagus nerve
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18.12, , Body Fluids and Circulation, , 110. Parasympathetic neural signal decreases the cardiac output by, (a) Decreasing the rate of heartbeat, (b) Decreasing the speed conduction of action potential, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) Increasing adrenal medulla hormones secretion, 111. Heartbeat increases, (a) on stimulation of sympathetic nerves, (b) On stimulation of vagus nerve (parasympathetic nerve), (c) By adrenalin secreted by adrenal medulla, (d) Both (a) and (c), 112. Select the total number of incorrect matching from the following:, (A) ECG–Electro Cardio Gram, (B) AVN–Atrio Ventricular Node, (C) SAN–Sino Atrial Node, (D) WBC–White Blue Cells, (E) RBC–Red Blood Cells, (a) 1, (b) 2, (c) 3, (d) 4, 113. Heartbeat is accelerated by, (a) Sympathetic nerves and acetylcholine, (b) Cranial nerves and adrenaline, (c) Cranial nerves and acetylcholine, (d) Sympathetic nerves and epinephrine, 114. Body has the capacity to alter, (a) Stroke volume, (c) Cardiac output, , (b) Heart rate, (d) All of these, , 115. To obtain standard ECG a patient is connected to the machine with three electrical leads, attached to the following parts except, (a) Right wrist, (b) Left wrist, (c) Right ankle, (d) Left ankle, 116. Find out the incorrect statement from the following:, (a) ECG is a graphical representation of the electrical activity of the heart during cardiac, cycle., (b) For a detailed evaluation of the heart’s function, multiple leads are attached to the chest, region (chest leads)., (c) P, R, T are +ve wave whereas Q and S are –ve wave in standard ECG., (d) Starting of T-wave marks the end of systole of ventricles., 117. Select the correct statement from the following:, (a) ECG is of great clinical insignificance., (b) By counting the number of QRS complexes (in given time period), we can the find pulse, rate ., (c) The contraction of atria starts with starting of Q wave., (d) T-wave represent repolarization of atria., 118. Electrocardiogram is a measure of, (a) Heart rate, (c) Volume of blood pumped, , (b) Ventricular contraction, (d) Electrical activity of heart
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Body Fluids and Circulation18.13, , 119. P-wave represents, (a) Depolarization of ventricles, (c) Repolarization of atria, , (b) Repolarization of ventricle, (d) Depolarization of atria, , 120. QRS complex represents the, (a) Depolarization of ventricles, (c) Repolarization of atria, , (b) Repolarization of ventricles, (d) Depolarization of atria, , 121. T-wave on an ECG represents, (a) Depolarization of ventricles, (c) Repolarization of atria, , (b) Repolarization of ventricles, (d) Depolrization of atria, , Disorder of Circulatory System, 122. In an adult, normal blood pressure is, (a) 80/120 mmHg, (c) 120/80 mmHg, , (b) 100/80 mmHg, (d) 100/120 mmHg, , 123. Normal BP = 120/80 mmHg in an adult. In this measurement 120 mmHg is the _________, pressure and 80 mmHg is _________ pressure., (a) Diastolic, systolic, (b) Systolic, diastolic, (c) Pulse, diastolic, (d) Pulse, systolic, 124. The difference of blood pressure between systolic and diastolic phase is, (a) 10 mmHg, (b) 40 mmHg, (c) 120 mmHg, (d) 180 mmHg, 125. Which one indicates hypertension?, (a) 120/80 mmHg, (b) 80/120 mmHg, , (c) 140/90 mmHg, , 126. Pulmonary circulation includes, (a) Pulmonary artery, (c) Lungs, , (b) Pulmonary vein, (d) All of these, , (d) 40/60 mmHg, , 127. The instrument by which BP of human beings are determined is called, (a) Ultrasound, (b) BP meter, (c) Stethoscope, (d) Sphygmomanometer, 128. The instrument used to hear heartbeats is called, (a) Electrocardiograph, (b) Sphygmomanometer, (c) Stethoscope, (d) Haemometer, 129. A system which supplies blood to heart is, (a) Portal system, (c) Coronary system, , (b) Pulmonary system, (d) All of these, , 130. Hepatic portal system starts from, (a) Digestive system to liver, (c) Liver to heart, , (b) Kidney to liver, (d) Liver to kidney, , 131. A unique vascular connection that exist between the digestive tract and liver is called, (a) Renal portal system, (b) Hypothalamic-Hypophyseal portal system, (c) Hepatic portal system, (d) All the above
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18.14, , Body Fluids and Circulation, , 132. Pulmonary circulation is required for, (a) Nutrient supply to lungs, (b) Elimination of waste products from the lungs, (c) Oxygenation of deoxygenated blood, (d) Nutrient supply to heart, 133. Which of the following is true about hypertension?, (a) It leads to cardiac diseases., (b) It affects vital organs like brain and kidney., (c) It repeats the check of blood pressure of an individual as 140/90 or higher, it shows, hypertensions., (d) All the above, 134. Find the incorrect matching:, (a) CAD–Atherosclerosis, (c) Stroke volume–Beat volume, , (b) Angina–Angina pectoris, (d) Heart failure–Heart attack, , 135. Match the Column I with Column II:, Column I, A. Heart failure, –, B. Cardiac arrest, , –, , C. Heart Attack, D. Coronary Artery disease, , –, –, , E. Angina pectoris, , –, , (a), (b), (c), (d), , A, 4, 4, 4, 5, , B, 5, 5, 3, 4, , Column II, 1. Heart muscle is suddenly damaged by an, inadequate blood supply., 2. Chest pain due to inadequate O2 reaching, the heart muscles., 3. Atherosclosis, 4. Heart not pumping blood effectively, enough to meet the needs of the body, (CAD)., 5. Heart stops beating, , C, 1, 3, 5, 2, , D, 3, 1, 2, 3, , E, 2, 2, 1, 1, , 136. It is often referred to as atherosclerosis, it affects the blood vessels that supply blood to the, heart muscles. It is caused by the deposition of Ca, fat, cholesterol and fibrous tissues making, the lumen of arteries narrow, (a) CAD, (b) SCID, (c) Blue baby, (d) myocarditis, 137. The given figure describes the diagrammatic representation of standard ECG., R, , P, , Q, , S, , T
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Body Fluids and Circulation18.15, , Column I, A. P-wave, , –, , B. QRS complex, , –, , C. T-wave, , –, , Column II, I. , Ventricular depolarization followed by, ventricular contraction, II. Atrial depolarization followed by systole, of both atria, III. , Ventricular repolarization followed by, ventricular relaxation, (b) A–III, B–II, C–I, (d) A–II, B–III, C–I, , (a) A–I, B–II, C–III, (c) A–II, B–I, C–III, 138., C, , E, , B, , RA, LA, RV, LV, Heart, , D, , F, , A, , The given figure is the systematic plant of blood circulation in human. Identify from A to F., (a), (b), (c), (d), , A, Body parts, Body parts, Body parts, Lungs, , B, Pulmonary vein, Pulmonary artery, Pulmonary artery, Pulmonary artery, , C, Lungs, Lungs, Lungs, Body parts, , D, Vena cava, Vena cava, Dorsal aorta, Dorsal aorta, , E, Pulmonary artery, Pulmonary vein, Pulmonary vein, Pulmonary vein, , 139. Which is the nature of blood passing through blood vessels (A, B, C and D)?, , B, , Lungs, , RA, RV, D, , C, , LA, LV, , Heart, , Body parts, , A, , F, Dorsal aorta, Dorsal aorta, Vena cava, Vena cava
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18.16, , Body Fluids and Circulation, , What is the nature of blood passing through blood vessels (A, B, C and D)?, A, B, C, D, (1) Oxygenated, Deoxygenated, Oxygenated, Deoxygenated, (2) Oxygenated, Oxygenated, Deoxygenated, Deoxygenated, (3) Deoxygenated, Deoxygenated, Oxygenated, Oxygenated, (4) Deoxygenated, Oxygenated, Deoxygenated, Oxygenated, 140. Identify the following blood vessels., B, , A, , Smooth muscle, Lumen, , Lumen, , Smooth muscle, , C, , (1), (2), (3), (4), , A, Capillary, Vein, Vein, Artery, , B, Artery, Capillary, Artery, Vein, , C, Vein, Artery, Capillary, Capillary, , 141. The given diagram shows which cell of blood?, , (a) Neturophil, , (b) Basophil, , (c) Eosinophil, , (d) Monocyte, , 142. Which of the following is a true statement about this diagram?, , (a), (b), (c), (d), , This is the most abundant cell of blood., This cell is phagocytic in nature., Abundance in blood is 60–65%., This cell secrete histamine, serotonin and heparin., , 143. The function of the cell fragments in blood (given in the diagram) is, , (a) To resist infection, (c) To help in clotting of blood, , (b) To be responsible for immune response, (d) To resist allergy
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Body Fluids and Circulation18.17, , 144. Which cell represents the surface antigen for ABO blood group?, , A, , (a) A, , B, , C, , (b) B, , D, , (c) C, , (d) D, , 145. Identify A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H in the given diagram., , A, , B, , E, , A, B, C, (a) Neturo Eosino Platelets, phil, phil, (b) RBC, Platelets Basophil, , C, , F, , D, , G, , H, , D, Basophil, , E, F, G, Neutrophil Monocyte T lymphocyte, Eosinophil Monocyte Neutrophil T lymphocyte, (c) RBC, Platelets Eosinophil Basophil Neutrophil Monocyte T lymphocyte, (d) T lym B lym- Platelets Eosinophil Basophil Neutrophil Monocyte, phocyte phocyte, 146. Rate of heartbeat is the highest in, (a) Whale, (b) Elephant, , (c) Mouse, , H, B lymphocyte, B lymphocyte, B lymphocyte, RBC, , (d) Man, , 147. Which of the following pair of terms represent both one and the same thing?, (a) Plasma–Serum, (b) Atrioventricular node–Pacemaker, (c) Leucocytes–Lymphocytes, (d) Mitral valve–Bicuspid valve, 148. How many times a red blood corpuscle will have to pass through the heart in its journey from, hepatic artery to the aorta?, (a) Two times, (b) Only once, (c) Several times, (d) Four times, 149. Maximum pressure of blood is experienced, (a) When blood enters from left atrium to aorta, (b) When blood enters from right atrium to aorta, (c) When blood enters from left ventricle to aorta, (d) When blood enters from right ventricle to aorta, 150. The blood circulation, which starts and ends into capillaries is, (a) Portal circulation, (b) Renal circulation, (c) Hepatic circulation, (d) Lymphatic circulation
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18.18, , Body Fluids and Circulation, , 151. Which one of the following is absent in the human beings?, (a) Hypophyseal-hypothalamic tract, (b) Hepatic portal vein, (c) Renal portal vein, (d) None of these, , Assertion and Reason Questions, Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given, below:, (a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the, assertion., (b) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the, assertion., (c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false., (d) If both the assertion and reason are false., 152. Assertion: Simple organism use special fluids within their bodies to transport materials., Reason: Boold is the only fluid used by higher organism including human for transport of, certain substances., 153. Assertion: Closed circulatory system is more effective than open type., Reason: The closed circulatory system considerably enhances the speed, precision and, efficiency of circulation., 154. Assertion: Cardiac output rises during exercise., Reason: Cardiac output helps in less oxygen consumption., 155. Assertion: Plasma retains water., Reason: Plasma contains an osmotic protein called albumin., 156. Assertion: An artificial pacemaker can replace the sinoatrial node of heart., Reason: This is because, an artificial pacemaker is capable of stimulating the heart electrically, to maintain its beats., 157. Assertion: When heart stops beating it is known as cardiac arrest., Reason: Heart attack occur due to cardic arrest., 158. Assertion: Plasma without the clotting factors is called serum., Reason: Serum contain immunoglobulins., 159. Assertion: Heart of fish contains only deoxygenated blood., Reason: Oxygenated blood do not return back to the heart in fishes., 160. Assertion: Basophils are involved in inflammatory reaction., Reason: Basophils use to secrete histamine,serotonin,heparin, etc., 161. Assertion: The reduction in number of platelets can lead to clotting disorders., Reason: Platelets release a variety of sustances most of which are involved in the clotting of, blood., 162. Assertion: Blood pressure is arterial blood pressure., Reason: It is measured by sphygmomanometer.
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Body Fluids and Circulation18.19, , 163. Assertion: Body has the ability to alter cardiac output., Reason: Body has the ability to alter the stroke volume as well as the heart rate., 164. Assertion: QRS complex represent the depolarization of atria., Reason: Biggining of the T-wave marks the end of systole., 165. Assertion: WBCs accumulate at the site of wounds by diapedesis., Reason: It is the squeezing of leucocytes from the endothelium., 166. Assertion: Opening of pulmonary trunk and aorta are guarded by valves., Reason: These valves prevent backward flow of blood in ventricles, 167. Assertion: SA node is called pacemaker of heart., Reason: It is responsible for initiating and maintaining the rhythm of heart, 168. Assertion: The wall of left ventricle is thickest among all four chambers of heart., Reason: The left ventricle has to pump blood to whole body., 169. Assertion: The velocity of flow of blood is minimum in capillaries., Reason: The surface area of capillaries are maximum among all blood vessels., 170. Assertion: Human heart is myogenic., Reason: Normal activities of heart are regulated intrinsically by specialized muscle., 171. Assertion: Circulation in amphibians and reptiles is called incomplete double circulation., Reason: Deoxygenated and oxygenated blood get mixed up in the single ventricle pumps out, mixed blood., 172. Assertion: Spleen is called graveyard of RBCs., Reason: RBCs are destroyed in spleen after completing their average life span of 60 days., 173. Assertion: Serum is able to clot blood., Reason: Serum contains all clotting factors required for clotting of blood., 174. Assertion: Individual with ‘O’ blood group is considered to be universal donor., Reason: Blood of ‘O’ blood group individual do not contain antigens on their RBCs., 175. Assertion: Erythroblastosis feotalis not observed during first pregnancy although foetus is Rh, positive and mother is Rh negative., Reason: Rh antigens of foetus do not get exposed to Rh negative blood of mother in first, pregnancy as the two bloods are well separated by placenta., 176. Assertion: Atria and ventricle do not contract simultaneously., Reason: It occurs due to AV nodal delay., 177. Assertion: Starting of ventricular diastole leads to closure of semi lunar valves., Reason: Ventricular diastole leads to fall in ventricular pressure., 178. Assertion: If we cut nerve supply to human heart, there will be no effect on heart beat., Reason: Human heart is myogenic in nature., 179. Assertion: An injury or trauma stimulates the platelets to release certain factors which regulate the mechanism of coagulation., Reason: Calcium iron is very important for clotting of blood.
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18.20, , Body Fluids and Circulation, , 180. Assertion: The number of eosinophils increases in patients suffering from asthma., Reason: Asthma is an allergic disease., 181. Assertion: The disease erythroblastosis feotalis can be avoided in second pregnancy if Rh, negative maternal blood exposed to Rh positive foetal blood during delivery of first child., Reason: If mother is administered with anti Rh antibodies immediately after the delivery of, first child., , previous year questions, 1. Given below are four statements (1 to 4) regarding human blood circulatory system., , [AIPMT MAINS 2010], (A) Arteries are thick walled and have narrow lumen as compared to veins., (B) Angina is acute chest pain when the blood circulation to the brain is reduced., (C) Persons with blood group AB can donate blood to any person with any blood group ABO, system., (D) Calcium ions play a very important role in blood clotting., Which of the above two statements are correct?, (a) (a) & (d), (b) (a) & (b), (c) (b) & (c), (d) (c) & (d), 2. The haemoglobin content per 100 ml of blood of a normal healthy human adult is, , [AIPMT MAINS 2010], (a) 5 – 11 mg, (b) 25 – 30 mg, (c) 17 – 20 mg, (d) 12 – 16 mg, 3. If due to some injury the chordae tendineae of the tricuspid valve of the human heart is, partially non-functional, what will be the immediate effect?, , [AIPMT PRE 2010], (a) The flow of blood into the aorta will be slowed down., (b) The ‘pacemaker’ will stop working., (c) The blood will tend to flow back into the left atrium., (d) The flow of blood into the pulmonary artery will be reduced., 4. Given below is the ECG of a normal human. Which one of its components is correctly, interpreted below?, R, , P, , , (a), (b), (c), (d), , Q, , S, , T, , [AIPMT MAINS 2011], Complex QRS-one complete pulse, Peak T-initiation of total cardiac contraction, Peak P and peak R together – systolic and diastolic blood pressure, Peak P – initiation of left atrial contraction only
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Body Fluids and Circulation18.21, , 5. Arteries are best defined as the vessels which:, , (a) Carry blood away from the heart to different organs., (b) Break up into capillaries which reunite to form a vein., (c) Carry blood from one visceral organ to another visceral organ., (d) Supply oxygenated blood to different organs., , [AIPMT PRE 2011], , 6. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding blood pressure?, , [AIPMT PRE 2011], (a) 100/55 mmHg is considered as an ideal blood pressure., (b) 105/50 mmHg makes one very active., (c) 190/110 mmHg may harm vital organs like brain and kidney., (d) 130/90 mmHg is considered high and requires treatment., 7. A person with unknown blood group under ABO system has suffered more blood loss in an, accident and needs immediate blood transfusion. His one friend, who has a valid certificate of, his own blood type, offers for blood donation without delay. What would have been the type of, blood group of the donor friend?, , [AIPMT PRE 2011], (a) Type AB, (b) Type O, (c) Type A, (d) Type B, 8. ‘Bundle of His’ is a part of which one of the following organs in humans?, , [AIPMT PRE 2011], (a) Heart, (b) Kidney, (c) Pancreas, (d) Brain, 9. Which one of the following plasma proteins is involved in the coagulation of blood?, , [AIPMT PRE 2011], (a) Serum amylase, (b) A globulin, (c) Fibrinogen, (d) An albumin, 10. A certain road accident with unknown blood group needs immediate blood transfusion. His, one doctor friend at once offers his blood. What was the blood group of the donor?, , [AIPMT PRE 2012], (a) Blood group B, (b) Blood group AB, (c) Blood group O, (d) Blood group A, 11. The diagram given here is the standard ECG of normal person. The P wave represents the:, R, , P, , , (a), (b), (c), (d), , Q, , S, , T, , [AIPMT 2013], Constriction of both the atria, Initiation of the ventricular contraction, Beginning of the systole, End of systole
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18.22, , Body Fluids and Circulation, , 12. Person with blood group AB is considered as universal recipient because he has, , [AIPMT 2014], (a) Both A and B antigens on RBC but no antibodies in the plasma., (b) Both A and B antibodies are in the plasma., (c) No antigen on RBC and no antibody in the plasma., (d) Both A and B antigens in the plasma but no antibodies., 13. How do parasympathetic neural signals affect the working of the heart?, , (a) Reduce both heart rate and cardiac output., (b) Heart rate is increased without affecting the cardiac output., (c) Both heart rate and cardiac output increases., (d) Heart rate decreases but cardiac output increases., 14. Erythropoiesis starts in, , (a) Kidney, (b) Liver, (c) Spleen, (d) Red bone marrow, 15. Blood pressure in the mammalian aorta is maximum during:, , (a) Systole of the left atrium, (b) Diastole of the right ventricle, (c) Systole of the left ventricle, (d) Diastole of the right atrium, 16. Which one of the following is correct?, , (a) Plasma = Blood − Lymphocytes, (b) Serum = Blood + Fibrinogen, (c) Lymph = Plasma + RBC + WBC, (d) Blood = Plasma + RBC + WBC + Platelets, , [AIPMT 2014], , [AIPMT 2015], , [AIPMT 2015], , [AIPMT 2015], , 17. Doctors use stethoscope to hear the sounds produced during each cardiac cycle. The second, sound is heard when:, , [RE-AIPMT 2015], (a) Ventricular walls vibrate due to gushing in of blood from atria, (b) Semilunar valves close down after the blood flows into vessels from ventricles, (c) AV node receives signal from SA node, (d) AV valves open up, 18. Which one of the following animals has two separate circulatory pathways?, , [RE-AIPMT 2015], (a) Lizard, (b) Whale, (c) Shark, (d) Frog, 19. Blood pressure in the pulmonary artery is:, , , [NEET - I, 2016]
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Body Fluids and Circulation18.23, , (a) same as that in the aorta, (c) more than that in the pulmonary vein, , (b) more than that in the carotid, (d) less than that in the vena cavae, , 20. Name the blood cells, whose reduction in number can cause clotting disorder, leading to, excessive loss of blood from the body., [NEET - II, 2016], (a) Leucocytes, (b) Neutrophils, (c) Thrombocytes, (d) Erythrocytes, 21. Serum differs from blood in, (a) Lacking albumins, (c) Lacking antibodies, , [NEET - II, 2016], (b) Lacking clotting factors, (d) Lacking globulins, , NCERT Exemplar Questions, 1. Which of the following cells does not exhibit phagocytotic activity?, (a) Monocytes, (b) Neutrophil, (c) Basophil, (d) Macrophage, 2. One of the common symptoms observed in people infected with Dengue fever is, (a) Significant decrease in RBC count., (b) Significant decrease in WBC count., (c) Significant decrease in platelets count., (d) Significant increase in platelets count., 3. Which among the following is correct during each cardiac cycle?, (a) The volume of blood pumped out by the right and left ventricles is same., (b) The volume of blood pumped out by the right and left ventricles is different., (c) The volume of blood received by each atrium is different., (d) The volume of blood received by the aorta and pulmonary artery is different., 4. Cardiac activity could be moderated by the autonomous neural system. Pick the correct answer, from the following., (a) The parasympathetic system stimulates the heart rate and stroke volume., (b) The sympathetic system stimulates the heart rate and stroke volume., (c) The parasympathetic system decreases the heart rate but increases the stroke volume., (d) The sympathetic system decreases the heart rate but increases the stroke volume., 5. Mark the pair of substances among the following, which is essential for coagulation of blood., (a) Heparin and calcium ions, (b) Calcium ions and platelet factors, (c) Oxalates and citrates, (d) Platelet factors and heparin, 6. ECG depicts the depolarization and repolarization processes during the cardiac cycle. In the, ECG of a normal healthy individual one of the following waves is not represented., (a) Depolarization of atria, (b) Repolarization of atria, (c) Depolarization of ventricles, (d) Repolarization of ventricles, 7. Which one of the following type of cells lacks nucleus?, (a) RBC, (b) Neutrophils, (c) Eosinophils, (d) Monocytes
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18.24, , Body Fluids and Circulation, , 8. Which one of the following blood cells is involved in antibody production?, (a) B-Lymphocytes, (b) T-Lymphocytes, (c) RBC, (d) Neutrophils, 9. The cardiac impulse is initiated and conducted further up to ventricle. The correct sequence of, conduction of impulse is, (a) SA Node → AV Node → Purkinje fibres → AV Bundle, (b) SA Node → Purkinje fibres → AV Node → AV Bundle, (c) SA Node → AV Node → AV Bundle → Purkinje fibres, (d) SA Node → Purkinje fibres → AV Bundle → AV Node, 10. The Agranulocytes responsible for immune response of the body are, (a) Basophils, (b) Neutrophils, (c) Eosinophils, (d) Lymphocytes, 11. The second heart sound (dub) is associated with the closure of, (a) Tricuspid valve, (b) Semilunar valves, (c) Bicuspid valve, (d) Tricuspid and bicuspid valves, 12. Which of the following correctly explains a phase/event in cardiac cycle in a standard, electrocardiogram?, (a) The QRS complex indicates atrial contraction., (b) The QRS complex indicates ventricular contraction., (c) The time between S and T represents atrial systole, (d) The P–wave indicates the beginning of ventricular contraction., 13. Which of the following statements is incorrect?, (a) A person of ‘O’ blood group has anti ‘A’ and anti ‘B’ antibodies in his blood plasma., (b) A person of ‘B’ blood group can’t donate blood to a person of ‘A’ blood group., (c) Blood group is designated on the basis of the presence of antibodies in the blood plasma., (d) A person of AB blood group is a universal recipient., 14. What would be the cardiac output of a person having 72 heart beats per minute and a stroke, volume of 50 mL?, (a) 360 mL, (b) 3600 mL, (c) 7200 mL, (d) 5000 mL, 15. Match the terms given under Column I with their functions given under Column II and select, the answer from the options given below:, (A), (B), (C), (D), (a), (b), (c), (d), , Column I, Lymphatic System, Pulmonary vein, Thrombocytes, Lymphocytes, , (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), , Column II, Carries oxygenated blood, Immune Response, To drain back the tissue fluid to the circulatory system, Coagulation of blood, , (A) – (ii), (B) – (i), (C) – (iii), (D) – (iv), (A) – (iii), (B) – (i), (C) – (iv), (D) – (ii), (A) – (iii), (B) – (i), (C) – (ii), (D) – (iv), (A) – (ii), (B) – (i), (C) – (iii), (D) – (iv)
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Body Fluids and Circulation18.25, , 16. Read the following statements and choose the correct option., Statement 1: Atria receive blood from all parts of the body which subsequently flows to, ventricles., Statement 2: Action potential generated at the sinoatrial node passes from atria to ventricles., (a) Action mentioned in Statement 1 is dependent on action mentioned in Statement 2., (b) Action mentioned in Statement 2 is dependent on action mentioned in Statement 1., (c) Action mentioned in Statements 1 and 2 are independent of each other., (d) Action mentioned in Statements 1 and 2 are synchronous., , Answer Keys, Practice Questions, 1. (b), 11. (c), 21. (b), 31. (b), 41. (c), 51. (c), 61. (d), 71. (a), 81. (a), 91. (d), 101. (a), 111. (d), 121. (b), 131. (c), 141. (c), 151. (c), , 2. (d), 12. (d), 22. (b), 32. (c), 42. (b), 52. (b), 62. (c), 72. (b), 82. (c), 92. (a), 102. (d), 112. (d), 122. (c), 132. (c), 142. (b), , 3. (a), 13. (c), 23. (a), 33. (c), 43. (d), 53. (a), 63. (c), 73. (d), 83. (a), 93. (d), 103. (b), 113. (d), 123. (b), 133. (d), 143. (c), , 4. (a), 14. (d), 24. (b), 34. (d), 44. (a), 54. (c), 64. (a), 74. (a), 84. (a), 94. (b), 104. (b), 114. (d), 124. (b), 134. (d), 144. (a), , 5. (b), 15. (c), 25. (c), 35. (c), 45. (d), 55. (c), 65. (d), 75. (a), 85. (a), 95. (b), 105. (b), 115. (c), 125. (c), 135. (a), 145. (c), , 6. (a), 16. (d), 26. (b), 36. (c), 46. (b), 56. (b), 66. (b), 76. (a), 86. (d), 96. (b), 106. (d), 116. (d), 126. (d), 136. (a), 146. (c), , 7. (b), 17. (a), 27. (b), 37. (c), 47. (d), 57. (c), 67. (a), 77. (c), 87. (d), 97. (a), 107. (a), 117. (b), 127. (d), 137. (c), 147. (d), , 8. (d), 18. (c), 28. (c), 38. (b), 48. (a), 58. (c), 68. (d), 78. (d), 88. (c), 98. (a), 108. (c), 118. (d), 128. (c), 138. (b), 148. (a), , 9. (d), 19. (d), 29. (c), 39. (a), 49. (c), 59. (a), 69. (b), 79. (a), 89. (b), 99. (b), 109. (c), 119. (d), 129. (c), 139. (a), 149. (c), , 10. (b), 20. (d), 30. (d), 40. (d), 50. (d), 60. (a), 70. (d), 80. (d), 90. (c), 100. (c), 110. (c), 120. (a), 130. (a), 140. (c), 150. (a), , Assertion and Reason Questions, 152. (d) 153. (a) 154. (c) 155. (a) 156. (a) 157. (c) 158. (b) 159. (a) 160. (a) 161. (a), 162. (b) 163. (a) 164. (d) 165. (b) 166. (a) 167. (a) 168. (a) 169. (a) 170. (a) 171. (a), 172. (c) 173. (d) 174. (a) 175. (a) 176. (a) 177. (a) 178. (a) 179. (b) 180. (a) 181. (a), Previous Year Questions, 1. (a), 11. (a), 21. (b), , 2. (d), 12. (a), , 3. (d), 13. (a), , 4. (a), 14. (d), , 5. (a), 15. (c), , 6. (c), 16. (d), , 7. (b), 17. (b), , 8. (a), 18. (b), , 9. (c), 19. (c), , 10. (c), 20. (c), , 8. (a), , 9. (c), , 10. (a), , NCERT Exemplar Questions, 1. (c), 11. (b), , 2. (c), 12. (b), , 3. (a), 13. (c), , 4. (b), 14. (b), , 5. (b), 15. (b), , 6. (b), 16. (b), , 7. (a)
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CHAPTER, , 19, , Excretory, Products and, Their Elimination, prACtiCe Questions, , Excretory System, 1. Select the incorrect statement from the following:, (a) Animals accumulate ammonia, urea, uric acid, CO2 and water by metabolic activities., (b) Animal accumulate substances like ions (Na+, K+, Cl-) and urea, ammonia, uric acid, CO2, and water are removed totally or partially., (c) Ammonia produced by metabolism is converted into urea in the liver of mammals., (d) Kidneys play significant role in the removal of ammonia directly., 2. Select ammonotelic from the following, (a) Many bony fishes, (c) Aquatic insects, , (b) Aquatic amphibians, (d) All of these, , 3. Select the order of toxicity., A. Ammonia, B. Urea, (a) A > B > C, (b) B > A > C, , C. Uric acid, (c) C > A > B, , (d) C > B > A, , 4. Which excretory product requires maximum water for its elimination?, (a) Ammonia, (b) Urea, (c) Uric acid, (d) Creatinine, 5. Select the incorrect statement from the following:, (a) Ammonia is readily soluble in water., (b) Ammonia is generally excreted by the process of diffusion., (c) Ammonia is excreted as ammonium ion through gill surface in fishes., (d) Ammonia is the major and urea and uric acid are the minor forms of nitrogenous waste, excreted by animals., 6. Metabolic wastes containing nitrogen in our body are due to, (a) Carbohydrates, (b) Proteins, (c) Fats, , (d) Vitamins, , 7. Excretion involves the process in which, (a) Harmful substances in the body are chemically changed., (b) Substances of no further use or those present in excessive quantities are thrown out of the body., (c) Harmful substances are stored in cells before being eliminated., (d) Expulsion of urine from the urinary bladder and sweat from the skin., 8. Which of the following is Ureotelic?, (a) Mammals, (c) Marine fishes, , (b) Most of the terrestrial amphibians, (d) All the above
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19.2, , Excretory Products and Their Elimination, , A, 9. Ammonia which is produced by metabolism is converted into ___________, in the liver of, B, C, mammals and released into ___________ which is filtered and ___________, out by kidney, (a) A–Uric acid, B–Blood, C–excreted, (b) A–Urea, B–Blood, C–excreted, (c) A–Amino acid, B–Blood, C–excreted, (d) A–Sugar, B–Blood, C–excreted, 10. Which of the following is uricotelic?, (A) Reptiles, (B) Birds, (a) A, B and C only (b) B and C only, , (C) Insects, (c) A and D only, , (D) Land snails, (d) All of these, , 11. With respect to the mode of excretion, bony fish falls into what category of organism?, (a) Ureotelic, (b) Uricotelic, (c) Ammonotelic, (d) Osmoconformers, 12. Aquatic animals are mostly ammonotelic because, (a) Ammonia helps in checking the inflow of water into body., (b) Excretion of ammonia requires large amount of water which is available to these animals., (c) Water contains less nitrogen., (d) These get less light., 13. What gets increased in blood if liver becomes functionless?, (a) Urea, (b) Ammonia, (c) Uric acid, , (d) Proteins, , 14. Nitrogenous excretory product of frog tadpole is, (a) Ammonia, (b) Urea, (c) Guanine, , (d) Uric acid, , 15. In aquatic organisms, the waste end product of nitrogen metabolism is, (a) Urea, (b) Nitrogen, (c) Ammonia, (d) Allantois, 16. The chief nitrogenous waste product present in urine of frog is, (a) Ammonia, (b) Urea, (c) Uric acid, , (d) Allantoin, , 17. Nitrogenous waste is excreted mainly as, (a) Urea in both frog and tadpole, (c) Uric acid in frog and urea in tadpole, , (b) Urea in frog and ammonia in tadpole, (d) Urea in tadpole and ammonia in frog, , 18. Urea is derived from, (a) Fats, (c) Carbohydrates, , (b) Amino acids, (d) Uric acid, , 19. Which of the following sets of animals produce the same substances as their chief excretory, product?, (a) Fish, pigeon and frog, (b) Camel, housefly and snake, (c) Frog, monkey and dog, (d) Amoeba, ant and antelope, 20. Which of the following sets of animals are uricotelic?, (a) Fish, snake, fowl and man, (b) Fish, frog, lizard and fowl, (c) Crow, snake, cockroach and lizard, (d) Camel, dog, monkey and man, 21. Excretion of nitrogenous waste product mainly as uric acid by birds is helpful in, (a) Conserving body heat, (b) Conserving water, (c) Eliminating excess water, (d) Eliminating excess body heat
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Excretory Products and Their Elimination19.3, , 22. Uric acid is formed in human being from, (a) Proteins, (b) Glucose, , (c) Purines, , (d) Pyrimidines, , 23. Uric acid is excreted by, (a) Pigeon, (b) Frog, , (c) Rabbit, , (d) Man, , 24. The least toxic nitrogenous waste is, (a) Ammonia, (c) Urea, , (b) Ammonia + Urea, (d) Uric acid, , 25. Marine teleost fishes excrete, (a) Uric acid, (b) TMO, , (c) Ammonia, , (d) All of these, , 26. Select the correct statement from the following:, (A) In most of the invertebrates, excretory structures are in complex tubular forms., (B) Vertebrates have simple tubular organ as excretory structure like kidney., (C) Protonephridia is primarily concerned with excretion., (D) Protonephridia are excretory structure in rotifers, some annelids and cephalochordates, (Amphioxus)., (a) A, (b) B, (c) C, (d) D, 27. Excretory and osmoregulatory structure in cockroach is, (a) Flame cells, (b) Green glands, (c) Nephridia, (d) Malpighian tubules, 28. The animal which retains urea for hypertonicity is (most appropriate), (a) Elasmobranch, (b) Man, (c) Bird, , (d) Amphibian, , 29. Malpighian tubules are the excretory organs in, (a) Platyhelminthes (b) Cockroach, (c) Pila, , (d) Ascaris, , 30. In annelids, excretory organs are, (a) Nephridia, (c) Green glands, , (b) Malpighian tubules, (d) Kidneys, , 31. The excretory organs in prawn are, (a) Malpighian tubules, (c) Kidneys, , (b) Nephridia, (d) Green glands or antennal gland, , 32. Green glands are excretory organs of, (a) Moths, (b) Crayfishes, , (c) Scorpions, , 33. Coxal glands are excretory organs in, (a) Spiders and scorpions, (c) Annelids, , (b) Insects, (d) Molluscs, , (d) Spiders, , 34. Which of these parts in vertebrates functionally corresponds to the contractile vacuole of, protozoans?, (a) Heart, (b) Cloaca, (c) Sweat glands, (d) Kidneys, 35. In humans, the excretory system coexist of, (a) Pair of kidneys, (b) Pair of ureters, (c) A urinary bladder and a urethra, (d) All of these
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19.4, , Excretory Products and Their Elimination, , 36. Kidneys in human is situated between __________., (a) T12–L3, (b) T11–L2 (c), T12–L1, 37. The correct dimensions of human kidney are, Length, Width, Thickness, (a) 10–12 cm, 5–7 cm, 2–3 cm, (b) 10–12 cm, 2–3 cm, 5–7 cm, (c) 12–14 cm, 5–7 cm, 2–3 cm, (d) 12–14 cm, 2–3 cm, 2–3 cm, , (d) T12–L5, Weight, 120–170 gm, 120–140 gm, 120–140 gm, 120–170 gm, , 38. Which of the following is correct about hilum of kidney?, (a) It is present on the convex outer surface., (b) It is present at the inner convex surface., (c) It is notch through which ureter, nerve and blood vessel enter., (d) It is the place where the calyces are open., 39. Which of the following is incorrect about human kidney?, (a) Kidney is covered by tough capsule, (b) Kidney is divided into cortex and medulla on the outer side, (c) The cortex is extended in between the medullary pyramid and the renal column of bertini., (d) Kidney is situated close to the dorsal inner wall of abdominal cavity., 40. Each kidney has (nearly) how many nephrons?, (a) 1 million, (b) 2 million, (c) ½ million, , (d) 3 million, , 41. The extension of cortex in medulla is known as, (a) Columnae carneae, (b) Columns of bertini, (c) Renal columns, (d) both (b) and (c), 42. Each nephron consists of, (a) Glomerulus, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (b) Renal tubules, (d) Calyces, , 43. Glomerules along with Bowman’s capsule is called, (a) Renal corpuscle, (b) Malpighian tubule, (c) Malpighian body, (d) Both (a) and (c), 44. A part of Nephron is situated in cortex completely, A. Malpighian Corpuscle, B., C. DCT, D., E. Collecting duct, (a) A, B and C only, (b), (c) A, B, C and D only, (d), , PCT, Loop of Henle, B and C only, D and E only, , 45. Select the incorrect statement from the following:, (a) The DCTs of many nephrons opens into a straight tube called collecting duct., (b) In cortical nephrons (majority), the loop of Henle is too short and extended only very little, in medulla., (c) In juxta medullary nephrons (minority), the loop of Henle is very long and runs deeply, into medulla., (d) Vasa recta is not a part of peritubular network .
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Excretory Products and Their Elimination19.5, , 46. Two kidneys of human beings lie, (a) At the level of ovaries, (b) At the same level, (c) Left kidney at a higher level than the right one, (d) Right kidney at a higher level than the left one, 47. Which term is used both for a part of kidney and a part of skeleton in the mammals?, (a) Centrum, (b) Pelvis, (c) Cortex, (d) Medulla, 48. Mammalian kidney serve to excrete, (a) Excess water, urea and amino acids, (b) Excess salts, urea and excess water, (c) Excess salts, excess water and excess amino acids, (d) Excess salts, urea and water, 49. The part through which arteries and veins enter or leave the kidney is called, (a) Major calyces, (b) Minor calyces, (c) Hilus, (d) Renal pore, 50. Cells named podocytes occur in the wall of, (a) Neck region of nephrons, (c) Outer wall of Bowman’s capsules, , (b) Glomerular capillaries, (d) Inner wall of Bowman’s capsules, , 51. A malpighian corpuscle is, (a) Another name for nephron, (b) An excretory structure of insects, (c) Combined name for glomerulus and Bowman’s capsule, (d) None of the above, 52. Blood vessel leading to glomerulus is called, (a) Renal artery, (c) Efferent arteriole, , (b) Renal vein, (d) Afferent arteriole, , 53. Blood vessel draining the glomerulus in a mammalian nephron is called, (a) Afferent arteriole and is narrower than the vessel entering it., (b) Efferent venule and is narrower than the vessel entering it., (c) Efferent arteriole and is narrower than the vessel entering it., (d) Renal artery and is wider than the vessel entering it., 54. In mammalian kidneys, the Bowman’s capsules or Malpighian corpuscles occur in, (a) Cortex, (b) Medulla, (c) Pelvis, (d) All of these, 55. In a glomerulus, (a) Afferent arteriole is thicker than efferent arteriole., (b) Afferent capillaries are thicker than efferent capillaries., (c) Afferent capillaries are thinner than efferent capillaries., (d) Afferent arteriole is thinner than efferent arteriole., 56. Which one of these is not a part of uriniferous tubule?, (a) Loop of Henle, (b) Collecting duct, (c) Bowman’s capsule, (d) Distal convoluted tubule
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19.6, , Excretory Products and Their Elimination, , 57. Bowman’s capsule is lined by, (a) Ciliated epithelium, (c) Cuboidal epithelium, , (b) Squamous epithelium, (d) Cuboidal and columnar epithelium, , 58. Brush border is a characteristic of, (a) Neck of nephron, (c) Proximal convoluted tubule, , (b) Collecting tube, (d) All of these, , 59. Filtration of blood occurs in, (a) Loop of Henle, (b) Bowman’s capsule (c) Lungs, , (d) Renal papillae, , 60. The glomerular filtrate, i.e., the liquid collected in the cavity of Bowman’s capsule is, (a) Blood minus proteins, (b) Blood minus proteins and corpuscles, (c) Water, (d) Urine, 61. Normally that is absent in Glomerular filtrate is, (a) Albumin, (b) Glucose, (c) NaCI, , (d) Creatinine, , 62. The glomerular filtration rate would be decreased by, (a) Constriction of the efferent arteriole, (b) An increase in afferent arteriolar pressure, (c) Compression of the renal capsule, (d) An increase in the renal blood flow, 63. A minute vessel runs parallel to the Henle’s loop forming ‘U’ shape vasa recta is a part of, (a) Peritubular network, (b) Afferent arteriole, (c) Efferent arteriole, (d) Bowman’s capsule, 64. Urine formation mainly involves the process of, (a) Ultrafiltration, (b) Selective reabsorption, (c) Secretion, (d) All of these, 65. How much amount of blood is filtered out by kidney’s/min?, (a) 500 ml, (b) 1100–1200 ml, (c) 1500 ml, , (d) 125 ml, , 66. How many layers do filtration membrane consist of?, (a) 1, (b) 2, (c) 3, , (d) 4, , 67. Filtration membrane consist of, (a) Endothelium of glomerular blood vessels, (b) Epithelium of Bowman’s capsule, (c) Basement membrane between the above two layers, (d) All the above, Regulation of Organ, 68. Which of the following is incorrect about ultrafiltration?, (a) Podocytes are arranged in intricate manner so as to leave minute space called filtration, slits and slit pore, filtration occurs finely through these pores., (b) Filtration is so fine that almost all the constituent of blood except protein pass onto the, lumen of Bowman’s capsule., (c) Filtrated fluid is isotonic to blood plasma., (d) JGA controls the filtration rate of ultrafiltration.
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Excretory Products and Their Elimination19.7, , 69. The values of GFR in an healthy individual is, (a) 125 ml/min, (b) 150 ml/min, (c) 100 ml/min, , (d) 200 ml/min, , 70. The amount of the filtrate formed by the kidneys are, (a) 125 ml/min, (b) 7.5 litre/hr, (c) 180 litre/day, , (d) All of these, , 71. Select the total number of correct matching., (1) JGA → Juxtaglomerular Apparatus, (2) GFR → Glomerular Filtration Rate, (3) PCT → Proximal Conducting Tube, (4) DCT → Distal Convoluted Tubule, (5) CD → Conducting Duct, (6) ADH → Antidiuretic Hormone, (a) 6, (b) 5, , (c) 4, , (d) 2, , 72. JGA is formed by, (a) Part of DCT, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (b) Part of afferent arteriole, (d) None of these, , 73. Following are the points of mechanism of JGA. Arrange them accordingly., (A) Activation of JG cells, (B) Activated JG cells release renin, (C) Fall in GFR, (D) Increase of glomerular blood flow, (E) GFR back to normal, (a) E, A, D, C, B, (b) C, A, B, D, E, (c) A, B, C, D, E, (d) C, A, D, B, E, 74. Nearly how much percent of the filtrate is reabsorbed by the renal tubules?, (a) 70–80%, (b) 85%, (c) 99%, (d) 90%, 75. Choose the correct statement about absorption in renal tubules from the following:, (a) Glucose, amino acids and Na+ reabsorbed actively., (b) Nitrogenous waste are absorbed by passive transport., (c) 70–80 per cent of electrolyte and water are absorbed in PCT., (d) All the above, 76. Tubular secretion helps in, (a) Ionic balance of body fluid, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (b) Acid base balance of body fluid, (d) None of these, , 77. Which of the following is an incorrect statement about filtration?, (a) Selective process, (b) Non-selective process, (c) Performed by glomerulus, (d) It occurs through the usage of capillary (glomerulus) blood pressure, 78. Which of the following is incorrect about PCT?, (a) Lined with simple cuboidal brush border epithelium., (b) All essential nutrient and 70 to 80 per cent of the electrolyte and water are reabsorbed here., (c) It helps in the PH maintenance of body fluid by the selective secretion of H+ ion and by, –, the absorption of HCO3 ., (d) It does not help in the maintenance of ionic balance of body fluid.
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19.8, , Excretory Products and Their Elimination, , 79. Which of the following part has minimum reabsorption?, (a) PCT, (b) HL, (c) DCT, , (d) Collecting duct, , 80. Select the total number of correct statements about the loop of Henle., (1) Descending limb is permeable to water., (2) Descending limb is almost impermeable to electrolyte., (3) Ascending limb is impermeable to water., (4) It allows the transport of electrolyte only actively., (5) At the tip of loop of Henle, the concentration of filtrate is 1200 m osmol/l., (6) It helps in the maintenance of high osmolarity in medullary interstitium., (a) 6, (b) 3, (c) 4, (d) 5, 81. Which segment helps in the pH maintenance of body fluid?, (a) PCT, (b) DCT, (c) Collecting duct, , (d) All, , 82. DCT helps in, (A) Conditional reabsorption of Na+ and water, (B) HCO3– absorption, (C) pH maintenance, (D) Selective secretion of H+ and K+, (a) A, C and D only, (b) B, C and D only, (c) All of these, (d) C and D only, 83. Which of the following segment allows the passage of small amount of urea into modularly, interstitium to keep up the osmolarity?, (a) PCT, (b) DCT, (c) HL, (d) Collecting duct, 84. At which place we initially used the term ‘urine’ for filtrate?, (a) PCT, (b) DCT, (c) HL, (d) Collecting duct (end), 85. Counter-current mechanism is present in, (a) HL, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (b) Vasa recta, (d) DCT, , 86. Which of the following is incorrect about counter-current mechanism?, (a) The flow of filtrate in two limbs of vasa recta is in opposite direction., (b) The flow of blood in two limbs of vasa recta is also in opposite direction., (c) NaCI is transported by the ascending limb of HL which is exchanged with the descending, limb of vasa recta., (d) NaCI is returned to in interstitium by the ascending portion of vasa recta., 87. Counter current mechanism maintains the concentration gradient in the medullary i nterstitium., It helps in, (a) Easy passage of water from PCT, (b) Easy passage of water from DCT, (c) Easy passage of water from HL, (d) Easy passage of water from collecting duct, 88. The total filtrate formed in 24 hours in human kidney is, (a) 1.8 litre, (b) 8.0 litre, (c) 18 1itre, , (d) 180 litre
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Excretory Products and Their Elimination19.9, , 89. Which of the following is most likely to cause an increase in the glomerular filtration rates?, (a) Blockage of ureter, (b) Dilation of the afferent arterioles, (c) Release of renin from the juxtaglomerular apparatus, (d) Volume depletion, 90. Which of these will be completely reabsorbed from glomerular filtrate under normal conditions in the nephrons?, (a) Urea, (b) Salts, (c) Uric acid, (d) Glucose, 91. What are mainly reabsorbed from Henle’s loops?, (a) Potassium, (b) Glucose, (c) Water and NaCl, (d) Urea and NaCl, 92. The part of the nephron that helps in active reabsorption of sodium is, (a) Bowman’s capsule, (b) Distal convoluted tubule, (c) Ascending limb of Henle’s loop, (d) Proximal convoluted tubules, 93. Which of the following substance is actively secreted into glomerular filtrate of the kidney, tubule?, (a) Amino acids, (b) Chloride ions, (d) K+, (c) Na+, 94. The effect of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) on the kidney is to increase the, (a) Excretion of water, (b) Excretion of Na’, (c) Permeability of the distal nephron to water, (d) Glomerular filtration rate, 95. In deficiency of ADH, the rate of micturition, (a) Decreases, (c) Remains the same, , (b) Increases, (d) None of these, , 96. Volume of urine is regulated by, (a) Aldosterone, (b) Aldosterone and ADH, (c) Aldosterone, ADH and testosterone, (d) ADH alone, 97. When a person is suffering from poor renal reabsorption, which one of the following will not, help in the maintenance of blood volume?, (a) Increased ADH secretion, (b) Decreased glomerular filtration, (c) Increased arterial pressure in kidneys, (d) Decreased arterial pressure in kidneys, 98. The number of nephrons in a kidney is equal to the, (a) Number of Bowman’s capsules, (b) Sum of Bowman’s capsules and glomeruli, (c) Double the number of Bowman’s capsules, (d) Sum of Bowman’s capsules and Malpighian corpuscles
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19.10, , Excretory Products and Their Elimination, , 99. If Henle’s loop were absent from mammalian nephron, which of the following is to be, expected?, (a) The urine will be more dilute., (b) There will be no urine formation., (c) The urine will have more concentration., (d) There will be hardly any change in the quality and quantity of urine formed., 100. Which of the following statements is/are true?, 1. Urine is hypertonic in distal convoluted tubule., 2. When the urine passes into the collecting tubule it becomes hypotonic., 3. Urine is isotonic in proximal convoluted tubule., 4. Urine becomes more and more hypotonic as it passes through the Henle’s loop., (a) 1 and 4 only, (b) 1, 2 and 3 only, (c) 2 and 3 only, (d) 3 only, 101. Which one of the following groups of structures/organs have similar function?, (a) Typhlosole in earthworm, intestinal villi in rat and contractile vacuole in Amoeba., (b) Nephridia in earthworm, Malpighian tubules in cockroach and urinary tubules in rat., (c) Antennae of cockroach, tympanum of frog and clitellum of earthworm., (d) Incisors of rat, gizzard (proventriculus) of cockroach and tube feet of starfish., 102. Ducts of Bellini are present in, (a) Liver, (c) Intestine, , (b) Kidney, (d) Medulla oblongata, , 103. The human kidney produces how much concentrated urine than the initial filtrate formed?, (a) 2 times, (b) 4 times, (c) 6 times, (d) 3 times, 104. What is the ratio of concentration of outer medulla to outer portion of inner medulla?, 1, 4, 2, 1, (b), (c), (d), (a), 3, 3, 3, 4, 105. The functioning of kidney is regulated by, (a) Hypothalamus, (b) JGA, , (c) Heart, , (d) All of these, , 106. ADH causes, (a) Increased water absorption from DCT and CT, (b) Increased GFR by increasing blood pressure, (c) Increases reabsorption of electrolyte from distal tubules, (d) All of these, 107. Arrange the following steps in order, (1) Excessive loss of fluid, (2) Stimulation of osmoreceptor, (3) Stimulation of Hypothalamus, (4) Release of ADH or Vasopressin, (5) ADH facilitate water reabsorption from distal tubules, (6) Increase in body fluid switch off osmoreceptor and suppress the release of ADH., (a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, (b) 1, 3, 2, 4, 5, 6, (c) 6, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, (d) 2, 3, 4, 1, 5, 6, 108. Stimulus for activation of JG cells to release rennin is/are, (a) ↓ Glomerular blood flow, (b) ↓ Glomerular blood pressure, (c) ↓ GFR, (d) All of these
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Excretory Products and Their Elimination19.11, , 109. RAAS involve, (a) JGA apparatus, , (b) Angiotensinogen, , (c) Adrenal cortex, , (d) All of these, , 110. Select the incorrect from the following:, ↓GFR, , 2, , 1, JG cells (+), , Renin, 3, , Angiotensinogen, , Angiotensin I, 4, , ↑es reabsorption, of Na+ and H2O, from distal, part of nephron, , (a) 2, 3, , 7, , 6, , 5, , Aldosterone, , Adrenal cortex (+), , (b) 1, 3, , (c) 4, , 111. Increase in blood pressure is caused by, (a) ↑es ADH secretion, (c) ↑es Angiotensinogen II, , Renin, , Angiotensin II, (Powerful, vasoconstrictor), , (d) 5, 6, , (b) ↑es Aldosterone secretion, (d) All of these, , 112. Which of the following is true about ANF?, (a) Full form is Autonomic Nervous Factor, (b) Antagonistic to Renin–Angiotensin mechanism, (c) It causes vasoconstriction, (d) All are true, 113. Find the correct steps for micturition (arrange in order)., (A) Urine filled in urinary bladder, (B) Stretch–receptor activation, (C) Wall of bladder send signal to CNS, (D) Motor message from CNS to urinary bladder and urethral sphincter, (E) Bladder contracts and sphincter dilates leads to micturition, (a) A → B → C → D → E, (b) C → B → A → D → E, (c) B → A → C → D → E, (d) A → B → C → E → D, 114. Neural mechanism of micturition is called, (a) Micturition reflex, (c) Conditioned reflex, , (b) Simple reflex, (d) All of these, , 115. An adult human excretes how much urine per day?, (a) 1–1.5 litre, (b) 1.5–2 litre, (c) 5–1 litre, , (d) 3 litre, , 116. On an average _________ of urea is excreted out per day, (a) 20–25 gm, (b) 25–30 gm, (c) 25–30 mg, , (d) 40–45 gm
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19.12, , Excretory Products and Their Elimination, , 117. Analysis of urine help in the clinical diagnosis of, (a) Metabolic disorders, (b) Malfunctioning of kidney, (c) Diabetes mellitus, (d) All of these, 118. Select the correct matching:, Colour, pH, (a) Light yellow, 7.0, (b) Light yellow, 6.0, (c) Light yellow, 6.5, (d) Light yellow, 6.0, , Odour, Characteristic, Characteristic, Pungent, Almond, , 119. Presence of glucose and ketone bodies in urine is called, (a) Glycosuria and ketonuria, (b) Glycogenic and ketonuria, (c) Glycosuria and ketonemia, (d) Gluconeogenesis and ketonaemia, 120. Glycosuria and ketonuria is indicative of, (a) Starvation, (c) Diabetes insipidus, , (b) Diabetes mellitus, (d) All of these, , 121. Sweat contains, (a) Watery fluid with NaCl, (c) Lactic acid, , (b) Urea, (d) All of these, , 122. Primary function of sweat is, (a) Removal of excess of water, (c) Cooling of body surface, , (b) Removal of urea, (d) All of these, , 123. Nitrogenous waste is eliminated through, (a) Kidney, (b) Saliva, , (c) Sweat gland, , (d) All of these, , 124. Sterols, hydrocarbons and waxes are eliminated through, (a) Liver, (b) Lungs, (c) Sebaceous glands, (d) Sweat glands, 125. Select the incorrect statement from the following., (a) Liver is the second largest gland in our body., (b) Sebum provides protective oily covering for skin., (c) Bile contains substance like bilirubin, biliverdin, cholesterol, degraded steroid hormones,, vitamins and drugs are passed with digestive wastes., (d) Other than kidneys lungs, liver and skin also helps in the elimination of excretory wastes., 126. Which is not a part of renal tubule?, (a) PCT, (c) DCT, , (b) Bowman’s capsule, (d) Collecting duct, , 127. Select the total number of excretory organ from the following found in various animals:, Protonephridia, SA node, nephridia, Hepatic Cecae, atrium, Malpighian tubules, green, glands, kidney, pons, ommatidia, parapodia, (a) 4, (b) 5, (c) 6, (d) 7, 128. Excretory organs help in, (a) Excretion only, (c) Maintenance of ionic balance, , (b) Maintenance of acid–base balance, (d) All of these
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Excretory Products and Their Elimination19.13, , 129. Our lung removes how much of CO2 per hour from the body, (a) 10 L, (b) 20 L, (c) 18 L, 130. Inflammation of glomeruli of kidney is, (a) Renal failure, (c) Glomerulonephritis, , (d) 2 L, , (b) Renal calculi, (d) Cystitis, , 131. Stone and insoluble mass of crystallized salts, formed within the kidney is generally made, up of, (a) Calcium carbonate, (b) Calcium oxalate, (c) Silica, (d) Any of these, 132. Which is the ultimate method for the correction of acute renal failure?, (a) Haemodialysis, (b) Renal transplantation, (c) Blood transfusion, (c) Angioplasty, 133. Following are the steps of dialysis:, A. Blood is passed into a vein., B. Blood is mixed with heparin., C. Blood is mixed with anti-heparin., D. Blood is drained from convenient artery., E. Blood is passed through a coiled and porous cellophane tube bathing in dialysis fluid., F. Removal of nitrogenous wastes from blood., The correct sequence of steps is, (a) A → B → C → D → E → F, (c) F → C → E → B → A → D, , (b) D → B → E → F → C → A, (d) D → C → E → F → B → A, , 134. Malfunctioning of kidney may lead to the accumulation of _______ in blood., (a) Glucose, (b) Amino acid, (c) Urea, (d) All of these, 135. Which of the following is true about renal transplantation?, (a) Kidney transplantation is the ultimate method at the stage where drug or dialysis do not, help., (b) Immunosuppressive agent are used in kidney transplant patient., (c) Close relatives are often used as kidney donors to minimise the risk of rejection., (d) All the above, 136. In the diagram of excretory system of human beings given below, different parts have been, indicated by alphabets; choose the answer in which these alphabets have been correctly, matched with the parts which they represent., B, A, F, C, D, E
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19.14, , Excretory Products and Their Elimination, , (a) A–Kidney, B–Abdominal aorta, C–Ureters, D–Urinary bladder, E–Urethra,, F–Renal pelvis, (b) A–Kidney, B–Abdominal aorta, C–Urethra, D–Urinary bladder, E–Ureters,, F–Renal pelvis, (c) A–Kidney, B–Renal pelvis, C–Urethra, D–Urinary bladder, E–Ureters,, F–Abdominal aorta, (d) A–Kidney, B–Abdominal aorta, C–Urethra, D–Urinary bladder, E–Renal pelvis,, F–Ureters, 137. Match the excretory functions of section I with the parts of the excretory system in section II., Choose the correct combinations from among the answers given., Section I, (i), Ultrafiltration, (ii) Concentration of urine, (iii) Transport of urine, (iv) Storage of urine, (a), (b), (c), (d), , –, –, –, –, , Section II, (a) Henle’s loop, (b) Ureter, (c) Urinary bladder, (d) Malpighian corpuscles, (e) Proximal convoluted tubules, , (i)–(d), (ii)–(a), (iii)–(b), (iv)–(c), (i)–(d), (ii)–(c), (iii)–(b), (iv)–(a), (i)–(e), (ii)–(d), (iii)–(a), (iv)–(c), (i)–(e), (ii)–(d), (iii)–(a), (iv)–(b), , 138. Observe the following figure., Adrenal gland, A, , D, Renal vein, , Pelvis, B, , C, Cortex, , F, Ureter, E, Urethra, , Identify A to E structure:, A, Renal artery, , B, (a), Urinary, bladder, (b) Inferior vena cava Kidney, (c) Urinary bladder, Medulla, (d) Kidney, Renal artery, , C, Inferior vena, cava, Medulla, Kidney, Inferior vena, cava, , D, Kidney, , E, Medulla, , Renal artery, Urinary bladder, Inferior vena cava Renal artery, Urinary bladder Medulla
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Excretory Products and Their Elimination19.15, , 139. Go through the following figure:, Medullary, pyramid, B, A, Renal artery, Cortex, , D, E, , C, , Ureter, , Identify A to D., (a), (b), (c), (d), , A, Renal column, Renal capsule, Calyx, Renal vein, , B, Renal capsule, Renal pelvis, Renal column, Calyx, , C, Calyx, Renal vein, Renal capsule, Renal column, , D, Renal pelvis, Calyx, Renal vein, Renal capsule, , 140. Match the following:, Efferent arteriole, , B, Glomerulus, D, , A, , Distal, convoluted, tubule, , Decending limb, of loop of henle, E, Ascending limb, of loop of henle, , C, , Collecting duet, , (a) A–Proximal convoluted tubule, B–Afferent arteriole, C–Vasa recta, D–Bowman’s capsule,, E–Henle’s loop, (b) A–Henle’s loop, B–Vasa recta, C–Proximal convoluted tubule, D–Bowman’s capsule,, E–Afferent arteriole, (c) A–Bowman’s capsule, B–Henle’s loop, C–Proximal convoluted tubule, D–Vasa recta,, E–Afferent arteriole, (d) A–Vasa recta, B–Proximal convoluted tubule, C–Bowman’s capsule, D–Afferent arteriole,, E–Henle’s loop
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19.16, , Excretory Products and Their Elimination, , 141. The following diagram represents the Malpighian body. Identify A to D., C, A, B, , D, , (a) A–Efferent arteriole, B–Afferent arteriole, C–Bowman’s capsule, D–DCT, (b) A–Afferent arteriole, A–Efferent arteriole, C–Renal corpuscle, D–Proximal convoluted, tubule, (c) A–Efferent arteriole, B–Bowman’s capsule, C– Afferent arteriole, D–PCT, (d) A–Afferent arteriole, B–Efferent arteriole, C–Bowman’s capsule, D–DCT, 142. The diagram following the different parts absorb:, Proximal convoluted tubule, NaCI Nutrients, –, HCO3, H2O, K+, , Cortex, , H+, , Distal convoluted tubule, NaCI, , K+, , NH3, D, , –, , HCO3, , H+, , B, , NaCI, , H 2O, Outer medulla, , H2O, , Collecting, duct, , C, NaCI, A, , E, , Inner medulla, , Identify A, B and D, (a) A–Urea, B–Thick segment of ascending limb, D–Descending limb of loop of Henle, (b) A–Descending limb of loop of Henle, B–Thick segment of ascending limb, D–Urea, (c) A–Thick segment of ascending limb, B–Descending limb of loop of Henle, D–Urea, (d) A–Thick segment of ascending limb, B–Thick segment of ascending limb, D–Urea
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19.18, , Excretory Products and Their Elimination, , 145., C, A, B, , D, , The part ‘B’ in the above diagram is lined with, (a) Cuboidal epithelium, (b) Columnar epithelium, (c) Squamous epithelium, (d) Brush border epithelium, 146., C, A, B, , D, , Which part of the above diagram is lined with podocytes?, (a) A, (b) B, (c) C, , (d) D, , 147., Medullary, pyramid, B, A, Renal artery, Cortex, C, , B part of the above diagram contains, (a) PCT, (b) DCT, , D, E, , (c) HL, , Ureter, , (d) Blood Vessels
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Excretory Products and Their Elimination19.19, , 148., Medullary, pyramid, B, A, Renal artery, Cortex, , D, E, , C, , In which part of the diagram calyces opens, (a) A, (b) B, , Ureter, , (c) C, , (d) E, , 149. In the below diagram, identify the end excretory product which remains in body to maintain, concentration of medullary interstitium?, Proximal convoluted tubule, NaCI Nutrients, –, HCO3, H2O, K+, , Cortex, , H+, , Distal convoluted tubule, NaCI, , K+, , NH3, D, , –, , HCO3, , H+, , B, , NaCI, , H 2O, Outer medulla, , H2O, , Collecting, duct, , C, NaCI, A, , E, , Inner medulla, , (a) F, , (b) G, , (c) A, , (d) E
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19.20, , Excretory Products and Their Elimination, , Assertion and Reason Questions, Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given, below:, (a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the, assertion., (b) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the, assertion., (c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false., (d) If both the assertion and reason are false., 150. Assertion: Diabetes insipidus is marked by excessive urination and too much thirst for water., Reason: Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) is secreted by the posterior lobe of pituitary gland., 151. Assertion: Filteration is a selective process performed by the glomerulus using the glomerular, capillary blood pressure., Reason: Blood is filtered through fine pores present in PCT., 152. Assertion: The antidiuretic hormone increases the water permeability of distal convoluted, tubule., Reason: In the absence of ADH, water re-absorption is considerably reduced., 153. Assertion: Presence of glucose and ketone bodies in urine are indicative of diabetes mellitus., Reason: Malfunctioning of kidney can lead to accumulation of urea in blood a condition, called uremia., 154. Assertion: In the descending limb of loop of Henle, the urine is hypertonic, while in ascending limb of loop of Henle, the urine is Hypotonic., Reason: Descending limb is impermeable to Na+, while ascending limb is impermeable to H2O., 155. Assertion: Vasa recta is absent or highely reduced in cortical nephrons., Reason: PCT and DCT are situated in cortical region of kidney., 156. Assertion: Ammonia is the excretory product of aquatic amphibian., Reason: Ammonia is readily soluble in water and requires large amount of water for excretion., 157. Assertion: Urinary bladder and ureters are lined by transitional epithelium., Reason: Ureters carry the urine to urinary bladder where it is stored temporarily., 158. Assertion: Kidneys maintain the osmotic concentration of the blood., Reason: Kidneys eliminate either hypotonic or hypertonic urine according to the need of the, body., 159. Assertion: In vertebrates, the liver is also referred as an accessory excretory organ., Reason: Liver helps kidneys in the secretion of urine., 160. Assertion: Sharks are said to be ammonotelic animals., Reason: Sharks can retain considerable amounts of ammonia in their blood., 161. Assertion: The glomerular filtrate resembles the protein free plasma in composition and, osmotic pressure., Reason: The glomerular capillary wall and inner membrance of Bowman’s capsule are, impermeable to large molecules.
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Excretory Products and Their Elimination19.21, , 162. Assertion: PCT reabsorbs nearly all essential nutrients and 70 to 80 per cent of the electrolyte, and water from filterate., Reason: PCT is lined with brush border epithelium., 163. Assertion: Counter-current mechanism is responsible for the concentration of urine., Reason: Counter-current mechanism helps to maintain the concentration gradient in the, medullary interstitium., 164. Assertion: Aldosterone leads to the increase in blood pressure., Reason: Aldosterone causes reabsorbtion of sodium ion and water from distal part of tubules., 165. Assertion: Some amount of urea is retain in medullary interstitium., Reason: This is use to maintain require concentration in medullary interstitium., 166. Assertion: Urine produced (1 to 1.5 L) per day is far less than the volume of filtrate occur per, day (18L)., Reason: 99% of filtrate is reabsorbed by the renal tubules., 167. Assertion: Uraemia is harmful condition., Reason: Uraemia may lead to kidney failure., 168. Assertion: Renal tubules use to maintain ionic balance and pH of body fluids., Reason: H+, K+ and NH3 could be secreted into filtrate by renal tubules., 169. Assertion: ANF decreases blood pressure., Reason: ANF causes vasodilation., 170. Assertion: ADH increases GFR., Reason: ADH cause vasoconstriction thus increase blood pressure, which inturn increase the, glomerular blood flow and there by GFR., 171. Assertion: Nephridia help in osmoregulation in earthworm., Reason: Nephridia maintain fluid and ionic balance in earthworm., 172. Assertion: Antennal glands perform the excretory function in prawns., Reason: Malpighian tubules are present in crustacean for osmoregulation., 173. Assertion: Glomerular filtration is considered as ultrafilteration., Reason: Blood is filtered so finely through filtration membrane that almost all the constituent, of the plasma except the proteins pass onto the lumen of Bowman ’s capsule., 174. Assertion: Nitrogenous waste in PCT absorb passively., Reason: It absorb by the process of diffusion down the concentration gradient., 175. Assertion: Uricotelism is terrestrial adaptation., Reason: Uricotelism is least toxic and require minimum water for its excretion., 176. Assertion: Micturition in human is completely an endocrine mechanism., Reason: Micturition reflex is endocrine reflex completely., 177. Assertion: Diabetes mellitus can be diagnosed by urine analysis, Reason: Glucose appear in urine in diabetes mellitus condition termed as glycosuria ., 178. Assertion: Most of the secretion of liver is pass out along with faecal matter., Reason: Bile juice is secreted in digestive tract.
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19.22, , Excretory Products and Their Elimination, , previous year questions, 1. In which one of the following organisms its excretory organs are correctly stated?, , [AIPMT MAINS 2010], (a) Humans, , −, , Kidneys, sebaceous glands, , (b) Earthworm, , −, , Pharyngeal, integumentary and septal nephridia, , (c) Cockroach, , −, , Malpighian tubules and enteric caeca, , (d) Frog, , −, , Kidneys, skin and buccal epithelium, , 2. Which one of the following statements with regard to the excretion by the human kidneys is, correct?, , [AIPMT PRE 2010], (a) Descending limb of Loop of Henle is impermeable to water., (b) Distal convoluted tubule is incapable of reabsorbing HCO3-., (c) Nearly 99 per cent of the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed by the renal tubules., (d) Ascending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to electrolytes., 3. The principal nitrogenous excretory compound in humans is synthesized, , [AIPMT PRE 2010], (a) In kidneys but eliminated mostly through liver., (b) In kidneys as well as eliminated by kidneys., (c) In liver and also eliminated by the same through bile., (d) In the liver, but eliminated mostly through kidneys., 4. Which one of the following correctly explains the function of a specific part of a human, nephron?, , [AIPMT PRE 2011], (a) Henle’s loop, , −, , Most reabsorption of the major substance from, the glomerular filtrate., , (b) Distal convoluted tubule, , −, , Reabsorption of ions into the surrounding blood, capillaries., , (c) Afferent arteriole, , −, , Carries the blood away from the glomerulus, towards the renal vein., , (d) Podocytes, , −, , Creates minute space (slit pores) for the filtration, of blood into the Bowman’s capsule., , 5. Which one of the following is not a part of a renal pyramid?, , [AIPMT PRE 2011], (a) Convoluted tubules, (b) Collecting ducts, (c) Loops Henle, (d) Peritubular capillaries, 6. Uricotelic mode of passing out nitrogenous wastes is found in, , [AIPMT PRE 2011], (a) Birds and annelids, (b) Amphibians and reptiles, (c) Insects and amphibians, (d) Reptiles and birds
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Excretory Products and Their Elimination19.23, , 7. Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to kidney function regulation?, , [AIPMT PRE 2011], (a) Exposure to cold temperature stimulates ADH release., (b) An increase in glomerular blood flow stimulates the formation of angiotensin II., (c) During summer when the body loses lot of water by evaporation, the release of ADH is, suppressed., (d) When someone drinks lot of water the ADH release is suppressed., 8. A fall in glomerular filtration rate (GFR) activates, , [AIPMT MAINS 2012], (a) Adrenal cortex to release aldosterone, (b) Adrenal medulla to release adrenaline, (c) Posterior pituitary to release vasopressin, (d) Juxtaglomerular cells to release rennin, 9. Which one of the following option gives the correct categorization of six animals according to, the type of nitrogenous wastes {A (Ammonotelic), B (Ureotelic), C (Uricotelic)} they give out?, , [AIPMT MAINS 2012], (a) A: Frog, Lizards, B: Aquatic Amphibia, Humans, C: Cockroach, Pigeon, (b) A: Aquatic Amphibia, B: Frog, Humans, C: Pigeon, Lizards, Cockroack, (c) A: Aquatic Amphibia, B: Cockroach, Humans, C: Frog, Pigeon, Lizards, (d) A: Pigeon, Humans, B: Aquatic Amphibia, Lizards, C: Cockroach, Frog, 10. The maximum amount of electrolytes and water (70 to 80 per cent) from the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed in which part of the nephron?, , [AIPMT PRE 2012], (a) Ascending limb of loop of Henle, (b) Distal convoluted tubule, (c) Proximal convoluted tubule, (d) Descending limb of loop of Henle, 11. Figure shows the human urinary system with structures labelled from A to D. Select the option, which correctly identifies them and gives their characteristics and/or functions., A, B, Kidney, , C, D, , Urinary bladder, , , [AIPMT 2013], , (a) A: Adrenal gland – located at the anterior part of kidney, secrete catecholamines, which, stimulate glycogen breakdown., (b) B: Pelvis – broad funnel shaped space inner to hilum, directly connected to loop of Henle., (c) C: Medulla – inner zone of kidney and contains complete nephrons., (d) D: Cortex – outer part of kidney and do not contain any part of nephrons., 12. Which of the following causes an increase in sodium reabsorption in the distal convoluted, tubule?, [AIPMT 2014]
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19.24, , Excretory Products and Their Elimination, , (a) Increase in aldosterone levels, (c) Decrease in aldosterone levels, , (b) Increase in antidiuretic hormone levels, (d) Decrease in antidiuretic hormone levels, , 13. Removal of proximal convoluted tubule from the nephron will result in, , (a) More diluted urine, (b) More concentrated urine, (c) No change in quality and quantity of urine, (d) No urine formation, , [AIPMT 2015], , 14. Which of the following does not favour the formation of large quantities of dilute urine?, , [AIPMT 2015], (a) Alcohol, (b) Caffeine, (c) Renin, (d) Atrial-natriuretic factor, 15. Human urine is usually acidic because, [RE-AIPMT 2015], (a) Excreted plasma proteins are acidic, (b) Potassium and sodium exchange generates acidity, (c) Hydrogen ions are actively secreted into the filtrate, (d) The sodium transporter exchange one hydrogen ion for each sodium ion, in peritubular, capillaries., 16. In mammals, which blood vessel would normally carry largest amount of urea?, , [NEET - I, 2016], (a) Renal Vein, (b) Dorsal Aorta, (c) Hepatic Vein, (d) Hepatic Portal Vein, 17. The part of nephron involved in active reabsorption of sodium is, [NEET - II, 2016], (a) Proximal convoluted tubule, (b) Bowman’s capsule, (c) Descending limb of Henle’s loop, (d) Distal convoluted tubule, , NCERT Exemplar Questions, 1. The following substances are the excretory products in animals. Choose the least toxic form, among them?, (a) Urea, (b) Uric acid, (c) Ammonia, (d) Carbon dioxide, 2. Filtration of the blood takes place at, (a) PCT, (c) Collecting ducts, , (b) DCT, (d) Malpighian body, , 3. Which of the following statements is incorrect?, (a) ADH prevents the conversion of angiotensinogen in blood to angiotensin., (b) Aldosterone facilitates water reabsorption., (c) ANF enhances sodium reabsorption., (d) Renin causes vasodilation.
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Excretory Products and Their Elimination19.25, , 4. A larger quantity of one of the following is removed from our body by lungs., (b) H2O only, (a) CO2 only, (d) Ammonia, (c) CO2 and H2O, 5. The pH of human urine is approximately, (a) 6.5, (b) 7, , (c) 6, , (d) 7.5, , 6. Different types of excretory structures and animals are given below. Match them appropriately, and mark the correct answer from among those given below., Excretory structure/organ, (A) Protonephridia, (B) Nephridia, (C) Malpighian tubules, (D) Green gland or Antennal gland, (a), (b), (c), (d), , Animals, (i) Prawn, (ii) Cockroach, (iii) Earthworm, (iv) Flatworms, , D – i, C – ii, B – iii and A – iv, B – i, C – ii, A – iii and B – iv, D – i, C – ii, A – iii and B – iv, B – i, C – ii, B – iii and D – iv, , 7. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?, (a) Birds and land snails are uricotelic animals., (b) Mammals and frogs are ureotelic animals., (c) Aquatic amphibians and aquatic insects are ammonotelic animals., (d) Birds and reptiles are ureotelic., 8. Which of the following pairs is wrong?, (a) Uricotelic ............ Birds, (b) Ureotelic .............. Insects, (c) Ammonotelic ............ Tadpole, (d) Ureotelic ................ Elephant, 9. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?, (a) The medullary zone of kidney is divided into a few conical masses called medullary, pyramids projecting into the calyces., (b) Inside the kidney the cortical region extends in between the medullary pyramids as renal, pelvis., (c) Glomerulus along with Bowman’s capsule is called the renal corpuscle., (d) Renal corpuscle, Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT) and Distal Convoluted Tubule, (DCT) of the nephron are situated in the cortical region of kidney., 10. The condition of accumulation of urea in the blood is termed as, (a) Renal calculi, (b) Glomerulonephritis, (c) Uremia, (d) Ketonuria, 11. Which one of the following is also known as antidiuretic hormone?, (a) Oxytocin, (b) Vasopressin, (c) Adrenaline, (d) Calcitonin
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19.26, , Excretory Products and Their Elimination, , 12. Match the terms given in Column I with their physiological processes given in Column II and, choose the answer., Column I, (A) Proximal, (B) Distal convoluted tubule, (C) Henle’s loop, , Column II, (i) Formation of concentrated urine, (ii) Filtration of blood, (iii) Reabsorption of 70 to 80 per cent of, electrolytes, (iv) Ionic balance, (v) Maintenance of concentration gradient in, medulla, , (D) Counter–current mechanism, (E) Renal corpuscle, (a), (b), (c), (d), , A– iii, B – v, C– iv, D – ii, E – i, A – iii, B – iv, C – i, D – v, E – ii, A – i, B – iii, C – ii, D – v, E – iv, A – iii, B – i, C – iv, D – v, E – ii., , 13. Match the abnormal conditions given in Column A with their explanations given in Column B, and choose the correct option:, (A), (B), (C), (D), , Column I, Glycosuria, Renal calculi, Glomerular nephritis, Gout, , (a), (b), (c), (d), , A – i, B – iii, C – ii, D – iv, A – iii, B – ii, C – iv, D – i, A – iv, B – iii, C – ii, D – i, A – iv, B – ii, C – iii, D – i., , (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), , Column II, Accumulation of uric acid in joints, Inflammation in glomeruli, Mass of crystallized salts within the kidney, Presence of glucose in urine, , 14. We can produce concentrated/dilute urine. This is facilitated by a special mechanism. Identify, the mechanism., (a) Reabsorption from PCT., (b) Reabsorption from collecting duct., (c) Reabsorption/Secretion in DCT., (d) Counter current mechanism in Henle’s loop/Vasa recta., 15. Dialysis unit (artificial kidney) contains a fluid which is almost same as plasma except that it, has, (a) High glucose, (b) High urea, (c) No urea, (d) High uric acid
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Excretory Products and Their Elimination19.27, , Answer Keys, Practice Questions, 1. (d), 11. (c), 21. (b), 31. (d), 41. (d), 51. (c), 61. (a), 71. (c), 81. (d), 91. (c), 101. (b), 111. (d), 121. (d), 131. (b), 141. (c), , 2. (d), 12. (b), 22. (c), 32. (b), 42. (c), 52. (d), 62. (c), 72. (c), 82. (c), 92. (b), 102. (b), 112. (b), 122. (c), 132. (b), 142. (a), , 3. (a), 13. (b), 23. (a), 33. (a), 43. (d), 53. (c), 63. (a), 73. (b), 83. (d), 93. (d), 103. (b), 113. (a), 123. (d), 133. (b), 143. (b), , 4. (a), 14. (a), 24. (d), 34. (d), 44. (a), 54. (a), 64. (d), 74. (c), 84. (d), 94. (c), 104. (b), 114. (a), 124. (c), 134. (c), 144. (c), , 5. (d), 15. (c), 25. (b), 35. (d), 45. (d), 55. (a), 65. (b), 75. (d), 85. (c), 95. (b), 105. (d), 115. (a), 125. (a), 135. (d), 145. (c), , 6. (b), 16. (b), 26. (d), 36. (a), 46. (c), 56. (b), 66. (c), 76. (c), 86. (a), 96. (b), 106. (d), 116. (b), 126. (d), 136. (a), 146. (b), , 7. (b), 17. (b), 27. (d), 37. (a), 47. (b), 57. (b), 67. (d), 77. (a), 87. (d), 97. (c), 107. (a), 117. (d), 127. (b), 137. (a), 147. (d), , 8. (d), 18. (b), 28. (a), 38. (c), 48. (b), 58. (c), 68. (b), 78. (d), 88. (d), 98. (a), 108. (d), 118. (b), 128. (d), 138. (b), 148. (d), , 9. (b), 19. (c), 29. (b), 39. (b), 49. (c), 59. (b), 69. (a), 79. (b), 89. (b), 99. (a), 109. (d), 119. (a), 129. (c), 139. (c), 149. (c), , 10. (d), 20. (c), 30. (a), 40. (a), 50. (d), 60. (b), 70. (d), 80. (d), 90. (d), 100. (d), 110. (c), 120. (b), 130. (c), 140. (a), , Assertion and Reason Questions, 150. (b) 151. (d) 152. (b) 153. (b) 154. (a) 155. (b) 156. (a) 157. (b) 158. (a) 159. (c), 160. (d) 161. (a) 162. (a) 163. (a) 164. (a) 165. (a) 166. (a) 167. (a) 168. (a) 169. (a), 170. (a) 171. (a) 172. (c) 173. (a) 174. (a) 175. (a) 176. (d) 177. (a) 178. (a), Previous Year Questions, 1. (b), 11. (a), , 2. (c), 12. (a), , 3. (d), 13. (a), , 4. (d), 14. (c), , 5. (a), 15. (c), , 6. (d), 16. (c), , 7. (d), 17. (a), , 8. (d), , 9. (b), , 10. (c), , 8. (b), , 9. (b), , 10. (c), , NCERT Exemplar Questions, 1. (b), 11. (b), , 2. (d), 12. (b), , 3. (a), 13. (c), , 4. (c), 14. (d), , 5. (c), 15. (c), , 6. (a), , 7. (d)
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Locomotion and, Movement, , CHAPTER, , 20, , prACtiCe Questions, 1. Which of the following is a simple form of movement?, (a) Streaming of protoplasm in amoeba, (b) Ciliary movement in paramecium, (c) Flagellar movement in Euglena, (d) All of these, 2. The movement which results in a change of place or location is known as, (a) Contraction, (b) Adduction, (c) Abduction, (d) Locomotion, 3. Select the correct matching:, Column I, Column II, A. Paramecium, –, 1. Cilia, B. Hydra, C. Human, , –, –, , 2. Tentacles, 3. Limbs, , (a) A−1−X, B−2−Y, C−3−Z, (c) A−3−Z, B−1−X, C−2−Y, , –, –, –, , Column III, X. Movement of food through cytopharynx, and locomotion., Y. Capturing of prey and for locomotion., Z. Changes in body posture and for, locomotion., (b) A−1−Z, B−3−X, C−2−Y, (d) A−2−Y, B−3−X, C−1−Z, , 4. Select the incorrect statement?, (a) Plant and animal both exhibit movement., (b) All locomotion are movement but all movement are not locomotion., (c) Methods of locomotion performed by animals with their habitats and the demand of the, situation., (d) None of the above, 5. Locomotion is used for, (A) Search of food and shelter, (B) Search for mate, (C) Search for suitable breeding ground, (D) Escaping from enemies/Predators, (a) All except B, (b) All except C, , (c) All except D, , (d) All of these, , 6. Which is the movement exhibited by the cell of a human body?, (a) Amoeboid, (b) Ciliary, (c) Fagellar, , (d) All of these, , 7. Which of the following cells exhibit amoeboid movement?, (a) Macrophages, (b) Leucocytes, (c) RBC, , (d) Both (a) and (b)
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20.2, , Locomotion and Movement, , 8. Which of the following is correct about pseudopodia?, (a) Formed by streaming of protoplasm, (b) Formed in amoeba and neutrophile, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) None of these, 9. Which of the following is involved in amoeboid movement?, (a) Centriole, (b) Cilia, (c) Flagella, (d) Microfilament, 10. Which of the following organs is lined with cilia?, (a) Fallopian tube, (b) Trachea, (c) Intestine, , (d) Both (a) and (b), , 11. Locomotion requires a perfect coordinated activity of, (a) Muscular system, (b) Skeletal system, (c) Neural system, (d) All of these, Muscle, 12. Muscle is derived from, (a) Mesoderm, (b) Ectoderm, , (c) Endoderm, , 13. Muscle forms __________ of adult human body., (a) 30−40%, (b) 40−50%, (c) 50−60%, 14. Muscles are characterized by, (a) Excitability and contractility, (c) Elasticity, , (d) All of these, (d) 60−70%, , (b) Extensibility, (d) All of these, , 15. Muscles can be classified on which of the following criterion?, (a) Location, (b) Appearance, (c) Nature of regulation of their activities, (d) All of these, 16. How many types of muscles can be identified depending upon the location?, (a) 1, (b) 2, (c) 3, (d) 4, 17. Which of the following is incorrect about skeletal muscles?, (a) Striped appearance under microscope hence called striated muscle., (b) They are voluntary muscles., (c) Primarily involved in locomotory actions and changes the body postures., (d) They are Involuntary muscles., 18. Which of the following is incorrect about visceral muscles?, (a) Non-striated muscle (Smooth muscle), (b) Involuntary muscle, (c) Located in inner walls of hollow visceral organs of the body, (d) They are under in voluntary control, 19. Smooth muscles help in, (a) Transportation of food through the digestive tract, (b) Transfer of gametes through genital tract, (c) Micturition by urinary bladder, (d) All the above
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Locomotion and Movement20.3, , 20. Cardiac muscle is characterized by, (a) Striated appearance, (c) Branching pattern, , (b) Involuntary control, (d) All of these, , 21. Which muscle is not under direct control of nervous system?, (a) Skeletal (Striated muscles), (b) Smooth (Non-striated muscles), (c) Cardiac muscles, (d) All of these, 22. Muscle fibre is a, (a) Anatomical unit of muscle, (c) Biochemical unit of muscle, , (b) Physiological unit of muscle, (d) None of these, , 23. Identify A, B, C and D in the given figure., , D, A, B, C, , (a) A–Sarcolemma, B–Blood capillary, C–Fascicle (muscle bundle), D–Muscle fibre (muscle, cell), (b) A–Blood capillary, B–Muscle fibre (muscle cell), C–Fascicle (muscle bundle),, D–Sarcolemma, (c) A–Sacrolemma, B–Muscle fibre (muscle cell), C–Fesicle (muscle bundle), D–Blood, capillary, (d) A–Muscle fibre (muscle cell), B–Sarcolemma, C–Blood capillary, D–Fascicle (muscle, bundles), 24. Each organized skeletal muscle in our body is made up of a number of muscle bundles or, fascicles held together by a common collagenous connective tissue layer called, (a) Tunicine, (b) Fascia, (c) Pellicle, (d) Capsule, 25. Select the correct matching from the following:, (a) Plasma membrane of muscle fibres, – Sarcolemma, (b) Cytoplasm of muscle fibres, – Sarcoplasm, (c) Endoplasmic reticulum of muscle fibres, – Sarcoplasmic reticulum, (d) All the above, 26. Sarcoplasmic reticulum is a storehouse of which ion, (b) Na+, (c) K+, (d) Fe2+, (a) Ca2+, 27. Sarcolemma is a membrane found over, (a) Nerve fibre, (c) Skeletal muscle fibre, , (b) Cardiac muscle, (d) Heart, , 28. The functional unit of the contractile system in the striped muscle is, (a) Z-band, (b) A-band, (c) Myofibril, , (d) Sarcomere
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20.4, , Locomotion and Movement, , 29. Contraction of a muscle is caused by, (a) Myosin, (b) Actin, , (c) ATP, , (d) Actomyosin, , 30. The dark bands (A-bands) of a skeletal muscle are known as, (a) Isotropic bands, (b) Anisotropic bands, (c) Intercalated disc, (d) Cross bridges, 31. The light bands (I-bands) of a skeletal muscles are known as, (a) Isotropic bands, (b) Anisotropic bands, (c) Intercalated disc, (d) Cross bridges, 32. Ciliary muscles are found in, (a) Diaphragm of a mammal, (c) Heart of vertebrates, , (b) Eyes of vertebrates, (d) Stomach of frog, , 33. Intercostal muscles are found in, (a) Fingers, (b) Thoracic ribs, , (c) Femur, , (d) Radius-ulna, , 34. The special contractile protein actin is found in, (a) Thick filaments of A-bands, (b) Thin filaments of I-bands, (c) Both thick and thin bands, (d) Whole of myofibril, 35. Striped muscles have, (a) One nucleus, (c) Two nuclei, , (b) Many nuclei, (d) No nuclei, , 36. Contractile fibrils of muscles are called, (a) Neurofibrils, (c) Myofibrils, , (b) Collagen fibres, (d) Elastin, , 37. Myofibrils show alternate dark and light bands in, (a) Cardiac muscles, (b) Smooth muscles, (c) Skeletal muscles, (d) Both (a) and (c), 38. Select the correct statement:, (a) A-band is made up of thick myosin filament., (b) H-zone is present in the middle of A-band., (c) Actin and myosin are polymerized protein with contractility., (d) All the above, 39. Match the columns:, Column I, (A) Inflammation of joints, (B) Protein of thick filament, (C) Protein of thin filament, (D) The central part of thick filament is not, overlapped by thin filament, (a) A–1, B–2, C–3, D–4, (c) A–4, B–1, C–2, D–3, , –, –, –, –, , Column II, (1) H-zone, (2) Myosin, (3) Actin, (4) Arthritis, (b) A–1, B–3, C–2, D–4, (d) A–4, B–2, C–3, D–1
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Locomotion and Movement20.5, , 40. Which of the following statements about the striated muscles is false?, 1. Thick filaments in the ‘A’ band are also held together in the middle of this band by a thin, fibrous membrane called ‘M’ line., 2. In the centre of each ‘I’ band is an elastic fibre called ‘Z’ line which bisects it., 3. The thin filaments are firmly attached to the ‘Z’ line., 4. This central part of thick filament, not overlapped by thin filaments is called the ‘H’ zone., (a) All of these, (b) Only 2, (c) 1 and 4 only, (d) None of these, 41. Which of the following statements about the molecular arrangement of actin in myofibrils is, incorrect?, 1. Each actin (thin) filament is made of two ‘F’ (filamentous) actins helically wound to each, other., 2. Each ‘F’ actin is a polymer of monomeric ‘G’ (Globular) actins., 3. Two filaments of another protein, tropomyosin also runs close to the ‘F’ actins throughout, its length., 4. A complex protein troponin is distributed at regular intervals on the tropomyosin., (a) 1 and 2 only, (b) 3 only, (c) Only 4, (d) None of these, 42. Select the total number of true statements from the following., 1. Each myosin (thick) filament is also a polymerized protein., 2. Many monomeric proteins called meromyosins constitute one thick filament., 3. Each meromyosin has two important parts, a globular head with a short arm and a tail,, the former being called the heavy meromyosin (HMM) and the latter is called the light, meromyosin (LMM)., 4. The HMM component, i.e., the head and short arm projects outwards at regular distance, and angle from each other from the surface of a polymerized myosin filament and is, known as cross arm., 5. The globular head is an active ATPase enzyme and has binding sites for ATP and active, sites for actin., (a) 1, (b) 2, (c) 4, (d) 5, 43. Binding of Ca2+ with _____ in the skeletal muscles and leads to the exposure of the binding, site for _____ on the filament _____., (a) Troponin, myosin, actin, (b) Troponin, actin, relaxin, (c) Actin, myosin, troponin, (d) Tropomyosin, myosis, actin, 44. Following is the figure of actin (thin) filaments. Identify A, B and C., A, B, C, , (a), (b), (c), (d), , A−Tropomyosin, B−Troponin,, C−F actin, A−Tropomyosin, B−Myosin,, C−F Tropomyosin, A−Troponin,, B−Tropomyosin, C−Myosin, A−Troponin,, B−Tropomyosin, C−F actin
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20.6, , Locomotion and Movement, , 45., , C, , B, , A, , The above figure is related to the myosin monomer (meromyosin). Identify A to C., (a) A–head, B–cross arm, C–GTP binding sites, (b) A−Cross arm, B−ATP Binding sites, C−Head, (c) A–head, B–cross arm, C–ATP binding sites, (d) A–cross arm, B–head C–ATP binding sites, 46. Identify A to D in the below figure., C, , B, , A, , D, , (a), (b), (c), (d), , A–Actin binding sites, B–Head, C–Cross arm, D–ATP binding sites, A–Cross arm, B–Actin binding sites, C–ATP binding sites, D–Head, A–ATP binding sites, B–Head, C–Actin binding sites, D–Cross arm, A–Head, B–Cross arm, C–ATP binding sites, D–Actin binding sites, , 47. Mechanism of muscle contraction is best explained by, (a) All or no law, (b) Sliding filament theory, (c) Blackman’s law, (d) All of these, 48. ATP provides energy for muscle contraction by allowing for, (a) An action potential formation in the muscle cell., (b) Cross-bridge detachment of myosin from actin., (c) Cross-bridge attachment of myosin to actin., (d) Release of Ca2+ from sarcoplasmic reticulum., 49. A motor unit is best described as, (a) All the nerve fibres and muscle fibres in a single muscle bundle., (b) One muscle fibre and its single nerve fibre., (c) A single motor neuron and all the muscle fibres that it innervates., (d) As the neuron which carries the message from muscles to CNS., 50. Motor end plate is a, (a) Neuromuscular junction, (c) Dendron of motor neuron, , (b) Plate of motor neuron, (d) Gradient of protein motive force, , 51. During muscle contraction,, (a) Chemical energy is changed into electrical energy, (b) Chemical energy is changed into mechanical energy, (c) Chemical energy is changed into physical energy, (d) Mechanical energy is changed into chemical energy
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Locomotion and Movement20.7, , 52. Electron microscopic studies of the sarcomeres have revealed that during muscle contraction, (a) The width of A-band remains constant, (b) The width of the H-zone increases, (c) The width of I-band increases, (d) The diameter of the fibre increases, 53. According to the sliding filament theory, (a) Actin (thin filament) moves over myosin (thick filament), (b) Myosin moves over actin, (c) Both myosin and actin move on each other, (d) None of the above, 54. Put the following statement in proper order to describe muscle contraction., 1. Signal sent by CNS via motor neuron., 2. Generation of action potential in the sarcolemma., 3. Release of Ca+2 from sarcoplasmic reticulum., 4. The neurotransmitter acetycholine released motor endplate., 5. Sarcomere shorterns., (a) 1 → 2 → 4 → 3 → 5, (c) 1 → 4 → 3 → 2 → 5, , (b) 1 → 4 → 2 → 3 → 5, (d) 5 → 4 → 3 → 2 → 1, , 55. Go through the following diagram describing muscle contraction. Identify A to E., D, P, , ADP, , Myosin, filament, , Cross bridge, , C, , (Breaking of cross bridge), , (Formation of cross bridge), P, ADP, B, , (a), (b), (c), (d), , A, , A−Sliding/Rotation, B−Actin filament, C−Myosin head, D−ATP, A–Myosin head, B–Sliding/Rotation, C–ATP, D–Actin filament, A−Sliding/Rotation, B−Myosin head, C−Actin filament, D−ATP, A−Actin filament, B−Sliding/Rotation, C−ATP, D−Myosin head, , 56. Which of the following muscle gets into fatigue very early?, (a) Skeletal muscle, (b) Smooth muscle, (c) Cardiac muscle, (d) All of these, 57. Relaxation of muscle is due to the, (a) Pumping of Ca+2 into sarcoplasmic cisternae, (b) Presence of ATP, (c) Conformational change in troponin and masking of actin filaments, (d) Both (a) and (c)
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20.8, , Locomotion and Movement, , 58., H zone, , I band, , A band, , B, Z line, , Z line, , Z line, , C, , A, Two sarcomeres, , The diagrams given above depicts three different condition of sarcomeres. Identify these, conditions:, (a) A–contracting, B–relaxed, C–maximally contracted, (b) A–relaxed, B–contracting, C–maximally contracted, (c) A–maximally contracted, B–relaxed, C–contracting, (d) A–relaxed, B–maximally contracted, C–contracting, 59. Repeated activation of the muscles can lead to the accumulation of _______ due to anaerobic, breakdown of glycogen in there causing fatigue., (a) ethanol, (b) lactic acid, (c) citric acid, (d) butyric acid, 60. A neurotransmitter ________ generates an action potential in the sarcolemma., (a) GABA, (b) Epinephrine, (c) Glycine, (d) Acetyt choline, 61. Which of the following statement is correct?, (a) A motor neuron along with the muscles fibres connected to it constitute a motor unit., (b) The reaction time of the fibres can vary in different muscles., (c) Muscle fatigue is due to lactic acid formation due to anaerobic respiration., (d) All the above, 62. The protein which maintains the muscular storage of oxygen is, (a) Myoglobin, (b) Actomyosin, (c) Myosin, , (d) Haemoglobin, , 63. Which is not the correct difference between white and red muscle fibres?, White muscle fibre, Red muscle fibre, 1. Less myoglobin, – 1. More myglobin, 2. Number of mitochondria is less, – 2. Number of mitochondria is more, 3. Amount of sarcoplasmic reticulum is low – 3. Amount of sarcoplasmic reticulum is high, 4. Aerobic muscle, – 4. Anaerobic muscle, (a) 1, (b) 2, (c) 3, (d) 4
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Locomotion and Movement20.9, , 64. Skeletal system consists of, (a) Framework of bone, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (b) Few cartilages, (d) None of these, , 65. Cartilage has slightly pliable matrix due to, (a) Ca2+, (c) Chondroitin salts, , (b) Mg2+, (d) Phosphorus, , 66. Skull is composed of, (a) Cranial bones (8), (c) Both (a) and (b), , (b) Facial bones (14), (d) None of these, , 67. The hard and protective outer covering of brain is known as, (a) Cranium, (b) Condyle, (c) Meninges, , (d) All of these, , 68. Human body contains how many ear ossciles?, (a) 3, (b) 4, (c) 5, , (d) 6, , 69. Human skull is, (a) Monocondylic, , (c) Tricondylic, , (d) Acondylic, , (c) Laterally, , (d) All of these, , (b) Dicondylic, , 70. Vertebral column in human body is present, (a) Dorsally, (b) Ventrally, , 71. Which of the following is true about vertebral column?, (a) Each vertebra in vertebral column has a central hollow protein (Neural canal) through, which spinal cord pass., (b) The first vertebra in vertebral column is atlas and it articulates with the occipital condyle., (c) Vertebral column protects the spinal cord, supports the head and serves as the point of, attachment for the ribs and musculature of the back., (d) All the above, 72. The bone present on ventral midline of thorax is, (a) Vertebral column (b) Ribs, (c) Scapula, , (d) Sternum, , 73. Which of the following is incorrect about ribs?, (a) Each rib is a thin and cat bone connected dorsally to the vertebral column and ventrally to, the sternum., (b) Ribs has two articulation surfaces on its dorsal end which are called bicephalic., (c) Ventrally ribs are connected to sternum by elastic cartilage., (d) First 7 pairs are called true ribs. The 8, 9 and 10th pair is known as false (vertebracondral), ribs and the 2 pairs (11th and 12th) are known as floating ribs., 74. Scapula is an example of, (a) Long bone, (b) Short bone, , (c) Flat bone, , (d) Irregular bone, , 75. Number of bones in the adult human body is, (a) 206, (b) 406, , (c) 106, , (d) 306, , 76. Number of bones in human axial skeleton is, (a) 120, (b) 142, , (c) 80, , (d) 206, , Skeletal System
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20.10, , Locomotion and Movement, , 77. The number of bones in the skull of man is, (a) 14, (b) 28, , (c) 8, , 78. Cranium of man is made up of, (a) 8 bones, (c) 16 bones, , (b) 12 bones, (d) 14 bones, , (d) 22, , 79. Vertebral column of human body is made up of, (a) 33 vertebrae, (b) 52 vertebrae, (c) 45 vertebrae, (d) 23 vertebrae, 80. The number of bones in the vertebral column of man is, (a) 32, (b) 26, (c) 35, 81. The human vertebral formula is, (a) C7T12L5S5Cd4, (c) C7T12L5S1Cd1, , (d) 20, , (b) C7T9L5S4Cd1, (d) C7T12L4S4Cd1, , 82. The vertebra which bears the whole weight of the skull is, (a) Atlas, (b) Axis, (c) Cervical, (d) Sacral, 83. In man, the ribs are attached to, (a) Clavicle, (c) Sternum, , (b) Ileum, (d) Scapula, , 84. In case of most of the mammals including man and Giraffe, the numbers of cervical vertebrae, are, (a) 8, (b) 7, (c) 9, (d) 10, 85. The eighth and ninth ribs are known as false ribs because their external portions are attached to, (a) xiphisternum, (b) Costa of 7th rib, (c) They have no costa, (d) They are not true ribs, 86. Number of bones in face is, (a) 12, (b) 30, , (c) 40, , 87. Axial skeleton is made up of, (a) Skull only, (c) Complete vertebral column, , (b) Sternum only, (d) All of these, , (d) 14, , 88. What is the right sequence of bones in the ear ossicles of a mammal starting from the tympanum, inwards?, (a) Malleus, Incus, Stapes, (b) Malleus, Stapes, Incus, (c) Incus, Malleus, Stapes, (d) Stapes, Incus, Malleus, 89. Malleus is a part of, (a) Fore limbs of vertebrates, (b) Reproductive organs of cockroach, (c) Auditory ossicles of middle ear of human, (d) Skull of frog
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Locomotion and Movement20.11, , 90. In human beings, the thoracic basket is composed of, (a) Ribs and thoracic vertebrae, (b) Ribs and sternum, (c) Ribs, sternum and vertebrae, (d) Ribs, sternum and thoracic vertebrae, 91. The bone which is U-shaped is, (a) Frontal, (c) Hyoid, 92. Match the following:, Bone, 1. Skull, 2. Vertebrae, 3. Ribs, 4. Sternum, 5. Pectoral girdles, 6. Arms, 7. Ear ossicles, 8. Pelvic girdles, , (b) Vomer, (d) Molar, , –, –, –, –, –, –, –, –, , The correct pairing sequence is, (a) 8–3, 1–4, 6–2, 5–7, (c) 3–8, 1–4, 2–6, 7–5, , Number, 1. 24, 2. 60, 3. 22, 4. 1, 5. 2, 6. 4, 7. 6, 8. 33, (b) 3–8, 1–4, 6–2, 7–5, (d) None of these, , 93. The number of floating ribs in human body is, (a) 6 pairs, (b) 3 pairs, (c) 5 pairs, , (d) 2 pairs, , 94. The foramen magnum, occipital condyles are found in, (a) Parietal bone, (b) Ethmoid bone, (c) Sphenoid bone, (d) Occipital bone, 95. The acromion process articulates with the, (a) Scapula, (c) Ribs, , (b) Clavicle, (d) Vertebral column, , 96. The number of lumbar vertebrae in human vertebral column is, (a) 12, (b) 7, (c) 5, , (d) 2, , 97. How many ribs are present in human beings?, (a) 6 pairs, (b) 9 pairs, , (d) 15 pairs, , (c) 12 pairs, , 98. The cup-shaped cavity for the articulation of the head of the femur is called, (a) Glenoid cavity, (b) Acetabulum, (c) Obturator, (d) Sigmoid notch, 99. Ribs attached to sternum are, (a) First seven pairs, (c) First ten rib pairs, , (b) All ten ribs, (d) First five rib pairs
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20.12, , Locomotion and Movement, , 100. Which part is indicated as A, B, C, D, and E in the given figure?, A, , B, C, , D, E, , (a), (b), (c), (d), , A–Clavicle, B–Scapula, C–Humerus, D–Radius, E–Ulna, A–Humerus, B–Clavicle, C–Ulna,, D–Scapula, E–Radius, A–Ulna,, B–Humerus, C–Clavicle, D–Radius, E–Scapula, A–Radius, B–Ulna,, C–Scapula, D–Clavicle, E–Humerus, , 101. In humans, the radius and ulna are (shown in diagram of question number 100.), (a) Completely fused together, (b) Completely separated, (c) Fused in middle and separated at both the ends, (d) Separated but united at both the ends, 102. A shallow depression in the scapula which receives the head of the upper arm bone is known, as the, (a) Acetabulum, (b) Neural arch, (c) Glenoid cavity, (d) None of these, 103. Patella, the sesamoid bone is also known as, (a) Pisiform, (b) Replacing bone, , (c) Knee cap, , (d) None of these, , 104. Humerus bone is situated in, (a) Thigh, (b) Lower arm, , (c) Upper arm, , (d) Shank, , 105. The cup-shaped structure of pelvic girdle, the acetabulum in man is formed by, (a) Ilium, ischium and pubis, (b) Ilium, ischium and cotyloid, (c) Ilium and ischium, (d) Ilium and cotyloid, 106. The pectoral and pelvic girdles and the bones of limb form, (a) Axial skeleton, (b) Appendicular skeleton, (c) Visceral skeleton, (d) Outer skeleton, 107. The total number of bones in your right arm is, (a) 30, (b) 32, (c) 35, , (d) 40
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Locomotion and Movement20.13, , 108. An acromian process is characteristically found in mammals in, (a) Pelvic girdle, (b) Pectoral girdle, (c) Skull, , (d) Sternum, , 109. Which one of the following component is the part of pectoral girdle?, (a) Acetabulum, (b) Hilum, (c) Sternum, , (d) Glenoid cavity, , 110. Pelvic girdle of human consist of, (a) Ilium, ischium and pubis, (c) Coracoid, scapula and clavicle, , (b) Ilium, ischium and coracoid, (d) Ilium, coracoid and scapula, , 111. Innominate or hip bone is formed by the fusion of how many bones?, (a) 2, (b) 3, (c) 4, , (d) 5, , 112. Phallangeal formula of hand of man is, (a) 1, 2, 2, 2, 2, (b) 2, 1, 1, 1, 1, , (c) 2, 3, 3, 3, 3, , (d) 2, 3, 3, 2, 2, , 113. Appendicular skeleton includes all except, (a) Hind limb, (c) Amphicoelous vertebra, , (b) Fore limb, (d) Pectoral and pelvic girdle, , 114. Patella is associated with, (a) Elbow, (b) Knee, , (c) Neck, , (d) Wrist, , 115. Which one of the cartilage helps in early birth of a child, without damage to the pelvic girdle?, (a) Hyaline cartilage, (b) Elastic cartilage, (c) Calcified cartilage, (d) Fibrous cartilage, 116. The total number of bones in the hind limb of a man is, (a) 14, (b) 21, (c) 24, , (d) 30, , 117. Which of the following is an example of appendicular skeleton?, (a) Bones of skull, (b) Bones of vertebral column, (c) Ribs, (d) Bones of fore and hind limbs, 118. The longest bone of human body is, (a) Femur (thigh bones), (c) Patella (knee cap), , (b) Tibia, (d) Humerus, , 119. All are bones of forelimb except, (a) Radius, (b) Ulna, , (c) Humerus, , (d) Tibia, , 120. Carpals, metacarpals, tarsals, metatarsals are ____ and ____ in numbers respectively, (a) 8, 5, 7, 5, (b) 8, 7, 5, 5, (c) 8, 5, 8, 5, (d) 8, 5, 5, 7, 121. How many ankle bones are present in the human body?, (a) 7, (b) 5, (c) 8, , (d) 14, , 122. Each girdle of appendicular skeleton is made up of, (a) Two halves, (b) Three halves, (c) Four halves, , (d) Five halves, , 123. Each of the pectoral girdle consists of, (a) Clavicle, (b) Scapula, , (d) Both (a) and (b), , (c) Humerus, , 124. Scapula is a large triangular and flat bone situated in the dorsal part of the thorax between, ____ to ____ ribs., (a) 2, 5, (b) 2, 7, (c) 2, 6, (d) 2, 8
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20.14, , Locomotion and Movement, , 125. Which of the folowing is correct about clavicle?, (a) Known as collar bone, (b) Long bone, (c) It has two curvatures, (d) All of these, 126. Scapula has slightly elevated ridge called the spine, which projects as a flat, expanded process, known as, (a) Coracoid, (b) Greater tubercle (c) Acromion, (d) Lesser tubercle, Joints, 127. Joints are lubricated by, (a) Epidermis, (c) Tympanic membrane, , (b) Dermis, (d) Synovial fluid, , 128. Ball and socket joints can be seen in, (a) Wrist, (b) Fingers, , (c) Neck, , 129. The knee joint in between the thigh and lower leg is a, (a) Hinge joint, (b) Gliding joint, (c) Pivot joint, , (d) Shoulders, (d) Fixed joint, , 130. When the head of humerus fits into glenoid cavity, the joint is, (a) Ball and socket joint, (b) Hinge joint, (c) Pivot joint, (d) Saddle joint, 131. The joint between the carpal bones and tarsal bones is, (a) Gliding joint, (b) Ball and socket joint, (c) Hinge joint, (d) Saddle joint, 132. The joint between femur and tibio–fibula is, (a) Hinge joint, (b) Saddle joint, , (c) Pivot joint, , (d) Imperfect joint, , 133. Articulation of the atlas with the axis is an example of, (a) Hinge joint, (b) Ball and socket joint, (c) Gliding joint, (d) Pivot joint, 134. Sutural joints are found between, (a) Parietals of skull, (c) Glenoid cavity and pectoral girdle, , (b) Humerus and radius-ulna, (d) Thumb and metatarsal, , 135. Synovial joints is, (a) Pivot joint, (c) Ball and socket joint, , (b) Hinge joint, (d) All of these, , 136. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?, (a) Hinge joint, –, Between vertebrae, (b) Gliding joint, –, Between carpal and metacarpal of thumb, (c) Cartilaginous joint, –, between carpels, (d) Fibrous joint, –, Flat skull bones, 137. Name the joint that lies between sternum and the ribs in humans?, (a) Fibrous joint, (b) Gliding joint, (c) Cartilaginous joint (d) Angular joint, 138. The shoulder and hip are, (a) Pivot joint, (c) Ellipsoid joint, , (b) Hinge joint, (d) Ball and socket joint
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Locomotion and Movement20.15, , 139. Symphysis is made up of, (a) Fibrocartilage, (c) Elastic cartilage, , (b) Synovial fluid, (d) Hyaline cartilage, , Disorder of Muscular and Skeletal System, 140. Inflammation of joints due to the accumulation of uric acid crystals occurs in, (a) Osteoporosis, (b) Gout, (c) Tetany, (d) Rickets, 141. Myasthenia gravis is, (a) auto immune disorder affecting neuromuscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening and, paralysis of skeletal muscle, (b) progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle mostly due to genetic disorder, (c) rapid spasms (wild contractions) in muscle due to low Ca++ in body fluid, (d) inflammation of joints, 142. Progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle, mostly due to genetic disorder, is, (a) Osteoporosis, (b) Gout, (c) Tetany, (d) Muscular dystrophy, 143. Tetany is due to, (a) low Ca2+in body fluid, (b) high Ca2+in body fluid, (c) high concentration of uric acid in boy fluid, (d) all, 144. Name age-related disorder which is characterized by decreased bone mass and increased, chances of fractures, also decreased level of estrogen is a common cause in it., (a) Osteoporosis, (b) Gout, (c) Tetany, (d) Muscular dystrophy, 145. Smooth muscle fibres are, (a) cylindrical, unbranched, striated, multinucleate and voluntary, (b) spindle-shaped, unbranched, non-striated, uninucleate and involuntary, (c) cylindrical, unbranched, non-striated, multinucleate and involuntary, (d) spindle-shaped, unbranched, striated, uninucleate and voluntary, , Assertion and Reason Questions, Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given, below:, (a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the, assertion, (b) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the, assertion, (c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false, (d) If both the assertion and reason are false, 146. Assertion: Ciliary movement occurs in most of our internal tubular organs which are lined by, ciliated epithelium., Reason: Passage of ova through the female reproductive tract is also facilitated by the ciliary, movement.
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20.16, , Locomotion and Movement, , 147. Assertion: All locomotions are movements but all movements are not locomotion., Reason: Movement is one of the significant features of living beings., 148. Assertion: Ball and socket joints are the most mobile joints., Reason: Synovial fluid is present here in synovial cavity such arrangement allows considerable movement., 149. Assertion: Arthritis or inflammation of a joint makes the joint painful., Reason: Some toxic substances are deposited at the joint., 150. Assertion: Movement of body parts serves to change the body posture., Reason: Body parts move in relation to the body axis., 151. Assertion: There are similarities between the locomotion of unicellular organisms and, multicellular animal., Reason: Ciliary, flagellar and amoeboid movement occur in unicellular organisms., 152. Assertion: White muscle fibres have very less quantity of myoglobin., Reason: White muscle fibres have high number of sarcoplasmic reticulum., 153. Assertion: Each myosin filament is a polemerized carbohydrate., Reason: Actin filament is made up of meromysin., 154. Assertion: Skeleton helps in the blood cell formation., Reason: Blood flows through skeleton., 155. Assertion: Biceps and triceps are called antagonistic muscles., Reason: This is due to the fact that they contract and relax together., 156. Assertion: Muscle contraction force increases with rise in strength of stimulus., Reason: This is due to increased contraction of individual muscle fibres with increase in, stimulus strength., 157. Assertion: Muscle as a whole doesn’t obey all or none law., Reason: Each muscle fibre contracts maximally whenever it contracts., 158. Assertion: Amoeba shows simple form of movement, Reason: Streaming of protoplasm is found in amoeba, 159. Assertion: Tentacles in hydra perform multiple functions, Reason: Tentacles in hydra use for capture of prey as well as for locomotion., 160. Assertion: Macrophages and leucocytes in blood exhibit amoeboid movement, Reason: They can form pseudopodia by streaming of protoplasm, 161. Assertion: We can remove dust particle and some foreign substances inhaled along with the, atmospheric air from trachea, Reason: Trachea is lined with ciliated epithelium, 162. Assertion: Ca2+ ion plays important role in muscle contraction, Reason: Calcium ion binds to subunit of troponin on actin filament and removes the masking, of active sites for myosin, 163. Assertion: Skeletal muscle fibre is a syncitium., Reason: Sarcoplasm of skeletal muscle fibre contain many nuclei.
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Locomotion and Movement20.17, , 164. Assertion: Skeletal muscles are striated muscles, Reason: They have striped appearance under the microscope, 165. Assertion: Smooth muscles are involuntary muscles, Reason: Their activities are not under voluntary control of the nervous system., 166. Assertion: Myosin is structural protein but also act as enzyme., Reason: Myosin is use to form myofibril and can hydrolyse ATP., 167. Assertion: Repeated activation of skeletal muscle can lead to fatigue, Reason: Accumulation of lactic acid occur due to anaerobic respiration, 168. Assertion: Red fibres are referred as aerobic muscles, Reason: These muscles contain large number of mitochondria which utilize the large amount, of oxygen stored in them for ATP production., 169. Assertion: Bone have very hard matrix, Reason: Matrix of bone contain calcium salt in it, 170. Assertion: Gout is inflammation of muscles., Reason: It occur due to deposition of urea in muscles., 171. Assertion: In parathyroid tetany rapid spasm of muscle occurs., Reason: It is due to low calcium ion in body fluid., 172. Assertion: Myasthenia gravis is autoimmune disorder., Reason: It results due to antibodies are formed that block our own nicotinic acetylcholine, receptor at neuromuscular junction., 173. Assertion: Osteoporosis is characterised by increase in bone mass., Reason: Its common cause is increased level of oestrogen., , previous year questions, 1. Which one of the following pairs of structures is correctly matched with their corrected, description?, , [AIPMT MAINS 2010], Structures , Description, (A) Tibia and fibula, → Both form parts of knee joint, (B) Cartilage and cornea, → , No blood supply but it does require, oxygen for respiratory need, (C) Shoulder joint and elbow joint, → Ball and socket type of joint, (D) Premolars and molars, → 20 in all and 3 rooted, (a) (A), (b) (B), (c) (C), (d) (D), 2. Which one of the following is the correct description of a certain part of a normal human, skeleton?, [AIPMT MAINS 2010], (a) Parietal bone and the temporal bone of the skull are joined by fibrous joint., (b) First vertebra is axis which articulates with the occipital condyles.
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20.18, , Locomotion and Movement, , (c) The 9th and 10th pairs of ribs are called the floating ribs., (d) Glenoid cavity is a depression to which the thigh bone articulates., 3. The following pairs of the human skeletal parts are correctly matched with their respective, inclusive skeletal category and one pair is not matched. Identify the non-matching pair., , [AIPMT MAINS 2011], Pair of skeletal parts, Category, (a) Sternum and ribs, Axial skeleton, (b) Clavicle and glenoid cavity, Pelvic girdle, (c) Humerus and ulna, Appendicular skeleton, (d) Malleus and stapes, Ear ossicles, 4. Which one of the following pairs of chemical substances is correctly categorized?, , [AIPMT MAINS 2012], (a) Pepsin and prolactin - Two digestive enzymes secreted in stomach, (b) Troponin and myosin - Complex proteins in striated muscles, (c) Secretin and rhodopsin - Polypeptide hormones, (d) Calcitonin and thymosin - Thyroid hormones, 5. Select the correct statement regarding the specific disorder of muscular or skeletal system., , [AIPMT PRE 2012], (a) Muscular dystrophy: Age related shortening of muscles., (b) Osteporosis: Decrease in bone mass and higher chances of fractures with advancing age., (c) Myasthenia gravis: Auto immune disorder which inhibits sliding of myosin filaments., (d) Gout: Inflammation of joints due to extra deposition of calcium., 6. The H-zone in the skeletal muscles fibre is due to, , [AIPMT 2013], (a) The absence of myofibrils in the central portion of A-band., (b) The central gap between myosin filaments in the A-band., (c) The central gap between actin filaments extending through myosin filaments in the A-band., (d) Extension of myosin filaments in the central portion of the A-band., 7. Select the correct statement with respect to locomotion in humans., , (a) A decreased level of progesterone causes osteoporosis in old people., (b) Accumulation of uric acid crystals in joints causes their inflammation., (c) The vertebral column has 10 thoracic vertebrae., (d) The joint between adjacent vertebrae is a fibrous joint., 8. The characteristics and an example of a synovial joint in humans is, , (a), (b), (c), (d), , Characteristics , Fluid cartilage between two bones, limited movements, Fluid filled between two joints, provides cushion, Fluid filled synovial cavity between two bones, Lymph filled between two bones, limited movement, , [AIPMT 2013], , [AIPMT 2013], , Examples, → Knee joint, → Skull bones, → Joint between atlas and axis, → Gliding joint between, carpals
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Locomotion and Movement20.19, , 9. Select the correct matching of the type of the joint with the example in human skeletal system., , [AIPMT 2014], Type of joint Example, (a) Cartilaginous joint, Between frontal and pariental, (b) Pivot joint, Between third and fourth cervical vertebrae, (c) Hinge joint, Between humerus and pectoral girdle, (d) Gliding joint, Between carpals, 10. Stimulation of a muscle fibre by a motor neuron occurs at, , (a) The neuromuscular junction, (b) The transverse tubules, (c) The myofibril, (d) The sacroplasmic reticulum, , [AIPMT 2014], , 11. The sliding filament theory can be best explained as, , [AIPMT 2015], (a) When myofilaments slide pass each other actin filaments shorten while myosin filaments, do not shorten., (b) Actin and myosin filaments shorten and slide pass each other., (c) Actin and myosin filaments do not shorten but rather slide pass each other., (d) When myofilaments slide pass each other, the myosin filaments shorten while actin, filaments do not shorten., 12. Glenoid cavity articulates, , (a) Clavicle with acromion, (c) Clavicle with scapula, , [AIPMT 2015], (b) Scapula with acromion, (d) Humerus with scapula, , 13. Which of the following joints would hallow no movement?, , (a) Cartilaginous joint, (b) Synovial joint, (c) Ball and socket joint, (d) Fibrous joint, , [RE-AIPMT 2015], , 14. Which of the following is not a function of the skeletal system?, , [RE-AIPMT 2015], (a) Storage of minerals, (b) Production of body heat, (c) Locomotion, (d) Production of erythrocytes, 15. Lack of relaxation between successive stimuli in sustained muscle contraction is known as:, , [NEET - I, 2016], (a) Spasm, (b) Fatigue, (c) Tetanus, (d) Tonus, 16. Name the ion responsible for unmasking of active sites for myosin for cross-bridge activity, during muscle contraction., [NEET - II, 2016], (a) Magnesium, (b) Sodium, (c) Potassium, (d) Calcium
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20.20, , Locomotion and Movement, , NCERT Exemplar Questions, 1. Match the following and mark the correct option:, (A), (B), (C), (D), , Column I, Fast muscle fibres, Slow muscle fibres, Actin filament, Sarcomere, , (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), , Column II, Myoglobin, Lactic acid, Contractile unit, I-band, , Options:, (a) A – i, B – ii, C – iv, D – iii, (c) A – ii, B – i, C – iv, D – iii, 2. Ribs are attached to, (a) Scapula, , (b) Sternum, , (b) A – ii, B – i, C – iii, D – iv, (d) A – iii, B – ii, C – iv, D – i, (c) Clavicle, , (d) Ilium, , 3. What is the type of movable joint present between the atlas and axis?, (a) Pivot, (b) Saddle, (c) Hinge, , (d) Gliding, , 4. ATPase of the muscle is located in, (a) Actinin, (b) Troponin, , (d) Actin, , (c) Myosin, , 5. Intervertebral disc is found in the vertebral column of, (a) Birds, (b) Reptiles, (c) Mammals, , (d) Amphibians, , 6. Which one of the following is showing the correct sequential order of vertebrae in the vertebral, column of human beings?, (a) Cervical-Iumbar-thoracic-sacral-coccygeal, (b) Cervical-thoracic-sacral-Iumbar-coccygeal, (c) Cervical-sacral-thoracic-Iurnbar-coccygeal, (d) Cervical-thoracic-Iumbar-sacral-coccygeal, 7. Which one of following options is incorrect?, (a) Hinge joint – Present between humerus and pectoral girdle, (b) Pivot joint – Present between atlas, axis and occipital condyle, (c) Gliding joint – Present between the carpals, (d) Saddle joint – Present between carpal and metacarpal of thumb, 8. Knee joint and elbow joints are examples of, (a) Saddle joint, (c) Pivot joint, , (b) Ball and socket joint, (d) Hinge joint, , 9. Macrophages and leucocytes exhibit, (a) Ciliary movement, (c) Amoeboid movement, , (b) Flagellar movement, (d) Gliding movement, , 10. Which one of the following is not a disorder of bone?, (a) Arthritis, (b) Osteoporosis, (c) Rickets, (d) Atherosclerosis
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Locomotion and Movement20.21, , 11. Which one of the following statement is incorrect?, (a) Heart muscles are striated and involuntary., (b) The muscles of hands and legs are striated and voluntary., (c) The muscles located in the inner walls of alimentary canal are striated and involuntary., (d) Muscles located in the reproductive tracts are unstriated and involuntary., 12. Which one of the following statements is true?, (a) Head of humerus bone articulates with the acetabulum of pectoral girdle., (b) Head of humerus bone articulates with the glenoid cavity of pectoral girdle., (c) Head of humerus bone articulates with a cavity called acetabulum of pelvic girdle., (d) Head of humerus bone articulates with a glenoid cavity of pelvic girdle., 13. Muscles with characteristic striations and involuntary nature are, (a) Muscles in the wall of alimentary canal, (b) Muscles of the heart, (c) Muscles assisting locomotion, (d) Muscles of the eyelids, 14. Match the followings and mark the correct option:, Column I, (A) Sternum, (B) Glenoid Cavity, (C) Freely movable joint, (D) Cartilaginous joint, Options:, (a) A – ii, B – i, C – iii, D – iv, (c) A – ii, B – i, C – iv, D – iii, , (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), , Column II, Synovial fluid, Vertebrae, Pectoral girdle, Flat bones, (b) A – iv, B – iii, C – i, D – ii, (d) A – iv, B – i, C – ii, D – iii, , Answer Keys, Practice Questions, 1. (a), 11. (d), 21. (c), 31. (a), 41. (d), 51. (b), 61. (d), 71. (d), 81. (a), 91. (c), 101. (d), 111. (b), 121. (d), 131. (a), 141. (a), , 2. (d), 12. (a), 22. (a), 32. (b), 42. (d), 52. (a), 62. (a), 72. (d), 82. (a), 92. (d), 102. (c), 112. (c), 122. (a), 132. (a), 142. (d), , 3. (a), 13. (b), 23. (d), 33. (b), 43. (a), 53. (a), 63. (d), 73. (c), 83. (c), 93. (d), 103. (c), 113. (c), 123. (d), 133. (d), 143. (a), , 4. (d), 14. (d), 24. (b), 34. (b), 44. (d), 54. (b), 64. (c), 74. (c), 84. (b), 94. (d), 104. (c), 114. (b), 124. (b), 134. (a), 144. (a), , 5. (d), 15. (d), 25. (d), 35. (b), 45. (b), 55. (b), 65. (c), 75. (a), 85. (b), 95. (b), 105. (a), 115. (d), 125. (d), 135. (d), 145. (b), , 6. (d), 16. (c), 26. (a), 36. (c), 46. (c), 56. (a), 66. (c), 76. (c), 86. (d), 96. (c), 106. (b), 116. (d), 126. (c), 136. (d), , 7. (d), 17. (d), 27. (c), 37. (d), 47. (b), 57. (d), 67. (a), 77. (d), 87. (d), 97. (c), 107. (a), 117. (d), 127. (d), 137. (c), , 8. (c), 18. (d), 28. (d), 38. (d), 48. (c), 58. (c), 68. (d), 78. (a), 88. (a), 98. (b), 108. (b), 118. (a), 128. (d), 138. (d), , 9. (d), 19. (d), 29. (d), 39. (d), 49. (c), 59. (b), 69. (b), 79. (a), 89. (c), 99. (a), 109. (d), 119. (d), 129. (a), 139. (a), , 10. (d), 20. (d), 30. (b), 40. (d), 50. (a), 60. (d), 70. (a), 80. (b), 90. (d), 100. (a), 110. (a), 120. (a), 130. (a), 140. (b)
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20.22, , Locomotion and Movement, , Assertion and Reason Questions, 146. (b) 147. (a) 148. (a) 149. (c) 150. (b) 151. (b) 152. (b) 153. (d) 154. (c) 155. (c), 156. (c) 157. (b) 158. (a) 159. (a) 160. (a) 161. (a) 162. (a) 163. (a) 164. (a) 165. (a), 166. (a) 167. (a) 168. (a) 169. (a) 170. (d) 171. (a) 172. (a) 173. (d), Previous Year Questions, 1. (b), 11. (c), , 2. (a), 12. (d), , 3. (b), 13. (d), , 4. (b), 14. (b), , 5. (b), 15. (c), , 6. (c), 16. (d), , 7. (b), , 8. (c), , 9. (d), , 10. (a), , 8. (d), , 9. (c), , 10. (d), , NCERT Exemplar Questions, 1. (c), 11. (c), , 2. (b), 12. (b), , 3. (a), 13. (b), , 4. (c), 14. (b), , 5. (c), , 6. (d), , 7. (a)
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Neural Control, and Co-ordination, , CHAPTER, , 21, , prACtiCe Questions, Human Neural System, 1. Select the incorrect statement:, (a) Coordination is the process through which two or more organ interact and complement the, function of one another., (b) Neural system provides on organized network of point to point connection for quick, coordination., (c) Neural organization is complex in lower invertebrates., (d) Vertebrates have more developed neural system., 2., Human neural system, , B, , A, , Brain, , C, , Somatic neural, system, , Autonomic neural, system, , D, , E, , Identify A, B, C, D and E:, (a) A–Central Nervous System (CNS), B–Peripheral Nervous System (PNS), C–Spinal cord,, D–Sympathetic Neural System, E–Parasympathetic Neural System, (b) A–Peripheral Nervous System (PNS), B–Parasympathetic Neural System, C–Central, Nervous System (CNS), D–Sympathetic Neural System, E–Spinal cord, (c) A–Parasympathetic Neural System, B–Spinal cord, C–Central Nervous System (CNS),, D–Sympathetic Neural System, E–Peripheral Nervous System (PNS), (d) A–Central Nervous System (CNS), B–Spinal cord, C–Peripheral Nervous System (PNS),, D–Sympathetic Neural System, E–Parasympathetic Neural System
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21.2, , 3. Somatic neural system transmits impulse to, (a) Skeletal muscles, (c) Smooth muscles, , Neural Control and Co-ordination, , (b) Involuntary organs, (d) All of these, , 4. Which of the following lacks a neural system?, (a) Hydra, (b) Silver fish, (c) Spongia (Sponges), (d) Ophiura, 5. Nervous system of hydra is composed of, (a) Ganglia chain, (b) Vertical ganglion chain interconnected by commissure, (c) Network of nerves, (d) Brain, 6. Nissl’s granules are found in all except, (a) Cyton, (c) Axon, , (b) Dendrites, (d) Cell body, , 7. Which of the following system relays impulse from CNS to skeletal muscles?, (a) Somatic neural system, (b) Sympathetic neural system, (c) Parasympathetic neural system, (d) Autonomic neural system, 8. Dendrites transmit impulse ____ cell body and axon transmits impulse ____ cell body., (a) towards, away from, (b) away, towards, (c) towards, towards, (d) away, away, 9. Bipolar axons are found in, (a) Retina of eye, (c) Mesencephalon, , (b) Cerebral cortex, (d) Embryonic stage, , 10. Unipolar axons are found in, (a) Respiratory epithelium, (c) Embryo, , (b) Retina, (d) Cerebral cortex, , 11. Schwann cell is absent in, (a) Myelinated neuron, (c) Astrocytes, , (b) Non myelinated, (d) Both (b) and (c), , 12. Neuron can, (a) Detect stimuli, (c) Transmit stimuli, , (b) Receive stimuli, (d) All of these, , 13. Neuron is a _____ structure composed of three major parts cell body _____ and axon., (a) Macroscopic, dendrites, (b) Microscopic, dendrites, (c) Microscopic, cyton, (d) Microscopic, soma
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Neural Control and Co-ordination21.3, , 14. Question A and B is related to digram given below., A, Nissl’s granules, B, Nucleus, , Schwan cell, C, Myelin, sheath, D, Axon, terminal, Synaptic, knob, Structure of a neuron, , A), (a), B), (a), (c), , Which part do not contain Nissl’s granule?, A, (b) B, (c) C, (d) All of these, Which path of transmission is correct?, A→B→C, (b) B → A → C, C→B→A, (d) B → A → B → C, , 15. Match the Column:, Column I, A. Unipolar, , –, , B. Bipolar, , –, , C. Multipolar, , –, , (a) A−1, B−3, C−2, (c) A−3, B−2, C−1, 16. Myelinated nerve fibre is found in, (a) Spinal nerve, (c) Both (a) and (b), , Column II, 1. Cell body with one axon only, found, usually in the embryonic stage., 2. Cell body with one axon and two or more, dendrites, found in cerebral cortex., 3. Cell body with one axon and one, dendrite, found in retina of eye., (b) A−2, B−1, C−3, (d) A−1, B−2, C−3, (b) Cranial nerve, (d) None of these
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21.4, , Neural Control and Co-ordination, , 17. Unmyelinated nerve fibres are commonly found in, (a) ANS, (b) Somatic neural system, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) None of these, Central Nervous System, 18. The outermost of the 3 cranial meninges is, (a) Arachnoid, (b) Dura, , (c) Pia, , (d) Sclera, , 19. Brain stem is formed by, (a) Fore brain, (b) Mid brain, , (c) Hind brain, , (d) Both (b) and (c), , 20. Right and left cerebral hemispheres are connected via, (a) Corpus striatum, (b) Corpus callosum, (c) Thalamus, (d) Hippocampus, 21. Forebrain consist of, (a) Cerebrum, , (b) Thalamus, , (c) Hypothalamus, , 22. The cerebrum is made up of how many cerebral hemisphere?, (a) 1, (b) 2, (c) 3, , (d) All of these, (d) 4, , 23. Select the incorrect statement:, (a) Cerebral cortex, greyish in appearance thrown into prominent folds known as sulci and gyri., (b) Concentrated neuron cell body gives grey color to the cerebral cortex., (c) Fibres of the tract, covered with myelin sheath, constitute inner part of cerebral hemisphere., (d) Cerebrum is wrapped around the structure called medulla., 24. Cerebral cortex contains, (a) Sensory area, (c) Large association area, , (b) Motor area, (d) All of these, , 25. The association area in cerebral cortex is responsible for, (a) Inter sensory association, (b) Memory, (c) Communication, (d) All of these, 26. The major coordinating centre for sensory and motor signaling is, (a) Thalamus, (b) Hypothalamus, (c) Medulla, , (d) Pons, , 27. Hypothalamus contain the brain centre which controls the, (a) Body temperature, (b) Urge for eating, (c) Urge for drinking, (d) All of these, 28. Which of the following is true about hypothalamus?, (a) Situated at the base of thalamus, (b) Contains neurosecretory cell, (c) It contains the centre for thermoregulation, (d) All of these, 29. Limbic system consists of, (a) Amygdala, (b) Hippocampus, , (c) Both (a) and (b), , (d) None of these, , 30. The part of brain located between the thalamus, hypothalamus of fore brain and pons is, known as, (a) Mid-brain, (b) Hind-brain, (c) Limbic system, (d) All of these
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Neural Control and Co-ordination21.5, , 31. Which of the following is true about midbrain?, (a) A canal called cerebral aqueduct passes through the mid-brain., (b) , The dorsal portion of mid-brain consists of four round swelling called corpora, quadrigemina., (c) It forms the part of brain stem., (d) All the above, 32. The hind-brain consists of, (a) Pons, (c) Cerebellum, , (b) Medulla oblongata, (d) All of these, , 33. Hypothalamus controls, (a) Body’s thermostat, (c) Gastric secretions, , (b) Respiration, (d) All of these, , 34. Limbic system controls, (a) Sexual behaviour, (c) Affection, , (b) Motivation, (d) All of these, , 35. Corpora quadrigemina are present on _____ portion of Mesencephalon (midbrain)., (a) Anterior, (b) Dorsal, (c) Ventral, (d) Lateral, 36. Which of the following is false about hind-brain?, (a) Pons, a part of it consist of fibre tracts that interconnects different regions of brain., (b) The cerebellum part of it has very convoluted surface to accommodate many neurons., (c) Medulla of this part is connected to the spinal cord., (d) The hind-brain is known for regular excitement, pleasure, rag and fear., 37. Medulla contains the centre for, (a) Respiration, (c) Gastric Secretion, , (b) Cardiovascular reflex, (d) All of these, , 38. Which of the following consists of fibre tracts interconnecting the different regions of brain?, (a) Cerebellum, (b) Pons varoli, (c) Medulla, (d) All of these, 39. Which of the following helps in the regulation of respiration?, (a) Medulla, (b) Cerebral cortex, (c) Pons, 40. Reflex action is under, (a) CNS, (c) Peripheral Nervous Stimulation, , (b) Spiral cord, (d) Voluntary response, , 41. The dorsal nerve root ganglion is, (a) Bipolar, (b) Unipolar, , (c) Pseudounipolar, , 42. In spiral cord of humans, the grey matter is _____ shaped., (a) Circular, (b) Irregular, (c) Butterfly, , (d) Both (a) and (c), , (d) Multipolar, (d) None of these, , 43. White matter is _____ in brain and _____ in spiral cord (in case of humans), (a) Outside, inside, (b) In, out, (c) In, in, (d) Out, out, 44. Resting axonal membrane is, (a) Unpolarized, (c) Polarized and more permeable to Na+, , (b) Unpolarized and more permeable to K+, (d) Polarized and more permeable to K+
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21.6, , 45. Na/K pumps transports, (a) 3Na+ out for 2K+ in, (c) 2Na+ out for 3K+ in, , Neural Control and Co-ordination, , (b) 3Na+ in for 2K+ out, (d) 2Na+ in for 3K+ out, , 46. Which of the following is true about neural membrane?, (a) Different type of ion channels present., (b) Ion channels are selectively permeable., (c) Impermeable to negatively charged protein present in axoplasm., (d) All the above, 47. Axoplasm have (polarized), (a) High K+ ion, (c) Negatively charged proteins, , (b) Low Na+ ion, (d) All of these, , 48. The electrical potential difference across the resting plasma membrane is called as, (a) Spike potential, (b) Action potential, (c) Resting potential, (d) All of these, 49. Depolarization occurs due to, (b) Eflux of Na+, (a) Influx of Na+, , (c) Influx of K+, , (d) Eflux of K+, , 50. The correct sequence for depolarization and repolarization is, (A) Stimulus applied at a site on polarized membrane, (B) Increase the permeability for Na+, (C) Generation of A.P.(Action Potential), (D) Increase the permeability for K+, (E) Restoration of membrane potential, (a) A → B → C → D → E, (b) B → A → C → D → E, (c) A → D → C → B → E, (d) A → B → D → C → E, 51. Unidirectional transmission of the nerve impulse is maintained by, (a) Interneurons, (b) Myelin sheath, (c) Synapse, (d) Membrane polarity, 52. Select the total number of true statements from the following., 1) There are two types of synapses, namely electrical synapses and chemical synapses., 2) Electrical synapses are rare in our system., 3) At chemical synapse, the membranes of pre- and post-synaptic neuron are in very close, proximity., 4) Transmission of an impulse across electrical synapses is very similar to impulse conduction, along a single axon., 5) At a chemical synapse, the membrane of the pre- and post-synaptic neurons are separated, by a fluid-filled space called synaptic cleft., (a) 2, (b) 3, (c) 4, (d) 5, 53. Chemicals called _____ are involved in the transmission of impulses at chemical synapse., (a) Neurohormones, (b) Neurotransmitters, (c) Receptors, (d) Interferon, 54. Which element ion helps in releasing Ach at synaptic cleft?, (b) K+, (c) Ca+2, (a) Na+, , (d) PO43-
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Neural Control and Co-ordination21.7, , 55. The new potential developed on post-synaptic membrane is, (a) Excitatory always, (b) Inhibitory always, (c) May be excitatory or inhibitory, (d) Neither excitatory nor inhibitory, 56. Identify A to H in the given figure., A, B, C, D, E, F, G, , H, , (a) A—Neurotransmitters, B—Pre-synaptic membrane, C—Receptors, D—Axon,, E—Synaptic vesicles, F—Axon terminal, G—Synaptic cleft, H—Post-synaptic membrane, (b) A—Axon, B—Axon terminal, C—Synaptic vesicles, D—Pre-synaptic membrane,, E—Synaptic cleft, F—Post-synaptic membrane, G—receptors, H—Neurotransmitters, (c) A—Receptors, B—Post-synaptic membrane, C—Pre-synaptic membrane, D—Axon, terminal, E—Neurotransmitters, F—Synaptic cleft, G—Synaptic vesicles, H—Axon, (d) A—Axon terminal, B—Neurotransmitters, C—Synaptic vesicles, D—Axon, E—Presynaptic membrane, F—Post-synaptic membrane, G—Synaptic vesicles, H—Synaptic, cleft, 57. Reflex action, (a) Occurs involuntarily, (c) Protective, , (b) Requires the involvement of CNS, (d) All of these, , 58. Smallest reflex consists of, (a) Afferent neuron (Receptor), (c) Both (a) and (b), , (b) Efferent neuron (effector or excitor), (d) None of these, , 59. In reflex action, the reflex arc is formed by, (a) Muscle, receptor, brain, (c) Receptor, spinal cord, muscle, , (b) Brain, spinal cord, muscle, (d) Receptor, muscle, spinal cord, , 60. Which of the following are due to reflex action?, (a) Vomiting, (b) Sneezing, (c) Coughing, (d) All of these, 61. Which of the following are example of reflexes?, (a) Knee-jerk reflex, (b) Corneal reflex, (c) Papillary reflex, (d) All of these
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21.8, , Neural Control and Co-ordination, , 62. In the diagram of the lateral view of the human brain, the parts are indicated by alphabets., Choose the answer in which these alphabets have been correctly matched with the parts which, they indicate?, A, E, B, C, D, , (a) A–Temporal lobe, B–Parietal lobe, C–Cerebellum, D–Medulla oblongata,, E–Frontal lobe, (b) A–Frontal lobe, B–Temporal lobe, C–Cerebrum, D–Medulla oblongata,, E–Occipital lobe, (c) A–Temporal lobe, B–Parietal lobe, C–Cerebrum, D–Medulla oblongata,, E–Frontal lobe, (d) A–Frontal lobe, B–Temporal lobe, C–Cerebellum, D–Medulla oblongata,, E–Occipital lobe, 63. The site for processing of vision, hearing, speech, memory, intelligence, emotions and, thoughts is, (a) Brain, (b) Hear, (c) Lungs, (d) Kidney, 64. Eyes are located in, (a) Eye orbits, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (b) Depression in sphenoid bone, (d) None of these, , 65. Choroid is blue due to _________, (a) Lack of O2 in tissues, (c) Excess of blood vessels, , (b) Due to pigment, (d) None of these, , 66. Choroid thickens anteriorly to form, (a) Iris, (c) Suspensory ligaments, , (b) Ciliary body, (d) None of these, , 67. The diameter of pupil is regulated by, (a) Lens, (c) Muscles of iris, , (b) Ciliary muscles, (d) All of these, , 68. Cells located in retina are, (a) Photoreceptor cells, (c) Ganglion cells, , (b) Bipolar cell, (d) All of these, , 69. Layers in the wall of eyeballs from inside outwards are, (a) Retina, choroid, sclerotic, (b) Sclerotic, choroid, retina, (c) Choroid, retina, sclerotic, (d) Choroid, sclerotic, retina, 70. Which layer of an eyeball wall contains abundant blood vessels?, (a) Lens, (b) Retina, (c) Choroid, , (d) Sclerotic
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Neural Control and Co-ordination21.9, , 71. Iris is a part of, (a) Choroid only, (c) Sclera and choroid, , (b) Retina only, (d) Choroid and retina, , 72. The size of aperture of the pupil of one eye is controlled by, (a) Iris, (b) Retina, (c) Cornea, , (d) Conjunctiva, , 73. Eye lens of a man is, (a) Biconcave, , (c) Concave, , (d) Convex, , 74. Cornea is a transparent part of, (a) Choroid, (b) Sclera, , (c) Conjunctiva, , (d) Retina, , 75. The second layer of the eyeball is called, (a) Choroid, (b) Retina, , (c) Cornea, , (d) Sclera, , 76. The iris of the eye is an extension of, (a) Cornea, (b) Sclerotic, , (c) Retina, , (d) Choroid, , (b) Biconvex, , 77. The suspensory ligament (Zonule of Zinn) is a part of, (a) Tongue, (b) Brain, (c) Heart, , (d) Eye, , 78. The choroid layer is thin over the _________ of the eye ball, (a) Anterior two-third, (b) Posterior two-third, (c) Lateral two-third, (d) Posterior one-third, 79. Find out the incorrect statement:, (a) Lens is a transparent and crystalline structure., (b) Iris is pigmented and opaque layer., (c) The aperture surrounded by iris is called pupil., (d) Twilight vision is the function of cones., 80. Aqueous humor is present, (a) In front of the retina, (c) Behind the conjunctiva, , (b) In front of cornea, (d) In front of lens, , 81. Retinal cells involved in colour vision are, (a) Cones, (b) Rods, , (c) Neurons, , (d) Neuroglial cells, , 82. Which of the following is not a basic colour in trichromatic vision?, (a) Red, (b) Yellow, (c) Green, , (d) Blue, , 83. Anterior chamber of the eye is the space between, (a) Cornea and lens (b) Cornea and iris, (c) Lens and retina, , (d) Lens and iris, , 84. Which of the following passes from lens to blindspot?, (a) Eustachian canal, (b) Canal of Schlemm, (c) Hyaloid canal, (d) Semicircular canal, 85. Colour vision in man is, (a) Trichromatic, (b) Bichromatic, , (c) Monochromatic, , 86. Quantum of light entering the eye through the pupil is dependent on, (a) Ciliary body, (b) Lens, (c) Retina, , (d) Achromatic, (d) Iris
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21.10, , Neural Control and Co-ordination, , 87. Rhodopsin is a constituent of, (a) Choroid, (b) Sclera, , (c) Cornea, , 88. In nocturnal birds, the retina mostly contains, (a) Cones, (c) Both in equal numbers, , (b) Rods, (d) None of these, , 89. Macula lutea is located, (a) In the middle of retina, (c) Below pupil, , (b) Below lens, (d) At posterior polylateral to blind spot, , 90. Photopic vision is associated with, (a) Rods, (b) Cones, , (c) Both (a) and (b), , (d) None of these, , 91. Retina is the most sensitive at, (a) Optic disc, (b) Periphery, , (c) Macula lutea, , (d) Fovea centralis, , 92. The aperture controlling light passage in the eye is, (a) Pupil, (b) Sclerotic, (c) Blindspot, 93. The space between cornea and lens is, (a) Aqueous chamber, (c) Canal of Schlemm, , (b) Vitreous chamber, (d) Fovea centralis, , 94. Cones are sensitive to, (a) Dim light only, (c) Both dim and bright light, , (b) Bright light only, (d) None of these, , 95. Colour is perceived by, (a) Rods in retina, (c) Corneal-lens complex, , (b) Cones in retina, (d) Lens, , 96. Rhodopsin (visual purple) of the eye will require, (a) Guava, (b) Carrot, (c) Mango, , (d) None, , (d) Iris, , (d) Wheat, , 97. Area of the most acute vision in the eye where sharp and bright image formed is, (a) Yellow spot, (b) Blindspot, (c) Pupil, (d) Lens, 98. An area of the retina which does not have rods or cones are, (a) Red spot, (b) Blue spot, (c) Blind spot, , (d) Black spot, , 99. Vitamin A combines with a protein in the retina to produce, (a) Glaucoma, (b) Night blindness, (c) Rhodopsin, (d) Colour blindness, 100. The fovea is a _________ portion of the _________, (a) Thick-out, sclera, (b) Thin-out, choroid, (c) Thin-out, retina, (d) Thick-out, retina, 101. When all three types of cones are stimulated equally, a sensation of _________ light is, produced?, (a) Black, (b) White, (c) Blue, (d) Green
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Neural Control and Co-ordination21.11, , 102. Select the incorrect matching:, Part, (a) Optic nerve, (b) Cones, (c) Cornea and lens, (d) Pupil, , –, –, –, –, , Function, Carry impulse to visual cortex, Colour vision, Focusing of light on retina, Generate action potential, , 103. Vitreous chamber is filled with, (a) Transparent sol called vitreous humour, (b) Transparent gel called vitreous humour, (c) Opaque sol called vitreous humour, (d) Opaque gel called vitreous humour, 104. Select the incorrect statement from the following:, (a) Rhodopsin is also known as visual purple., (b) Rods contain a purplish-red protein, which in turn contains the derivative of Vitamin A., (c) In human eye three type of cones are present., (d) At fovea of retina, the resolution (visual acuity) is minimum., 105. The location at which Optic nerve leaves the eye balls is, (a) Slightly below the posterior pole of eye ball, (b) Slightly above the posterior pole of eye ball, (c) Anterior pole of eye ball, (d) Macula lutea, 106. Arrange the following steps of mechanism of vision in order., (1) Light induces dissociation of the retinal from opsin., (2) Change in the structure of opsin., (3) Change in membrane permeability., (4) Potential differences are generated in photoreceptor cells., (5) Generation of AP is ganglion cell through bipolar cells., (6) AP is transmitted via optic nerve to visual cortex., (7) At visual cortex, nerve impulses are analysed and the image formed on retina is recognized, based on the earlier memory and experience., (8) Focusing of visible light on retina., (a) 8,1,2,3,4,5,6,7, (b) 8,1,7,2,6,3,5,4, (c) 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8, (d) 8,7,6,5,4,3,2,1, 107. Ear performs which of the following sensory functions?, (A) Vision, (B) Olfaction, (C) Hearing, (D) Maintenance of body balance, (a) A, B, C, (b) B and C Only, (c) C and D Only, (d) C Only
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21.12, , Neural Control and Co-ordination, , 108. Identify A to F in the given figure., A, , B, C, F, , E, D, , (a) A–Cochlear nerve, B–Incus, C–Eustachian tube, D–Cochlea, E–External auditory canal,, F–Tympanic membrane, (b) A–External auditory canal, B–Eustachian tube, C–Temporal bone, D–Steps in oval, window, E–Tympanic membrane, F–Cochlear nerve, (c) A–Cochlea, B–Tympanic membrane, C–Incus, D–Cochlear nerve, E–Eustachian tube,, F–External auditory canal, (d) A–Temporal bone, B–Steps in oval window, C–Cochlear nerve, D–Eustachian tube,, E–Tympanic membrane, F–External auditory canal, 109. Anatomically the ear can be divided into how many major sections?, (a) 1, (b) 2, (c) 3, , (d) 4, , 110. Ear is divided into, (a) Outer ear, , (d) All of these, , (b) Middle ear, , 111. Tympanic membrane consists of, (a) Skin on outside, (c) Mucus membrane on inside, , (c) Inner ear, , (b) Connective tissue in middle part, (d) All of these, , 112. The _________ is attached to the tympanic membrane and the _________ is attached to the, oval window of the cochlea., (a) Malleus, Incus, (b) Incus, Stapes, (c) Malleus, Stapes, (d) Stapes, Malleus, 113. Select the incorrect statement:, (a) Eustachian tube connects the middle ear cavity with the pharynx., (b) The eustachian tube helps in equalizing the pressure on either sides of ear drum., (c) Oval window is a part of cochlea., (d) The ear ossicle decreases the efficiency of transmission of sound waves to the inner ear., 114. Select the correct matching:, (a) Inner ear ossicle → Malleus, incus and stapes, (b) Scala media → Filled with perilymph, (c) Fluid filled inner ear → Labyrinth, (d) Bony labyrinth → Surrounded by tympanic membrane, 115. Inner ear contains all except, (a) Reissner’s membrane, (c) Cochlea, , (b) Basilar membrane, (d) Stapes
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Neural Control and Co-ordination21.13, , 116. Select the total number of true statement from the following:, (1) Scala vestibuli ends at the oval window., (2) Scala tympani terminates at round window., (3) Vestibular apparatus is located above cochlea., (4) Otolith organ consists of saccule and utricle., (a) 1, (b) 2, (c) 3, 117. Vestibular apparatus consists of, (a) Three semicircular canal, (c) Utricle, , (d) 4, , (b) Saccule, (d) All of these, , 118. Specific receptors of the vestibular apparatus responsible for the maintenance of balance of, the body and posture is, (a) Macula, (b) Crista, (c) Organ of corti, (d) Both (a) and (b), 119. Each semicircular canal lies in a different plane at _________ angle to each other., (b) 60o, (c) 90o, (d) 120o, (a) 45o, 120. In man the receptors stimulated by sound waves are, (a) Organ of corti, (b) Semicircular canal, (c) Utriculus, (d) Sacculus, 121. Scala vestibuli is connected with, (a) Scala media, (c) Scala tympani, , (b) Fenestra ovalis, (d) Fenestra rotundus, , 122. The cochlea of mammalian internal ear is concerned with, (a) Hearing, (b) Balance of body posture, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) Perception changes of atmospheric pressure, 123. Identify the correct sequence of organs/regions in the organization of human ear as an a uditory, mechanoreceptor organ., (a) Pinna–Cochlea–Tympanic membrane–Auditory canal–Malleus–Stapes–Incus–Auditory, nerve, (b) Pinna–Auditory canal–Tympanic membrane–Malleus–Incus–Stapes–Cochlea–Auditory, nerve, (c) Pinna–Tympanic membrane–Auditory canal–Incus–Malleus–Stapes–Cochlea–Auditory, nerve, (d) Pinna–Malleus–Incus–Stapes–Auditory canal–Tympanic membrane–Cochlea–Auditory, nerve, 124. Internal ear is filled with, (a) Perilymph, (b) Endolymph, , (c) Lymph, , 125. Reissner’s membrane is found in, (a) Cochlea of mammal, (c) Heart of mammal, , (b) Eye of mammal, (d) Nasal duct of mammal, , (d) Both (a) and (b), , 126. In the internal ear, the organ of Corti which bears hair cells is located in, (a) Sacculus, (b) Scala media, (c) Scala tympani, (d) Scala vestibuli
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21.14, , Neural Control and Co-ordination, , 127. Equilibrium of the body is maintained by, (a) Sacculus and cochlea, (c) Eustachian tube, , (b) Semicircular canals and utriculus, (d) Ear ossicles, , 128. Which of the following senses is affected if the tectorial membrane is removed from human?, (a) Balance, (b) Hearing, (c) Vision, (d) Smell, 129. Malleus (hammer shape), incus (anvil shape) and stapes (stirrup shape) are present in, (a) Internal ear of frog, (b) Middle ear of human, (c) Eye of rabbit, (d) Eye of frog, 130. The waxy substance that coats the surface of auditory canal is produced by, (a) Harderian glands, (b) Meibomian glands, (c) Zeis glands, (d) Ceruminous glands (sebaceous gland), 131. Macula in man are present in, (a) Semicircular canals, (c) Sacculus, , (b) Utriculus, (d) Both utriculus and sacculus, , 132. Which of the following parts in your body is concerned with the sense of balance?, (a) Eustachian tube, (b) Cochlea, (c) Eardrum, (d) Semicircular canals, 133. The fluid present in the semicircular canals of the internal ear of human is, (a) Endolymph, (b) Perilymph, (c) Lymph, (d) Coelomic fluid, 134. Identify A, B, C, D, E, F and G in the given figure., G, F, , A, , E, , B, D, , C, , (a) A–Scala vestibuli, B–Tectorial membrane, C–Scala tympani, D–Basilar membrane,, E–Organ of corti, F–Scala media, G–Reissner’s membrane, (b) A–Scala tympani, B–Reissner’s membrane, C–Scala vestibuli, D–Basilar membrane,, E–Scala media, F–Organ of corti, G–Tectorial membrane, (c) A–Reissner’s membrane, B–Tectorial membrane, C–Scala media, D–Organ of corti,, E–Scala vestibuli, F–Scala tympani, G–Basilar membrane, (d) A–Tectorial membrane, B–Scala tympani, C–Reissner’s membrane, D–Basilar membrane,, E–Scala vestibuli, F–Scala vestibuli, G–Organ of corti, 135. Which one of the following is not a part of ear?, (a) Eustachian tube, (b) Cone cell, (c) Utriculus, (d) Sacculus
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Neural Control and Co-ordination21.15, , 136. The base of semicircular canals is swollen and is called _________ which contain a projecting, ridges called _________ which ahs hair cells., (a) Papilla, macula ampullaris, (b) Ampulla, crista ampullaris, (c) Ampulla, macula ampullaris, (d) Macula, crista ampullaris, 137. Otolith organ consist of, (a) Saccule, (c) Semicircular canal, , (b) Utricle, (d) Both (a) and (c), , 138. Select the correct statement:, (a) Neural system co-ordinates and integrates functions as well as metabolic and homeostatic, activities of all organs, (b) Chemical involved in the transmission of impulse at chemical synapses are always proteins, (c) The electrical potential difference across the resting neural membrane is called the action, potential, (d) Organ of Corti influenced by gravity and movement and helps in maintaining balance of, the body and posture, , Assertion and Reason Questions, Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given, below:, (a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the, assertion., (b) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the, assertion., (c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false., (d) If both the assertion and reason are false., 139. Assertion: The sensation of different colours are produced by various combinations of five, types of cones found in our eyes., Reason: Cones are responsible for vision in dim light., 140. Assertion: Nerve impulse can never be transmitted from dendrite or cell body of one neuron, to the axon of the next neuron, across a synapse., Reason: This happens because of the synaptic delay at each synapse., 141. Assertion: After hearing a sound, the nerve impulse passes from neurons to the brain., Reason: The neurons which pass nerve impulses from the body organ to the brain is called, afferent neuron., 142. Assertion: Cerebrospinal fluid is present throughout the central nervous system., Reason: CSF has no function., 143. Assertion: The cerebellum has very convoluted surface., Reason: It provides additional space for many more neurons., 144. Assertion: Some areas of the brain and spinal cord look white., Reason: This is because cell bodies of neurons are situated in those areas.
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21.16, , Neural Control and Co-ordination, , 145. Assertion: Motor neuron terminates on a motor end plate at the neuromuscular junction., Reason: Motor endplate acts as receptor for detecting changes in the muscle fibres., 146. Assertion: Crista and macula are the specific receptors of vestibular apparatus responsible for, the maintenance of balance of the body and posture., Reason: Cochlea helps in hearing., 147. Assertion: Spinal cord has a column of both grey and white matter., Reason: Grey matter forms the central spinal canal., 148. Assertion: All motor neurons are efferent neurons., Reason: Motor neurons conduct nerve impulses from the spinal cord to the brain., 149. Assertion: The chemical stored in the synaptic vesicles are termed as neurotransmitters., Reason: Synaptic vesicles release these chemicals in the synaptic cleft., 150. Assertion: Medulla oblongata causes reflex actions like vomiting, coughing and sneezing., Reason: It has many nerve cells which controls autonomic reflexes., 151. Assertion: Transmission of the nerve impulse across a synapse is accomplished by, neurotransmitters., Reason: Transmission across a synapse usually requires neurotransmitters because there is, small space, i.e., synaptic cleft, that separates one neuron from another., 152. Assertion: The place in retina from which the optic nerve leaves is known as blind spot., Reason: Because this place is devoid of photoreceptor cells., 153. Assertion: Cornea transplants are successful., Reason: Cornea is avascular and so there is no reaction of immune system., 154. Assertion: Owl can see at night., Reason: They possess a large number of rods and few cones in their retina., 155. Assertion: Vitamin – A deficiency produce night blindness., Reason: Vitamin – A forms retinal, a component of visual pigments in rods and cones., 156. Assertion: Surface of cerebrum is highly folded., Reason: To increase the area for having more neurons., 157. Assertion: Person fails to hear by destroying temporal lobe., Reason: Temporal lobe having auditory area., 158. Assertion: Conditioned reflex requires previous experience., Reason: It is controlled by cerebrum initially., 159. Assertion: In a myelinated nerve fibre the impulse jumps from one node of Ranvier to the, other., Reason: Exchange of ions takes place only at node of Ranvier., 160. Assertion: No image is formed at the exit of optic nerve., Reason: It lacks the receptor cells and is insensitive to light., 161. Assertion: Unmyelinated fibres are without myelin sheath., Reason: Schwann cells are absent in unmyelinated fibres.
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Neural Control and Co-ordination21.17, , 162. Assertion: Ionic gradient is present across the resting membrane in nerve fibre., Reason: It is due to active transport of ion by sodium and potassium pump., 163. Assertion: Hypothalamus is called thermostat of body., Reason: Hypothalamus contain centre for thermoregulation., 164. Assertion: Cerebral cortex is referred as the white matter., Reason: It is due to its whitish appearance., 165. Assertion: We can equalise pressure on either side of ear drum., Reason: Eustachian tube connects inner ear with pharynx., 166. Assertion: Impulse transmission across an electrical synapse is always faster than that across, a chemical synapse., Reason: At electrical synapses, the membranes of pre- and post-synaptic neurons are in very, close proximity., , previous year questions, 1. Select the answer with correct matching of the structure, its location and function., , [A: Structure, B: Location, C: Function], , , [AIPMT MAINS 2010], , Structure, , Location, , Function, , (a) Eustachian tube, , Anterior part of internal ear, , Equalizes air pressure on either, sides of tympanic membrane., , (b) Cerebellum, , Mid-brain, , Controls respiration and gastric, secretions., , (c) Hypothalamus, , Fore-brain, , Controls body temperature, urge for, eating and drinking., , (d) Blind spot, , Near the place where optic Rods and cones are present but, nerve leaves the eye, inactive here., , 2. The nerve centres which control the body temperature and the urge for eating are contained in, , [AIPMT PRE 2010], (a) Hypothalamus, (b) Pons, (c) Cerebellum, (d) Thalamus, 3. The purplish red pigment rhodopsin contained in the rods type of photoreceptor cells of the, human eyes is a derivative of, , [AIPMT PRE 2011], (a) Vitamin C, (b) Vitamin D, (c) Vitamin A, (d) Vitamin B, 4. When a neuron is in a resting state, i.e., not conducting any impulse, the axonal membrane is, , [AIPMT PRE 2011]
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21.18, , (a), (b), (c), (d), , Neural Control and Co-ordination, , Equally permeable to both Na+ and K+ ions., Impermeable to both Na+ and K+ ions., Comparatively more permeable to K+ ions and nearly impermeable to Na+ ions., Comparatively more permeable to Na+ ions and nearly impermeable to K+ ions., , 5. The human hind-brain comprises three parts, one of which is, , (a) Spinal cord, (b) Corpus callosum, (c) Cerebellum, (d) Hypothalamus, , [AIPMT PRE 2012], , 6. Which part of the human ear plays no role in hearing as such but is otherwise very much, required?, , [AIPMT PRE 2012], (a) Eustachian tube, (b) Organ of Corti, (c) Vestibular apparatus, (d) Ear ossicles, 7. A person entering an empty room suddenly finds a snake right in front of the opening of door., Which one of the following is likely to happen in his neuro-hormonal control system?, , [AIPMT PRE 2012], (a) Sympathetic nervous system is activated releasing epinephrine and norepinephrin efrom, adrenal medulla., (b) Neurotransmitters diffuse rapidly across the cleft and transmit a nerve impulse., (c) Hypothalamus activates the parasympathetic division of brain., (d) Sympathetic nervous system is activated releasing epinephrine and the system is activated, releasing epinephrine and norepinephrine from adrenal cortex., 8. A diagram showing axon terminal and synapse is given. Identify correctly at least two of, A to D., , C, B, , D, , A, , , (a), (b), (c), (d), , [AIPMT 2013], A – Receptor C – Synaptic vesicles, B – Synaptic connections D – K+, A – Neurotransmitter B – Synaptic cleft, C – Neurotransmitter D – Ca++, , 9. The parts A, B, C and D of the human eye are shown in the diagram. Select the option which, gives the correct identification along with its function/characteristics.
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Neural Control and Co-ordination21.19, , C, Lens, , B, , Iris, A, D, , , (a), (b), (c), (d), , [AIPMT 2013], A – Retina – Contains photoreceptors rods and cones, B – Blind spot – Has only a few rods and cones, C – Aqueous chamber – Reflects the light which does not pass through the lens, D – Choroid – Its anterior part forms ciliary body, , 10. Injury localized to the hypothalamus would most likely disrupt the, , (a) Short-term memory, (b) Coordination during locomotion, (c) Executive functions, such as decision making, (d) Regulation of body temperature, , [AIPMT 2014], , 11. Which one of the following statements is not correct?, , [AIPMT 2014], (a) Retinal is the light absorbing portion of visual photo pigments., (b) In retina the rods have the photopigment rhodopsin while cones have three different, photopigments., (c) Retinal is a derivative of Vitamin C., (d) Rhodopsin is the purplish red protein present in rods only., 12. Which of the following regions of the brain is incorrectly paired with its function?, , [AIPMT 2015], (a) Medulla oblongata – Homeostatic control, (b) Cerebellum – Language comprehension, (c) Corpus callosum – Communication between the left and right cerebral cortices, (d) Cerebrum – Calculation and contemplation, 13. A gymnast is able to balance his body upside down even in the total darkness because of, , [AIPMT 2015], (a) Cochlea, (b) Vestibular apparatus, (c) Tectorial membrane, (d) Organ of corti, 14. In mammalian eye, the ‘fovea’ is the centre of the visual field, where, , (a) The optic nerve leaves the eye, (b) Only rods are present, (c) More rods than cones are found, (d) High density of cones occur, but has no rods, , [RE-AIPMT 2015]
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21.20, , Neural Control and Co-ordination, , 15. Destruction of the anterior horn cells of the spinal cord would result in loss of, , [RE-AIPMT 2015], (a) Voluntary motor impulse, (b) Commissural impulses, (c) Integrating impulses, (d) Sensory impulses, 16. Photosensitive compound in human eye is made up of:, [NEET - I, 2016], (a) Guanosine and Retinol, (b) Opsin and Retinal, (c) Opsin and Retinol, (d) Transducin and Retinene, 17. Choose the correct statement., [NEET - II, 2016], (a) Meissner’s corpuscles are thermoreceptors, (b) , Photoreceptors in the human eye are depolarised during darkness and become, hyperpolarized in response to the light stimulus, (c) Receptors do not produce graded potentials, (d) Nociceptors respond to changes in pressure, , NCERT Exemplar Questions, 1. Chemicals which are released at the synaptic junction are called, (a) Hormones, (b) Neurotransmitters, (c) Cerebrospinal fluid, (d) Lymph, 2. The potential difference across resting membrane is negatively charged. This is due to differential distribution of the following ions., (b) CO3++ and Cl- ions, (a) Na+ and K+ ions, (d) Ca+ + and Cl- ions, (c) Ca+ + and Mg+ + ions, 3. Resting membrane potential is maintained by, (a) Hormones, (c) Ion pumps, , (b) Neurotransmitters, (d) None of these, , 4. The function of our visceral organs is controlled by, (a) Sympathetic and somatic neural system, (b) Sympathetic and parasympathetic neural system, (c) Central and somatic nervous system, (d) None of these, 5. Which of the following is not involved in knee-jerk reflex?, (a) Muscle spindle, (b) Motor neuron, (c) Brain, , (d) Inter-neurons, , 6. An area in the brain which is associated with strong emotions is, (a) Cerebral cortex, (b) Cerebellum, (c) Limbic system, (d) Medulla, 7. Mark the vitamin present in Rhodopsin, (a) Vitamin A, (b) Vitamin B, , (c) Vitamin C, , 8. Human eyeball consists of three layers and it encloses, (a) Lens, iris, optic nerve, (b) Lens, aqueous humour and vitreous humour, , (d) Vitamin D
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Neural Control and Co-ordination21.21, , (c) Cornea, lens, iris, (d) Cornea, lens, optic nerve, 9. Wax gland present in the ear canal is called, (a) Sweat gland, (c) Cowper’s gland, , (b) Prostate gland, (d) Sebaceous gland/ceruminous gland, , 10. The part of internal ear responsible for hearing is, (a) Cochlea, (b) Semicircular canal, (c) Utriculus, (d) Sacculus, 11. The organ of Corti is a structure present in, (a) External ear, (c) Semicircular canal, , (b) Middle ear, (d) Cochlea, , 12. While travelling to higher altitudes, people can feel pain in the ear and dizziness. Which part,, among the following causes such complications?, (a) Cochlea, ear ossicles, (b) Tympanic membrane, (c) Eustachian tube, utricle, saccule and semicircular canals, (d) None of these, , Answer Keys, Practice Questions, 1. (c), 11. (c), 20. (b), 30. (a), 40. (c), 50. (a), 60. (d), 70. (c), 80. (d), 90. (b), 100. (c), 110. (d), 120. (a), 130. (d), , 2. (a), 12. (d), 21. (d), 31. (d), 41. (c), 51. (c), 61. (d), 71. (a), 81. (a), 91. (d), 101. (b), 111. (d), 121. (c), 131. (d), , 3. (a), 13. (b), 22. (b), 32. (d), 42. (c), 52. (c), 62. (d), 72. (a), 82. (b), 92. (a), 102. (d), 112. (c), 122. (a), 132. (d), , 4. (c), 5. (c), 14. (i) (c) (ii) (a), 23. (d) 24. (d), 33. (a) 34. (d), 43. (b) 44. (d), 53. (b) 54. (c), 63. (a) 64. (c), 73. (b) 74. (b), 83. (b) 84. (c), 93. (a) 94. (b), 103. (b) 104. (d), 113. (d) 114. (c), 123. (b) 124. (d), 133. (a) 134. (a), , 6. (c), 15. (a), 25. (d), 35. (b), 45. (a), 55. (c), 65. (c), 75. (a), 85. (a), 95. (b), 105. (b), 115. (d), 125. (a), 135. (b), , 7. (a), 16. (c), 26. (a), 36. (d), 46. (d), 56. (b), 66. (b), 76. (d), 86. (d), 96. (b), 106. (a), 116. (d), 126. (b), 136. (b), , 8. (a), 17. (c), 27. (d), 37. (d), 47. (d), 57. (d), 67. (d), 77. (d), 87. (d), 97. (a), 107. (c), 117. (d), 127. (b), 137. (d), , 9. (a) 10. (c), 18. (b) 19. (d), 28. (d) 29. (c), 38. (b) 39. (d), 48. (c) 49. (a), 58. (c) 59. (c), 68. (d) 69. (a), 78. (b) 79. (d), 88. (b) 89. (d), 98. (c) 99. (c), 108. (d) 109. (c), 118. (d) 119. (c), 128. (b) 129. (b), 138. (a), , Assertion and Reason Questions, 139. (a) 140. (c) 141. (c) 142. (c) 143. (a) 144. (c) 145. (c) 146. (b) 147. (b) 148. (c), 149. (b) 150. (a) 151. (a) 152. (a) 153. (a) 154. (a) 155. (a) 156. (a) 157. (a) 158. (a), 159. (a) 160. (a) 161. (c) 162. (a) 163. (a) 164. (d) 165. (c) 166. (a)
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21.22, , Neural Control and Co-ordination, , Previous Year Questions, 1. (c), 11. (c), , 2. (a), 12. (b), , 3. (c), 13. (b), , 4. (c), 14. (d), , 5. (c), 15. (a), , 6. (c), 16. (b), , 7. (a), 17. (b), , 8. (a), , 9. (a), , 10. (d), , 8. (b), , 9. (d), , 10. (a), , NCERT Exemplar Questions, 1. (b), 11. (d), , 2. (a), 12. (c), , 3. (c), , 4. (b), , 5. (c), , 6. (c), , 7. (a)
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Chemical, Co-ordination, and Integration, , CHAPTER, , 22, , prACtiCe Questions, Endocrine Glands and Hormones, 1. Select the incorrect statement from the following:, (a) Neural system provides point to point rapid coordination among organs., (b) Neural coordination is fast., (c) Neural coordination is short-lived., (d) Nerve fibres innervates all the cells of body so cellular function be continuously regulated., 2. Which system jointly coordinates and regulates the physiological functions in the body?, (a) Nervous system, (b) Endocrine system, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) Excretory system, 3. Hormonal system is very important because, (a) Neural coordination is fast, (b) Nerve fibres do not innervate all the cells of body., (c) Neural system provides point to point coordination among organs., (d) Neural coordination is short-lived., 4. Endocrine glands, (a) Are ductless, (c) Pour their secretion in blood, , (b) Secrete hormones, (d) All of these, , 5. Identify A to F in the given figure., C, , B, , A, D, E, , F
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22.2, , Chemical Co-ordination and Integration, , (a) A–Hypothalamus, B–Pineal, C–Thymus, D–Adrenal, E–Pituitary, F–Thyroid and, parathyroid, (b) A–Pituitary, B–Pineal, C–Hypothalamus, D–Thyroid and parathyroid, E–Thymus,, F–Adrenal, (c) A–Thymus, B–Pituitary, C–Thyroid and parathyroid, D–Pineal, E–Hypothalamus,, F–Adrenal, (d) A–Pineal, B–Thyroid and parathyroid, C–Pituitary, D–Hypothalamus, E–Adrenal, F–Pineal, 6. Hormones are, (a) Non-nutrient chemicals, (c) Produced in traces, , (b) Intercellular messengers, (d) All of these, , 7. Select from the following the total number of endocrine glands:, , Pituitary, pineal, thyroid, parathyroid, adrenal, pancreas, thymus, gonads, (a) 7, (b) 8, (c) 6, (d) 5, 8. The following organs produce hormones except, (a) GIT, (b) Liver and kidney, (c) heart, (d) urinary bladder, 9. Hypothalamus contains several groups of neurosecretory cells called _________ which, produce hormones., (a) Ganglion, (b) Plexus, (c) Nuclei, (d) Astrocytes, 10. Hypothalamus is a part of, (a) Forebrain, (c) Hindbrain, , (b) Mid-brain, (d) None of these, , 11. Hypothalamus is, (a) Roof of diencephalon, (c) Lateral wall of diencephalon, , (b) Basal part of diencephalon, (d) All of these, , 12. Hypothalamus directly regulates the _________ endocrine gland., (a) Pituitary, (b) Thyroid, (c) Thymus, , (d) Pancreas, , 13. Releasing hormones and inhibiting hormones are produced by, (a) Pituitary, (b) Thyroid, (c) Thymus, , (d) Hypothalamus, , 14. Pars distalis produces how many trophic hormones?, (a) 4, (b) 5, (c) 6, , (d) 8, , 15. The following hormones are released by hypothalamus except, (a) GnRH, (b) Somatostatin, (c) TSH–RH, (d) PRL, 16. Select the incorrect statement from following:, (a) Invertebrates possess very simple endocrine system., (b) Anterior pituitary is under control of hypothalamus by portal system., (c) Posterior pituitary is under direct neural regulation of hypothalamus., (d) Hypothalamus secretes tropic hormones.
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Chemical Co-ordination and Integration22.3, , 17. Which of the following is incorrect about pituitary?, (a) Located in bony cavity called sella turcica., (b) Attached to hypothalamus by stalk., (c) Divided anatomically into adenohypophysis and neurohypophysis., (d) Secretes released and inhibitory hormones., 18. Identify A to E in the given figure., A, B, , C, D, E, , (a) A–Hypothalamus, B–Hypothalamic neurons, C–Portal circulation, D–Posterior pituitary,, E–Anterior pituitary, (b) Posterior pituitary, B–Hypothalamic neurons, C–Hypothalamus, D–Anterior pituitary,, E–Posterior pituitary, (c) A–Anterior pituitary, B–Portal circulation, C–Hypothalamus, D–Posterior pituitary,, E–Hypothalamic neurons, (d) A–Hypothalamic neurons, B–Posterior pituitary, C–Anterior pituitary, D–Portal, circulation, E–Hypothalamus, 19. Adenohypophsyis consists of, (a) Pars distalis, (c) Pars nervosa, , (b) Pars intermedia, (d) Both (a) and (b), , 20. Neurohypophysis consist of, (a) Pars distalis, (b) Pars intermedia, , (c) Pars nervosa, , (d) All of these, , 21. Which is commonly called anterior pituitary?, (a) Pars distalis, (b) Pars intermedia, (c) Pars nervosa, , (d) All of these, , 22. Which is commonly called posterior pituitary?, (a) Pars distalis, (b) Pars intermedia, (c) Pars nervosa, , (d) All of these, , 23. Which of the following hormones are secreted by pars distalis (find out total numbers)?, , GH, PRL, MSH, FSH, LH, TSH, ACTH, ADH, (a) 4, (b) 5, (c) 6, (d) 8, 24. Pars intermedia secretes, (a) Follicle stimulating hormone, (c) Melatonin, , (b) Melanocyte stimulating hormone, (d) Prolactin
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22.4, , Chemical Co-ordination and Integration, , 25. Posterior pituitary stores and release two hormones, (a) Oxytocin, (b) Vasopressin (ADH), (c) Growth hormone, (d) Both (a) and (b), 26. Where is oxytocin and ADH synthesized?, (a) Ant pituitary, (b) Post pituitary, , (c) Hypothalamus, , (d) Thalamus, , 27. Which of the following hormones regulate the growth of the mammary glands and formation, of milk?, (a) GH, (b) TSH, (c) Prolactin (PRL), (d) ACTH, 28. Which of the hormone stimulates the synthesis and secretion of thyroid hormone?, (a) GH (Growth Hormone), (b) TSH (Thyroid Stimulating Hormone), (c) PRL (Prolactin), (d) ACTH (Adrenocorticotropic Hormone), 29. Which of the following hormone stimulates the synthesis and secretion of steroid hormones, called glucocorticoids from the adrenal cortex?, (a) TSH, (b) ACTH, (c) LH, (d) FSH, 30. _________ stimulates the synthesis and secretion of hormone called androgens from testis., (a) FSH, (b) ACTH, (c) LH = ICSH, (d) GH, 31. _________ induces ovulation of fully mature follicle (Graffian follicles) and maintains the, corpus luteum, formed from the remnants of the graffian follicles after ovulation., (a) FSH, (b) ACTH, (c) LH, (d) GH, 32. _________ stimulate growth and development of ovarian follicles in females., (a) FSH, (b) LH, (c) PRL, (d) TSH, 33. Which of the following hormones of anterior pituitary together called gonadotropins?, (a) LH and ACTH, (b) FSH and LH, (c) TSH and PRL, (d) MSH and LH, 34. Over-secretion of GH (growth hormone) in child leads to, (a) Dwarfism, (b) Cretinism, (c) Gigantism, (d) Tetany, 35. Low secretion of GH in child leads to, (a) Pituitary dwarfism, (c) Cretinism, , (b) Gigantism, (d) Tetany, , 36. _________ acts on the smooth muscles of our body and stimulate their contraction., (a) LH, (b) FSH, (c) Oxytocin, (d) GH, 37. In females _________ stimulates a vigorous contraction of uterus at the time of child birth., (a) LH, (b) FSH, (c) Oxytocin, (d) Relaxin, 38. From which part of nephron ADH stimulates reabsorption of water and electrolyte?, (a) PCT, (b) HL, (c) Distal tubules, (d) Bowman capsule, 39. Whoch of the following hormone is known as antidiuretic hormone?, (a) Oxytocin, (b) Prolactin, (c) Luteinizing Hormone, (d) Vasopressin
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Chemical Co-ordination and Integration22.5, , 40. Diuresis is reduced by, (a) Oxytocin, (c) Luteinizing hormone, , (b) Prolactin, (d) Vasopressin, , 41. _________ acts on melanocyte (melanin contains cells) and regulates pigmentation of skin., (a) LH, (b) Melatonin, (c) FSH, (d) TSH, 42. Pineal gland is located on, (a) Dorsal side of mid-brain, (c) Dorsal side of forebrain, , (b) Dorsal side of hindbrain, (d) Vertical side of forebrain, , 43. Pineal gland secretes _________ hormone., (a) MSH, (b) Melatonin, , (c) FSJ, , 44. Melatonin influences, (a) Metabolism, pigmentation, (c) Defence capability, , (b) Menstrual cycle, (d) All of these, , (d) Insulin, , 45. 24 hour diurnal rhythms of our body is maintained by, (a) Melatonin, (b) Glucagon, (c) Thymosin, , (d) Oxytocin, , 46. Menstruation cycle is affected by the following hormones except, (a) Thyroid, (b) Melatonin, (c) Oestrogen, , (d) Oxytocin, , 47. Thin flap of connective tissue which connects two lobes of thyroid is known as, (a) Lobes, (b) Ileum, (c) Isthmus, (d) Ampulla, 48. Which of the following is incorrect about thyroid gland?, (a) It is composed of follicles and stromal tissues., (b) It secretes tetraiodothyronine or thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), TCT., (c) It consists of 4 lobes., (d) It is stimulated by the hormone TSH., 49. Enlargement of thyroid gland is called, (a) Hypothyroidism, (c) Goitre, , (b) Hyperthyroidism, (d) Isthmusa, , 50. The features of cretinism includes, (a) Stunted growth, (c) Abnormal skin and deaf mutism, , (b) Mental retardation and low IQ, (d) All of these, , 51. Hypothyroidism during pregnancy causes defective development and maturation of growing, baby leading to, (a) Addison’s disease, (b) Cretinism, (c) Creatinine, (d) Tetany, 52. Hypothyroidism is caused by, (a) Cancer of thyroid gland, (c) Iodine deficiency, , (b) Development of nodule of thyroid gland, (d) Both (a) and (b), , 53. Hypothyroidism causes, (a) Irregular menstrual cycle, (c) Reduced production of RBC, , (b) Reduced BMR, (d) All of these
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22.6, , Chemical Co-ordination and Integration, , 54. Thyroid gland secretes, (b) T4, (a) T3, , (c) TCT, , (d) All of these, , 55. Thyroid controls the metabolism of, (a) Carbohydrates, (b) Proteins, , (c) Lipids (fat), , (d) All of these, , 56. A. Melatonin influences menstrual cycle and our defence capability., B. In adult women, hypothyroidism may cause menstrual cycle to become irregular., C. Protein hormone secreted by thyroid, TCT (Thyrocalcitonin) regulates the blood calcium, level., D. Maintenance of water and electrolytes balance is also influenced by thyroid hormone., E. Oxytocin causes milk ejection from mammary gland., , Select the correct statement:, (a) A, B and C only, (b) A, B, C and E only, (c) All except D, (d) All statements are correct, 57. Which of the following hormones affect Ca2+ ion metabolism?, (a) TCT (Thyrocalcitonin) , (b) Parathyroid hormone (PTH), (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) Cortisol, 58. The full form of PTH is, (a) Parathyroid hormone, (c) Prothyroid hormone, , (b) Prethyroid hormone, (d) Pretectile hormone, , 59. PTH is, (a) protein hormone, (c) Biogenic amines, , (b) Peptide hormone, (d) Steroid, , 60. The process by which PTH increases blood ca2+ level except, (a) , Acts on bones and stimulates the process of bone reabsorption/dissolution/, demineralization., (b) Reabsorption of ca2+ by the renal tubules., (c) Increases ca2+ absorption from the digested food., (d) Increases osteoblastic activity., 61. Which of the following is correct about thymus?, (a) Globular structure located on the dorsal side of the heart and aorta., (b) It plays minor role in the development of the immune system., (c) The thymus size increases with age., (d) Thymus doesn’t affect the production of antibodies., 62. Thymosin is, (a) Peptide hormone, (c) Helps in RBC production, , (b) Secreted by pituitary, (d) Decreases WBC production, , 63. Which gland plays major role in the differentiation of T-lymphocyte?, (a) Thyroid, (b) Thymus, (c) Adrenal, , (d) Gonads, , 64. Immune response of old persons are weak because, (a) Thymus is degenerated in old individual (b) Thymus production decreases, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) None of these
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Chemical Co-ordination and Integration22.7, , 65. The position of adrenal gland is, (a) Anterior part of each kidney, (c) Ventral part of each kidney, , (b) Posterior part of each kidney, (d) Dorsal part of each kidney, , 66. The term ‘Cortex’ is used in, (a) Brain, (b) Kidney, , (c) Adrenal gland, , (d) All of these, , 67. The adrenal medulla secretes two hormones called adrenaline or epinephrine and nor-adrenaline or nor-epinephrine. These are commonly known as, (a) Steroids, (b) Terpenes, (c) Catecholamine, (d) Cytokinin, 68. Emergency hormone and hormones of fight are, (a) Adrenalin, (b) Noradrenaline, (c) Cortisol, (d) Both (a) and (b), 69. A. Increase alertness, B. Pupilary constriction, C. Piloerection, D. Increase heart rate, E. Increase respiratory rate, F. Sweating, , Which of the above are effects of adrenaline/Noradrenaline?, (a) All except C, (b) All except B and F, (c) All except B, (d) All except B,E and F, 70. Catecholamine causes, (a) Glycogenolysis, (b) Proteolysis, , (c) Lipolysis, , 71. Glucocorticoid causes all except, (a) Proteolysis, (c) Glycogenolysis, , (b) Lipolysis, (d) Gluconeogenesis, , 72. Histological adrenal cortex is divided into how many layers?, (a) 1, (b) 2, (c) 3, , (d) All of these, , (d) 4, , 73. Which of the following layers are present in the adrenal cortex from inner to outer?, (a) zona reticularis, zona fasciculata, zona glomerulosa, (b) zona fasciculata, zona glomerulosis, zona reticularis, (c) Zona glomerulosa, zona reticularis, zona fasciculata, (d) Zona glomerulosa, zona fasciculata, zona reticularis, 74. The adrenal cortex secretes many hormones commonly called, (a) Catecholamine, (b) Peptide, (c) Corticoids, (d) All of these, 75. In our body the main glucocorticoid is, (a) Adrenaline, (b) Aldosterone, , (c) ADH, , (d) Cortisol, , 76. In our body the main mineral corticoid is, (a) Adrenaline, (b) Aldosterone, , (c) ADH, , (d) Cortisol
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22.8, , Chemical Co-ordination and Integration, , 77. Which of the following is incorrect about glucocorticoid?, (a) Inhibits cellular uptake and utilization of amino acids., (b) Maintains cardio vascular system as well as kidney function., (c) Anti-inflammatory and suppresses the immune response., (d) Glucocorticoid stimulates gluconeogenesis, lipogenesis and proteolysis., 78. Which of the following are effects of cortisol?, (a) Anti-inflammatory, (b) Immunosuppressant, (c) Increases RBC production, (d) All of these, 79. Aldosterone causes all except, (a) Reabsorption of electrolyte and water from renal tubule, (b) Excretion of K+, (c) Excretion of PO3-4 ion, (d) Absorption of K+, 80. Aldosterone helps in the maintenance of, (a) Electrolyte and body fluid volume, (c) Blood pressure, , (b) Osmotic pressure, (d) All of these, , 81. Androgenic steroids are also secreted by adrenal cortex which causes, (a) Growth of axial hair, (b) Growth of pubic hair, (c) Growth of facial hair, (d) All of these, 82. Adrenal cortex secretes all except, (a) Cortisol, (c) Androgenic steroid, , (b) Aldosterone, (d) Relaxin, , 83. 1 to 2 million Islets of Langerhans in a human pancreas represents _________ per cent of the, pancreatic tissue., (a) 2–3, (b) 4–6, (c) 10, (d) 1–2, 84. Islet of langerhans consists of, (a) ∝–cells, (b) β cells, , (c) δ–cells, , (d) All of these, , 85. The following are petide hormones except, (a) Insulin, (b) PTH, , (c) Thymosin, , (d) T4, , 86. A. Acts mainly on liver cells, B. Stimulate glycogenolysis, C. Stimulate gluconeogenesis, D. Reduces glucose uptake and utilization, , Which of the following is correct about the action of glucagon from the above statements?, (a) A and B only, (b) B and C only, (c) A, B and C only (d) All of these, 87. Select the incorrect statement:, (a) Insulin and glucagon are peptide hormones., (b) , Insulin acts mainly on hepatocyte and adipocytes and enhance glucose uptake and, utilization., (c) Insulin stimulates glycogenesis., (d) Glucagon inhibits the process of gluconeogenesis.
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Chemical Co-ordination and Integration22.9, , 88. Following are the functions of insulin except, (a) Glycogenesis, (b) ↑ Glucose utilization by hepatocyte, (c) ↑ Glucose utilization by adipocyte, (d) Gluconeogenesis, 89. Diabetes mellitus is characterized by, (a) Ketonuria, (c) Prolonged hyperglycemia, , (b) Glycosuria, (d) All of these, , 90. Select the correct matching., (a) Insulin — ↓es the uptake of glucose utilization by hepatocyte and adipocytes, (b) Cortisol — ↓es RBC production, causes inflammation, (c) Thymosin — Promotes the production of antibodies to provide humoral immunity also, (d) Thyroxine — No role in water and electrolyte balance, 91. Select the incorrect matching., (a) Zona fasciculata — Glucocorticoids, (c) β–cell — Insulin, , (b) ∝–cell — Glucagon, (d) Follicular cells of thyroid — TCT, , 92. Testis act as the, (a) Primary sex organ, (c) Both (a) and (b), , (b) Endocrine gland, (d) None of these, , 93. Leydig cells or interstitial cells secretes, (a) Oestrogens, (b) Progesterone, , (c) Testosterone, , 94. Androgens from the following are, (a) Oestrogens, (c) Testosterone, , (b) Progesterone, (d) Relaxin, , 95. A. Anabolic effect on protein and carbohydrate metabolism., B. Influences male sexual behaviour (libido)., C. Stimulates spermatogenesis., D. Muscular growth, aggressiveness, low pitch voice., , Above are the functions of which of the following hormones?, (a) Oestrogens, (b) Progesterone, (c) Testosterone, , (d) Relaxin, , (d) Relaxin, , 96. Select the total number of male accessory sex organs from the following:, Epididymis, Vas deferens, Seminal vesicle, Prostate, Urethra., (a) 2, (b) 3, (c) 4, (d) 5, 97. Androgen regulates the _________ of male accessory sex organ., (a) Development, (b) Maturation, (c) Function, , (d) All of these, , 98. Testis is composed of, (a) Uriniferous tubules, (c) Nephron, , (b) Seminiferous tubules, (d) Neuron, , 99. Select the correct matching:, (a) Interstitial cells–Testosterone, (c) ∝-cells–Insulin, , (b) β-cells–Glucagon, (d) Follicular cells–TCT
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22.10, , Chemical Co-ordination and Integration, , 100. Which one is correct about testis in human?, (a) Situated in scrotal sacs (outside the abdomen), (b) Consists of seminiferous tubule and Leydig cells, (c) Secretion effect of male sexual behaviour (libido), (d) All of these, Hormones of Heart, Kidney, 101. ANF leads to, (a) Dilation of blood vessels, (c) Both (a) and (b), 102. Match the column:, Column I (Production Site), A. Atrial wall, B. Thyroid gland, C. Parathyroid, D. GIT, (a) A–2, B–4, C–1, D–3, (c) A–4, B–2, C–3, D–1, , (b) ↓es blood pressure, (d) ↑es blood pressure, Column II (Hormones), 1. ANF, 2. PTH, 3. T3,T4, TCT, 4. CCK, GIP, gastrin and secretin, (b) A–1, B–3, C–2, D–4, (d) A–4, B–3, C–2, D–1, , –, –, –, –, , 103. Match the Column:, Hormone, A. Gastrin, , –, , B. Secretin, , –, , C. CCK (Cholesystokinin), , –, , D. GIP (Gastric Inhibitory Peptide), (a) A–3, B–1, C–2, D–4, (c) A–1, B–2, C–3, D–4, , –, , Function, 1. Act on exocrine pancreas and stimulates, the secretion of water and bicarbonate ion, 2. Action both pancrease and gall bladder, and stimulates secretion of pancreatic, enzyme and bile juice respectively., 3. Acts on gastric gland and stimulates the, secretion of HCl and pepsinogen., 4. Inhibits gastric secretion and motility., (b) A–1, B–3, C–4, D–2, (d) A–4, B–3, C–1, D–2, , 104. The _________ of kidney produces peptide hormone called _________ which stimulate, erythropoiesis., (a) Podocyte, Erythropoietin, (b) JG cells, Erythropoietin, (c) JG cells, Rennin, (d) JG cells, Renin, 105. Select the incorrect statement:, (a) GIT secretes four major peptide hormones., (b) Several other non-endocrine tissues secrete hormones called growth factors., (c) Hormone receptors are located in target tissues only., (d) Hormone receptors are non-specific in nature., 106. By which organ the hormones are secreted which are non endocrine gland?, (a) Heart, (b) Kidney, (c) GIT, (d) All of these
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Chemical Co-ordination and Integration22.11, , 107. Select the incorrect matching:, , Hormone target organ, (a) Secretin pancreas, (c) ANF atrial wall, , (b) CCK pancreas and Gallbladder, (d) Gastrin gastric glands, , 108. Match the source gland with its respective hormone as well as the function., Source gland, , Hormone, , Function, , (a) Posterior pituitary Vasopressin, , Stimulates reabsorption of water in the distal, tubules in the nephron, , (b) Corpus luteum, , Supports pregnancy, , Oestrogen, , (c) Thyroid, , Thyroxine, , Regulated blood calcium level, , (d) Anterior, , Oxytocin, , Contraction of uterus muscles during child birth, , 109. Select the total number of peptide hormones from the following:, , Erythropoietin, Gastrin, Secretin, GIP, CCK, Insulin, Glucagon, Thymosin, PTH, ANF, (a) 8, (b) 7, (c) 9, (d) 10, 110. Match the Column I with Column II:, Column I, Column II, A. Peptide, polypeptide protein hormones – 1. Epinephrine, B. Steroid, – 2. T3 and T4 (thyroid hormones), C. Iodothyronines, – 3. Cortisol, testosterone, estradiol,, progesterone, aldosterone, D. Amino acid derivatives, – 4. Pituitary hormones, pancreatic, hormones, hypothalamic hormone, (a) A–1, B–2, C–3, D–4, (b) A–4, B–3, C–2, D–1, (c) A–4, B–3, C–1, D–2, (d) A–1, B–4, C–3, D–2, 111. A steroid hormone typically alters the activity of its target cells by, (a) Changing membrane permeability of cells, (b) Entering the cell and altering gene expression, (c) Activation of IP3, (d) Conversion of ATP to cAMP, 112. Hormone receptors are located in target tissue only. Their position is, (a) In plasma membrane, (b) In cytoplasm, (c) In nucleus, (d) Any of the above depending on type of hormone, 113. Find out the correct statement from the following:, 1) Hormones interact with membrane bound receptors normally do not enter the target cells., 2) Iodothyronines have membrane bound receptors., 3) Hormones which interact with intracellular receptors mostly regulate gene expression., 4) Steroid hormones generate second messengers., (a) 1 and 2 only , (b) 2 and 3 only, (c) 1 and 3 only , (d) 2 and 4 only
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22.12, , Chemical Co-ordination and Integration, , 114. Identify A, B, C and D in the given figure., A, Hormone, (e. g., estrogen), , Nucleus, Genome, B, , C, D, , (a) A–Physiological response, B–Proteins, C–Receptor-hormone complex, D–Uterine cell, membrane, (b) A–Receptor-hormone complex, B–Proteins, C–Uterine cell membrane, D–Physiological, response, (c) A–Uterine cell membrane, B–Receptor-hormone complex, C–Proteins, D–Physiological, response, (d) A–Proteins, B–Uterine cell membrane, C–Physiological response, D–Receptor-hormone, complex, 115. Find the total no. of hormones from the following which binds to intracellular receptors., , Cortisol, Testosterone, T3, Glucagon, Oxytocin, FSH, Progesterone, ICSH, Oestrogen, GH, (a) 4, (b) 5, (c) 6, (d) 7, 116. Which of the following act as secondary messenger?, (b) IP3, (c) cAMP, (a) Ca2+, , (d) All 2Ca 3IP, , 117. Following hormones are iodothyronines, (a) T3, (b) T4, , (c) TCT, , (d) Both (a) and (b), , 118. Which is steroid hormone?, (a) GH, (c) Aldosterone, , (b) Insulin, (d) Epinephrine, , 119. Which of the following hormones do not act by a second messenger system?, (a) GH, (b) Epinephrine, (c) ICSH, (d) Oestrogen, 120. Chemically epinephrine is, (a) Amino acid derivative, (c) Steroid hormone, , (b) Peptide hormone, (d) Iodothyronines, , 121. Which hormone receptors are present in cytoplasm of target cell?, (a) Thyroxin, (b) Oestrogen, (c) Insulin, , (d) All
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Chemical Co-ordination and Integration22.13, , 122. Arrange in sequence, working of ‘FSH’?, (1) Binding to membrane receptor, (2) Biochemical response, (3) Generation of second messenger, (4) Physiological response (ev. Ovarian growth), (a) 1 → 2 → 3 → 4, (b) 1 → 3 → 2 → 4, (c) 4 → 3 → 2 → 1, (d) 3 → 1 → 4 → 2, 123. Which hormone directly affect transcription by acting on gene?, (a) FSH, (b) GH, (c) Oestrogen, , (d) CCK, , 124. Following hormones responsible for maintenance of blood pressure., (a) Aldosterone, (b) Renin, (c) ANF, , (d) All, , Assertion and Reason Questions, Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given, below:, (a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the, assertion., (b) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the, assertion., (c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false., (d) If both the assertion and reason are false., 125. Assertion: Aldosterone increases the volume of blood and other extracellular fluids., Reason: The secretion of aldosterone is stimulated by a fall in the circulating volume of blood., 126. Assertion: FSH is also known as interstitial cell stimulating hormone., Reason: It is because of the fact that FSH stimulates the interstitial cells of testis., 127. Assertion: Oxytocin is also known as Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)., Reason: Oxytocin can cause an increase in the renal reabsorption of water., 128. Assertion: Failure of secretion of thyroid gland hormones from childhood causes cretinism, disease., Reason: Thyrotropin hormone maintains BMR and promotes the growth of body tissues., 129. Assertion: Hormones are similar to enzymes in their action and chemical nature., Reason: Hormones and enzymes are proteinaceous in nature and acts as informational, molecules., 130. Assertion: Glucagon is said to lower down the blood sugar level., Reason: Glucagon increases the utilization of glucose in the tissue and the synthesis of liver, glycogen., 131. Assertion: Prolactin is also called the ‘Milk ejection hormone’., Reason: Prolactin stimulates the smooth muscle contractions of the mammary glands.
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22.14, , Chemical Co-ordination and Integration, , 132. Assertion: A tumor of adrenal cortex may cause addison’s disease., Reason: This happens due to over secretion of cortisol by the tumour., 133. Assertion: Neurohypophysis(Pars nervosa) is also known as posterior pitutary., Reason: Posterior pitutary stores and releases two hormones called oxytocin and vasopressin., 134. Assertion: Vasopressin is also known as antidiueretic hormone., Reason: Vasopressin stimulates the reabsorption of water and electrolyte by distal tubules and, there by reduces diuresis., 135. Assertion: Enlargement of thyroid gland is known as goitre., Reason: Goitre occurs due to the deficiency of iodine only., 136. Assertion: Immune response of old person becomes weak., Reason: Thymus is degenerated in old individuals., 137. Assertion: Adrenal cortex can be removed without causing death., Reason: Adrenal cortex is not vital for survival., 138. Assertion: Failure of secretion of somatotropin from an early age causes dwarfism in the, patient., Reason: Somatotropin hormone stimulates the body growth and elongation of long bones., 139. Assertion: Thyroxine is lipid soluble hormone., Reason: Receptor for thyroxine is situated in cytoplasm., 140. Assertion: Hormones are nutrient substances which act as intercellular messengers., Reason: Hormones are produced in large amount., 141. Assertion: The posterior pituitary is under the direct neural regulation of the hypothalamus., Reason: Hypothalamic Neuron via axon sent their secretion to posterior pituitary for release., 142. Assertion: Over secretion of GH leads to gigantism., Reason: It leads to abnormal growing body., 143. Assertion: Thyroid gland use to regulate blood calcium level., Reason: Thyroid gland use to secret protein hormone called thyrocalcitonin which affects, blood calcium level., 144. Assertion: MSH regulates pigmentation of skin., Reason: MSH acts on melanin containing cells., 145. Assertion: Oxytocin is called ‘birth hormone’., Reason: In female it stimulates a vigorous contraction of smooth muscle of uterus at the time, of child birth., 146. Assertion: Polycythemia is common in hyperthyroidism, Reason: Thyroid hormone accelerate the process of red blood cell formation, 147. Assertion: PTH increases the Ca2+ level in blood, Reason: PTH stimulates the process of bone resorption., 148. Assertion: PTH and thyrocalcitonin have antagonistic effect, Reason: PTH increases where as thyrocalcitonin decreases blood
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Chemical Co-ordination and Integration22.15, , 149. Assertion: Catecholamine increases the concentration of glucose in blood, Reason: Catecholamine stimulates glycogenolysis, 150. Assertion: Cortisol is useful in organ transplantation, Reason: Cortisol suppresses immune response, 151. Assertion: Glucagon is a hypoglycaemic hormone, Reason: Glucagon stimulates glycogenesis, 152. Assertion: Androgen affects male sexual behaviour (Libido), Reason: Oestrogen regulates female sexual behaviour, 153. Assertion: Secretin act on endocrine part of pancreas., Reason: Secretin stimulates secretion of insulin., 154. Assertion: CCK stimulates secretion of bile juice., Reason: CCK act on liver., , previous year questions, 1. Select the correct matching of a hormone, its source and function., , , [AIPMT MAINS 2010], , Hormone, , Source, , Source, , (a) Vasopressin, , Posterior pituitary, , Increases loss of water through, urine, , (b) Norepinephrine, , Adrenal medulla, , Increases heartbeat, rate of, respiration and alterness, , (c) Glucagon, , Beta-cells of islets of, Langerhans, , Stimulates glycogenolysis, , (d) Prolactin, , Posterior pituitary, , Regulates growth of mammary, glands and milk formation in, females, , 2. Injury to adrenal cortex is not likely to affect the secretion of which one of the following?, , [AIPMT PRE 2010], (a) Aldosterone, (b) Both androstenedione and dehydroepiandrosterone, (c) Adrenaline, (d) Cortisol, 3. Low Ca2+ in the body fluid may be the cause of, , (a) Tetany, (b) Anaemia, (c) Angina pectoris, (d) Gout, 4. Which one of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?, , , [AIPMT PRE 2010], , [AIPMT PRE 2010]
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22.16, , Chemical Co-ordination and Integration, , (a) Glucagon, , −, , Beta cells (source), , (a) Somatostatin, , −, , Delta cells (source), , (b) Corpus luteum, , −, , Relaxin (secretion), , (c) Insulin, , −, , Diabetes mellitus (disease), , 5. The toxic agents present in food which interfere with thyroxin synthesis lead to the development of, , [AIPMT PRE 2010], (a) Toxic goitre, (b) Cretinism, (c) Simple goitre, (d) Thyrotoxicosis, 6. Match the source gland with its respective hormone as well as the function., , [AIPMT PRE 2011], Source gland, , Hormone, , Function, , (a) Posterior pituitary, , Vasopressin, , Stimulates reabsorption of water in the, distal tubules in the nephron, , (b) Corpus luteum, , Oestrogen, , Supports pregnancy, , (c) Thyroid, , Thyroxine, , Regulated blood calcium level, , (d) Anterior, , Oxytocin, , Contraction of uterus muscles during, child birth, , 7. Given ahead is an incomplete table about certain hormones, their source glands and one major, effect of each in the human body. Identify the correct option for the three blanks A, B and C., Gland, A, , Secretion, , Effect on body, , Oestrogen, , Maintenance of secondary sexual, characters, , Alpha cells of islets of, Langerhans, , B, , Anterior pituitary, , C, , Raises blood sugar level, Over secretion leads to gigantism, , , Options:, (a) A: Placenta, B: Insulin, C: Vasopressin, (b) A: Ovary, B: Insulin, C: Calcitonin, (c) A: Placenta, B: Glucagon, C: Calcitonin, (d) A: Ovary, B: Glucagon, C: Growth hormone, , [AIPMT PRE 2011], , 8. The 24 hours (diurnal) rhythm of our body such as the sleep-wake cycle is regulated by the, hormone, , [AIPMT MAINS 2011], (a) Calcitonin, (b) Prolactin, (c) Adrenaline, (d) Melatonin
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Chemical Co-ordination and Integration22.17, , 9. The Leydig cells which are found in the human body are the secretory source of, , [AIPMT PRE 2012], (a) Progesterone, (b) Intestinal mucus, (c) Glucagon, (d) Androgens, 10. Which one of the following pairs of hormones are the examples of those that can easily pass, through cell membrane and the target cell and binds to a receptor inside it (mostly in the, nucleus)?, , [AIPMT PRE 2012], (a) Insulin, glucagon, (b) Thyroxin, insulin, (c) Somatostatin, oxytocin, (d) Cortisol, testosterone, 11. What is correct to say about the hormone action in humans?, , [AIPMT PRE 2012], (a) Glucagon is secreted by b-cells of islets of Langerhans and stimulates glycogenolysis., (b) Secretion of thymosins is stimulated with aging., (c) In females, FSH first binds with specific receptors on ovarian cell membrane., (d) FHS stimulates the secretion of oestrogen and progesterone., 12. Which of the following statements is correct in relation to the endocrine system?, , [AIPMT 2013], (a) Adenopophysis is under direct neural regulation of the hypothalamus., (b) Organs in the body like gastrointestinal tract, heart, kidney and liver do not produce any, hormones., (c) Non-nutrient chemicals produced by the body in trace amount that act as intercellular, messenger are known as hormones., (d) Releasing and inhibitory hormones are produced by the pituitary gland, 13. A pregnant female delivers a baby who suffers from stunted growth, mental retardation, low, intelligence quotient and abnormal skin., , [AIPMT 2013], (a) Deficiency of iodine in diet, (b) Low secretion of growth hormone, (c) Cancer of the thyroid gland, (d) Over secretion of pars distalis, 14. Select the answer which correctly matches the endocrine gland with the hormone it secretes and, its function/deficiency symptom. (A: Endocrine gland, B: Hormone, C: Function/deficiency, symptoms), , [AIPMT 2013], A, , B, , C, , (a) Anterior pituitary, , Oxytocin, , Stimulates uterus contraction, during child birth, , (b) Posterior pituitary, , Growth hormone, (GH), , Over secretion stimulates, abnormal growth, , (c) Thyroid, , Thyroxin, , Lack of iodine in diet results in, goitre, , (d) Corpus luteum, , Testosterone, , Stimulates spermatogenesis
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22.18, , Chemical Co-ordination and Integration, , 15. Identify the hormone with its correct matching of source and function:, , [AIPMT 2014], (a) Oxytocin – Posterior pituitary, growth and maintenance of mammary glands, (b) Melatonin – Pineal gland, regulates the normal rhythm of sleepwake cycle, (c) Progesterone – Corpus luteum, stimulation of growth and activities of female secondary, sex organs, (d) Atrial natriuretic factor – Ventricular wall increases the blood pressure., 16. Fight-or-flight reactions can cause the activation of, , [AIPMT 2014, RE-AIPMT 2015], (a) The parathyroid glands, leading to increased metabolic rate., (b) The kidney, leading to suppression of rennin-angiotensin-aldosterone pathway., (c) The adrenal medulla, leading to increased secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrine., (d) The pancreas leading to a reduction in the blood sugar levels., 17. Which one of the following hormones is not involved in sugar metabolism?, , [AIPMT 2015, RE-AIPMT 2015], (a) Aldosterone, (b) Insulin, (c) Glucagon, (d) Cortisone, 18. A chemical signal that has both endocrine and neural roles is, , (a) Melatonin, (b) Calcitonin, (c) Epinephrine, (d) Cortisol, , [AIPMT 2015], , 19. Which one of the following hormones though synthesized elsewhere, is stored and released by, the master gland?, , [RE-AIPMT 2015], (a) Luteinizing hormone, (b) Prolactin, (c) Melanocyte stimulating hormone, (d) Antidiuretic hormone, 20. Which of the following pairs of hormones are not antagonistic (having opposite effects) to, each other?, [NEET - I, 2016], (a) Parathormone–Calcitonin, (b) Insulin–Glucagon, (c) Aldosterone–Atrial Natriuretic Factor, (d) Relaxin–Inhibin, 21. Changes in GnRH pulse frequency in females is controlled by circulating levels of:, , [NEET - I, 2016], (a) Estrogen and progesterone, (b) Estrogen and inhibin, (c) Progesterone only, (d) Progesterone and inhibin, 22. Identify the correct statement on ‘inhibin’:, [NEET - I, 2016], (a) Inhibits the secretion of LH, FSH and Prolactin, (b) Is produced by granulose cells in ovary and inhibits the secretion of FSH, (c) Is produced by granulose cells in ovary and inhibits the secretion of LH, (d) Is produced by nurse cells in testes and inhibits the secretion of LH, 23. Graves’ disease is caused due to, (a) Hypersecretion of thyroid gland, (c) Hypersecretion of adrenal gland, , [NEET - II, 2016], (b) Hyporsecretion of adrenal gland, (d) Hyporsecretion of thyroid gland
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Chemical Co-ordination and Integration22.19, , 24. Name a peptide hormone which acts mainly on hepatocytes, adipocytes and enhances cellular, glucose uptake and utilization., [NEET - II, 2016], (a) Glucagon, (b) Secretion, (c) Gastrin, (d) Insulin, 25. Osteoporosis, an age-related disease of skeletal system, may occur due to [NEET - II, 2016], (a) High concentration of Ca++ and Na+, (b) Decreased level of estrogen, (c) Accumulation of uric acid leading to inflammation of joints, (d) Immune disorder affecting neuromuscular junction leading to fatigue, 26. The posterior pituitary gland is not a ‘true’ endocrine gland because, (a) It only stores and releases hormones, (b) It is under the regulation of hypothalamus, (c) It secretes enzymes, (d) It is provided with a duct, , [NEET - II, 2016], , NCERT Exemplar Questions, 1. Select the right match of endocrine gland and their hormones among the options given below:, A. Pineal i. Epinephrine, B. Thyroid, ii. Melatonin, C. Ovary, iii. Oestrogen, D. Adrenal medulla iv. Tetraiodothyronine, (a) A – iv, B – ii, C – iii, D – i, (b) A – ii, B – iv, C – i, D – iii, (c) A – iv, B – ii, C – i, D – iii, (d) A – ii, B – iv, C – iii, D – i, 2. Listed below are the hormones of anterior pituitary origin. Tick the wrong entry, (a) Growth hormone, (b) Follicle stimulating hormone, (c) Oxytocin, (d) Adrenocorticotropic hormone, 3. Mary is about to face an interview. But during the first five minutes before the interview she, experiences sweating, increased rate of heart beat, respiration, etc. Which hormone is responsible for her restlessness?, (a) Oestrogen and progesterone, (b) Oxytocin and vasopressin, (c) Adrenaline and noradrenaline, (d) Insulin and glucagon, 4. The steroid responsible for the balance of water and electrolytes in our body is, (a) Insulin, (b) Melatonin, (c) Testosterone, (d) Aldosterone, 5. Thymosin is responsible for, (a) Raising the blood sugar level, (c) Increased production of T-Iymphocytes, , (b) Raising blood calcium level, (d) Decrease in blood RBC, , 6. In the mechanism of action of a protein hormone, one of the second messengers is, (a) Cyclic AMP, (b) Insulin, (d) Gastrin, (c) T3
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22.20, , Chemical Co-ordination and Integration, , 7. Leydig cells produce a group of hormones called, (a) Androgens, (b) Oestrogens, (c) Aldosterone, (d) Gonadotropins, 8. Corpus luteum secretes a hormone called, (a) Prolactin, (c) Aldosterone, , (b) Progesterone, (d) Testosterone, , 9. Cortisol is secreted from, (a) Pancreas, (c) Adrenal, , (b) Thyroid, (d) Thymus, , 10. A hormone responsible for normal sleep-wake cycle is, (a) Epinephrine, (b) Gastrin, (c) Melatonin, (d) Insulin, 11. Hormones are called chemical signals that stimulate specific target tissues. Their specificity is, due to the presence of signal receiving ‘receptors’ only in the respective target tissues. Where, are these receptors present in case of hormones of protein nature?, (a) Extracellular matrix, (b) Blood, (c) Plasma membrane, (d) Nucleus, 12. Choose the correct answer among the following options:, (A), (B), (C), (D), , Epinephrine, Testosterone, Glucagon, Atrial natriuretic factor, , (a), (b), (c), (d), , A – ii, B – i, C – iii, D – iv, A – iv, B – i, C – iii, D – ii, A – i, B – ii, C – iii, D – iv, A – i, B – iv, C – ii, D – iii., , (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), , Increase in muscle growth, Decrease in blood pressure, Decrease in liver glycogen content, Increased heart beat, , 13. Blood calcium level is a resultant of how much dietary calcium is absorbed, how much, calcium is lost in the urine, how much bone dissolves releasing calcium into the blood and, how much calcium from blood enters tissues. A number of factors play an important role in, these p rocesses. Mark the one which has no role, (a) Vitamin D, (b) Parathyroid hormone, (c) Thyrocalcitonin, (d) Thymosin, 14. All the following tissues in mammals except one consist of a central ‘medullary’ region surrounded by a cortical region. Mark the wrong entry., (a) Ovary, (b) Adrenal, (c) Liver, (d) Kidney, 15. Which one of the following conditions is not linked to deficiency of thyroid hormones?, (a) Cretinism, (b) Goitre, (c) Myxedema, (d) Exophthalmia
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Chemical Co-ordination and Integration22.21, , Answer Keys, Practice Questions, 1. (d), 2. (c), 3. (b), 4. (d), 5. (b), 6. (d), 7. (b), 8. (d), 9. (c) 10. (a), 11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (d) 16. (d) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (d) 20. (c), 21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (b) 25. (d) 26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (b) 29. (b) 30. (c), 31. (c) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (c) 35. (a) 36. (c) 37. (c) 38. (c) 39. (d) 40. (d), 41. (c) 42. (c) 43. (b) 44. (d) 45. (a) 46. (d) 47. (c) 48. (c) 49. (c) 50. (d), 51. (b) 52. (d) 53. (d) 54. (d) 55. (d) 56. (d) 57. (c) 58. (a) 59. (b) 60. (d), 61. (a) 62. (a) 63. (b) 64. (c) 65. (a) 66. (d) 67. (c) 68. (d) 69. (c) 70. (d), 71. (c) 72. (c) 73. (a) 74. (c) 75. (d) 76. (b) 77. (d) 78. (d) 79. (d) 80. (d), 81. (d) 82. (d) 83. (d) 84. (d) 85. (d) 86. (d) 87. (d) 88. (d) 89. (d) 90. (c), 91. (d) 92. (c) 93. (c) 94. (c) 95. (c) 96. (d) 97. (d) 98. (b) 99. (a) 100. (d), 101. (c) 102. (b) 103. (a) 104. (b) 105. (d) 106. (d) 107. (c) 108. (a) 109. (d) 110. (b), 111. (b) 112. (d) 113. (c) 114. (c) 115. (b) 116. (d) 117. (d) 118. (c) 119. (d) 120. (a), 121. (a) 122. (b) 123. (c) 124. (d), Assertion and Reason Questions, 125. (b), 131. (d), 141. (a), 151. (d), , 126. (d), 132. (d), 142. (a), 152. (b), , 127. (d), 133. (b), 143. (a), 153. (d), , 128. (c) 129. (d) 130. (d), 134. (a) 135. (c) 136. (a) 137. (d) 138. (a) 139. (c) 140. (d), 144. (a) 145. (a) 146. (a) 147. (a) 148. (a) 149. (a) 150. (a), 154. (c), Previous Year Questions, , 1. (b), 11. (c), 21. (b), , 2. (c), 12. (c), 22. (d), , 3. (a), 13. (a), 23. (a), , 4. (a), 14. (c), 24. (d), , 5. (c), 15. (b), 25. (b), , 6. (a), 16. (c), 25. (a), , 7. (d), 17. (a), , 8. (d), 18. (c), , 9. (d), 19. (d), , 10. (d), 20. (d), , 8. (b), , 9. (c), , 10. (c), , NCERT Exemplar Questions, 1. (d), 11. (c), , 2. (c), 12. (b), , 3. (c), 13. (d), , 4. (d), 14. (c), , 5. (c), 15. (d), , 6. (a), , 7. (a)
